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B40.3331
Relative Valuation and Private Company
Valuation
Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran 1
The Essence of relative valuation?
Aswath Damodaran 2
Relative valuation is pervasive…
Aswath Damodaran 3
Why relative valuation?
“If you think I’m crazy, you should see the guy who lives across the hall”
Jerry Seinfeld talking about Kramer in a Seinfeld episode
“ If you are going to screw up, make sure that you have lots of company”
Ex-portfolio manager
Aswath Damodaran 4
So, you believe only in intrinsic value? Here’s why you
should still care about relative value
Aswath Damodaran 5
Multiples are just standardized estimates of price…
You can standardize either the equity value of an asset or the value of the
asset itself, which goes in the numerator.
You can standardize by dividing by the
• Earnings of the asset
– Price/Earnings Ratio (PE) and variants (PEG and Relative PE)
– Value/EBIT
– Value/EBITDA
– Value/Cash Flow
• Book value of the asset
– Price/Book Value(of Equity) (PBV)
– Value/ Book Value of Assets
– Value/Replacement Cost (Tobin’s Q)
• Revenues generated by the asset
– Price/Sales per Share (PS)
– Value/Sales
• Asset or Industry Specific Variable (Price/kwh, Price per ton of steel ....)
Aswath Damodaran 6
The Four Steps to Understanding Multiples
Aswath Damodaran 7
Definitional Tests
Aswath Damodaran 8
Descriptive Tests
What is the average and standard deviation for this multiple, across the
universe (market)?
What is the median for this multiple?
• The median for this multiple is often a more reliable comparison point.
How large are the outliers to the distribution, and how do we deal with the
outliers?
• Throwing out the outliers may seem like an obvious solution, but if the outliers all
lie on one side of the distribution (they usually are large positive numbers), this
can lead to a biased estimate.
Are there cases where the multiple cannot be estimated? Will ignoring these
cases lead to a biased estimate of the multiple?
How has this multiple changed over time?
Aswath Damodaran 9
Analytical Tests
What are the fundamentals that determine and drive these multiples?
• Proposition 2: Embedded in every multiple are all of the variables that drive every
discounted cash flow valuation - growth, risk and cash flow patterns.
• In fact, using a simple discounted cash flow model and basic algebra should yield
the fundamentals that drive a multiple
How do changes in these fundamentals change the multiple?
• The relationship between a fundamental (like growth) and a multiple (such as PE)
is seldom linear. For example, if firm A has twice the growth rate of firm B, it will
generally not trade at twice its PE ratio
• Proposition 3: It is impossible to properly compare firms on a multiple, if we
do not know the nature of the relationship between fundamentals and the
multiple.
Aswath Damodaran 10
Application Tests
Aswath Damodaran 11
Price Earnings Ratio: Definition
Aswath Damodaran 12
PE Ratio: Distribution for the US: January 2004
Aswath Damodaran 13
PE: Deciphering the Distribution
Aswath Damodaran 14
Comparing PE Ratios: US, Europe, Japan and Emerging
Markets Median PE
Japan = 24.74
US = 20.76
Em. Mkts = 18.87
Europe = 15.99
Aswath Damodaran 15
PE Ratio: Understanding the Fundamentals
P0 Payout Ratio * (1 + g n )
= PE =
EPS0 r-gn
If this had been a FCFE Model,
FCFE1
P0 =
r ! gn
P0 (FCFE/Earnings) * (1+ g n )
= PE =
EPS0 r-g n
Aswath Damodaran 16
!
PE Ratio and Fundamentals
Proposition: Other things held equal, higher growth firms will have
higher PE ratios than lower growth firms.
Proposition: Other things held equal, higher risk firms will have lower
PE ratios than lower risk firms
Proposition: Other things held equal, firms with lower reinvestment
needs will have higher PE ratios than firms with higher reinvestment
rates.
Of course, other things are difficult to hold equal since high growth firms,
tend to have risk and high reinvestment rats.
Aswath Damodaran 17
Using the Fundamental Model to Estimate PE For a High
Growth Firm
The price-earnings ratio for a high growth firm can also be related to
fundamentals. In the special case of the two-stage dividend discount model,
this relationship can be made explicit fairly simply:
" (1+ g)n %
EPS0 * Payout Ratio *(1+ g)* $1 !
# (1+ r) n & EPS0 * Payout Ratio n *(1+ g)n *(1+ g n )
P0 = +
r-g (r -g n )(1+ r)n
• For a firm that does not pay what it can afford to in dividends, substitute
FCFE/Earnings for the payout ratio.
Dividing both sides by the earnings per share:
" (1 + g)n %
Payout Ratio * (1 + g) * $ 1 ! '
P0 # (1+ r) n & Payout Ratio n *(1+ g) n * (1 + gn )
= +
EPS0 r -g (r - g n )(1+ r) n
Aswath Damodaran 18
Expanding the Model
In this model, the PE ratio for a high growth firm is a function of growth, risk
and payout, exactly the same variables that it was a function of for the stable
growth firm.
The only difference is that these inputs have to be estimated for two phases -
the high growth phase and the stable growth phase.
Expanding to more than two phases, say the three stage model, will mean that
risk, growth and cash flow patterns in each stage.
Aswath Damodaran 19
A Simple Example
Assume that you have been asked to estimate the PE ratio for a firm which
has the following characteristics:
Variable High Growth Phase Stable Growth Phase
Expected Growth Rate 25% 8%
Payout Ratio 20% 50%
Beta 1.00 1.00
Number of years 5 years Forever after year 5
Riskfree rate = T.Bond Rate = 6%
Required rate of return = 6% + 1(5.5%)= 11.5%
# (1.25) 5 &
0.2 * (1.25) * %1" 5( 5
$ (1.115) ' 0.5 * (1.25) * (1.08)
PE = + = 28.75
(.115 - .25) (.115 - .08) (1.115) 5
!
Aswath Damodaran 20
PE and Growth: Firm grows at x% for 5 years, 8% thereafter
180
160
140
120
100 r=4%
PE Ratio
r=6%
r=8%
80 r=10%
60
40
20
0
5% 10% 15% 20% 25% 30% 35% 40% 45% 50%
Expected Growth Rate
Aswath Damodaran 21
PE Ratios and Length of High Growth: 25% growth for n
years; 8% thereafter
Aswath Damodaran 22
PE and Risk: Effects of Changing Betas on PE Ratio:
Firm with x% growth for 5 years; 8% thereafter
50
45
40
35
30
g=25%
Ratio
g=20%
25
g=15%
PE
g=8%
20
15
10
0
0.75 1.00 1.25 1.50 1.75 2.00
Beta
Aswath Damodaran 23
PE and Payout
Aswath Damodaran 24
I. Assessing Emerging Market PE Ratios - Early 2000
35
30
25
20
15
10
0
Mexico Malaysia Singapore Taiwan Hong Kong Venezuela Brazil Argentina Chile
Aswath Damodaran 25
Comparisons across countries
In July 2000, a market strategist is making the argument that Brazil and
Venezuela are cheap relative to Chile, because they have much lower PE
ratios. Would you agree?
Yes
No
What are some of the factors that may cause one market’s PE ratios to be
lower than another market’s PE?
Aswath Damodaran 26
II. A Comparison across countries: June 2000
Aswath Damodaran 27
Correlations and Regression of PE Ratios
Correlations
• Correlation between PE ratio and long term interest rates = -0.733
• Correlation between PE ratio and yield spread = 0.706
Regression Results
PE Ratio = 42.62 - 3.61 (10’yr rate) + 8.47 (10-yr - 2 yr rate) R2 = 59%
Input the interest rates as percent. For instance, the predicted PE ratio for Japan with
this regression would be:
PE: Japan = 42.62 - 3.61 (1.85) + 8.47 (1.27) = 46.70
At an actual PE ratio of 52.25, Japanese stocks are slightly overvalued.
Aswath Damodaran 28
Predicted PE Ratios
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III. An Example with Emerging Markets: June 2000
Aswath Damodaran 30
Regression Results
Aswath Damodaran 31
Predicted PE Ratios
Aswath Damodaran 32
IV. Comparisons of PE across time: PE Ratio for the S&P
500
Aswath Damodaran 33
Is low (high) PE cheap (expensive)?
A market strategist argues that stocks are over priced because the PE ratio
today is too high relative to the average PE ratio across time. Do you agree?
Yes
No
If you do not agree, what factors might explain the higher PE ratio today?
Aswath Damodaran 34
E/P Ratios , T.Bond Rates and Term Structure
Aswath Damodaran 35
Regression Results
There is a strong positive relationship between E/P ratios and T.Bond rates, as
evidenced by the correlation of 0.69 between the two variables.,
In addition, there is evidence that the term structure also affects the PE ratio.
In the following regression, using 1960-2003 data, we regress E/P ratios
against the level of T.Bond rates and a term structure variable (T.Bond -
T.Bill rate)
E/P = 2.03% + 0.753 T.Bond Rate - 0.355 (T.Bond Rate-T.Bill Rate)
(2.19) (6.38) (-1.38)
R squared = 50.85%
Aswath Damodaran 36
Estimate the E/P Ratio Today
T. Bond Rate =
T.Bond Rate - T.Bill Rate =
Expected E/P Ratio =
Expected PE Ratio =
Aswath Damodaran 37
V. Comparing PE ratios across firms
Aswath Damodaran 38
A Question
You are reading an equity research report on this sector, and the analyst claims
that Andres Wine and Hansen Natural are under valued because they have
low PE ratios. Would you agree?
Yes
No
Why or why not?
Aswath Damodaran 39
VI. Comparing PE Ratios across a Sector
Aswath Damodaran 40
PE, Growth and Risk
Aswath Damodaran 41
Is Telebras under valued?
Aswath Damodaran 42
Using comparable firms- Pros and Cons
Aswath Damodaran 43
Using the entire crosssection: A regression approach
Aswath Damodaran 44
PE versus Growth
1 00
80
60
40
Current PE
20
0
-20 0 20 40 60 80
Aswath Damodaran 45
PE Ratio: Standard Regression for US stocks - January 2004
Mod el Summary
Co effici entsa,b
Aswath Damodaran 46
Problems with the regression methodology
The basic regression assumes a linear relationship between PE ratios and the
financial proxies, and that might not be appropriate.
The basic relationship between PE ratios and financial variables itself might
not be stable, and if it shifts from year to year, the predictions from the model
may not be reliable.
The independent variables are correlated with each other. For example, high
growth firms tend to have high risk. This multi-collinearity makes the
coefficients of the regressions unreliable and may explain the large changes in
these coefficients from period to period.
Aswath Damodaran 47
The Multicollinearity Problem
Correlatio ns
Expected
Growth in
Revenues: Regr ession
next 5 ye ars Beta PAYOUT
Expected G rowth in Pear son Correlation 1 .031 -.325**
Reven ues: next 5 year s Sig. (2 -tailed) . .228 .000
N 147 2 1472 1185
Regression Bet a Pear son Correlation .03 1 1 -.183**
Sig. (2 -tailed) .22 8 . .000
N 147 2 6933 4187
PAYOUT Pear son Correlation -.325** -.183** 1
Sig. (2 -tailed) .00 0 .000 .
N 118 5 4187 4187
**. Correlation is significa nt at the 0.01 level (2-tailed).
Aswath Damodaran 48
Using the PE ratio regression
Assume that you were given the following information for Dell. The firm has
an expected growth rate of 10%, a beta of 1.20 and pays no dividends. Based
upon the regression, estimate the predicted PE ratio for Dell.
Predicted PE =
Dell is actually trading at 22 times earnings. What does the predicted PE tell
you?
Aswath Damodaran 49
The value of growth
Aswath Damodaran 50
Investment Strategies that compare PE to the expected
growth rate
If we assume that all firms within a sector have similar growth rates and risk,
a strategy of picking the lowest PE ratio stock in each sector will yield
undervalued stocks.
Portfolio managers and analysts sometimes compare PE ratios to the expected
growth rate to identify under and overvalued stocks.
• In the simplest form of this approach, firms with PE ratios less than their expected
growth rate are viewed as undervalued.
• In its more general form, the ratio of PE ratio to growth is used as a measure of
relative value.
Aswath Damodaran 51
Problems with comparing PE ratios to expected growth
In its simple form, there is no basis for believing that a firm is undervalued
just because it has a PE ratio less than expected growth.
This relationship may be consistent with a fairly valued or even an overvalued
firm, if interest rates are high, or if a firm is high risk.
As interest rate decrease (increase), fewer (more) stocks will emerge as
undervalued using this approach.
Aswath Damodaran 52
PE Ratio versus Growth - The Effect of Interest rates:
Average Risk firm with 25% growth for 5 years; 8% thereafter
Aswath Damodaran 53
PE Ratios Less Than The Expected Growth Rate
In January 2004,
• 33% of firms had PE ratios lower than the expected 5-year growth rate
• 67% of firms had PE ratios higher than the expected 5-year growth rate
In comparison,
• 38.1% of firms had PE ratios less than the expected 5-year growth rate in
September 1991
• 65.3% of firm had PE ratios less than the expected 5-year growth rate in 1981.
Aswath Damodaran 54
PEG Ratio: Definition
The PEG ratio is the ratio of price earnings to expected growth in earnings per
share.
PEG = PE / Expected Growth Rate in Earnings
Definitional tests:
• Is the growth rate used to compute the PEG ratio
– on the same base? (base year EPS)
– over the same period?(2 years, 5 years)
– from the same source? (analyst projections, consensus estimates..)
• Is the earnings used to compute the PE ratio consistent with the growth rate
estimate?
– No double counting: If the estimate of growth in earnings per share is from the current
year, it would be a mistake to use forward EPS in computing PE
– If looking at foreign stocks or ADRs, is the earnings used for the PE ratio consistent with
the growth rate estimate? (US analysts use the ADR EPS)
Aswath Damodaran 55
PEG Ratio: Distribution
Aswath Damodaran 56
PEG Ratios: The Beverage Sector
Aswath Damodaran 57
PEG Ratio: Reading the Numbers
The average PEG ratio for the beverage sector is 2.00. The lowest PEG ratio
in the group belongs to Hansen Natural, which has a PEG ratio of 0.57. Using
this measure of value, Hansen Natural is
the most under valued stock in the group
the most over valued stock in the group
What other explanation could there be for Hansen’s low PEG ratio?
Aswath Damodaran 58
PEG Ratio: Analysis
To understand the fundamentals that determine PEG ratios, let us return again
to a 2-stage equity discounted cash flow model
" (1+ g)n %
EPS0 * Payout Ratio *(1+ g)* $1 !
# (1+ r) n & EPS0 * Payout Ratio n *(1+ g)n *(1+ g n )
P0 = +
r-g (r -g n )(1+ r)n
Dividing both sides of the equation by the earnings gives us the equation for
the PE ratio. Dividing it again by the expected growth ‘g’
Aswath Damodaran 59
PEG Ratios and Fundamentals
Risk and payout, which affect PE ratios, continue to affect PEG ratios as well.
• Implication: When comparing PEG ratios across companies, we are making
implicit or explicit assumptions about these variables.
Dividing PE by expected growth does not neutralize the effects of expected
growth, since the relationship between growth and value is not linear and
fairly complex (even in a 2-stage model)
Aswath Damodaran 60
A Simple Example
Assume that you have been asked to estimate the PEG ratio for a firm which
has the following characteristics:
Variable High Growth Phase Stable Growth Phase
Expected Growth Rate 25% 8%
Payout Ratio 20% 50%
Beta 1.00 1.00
Riskfree rate = T.Bond Rate = 6%
Required rate of return = 6% + 1(5.5%)= 11.5%
The PEG ratio for this firm can be estimated as follows:
# (1.25) 5 &
0.2 * (1.25) * %1" 5(
$ (1.115) ' 0.5 * (1.25) 5 * (1.08)
PEG = + = 115 or 1.15
.25(.115 - .25) .25(.115 - .08) (1.115) 5
Aswath Damodaran 61
!
PEG Ratios and Risk
Aswath Damodaran 62
PEG Ratios and Quality of Growth
Aswath Damodaran 63
PE Ratios and Expected Growth
Aswath Damodaran 64
PEG Ratios and Fundamentals: Propositions
Proposition 1: High risk companies will trade at much lower PEG ratios than
low risk companies with the same expected growth rate.
• Corollary 1: The company that looks most under valued on a PEG ratio basis in a
sector may be the riskiest firm in the sector
Proposition 2: Companies that can attain growth more efficiently by investing
less in better return projects will have higher PEG ratios than companies that
grow at the same rate less efficiently.
• Corollary 2: Companies that look cheap on a PEG ratio basis may be companies
with high reinvestment rates and poor project returns.
Proposition 3: Companies with very low or very high growth rates will tend to
have higher PEG ratios than firms with average growth rates. This bias is
worse for low growth stocks.
• Corollary 3: PEG ratios do not neutralize the growth effect.
Aswath Damodaran 65
PE, PEG Ratios and Risk
45 2.5
40
2
35
30
1.5
25
PE
PEG Ratio
20
1
15
10
0.5
0 0
Lowest 2 3 4 Highest
Aswath Damodaran 66
PEG Ratio: Returning to the Beverage Sector
Company Name Tr ailing PE Gr owth Std Dev P EG
Coca-Cola Bottling 29.18 9.50% 20.58% 3.07
Molson Inc. Ltd. 'A' 43.65 15.50% 21.88% 2.82
Anheuser -Busch 24.31 11.00% 22.92% 2.21
Cor by Distiller ies Ltd. 16.24 7.50% 23.66% 2.16
Chalone Wine Gr oup Ltd. 21.76 14.00% 24.08% 1.55
Andr es Wines Ltd. 'A' 8.96 3.50% 24.70% 2.56
Todhunter Int'l 8.94 3.00% 25.74% 2.98
Br own-For man 'B' 10.07 11.50% 29.43% 0.88
Coor s (Adolph) 'B' 23.02 10.00% 29.52% 2.30
PepsiCo, Inc. 33.00 10.50% 31.35% 3.14
Coca-Cola 44.33 19.00% 35.51% 2.33
Boston Beer 'A' 10.59 17.13% 39.58% 0.62
Whitman Cor p. 25.19 11.50% 44.26% 2.19
Mondavi (Rober t) 'A' 16.47 14.00% 45.84% 1.18
Coca-Cola Enter pr ises 37.14 27.00% 51.34% 1.38
Hansen Natur al Cor p 9.70 17.00% 62.45% 0.57
Aver age 22.66 0.13 0.33 2.00
Aswath Damodaran 67
Analyzing PE/Growth
Given that the PEG ratio is still determined by the expected growth rates, risk
and cash flow patterns, it is necessary that we control for differences in these
variables.
Regressing PEG against risk and a measure of the growth dispersion, we get:
PEG = 3.61 -.0286 (Expected Growth) - .0375 (Std Deviation in Prices)
R Squared = 44.75%
In other words,
• PEG ratios will be lower for high growth companies
• PEG ratios will be lower for high risk companies
We also ran the regression using the deviation of the actual growth rate from
the industry-average growth rate as the independent variable, with mixed
results.
Aswath Damodaran 68
Estimating the PEG Ratio for Hansen
Applying this regression to Hansen, the predicted PEG ratio for the firm can
be estimated using Hansen’s measures for the independent variables:
• Expected Growth Rate = 17.00%
• Standard Deviation in Stock Prices = 62.45%
Plugging in,
Expected PEG Ratio for Hansen = 3.61 - .0286 (17) - .0375 (62.45)
= 0.78
With its actual PEG ratio of 0.57, Hansen looks undervalued, notwithstanding
its high risk.
Aswath Damodaran 69
Extending the Comparables
Aswath Damodaran 70
PEG versus Growth
4
PEG Ratio
0
-20 0 20 40 60 80 1 00
Aswath Damodaran 71
Analyzing the Relationship
The relationship in not linear. In fact, the smallest firms seem to have the
highest PEG ratios and PEG ratios become relatively stable at higher growth
rates.
To make the relationship more linear, we converted the expected growth rates
in ln(expected growth rate). The relationship between PEG ratios and
ln(expected growth rate) was then plotted.
Aswath Damodaran 72
PEG versus ln(Expected Growth)
4
PEG Ratio
0
0 1 2 3 4 5
Aswath Damodaran 73
PEG Ratio Regression - US stocks in January 2004
Model Summary
Co ef fici entsa,b
Aswath Damodaran 74
Applying the PEG ratio regression
Consider Dell again. The stock has an expected growth rate of 10%, a beta of
1.20 and pays out no dividends. What should its PEG ratio be?
If the stock’s actual PE ratio is 23, what does this analysis tell you about the
stock?
Aswath Damodaran 75
A Variant on PEG Ratio: The PEGY ratio
The PEG ratio is biased against low growth firms because the relationship
between value and growth is non-linear. One variant that has been devised to
consolidate the growth rate and the expected dividend yield:
PEGY = PE / (Expected Growth Rate + Dividend Yield)
As an example, Con Ed has a PE ratio of 16, an expected growth rate of 5% in
earnings and a dividend yield of 4.5%.
• PEG = 16/ 5 = 3.2
• PEGY = 16/(5+4.5) = 1.7
Aswath Damodaran 76
Relative PE: Definition
The relative PE ratio of a firm is the ratio of the PE of the firm to the PE of
the market.
Relative PE = PE of Firm / PE of Market
While the PE can be defined in terms of current earnings, trailing earnings or
forward earnings, consistency requires that it be estimated using the same
measure of earnings for both the firm and the market.
Relative PE ratios are usually compared over time. Thus, a firm or sector
which has historically traded at half the market PE (Relative PE = 0.5) is
considered over valued if it is trading at a relative PE of 0.7.
Relative PE ratios are also used when comparing companies across markets
with different PE ratios (Japanese versus US stocks, for example).
Aswath Damodaran 77
Relative PE: Determinants
To analyze the determinants of the relative PE ratios, let us revisit the discounted cash
flow model we developed for the PE ratio. Using the 2-stage DDM model as our basis
(replacing the payout ratio with the FCFE/Earnings Ratio, if necessary), we get
" (1+ g j )n %
Payout Ratio j *(1 + g j ) * $ 1 ! '
# (1+ rj )n & Payout Ratio j,n *(1 + g j )n *(1 + g j,n )
+
rj - g j (rj - g j,n )(1 + rj )n
Relative PE j =
"$ (1+ g m ) n %'
Payout Ratio m * (1+ g m )* 1 !
# (1+ rm )n & Payout Ratio m,n * (1+ g m )n *(1 + gm, n )
+ n
where r - g
Payout , g , r = Payout, growth and risk of the firm
m m (r m - g m,n )(1+ rm )
j j j
Payoutm, gm, rm = Payout, growth and risk of the market
Aswath Damodaran 78
Relative PE: A Simple Example
Consider the following example of a firm growing at twice the rate as the
market, while having the same growth and risk characteristics of the market:
Firm Market
Expected growth rate 20% 10%
Length of Growth Period 5 years 5 years
Payout Ratio: first 5 yrs 30% 30%
Growth Rate after yr 5 6% 6%
Payout Ratio after yr 5 50% 50%
Beta 1.00 1.00
Riskfree Rate = 6%
Aswath Damodaran 79
Estimating Relative PE
The relative PE ratio for this firm can be estimated in two steps. First, we
compute the PE ratio for the firm and the market separately:
5
" (1.20) %
0.3 * (1.20) * $ 1!
# (1.115) 5 & 0.5 * (1.20)5 * (1.06)
PE firm = + = 15.79
(.115 - .20) (.115 -.06) (1.115)5
" (1.10)5 %
0.3 * (1.10) * $ 1!
# (1.115)5 & 0.5 * (1.10) 5 *(1.06)
PE market = + 5 = 10.45
(.115 - .10) (.115-.06) (1.115)
Aswath Damodaran 80
Relative PE and Relative Growth
Aswath Damodaran 81
Relative PE: Another Example
In this example, consider a firm with twice the risk as the market, while
having the same growth and payout characteristics as the firm:
Firm Market
Expected growth rate 10% 10%
Length of Growth Period 5 years 5 years
Payout Ratio: first 5 yrs 30% 30%
Growth Rate after yr 5 6% 6%
Payout Ratio after yr 5 50% 50%
Beta in first 5 years 2.00 1.00
Beta after year 5 1.00 1.00
Riskfree Rate = 6%
Aswath Damodaran 82
Estimating Relative PE
The relative PE ratio for this firm can be estimated in two steps. First, we
compute the PE ratio for the firm and the market separately:
" (1.10) 5 %
0.3 * (1.10) * $ 1 !
# (1.17) 5 & 5
0.5 * (1.10) * (1.06)
PE firm = + = 8.33
(.17 - .10) (.115- .06) (1.17)5
" (1.10)5 %
0.3 * (1.10) * $ 1!
# (1.115)5 & 0.5 * (1.10) 5 *(1.06)
PE market = + 5 = 10.45
(.115 - .10) (.115-.06) (1.115)
Aswath Damodaran 83
Relative PE and Relative Risk
4.5
3.5
2.5
Beta stays at current level
Beta drops to 1 in stable phase
2
1.5
0.5
0
0.25 0.5 0.75 1 1.25 1.5 1.75 2
Aswath Damodaran 84
Relative PE: Summary of Determinants
Aswath Damodaran 85
Relative PE Ratios: The Auto Sector
1.20
1.00
0.80
Ford
0.60 Chrysler
GM
0.40
0.20
0.00
1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
Aswath Damodaran 86
Using Relative PE ratios
Aswath Damodaran 87
Relative PE Ratios: US stocks
Model Su mmar y
Co ef fici entsa,b
Aswath Damodaran 88
Value/Earnings and Value/Cashflow Ratios
While Price earnings ratios look at the market value of equity relative to
earnings to equity investors, Value earnings ratios look at the market value of
the operating assets of the firm (Enterprise value or EV) relative to operating
earnings or cash flows.
The form of value to cash flow ratios that has the closest parallels in DCF
valuation is the value to Free Cash Flow to the Firm, which is defined as:
EV/FCFF = (Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt-Cash)
EBIT (1-t) - (Cap Ex - Deprecn) - Chg in Working Cap
Aswath Damodaran 89
Value of Firm/FCFF: Determinants
Aswath Damodaran 90
Value Multiples
Aswath Damodaran 91
Alternatives to FCFF - EBIT and EBITDA
Aswath Damodaran 92
Value/FCFF Multiples and the Alternatives
Assume that you have computed the value of a firm, using discounted cash
flow models. Rank the following multiples in the order of magnitude from
lowest to highest?
Value/EBIT
Value/EBIT(1-t)
Value/FCFF
Value/EBITDA
What assumption(s) would you need to make for the Value/EBIT(1-t) ratio to
be equal to the Value/FCFF multiple?
Aswath Damodaran 93
Illustration: Using Value/FCFF Approaches to value a firm:
MCI Communications
MCI Communications had earnings before interest and taxes of $3356 million
in 1994 (Its net income after taxes was $855 million).
It had capital expenditures of $2500 million in 1994 and depreciation of
$1100 million; Working capital increased by $250 million.
It expects free cashflows to the firm to grow 15% a year for the next five years
and 5% a year after that.
The cost of capital is 10.50% for the next five years and 10% after that.
The company faces a tax rate of 36%.
(1.15)5
(1.15) 1-
(1.105)5
5
V0 (1.15) (1.05)
= + 5
= 31.28
FCFF0 .105 -.15 (.10 - .05)(1.105)
Aswath Damodaran 94
Multiple Magic
In this case of MCI there is a big difference between the FCFF and short cut
measures. For instance the following table illustrates the appropriate multiple
using short cut measures, and the amount you would overpay by if you used
the FCFF multiple.
Free Cash Flow to the Firm
= EBIT (1-t) - Net Cap Ex - Change in Working Capital
= 3356 (1 - 0.36) + 1100 - 2500 - 250 = $ 498 million
$ Value Correct Multiple
FCFF $498 31.28382355
EBIT (1-t) $2,148 7.251163362
EBIT $ 3,356 4.640744552
EBITDA $4,456 3.49513885
Aswath Damodaran 95
Reasons for Increased Use of Value/EBITDA
1. The multiple can be computed even for firms that are reporting net losses, since
earnings before interest, taxes and depreciation are usually positive.
2. For firms in certain industries, such as cellular, which require a substantial
investment in infrastructure and long gestation periods, this multiple seems to
be more appropriate than the price/earnings ratio.
3. In leveraged buyouts, where the key factor is cash generated by the firm prior
to all discretionary expenditures, the EBITDA is the measure of cash flows
from operations that can be used to support debt payment at least in the short
term.
4. By looking at cashflows prior to capital expenditures, it may provide a better
estimate of “optimal value”, especially if the capital expenditures are unwise
or earn substandard returns.
5. By looking at the value of the firm and cashflows to the firm it allows for
comparisons across firms with different financial leverage.
Aswath Damodaran 96
Enterprise Value/EBITDA Multiple
Aswath Damodaran 97
Enterprise Value/EBITDA Distribution - US in January 2004
Aswath Damodaran 98
Value/EBITDA Multiple: Europe, Japan and Emerging
Markets in January 2004
Aswath Damodaran 99
The Determinants of Value/EBITDA Multiples: Linkage to
DCF Valuation
In this case, the Value/EBITDA multiple for this firm can be estimated as
follows:
Value (1- .36) (0.2)(.36) 0.3 0
= + - - = 8.24
EBITDA .10 -.05 .10 -.05 .10 - .05 .10 - .05
The multiple of value to EBITDA varies widely across firms in the market,
depending upon:
• how capital intensive the firm is (high capital intensity firms will tend to have
lower value/EBITDA ratios), and how much reinvestment is needed to keep the
business going and create growth
• how high or low the cost of capital is (higher costs of capital will lead to lower
Value/EBITDA multiples)
• how high or low expected growth is in the sector (high growth sectors will tend to
have higher Value/EBITDA multiples)
Co ef fici entsa,b
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 (Constant) 10. 073 .768 13.121 .00 0
Eff T ax Rate -.152 .022 -.174 -6.878 .00 0
Expected G rowth in
.907 .039 .563 23.464 .00 0
Revenues: next 5 year s
Reinvestment Rate -.015 .006 -.062 -2.420 .01 6
a. Dependent Va riable: EV /EBITDA
b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighte d by Mar ket Cap
Model Summary
Adjusted R
Mode l R R Square Square Std. Er ror of the Estimate
1 .542 a .293 .292 1581.333005721082 000
a. Predictors: ( Constant), Tax Rate , Reinv Rate , Market Debt to Ca pital
Coefficientsa,b
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 (Constant) 8.419 1.2 79 6.580 .00 0
Mar ket Debt t o Capital .58 9 .021 .511 28. 035 .00 0
Reinv Ra te -.051 .009 -.099 -5.472 .00 0
Tax Rat e -.152 .029 -.095 -5.236 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: EV/EBITDA
b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - Weig hted by Marke t Capitalization
The price/book value ratio is the ratio of the market value of equity to the
book value of equity, i.e., the measure of shareholders’ equity in the balance
sheet.
Price/Book Value = Market Value of Equity
Book Value of Equity
Consistency Tests:
• If the market value of equity refers to the market value of equity of common stock
outstanding, the book value of common equity should be used in the denominator.
• If there is more that one class of common stock outstanding, the market values of
all classes (even the non-traded classes) needs to be factored in.
Defining the return on equity (ROE) = EPS0 / Book Value of Equity, the value of equity
can be written as:
BV 0 * ROE * Payout Ratio * (1 + gn )
P0 =
r-gn
P0 ROE * Payout Ratio * (1 + g n )
= PBV =
BV 0 r-g n
If the return on equity is based upon expected earnings in the next time period, this can
be simplified to,
The Price-book ratio for a high-growth firm can be estimated beginning with
a 2-stage discounted cash" flow model:
(1+ g)n %
EPS0 * Payout Ratio * (1 + g) * $ 1 ! '
# (1+ r) n & EPS0 * Payout Ratio n * (1+ g)n *(1+ g n )
P0 = +
r -g (r - g n )(1+ r) n
Assume that you have been asked to estimate the PBV ratio for a firm which
has the following characteristics:
High Growth Phase Stable Growth Phase
Length of Period 5 years Forever after year 5
Return on Equity 25% 15%
Payout Ratio 20% 60%
Growth Rate .80*.25=.20 .4*.15=.06
Beta 1.25 1.00
Cost of Equity 12.875% 11.50%
The riskfree rate is 6% and the risk premium used is 5.5%.
3.5
3
Ratios
2.5
Value
Beta=0.5
2 Beta=1
Beta=1.5
Price/Book
1.5
0.5
0
10% 15% 20% 25% 30%
ROE
Regressing PBV ratios against ROE for banks yields the following regression:
PBV = 0.81 + 5.32 (ROE) R2 = 46%
For every 1% increase in ROE, the PBV ratio should increase by 0.0532.
Given the relationship between price-book value ratios and returns on equity,
it is not surprising to see firms which have high returns on equity selling for
well above book value and firms which have low returns on equity selling at
or below book value.
The firms which should draw attention from investors are those which provide
mismatches of price-book value ratios and returns on equity - low P/BV ratios
and high ROE or high P/BV ratios and low ROE.
MV/BV
Overvalued
Low ROE High ROE
High MV/BV High MV/BV
ROE-r
Undervalued
Low ROE High ROE
Low MV/BV Low MV/BV
20
SAP DE LL
G
BUD
PFE
BSX GS K
EBAY O RCL
10 MMM
MDT PG
DAZN
WMT JNJ MRK
Q COM BMY UL
AMAT K MB MO
FNM
PBV Ratio
ABN
SC
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70
ROE
12
TelAzteca
10
TelNZ Vimple
8 Carlton
Teleglobe
FranceTel Cable&W
6
DeutscheTel
BritTel
TelItalia
Portugal AsiaSat
HongKong
BCE Royal
4 Hellenic
Nippon
DanmarkChinaTel
Espana Indast
Telmex
TelArgFrance
PhilTel Televisas
TelArgentina
2 TelIndo
TelPeru
APT
CallNet
Anonima GrupoCentro
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
ROE
16
BUD G
14
PFE
12
O RCL
10 MMM EBAY
PBV R atio PG
8 MDT D
UL MRK
6 WMT T SM
QCOM
FNMK MB AMAT
4
2 FRE
AOL
SC V IA/B
70 60 4
50 40 3
30 20 2
10 0 1
0 Regressio n Beta
ROE
10.00 50.00%
9.00
40.00%
8.00
30.00%
7.00
20.00%
6.00
10.00%
Return on Equity
Price to Book
5.00
0.00%
4.00
-10.00%
3.00
-20.00%
2.00
-30.00%
1.00
0.00 -40.00%
1983 1984 1985 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
Year
PBV ROE
Co effici entsa,b,c
Adjusted R
a
Mode l R R Square Squar e Std. Error of the Estimate
1 .830 b .689 .689 154.4404 7748882220
a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R Squar e
mea sur es the prop or tion of the va riability in the depende nt variable
about the origin explained by regression. This CA NNOT be compare d
to R Square for models which include an inter cept.
b. Predictors: ROE, Payout Ra tio, B ETA
Coefficientsa ,b,c
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 Payout Ratio 8.E-03 .002 .074 3.667 .00 0
BE TA 1.399 .114 .291 12. 279 .00 0
ROE .10 4 .004 .537 28. 148 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PB V
b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin
c. Weighted Least Squares R egre ssion - Weighted by Marke t Capitalization
Mod el Summary
Adjusted R
a
Mode l R R Square Square Std. Er ror of the Estimate
1 .795 b .63 1 .631 2.0708694 612 34543
a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept m odel) , R Square
mea sur es the proportion of the va riability in the d ependent va riable
about the origin explained b y regression. This CANNOT be
compared to R Square f or models which include an inter cept.
b. Predictors: ROE, Payout Ratio, BETA
Coefficientsa ,b
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 Payout Ratio 5.E-03 .001 .076 4.148 .00 0
BE TA .80 5 .088 .213 9.164 .00 0
ROE 9.E-02 .003 .579 29. 414 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PB V
b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin
R
Net Income
> 0 Adjusted R Std. Er ror of the
Mode l (Selected) R Sq uare a Squar e Estimate
1 b
.815 .664 .664 848.8652 371625490 00
a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R Square
mea sur es the prop or tion of the va riability in the depende nt va riable
about the origin explained b y regression. This CANNOT be compare d
to R Square for models which include an intercept.
b. Predictors: B ETA, ROE Co ef fici entsa,b,c,d
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 ROE .189 .007 .597 28.912 .00 0
BE TA .973 .073 .276 13.359 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PBV
b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin
c. Weighted Least Square s R egression - Weighted by Mar ket
Capitalization
d. Selecting only cases for which Net Income > 0
While the price to book ratio is a equity multiple, both the market value and
the book value can be stated in terms of the firm.
Value/Book Value = Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt
Book Value of Equity + Book Value of Debt
To see the determinants of the value/book ratio, consider the simple free cash
flow to the firm model:
FCFF1
V0 =
WACC - g
V0 ROC - g
=
BV WACC - g
Aswath Damodaran 136
Value/Book Ratio: An Example
Adjusted R
Mode l R R Square Square Std. Er ror of the Estimate
1 a
.758 .575 .574 135.06239892 7610600
a. Predictors: ( Constant), Market Debt to Cap ital, Expected Growth
in Revenues: next 5 years, ROC
Co ef fici entsa,b
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 (Constant) 3.041 .133 22.838 .00 0
Expected G rowth in
Revenues: next 5 year s 1.E-02 .008 .026 1.3 30 .18 4
The price/sales ratio is the ratio of the market value of equity to the sales.
Price/ Sales= Market Value of Equity
Total Revenues
Consistency Tests
• The price/sales ratio is internally inconsistent, since the market value of equity is
divided by the total revenues of the firm.
600
500
400
300
Price to Sales
EV/Sales
200
100
0
<0.1 0.1- 0.2- 0.3- 0.4- 0.5- 0.75-1 1-1.25 1.25- 1.5- 1.75-2 2-2.5 2.5-3 3-3.5 3.5-4 4-5 5-10 >10
0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.75 1.5 1.75
The price/sales ratio of a stable growth firm can be estimated beginning with a
2-stage equity valuation model:
DPS1
P0 =
r ! gn
When the growth rate is assumed to be high for a future period, the dividend
discount model can be written as
n
follows:
" (1+ g) %'
EPS0 * Payout Ratio * (1 + g) * $ 1 !
# (1+ r) n & EPS0 * Payout Ratio n * (1+ g)n *(1+ g n )
P0 = +
r -g (r - g n )(1+ r) n
1.8
1.6
1.4
1.2
1
PS Ratio
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
2% 4% 6% 8% 10% 12% 14% 16%
Net Margin
One of the limitations of the analysis we did in these last few pages is the
focus on current margins. Stocks are priced based upon expected margins
rather than current margins.
For most firms, current margins and predicted margins are highly correlated,
making the analysis still relevant.
For firms where current margins have little or no correlation with expected
margins, regressions of price to sales ratios against current margins (or price
to book against current return on equity) will not provide much explanatory
power.
In these cases, it makes more sense to run the regression using either
predicted margins or some proxy for predicted margins.
30
PKSI
LCOS SPYG
20
INTM MMXI
SCNT
Hypothesizing that firms with higher revenue growth and higher cash
balances should have a greater chance of surviving and becoming profitable,
we ran the following regression: (The level of revenues was used to control
for size)
PS = 30.61 - 2.77 ln(Rev) + 6.42 (Rev Growth) + 5.11 (Cash/Rev)
(0.66) (2.63) (3.49)
R squared = 31.8%
Predicted PS = 30.61 - 2.77(7.1039) + 6.42(1.9946) + 5.11 (.3069) = 30.42
Actual PS = 25.63
Stock is undervalued, relative to other internet stocks.
You can always estimate price (or value) as a multiple of revenues, earnings
or book value in a future year. These multiples are called forward multiples.
For young and evolving firms, the values of fundamentals in future years may
provide a much better picture of the true value potential of the firm. There are
two ways in which you can use forward multiples:
• Look at value today as a multiple of revenues or earnings in the future (say 5 years
from now) for all firms in the comparable firm list. Use the average of this multiple
in conjunction with your firm’s earnings or revenues to estimate the value of your
firm today.
• Estimate value as a multiple of current revenues or earnings for more mature firms
in the group and apply this multiple to the forward earnings or revenues to the
forward earnings for your firm. This will yield the expected value for your firm in
the forward year and will have to be discounted back to the present to get current
value.
Global Crossing lost $1.9 billion in 2001 and is expected to continue to lose money for
the next 3 years. In a discounted cashflow valuation (see notes on DCF valuation) of
Global Crossing, we estimated an expected EBITDA for Global Crossing in five years
of $ 1,371 million.
The average enterprise value/ EBITDA multiple for healthy telecomm firms is 7.2
currently.
Applying this multiple to Global Crossing’s EBITDA in year 5, yields a value in year 5
of
• Enterprise Value in year 5 = 1371 * 7.2 = $9,871 million
• Enterprise Value today = $ 9,871 million/ 1.1385 = $5,172 million
(The cost of capital for Global Crossing is 13.80%)
• The probability that Global Crossing will not make it as a going concern is 77% and the
distress sale value is only a $ 1 billion (1/2 of book value of assets).
• Adjusted Enterprise value = 5172 * .23 + 1000 (.77) = 1,960 million
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 Payout Ratio 5.E-03 .002 .065 2.777 .00 6
BE TA .93 7 .095 .261 9.909 .00 0
Net Margin .11 0 .004 .516 26. 153 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PS
b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin
c. Weighted Least Squares R egre ssion - Weighted by Marke t Capitalization
R
Net Income
> .00 Adjusted R Std. Er ror of the
Mode l (Selected) R Sq uare a Squar e Estimate
1 b
.834 .696 .695 2.308859441838714
a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R
Square measures the proport ion of the variability in the depen dent
variable abou t the origin explaine d by re gression. This CANNOT be
compared to R Squar e for models which include an intercept.
b. Predictors: Net Mar gin, Payout Ra tio, BETA
Coefficientsa ,b,c
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 Payout Ratio 7.E-03 .001 .083 4.962 .00 0
BE TA .14 2 .087 .030 1.631 .10 3
Net Margin .14 3 .003 .766 47. 061 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PS
b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin
c. Selecting only cases for which Ne t Income > .00
R
Net Income
> 0 Adjusted R
Mode l (Selected) R Sq uare Squar e Std. Er ror of the Estimate
1 a
.721 .519 .518 549.1390 58787986000
a. Predictors: ( Constant), Payout Ratio, Net Mar gin
Coefficientsa ,b,c
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 (Constant) 2.E-02 .081 .242 .80 8
Net Margin .24 3 .007 .737 34. 627 .00 0
Payout Ratio 8.E-03 .002 .079 3.719 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PS
b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighted by Mar ket Capitalization
c. Selecting only cases for which Ne t Income > 0
The value/sales ratio is the ratio of the market value of the firm to the sales.
Value/ Sales= Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt-Cash
Total Revenues
If pre-tax operating margins are used, the appropriate value estimate is that of
the firm. In particular, if one makes the assumption that
• Free Cash Flow to the Firm = EBIT (1 - tax rate) (1 - Reinvestment Rate)
Then the Value of the Firm can be written as a function of the after-tax
operating margin= (EBIT (1-t)/Sales
( n +
" (1 + g) %
*(1 - RIRgrowth)(1 + g) * $1 ! n' n -
Value * # (1 + WACC) & (1 - RIR stable)(1 + g) * (1 + g n ) -
= After - tax Oper. Margin * +
Sales 0 * WACC - g (WACC - g n )(1 + WACC) n -
* -
) ,
Consider, for example, the Value/Sales ratio of Coca Cola. The company had
the following characteristics:
After-tax Operating Margin =18.56% Sales/BV of Capital = 1.67
Return on Capital = 1.67* 18.56% = 31.02%
Reinvestment Rate= 65.00% in high growth; 20% in stable growth;
Expected Growth = 31.02% * 0.65 =20.16% (Stable Growth Rate=6%)
Length of High Growth Period = 10 years
Cost of Equity =12.33% E/(D+E) = 97.65%
After-tax Cost of Debt = 4.16% D/(D+E) 2.35%
Cost of Capital= 12.33% (.9765)+4.16% (.0235) =12.13%
( " (1.2016)1 0 % +
* (1- .65)(1.2016)* $1! 10' 1 0 -
Value of Firm 0 * # (1.1213) & (1- .20)(1.2016) * (1.06) -
= .1856* + = 6.10
Sales 0 * .1213- .2016 (.1213- .06)(1.1213)1 0 -
* -
) ,
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You have been hired to value Coca Cola for an analyst reports and you have
valued the firm at 6.10 times revenues, using the model described in the last
few pages. Another analyst is arguing that there should be a premium added
on to reflect the value of the brand name. Do you agree?
Yes
No
Explain.
Co ef fici entsa,b
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 (Constant) 1.252 .118 10.576 .00 0
After-tax Oper ating
.135 .004 .605 32.945 .00 0
Margin
Marke t Debt to Capital -.043 .003 -.300 -14.99 .00 0
Expected G rowth in
8.E-02 .009 .175 8.7 56 .00 0
Revenues: next 5 year s
a. Dependent Va riable: EV /Sales
b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighte d by Mar ket Cap
This procedure involves valuing a firm using five or six or more multiples and
then taking an average of the valuations across these multiples.
This is completely inappropriate since it averages good estimates with poor
ones equally.
If some of the multiples are “sector based” and some are “market based”, this
will also average across two different ways of thinking about relative
valuation.
In this approach, the estimates obtained from using different multiples are
averaged, with weights on each based upon the precision of each estimate.
The more precise estimates are weighted more and the less precise ones
weighted less.
The precision of each estimate can be estimated fairly simply for those
estimated based upon regressions as follows:
Precision of Estimate = 1 / Standard Error of Estimate
where the standard error of the predicted value is used in the denominator.
This approach is more difficult to use when some of the estimates are
subjective and some are based upon more quantitative techniques.
This is usually the best way to approach this issue. While a range of values
can be obtained from a number of multiples, the “best estimate” value is
obtained using one multiple.
The multiple that is used can be chosen in one of two ways:
• Use the multiple that best fits your objective. Thus, if you want the company to be
undervalued, you pick the multiple that yields the highest value.
• Use the multiple that has the highest R-squared in the sector when regressed
against fundamentals. Thus, if you have tried PE, PBV, PS, etc. and run
regressions of these multiples against fundamentals, use the multiple that works
best at explaining differences across firms in that sector.
• Use the multiple that seems to make the most sense for that sector, given how
value is measured and created.
When a firm is valued using several multiples, some will yield really high
values and some really low ones.
If there is a significant bias in the valuation towards high or low values, it is
tempting to pick the multiple that best reflects this bias. Once the multiple that
works best is picked, the other multiples can be abandoned and never brought
up.
This approach, while yielding very biased and often absurd valuations, may
serve other purposes very well.
As a user of valuations, it is always important to look at the biases of the
entity doing the valuation, and asking some questions:
• Why was this multiple chosen?
• What would the value be if a different multiple were used? (You pick the specific
multiple that you want to see tried.)
Aswath Damodaran
Most models of risk and return (including the CAPM and the APM) use past
prices of an asset to estimate its risk parameters (beta(s)).
Private firms and divisions of firms are not traded, and thus do not have past
prices.
Thus, risk estimation has to be based upon an approach that does not require
past prices
Estimate the average beta for the publicly traded comparable firms.
Estimate the average market value debt-equity ratio of these comparable
firms, and calculate the unlevered beta for the business.
βunlevered = βlevered / (1 + (1 - tax rate) (Debt/Equity))
Estimate a debt-equity ratio for the private firm, using one of two assumptions:
• Assume that the private firm will move to the industry average debt ratio. The beta
for the private firm will converge on the industry average beta.
β private firm = βunlevered (1 + (1 - tax rate) (Industry Average Debt/Equity))
• Estimate the optimal debt ratio for the private firm, based upon its operating
income and cost of capital.
β private firm = βunlevered (1 + (1 - tax rate) (Optimal Debt/Equity))
Estimate a cost of equity based upon this beta.
Step 1: Collect accounting earnings for the private company for as long as
there is a history.
Step 2: Collect accounting earnings for the S&P 500 for the same time period.
Step 3: Regress changes in earnings for the private company against changes
in the S&P 500.
Step 4: The slope of the regression is the accounting beta
There are two serious limitations -
(a) The number of observations in the regression is small
(b) Accountants smooth earnings.
The beta of a firm measures only market risk, and is based upon the
assumption that the investor in the business is well diversified. Given that
private firm owners often have all or the bulk of their wealth invested in the
private business, would you expect their perceived costs of equity to be higher
or lower than the costs of equity from using betas?
Higher
Lower
Adjust the beta to reflect total risk rather than market risk. This adjustment is
a relatively simple one, since the correlation with the market measures the
proportion of the risk that is market risk.
Total Beta = Market Beta / Correlation with market
In the New York Yankees example, where the market beta is 0.85 and the R-
squared for comparable firms is 25% (correlation is therefore 0.5),
• Total Unlevered Beta = 0.90/0. 5= 1.80
• Total Levered Beta = 1.80 (1 + (1-0.4)(0.25)) =2.07
• Total Cost of Equity = 6% + 2.07 (4%)= 14.28%
Under which of the following scenarios are you most likely to use the total
risk measure:
when valuing a private firm for an initial public offering
when valuing a private firm for sale to a publicly traded firm
when valuing a private firm for sale to another private investor
Assume that you own a private business. What does this tell you about the
best potential buyer for your business?
Basic Problem: Private firms generally do not access public debt markets, and
are therefore not rated.
Most debt on the books is bank debt, and the interest expense on this debt
might not reflect the rate at which they can borrow (especially if the bank debt
is old.)
Solution 1: Assume that the private firm can borrow at the same rate as
similar firms (in terms of size) in the industry.
Cost of Debt for Private firm = Cost of Debt for similar firms in the industry
Solution 2: Estimate an appropriate bond rating for the company, based upon
financial ratios, and use the interest rate estimated bond rating.
Cost of Debt for Private firm = Interest Rate based upon estimated bond rating (If
using optimal debt ratio, use corresponding rating)
Solution 3: If the debt on the books of the company is long term and recent,
the cost of debt can be calculated using the interest expense and the debt
outstanding.
Cost of Debt for Private firm = Interest Expense / Outstanding Debt
If the firm borrowed the money towards the end of the financial year, the interest
expenses for the year will not reflect the interest rate on the debt.
For the Yankee’s, we will use the interest rate from the most recent loans that
the firm has taken on:
• Interest rate on debt = 7.00%
• After-tax cost of debt = 7% (1-.4) = 4.2%
For InfoSoft, we will use the interest coverage ratio estimated using the
operating income and interest expenses from the most recent year:
• Interest coverage ratio = EBIT/ Interest expenses = 2000/315 = 6.35
• Rating based upon interest coverage ratio = A+
• Interest rate on debt = 6% + 0.80% = 6.80%
• After-tax cost of debt = 6.80% (1-.35) = 4.42%
Basic problem: The debt ratios for private firms are stated in book value
terms, rather than market value. Furthermore, the debt ratio for a private firm
that plans to go public might change as a consequence of that action.
Solution 1: Assume that the private firm will move towards the industry
average debt ratio.
Debt Ratio for Private firm = Industry Average Debt Ratio
Solution 2: Assume that the private firm will move towards its optimal debt
ratio.
Debt Ratio for Private firm = Optimal Debt Ratio
Consistency in assumptions: The debt ratio assumptions used to calculate
the beta, the debt rating and the cost of capital weights should be
consistent.
Shorter history: Private firms often have been around for much shorter time
periods than most publicly traded firms. There is therefore less historical
information available on them.
Different Accounting Standards: The accounting statements for private
firms are often based upon different accounting standards than public firms,
which operate under much tighter constraints on what to report and when to
report.
Intermingling of personal and business expenses: In the case of private
firms, some personal expenses may be reported as business expenses.
Separating “Salaries” from “Dividends”: It is difficult to tell where salaries
end and dividends begin in a private firm, since they both end up with the
owner.
Once you have estimated the cash flows and the cost of capital, you can value
a private firm using conventional methods.
If you are valuing a firm for sale to a private business,
• Use the total beta and the cost of equity emerging from that to estimate the cost of
capital.
• Discount the cash flows using this cost of capital
If you are valuing a firm for an initial public offering, stay with the market
beta and cost of capital.
FCFF = $ 37,406,970
Cost of capital = 12.26%
Expected Growth rate= 3.00%
We are assuming that the Yankees have to reinvest to generate growth. If they
can get the city to pick up the tab, the value of the Yankees can be estimated
as follows:
• FCFF = EBIT (1-t) - Reinvestment = $44.008 mil - 0 = $ 44.008 million
• Value of Yankees = 44.008*1.03/(.1226 - .03) = $ 489 million
If on top of this, we assume that the buyer is a publicly traded firm and we use
the market beta instead of the total beta
• FCFF = $ 44.008 million
• Cost of capital = 8.95%
• Value of Yankees = 44.008 (1.03) / (.0895 - .03) = $ 761.6 million
Firm Value: 73,909 EBIT(1- 3675 4604 5768 7227 9054 9507
+ Cash: 500 t) 3926 4918 6161 7720 9671 2764
- Debt: 4,583 - Reinv -251 -314 -393 -493 -617 6743
=Equity 69,826 FCFF
Riskfree Rate:
Government Bond Risk Premium
Rate = 6% Beta 4%
+ 1.29 X
The value of equity that we have arrived at for Infosoft is $69.5 million. If
you plan to have 10 million shares outstanding, estimate the value per share?
Would you answer be different, if the initial offering were for only 1 million
shares - the owners will retain the remaining 9 million for subsequent
offerings?
If valuing a private business for sale (in whole or part) to another individual
(to stay private), it is necessary that we estimate
• a illiquidity discount associated with the fact that private businesses cannot be
easily bought and sold
• a control premium (if more than 50% of the business is being sold)
If valuing a business for taking public, it is necessary to estimate
• the effects of creating different classes of shares in the initial public offer
• the effects of options or warrants on the issuance price per share
If valuing a business for sale (in whole or part) to a publicly traded firm, there
should be no illiquidity discount, because stock in the parent firm will trade
but there may, however, be a premium associated with the publicly traded
firm being able to take better advantage of the private firm’s strengths
Type of Assets owned by the Firm: The more liquid the assets owned by the
firm, the lower should be the illiquidity discount for the firm
Size of the Firm: The larger the firm, the smaller should be the percentage
illiquidity discount.
Health of the Firm: Healthier firms should sell for a smaller discount than
troubled firms.
Cash Flow Generating Capacity: Firms which are generating large amounts
of cash from operations should sell for a smaller discounts than firms which
do not generate large cash flows.
Size of the Block: The liquidity discount should increase with the size of the
portion of the firm being sold.
Rank the following assets (or private businesses) in terms of the liquidity
discount you would apply to your valuation (from biggest discount to
smallest)
A New York City Cab Medallion
A small privately owned five-and-dime store in your town
A large privately owned conglomerate, with significant cash balances and real
estate holdings.
A large privately owned ski resort that is losing money
Silber (1991) develops the following relationship between the size of the
discount and the characteristics of the firm issuing the registered stock –
LN(RPRS) = 4.33 +0.036 LN(REV) - 0.142 LN(RBRT) + 0.174 DERN + 0.332
DCUST
where,
RPRS = Relative price of restricted stock (to publicly traded stock)
REV = Revenues of the private firm (in millions of dollars)
RBRT = Restricted Block relative to Total Common Stock in %
DERN = 1 if earnings are positive; 0 if earnings are negative;
DCUST = 1 if there is a customer relationship with the investor; 0 otherwise;
Interestingly, Silber finds no effect of introducing a control dummy - set equal
to one if there is board representation for the investor and zero otherwise.
The Silber regression does provide us with a sense of how different the
discount will be for a firm with small revenues versus one with large revenues.
Consider, for example, two profitable firms that are equal in every respect
except for revenues. Assume that the first firm has revenues of 10 million and
the second firm has revenues of 100 million. The Silber regression predicts
illiquidity discounts of the following:
• For firm with 100 million in revenues: 44.5%
• For firm with 10 million in revenues: 48.9%
• Difference in illiquidity discounts: 4.4%
If your base discount for a firm with 10 million in revenues is 25%, the
illiquidity discount for a firm with 100 million in revenues would be 20.6%.
Figure 24.1: Illiquidity Discounts: Base Discount of 25% for profitable firm with $ 10 million in revenues
40.00%
35.00%
30.00%
Discount as % of Value
25.00%
20.00%
15.00%
10.00%
5.00%
0.00%
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 100 200 300 400 500 1000
Revenues
To estimate the illiquidity discount for the Yankees, we assume that the base discount for a firm
with $10 million in revenues would be 25%. The Yankee’s revenues of $209 million should result in
a lower discount on their value. We estimate the difference in the illiquidity discount between a firm
with $10 million in revenue and $209 million in revenue to be 5.90%. To do this, we first estimated
the illiquidity discount in the Silber equation for a firm with $10 million in revenues.
Expected illiquidity discount = 48.94%
We then re-estimated the illiquidity discount with revenues of $ 209 million:
Expected illiquidity discount = 43.04%
Difference in discount = 48.94% - 43.04% = 5.90%
The estimated illiquidity discount for the Yankees would therefore be 19.10%, which is the base
discount of 25% adjusted for the illiquidty difference.
The bid ask spread is the difference between the price at which you can buy a
security and the price at which you can sell it, at the same point.
In other words, it is the illiqudity discount on a publicly traded stock.
Studies have tied the bid-ask spread to
• the size of the firm
• the trading volume on the stock
• the degree
Regressing the bid-ask spread against variables that can be measured for a
private firm (such as revenues, cash flow generating capacity, type of assets,
variance in operating income) and are also available for publicly traded firms
offers promise.
Using data from the end of 2000, for instance, we regressed the bid-ask spread against
annual revenues, a dummy variable for positive earnings (DERN: 0 if negative and 1 if
positive), cash as a percent of firm value and trading volume.
Spread = 0.145 – 0.0022 ln (Annual Revenues) -0.015 (DERN) – 0.016 (Cash/Firm Value)
– 0.11 ($ Monthly trading volume/ Firm Value)
You could plug in the values for a private firm into this regression (with zero trading
volume) and estimate the spread for the firm.
We could substitute in the revenues of the Yankees ($209 million), the fact that it has
positive earnings and the cash as a percent of revenues held by the firm (3%):
Spread = 0.145 – 0.0022 ln (Annual Revenues) -0.015 (DERN) – 0.016 (Cash/Firm Value)
– 0.11 ($ Monthly trading volume/ Firm Value)
= 0.145 – 0.0022 ln (209) -0.015 (1) – 0.016 (.03) – 0.11 (0) = .1178 or 11.78%
Based on this approach, we would estimate an illiquidity discount of 11.78% for the
Yankees.
If you believe that you can improve the after-tax cashflows to $ 12 million a
year in perpetuity and that you could lower the cost of capital to 8% by
moving to a higher debt ratio. Estimate the optimal value for Eisner
Enterprises.
Assume that, based upon your assessment of takeover defenses in the firm,
you estimate that there is a 40% probability that management in Eisner
Enterprises will change. If there are 10 million shares outstanding in the firm,
estimate the value per share?
What do you think will happen to the value per share if another firm in the
same industry is the target of a hostile acquisition?
Assume that Eisner Enterprises has 5 million voting shares and 5 million non-
voting shares. If the probability of control changing remains 40% and non-
voting shares are completely unprotected, estimate the value per voting and
non-voting share:
• Value per non-voting share =
• Value per voting share =
If the incumbent managers own 35% of the voting shares, will your
assessment of the value per voting share change? If so, why? If not, why not?
When a firm is badly managed, the market still assesses the probability that it
will be run better in the future and attaches a value of control to the stock
price today:
Status Quo Value + Probability of control change (Optimal - Status Quo Value)
Value per share =
Number of shares outstanding
With voting shares and non-voting shares, a disproportionate share of the
value of control will go to the voting shares. In the extreme scenario where
non-voting shares are completely unprotected:
!
Status Quo Value
Value per non - voting share =
# Voting Shares + # Non - voting shares
Studies that compare the prices of traded voting shares against the prices of
traded non-voting shares, to examine the value of the voting rightsconclude
that while the voting shares generally trade at a premium over the non-
voting shares, the premium is small.
• Lease, McConnell and Mikkelson (1983) find an average premium of only 5.44%
for the voting shares. (There are similar findings in DeAngelo and DeAngelo
(1985) and Megginson (1990))
• These studies have been critiqued for underestimating the value of control, because
the probability of gaining control by acquiring these voting shares is considered
low for two reasons - first, a substantial block of the voting shares is often still held
by one or two individuals in many of these cases, and second, the prices used in
these studies are based upon small block trades, which are unlikely to give the
buyer majority control.
Assume now that Eisner Enterprises is a private firm. If you were bidding for
100% of Eisner Enterprises, what is the maximum you would be willing to
bid?
When you get a controlling interest in a private firm (generally >51%, but
could be less…), you would be willing to pay the appropriate proportion of
the optimal value of the firm.
When you buy a minority interest in a firm, you will be willing to pay the
appropriate fraction of the status quo value of the firm.
For badly managed firms, there can be a significant difference in value
between 51% of a firm and 49% of the same firm. This is the minority
discount.
If you own a private firm and you are trying to get a private equity or venture
capital investor to invest in your firm, it may be in your best interests to offer
them a share of control in the firm even though they may have well below
51%.