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CET - 2010

S.No. Question Paper Booklet Code

ROLL No. .................................................................................................................................
(in words)

Name : .................................................................................................................................................

Signature of the candidate: ..................................... Signature of Invigilator: ....................................

[Maximum Marks: 120] [Maximum Time: 120 Minutes]
1. Carefully read instructions given on this page before answering. This is important as you are going to use
a special OMR (Optical Mark Reader) answer sheet. There is only one OMR sheet for all the papers.
2. The Question Paper Booklet & OMR answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the Examination and
both are to be handed over to the Invigilator at the end of examination, before leaving the examination hall.
3. All the papers in the Question Booklet contains 40 Questions. Any variation should be brought to the
notice of Invigilator immediately and get the Booklet exchanged.
4. Each Question carries One Mark for correct Answer. No negative marking.
5. Do not carry any electronic gadgets like Calculator, Cell Phone, Cordless Phone etc., to the
Examination Hall.
6. Write your roll number at the top of this page in figures as well as in words.
7. Rough work should be done only on the blank pages provided at the end of the question booklet.
Rough work should not be done on the OMR Sheet.
8. Put your signature on the attendance-cum-identity sheet in the appropriate box in the presence of the Invigilator.
9. Write your question paper booklet code as written on top of this page on both sides of the OMR sheet.
10. Make entries of your answers on both the sides of the OMR sheet using only DARK BLACK BALL / GEL PEN.
11. Entries on both the sides of OMR sheet should be same as that on the Admit Card/ as entered in the
Application Form. Get these checked by the Invigilator who will also sign on cover page.
12 Instructions for Marking OMR Answer Sheet
i) Read each question carefully and choose the most appropriate single answer from out of the
four available alternatives under each question.
ii) Mark your answer in the appropriate oval against the number corresponding to the question
you are answering. e.g. correct way to mark answer 20 is (C):
20. A B A D

iii) Wrong way is A B ✓ D A B D A B C D A B C D

13. Do not fold, mutilate, tear or wrinkle the answer sheet.

14. If no oval is marked, then the question will be treated as unattempted.
15. Ensure that you have correctly filled in your Roll Number, Question Paper Booklet Code and
Subject Code for Paper-II & III.
Question Booklet for Biology, Biotechnology and Computer Science is printed
separately. Students opting for these subjects should ask for continued Question
Booklet containing Biology, Biotechnology and Computer Science.
Subjects Codes Page Nos

1. Physics from 03 to 08

2. Mathematics 01 from 09 to 15

3. Chemistry 02 from 16 to 21
(This Paper is Compulsory for All Candidates)
(1) For each question there are four options. Please select only the most appropriate
(2) All questions carry equal marks.

Note : The Symbols used in the question paper have their usual meanings.

1) A student commits 1% positive error in the measurement of length and 3% negative error in the
measurement of time, while finding acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ by simple pendulum. The
percentage error in the value of ‘g’ will be
(A) 10% (B) 7%
(C) 4% (D) 3%

2) If e is the charge, V the potential difference, T the temperature, then the units of eV/T are the same
as of
(A) Planck’s constant (B) Stefan’s constant
(C) Boltzmann constant (D) Gravitational constant

3) A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is
not known. On bouncing it rises to 1.8m. The ball losses its velocity on bouncing by a factor of
(A) 16/25 (B) 2/5
(C) 3/5 (D) 9/2

4) A constant force F is applied on a stationary particle of mass ‘m’. The velocity attained by the
particle in a certain displacement will be proportional to
(A) m (B)
(C) m (D) m

5) Drops of water fall from the roof of a building 9m high at regular intervals of time. The first drop
reaching the ground at the same instant fourth drop starts its fall. What are the distances of second
and third drops from the roof? (g = 10m/s 2)
(A) 6m and 2m (B) 6m and 3m
(C) 4m and 1m (D) 4m and 2m

Physics Page - 3
6) A particle is released from a height h. At a certain height, its KE is two times its PE. Height and
speed of the particle at that instant are

h 2gh h gh
(A) , (B) ,2
3 3 3 3

2h , 2gh h
(C) (D) , 2gh
3 3 3

7) The angular velocity of the hour hand of a watch is

(A) 5 radian / hour (B) 10 radian / hour
(C) 1 radian / hour (D) 0.52 radian / hour

8) If work done in blowing a soap bubble of volume V is W, then the work done in blowing another
soap bubble of volume 2V will be
(A) 2W (B) W
(C) 22/3 W (D) 2 W

9) A billiard ball is hit by a cue at a height h above the centre. It acquires a linear velocity V. Mass of
the ball is m and radius is r. The angular velocity ω0 acquired by the ball is

2Vh 5Vh 2Vr 2 5Vr 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
5r2 2r2 5h 2h

10) Two water droplets merge with each other to form a larger droplet. In this process
(A) energy is liberated (B) energy is absorbed
(C) energy neither liberated nor absorbed (D) some mass is converted into energy

11) If the number of molecules in hydrogen gas is double than in oxygen gas, then the ratio of total
energies of hydrogen & oxygen gases at a given temperature will be
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
(C) 1:2 (D) 4:1

12) The force required to drag a circular flat plate of diameter 10cm on the water surface is (surface
tension of water is 75 dyne/cm)
(A) 750 dynes (B) 750 dynes
(C) 60 dynes (D) 60 dynes
Physics Page - 4
13) When the displacement is half of the amplitude, then what fraction of the total energy of a simple
harmonic oscillator is kinetic?
(A) 2 / 7th (B) 3 / 4th
(C) 2 / 9th (D) 5 / 7th

14) Which one of the following statement is true in respect of usual quantities represented by ∆ Q, ∆ U
and ∆ W
(A) ∆ U and ∆ W are path dependent
(B) ∆ Q and ∆ U are path dependent
(C) ∆ U does not depend upon path
(D) ∆ Q does not depend upon path

15) A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure such that its temperature Τ ∝ . The value of
= (Cp / Cv) of the gas is
(A) 1.30 (B) 1.50
(C) 1.67 (D) 2.00

16) Putting a dielectric substance between two plates of a condenser, the capacity, potential and
potential energy respectively
(A) increases, decreases, decreases (B) decreases, increases, increases
(C) increases, increases, increases (D) decreases, decreases, decreases

17) Two wires are of same material having lengths in ratio 1 : 2 and diameters in the ratio 2 : 1.For the
same force the changes in lengths are in the ratio:
(A) 1:4 (B) 4:1
(C) 1:8 (D) 8:1

18) The intensity of electric field in a region of space is represented by E = Vm–1. The potential
difference between the points X = 10m and X = 20m will be
(A) 15V (B) 10V
(C) 5V (D) 1V

Physics Page - 5
19) A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron, then
(A) electron moves in the direction of field (B) electron moves in an opposite direction.
(C) electron remains stationary (D) electron starts spinning

20) When a capacitor is connected to a battery,

(A) an a.c. current flows in the circuit
(B) no current flows at all
(C) a current flows for some time and finally it decreases to zero
(D) current keeps on increasing and reaches maximum after some time.

21) Resistances in two gaps of a meter bridge are 10 Ω and 30Ω respectively. If the resistances are
interchanged, the balance point shifts by
(A) 33.3cm (B) 66.67cm
(C) 25cm (D) 50cm

22) A proton of energy 8 eV is moving in a circular path in a uniform magnetic field. The energy of an
- particle moving in the same magnetic field and along the same path will be :
(A) 8 eV (B) 6 eV
(C) 4 eV (D) 2 eV

23) A bulb is marked 100W, 250V. If it is connected to a source of emf of 200 volt then its power will
(A) 50W (B) 100W
(C) Zero (D) 64W

24) A galvanometer of 100Ω resistance gives a full scale deflection for a current of 10–5 A. To convert
it into an ammeter capable of measuring upto 1A, we should connect a resistance of
(A) 1Ω in parallel (B) 10–3 Ω in parallel
(C) 10–3 Ω in series (D) 100Ω in series

25) To a fish in water, a bird in air appears to be at 30 cm from the surface. If w
= 4/3, then the true
distance of the bird from the surface is
(A) 40 cm (B) 22.5 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) None of these

Physics Page - 6
26) A beam of light of wavelength 600nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1.0 mm wide and
the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2m away. What is the distance between
the first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe?
(A) 4.2mm (B) 3.2mm
(C) 2.4mm (D) 4.4mm

27) If the half life of a radioactive material is 100 days, then its half life after 10 days will become
(A) 200 days (B) 100 days
(C) 50 days (D) 10 days

28) The half life of radium is 1500 years. In how many years will 1 gm of pure radium be reduced to
one centigram?
(A) 9.927 x 102 years (B) 9.972 x 102 years
(C) 99.27 x 102 years (D) 0.927 x 102 years

29) Light of wavelength 3500 Α is incident on two metals A and B. Metal A of work function 4.2eV and
B of work function 1.19eV. The photoelectrons will be emitted by
(A) metal A (B) metal B
(C) both A & B (D) neither A nor B

30) The atomic radius for a simple cubic lattice having lattice parameter ‘a’ is

3 a
(A) a (B)
4 2 2

(C) a (D)

31) Current gain of a transistor in common base mode is 0.95. Its value in common emitter mode is
(A) 0.95 (B) 1.5
(C) 19 (D) 1/19

32) The expected energy of electrons at absolute zero is called

(A) fermi energy (B) emission energy
(C) work function (D) potential energy

Physics Page - 7
33) When a charged particle moves in magnetic field, its KE always
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains same
(D) increases or decreases depending upon the direction of the particle

34) If is an electric field and is the magnetic induction, then the energy flow per unit area per unit
time in an electromagnetic field is given by

(A) (B) (C) E2 + B2 (D) E/B

Ε× Β Ε⋅Β

35) In Young’s double slit experiment the angular width of a fringe formed on a distant screen is 1º.
The wavelength of light used is 6000 Α . What is the spacing between the slits?
(A) 344mm (B) 0.344mm (C) 0.0344mm (D) 34.4mm

36) A potential difference of 104V is applied across an X-ray tube. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength
of the incident electrons to the shortest wavelength of X-ray produced is (e/m for electron is
1.8 x 1011 C/kg)
(A) 1 / 20 (B) 1 / 10 (C) 1 (D) 1 / 100

37) Ne22 nucleus, after absorbing energy decays into two α - particles and an unknown nucleus. The
unknown nucleus is
(A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon (C) Oxygen (D) Boron

38) A parallel capacitor of capacitance C, having separation between the plates d with a potential
difference V between the plates. The force between the plates is

V 2d C 2V 2 C 2V 2 CV 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
C 2d 2 d2 2d

39) The ratio of radii of nuclei 13Al27 and 52Te125 is approximately

(A) 40 : 177 (B) 13 : 52 (C) one (D) 6 : 10

40) The electromagnetic waves do not transport

(A) energy (B) charge (C) momentum (D) information

Physics Page - 8
1) If z1 and z2 are two complex numbers then
(A) z1 − z2 ≤ z1 − z 2 (B) z1 + z 2 is non real

(C) z1 + z2 ≤ z1 + z 2 (D) z1 + z2 ≥ z1 + z 2

2) The statement

( x + a ) = nc 0 x n + nc1 x n −1 a 1 + nc2 x n −2 a2
+ .......... + ...... + ncn an is true for
(A) all complex numbers n (B) all real numbers n
(C) all rational numbers n (D) all natural numbers n

3) Let y = a sinmx + b cosmx, then is equal to
dx 2
(A) –m2y (B) m2y
(C) –my (D) my

4) Let the function f : R → R be defined by f(x) = 2x + sinx, x ∈ R. Then f is

(A) One to one and onto (B) One to one but not onto
(C) Onto but not one to one (D) Neither one to one nor onto

sin8 x − cos8 x
5) If ∫ dx = A sin 2x + B then
1 − 2sin 2 x cos2 x

1 1
(A) A = (B) A=–
2 2
(C) A = –1 (D) A=1

6) The straight lines x + y – 4 = 0, x + 3y – 4 = 0 and 3x + y – 4 = 0 form a triangle which is

(A) Obtuse angled (B) equilateral
(C) right angled (D) None

7) The circles x2 + y2 = 9 and x2 + (y – 5)2 = 16

(A) cut orthogonally (B) touch each other externally
(C) touch each other internally (D) do not intersect

Mathematics Page - 9
8) The total area enclosed by the lines y = x , y = 0 and x = 1 is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) None of these

9) The solution of the differential equation ydx + (x + x2y)dy = 0 is

1 1
(A) + log y = c (B) − + log y = c
xy xy

(C) − =c (D) log y = cx

10) If the lines 12x + 5y + 16 = 0 and 12x + 5y – 10 = 0 are tangents to the same circle, then the radius
of this circle is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) None of these

11) cos2 + cos2 (60º + ) + cos2 (60º – )=

1 −3
(A) (B)
2 2
5 3
(C) (D)
2 2

12) If angles A, B, C of a triangle are in A.P and sides a, b, c opposite to them are in G.P then a2, b2,
c2 are in
(A) H.P (B) G.P
(C) A.P (D) None

13) If e, e ′ be the eccentricities of two conics S = 0 and S′ = 0 and if e2 + e ′2 = 3, then both S and S′
can be
(A) hyperbolas (B) ellipses
(C) parabolas (D) None of these

14) The product of cube roots of –1 is equal to

(A) –1 (B) 0
(C) –2 (D) 4

Mathematics Page - 10
15) Coefficient of xn in the expansion a + bx x+ cx is

(−1)n 2
(A) [cn – (b + c) n + a] (B) [cn2 – (b + c) n + a]
∠n − 1 ∠n

(−1)n 2 2
(C) [cn + bn + a] (D) (an + bn + c)
∠n ∠n − 1

16) The number of ways in which 12 balls can be divided between two friends, one receiving 4 and
other 8 is :
∠13 ∠12∠3
(A) (B)
∠4∠8 ∠4 ∠8
(C) (D) None
∠8∠4 ∠2

17) If the lengths of sides of a right angled triangle are in A.P., the their ratio is
(A) 2 : 3 : 4 (B) 3:4:5
(C) 4:5:6 (D) None of these

1 3 7 15
18) The sum of first n terms of the series + + + + . . . . . . is
2 4 8 16
(A) 2n – 1 (B) 1 – 2–n
(C) 2–n – n + 1 (D) 2–n + n – 1

1+ 2 +x − 3
19) The value of Lt is
x→2 x−2
(A) (B) 2
(C) (D) 0
8 3

20) The function f(x) = log (1 + x) – is increasing on
(A) (−1,∞ ) (B) (0, 1)

(C) (−∞,∞) (D) (−∞,0 )

Mathematics Page - 11
21) ∫ (s i n 2x − cos2x ) dx = 2
sin (2x – a) + K then

−5 5
(A) a = ,K ∈R (B) a= ,K ∈R
4 4
1 −
(C) a= , K= (D) a = ,K ∈R
4 2 4

1 1
22) The equation whose roots are and is
3+ 2 3− 2
(A) 7x2 – 6x + 1 = 0 (B) 6x2 – 7x + 1 = 0
(C) x2 – 6x + 7 = 0 (D) x2 – 7x + 6 = 0

23) If the equations x2 – ax + b = 0 and x2 + bx – a = 0 have a common root, then

(A) a + b = 1 (B) a=b
(C) a–b=2 (D) a + b = 0 or a – b = 1

24) A candidate is required to answer 7 questions out of 12 questions which are divided into two
groups each containing 6 questions. He is not permitted to attempt more than 5 questions from
each group. The number of ways in which he can choose the 7 questions is:
(A) 780 (B) 640
(C) 820 (D) None of these

25) The middle term in the expression of (1 + 3x + 3x2 + x3)6 is

(A) 4th (B) 3rd
(C) 10th (D) None of these.

26) The differential equation of all parabolas having their axis as X axis is

d 2 y  dy  2  dy  2
(A) y 2 +  = 0 (B) y+   =0
dx  dx   dx 

dy  d 2 y 
d 3y d 2 y
(C) y 3+ 2 =0 (D) y + 2 = 0
dx dx dx  dx 

Mathematics Page - 12
27) 5 coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability that atleast one head turn up is

(A) 32 (B) 1
31 32

(C) 31 (D) 1
32 26

10 0 
28) For any 2 × 2 matrix A, if A(adj A) =  0 10 , then Α is equal to
 
(A) 20 (B) 100

(C) 10 (D) 0

29) For what value of k, the following system of linear equations will have infinite solutions,
x – y + z = 3, 2x + y – z = 2 and –3x – 2ky + 6z = 3
(A) k ≠ 2 (B) k = 0
(C) k = 3 (D) k = 4

30) The value of 3 cosec 20º – sec 20º is

(A) 4 (B) 12
(C) –2 (D) None of these

31) If A + B = and cos A + cos B = 1, then cos (A – B) is

1 1
(A) − (B)
3 3
1 2
(C) (D)
5 5

32) The mean of n items is Χ . If the first item is increased by 1, second by 2 and so on, then new
mean is:

n +1 Χ+
(A) Χ+ (B)
2 2
n( n + 1) n( n − 1)
(C) Χ+ (D) Χ+
2 2

Mathematics Page - 13
1 5
, P ( Β) = and P (Α ∪ Β) = , then P(A/B) is given by
33) If P(A) =
4 2 9
7 7
(A) (B)
36 9
7 7
(C) (D)
18 35

34) If 2 + i 3 is root of x2 + px + q = 0 where p, q ∈ R then

(A) p = 7, q = – 4 (B) p = – 4, q = 7
(C) p = 4, q = 7 (D) p = – 4, q = –7

[ (
r r r r
35) a × a × a × b )] equals
r r r r
(a ⋅ a ) (a × b ) (a ⋅ a ) (b × a)
r r r r
(A) (B)
r r r r r r
(C) (b ⋅ b )( ar × b ) (D) (b ⋅ b )( b × ar )

2 2 2
36) Sum the series 1 + + + +. . . . . . . .∞
1⋅ 2⋅ 3 3⋅ 4 ⋅ 5 5⋅ 6 ⋅7
(A) 2 loge4 (B) 2 loge2
(C) 2 loge3 (D) None of these

37) The probability of India winning a test match against West Indies is half. If all matches are
independent, in series of 5 matches find the probability that India gets second win in the third test

(A) 1 (B) 1
8 4

(C) 1 (D) 1

38) If the sum of two unit vectors, is a unit vector then the magnitude of their difference is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 1

Mathematics Page - 14

( )
39) The equation of the sphere whose centre has the position vector 3ˆi + 6 ˆj − 4 kˆ and which touches

( )
the plane r ⋅ 2iˆ − 2 ˆj − kˆ = 10 is

(A) r − (3i + 6 j − 4k ) = 4 (B) r − (3i + 6 j + 4k ) = 4

(C) r − (3i + 6 j − 4k ) = 2 (D) None of these

40) The locus of x2 + y2 + z2 = 0 is

(A) a circle (B) a sphere
(C) (0, 0, 0) (D) None of these

Mathematics Page - 15
1) Which one of the following molecules will form a linear polymeric structure due to H - Bonding?
(A) HCl (B) HF
(C) H2O (D) NH3

2) CH3COO– ion is a
(A) weak conjugate base (B) strong conjugate base
(C) weak conjugate acid (D) strong conjugate acid.

3) The value of activation energy is primarily determined by

(A) temperature (B) collision frequency
(C) concentration of reactants (D) chemical nature of reactants and products

4) 50 ml of water takes 5 minutes to evaporate from a vessel on a heater connected to an electric

source which delivers 400 W. The enthalpy of vaporisation of water is
(A) 40.3 kJ per mol (B) 43.2 kJ per mol
(C) 16.7 kJ per mol (D) 180.4 kJ per mol.

5) Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding because

(A) Fe3+ ions coagulate negatively charged blood solution.
(B) Fe3+ ions coagulate positively charged blood solution.
(C) Cl– ions coagulate positively charged solution.
(D) Cl– ions coagulate negatively charged blood solution.

6) The inductive effect

(A) implies the atom’s ability to cause bond polarization.
(B) increases with increase of distance.
(C) implies the transfer of lone pair of electrons from more electronegative atom to the lesser
electronegative atom in a molecule.
(D) implies the transfer of lone pair of electrons from lesser electronegative atom to the more
electronegative atom in a molecule.

7) Lucas reagent is
(A) Anhydrous AlCl3 with Conc. HCl (B) Anhydrous ZnCl 2 and Conc. H2SO4
(C) Anhydrous ZnCl 2 and Conc. HCl (D) Anhydrous CaCl 2 and Conc. HCl

Chemistry Page - 16
8) Azeotropic mixture of HCl and water has:
(A) 48% HCl (B) 22.2% HCl
(C) 36% HCl (D) 20.2% HCl

9) What are the products obtained by ozonolysis of RCH = CR1R2?

(A) R1CH2CH2R2 (B) R2CO
(C) R1COR2 (D) None of these

10) Which of the following substances is not used for preparing lyophilic sols?
(A) Starch (B) Gum
(C) Gelatin (D) Metal sulphide

11) The t 0.5 of a radioactive isotope is 1.5 hrs. How long it will take for its activity to be reduced to
1/16th of its original value?
(A) 3.0h (B) 360 min
(C) 4.5h (D) 600 min

12) In the titration of acetic acid against sodium hydroxide, the pH at the equivalence point will be :
(A) Equal to 7 (B) Less than 7
(C) Greater than 7 (D) None of these

13) In iso-octone (2, 2, 4 - trimethylpentane), the number of tertiary hydrogen atoms is

(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four

14) Which of the following alkanes has neither secondary nor tertiary hydrogens?
(A) Iso - Butane (B) Iso - Pentane
(C) Pentane (D) Neo - Pentane

15) Which of the following carbides is covalent?

(A) CaC2 (B) Al4C3
(C) SiC (D) Be2C

Chemistry Page - 17
16) Which of the following species does not exist?
(A) [SnCl6] (B) [SiCl6]2-
(C) [CCl6]2- (D) [GeCl6]2-

17) Which of the following has pπ - dπ bonding?

(A) NO3– (B) SO32–
(C) BO33– (D) CO32–

18) AlCl3 exist as dimer because

(A) Al has greater ionization potential (B) Al has larger radius
(C) High charge on nucleus (D) Incomplete p-shell

19) Micelle is a term used for the aggregates formed in solution by :

(A) Colloidal electrolyte (B) Colloidal non - electrolyte
(C) Non - associated colloids (D) None of these

20) Which of the following alkali metal ions in solution is the best conductor of electricity?
(A) Li+ (B) Na+
(C) K+ (D) Cs+

21) Isopropyl alcohol on treatment with excess hot conc. H2SO4 gives a compound X . X on treatment
with HBr gives Y. Y when treated with sodium using ether as solvent gives
(A) n - Hexane (B) 2, 3 – Dimethyl butane
(C) 2 - Methyl pentane (D) 3 - Methyl pentane.

22) Nitric acid on standing develops brownish colour which may be due to presence of
(A) NO2+ions (B) NO3- ions
(C) NO2 (D) HNO2

23) The carbonate that is least soluble in water

(A) BeCO3 (B) MgCO3
(C) CaCO3 (D) BaCO3

Chemistry Page - 18
24) The enthalpy of vaporisation of a substance is 840 J per mole and its boiling point is –173ºC.
Calculate its entropy of vaporisation.
(A) 8.4J per mol per K (B) 21J per mole per K
(C) 49J per mole per K (D) 12J per mole per K

25) What is Z in the following sequence of reactions?

Zn CH3Cl Alkaline
Phenol  → X  → Y  → Z
dust AlCl 3 KMnO 4
(A) Toluene (B) Benzene
(C) Benzaldehyde (D) Benzoic Acid


The IUPAC name of the compound is :

(A) propionic anhydride (B) dipropanoic anhydride
(C) ethoxy propanoic acid (D) propanoic anhydride

27) Which of the following halogen is called super halogen?

(A) Fluorine (B) Chlorine
(C) Iodine (D) Bromine

28) Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(A) Fe(CN)64– (B) Ni(CO)4
(C) Ni(CN)42– (D) CoF63–

29) Among the following, the least reactive aldehyde is :


30) m-Dinitrobenzene is treated with ammonium polysulphide. The product obtained will be :
(A) o-phenylenediamine (B) m-phenylenediamine
(C) m-nitroaniline (D) aniline

Chemistry Page - 19
31) The shape of XeF4 molecule is
(A) Square pyramidal (B) Square planar
(C) Tetrahedral (D) See - saw type

32) A compound with empirical formula CH 2O has a vapour density of 90. Its molecular formula is :
(A) C2H4O2 (B) CH2O
(C) C3H6O3 (D) C6H12O6

33) Which of the following yields one monosubstituted chloro alkane upon chlorination?
(A) Isobutane (B) Cyclopentane
(C) n - Butane (D) Propane.

34) Structure of XeF 5+ ion is :

(A) trigonal bipyramidal (B) square pyramidal
(C) octahedral (D) pentagonal.

35) The harmone which controls the process of burning fats, proteins and carbohydrates to liberate
energy in the body is
(A) Cortisone (B) Adrenaline
(C) Thyroxine (D) Insulin

36) The reagent that reacts with nitromethane to form methylhydroxylamine is

(A) Zn/HCl (B) Zn/NH4Cl
(C) Zn/NaOH (D) Sn/HCl

37) An organic compound undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction as well as Aldol condensation. The possible
compound is :

38) Which out of the following in a cell would have the smallest molecule?
(A) DNA (B) m-RNA
(C) r-DNA (D) t-RNA

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39) What is not true about hybridisation?
(A) Hybrid orbitals form relatively stronger bonds than pure atomic orbitals
(B) Hybrid orbitals form sigma bonds.
(C) Orientation of hybrid orbitals depends upon the type of hybridisation.
(D) Promotion of an electron from lower sub-level to higher sub-level of the valence shell is
essential for hybridisation.

40) Which one of the following compounds would not be easily oxidized by K2Cr2O7 and sulphuric acid
(C) (CH3)3COH (D) CH3CHO

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