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FIITJEE - JEE (Main)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS


Mock Test-2X (2019-20) Code:100595.1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300


 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR. Part-B of OMR to be left unused
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, clip boards, log tables, slide
rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices ext. except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall / room.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet:

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
4. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

C. Marking Scheme for All Two Parts:

(i) Part-A (01-20) – Contains Twenty (20) multiple choice objective questions which have four (4) options each and
only one correct option. Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and -1 mark will
be deducted for every incorrect answer.

(i) Part-C (01-05) contains Five (05) Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to
9 (both inclusive). Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and NO MARKS will
be deducted for every incorrect answer.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :________________________________________

Enrolment Number :____________________________________________________________

Batch :_____________________________ Date of Examination : ______________________

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM2

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM3

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART-A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In the given figure an impulse J is given to the block of mass m in the


downward direction. As a result of the impulse
J
(A) both the blocks start moving with speed in opposite directions J
3m
m
J
(B) both the blocks start moving with speed in opposite directions 2m
m
(C) the centre of mass of the system is moving downwards
(D) the centre of mass of the system is not moving

2. If the pulley 'P' as shown in the given arrangement is massless and


m P
there is no friction, force exerted by the pulley 'P' on the clamp
would be
mg
(A) 2 mg (B)
2
mg m
(C) 2mg (D)
2

3. One mole of a monoatomic gas undergoes the processes


1 Isothermal
1 – 2 and 2 – 3 as shown. The corresponding graph for
the above process for 2 moles of the gas is P
3 2

V

(A) (B)
2
2
V 1 V
3 1 3

T T
(C) (D)
1
1 2
V V
3 2 3

T T

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM4

4. If 1 and 2 (> 1) are the lengths of an air column for the first and second resonance when a tunning
fork of frequency n is sounded on a resonance tube, then the minimum distance of the anti-node from
the top end of the resonance tube is
(A) 2 (2 - 1) (B) ½ (21 - 2)
 2  31  2  1
(C) (D)
2 2

5. A wedge whose curved surface is parabolic in shape and has a= g m/s2


equation x2 = 4y starts accelerating with acceleration g m/s2 when
a block is at the bottom of wedge and is located at (0, 0). The
maximum height attained by the block (assume the curved surface
is sufficiently long) (0, 0)
(A) 1m (B) 2m
(C) 4m (D) 8m

6. A man wants to cross a river along line AB flowing with speed 15 B


m/s and whose width is 600 m. If the speed of man with respect Vr
to river is 20 m/s. Then
(A) Angle at which he should swim with respect to line AB is 30°. 600m
(B) Angle at which he should swim with respect to line AB is 45°. 53°
(C) time taken by the man to cross the river is 30 sec.
(D) time taken by the man to cross the river is 60 sec. A

7. Velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is v (m/s)


shown in the figure. Mass of the particle is 2 kg. Work done by
all the forces acting on the particle in time interval t = 0 to
10
t = 10 sec is
5
(A) 300 J (B)  300 J 10
(C) zero (D)  400 J t(sec)
10

8. A hypothetical planet having mass m is moving on an elliptical


path around sun [mass of sun (M)  m], which is situated at one of C
m
the focus as shown in the figure. The speed of planet, when it is at B O A
S
C, is [SC = r and AB = 2r]
D
GM 3GM
(A) (B)
r r
GM
(C) 2 (D) none of the above
r

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM5

9. The vibration of a string fixed at both ends are described by the equation
    
y = 2.00 sin  x  sin  t  mm where x is in cm and t is in second. The maximum displacement of
 2   100 
1
the particle at x = mm will be
3
(A) 1.00 mm (B) 2.00 mm
(C) 3.14 mm (D) 1.57 mm

10. From a uniform solid sphere an eccentric cavity has been cut out as shown in the P
figure. C1 and C2 represent their centres respectively. If the size of the cavity is C2

C
increased keeping the centre at C2 , then the field strength at any internal point P 1

will
(A) be zero
(B) remain constant in magnitude but direction of field will change with the change in position of P.
(C) remain constant in magnitude and direction for all positions of point P.
(D) gradually decrease in magnitude as the size of cavity increases.
+
11. Consider a parallel plate capacitor having an electric field E inside it as shown +
in the adjacent figure. A particle of mass m and charge q is hanging inside the +
+

capacitor through a light inextensible string of length . The time period of this 
+
+
pendulum is   +

  
(A) T = 2 (B) T = 2 
g   qE m  2 2
qE 2qgE
g2  2 
m m

(C) T = 2 2 2
(D) none of the above
q E 2qgE
g2  2 
m m

12. A point charge +q is located at the origin and a point charge  2q II I x=a
III
is located at x = a (a > 0). In which of the following region or
regions might there exists a point where the electric potential (V) +q
2q
is zero?
(A)  < x < a
(B) 0 < x < a
(C) a < x < 
(D) V does not vanish in the region   < x < 

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM6

13. What is the potential difference between points a and b, in the a


steady state in the circuit given below? (E1 = 2.1V, E2 = 6.3 V, R1 R1
R1 = 1.7 , R2 = 3.5 , C = 2F) R2 E2
(A) 4.9 V E1 R1
(B) 2.8 V E2
R1 C
(C) 5.9 V
b
(D) 4.2 V

14.

 
The initial velocity of a particle is u  2iˆ  3ˆj m/s . A constant force F  4iˆ  3ˆj N acts on the 
particle. Hence
(A) Its velocity is constant. (B) Its path is parabolic.
(C) its path is straight line. (D) it moves on a circular path.

15. Two different adiabatic paths for the same gas intersects two
a
isothermal T1 and T2 as shown in the P-V diagram. Then Va Vd is P

equal to b
V T1
(A) C (B) VC Vb
Vb d
V VC Vb T2
(C) b (D) c
Vc VC  Vb
V

 x  2
2
16. The potential energy of a particle oscillating along x-axis is given as U = 20+ where U is in
joules and x in meters. Total mechanical energy of the particle is 36 J. Maximum kinetic energy of the
particle is
(A) 24 J (B) 36 J
(C) 16 J (D) 20 J

17. Two waves of Intensity I1 and I2 interfere. The maximum intensity produced to the minimum intensity
is in the ratio α. Then, I1 / I2 is equal to
α 1 1 α
(A) , if I1 > I2 (B) , if I1 > I2
α 1 α 1
2 2
 1 α   α  1
(C) 
  , if I1 < I2 (D) 
  if I1 > I2
 α  1  1 α 

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM7

18. A thin equiconvex lens, made of material of refractive index 1.5, has a focal length of 10 cm in air.
One side of the lens is replaced by a medium (B) of refractive index 1.3. When a point object is placed
in air at a distance of 20 cm from the lens on its principal axis, its image is formed at distance of x cm
in the medium (B), from the lens. When the same object is placed in the medium B, at a distance of
20 cm from the lens on its principal axis, its image is formed at a distance of y cm in air, from the lens.
Then
fair =10 cm fair =10 cm
 =1  =1
 =1.3  =1.3

O I I O

20 cm
20cm x y

 =1.5  =1.5
(A) x > 1.3 y (B) x < 1.3 y
(C) x = 1.3 y (D) none of the above is true.

19. Planar light waves and sound waves incident on the air - water A
interface along the direction of the line are AO as shown in the 450 air
figure. Assume that AO represents the direction of the incident ray
(for both light and sound). Given that the speed of sound wave in O
air and water is 330 m/s and 1500 m/s respectively and of the light
wave it is 3  108 m/s and 2.26  108 m/s. respectively then,
(assume Snell’s law is valid for both waves):
(A) light wave and sound wave will refract through same angle.
(B) angle of refraction for light wave will be 300. B
Water
(C) water is acoustically denser medium than air for sound wave.
(D) the angle between the two rays when they get separated by the air water surface is
 3 1  0.75  
  sin    rad .
4  2 

20. A cylinder of mass m and radius R is given velocity V0 over a smooth


V0
plank of same mass having velocity V0/2. The velocity of the V0/2
cylinder when it starts rolling without slipping is
V 7V0
(A) 0 (B)
8 8
V0 3V0
(C) (D)
4 4

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM8

PART – C: (Integer Answer Type)

This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.

1. Oil enters the bend of a pipe in the horizontal plane with v2


velocity 4 ms–1 and pressure 280 × 103 Nm–2 as shown A1
in the figure. The pressure of oil at the point Q is 86. Q A2 =
4
Find the value of . (KNm–2).
(Take specific gravity of oil as 0.9 and sin 37º = 0.6) 2
37º
A1=0.2m

v1 =4ms–1 P

2. In the shown figure the linear mass density of the rod is  and
dimension are shown in figure. The moment of inertia about 
 23 
the dashed axis is K 
 3  then find value of K.  
 


 

3. A wedge of mass M resting on a horizontal frictionless surface is


acted upon by a force F in the horizontal direction as shown in h/3 h
F
h/3
figure. The net horizontal force acting on the shaded portion of
h
the wedge is F/n. Find the value of n.

m = 0.1 kg
4. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is attached to a light wire which is stretched tightly
between two fixed points A and B with tension 5N in each. A T = 5N B
P T = 5N
The whole system is kept on a horizontal frictionless surface. If AP = BP =
(1/2)m and a very small transverse displacement is given to m so that it
executes SHM. The frequency of oscillation is 10/n Hz. Find the value of n.

5. The equivalent resistance across AB is n . Find the value of n. A 2


2
2
2
B 2

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM9

SECTION – II :: CHEM
MISTRY
PART-A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Which chloro derivatives of benzene among the following undergoes hydrolysis most readily with
aqueous NaOH to furnish the corresponding hydroxy derivative?
(A) NO 2 (B)
O 2N F
O 2N F

NO 2
(C) H3C (D)
N F F
H3C

2. O
HO CH3 CH3
O
CH3 

OH
 O
CH3
The above reaction is known as–
(A) Claisen–Schmidt reaction (B) Intermolecular aldol addition
(C) Intramolecular aldol reaction (D) Cannizzaro reaction

3. Which of the following halogen derivatives does not react with an aqueous alkali –
(A) Cl (B) Cl
H2 C CH3
(C) Cl (D) Cl

4. The compound which on reaction with aqueous nitrous acid at low temperature produces oily
nitrosamine is
(A) Methyl amine (B) Ethyl amine
(C) Diethyl amine (D) Triethyl amine

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM10

5. Which graph represents the variation of photon momentum ‘P’ with wavelength  ?
(A) (B)

P P

 
(C) (D)

P P

 

6. The number of neutrons in a drop of water (20 drops = 1mL) at 4°C.


(A) 6.023  1022 (B) 1.338  1022
(C) 6.023  1020 (D) 7.338  1022

7. O
P4 O10 (i) CH3 MgBr
  A 
(ii) H O
B
3
NH2
D is
(A) O (B)
Br
CH3
(C) O (D)

O Br

8. What type of hybridisation exist in Cr2O7-2 ion?


(A) sp3d (B) dsp3
(C) sp3 (D) dsp2

9. 1 mole of CaCO3 is taken in one litre container which on heating decomposes according to the
equation
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
The Kp for the reaction is 1 atm at 27C then the maximum amount of CaO that can be produced by
this reaction is
(A) 56 g (B) 2.3 9
(C) 5.6 g (D) 7.5 g

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM11

10. At 380oC, the half-life period for the first order decomposition of H2O2 is 360 minutes. The energy of
activation of the reaction is 200 kJ mol–1. Hence, the time required for 75% decomposition at 450oC, is
approximately (Antilog (1.5) = 35.38)
(A) 10.4 minutes (B) 20.4 minutes
(C) 30.4 minutes (D) 40.4 minutes

11. An ionic compound AB has zinc blende structure. If the radius of A  is 11.25 pm, then the ideal radius
of B is
(A) 100 pm (B) 50 pm
(C) 22.5 pm (D) 54.3 pm

12. IUPAC name of the complex [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3 is


(A) Hexaamminecobaltate (III) chloride (B) Hexaaminecobalt (III) chloride
(C) Hexaaminecobaltate (III) chloride (D) Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride

13. 3 Faraday of electricity are passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and molten
NaCl taken in three different electrolytic cells. The amount of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the cathodes
will be in the ratio of
(A) 1 mole: 2 mole : 3 mole (B) 3 mole : 2 mole :1 mole
(C) 1 mole: 1.5 mole: 3 mole (D) 1.5 mole: 2 mole: 3 mole

14. What will be the value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for 1 mole of CO2, present in a container 0.5 litre
at 323 K, of compressibility factor 0.822 and b = 0.043 litre/mole?
(A) 3.6 atm litre2 mol2 (B) 1.8 atm litre2 mol2
(C) 0.9 atm litre2 mol2 (D) 7.2 atm litre2 mol2

15. The electrophile taking part in Reimer Tiemann reaction is


(A) CHCl3 (B) : CCl3
(C) CHCl2+ (D) : CCl2

16. Which alkene will form racemic mixture with Br2?


(A) H5C6 H (B) H3 C H

H C 6 H5 H CH3
(C) H5 C 6 C 6 H5 (D) HOOC H

H H H COOH

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM12

17. When a solution of benzoic acid was titrated with NaOH the pH of the solution when half the acid
neutralized was 4.2. Dissociation constant of the acid is
(A) 6.31  10-5 (B) 3.2  0–5
(C) 8.7  10–8 (D) 6.42  10–4

18. Relative decrease in vapour pressure of an aqueous dilute solution of glucose is found to be 0.018.
Hence elevation in boiling point is (it is given that 1 molal aqueous glucose solution boils at 100.54 0C)
(A) 0.018 (B) 0.18
(C) 0.54 (D) 0.03

19. An aqueous solution of SO2 precipitates out sulphur when H2S gas is passed through it. The SO2 acts
as
(A) an oxidizing agent (B) a reducing agent
(C) an acid (D) a catalyst

20. Which of the following will produce most basic solution in water?
(A) NaCl (B) Na2SO4
(C) NH4Cl (D) Na2O

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM13

PART – C: (Integer Answer Type)

This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.

1. For the reaction at 298 K, A (g) + B (g)   


 C (g) + D (g)
Ho = 29.8 Kcal, So = 0.100 Kcal K-1
Find the value of equilibrium constant at the same temp.

2. For the reaction:


Mx + + MnO-4 ¾ ¾® MO-3 + Mn2+
If one mole of MnO4 oxidises 1.67 moles of MX+ to MO3, then the value of x in the reaction would be.

3. For the equilibrium AB  g    A  g  B  g at a given temperature 1/3rd of AB is dissociated then


P/KP will be numerically equal to ………………….. (P is the total pressure)

4. Total cyclic alcoholic isomers (excluding stereoisomers) of C4H7OH are ………………………….

5. Total number of radial + angular nodes in 4dxy orbital are.

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM14

SECTION – III : MATHE


EMATICS
PART-A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If [.] denotes the greatest integer function then domain of the real valued function log x 1/ 2 x 2  x  6
is
1   3
(A)  , 1  (1,  ) (B) 0, 2   (2,  )
2 
3  3 
(C)  , 2   (2,  ) (D)  0, 1   ,  
2  2 

2. The locus of the middle points of chords of hyperbola 3x2 – 2y2 + 4x – 6y = 0 parallel to y = 2x is
(A) 3x – 4y = 4 (B) 3y – 4x + 4 = 0
(C) 4x – 4y = 3 (D) 3x – 4y = 2

3. A flag staff of 5 m height stands on a building 25 m high. An observer at a height of 30 m, the flag
staff and the building subtend equal angles. The distance of the observer from the top of flag staff is
5 3 3
(A) (B) 5
2 2
2
(C) (D) None of these
3

4. The area bounded by the curves y = x 2 – 2x + 2, x  1 and its inverse is given by


1 2
(A) (B)
3 3
5 4
(C) (D)
3 3

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM15

 
12
5. Sum of all the rational terms in the expansion of 31/4  41/3 , is
(A) 27 (B) 256
(C) 283 (D) none of these

  sin 101x   sin 


99
6. x dx equals

sin 100x  sin x  cos 100x  sin x 


100 100

(A) C (B) C
100 100
cos 100x  cos x  sin 100x  sin x 
100 101

(C) C (D) C
100 101

7. The value of lim n n ln  n   ln  n  1  1 is


n
1
(A) e (B)
e
1 1
(C) (D)
2 4

8. The slope of the line touching both the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = –32y is
1 3
(A) (B)
2 2
1 2
(C) (D)
8 3

Space for rough work

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JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM16

9. The equation to the orthogonal trajectories of the system of parabolas y = ax 2 is


x2 y2
(A)  y2  c (B) x 2  c
2 2
x2 y2
(C)  y2  c (D) x 2  c
2 2


10. If z and  are two non-zero complex numbers such that |z| = 1 and Arg(z) – Arg() = , then z is
2
equal to
(A) 1 (B) –1
(C) i (D) –i

x2 y2
11. Total number of integral values of ‘a’ for which   1 will represent an ellipse is
6a a2
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

12. If a circle having centre at (, ) cut the circles x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y – 7 = 0 and


3 
x2 + y2 + 4x – 6y – 3 = 0 orthogonally, then   is equal to
4 2
1
(A) 1 (B)
2
1
(C) (D) 0
4

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.
JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM17

1
13. The maximum value of f  x    t sin  x  t  dt is
0

1 2 1
(A)  4 (B) 2  4
 2
1
(C) 2  4 (D) 2  4
22

14. The projection of the line segment joining the points (1, –2, 3) and (3, 1, 0) on the line whose direction
ratios are (2, 1, 3) is
1 2
(A) (B)
14 14
3 5
(C) (D)
14 14

15. 
Solution of the differential equation x 2  6y  dy
dx
 2  xy  1  0 is

(A) yx2 + 2x + 3y2 = c (B) xy2 + 2x + 3y = c


(C) yx2 – 2x – 3y2 = c (D) none of these

16. The range of the function f (x) = sin1x + tan1x is


  3    3 
(A)  ,  (B) 2 , 2 
4 4   
  5 
(C)  ,  (D) none of these
3 4 

x2 y2
17. On the ellipse   1 , the point M nearest to the line 2x – 3y + 25 = 0 is
18 8
 8
(A) (–3, 2) (B)   2, 
 3
(C) (3, 2) (D)  3 2, 0 
Space for rough work

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website: www.fiitjee.com.
JEE Main Mock Test-2X (1920)-(100595.1)-PCM18

18. The mean of n items is x . If the first term is increased by 1, second by 2 and so on, then new mean is
n
(A) x  n (B) x 
2
n 1
(C) x  (D) none of these
2

19. The general solution of cos50x – sin50x = 1 is


(A) n (B) 2n
 
(C) n + (D) 2n +
2 2

20. A coin is tossed 50 times. The probability of getting tails an even number of times is
1 2
(A) (B)
3 4
3 2
(C) (D)
4 3

PART – C: (Integer Answer Type)

This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.

1. The number of common tangents to the circles x2 + y2 = 1 and (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = 4, is _____

2. Consider a curve |z – i| = 2 and a point z1 = 3 – i, then the length of tangent made from the point (z1)
to the curve is _____

1 2p 3
3. If p, q  R and p2 + q2 – pq – p – q + 1  0 then 3q 1 5p is equal to _____
p q p

z4  1 b
4.  dz  aln z   c , then |a| + |b| is equal to _____
 
2
z z 12 1  z2

 1  3tan1º  1  3 tan1º  tan89º


5. The absolute value of the expression    is equal to _____
 3  tan1º  3  tan1º  cot 3º

Space for rough work

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