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Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR. Part-B of OMR to be left unused
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, clip boards, log tables, slide
rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices ext. except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall / room.
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
4. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
(i) Part-A (01-20) – Contains Twenty (20) multiple choice objective questions which have four (4) options each and
only one correct option. Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and -1 mark will
be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(i) Part-C (01-05) contains Five (05) Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to
9 (both inclusive). Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and NO MARKS will
be deducted for every incorrect answer.
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM2
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM3
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART-A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
V
(A) (B)
2
2
V 1 V
3 1 3
T T
(C) (D)
1
1 2
V V
3 2 3
T T
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM4
4. If 1 and 2 (> 1) are the lengths of an air column for the first and second resonance when a tunning
fork of frequency n is sounded on a resonance tube, then the minimum distance of the anti-node from
the top end of the resonance tube is
(A) 2 (2 - 1) (B) ½ (21 - 2)
2 31 2 1
(C) (D)
2 2
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM5
9. The vibration of a string fixed at both ends are described by the equation
y = 2.00 sin x sin t mm where x is in cm and t is in second. The maximum displacement of
2 100
1
the particle at x = mm will be
3
(A) 1.00 mm (B) 2.00 mm
(C) 3.14 mm (D) 1.57 mm
10. From a uniform solid sphere an eccentric cavity has been cut out as shown in the P
figure. C1 and C2 represent their centres respectively. If the size of the cavity is C2
C
increased keeping the centre at C2 , then the field strength at any internal point P 1
will
(A) be zero
(B) remain constant in magnitude but direction of field will change with the change in position of P.
(C) remain constant in magnitude and direction for all positions of point P.
(D) gradually decrease in magnitude as the size of cavity increases.
+
11. Consider a parallel plate capacitor having an electric field E inside it as shown +
in the adjacent figure. A particle of mass m and charge q is hanging inside the +
+
capacitor through a light inextensible string of length . The time period of this
+
+
pendulum is +
(A) T = 2 (B) T = 2
g qE m 2 2
qE 2qgE
g2 2
m m
(C) T = 2 2 2
(D) none of the above
q E 2qgE
g2 2
m m
12. A point charge +q is located at the origin and a point charge 2q II I x=a
III
is located at x = a (a > 0). In which of the following region or
regions might there exists a point where the electric potential (V) +q
2q
is zero?
(A) < x < a
(B) 0 < x < a
(C) a < x <
(D) V does not vanish in the region < x <
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM6
15. Two different adiabatic paths for the same gas intersects two
a
isothermal T1 and T2 as shown in the P-V diagram. Then Va Vd is P
equal to b
V T1
(A) C (B) VC Vb
Vb d
V VC Vb T2
(C) b (D) c
Vc VC Vb
V
x 2
2
16. The potential energy of a particle oscillating along x-axis is given as U = 20+ where U is in
joules and x in meters. Total mechanical energy of the particle is 36 J. Maximum kinetic energy of the
particle is
(A) 24 J (B) 36 J
(C) 16 J (D) 20 J
17. Two waves of Intensity I1 and I2 interfere. The maximum intensity produced to the minimum intensity
is in the ratio α. Then, I1 / I2 is equal to
α 1 1 α
(A) , if I1 > I2 (B) , if I1 > I2
α 1 α 1
2 2
1 α α 1
(C)
, if I1 < I2 (D)
if I1 > I2
α 1 1 α
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM7
18. A thin equiconvex lens, made of material of refractive index 1.5, has a focal length of 10 cm in air.
One side of the lens is replaced by a medium (B) of refractive index 1.3. When a point object is placed
in air at a distance of 20 cm from the lens on its principal axis, its image is formed at distance of x cm
in the medium (B), from the lens. When the same object is placed in the medium B, at a distance of
20 cm from the lens on its principal axis, its image is formed at a distance of y cm in air, from the lens.
Then
fair =10 cm fair =10 cm
=1 =1
=1.3 =1.3
O I I O
20 cm
20cm x y
=1.5 =1.5
(A) x > 1.3 y (B) x < 1.3 y
(C) x = 1.3 y (D) none of the above is true.
19. Planar light waves and sound waves incident on the air - water A
interface along the direction of the line are AO as shown in the 450 air
figure. Assume that AO represents the direction of the incident ray
(for both light and sound). Given that the speed of sound wave in O
air and water is 330 m/s and 1500 m/s respectively and of the light
wave it is 3 108 m/s and 2.26 108 m/s. respectively then,
(assume Snell’s law is valid for both waves):
(A) light wave and sound wave will refract through same angle.
(B) angle of refraction for light wave will be 300. B
Water
(C) water is acoustically denser medium than air for sound wave.
(D) the angle between the two rays when they get separated by the air water surface is
3 1 0.75
sin rad .
4 2
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM8
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
v1 =4ms–1 P
2. In the shown figure the linear mass density of the rod is and
dimension are shown in figure. The moment of inertia about
23
the dashed axis is K
3 then find value of K.
m = 0.1 kg
4. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is attached to a light wire which is stretched tightly
between two fixed points A and B with tension 5N in each. A T = 5N B
P T = 5N
The whole system is kept on a horizontal frictionless surface. If AP = BP =
(1/2)m and a very small transverse displacement is given to m so that it
executes SHM. The frequency of oscillation is 10/n Hz. Find the value of n.
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM9
SECTION – II :: CHEM
MISTRY
PART-A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which chloro derivatives of benzene among the following undergoes hydrolysis most readily with
aqueous NaOH to furnish the corresponding hydroxy derivative?
(A) NO 2 (B)
O 2N F
O 2N F
NO 2
(C) H3C (D)
N F F
H3C
2. O
HO CH3 CH3
O
CH3
OH
O
CH3
The above reaction is known as–
(A) Claisen–Schmidt reaction (B) Intermolecular aldol addition
(C) Intramolecular aldol reaction (D) Cannizzaro reaction
3. Which of the following halogen derivatives does not react with an aqueous alkali –
(A) Cl (B) Cl
H2 C CH3
(C) Cl (D) Cl
4. The compound which on reaction with aqueous nitrous acid at low temperature produces oily
nitrosamine is
(A) Methyl amine (B) Ethyl amine
(C) Diethyl amine (D) Triethyl amine
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM10
5. Which graph represents the variation of photon momentum ‘P’ with wavelength ?
(A) (B)
P P
(C) (D)
P P
7. O
P4 O10 (i) CH3 MgBr
A
(ii) H O
B
3
NH2
D is
(A) O (B)
Br
CH3
(C) O (D)
O Br
9. 1 mole of CaCO3 is taken in one litre container which on heating decomposes according to the
equation
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
The Kp for the reaction is 1 atm at 27C then the maximum amount of CaO that can be produced by
this reaction is
(A) 56 g (B) 2.3 9
(C) 5.6 g (D) 7.5 g
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM11
10. At 380oC, the half-life period for the first order decomposition of H2O2 is 360 minutes. The energy of
activation of the reaction is 200 kJ mol–1. Hence, the time required for 75% decomposition at 450oC, is
approximately (Antilog (1.5) = 35.38)
(A) 10.4 minutes (B) 20.4 minutes
(C) 30.4 minutes (D) 40.4 minutes
11. An ionic compound AB has zinc blende structure. If the radius of A is 11.25 pm, then the ideal radius
of B is
(A) 100 pm (B) 50 pm
(C) 22.5 pm (D) 54.3 pm
13. 3 Faraday of electricity are passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and molten
NaCl taken in three different electrolytic cells. The amount of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the cathodes
will be in the ratio of
(A) 1 mole: 2 mole : 3 mole (B) 3 mole : 2 mole :1 mole
(C) 1 mole: 1.5 mole: 3 mole (D) 1.5 mole: 2 mole: 3 mole
14. What will be the value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for 1 mole of CO2, present in a container 0.5 litre
at 323 K, of compressibility factor 0.822 and b = 0.043 litre/mole?
(A) 3.6 atm litre2 mol2 (B) 1.8 atm litre2 mol2
(C) 0.9 atm litre2 mol2 (D) 7.2 atm litre2 mol2
H C 6 H5 H CH3
(C) H5 C 6 C 6 H5 (D) HOOC H
H H H COOH
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM12
17. When a solution of benzoic acid was titrated with NaOH the pH of the solution when half the acid
neutralized was 4.2. Dissociation constant of the acid is
(A) 6.31 10-5 (B) 3.2 0–5
(C) 8.7 10–8 (D) 6.42 10–4
18. Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an aqueous dilute solution of glucose is found to be 0.018.
Hence elevation in boiling point is (it is given that 1 molal aqueous glucose solution boils at 100.54 0C)
(A) 0.018 (B) 0.18
(C) 0.54 (D) 0.03
19. An aqueous solution of SO2 precipitates out sulphur when H2S gas is passed through it. The SO2 acts
as
(A) an oxidizing agent (B) a reducing agent
(C) an acid (D) a catalyst
20. Which of the following will produce most basic solution in water?
(A) NaCl (B) Na2SO4
(C) NH4Cl (D) Na2O
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM13
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
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website: www.fiitjee.com.
JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM14
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If [.] denotes the greatest integer function then domain of the real valued function log x 1/ 2 x 2 x 6
is
1 3
(A) , 1 (1, ) (B) 0, 2 (2, )
2
3 3
(C) , 2 (2, ) (D) 0, 1 ,
2 2
2. The locus of the middle points of chords of hyperbola 3x2 – 2y2 + 4x – 6y = 0 parallel to y = 2x is
(A) 3x – 4y = 4 (B) 3y – 4x + 4 = 0
(C) 4x – 4y = 3 (D) 3x – 4y = 2
3. A flag staff of 5 m height stands on a building 25 m high. An observer at a height of 30 m, the flag
staff and the building subtend equal angles. The distance of the observer from the top of flag staff is
5 3 3
(A) (B) 5
2 2
2
(C) (D) None of these
3
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM15
12
5. Sum of all the rational terms in the expansion of 31/4 41/3 , is
(A) 27 (B) 256
(C) 283 (D) none of these
(A) C (B) C
100 100
cos 100x cos x sin 100x sin x
100 101
(C) C (D) C
100 101
8. The slope of the line touching both the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = –32y is
1 3
(A) (B)
2 2
1 2
(C) (D)
8 3
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM16
10. If z and are two non-zero complex numbers such that |z| = 1 and Arg(z) – Arg() = , then z is
2
equal to
(A) 1 (B) –1
(C) i (D) –i
x2 y2
11. Total number of integral values of ‘a’ for which 1 will represent an ellipse is
6a a2
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM17
1
13. The maximum value of f x t sin x t dt is
0
1 2 1
(A) 4 (B) 2 4
2
1
(C) 2 4 (D) 2 4
22
14. The projection of the line segment joining the points (1, –2, 3) and (3, 1, 0) on the line whose direction
ratios are (2, 1, 3) is
1 2
(A) (B)
14 14
3 5
(C) (D)
14 14
15.
Solution of the differential equation x 2 6y dy
dx
2 xy 1 0 is
x2 y2
17. On the ellipse 1 , the point M nearest to the line 2x – 3y + 25 = 0 is
18 8
8
(A) (–3, 2) (B) 2,
3
(C) (3, 2) (D) 3 2, 0
Space for rough work
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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM18
18. The mean of n items is x . If the first term is increased by 1, second by 2 and so on, then new mean is
n
(A) x n (B) x
2
n 1
(C) x (D) none of these
2
20. A coin is tossed 50 times. The probability of getting tails an even number of times is
1 2
(A) (B)
3 4
3 2
(C) (D)
4 3
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
1. The number of common tangents to the circles x2 + y2 = 1 and (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = 4, is _____
2. Consider a curve |z – i| = 2 and a point z1 = 3 – i, then the length of tangent made from the point (z1)
to the curve is _____
1 2p 3
3. If p, q R and p2 + q2 – pq – p – q + 1 0 then 3q 1 5p is equal to _____
p q p
z4 1 b
4. dz aln z c , then |a| + |b| is equal to _____
2
z z 12 1 z2
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