Safety 10 13 Publish PDF

USCG
Engineering Test Environmental and Safety Formatted by Bruce Sherman

ABS VER Question Choice A Choice B Choice C Choice D Illus Ans
On a tanker, the most likely location for a liquid
290001 2 in the midships house at the main deck manifold at the vent header in the pumproom D
cargo fire to occur would be __________.
The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to
290001 1 in the midships house at the main deck manifold at the vent header in the pumproom D
occur on a tanker would be __________.
Through which of the listed processes is sufficient Latent heat of
290049 2 Heat of expansion Latent heat of sublimation Heat of oxidation D
heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition? condensation
The chief source of spontaneous combustion
290051 7 JP4 cargo gasoline cargo kerosene cargo oil soaked rags or rubbish D
aboard tankers is __________.
The most likely place for a fire to start through the
290051 6 process of spontaneous combustion is in an electrical switchboard the pressure tanks the fuel oil tanks the oily rag bin
__________. D
Which of the listed substances is susceptible to
290051 9 Coal Scrap rubber Leather All of the above D
spontaneous combustion?
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause the An open running electric
290052 2 Static electricity Loose wiring Explosion proof lights D
ignition of fuel vapors? motor
Which of the listed sources of ignition may cause An open and running
290052 1 Static electricity Loose wiring All of the above D
fuel vapors to ignite? motor
A fire can be extinguished by removing
290053 1 the heat the fuel the oxygen any of the above D
__________.
A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is
290053 3 Oxygen Fuel Heat Any of the above. D
removed from the fire?
The temperature of the The air must contain The mixture of vapors with
Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a
290054 1 substance must be equal oxygen in sufficient air must be between the All of the above.
substance to burn?
to or above its fire point. quantity. LEL and the UEL.
D
All of the following are part of the fire triangle
290056 1 fuel oxygen heat electricity D
EXCEPT __________.
Combustible material which is stored adjacent to a heat radiated from the
heat convection through heat conduction of direct radiation emitted by
290100 3 compartment where there is a fire, may also be bulkhead by the adjacent
the bulkheads combustion gases the adjacent fire
ignited. This ignition can occur by __________. fire D
It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks prevent the fire from
cool the metal below its form a dense coating of prevent oxygen from
290100 1 surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in spreading by the
ignition temperature smothering steam reaching the flames D
order to __________. conduction of heat
The spread of fire can be prevented by cooling surfaces adjacent removing combustibles reducing or limiting the
290100 7 all of the above
__________. to the fire from the endangered area oxygen supply D
transmitting the heat of a heated gases flowing
Radiation can cause a fire to spread by burning liquids flowing into the transfer of heat across
290102 1 fire through the ship's through ventilation
__________. another space an unobstructed space
metal systems D
A fire may be spread by which of the following Conduction of heat to
290103 1 Direct radiation Convection All of the above D
means? adjacent surfaces
Which of the poisonous gases listed is the most
290200 6 likely to be found in a closed compartment Nitrogen Hydrogen Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide
involved in a fire? D
Which of the following can result in an oxygen
290202 4 Rusting Cargo residue Fuel oil residue All of the above D
deficiency in a closed space?
Which of the listed conditions could cause a
Rusting or the drying of Decomposing organic
290202 6 dangerous reduction in oxygen in a shipboard Fire All of the above conditions
paint material D
compartment?
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USCG Engineering Test Environmental and Safety Formatted by Bruce Sherman
A good approach to personnel safety is to assume
that all tanks and pump rooms are potentially you have irritation of the you experience an any of the above
290204 1 you smell an unusual odor
dangerous. You should immediately leave an area eyes, nose, or throat abnormal bodily sensation conditions occur
whenever __________. D
Prior to entering a shipboard compartment
290205 2 containing spilled sewage, you should test the Hydrogen sulfide Methane Gas Oxygen All of the above
atmosphere in the compartment for __________. D
Hydrogen sulfide gives crude oil the sour odor of
290215 3 rotten eggs. A hazard to personnel regarding dizziness asphyxiation death All of the above
hydrogen sulfide is __________. D
The lethal concentration of hydrogen sulfide that
290219 2 will result in death with short- term exposure is a 100 ppm 200 ppm 400 ppm 700 ppm
minimum of __________. D
When required to work in an area where explosive
approved by the Coast
290300 2 gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools high carbon steel fixed with a ferrous cover nonferrous
Guard
which are __________. D
When required to work in an area where explosive
approved by the Coast
290300 3 gases may accumulate, you should use tools high carbon steel fireproof non-ferrous
Guard
which are __________. D
requiring the fire watch to
remain on post for an
providing an extinguisher
Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard posting a fire watch in the adequate cool down
290305 2 which is ready for All of the above.
any vessel should include __________. immediate area period after the
immediate use
completion of welding or
burning D
When welding or burning aboard a vessel, the surrounding area has no welding be allowed on
the space is properly
290305 3 precautions should always include that no exposed flammable the outside of fuel tank all of the above
ventilated
__________. material walls D
When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you contains no explosive has no oil or flammable
290305 1 is properly vented all of the above D
must be certain that the space __________. fumes material in the area
checking fireman's outfits checking relevant
A fire and boat drill on a tank vessel shall, by
290306 2 starting the fire pumps and other personal rescue communications all of the above
regulation, include __________.
equipment equipment
D
A fire is considered 'under control' when all hands are at their fire all firefighting equipment the fixed systems are the fire is contained and
290308 1
__________. stations is at the scene activated no longer spreading D
In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is
responsible to make records available to the Coast Officer-in-Charge, Marine The person who caused
290406 4 The company man The owner
Guard official authorized to investigate the Inspection the casualty
casualty? D
The master or person in charge of a MODU must
record the date of each test of emergency lighting on the Certificate of on the Muster List
290408 1 in the Operations Manual in the official log
systems, power systems, the condition of each and Inspection ("Station Bill")
the performance of the equipment __________.
D
Flame screens must be maintained in good
prevent flammable vapors allow the escape of contain flammable vapors allow dissipation of heat
290501 1 condition and fitted in the opening they protect in
from entering the tank flammable vapors within the tank from any flame
order to __________. D

Flame screens must be maintained in good
prevent flammable vapors allow the escape of contain flammable vapors allow proper dissipation of
290501 2 condition and fitted properly in the vent opening
from entering the tank flammable vapors within the tank heat from a flame
they protect in order to __________. D
Tank vent flame screens must be maintained in
prevent flammable vapors allow the escape of contain flammable vapors allow dissipation of heat
290501 3 good condition and properly fitted in the opening
from entering the tank flammable vapors within the tank from open flame
they protect in order to __________. D
reducing the cross- restricting the flow of dissipating heat from the
Flame screens used on ullage openings prevent creating turbulence in the
290504 2 sectional area of the gases through the flame into the surrounding
flames from entering a tank by __________. exiting gas stream D
opening opening metal
According to 46 CFR, a single layer of tank vent
290505 1 flame screen must be composed of corrosion 8x 8 10 x 10 20 x 20 30 x 30
resistant wire and at least a mesh of __________. D
A tubular type of device designed to prevent the
290506 2 passage of flames into an enclosed space is 'flame relief valve' 'flame stopper' 'safety valve' 'flame arrester'
commonly called a ________. D
In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of
A rise in temperature The fire alarm test push- A manual fire alarm box is
290551 1 the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire All of the above.
activating a heat detector. button is operated. activated. D
to be given in the annunciator cabinet?
Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may
290557 1 smoke rate of temperature rise ionized particles all of the above D
be arranged to sense __________.
What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical
290607 1 12% 15% 18% 21% D
sample of uncontaminated air?
The explosive range of benzene is 1.4% to 8% by
volume in air. If you sample an empty tank that had vapor/air mixture is not
vapor/air mixture is too vapor concentration at the
290608 2 contained benzene and obtained a reading of 50% within the flammable all of the above
lean to burn sample point is 0.7%
L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator, then the range
__________. D
A vapor sample is drawn into the combustible gas
The concentration of The concentration of
indicator shown in the illustration. The needle The concentration of
The indicator is improperly combustible vapor in the combustible vapor in the
290612 2 deflects to the explosive range of the scale and combustible vapor in the SF-0002
calibrated. sample is twenty percent sample is above the upper
then returns to rest at 20%. What does this sample is twenty percent.
of its lower explosive limit. explosive limit. D
indicate?
The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8.0%
by volume in air. If a reading of 50% of the lower
290613 1 explosive limit is obtained, using the meter shown 3.3% by volume in the flammable range too rich to burn too lean to burn SF-0002
in the illustration, the vapor concentration at the
sample point is __________. D
A combustible gas indicator is used to determine if there is sufficient oxygen the toxicity of flammable the amount of CO2 the presence of flammable
290615 3
__________. to support life gases or vapors present in flue gas gases or vapors in the air
D
most petroleum vapors
When testing the atmosphere of a compartment the indicator guarantees a the meter scale indicates the indicator tests only the
are lighter than air and
290616 2 with a combustible gas indicator, the operator must safe atmosphere for a only the upper explosive atmosphere at the end of
accumulate around deck
remember that __________. maximum of two hours range the suction tube
longitudinals D
Any movement of the
needle indicates an
Which of the following conditions is an important They do not work properly
They detect vapor at the unsafe condition
290616 1 consideration to remember when using a in oxygen deficient All of the above.
sample point only. specifically related to the
combustible gas indicator? atmospheres.
toxicity of petroleum
vapors present. D

Combustible gas indicators are used to detect
flammable gases or vapors in the atmosphere. As an audible signaling a pressure relieving
290617 1 an inflatable bag flame arrestors
a safety feature, they are equipped with device device
__________. D
The reading on the combustible gas indicator,
The length and diameter Flame arresters are
shown in the illustration, is obtained by burning the A series of baffles within
The test burn occurs of the sampling tube are placed at the inlet and
290617 2 vapor sample within the instrument. How is the the instrument prevents a SF-0003
outside the tested space. designed to prevent a outlet of the combustion
flame prevented from igniting the vapor within the flashback.
flashback. chamber. D
space being tested?
If there is any liquid in the
If the meter needle moves
Meter readings are tank being tested, the As gas samples are drawn
to the extreme right side
Which of the following statement is true concerning obtained instantaneously sampling tube should be into the instrument they
290618 4 of the scale and remains SF-0003
the meter shown in the illustration? upon release of the submerged in it to obtain are burned within the
there, the atmosphere is
squeeze bulb. the most accurate case.
safe.
reading. D
only sample around the sample only near the avoid sampling in the sample as much of the
When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with
290620 1 deck longitudinals as ullage openings as all vicinity of deep webs to tank as possible,
an explosimeter, you should __________.
gases are lighter than air vapors accumulate there prevent false readings especially at the bottom
D
An instrument used to detect explosive gas/air
mixtures, usually measures the concentration in
290621 3 toxic vapor meter flame safety lamp gas absorption detector combustible gas indicator
terms of the lower explosive limit, and is known as
a __________. D
The instrument shown in the illustration is used to oxygen content of the diesel exhaust analysis by boiler stack gas analysis concentration of explosive
290621 4 SF-0003
indicate the __________. atmosphere volume by weight gases in a tank
D
At which of the listed tank locations should you At the center of the ullage
At the hatch coaming and At the hatch coaming and At the middle and bottom
290622 2 obtain oxygen content readings prior to tank and one meter below
tank bottom. middle of the tank. of the tank.
washing? deck. D
Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned,
290622 1 it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and Orsat apparatus flame safety lamp Halide torch combustible gas indicator
a/an __________. D
The instrument shown in the illustration has not
check or renew the adjust the meter pointer to
290623 1 been used for several weeks. Prior to its use for purge the meter all of the above SF-0003
batteries zero D
testing a compartment, you should __________.
Use the open flame test
Send a gas sample
How may a cargo tank atmosphere be tested for on a small sample that Enter the tank with a
290624 2 ashore for laboratory Use an explosimeter.
explosive gases? has been taken from the teledyne oxygen analyzer.
analysis. D
tank.
Use the open flame test
Which of the following procedures is the generally Send a gas sample
on a small sample that Enter the tank with a
290624 3 accepted method of determining whether the ashore for laboratory Use an explosimeter.
has been taken from the teledyne oxygen analyzer.
atmosphere within a cargo tank is flammable? analysis.
tank. D
Which of the following procedures is the generally Use the open flame test
Send a gas sample
accepted method of determining whether the on a small sample that Enter the tank with a Use an explosimeter or
290624 1 ashore for laboratory
atmosphere within a cargo tank is over rich, has been taken from the teledyne oxygen analyzer. combustible gas indicator.
analysis. D
explosive, or too lean to support combustion? tank.

A three inch overboard discharge line, located six
feet below the waterline, has ruptured and
separated from the hull. What would be the
minimum number of strokes per minute required
290650 4 45 strokes per minute 56 strokes per minute 87 strokes per minute 98 strokes per minute SF-0034
from a 10" x 8" x 11" duplex double acting
reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 93%
efficiency, to keep the bilge level from continuing to
rise? D
The combustible gas
Which of the following statements represents U.S. The flashlight must be an The lifeline must be
indicator hose must be Boots and gloves must be
290701 4 Coast Guard regulations concerning the equipment approved 3 cell fireproof phosphor bronze wire
100 feet (30.5 m) in electrically nonconducting.
used with firemen's outfits? type. rope only.
length. D
The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must made of steel or bronze not less than 50 feet in
290704 1 corrosion resistant All of the above D
be __________. wire rope length
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), A
290804 3 fire door that is held open by magnets may be wheelhouse galley engine room stairway enclosure
found in the __________. D
What safety information can be found in the fire
Location of the remote Particulars of the fire
290806 1 control plan that is posted or available in booklet Location of fire doors All of the above.
means of stopping fans detecting system
form on your ship? D
alternate expansion and
absorb smoke and gases rapidly contract as water vaporize and rapidly
A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire contraction as water in
291001 1 as water is converted from is converted from a liquid expand as water absorbs
extinguishing agent is its ability to __________. liquid state becomes
liquid to vapor to a vapor heat
vapor D
When entering a burning compartment equipped
a straight stream aimed at the high velocity fog into the high velocity fog at the the high velocity fog at the
291051 4 with a fire hose and an all- purpose nozzle, you
the flames of the fire the center of the fire deck to cool it for entry overhead to absorb heat
should first direct __________. D
The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is remove oxygen from the cool the substance below
291052 6 smother the fire with foam smother the fire with CO2
to __________. area its ignition temperature
D
The most practical method of extinguishing a class
a hand portable CO2 Purple K powder and light
291052 2 "A" fire, involving burning dunnage, is to use chemical foam water
extinguishers water
__________. D
Sweep the exterior
Sweep the exterior
Sweep the exterior bulkheads with a solid
Which of the following methods should be used to Sweep the exterior bulkheads with water fog
bulkheads with a solid stream of water until
prevent a class "A" fire in a topside compartment, bulkheads with water fog until steam is no longer
291054 2 stream of water until the steam is no longer
with steel bulkheads, from spreading to the until the fire is reportedly produced, secure the
fire is reportedly produced, secure the
adjacent compartments? extinguished. nozzle, and repeat as
extinguished. nozzle, and repeat as
necessary. D
necessary.
Sweep all exterior
Sweep all exterior
Sweep all exterior surfaces with a solid
Which of the following methods should be used to Sweep all exterior surfaces with water fog
surfaces with a solid stream of water until
prevent a class "A" fire in a topside compartment, surfaces with water fog until steam is no longer
291054 4 stream of water until the steam is no longer
with steel bulkheads, from spreading to the until the fire is reportedly produced, secure the
fire is reportedly produced, secure the
adjacent compartments? extinguished. nozzle, and repeat as
extinguished. nozzle, and repeat as
necessary. D
necessary.
Why is it necessary to cool the bulkheads, decks, Prevent the fire from
Cool the metal below its Form a dense coating of Prevent oxygen from
291054 3 and overheads surrounding an involved spreading by heat
ignition temperature smothering steam reaching the flames
compartment fire? conduction D

When fighting the fire depicted in figure 1 of the
291056 1 illustration, which letter denotes where the attack A C D E SF-0013
hose line would be used? D
You are assigned to patrol the boundaries of the
Temperature inside
fire shown in figure 1 of the illustration. What signs Paint on bulkhead is
291058 1 Bulkhead is hot. compartment is higher All of the above. SF-0013
would indicate the fire was spreading to an blistering.
than outside.
adjacent compartment? D
The airflow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is
291060 1 Horizontal. Vertical. Parallel. Combination. SF-0013 D
an example of which type of ventilation?
When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the
protect themselves from obtain the best available allow the heat and steam
291063 1 hose team should crouch as low as possible to All of the above
smoke air to pass overhead D
__________.
open doors, hatches, advance the hose team
A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge
portholes, or similar into the room without any increase the ventilation to remove combustibles from
291064 4 room accessed by door "E". You should SF-0013
openings to the affected additional preparatory the involved space adjacent spaces
__________. D
space action
A large fire has developed in the main space of
your vessel and you are assigned to the hose team
291069 1 and have suited up in a firefighter's ensemble suit. Atmospheric conditions. Intensity of the fire. Available air supply. All of the above.
What will determine the time allowed to combat the
fire before you should be relieved?
D
You are assigned to the hose team and have
suited up in a firefighting ensemble to fight a large
291069 2 fire in the engine room. What will determine the Fire location. Intensity of the fire. Available air supply. All of the above.
time allowed to combat the fire before you should
be relieved? D
A solid stream of water is produced by an all-
pushed all the way
291102 10 purpose firefighting nozzle when the handle is pushed forward one notch pulled halfway back pulled all the way back
forward
__________. D
When the handle is in position "B", and piece "D" is
291102 6 in place, the device shown in the illustration will no flow a solid stream low velocity fog high velocity fog SF-0011
produce __________. D
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR),
Semi-portable CO2 fire
291105 2 which of the firefighting devices listed is not Any rubber lined hose Combination nozzles Eight foot applicators
extinguishers D
permitted for use in the engine room?
A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-
purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator
291150 1 water pressure a locknut a keeper screw a spring-loaded catch
is prevented from rotating in the joint by
__________. D
Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into
tighten the high velocity put the control handle in put the control handle in remove the high velocity
291151 5 an all-purpose combination nozzle, you must
fog tip the solid steam position the fog position fog tip
__________. D
Prior to inserting a low velocity fog applicator into
move the handle to remove the device move the handle to remove the device
291151 4 the nozzle shown in the illustration, you must SF-0011
position "B" indicated by the letter "E" position "A" indicated by the letter "D"
__________. D
To produce a low velocity water fog spray with an
push the nozzle handle change the fire pump pull the nozzle handle insert a low velocity fog
291151 8 all-purpose fire hose nozzle, you must
completely forward discharge pressure completely back applicator
__________. D

Which of the following statements is true It is usually kept in the It is chained to the
291151 3 It sprays large droplets. It sprays a fine mist. D
concerning a low velocity fog tip? nozzle when stowed. combination nozzle.
Low velocity water fog is very effective in removing toxic fumes from controlling the movement removing combustible shielding fire fighters from
291154 3
__________. the air of burning oil vapors from the air the fire
D
One of the uses for low velocity fog is to help produce mechanical break apart class "A" sweep burning liquids act as a heat shield to
291154 2 D
__________. foam combustibles overboard protect the fire fighter
Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a barrier against radiant
291155 1 cooling agent smothering agent all of the above D
__________. heat
a given amount of water it reduces the total amount
Water applied as a 'fog' can be more effective than
can absorb heat faster of water that must be it does not have to hit the
291156 2 water applied as a 'solid stream', because of all of the above
when it is in the form of pumped into the ship to seat of fire to be effective
__________.
fog fight a given fire
D
male and female ends female end available to be
Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled male end attached to the nozzle end arranged to be
291200 1 connected together to quickly connected to the
into a rack with the __________. adjacent fire hydrant easily run out to the fire
prevent damage hydrant D
Gasoline and oils act to
Moisture will cause
dissolve the rubber or
Which of the conditions listed make it difficult to Heat causes the rubber mildew to form on the
291203 5 cement which holds the All of the above.
indefinitely maintain fire hoses? lining to harden and crack. jacket which destroys the
inner jacket and lining
cotton fiber.
together. D
the type of fire hose coupling threads required for
291205 2 ABS standard U.L. standard American standard National standard
vessel fire equipment, on or after July 1, 1954,
shall be __________. D
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), one length of fire hose a hose rack or other
291207 2 a spanner wrench all of the above
each fire hydrant must have at least __________. with an approved nozzle device for stowing hose D
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require fire
hydrants to be located in the propulsion machinery
12 foot low velocity fog 100 foot length of lined fire
291207 4 spaces containing oil fired boilers. In addition, straight through nozzle coupling spanner wrench
applicator hose
vessels of 1,000 gross tons and over are to be
equipped with a __________. D
A 2-1/2 inch hose should Backup hoseman should The fire hose should be
Which of the following statements is FALSE Hose nozzle thrust
be deployed with a be positioned wherever partially charged before
291210 1 concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire increases with an increase
minimum of a nozzleman the hose makes a deploying the hose from
hose? in hose pressure.
and two hose men. significant turn. the hydrant. D
pointing downward or
Fire main outlet valves, or hydrants shall be in screened enclosures in where they are protected in a protected location to
291254 1 horizontal to prevent
installed __________. all passageways from the weather prevent cargo damage
kinking of the fire hose D
The fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the
291254 3 45° upward vertically upward 90° upward vertically downward D
horizontal to any position pointing __________.
According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46
There must be at least Shore connections must There must be at least
CFR), which of the following statements
one shore connection to be in an accessible one portable international
291257 2 concerning fire main shore connections for a All of the above.
the fire main system on location and fitted with shore connection flange
20,000 gross ton cargo vessel on an international
each side of the vessel. cutoff and check valves. available.
voyage is correct? D

pressure gage and relief
For the safety of personnel working with fire hoses, butterfly valve on the air priming valve on the automatic suction valve
291300 4 valve on the discharge
fire pumps are fitted with a/an __________. discharge side impeller housing shut off
side D
A cutoff valve in the fire main system of a MODU
damage from crane being used for wash down accidental diversion of
291352 1 may be closed to protect a portion of the system freezing
operations purposes flow to wrong location
on an exposed deck from __________. D
destroying the burning chemical reaction with the absorbing the burning smothering the burning
291400 6 Foam extinguishes a fire by __________. D
materials burning material material material
When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low- not cling to vertical
291403 4 be dryer be lighter be less heat resistant D
expansion foam will __________. surfaces
Because AFFF works AFFF controls the
The agent cannot be used AFFF can only be
Which of the following statements is true through surface tension, it vaporization of flammable
291404 1 in conjunction with dry produced from fresh
concerning Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)? cannot be broken up if it is liquids by means of a
chemicals. water.
agitated. water film.
D
Which of the firefighting foams listed would require
Synthetic and alcohol Aqueous film forming
291405 2 the mechanical mixing of air and foam Protein foam All of the above
foams foam (AFFF)
concentrate? D
Which type of firefighting foam listed is supplied in Aqueous film forming
291405 1 Mechanical foam Protein foam All of the above D
both 3% and 6% concentrations? foam
The device shown in the illustration is a
291453 4 suicide nozzle spanner hose pipe fog applicator mechanical foam nozzle SF-0020 D
__________.
The firefighting equipment shown in the illustration
291453 2 'suicide' nozzle all-purpose nozzle fog applicator mechanical foam nozzle SF-0020 D
is a/an __________.
One of the limitations of foam as a fire cannot be made with salt is heavier than oil and is corrosive and a hazard
291500 1 conducts electricity D
extinguishing agent is that foam __________. water sinks below it surface to fire fighters
Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam penetrates to the bottom is kept saturated with low mixes with the burning completely covers the top
291550 3 D
__________. of the fire velocity water fog fuel oil of the burning liquid
The most effective means for combating an oil fire solid streams of water
high velocity fog over the foam directed against the
291551 2 on the water surrounding a vessel is to use directed at the edge of the dry chemicals over the fire
fire side of the vessel
__________. fire D
The best means of combating an oil fire on the
solid water streams dry chemical around the foam directed against the
291552 7 water surface near a vessel tied to the pier, is to a fixed CO2 system
directly into the fire fire vessel's side
use __________. D
When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are
protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system, At least two fire hydrants
At least one portable foam At least ten cubic feet of At least one semi-
291600 1 what additional protection is required by Coast each equpped with hose,
extinguisher sand of with scoop portable CO2 extinguisher
Guard Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the nozzle and applicator
machinery space entrance? D
A portable foam fire extinguisher carried aboard a
291601 1 3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months
tank vessel must be recharged every __________.
D
At what interval must a foam fire extinguisher be
291601 2 recharged if the vessel's Certificate of Inspection is Quarterly Semiannually Biennially Annually
issued for a period of two years? D
The preferred fire extinguishing agent used in
291630 1 fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is CO2 dry chemical water foam
__________. D

If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is
a Coast Guard inspection the safety man aboard the the designated person-in- the manufacturer, or his
291632 1 not of the premix type, a sample of the foam liquid
officer unit charge of the unit authorized representative
must be tested by __________. D
Which statement is true concerning Halon 1301 The agent is highly toxic The agent is less effective Halon extinguishes the fire The agent is a colorless
291650 4
fire extinguishing equipment? under all conditions. than CO2. by smothering. odorless gas.
D
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed uses a
291651 2 Halon 1211 Halon 1301 Purple K All of the above D
chain breaking action to put out a fire?
Flammable gas fires are Conventional fixed fire
Carbon dioxide and Halon not extinguished by fixed extinguishing systems
Which of the following conditions are true are both effective fixed systems; controlled may not be effective for
291700 2 All of the above.
concerning shipboard fire extinguishing systems? systems that protect burning is recommended use against 'class D' fires
against 'class C' fires. until the fuel source can involving combustible
be shut off. metals.
D
put back in service if more
After using a portable Halon fire extinguisher, it hydrostatically tested
291751 2 than 50% of the charge repainted discarded
should be __________. before reuse
remains D
Halon extinguishers used on a class "C" fire should
291830 2 base of the equipment top of the equipment power source source of the fire D
be directed at the __________.
Which of the following statements is true Carbon dioxide is Carbon dioxide should be
Its total cooling effect is Its smothering effect is
291902 1 concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire corrosive when exposed applied slowly to a large
far greater than water. excellent for class B fires.
extinguishing agent? to fire. engine room fire. D
open the engine room
In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces actuate an alarm and actuate an alarm and open the engine room
control valve and shut off
291952 4 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, you must open the engine room open the engine room control valve and then the
engine room ventilation
__________. control valve CO2 releasing valve CO2 releasing valve
fans D
Two separate control
Only one control activation An alarm must sound for
Which of the following statements is true handles are required
handle is required for at least 20 seconds before
concerning the control station activation handles when a stop valve is
291952 7 discharge piping systems CO2 is released into a All of the above
for a space protected with a CO2 fixed fire installed in the CO2
designed without a space that is likely to be
extinguishing system? discharge line leading to
separate stop valve. occupied. D
the protected space.
If heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from a
leave the door and vents open the door completely secure the door and
partially open door of a paint locker having a CO2 enter and use a portable
291954 3 open, but release the CO2 to evaluate the extent of vents, then manually
fire extinguishing system, the FIRST firefighting extinguisher
flooding system the fire release the CO2 D
attack should be to __________.
Which of the listed fixed fire extinguishing systems
291955 2 Sprinkler Chemical foam Dry chemical CO2
is most effective for use in the cargo holds?
D
The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire
extinguishing system may be located inside the
291960 3 50 pounds 75 pounds 100 pounds 300 pounds
protected space if the quantity of CO2 required to
protect that space is not more than __________. D
In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system, where
provision is made for the release of CO2 by the the engineering control
291964 1 inside the engine room the bridge the cylinder location
operation of a remote control, provision is also to station
be made for releasing the CO2 from __________. D

If the empty weight of a B-III semi- portable CO2
292000 1 fire extinguisher is 35 lbs (15.9 kg), what is its full 47 lbs (21.3 kg) 50 lbs (22.7 kg) 55 lbs (24.9 kg) 70 lbs (31.7 kg)
charged weight? D
In a semi portable CO2 system, the latch shown in all-purpose nozzle in a portable foam nozzle in cylinder bottle control hose reel type CO2 horn
292001 2 SF-0017
the illustration is used to lock the __________. solid stream position the open position valve in the open position
D
A safety 'ring pin' is usually inserted in the handle the cylinder valve from the handle from contacting contamination of the valve accidental discharge from
292003 4 D
of a CO2 fire extinguisher to prevent __________. coming loose the cylinder parts the extinguisher
when the remaining
Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should charge volume is less at each inspection for when the charge weight
292006 1 at each annual inspection
be sent ashore to be recharged __________. than 90 percent of the certification loss exceeds 10%
required volume D
Which portable fire extinguisher is normally Dry chemical (cartridge- Water (cartridge-
292008 1 Water (pump tank) Carbon dioxide D
recharged in a shore facility? operated) operated)
How much warning must be provided by the CO2
292050 6 warning alarm before CO2 is discharged into a 5 seconds 10 seconds 15 seconds 20 seconds
space? D
Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind Forgetting to secure the CO2 gas being drawn into
Possible suffocation from
292052 4 after using a 15 pound CO2 fire extinguisher on a engine room ventilation nearby engine or air Rekindling of the fire.
the CO2 gas.
small oil fire on the engine room floor plates? system. compressor intakes. D
You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor
Chemical reaction of the
plates of the engine room with a 15 pound (6.8 kg) Complete lack of oxygen Sudden stoppage of the
292052 5 CO2 and oil forming Rekindling of the fire.
CO2 extinguisher. Which of the dangers listed in the engine room. main engine.
carbonic acid.
should be prepared for next? D
The stamped full weight of a 100 lb. CO2 cylinder
292100 4 is 314 pounds. What is the total minimum weight of 282 lbs. 294 lbs. 300 lbs. 304 lbs.
the cylinder before it must be recharged? D
You receive the record of cylinder weights, shown
in the illustration, at the annual servicing of your
292100 2 101 and 102 103 and 106 106 and 108 103 and 108 SF-0014
ship's CO2 system. Which pair of CO2 cylinders
requires recharging? D
If a portable carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has weighed and the charge tagged 'empty' and
tagged and restowed given to the chief engineer
292103 3 been partially discharged, it should be immediately loss recorded before stowed separately from
properly in its rack for recharging
__________. being returned to its rack charged extinguishers D
when the remaining
when the remaining
Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be charge volume is less
292103 6 at each biennial inspection at each annual inspection charge weight is 10% less
recharged __________. than 90% of the required
than the required weight D
volume
Which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be
weighed annually and sent ashore for recharging if
292103 4 Foam Soda acid Dry chemical Carbon dioxide
the weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of a full
charge? D
Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a It is more effective than
292105 1 It leaves no residue. It is noncorrosive. It is always non-toxic. D
fire extinguishing agent? CO2.
Which statement is TRUE regarding Halon as a It is more effective than
292105 2 It leaves no residue. It is noncorrosive. All of the above. D
fire extinguishing agent? CO2.

What would be the approximate internal pressure

292106 2 of a fully charged hand/portable 15 lb. CO2 fire 50 PSI 200 PSI 400 PSI 850 PSI
extinguisher, stored at average room temperature? D
What would be the approximate internal pressure
of a hand/portable 15 lb. CO2 fire extinguisher that
292106 3 has been partially discharged and lost 50% of its 50 PSI 200 PSI 400 PSI 850 PSI
charge and stored in a "Used Extinguisher Locker"
at room temperature? D
Burning electrical insulation is best extinguished by
292150 9 soda acid foam water fog carbon dioxide D
__________.
via the lowest access door via the highest access
Following an engine room bilge fire which is
no sooner than 15 and equipped with SCBAs door and equipped with
believed to be extinguished after using a fixed CO2
292154 2 minutes after the fire is via the lowest access door no sooner than 30 SCBAs, one hour after the
fire extinguishing system, the investigating team
believed extinguished minutes after the fire is fire is believed
should reenter the closed space __________.
believed extinguished extinguished D
All cylinders used for The cylinders may be
The space containing the
The cylinders which are storing carbon dioxide located within the space
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), cylinders shall be properly
fitted with flexible or bent shall be fabricated, tested, protected provided the
which of the following statements is true ventilated and designed to
292201 1 siphon tubes may be and marked in accordance system consists of not
concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing preclude an ambient
inclined not more than 30° with the applicable section more than 300 pounds
systems? temperature in excess of
from the vertical. of the American Welding (136.1 kg) of carbon
100°F (37.78°C)
Society code. dioxide.
D
the piping, valves, and fittings for a fixed CO2 fire
292204 2 2000 psi (13.8 MPa) 2800 psi (19.3 MPa) 4000 psi (27.5 MPa) 6000 psi (41.1 MPa)
extinguishing system shall have a bursting
pressure of not less than __________. D
According to 46 CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for
storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system must be once in every calendar
292206 1 5 years 8 years 12 years
hydrostatically retested and restamped every year
__________. D
Aboard a MODU, a CO2 fire extinguisher must be
292250 4 monthly quarterly semiannually annually D
weighed __________.
After using a CO2 fire extinguisher on a MODU, it put back in service if some
292250 1 hydrostatically tested retagged recharged D
should be __________. CO2 remains
On a MODU, a fixed carbon dioxide fire
where oil or chemical in a space with an oil fired in all of the above
292251 2 extinguishing or other approved system, must be in paint lockers
drums are stored boiler locations
installed __________. D
Which of the listed firefighting systems is best
Automatic sprinkler
292252 1 suited for fighting a fire in an oil rig ballast control Steam smothering system Dry chemical system Carbon dioxide system
system
room? D
removing the fuel by
Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire cooling and removing the smothering and removing breaking up the molecular
292301 2 absorbing the heated
by __________. oxygen from the fuel the oxygen from the fuel chain reaction
vapors D
The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration will
292352 1 light water chemical foam carbon dioxide dry chemical SF-0006 D
be charged with __________.

According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), whether this type of
the type of fire the unit
portable and semi-portable fire extinguishers are extinguisher is to be used the size of the the type of extinguishing
292353 1 could be expected to
classified by a letter and numeric designator. The on deck or in machinery extinguisher agent
extinguish D
letter designation indicates __________. spaces
In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire
with the squeeze grip by turning the activating with the squeeze-grip
extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, by squeezing the control
292355 1 trigger on top of the handle on the bottom of on/off nozzle at the end of
the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher valve carrying handle
container the container the hose D
__________.
shaking the extinguisher
Proper maintenance of a dry chemical fire adding water to the painting the CO2 cartridge puncturing the CO2
292400 4 to loosen the caked-up
extinguisher will include __________. powder red cartridge
portions of the powder D
Which of the following procedures should be used Make certain that the
Check to see that hose Ensure that dry chemical
292400 3 to examine a cartridge- operated dry chemical fire pressure cartridge has not All of the above.
and nozzle are clear. is not become caked.
extinguisher? been punctured. D
Which of the listed methods, is the most effective Direct the extinguisher Move the discharge
Approach the fire from the
292455 1 to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using discharge at the base of stream back and forth in a All of the above.
windward side.
a dry chemical type fire extinguisher? the fire. rapid sweeping motion.
D
On a MODU, size "III", 'IV', and "V" fire fixed fire extinguishing
292534 1 hand portable units all-purpose units semi-portable units D
extinguishers are considered __________. systems
the names of the an identification number
Each hand portable fire extinguisher carried on a the name of the unit on the date that it was
292538 1 individuals qualified to use different from other
MODU must be marked with __________. which it is located installed on the unit
it extinguishers on the unit D
electrical fire in the engine oil fire in the engine room oil fire involving a grade mattress fire in a
292550 2 An example of class "A" fire is a/an __________. D
room bilges "A" petroleum product stateroom
Burning magnesium is considered to be which of
292555 3 Class A Class B Class C Class D D
the listed classes of fire?
When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you extinguish the fire, then secure the source of gas,
292602 1 use only carbon dioxide use only dry chemical
should __________. secure the source of gas then extinguish the fire D
The FIRST step to take in fighting an engine room
evacuate all engine room fight the fire with hand activate the main CO2 stop the flow of leaking
292603 6 fire resulting from a ruptured fuel oil service line, is
personnel portable extinguishers bank fuel oil
to __________. D
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be
292605 1 Dry chemical CO2 Foam All of the above D
used to effectively combat a class B fire?
Which of the listed extinguishing agents could be
292605 2 used to fight a class "B" fire involving the duct work CO2 Dry chemical Halon All of the above
for the galley stove? D
According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed
fire extinguishers would be considered hand 35 pounds of carbon
292610 1 2.5 gallons of foam 20 pounds of dry chemical All of the above
portable/semi portable and capable of combating a dioxide
class "B" fire? D
According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed
15 pounds of carbon
292610 3 fire extinguishers would be considered hand 2.5 gallons of foam 10 pounds of dry chemical All of the above
dioxide
portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire? D
Which of the listed burning materials would be
292611 1 Acetylene Lube oil Grease All of the above D
described as a class "B" fire?

If ignited, which of the listed materials would be a
292613 7 Magnesium Paper W ood Diesel Oil D
class "B" fire?
Which of the following substances is to be
292613 4 W ood Rags Electrical insulation Fuel oil D
considered as fuel for a class "B" fire?
If an electric motor catches fire, you should first
292650 3 use a CO2 extinguisher cool the motor with air remove the load de-energize the circuit D
__________.
292651 5 A class "C" fire is burning __________. diesel oil magnesium dunnage electrical insulation D
292651 4 A class "C" fire would occur in __________. bedding pipe insulation paint a generator D
Which of the listed materials would be considered
292651 6 Fuel oil W ood Celluloid Electrical insulation D
as a burning class "C" fire?
Water damage to
When combating a class C fire, which of the Increased surface area of Toxic fumes from burning
292653 1 Flooding of the vessel machinery not involved in
following dangers may be present? the burning fluid insulation or electric shock
the fire D
the igniting of a grease fire
One of the main concerns when fighting a galley contamination food with spreading of fire through
292654 1 the loss of stability in the range hood
fire is __________. extinguishing agent the engineering space
ventilation system D
Class C fires may be combated using a carbon dioxide
292655 1 dry chemical extinguisher Halon extinguisher all of the above D
__________. extinguisher
A class "D" fire would be considered as burning
292700 2 wood oil electrical equipment magnesium D
__________.
Fires involving combustible metals are classified
292700 3 class "A" fires class "B" fires class "C" fires class "D" fires D
as __________.
A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class
292701 1 "A" fire "B" fire "C" fire "D" fire D
__________.
A magnesium fire would be classified as a
292702 1 class A class B class C class D D
__________.
Fires occurring in combustible metals, such as
292702 2 sodium or magnesium, are classified as a class A class B class C class D
__________. D
taking measures to
protecting fire fighters protecting exposed areas prevent the spread of fire
In firefighting, the term 'protecting exposures' keeping flames from
292753 1 from direct exposure to of the superstructure from from the involved
means __________. burning at the tank vents
the heat of the fire flames compartment to an
adjacent compartment D
Records of tests and inspections of all fire for the period of validity of
until the next Coast Guard
292801 1 extinguishing systems onboard a cargo vessel for 1 year for 2 years the vessel's current
inspection
shall be kept onboard __________. Certificate of Inspection D
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR)
for uninspected vessels, all hand portable fire American Bureau of National Fire Protection National Cargo Gear
292803 2 U.S. Coast Guard
extinguishers must be approved by the Shipping Association Bureau
__________. D
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that the
maximum number of type B-II hand portable fire
292803 4 extinguishers required aboard a 299 gross ton one three six nine
uninspected motor vessel with 7000 BHP main
propulsion diesel engine is __________. D
If your vessel's Certificate of Inspection requires
Six 2 1/2 gallon soda acid, Six 2 1/2 gallon foam, two Six 15 pound CO2, two 2
six B-II, two A-II and one B-V fire extinguisher, Eight 2 1/2 gallon foam
292804 5 two 2 1/2 gallon foam, and 15 pound CO2, and one 1/2 gallon foam, and one
which of the listed combinations will provide the and one 100 pound CO2
one 40 gallon foam 30 pound dry chemical 50 pound CO2 D
amount and type required?

In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46
CFR Part 95), a 25,000 gross ton cargo vessel on
an ocean route, having two 10,000 HP oil fired
boilers, requires a certain quantity of hand portable 100 lbs. CO2, 20 lbs. dry 40 gals. Foam, 30 lbs 50 lbs. dry chemical, 5
292804 4 All of the above
and semi-portable fire extinguishing systems in the chemical CO2 gals. foam
engine room. Which of the following quantities of
extinguishing agents would meet these
requirements? D
If a vessel loses its reserve buoyancy, it will float upright with the main capsize and float on its remain unaffected if the
293021 6 most likely sink D
__________. deck awash side hull remains intact
The value of the maximum righting arm is
longitudinal center of transverse center of vertical location of the
293026 2 dependent upon the position of the center of down flooding angle
gravity gravity center of gravity D
buoyancy and the __________.
The value of the maximum righting arm is
longitudinal center of transverse center of position of the center of
293026 3 dependent upon the position of the center of down flooding angle
waterplane area waterplane area gravity
buoyancy and the __________. D
The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical
upward support. The point through which this
293027 1 effort flotation gravity buoyancy
support is assumed to act is known as the center
of __________. D
In the absence of external forces, the center of
geometric center of the
293028 1 gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above metacenter amidships center of flotation
displaced volume
the __________. D
If the buoyant force on a ship's hull is equal to or
require ballast added to
293031 1 greater than the displacement tonnage, the ship be down by the head sink float
only the port side tanks
will __________. D
The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the
293034 5 height of the metacenter righting arm righting moment metacentric height D
__________.
With no environmental forces present, the center
293035 3 of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned longitudinal centerline center of flotation original vertical centerline center of buoyancy
with the __________. D
If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are
293036 1 no movable or moving weights onboard, the center move to port move to starboard move directly down stay in the same position
of gravity will __________. D
If additional weight is placed on the main deck of
293037 1 K will rise KB will go down GM will increase G will rise SF-0023 D
the vessel shown in the illustration, __________.
If weight is added at "K" to the ship shown in the
293037 3 "B" will go down "G" will rise 'GM' will decrease "G" will go down SF-0023 D
illustration, __________.
The important stability parameter 'KG' is defined as height of the metacenter height of the center of height of the center of
293039 1 metacentric height
the __________. above the keel buoyancy above the keel gravity above the keel
D
Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's decreasing off center increasing water area on preventing the free preventing water from
293041 1
stability by __________. weight the keelson surface effect draining to the bilge well
D
A vessel which has been holed as shown in the flood until a state of result in a loss of reserve
293043 1 reduce transverse stability all of the above SF-0005 D
illustration, will probably __________. equilibrium is reached buoyancy
The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel
293050 1 yaw sway heave surge D
is called __________.
Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a
293055 3 pitch surge sway roll D
vessel is known as __________.

is supported on a wave
A vessel is subjected to 'hogging' when it has its main deck under has its bottom plating is supported on a wave
293100 3 whose crests are at the
__________. compressive stress under tensile stress whose crest is amidships
bow and stern D
If fuel is burned from only the starboard tanks, the
293131 2 go down by the head list to starboard trim by the stern list to port D
ship will __________.
If a vessel initially has no list and no significant
293132 1 trim, which of the developments shown in the A B C D SF-0025
illustration will result in the greatest list? D
difference in fore and aft
293135 1 The trim of a vessel is the __________. value of the mean draft degree of list amount of roll D
drafts
To permit flooding of any To store reserve feed or To stabilize the ship by
Which of the following statements describes one of To use it as a secondary
293153 1 fuel oil storage tank on potable water for flooding certain designed
the functions of the ballasting system? service system.
any class of ship. extended cruises. tanks with seawater.
D
The maximum draft to which a mobile offshore
293155 1 drilling unit may be safely loaded is called mean draft calculated draft deep draft load line draft
__________. D
Symbol #1, as shown in the illustration, refers to
293157 2 change of draft centerline angle of inclination displacement SF-0022 D
__________.
The symbol labeled #2, as shown in the illustration,
293158 2 displacement beam limit bilge level baseline SF-0022 D
represents __________.
The symbol labeled #2, as shown in the illustration,
293158 4 displacement beam limit center of buoyancy baseline SF-0022 D
represents a vessels __________.
Which symbol shown in the illustration is used as a
293158 3 reference line from which the height of the center 5 4 3 2 SF-0022
of gravity is measured. D
A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure
293164 1 mooring tension riser tension lifesaving equipment structural strength D
adequate stability and __________.
Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment
293165 1 for a MODU must be made at intervals not 18 months two years three years five years
exceeding __________. D
a recognized classification
A load line for a MODU is assigned by the Minerals Management
293168 1 Department of Energy Corps of Engineers society approved by the
__________. Service
Coast Guard
D
A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free
Tanks which have been Tanks which have been
293206 1 surface. Which of the listed conditions would Tanks which are 95% full. Tanks which are 40% full.
pressed up to full capacity. completely emptied.
develop the greatest adverse effect? D
the vessel's draft is the vessel's draft is
Adverse effects due to free surface will become the vessel is trimmed by decreased exposing more increased, thus increasing a portion of liquid is
293208 2
apparent when __________. the stern surface area to the wind the vessel's wetted removed from a full tank
and current surface area D
For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and
only when there is positive only when there is only when there is neutral
293250 1 the metacenter are in the line of action of the at all times
stability negative stability stability D
buoyant force __________.
When the height of the metacenter has the same
height of the center of same as half the height of
293251 1 value as the height of the center of gravity, the height of the metacenter zero
gravity the metacenter D
metacentric height is equal to __________.

The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or
293252 1 compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in metacenter center of buoyancy center of flotation center of gravity
the height of the __________. D
When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly
293256 2 capsize incline further flop to the other side return to the angle of loll
greater than the angle of loll, it will __________.
D
When the floating MODU inclines to an angle
293256 1 slightly less than the angle of loll, it will capsize incline less flop to the other side return to the angle of loll
__________. D
Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated a continual worsening of
293261 1 ballast control alarms excessive draft excessive list or trim D
by __________. list or trim
The angle to which a floating MODU, with a
293262 1 negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest trim yaw heel loll
in still water is the angle of __________. D
The stability existing after the unintentional
293263 2 flooding of a compartment on a MODU is called intact stability initial stability immersion stability damage stability
__________. D
If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in
293265 4 the height of the center of gravity, there will always metacentric height righting arm righting moment vertical moments
be an increase in the __________. D
For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an list to stabilize at an angle trim to stabilize at an
293266 6 trim to increase trim to decrease D
increase in 'GML' causes __________. of loll angle of loll
If the cause of severe list, or trim is due to off-
increase the righting
293302 1 center ballast, counter flooding into empty tanks increase the righting arm increase list or trim decrease list or trim
moment
will __________. D
If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is
increase the righting cause an increase in the bring the unit to an upright cause the unit to flop to a
293305 1 negative initial stability, counter flooding into empty
moment righting arm equilibrium position greater angle
tanks may __________. D
A weather tight door on a MODU must not allow
293306 1 in 50 knot winds in 70 knot winds in 100 knot winds in any sea condition D
water to penetrate into the unit __________.
A flat block placed under the end of a wooden
shore for the purpose of distributing pressure
293500 3 gusset joist web strongback
against a damaged structure is referred to as a
__________. D
force a warped bulkhead
Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage prevent fractures from force a sprung bulkhead support a damaged
293504 1 back into its normal
control to __________. spreading back into place bulkhead in position D
position
In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the
stuffing a mattress in the
293600 1 waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be welding over a plate patch rigging a collision mat using a soft wooden plug
hole
temporarily sealed by __________. D
A hole in the hull above the waterline may be
293605 1 pillows blankets mattresses All of the above. D
temporarily patched with __________.
Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU Damage below the Damage to interior Damage to or in the Damage at or just above
293751 1 D
should be repaired first? waterline. watertight boundaries. machinery rooms. the waterline.
control flooding, control restore vital services, control fire, control
The order of importance in addressing damage control fire, restore vital
293753 1 fire, repair structural control fire, control flooding, repair structural
control on a MODU is __________. services, control flooding D
damage flooding damage
The procedure of strengthening damaged
293758 1 structures on a MODU by using wood or steel is bracing battening blocking shoring
called __________. D

readily accessible to
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that provided for each person provided for all personnel
294000 1 persons in the engine all of the above
lifejackets shall be __________. onboard on watch
room D
readily accessible to
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that provided for each person provided for all personnel
294000 4 persons in the engine all of the above
lifejackets shall be __________. onboard on watch
room D
may be substituted for 10 should be stowed may be used by boat should be used when
Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests
294001 6 percent of the required life adjacent to rescue boats crews and line handlers carring out duties near a
__________.
preservers and emergency stations during rescue boat drills weather deck's edge
D
Which of the following conditions will allow for a
When it is approved by When working near or When stowed away from A work vest may never be
294001 1 work vest to be substituted for a lifejacket in the
the Coast Guard over the water the ring buoys counted as a lifejacket D
total count of the required lifesaving gear?
Which of the following conditions will allow for a
When it is approved by When working near or When stowed away from A work vest may never be
294001 4 work vest to be substituted for a lifejacket in the
the Coast Guard over the water the ring buoys counted as a lifejacket
total count of the required lifesaving gear? D
stowed near open flame
Kapok lifejackets require proper care and should used as seats, pillows, or
294003 2 or where smoking is left on open decks all of the above
NOT be __________. foot rests
permitted D
Lifejackets are designed
Lifejackets can be worn
Which of the following statements is TRUE Buoyant vests may not be to turn a person's face
294003 3 with any side facing All of the above
concerning lifejackets? substituted for lifejackets. clear of the water when
outwards.
unconscious.
D
The immersion suit seals The suits provide for
Suits are not required to The suit is flameproof and
in all body heat and limited body movement
Which of the following statements concerning automatically turn an provides protection to the
294006 1 provides protection such as walking, climbing
immersion suits is correct? unconscious person face- wearer while swimming
against hypothermia for a ladder, and picking up
up in the water. through burning oil.
weeks. small objects like a pencil.
D
The external floatation bladder of an immersion only after two hours in the
only after four hours in the
294007 6 before entry into the water upon enter into the water D
suit should be inflated __________. water water
The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit only after two hours in the
only after four hours in the
294007 4 before entry into the water upon entry into the water D
should be inflated __________. water water
remain together in the
If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship separate from each other get away from the area area because rescuers
immediately head for the
294008 6 while far at sea, it is important for the crew as this will increase the because sharks will be will start searching at the
nearest land
members to __________. chances of being rescued attracted to the vessel vessel's last known
position D
cover your eyes with one
break the water surface enter the water at the bow
When jumping into water upon which there is an oil use your hands to hold hand while pinching your
294008 3 with your hands when or stern, on the windward
fire, you should __________. your knees to your chest nose shut and covering
diving head first side of the vessel
your mouth with the other
D
If you see an individual fall overboard, you should pass the word to the
294010 1 throw a life ring overboard hail 'Man Overboard' all of the above D
__________. bridge
If you see an individual fall overboard, you should pass the word to the
294010 2 throw them a life ring hail 'Man overboard' all of the above D
__________. bridge
On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted To replace a damaged life
294100 1 For use during fire drills. For use during boat drills. At no time. D
for a required life preserver? preserver.

On an OSV, when may a work vest be substituted To replace a damaged life
294100 3 For use during fire drills. For use during boat drills. At no time. D
for a required life jacket? jacket.
The immersion suit requirements for MODUs apply above 20 degrees North above 25 degrees North above 30 degrees North above 32 degrees North
294103 1 to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean and below 20 degrees and below 25 degrees and below 30 degrees and below 32 degrees
__________. South South South South D
The immersion suit requirements for OSVs apply above 20 degrees North above 25 degrees North above 30 degrees North above 32 degrees North
294103 3 to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean and below 20 degrees and below 25 degrees and below 30 degrees and below 32 degrees
__________. South South South South D
The light on a personal flotation device on a when the power source is when it is no longer
294104 2 each year after installation every six months D
MODU must be replaced __________. replaced serviceable
The light on a personal flotation device on a OSV when the power source is as indicated by the
294104 3 each year after installation every six months D
must be replaced __________. replaced expiration date
You are involved in an emergency landing of a after reaching the water,
upon entering the after exiting clear of the
294107 1 helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life prior to reaching the water but prior to exiting the
helicopter helicopter
jacket __________. helicopter D
How often is the line throwing appliance required
294108 1 Once a month Once a year Once a week Once every four months D
to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
If you have to jump in the water when abandoning spread apart as far as held as tightly against extended straight down
294109 3 in a kneeling position
ship, your legs should be __________. possible your chest as possible and crossed at the ankles D
If you have to jump into the water when
spread apart as far as held as tightly against extended straight down
294109 2 abandoning a MODU, your legs should be in a kneeling position
possible your chest as possible and crossed at the ankles
__________. D
at least one lifebuoy on
one category 1 406 MHz each side of the vessel at least 12 rocket
294200 10 Each OSV must carry __________. all of the above
satellite EPIRB fitted with a buoyant parachute flares
lifeline D
standing on the inflating
If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be filling the stabilizers on pushing up from under cylinder and pulling on the
294200 7 releasing the CO2 cylinder
righted by __________. one side with water one end straps on the underside of
the raft D
standing on the inflating
If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be filling the stabilizers on pushing up from under cylinder and pulling on the
294200 13 releasing the CO2 cylinder
righted by __________. one side with water one end straps on the underside of
the raft D
To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down,
294200 1 canopy manropes sea painter righting strap D
you should pull on the __________.
To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down,
294200 9 canopy manropes sea painter righting lines D
you should pull on the __________.
Liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due
294201 5 shape shallow draft large sail area all of the above D
to their __________.
check the painter line
If you hear the sound of a gas escaping from the check the sea anchor line not panic as the relief
quickly hunt for the hole attachment for a tear
294202 5 liferaft just after it has inflated, you should for a tear if the seas are valves allow excess
before the raft deflates caused by the initial
__________. rough pressure to escape
opening D
__________. rough pressure to escape
opening D

__________. rough pressure to escape D
opening
You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable
The inflation pump is in
raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous The saltwater is activating A deflation plug is partially Excess inflation pressure
automatic operation to
294202 3 hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. the batteries of the marker open allowing the escape is bleeding off and should
keep the tubes full
Which of the following statements identifies the lights on the canopy. of CO2. soon stop.
inflated. D
cause of this situation?
A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is the use of water stabilizing
294203 6 overhead safety straps built in seats internal releasing hooks D
__________. pockets
A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is the use of water stabilizing
294203 7 overhead safety straps built in seats internal releasing hooks D
__________. pockets
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require
294203 1 a first aid kit an instruction manual a sea anchor all of the above
inflatable liferafts to be equipped with __________. D
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require
294203 12 a first aid kit an instruction manual a sea anchor all of the above
inflatable liferafts to be equipped with __________.
D
294203 4 Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________. a portable radio an oil lantern canned milk a towing bridle D
294203 9 Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________. a portable radio an oil lantern canned milk a towing bridle D
294203 5 Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________. jackknife towing connection lifeline all of the above D
294203 10 Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________. jackknife towing connection lifeline All of the above D
should be kept in a will inflate the raft in its must be submerged to a
A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft must be wet before it will
294204 20 watertight cover except in cradle if operated certain depth to release
__________. release
an emergency manually automatically D
should be kept in a will inflate the raft in its must be submerged to a
A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft must be wet before it will
294204 33 watertight cover except in cradle if operated certain depth to release
__________. release
an emergency manually automatically D
A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft
294204 22 at the bow at the stern in the middle all around D
__________.
removing the rubber
A raft should be manually released from its cradle cutting the straps that loosening the turnbuckle pushing the button on the
294204 11 sealing strip from the
by __________. enclose the container on the securing strap hydrostatic release
container D
An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by cutting the wire restraining removing the rubber throwing the entire
294204 14 pulling a cord D
__________. bands packing strip container overboard
pushing the plunger on
If you wish to remove an inflatable liferaft from its cutting the restraining unscrewing the turnbuckle
294204 21 lifting one end of the raft the center of the
cradle, the best way to free it is by __________. strap on the back of the cradle
hydrostatic release D
cut the casing bands,
cut the casing bands, detach the operating cord, throw the liferaft over the
To launch a liferaft by hand, you should throw the raft over the
294204 13 throw the liferaft over the throw the raft over the side and pull the operating
__________. side and pull the operating
side and it will then inflate side and it will then inflate cord
cord D
cut the casing bands,
cut the casing bands, detach the operating cord, throw the liferaft over the
To launch a liferaft by hand, you should throw the raft over the
294204 45 throw the liferaft over the throw the raft over the side and pull the operating
__________. side and pull the operating
side and it will inflate side and it will inflate cord
cord D

Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated
294204 23 liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which The hydrostatic release A shear pin A Rottmer release A weak link in the painter
sinks in water over 100 feet deep? D
You should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to keep the liferaft from navigate against the keep personnel from help stay in the general
294205 1 D
__________. capsizing current getting seasick location
You should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to keep the liferaft from navigate against the keep personnel from stay in the general
294205 6 D
__________. capsizing current getting seasick location
After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept opening the automatic using the electric bilge using the bailers and
294206 2 draining the water pockets D
dry inside by __________. drain plugs pump cellulose sponge
the possibility of a search reduce the number of rafts
each raft should go in a tie each of the rafts
If more than one liferaft is manned after a vessel aircraft finding you is by getting as many people
294206 13 different direction in together and try to stay in
has been abandoned, __________. increased by spreading as possible into as few
search of land a single group
out rafts as possible
D
If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel aircraft finding you is by getting as many people
has sunk, __________. increased by spreading as possible into as few
D
If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel aircraft finding you is by getting as many people
has sunk, __________. increased by spreading as possible into as few
D
separate the rafts as
When a ship is abandoned and there are several secure the rafts together
much as possible to transfer all supplies to one transfer all the injured to
294206 6 liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be to keep them from drifting
increase chances of raft one raft
done is __________. apart
detection D
separate the rafts as
When a ship is abandoned and there are several secure the rafts together
much as possible to transfer all supplies to one transfer all the injured to
294206 12 liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be to keep them from drifting
increase chances of raft one raft
done is __________. apart
detection D
In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it
294208 1 lifelines righting strap sea anchor towing bridle D
on deck, you should heave on the __________.
In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it
294208 4 lifelines righting strap sea anchor towing bridle D
on deck, you should heave on the __________.
The lights on the outside of the canopy of an by turning the globe automatically when the
294209 6 by a switch at each light by a light sensor D
inflatable liferaft operate __________. clockwise raft is inflated
You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Wet clothes during the
Keep the entrance
294210 1 Which of the following procedures should be used day to decrease Get plenty of rest. All of the above.
curtains open.
during a prolonged period in a liferaft? perspiration. D
The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft loss of air in the sides of
294211 2 asphyxiation from CO2 rough seas cold water temperatures D
will provide protection against __________. the raft
The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft loss of air in the sides of
will provide protection against __________. the raft
The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will loss of air in the sides of
provide protection against ________. the raft
The painter on a rigid liferaft must have a length
294216 2 sufficient to reach the highest waterline plus an 5 meters (16 feet) 10 meters (31 feet) 15 meters (50 feet) 20 meters (66 feet)
additional __________. D

Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat
294300 1 a boathook painter whistle all of the above D
includes __________.
Required equipment for a lifeboat includes a
294300 3 boathook first aid kit whistle all of the above D
__________.
If help has not arrived in 10 to 12 hours after shut down the engines if
go in one direction until plot course for the nearest plot a course for the
294301 6 abandoning a vessel in a rescue boat, you should installed, and set the sea
the fuel runs out land nearest sea lane D
__________. anchor
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after
go in one direction until plot course for the nearest plot a course for the shut down the engines
294301 3 abandoning ship in a lifeboat, you should
the fuel runs out land nearest sea lane and set the sea anchor
__________. D
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having
go in one direction until plot course for the nearest take a vote on which shutdown the engines and
294301 5 abandoned a MODU in a survival craft, you should
the fuel runs out land direction you should go set the sea anchor
__________. D
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having
go in one direction until plot course for the nearest take a vote on which shutdown the engines and
294301 7 abandoned an OSV in a survival craft, you should
the fuel runs out land direction you should go set the sea anchor D
__________.
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), emptied and gas freed hydrostatically tested at emptied and the fuel
constructed so as to be
294302 1 the fuel tanks of motor- propelled lifeboats shall be when the ship is dry- each inspection for changed at least once
completely spill proof
__________. docked certification each year D
give the occupants a
secure the lifeboat in the bring the lifeboat close reduce the swinging of the
safety line when the boat
294303 6 Frapping lines __________. davits when in the stowed alongside the rail in the lifeboat at the embarkation
is being lowered from the
position embarkation position level
embarkation level
D
Each personal flotation device light on a MODU
every six months after every 12 months after every 24 months after on or before the expiration
294306 3 that has a non-replaceable power source must be
initial installation initial installation initial installation date of the power source
replaced __________. D
Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that
every six months after every 12 months after every 24 months after on or before the expiration
294306 20 has a non-replaceable power source must be
initial installation initial installation initial installation date of the power source
replaced __________. D
at the vessel whose
When firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should approximately 60° above
294306 9 into the wind straight ahead attention you want to
be aimed __________. the horizon
attract D
When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a
on the upwind side of the on the downwind side of
294306 17 survival craft, you should activate the signal inside the craft at the stern of the craft
craft the craft D
__________.
at the vessel whose
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it at about 60 degrees
294306 8 straight overhead attention you want to into the wind
should be aimed __________. above the horizon D
attract
at the vessel whose
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it at about 60 degrees
294306 13 straight overhead attention you want to into the wind
should be aimed __________. above the horizon
attract D
Which of the following persons may command a
294308 3 Licensed deck officer Able seaman Certified lifeboatman All of the above D
lifeboat in ocean service?
Who is charged with appointing persons to be in
Designated person- in-
294308 4 command of the lifeboats and/or liferafts on a Rig superintendent Tool pusher Company man
charge D
mobile offshore drilling units?
After having activated the emergency position
turn it off for five minutes turn it off and on at five turn it off during daylight
294310 12 indicating radio beacon(EPRIB), you should leave it on continuously
every half- hour minute intervals hours
__________. D

After having activated the emergency position turn it off for five minutes turn it off and on at five turn it off during daylight
294310 5 leave it on continuously
indicating radio beacon, you should __________. every half- hour minute intervals hours
D
must be stowed in a must be stowed where it is
Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must is a device that transmits
294310 1 manner so that it will float readily accessible for all of the above
have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________. a radio signal
free if the vessel sinks testing and use
D
If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be hold the lifeboat's head up send radio homing signals
294310 16 generate orange smoke seal leaks in rubber rafts
used to __________. into the seas to searching aircraft
D
used to __________. into the seas to searching aircraft D
used to __________. into the seas to searching aircraft
D
You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress
Your position by latitude
294310 7 message. What information would be essential to The nature of the distress. The time of day. Your radio call sign.
and longitude.
your rescuers? D
You are in a survival craft, broadcasting a distress
Your position by latitude
294310 9 message. What information would be essential to The nature of the distress. The time of day. Your radio call sign.
and longitude. D
your rescuers?
mechanically stop the automatically control the
The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a automatically stop the hold the load suspended
294311 2 boat when the hand brake speed of lowering by
lifeboat handling winch is intended to __________. boat if electric power fails during lowering operations
fails gravity D
294312 4 You will find a limit switch on a __________. liferaft cradle radial davit sheath-screw davit gravity davit D
keep the davits from
The purpose of the wire stretched between the keep the movement of the prevent vibration during
294313 1 slipping when they are in support the manropes
lifeboat davit heads is to __________. davits at the same speed lowering of the boat D
the stowed position
You have abandoned ship and after two days in a use the voice transmission
use visual distress signals
liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon switch the EPIRB to the capability of the EPIRB to turn on the strobe light on
294314 1 in conjunction with the
apparently carrying out a search pattern. You homing signal mode guide the aircraft to your the top of the EPIRB
EPIRB D
should __________. raft
You have abandoned ship and after two days in a use the voice transmission
use visual distress signals
liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon switch the EPIRB to the capability of the EPIRB to turn on the strobe light on
294314 2 in conjunction with the
apparently carrying out a search pattern. You homing signal mode guide the aircraft to your the top of the EPIRB
EPIRB D
should __________. raft
Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient
294315 7 6 hours 12 hours 18 hours 24 hours D
fuel to operate for how many hours?
294316 2 AMVER is a system which provides __________. satellite communications navigational information weather information position reporting service D
only when activated by the
An 'on-load' release system on a survival craft only when the load is only there is a load on the
294319 1 controls at the lowering at any time
means the cable can be released __________. taken off the cable cable
station D
The backup system on an electric start survival
294320 3 hydraulic system pneumatic system spare battery hand crank D
craft is a __________.
The air regeneration canister on a survival craft is assist in cold starting the remove carbon dioxide
294322 2 fill the accumulator bottles help start the engine D
designed to __________. engine and provide oxygen

When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a enter the water in case the stand on the outside of the remove their lifejackets to remain seated inside to
294324 3 rescue boat, the other individuals in the boat person being lifted slips boat to assist the person prepare for their transfer provide body weight for
should __________. from the sling being lifted to the helicopter stability D
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a enter the water in case the stand on the outside of the remove their lifejackets to remain seated inside the
294324 1 survival craft, the other individuals in the craft person being lifted slips craft to assist the person prepare for their transfer craft to provide body
should __________. from the sling being lifted to the helicopter weight for stability D
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enter the water in case the stand on the outside of the remove their lifejackets to remain seated inside to
294324 2 enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat person being lifted slips boat to assist the person prepare for their transfer provide body weight for
should __________. from the sling being lifted to the helicopter stability D
When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman check that hooks are fully
294325 2 check the fuel level open the doors take the lifejackets off D
should instruct the crewman to __________. locked in place
If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival shift all personnel to the
294327 6 abandon the survival craft check for cracks in the hull check the bilge drain plug D
craft, you should first __________. stern
If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival increase the speed of the shift all personnel to the shift all personnel to the check the bildge drain
294327 9 D
craft, you should first __________. survival craft bow stern plug
If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you shift all personnel to the
294327 4 abandon the survival craft check for cracks in the hull check the bilge drain plug D
should first __________. stern
If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you shift all personnel to the check the bildge drain
294327 8 abandon the survival craft check for cracks in the hull D
should first __________. stern plug
MODU survival craft is manufactured with fire
294332 2 foam marine plywood steel fiberglass D
retardant __________.
A pressurized air tank will
The diesel engine will take A water spay system to
Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed The ventilators will provide approximately ten
its air supply from outside cool the outside of the
294333 1 lifeboats. Which of the following statements is automatically close by the minutes of air for the
the lifeboat to prevent boat is operated by a high-
correct should the boat be enveloped in flames? action of fusible links. survivors and the diesel
asphyxiation of the crew. volume manual pump.
engine. D
open the doors and
During an abandonment or drill, the first person to pass out food and water to open the doors and start activate the emergency
294335 3 prepare the craft for
arrive at the survival craft should __________. personnel the sprinkler system release handle
boarding D
294335 1 Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft? Roustabout First man aboard Last man aboard Helmsman D
if gather during or
Seawater may be used for drinking water at a maximum rate of two after mixing with an equal
294337 2 immediately after a hard under no circumstance
__________. ounces per day quantity of fresh water
rain D
When you are wearing a self-contained breathing
heat in the canister or excess air flow in the nauseous, dizziness or
294406 3 apparatus, you should immediately return to fresh two pulls on the safety line
hose mask high breathing resistance
air if you feel __________. D
There is approximately
While wearing a self-contained breathing There is a 4-5 minute The wearer should
500 psi (3.5 MPa) of
294406 5 apparatus the alarm bell begins ringing. Which of supply of air remaining in immediately leave the All of the above.
pressure left in the air
the following conditions does this indicate? the air cylinder. contaminated area.
cylinder. D
The fire produces smoke,
The fire produces carbon
which contains toxic
Why should you wear a self-contained breathing monoxide which causes The fire consumes oxygen
gases that cause
294408 1 apparatus before entering a closed compartment an oxygen deficiency in which may lead to All of the above.
breathing difficulties and
to fight a fire? the brain and body, asphyxiation.
irritation of the respiratory
leading quickly to death. D
tract.

What operational limitation should the user of a The weight of the unit The lens of the face piece
The attached lifeline limits All of the above are
294409 2 self-contained breathing apparatus be concerned changes the user's center reduces the user's
the user's mobility. correct.
with when using the device? of gravity. peripheral vision. D
While wearing a self-contained breathing
apparatus, the user must be aware of the The weight of the unit The lens of the face piece
The attached lifeline limits
294409 1 bulkiness of the unit in order to avoid confined changes the user's center reduces the user's All of the above.
the user's mobility.
spaces. Of what other limitations should the user of gravity. peripheral vision.
be aware? D
You are about to enter a compartment to
investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If you're
not wearing an self- contained breathing sufficient oxygen to an explosive mixture in a toxic atmosphere in the
apparatus, you should test the compartment's sustain human life the compartment compartment
atmosphere to determine if there is/are
__________. D
The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a
the donning of the face the stowing of the face the maintenance of the
294416 1 self-contained breathing apparatus is directly all of the above
piece piece face piece
influenced by __________. D
A crew member has been overcome by toxic
Put on an approved self-
fumes in the pump room. Which of the following Have someone stand by
294420 2 contained breathing Wear a lifeline. All of the above.
actions should be taken before entering the pump the entrance.
apparatus.
room to rescue the victim? D
When entering the pump room of a tank vessel to
Protective clothing and Flame safety lamp and Combustible gas indicator Self-contained breathing
294420 1 rescue an unconscious person, which items of the
explosion-proof flashlight resuscitation equipment and canister gas mask apparatus and lifelines
equipment listed are you required to be using? D
Which of the following is considered as the correct
Wear an approved self-
action for the rescue of an unconscious person Attach a lifeline to the Have someone stand by
294420 3 contained breathing All of the above.
from a compartment containing an unsafe rescuer. outside the compartment.
apparatus.
atmosphere? D
Which type of respiratory protection is preferable U.S. Navy Oxygen Emergency Escape Self-Contained Demand- Postive Self- Contained
294422 1 for the repair/investigation personnel in a hydrogen Breathing Apparatus Breathing Apparatus Type Breathing Apparatus Breathing Apparatus
sulfide (H2S) environment? (OBA) (EEBA) (SCDBA) (SCBA) D
Manufacturers of self contained breathing
apparatus use color coded face pieces to indicate Size "Large" (standard) is
294426 1 Size "Small" is green. Size "Extra Large" is red. All of the above.
different sizes. Which of the following statements is black.
true concerning the colors of SCBA face pieces?
D
Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed
295000 6 ship's articles manning list official log book Muster List ("Station Bill") D
on the __________.
In crew's accommodation
295000 12 Where should muster lists be posted? On the navigating bridge In the engine room All of the above D
spaces
Your assigned emergency stations aboard your
295000 4 clearance papers permit to proceed certificate of inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") D
vessel can be found on the ship's __________.
When more than six short blasts and one long
blast of the ship's whistle, accompanied by the boat stations (abandon
295001 2 fire and emergency boat recall man overboard
same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded, ship)
the signal is for __________. D

When more than six short blasts and one long
blast of the ship's whistle, accompanied by the boat stations (abandon
295001 9 fire and emergency boat recall man overboard
same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded, ship)
the signal is for __________. D
While working in the engine room, you hear seven
short blasts followed by one long blast on the standby the main console
start the fire pump to
295001 6 ship's whistle, supplemented by the same signal and await orders from the go to your fire station go to your lifeboat station
charge the fire main
on the general alarm bells. You should engineer on watch
__________. D
on the upwind side of the on the downwind side of
craft the craft
__________. D
Coast Guard Regulations 46 CFR, stipulate that in actions to be taken by the duties assigned to
the signal for abandoning
295005 2 addition to emergency signals, muster lists must persons on board when different members of the all of the above
the vessel
specify _________. each signal is sounded crew D
the order to abandon the
vessel D
specify __________. each signal is sounded crew
vessel
specify __________. each signal is sounded crew D
vessel
specify_____________. each signal is sounded crew D
According to 46 CFR Part 199, emergency signals
on the Emergency at normally occupied
295007 2 for use on passenger vessels are to be at each Muster Station All of the above
Instructions Cabin Poster spaces
conspicuously posted and listed __________. D
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR
Part 199), all United States merchant vessels are in the crew
295008 3 on the navigating bridge in the engine room all of the above
required to have muster lists to be posted accommodation spaces
__________. D
Each person on the rig has a designated area to
295008 4 proceed to in the event of a fire. This assignment is firefighting plan shipping articles Certificate of Inspection Muster List ("Station Bill")
shown clearly on the rig's __________. D
Duties and station of each
What information must be entered on the MODU Names of all crew Use and application of Listing of approved
295008 2 person during
Muster List ("Station Bill")? members. special equipment. emergency equipment.
emergencies. D
The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be on the Muster List
295009 1 at each alarm bell at each alarm actuator near all exits D
indicated __________. ("Station Bill")
What safety precautions should be observed by
They should wear safety They should wear ear They should not wear
295102 1 the crew while working around machinery in an All of the above.
shoes. protection. jewelry.
engine room? D
To safeguard the operator and other personnel Keep a load on the hoist Set the load on a movable Have one man keep a
Insure that the lifting gear
295104 1 working on or near a hoisting operation, which of until all personnel are dolly when transportation hand on the load to steady
capacity is not exceeded.
the following precautions should be observed? finished working. may be needed. it.
D
all exposed and dangerous areas around
295106 1 covers guards rails any of the above
machinery, such as gears and rotating parts, shall
be properly protected with __________. D

For the protection of personnel, moving parts of
295106 4 rotating machinery are required to be fitted with audible alarms bright lights reflective tape cover guards
________. D
If accidents are considered as an 'unexpected
Looking for unsafe Inspecting for unsafe Analyzing jobs for safer
295109 1 contact', you will be able to perform a better job by All of the above.
practices. conditions. methods.
observing which of the following practices? D
Under Title 33 CFR, at or above what level of
"Blood Alcohol Concentration" would constitute a
295120 1 0.16% 0.12% 0.08% 0.04%
crew member as being considered "Under the
Influence of Alcohol" on a commercial vessel? D
During severe storms, when survival becomes a
major concern, it may become necessary to relieve paying out cable on the paying out cable on the
295200 1 deballasting the rig ballasting the rig
high anchor tensions on the windward side of the windward side leeward side
MODU by __________. D
Appropriate Officer- in-
To which of the listed authorities must a MODU Nearest Oceanographic
295201 1 Captain of the Port. National Ocean Service. Charge, Marine
report a collision with an aid to navigation? Office. D
Inspection.
Closing, tagging, or
Personnel who are moving or handling material Signaling that all Examining material for securing valves that
Throwing materials from
295203 1 aboard ship should NOT follow which of the listed personnel are clear before sharp edges or protruding permit entrance of steam,
high places to the deck.
practices? lifting or lowering material. points before handling. water, or air into a fitting or
other equipment.
D
Using tools for purposes
Which of the following is NOT a recommended Securing equipment Operating machinery at its Repairing loose handles
295205 1 for which they are not
safe practice? against slipping or drifting. recommended speed. on tools before using.
designed. D
According to Federal Regulations, a confined or
enclosed space that is being prepared for crew
members to enter, should be tested and
295207 1 13.50% 15.50% 17.50% 19.50%
designated "NOT SAFE FOR WORKERS" if the
oxygen content of the atmosphere in the
compartment is LESS than ____. D
concentration of adjacent spaces have not
enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared
oxygen content is above flammable vapors in the been inspected for
295208 3 for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and all of the above
22% atmosphere is 10% or combustible materials and
designated "NOT SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if
more of the L.E.L. possible spread of fire
_______. D
According to Federal Regulations, a confined or concentration of adjacent spaces have
enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared oxygen content is below flammable vapors in the been inspected for
for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and 22% atmosphere is less than combustible materials and
designated "SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if _______. 10% of the L.E.L. possible spread of fire D
An injury to a crew
member which renders
A discharge of 10,000
According to 46 CFR, what accident situation on a that person unfit to
Damage to property in gallons or more of oil into
295210 1 vessel would be considered by the Coast Guard as perform routine vessel All of the above.
excess of $100,000. navigable waters of the
a "Serious Marine Incident"? duties and requires
U.S.
professional medical
treatment. D

According to 46 CFR's, all mariners directly
involved in a "Serious Marine Incident" are
295211 1 2 hours 12 hours 24 hours 32 hours
required to submit a urine specimen for screening
of dangerous drug use within ______. D
According to 46 CFR, all mariners directly involved
in a "Serious Marine Incident" are prohibited from 2 hours following the 4 hours following the 6 hours following the 8 hours following the
295213 1
consuming alcohol until alcohol testing has been incident incident incident incident
performed or _____. D
295501 3 abandoning an OSV, your legs should be in a kneeling position
__________. D
295501 1 abandoning ship, your legs should be in a kneeling position
__________. D
You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Wet clothes during the
Keep the entrance
295510 1 Which of the following procedures should be used day to decrease Get plenty of rest. All of the above.
curtains opened. D
during a prolonged period in a liferaft ? perspiration.
The floor may be inflated Crew members can jump
Which of the following statements is TRUE The raft may be boarded
295516 2 for insulation from cold into the raft without All of the above.
concerning an inflatable liferaft? before it is fully inflated.
water. damaging it. D
The floor may be inflated Crew members can jump
Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable The raft may be boarded
295516 1 for insulation from cold into the raft without All of the above.
liferaft? before it is fully inflated.
water. damaging it. D
According to 46 CFR, the float free link attached to 100-134 lbs for buoyant 200-268 lbs for buoyant 400-536 lbs for buoyant
295600 1 a sea painter on a liferaft shall have a breaking apparatus with a capacity apparatus with a capacity apparatus with a capacity All of the above
strength of __________. of 10 persons or less of 11 to 20 persons of 21 persons or more
D
A person suffering from a heart attack may show
296001 4 Shortness of breath Pain in the left arm Nausea All of the above D
which of the following symptoms?
A person suffering from a heart attack may show
296002 2 Shortness of breath Pain in the left arm Nausea All the above D
which of the following symptoms?
When applying chest compressions on an adult
296003 2 victim during CPR, the sternum should be 1/2 inch or less 1/2 to 1 inch 1 to 1 1/2 inches 1 1/2 to 2 inches
depressed about __________. D
You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. Press on the victim's
While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent Blow harder to force the Raise the victim's head lungs so that air pressure Re-tip the head and try
296007 2
that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the air past the tongue. higher than his feet. will blow out any again.
following actions should you take? obstruction. D
While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent Blow harder to force the Raise the victim's head lungs so that air pressure Re-tip the head and try
296007 1
that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the air past the tongue. higher than his feet. will blow out any again.
following actions should you take? obstruction. D
Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of
296009 2 drowning electrocution poisoning All of the above D
__________.
Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of
296009 4 drowning electrocution poisoning All of the above D
__________.

pause for a moment until

ignore it and continue turn the patient's body to
If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the the patient appears quiet switch to mouth-to- mouth
296011 1 mouth-to- mouth the side, sweep out the
best immediate procedure to follow is __________. again, then resume mouth- ventilation
ventilation mouth and resume CPR
to-mouth ventilation D
pause for a moment until
ignore it and continue turn the patient's body to
If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the the patient appears quiet switch to mouth-to- mouth
296011 2 mouth-to- mouth the side, sweep out the
best immediate procedure to follow is __________. again, then resume mouth- ventilation
ventilation mouth and resume CPR
to-mouth ventilation D
by not stopping the
Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial only with the help of two without losing the rhythm
296015 1 at ten minute intervals respiration for more than
respiration should be done __________. other people of respiration
five minutes D
by not stopping the
Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial only with the help of two without losing the rhythm
296015 2 at ten minute intervals respiration for more than
respiration should be done __________. other people of respiration
five minutes D
The MOST important element in administering having the proper starting the treatment
296020 1 treating for shock administering of oxygen
CPR is __________. equipment for the process quickly D
The MOST important element in administering having the proper starting the treatment
296020 2 treating for shock administering of oxygen
CPR is __________. equipment for the process quickly
D
You are administering chest compressions on an
296021 4 adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be 1/2 inch or less 1/2 inch to 1 inch 1 inch to 1-1/2 inches 1-1/2 inch to 2 inches
depressed about __________. D
A seaman has sustained a small, gaping laceration
Gently close the wound
of the arm requiring sutures to close if medical Apply butterfly strips and
Wrap a tight bandage and while holding it closed Use temporary stitches of
296101 1 facilities were available. Which of the following cover with a sterile
around the wound. applya compression sail twine.
remedies can be done to temporarily close the dressing.
bandage. D
wound?
A crewmember has a small, gaping laceration of
the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can Massage the area to Use temporary stitches of Wrap a tight bandage Apply butterfly strips, then
296109 3
be done as an alternative to suturing to close the maintain circulation. sail twine. around the wound. a sterile dressing.
wound? D
In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a submerging the wound in applying direct pressure to
296111 1 applying a tourniquet cooling the wound with ice D
wound should be controlled by __________. lukewarm water the wound
push the barb through, cut
A person reports to you with a fishhook in his cut the skin from around
296113 1 have a surgeon remove it pull it out with pliers it off, then remove the
thumb. To remove it you should __________. the hook
hook D
in which the same bone is which causes external
in which more than one which is accompanied by
296202 1 A compound fracture is a fracture __________. broken in more than one bleeding at the site of the
bone is broken internal bleeding D
place fracture
Apply a bulky, sterile,
Apply traction to the hand pressure dressing to
You are treating a shipmate with a compound Apply a tourniquet to Force the ends of the
to keep the bones in line, control bleeding, then
296203 2 fracture of the lower arm. Which of the listed control bleeding then align bones back into line, treat
splint and apply a apply a temporary splint
actions should you take? the bones and splint. the bleeding, and splint.
pressure dressing. and place the victim in
bed. D

pain at the site of the
pain and uncontrolled vomiting and involuntary
The symptoms of a fractured back are leg cramps in the muscles fracture and possible
296209 1 jerking of the legs and urination or bowel
__________. in one or both legs numbness or paralysis
arms movement D
below the injury
The person should not be
The person should be The person should be
The person should not be moved (unless remaining
If a person suffering from possible broken bones examined on the scene moved from the scene but
allowed to lie down where on the scene is unsafe),
296210 1 and internal injuries is correctly being administered and then walked to a bunk not allowed to walk on
injured but should be but made comfortable until
first aid, what statement is true? to await the arrival of their own power without
moved to a chair or bunk. medical assistance
medical assistance. assistance.
arrives.
D
In any major personal injury, first aid is to include
Removal of any foreign Treatment for traumatic
296300 1 the treatment of the injury and what additional Application of CPR Administration of oxygen
objects shock
treatment? D
Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a
296302 1 Warm and dry Warm and damp Cold and dry Cold and damp D
person in shock?
The general signs and symptoms of a patient rapid and shallow increased state of
296305 2 cold and clammy skin all of the above D
suffering from shock are _______. breathing confusion
The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is
296306 3 vigorous shaking sequence of back blows pericardial thump ammonia inhalant D
a/an __________.
A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a
296400 3 reddening of the skin but no other apparent Minor burn Superficial burn Extremity burn First degree burn
damage. This is an example of what kind of burn? D
If a crewman suffers a second degree burn on the apply antiseptic alcohol on scrub the arm thoroughly immerse the arm in cool
296401 5 drain any blisters
arm, you should __________. the burn area to prevent infection water
D
Before washing with
Which of the following precautions should be taken The entire burn area water, the lime should be
Water should be applied The burned area should
296406 1 when treating burns caused by contact with dry should be covered with brushed away gently and
in a fine spray. be immersed in water.
lime? ointment. removed from skin
contact. D
If a person gets something in his eye and you
get him to rub his eye until remove it with a match or remove it with a piece of remove it with a moist
296409 1 observe that it is not embedded, you can
the object is gone toothpick dry sterilized cotton rag cotton-tipped applicator D
__________.
given mild seawater kept standing and given a glass of water and
A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should moved to a cool room and
296600 9 solution to drink to replace encouraged to walk slowly told to return to work after
first be __________. told to lie down
salt and fluids and continuously 15 minutes of rest D
given a mild seawater kept standing and given a glass of water and
A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should moved to a cool room and
296600 6 solution to drink to replace encouraged to walk slowly told to return to work after
first be __________. told to lie down
salt and fluids and continuously 15 minutes of rest D
The symptoms of heat exhaustion are
296600 4 slow and strong pulse flushed and dry skin slow and deep breathing pale and clammy skin D
__________.
The symptoms of heat exhaustion are
296600 8 slow and strong pulse flushed and dry skin slow and deep breathing pale and clammy skin D
__________.
rub briskly to restore warm exposed parts
296602 2 Treatment of frostbite is to __________. rub with ice or snow wrap tightly in warm cloths D
circulation rapidly
rub briskly to restore warm exposed parts
296602 5 Treatment of frostbite is to __________. rub with ice or snow wrap tightly in warm cloths D
circulation rapidly

Which of the following conditions is a symptom of cold and moist skin, high cold and dry skin, low hot and moist skin, high hot and dry skin, high
296604 1 D
heat stroke __________. body temperature body temperature body temperature body temperature
Which of the following conditions is a symptom of cold and moist skin, high cold and dry skin, low hot and moist skin, high hot and dry skin, high
296604 2 D
heat stroke __________. body temperature body temperature body temperature body temperature
If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for
296702 1 high fever head injury broken limbs irregular breathing D
evidence of __________.
The most beneficial assistance for a person having give the victim artificial completely restrain the give the victim one 30mg keep him from injuring
296704 1
an epileptic convulsion is to __________. respiration victim tablet of Phenobarbital himself
D
An effective method for moving a patient with
296709 2 spinal injuries to a stretcher or spine board is pack strap carry two man extremities carry fireman's drag four man log roll
known as the __________. D
Where there are multiple accident victims, which
Back injuries with spinal Airway and breathing
296713 2 injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency Major multiple fractures Eye injuries
cord damage difficulties
treatment? D
Any combustible liquid having a flash point of
297000 2 A B D E D
150°F or above is grade __________.
297004 1 Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________. A liquid B liquid D liquid E liquid D
have a Reid vapor
Bunker "C", a grade "E" combustible liquid, will give off flammable vapors self-ignite at temperatures have a flash point of
297004 2 pressure of 14 psi (96.5
__________. below 80°F (26.7°C) below 150°F (65.5°C) 150°F (65.5°C) or more
kPa) or more D
5 percent methane by
The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by
3 percent methane by 20 percent methane by 10 percent methane by volume will give a reading
297101 1 volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of
volume is too rich to burn volume is too lean to burn volume is too rich to burn of 100 percent L.E.L. on a
__________.
combustible gas indicator
D
Liquid petroleum products will become electrically splashing or spraying of movement of water oil moving through the All of the above are
297103 2
charged as a result of the __________. oil into a tank droplets in an oil filled tank pipe lines correct.
D
Which of the following substances would be
297104 4 diesel oil turpentine kerosene all of the above D
classified as a combustible liquid?
can not be ignited by a
can not be ignited by a
are nontoxic in all spark unless they are at
297105 3 Diesel fuel vapors __________. spark unless the vapor is are heavier than air
concentrations their auto ignition
in a confined space
temperature D
not volatile unless the unlikely to ignite except in heavier than air and may
When taking on fuel it is important to remember lighter than air and
297105 5 ambient air temperature the presence of an open enter the bilges and/or
that petroleum vapors are __________. dissipate rapidly
exceeds 90°F flame deckhouse
D
They can not be ignited by
They can not be ignited by
Which of the following statements is true They are nontoxic in all a spark unless vapors are
297105 4 a spark unless the vapors They are heavier than air.
concerning Bunker "C" vapors? concentrations. at their auto ignition
are in a confined space.
temperature. D
The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil varies with
297106 3 conductivity viscosity volume specific gravity D
the __________.
Breathing petroleum vapors is hazardous and may unconsciousness and
297107 2 temporary blindness permanent deafness severe internal bleeding D
cause __________. suffocation
only if the source of the only if the vapor is only if the oxygen
at all times due to their
297107 1 Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________. vapor is above its flash between the upper and concentration is below 16
toxicity D
point lower explosive limit percent

Which of the following hazards is associated with
297108 1 Fire Explosion Asphyxiation All of the above D
the handling of petroleum products?
The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid
297110 2 percolate explode asphyxiate vaporize D
to __________.
Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are
297111 2 heavier than air toxic highly explosive all of the above D
__________.
Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash
297114 3 Lubricating oils Road oils Asphalt Light fuel oils D
point below 150°F (65.5°C)?
Placing an insulating
Using a cargo hose with a Connecting a bonding
Which of the following methods will reduce the flange or a section of non-
297115 1 built in electrical bonding wire between the shore All of the above.
possibility of producing an electrical spark? conducting hose in the
wire. side piping and the vessel.
hose setup. D
the detector sensor is
Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, the detector is sampling a a flammable vapor
sampling a space where
are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at an explosion is about to space in which 30 percent concentration exists at the
297202 1 the cargo vapor
30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector take place of the atmosphere is sample point, but it is too
concentration is 30
alarms sounds, this means __________. explosive lean to burn
percent by volume D
An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas
297203 1 detecting system to detect methane leaks in the barrier spaces cargo handling rooms boiler burner supply piping all of the above
__________. D
Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel
escape of explosive contamination from other damage to tank
297250 2 cargo tanks should be kept in good working order oil spillage on deck
vapors tanks boundaries
to prevent __________. D
Which of the following pressures represents the
297252 1 normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum 22.7 psia - 14.7 psia 20.7 psia - 14.6 psia 18.7 psia - 14.4 psia 16.7 psia - 14.2 psia
relief valve as normally found on tank vessels? D
Both pumps operating at Both pumps operating at Each pump operating at a Each pump operating at a
Which of the listed pumping arrangements will be
the same speed and the same speed and different speed and taking different pressure and
297304 1 hazardous when two similar centrifugal pumps are
discharging into a taking suction from a suction from a common discharging into a
used to discharge a cargo of flammable liquid?
common line. common line. line. common line. D
When static electricity is When the terminal is
When should you expect to find an insulating When a bonding cable is
297305 1 When transferring LNG. not expected to be a equipped with a cathodic
flange in a fueling hose? employed.
problem. protection system.
D
To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling close the tank filling top off all tanks at the reduce the loading rate
297306 1 fill one tank at a time
system during bunkering, you should __________. valves quickly same time when topping off
D
steam or air actuated gas
297307 1 pump room ventilation on a U.S. flag tanker may power blowers natural ventilators all of the above
ejectors
be accomplished by __________. D
According to 33 CFR Part 156, during annual
inspection, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose 1 1/2 times the maximum
the pressure of the relief the pressure applied by
297318 5 which is tested, must not burst, bulge, leak, or 100 pounds allowable working
valve setting the shore side pump
abnormally distort under a static liquid pressure of pressure
__________. D
The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo
297318 1 300 psi 400 psi 500 psi 600 psi D
hose assembly must be at least __________.

Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR) require that the

oil transfer procedures which must be posted on
every vessel having a capacity of 250 or more
297319 1 valve pump vent all of the above
barrels of oil, must contain a description of each oil
transfer system installed on the vessel and shall
also identify the location of each __________.
D
One consideration for determining the safest
size of the fuel storage distance to the fuel number of tanks to be
297321 1 maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be type of fuel transfer pump
tanks ashore storage tanks ashore filled
received is by the __________. D
Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by a multistage centrifugal the water displacement a positive displacement
297324 1 the load on top system D
using a __________. pump method pump
After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be draped over the fantail to
drained over the side and drained into the bilges and drained into buckets or
297331 1 D
disconnected and __________. dry out washed out washed out fuel tanks
have a standby pump
When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a lift the relief valve by hand draw a small quantity of check for gland leakage
297333 1 running with the discharge
centrifugal pump, you should __________. to check its operation liquid to prime the pump and any fire hazard
valve closed D
Place 5 gallon containers
During fueling operations, which of the listed Reduce the pumping rate Reduce the pumping rate
under all flange
297402 1 precautions should be taken when topping off fuel by closing the deck filling Close all overflow valves. and sound tanks
connections in the fuel
tanks? valve. frequently
line. D
top of the sounding tube
An ullage reading is the distance from a given sounding tube to either top of the tank down to the top of the liquid down to
297405 1 down to the surface of the
point at the __________. side of the tank bottom of the tank the tank bottom
liquid D
notify the shore pumping
close the deck filling valve
As a precaution against oil spills when topping off close all tank vents to fill the tank to the bottom station to reduce the
297408 1 to reduce the pumping
fuel tanks, you should __________. prevent overflow of the expansion trunk pumping rate as tanks
rate
near full capacity D
The function of the scrubber in an Inert Gas remove solids from the remove sulfur compounds
297501 3 cool the gases all of the above
system is to __________. gases from the gases
D
the temperature of the
The blowers of an inert gas generation system
normal water supply at the inert gas being delivered the cooling water supply
297507 1 aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if all of the above
water seal is lost to the cargo tanks is more to the scrubbers is lost
__________.
than 150°F D
On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined
capacity of the inert gas generating system as
297508 1 50% 75% 100% 125%
compared to the total capacity of all the cargo
pumps which can be operated simultaneously? D
An inert gas system incorporating a separately
fired inert gas generator shall be provided with
combustion air temp too high sea water
297510 1 visual and audible alarms to indicate failure of the cooling water flow insufficient fuel supply
low temperature
power supply to the generator, the automatic
control system, and __________. D
eliminating sparks and fire removing all hydrocarbon reducing the oxygen
An inert gas system is designed to reduce the blanketing cargo tanks
297511 3 in the vicinity of cargo gases from the cargo concentration below levels
possibility of tank explosions by __________. with inert foam
tanks tanks necessary for combustion
D

Inert gas dilutes the
Maintains a positive
Inert gas filters out the flammable vapor and air
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function De-energizes the pressure on the vent
297511 1 flammable vapors from concentrations to keep
to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? "charged mist" effect. header to cool the
the cargo tank spaces. them below the lower
flammable vapors. D
explosive limit.
Where are remote readouts for oxygen
Bridge and engine control Bridge and tank(s) being Main deck and engine Cargo control and engine
297513 2 concentration, pressure, and temperature of an
consoles inerted control consoles control consoles
inert gas system required to be located? D
Which of the following conditions will result in an High temperature gas
Oxygen content of the gas Low temperature water High temperature gas
297518 1 automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas discharge from inert gas
falls below 5%. leaving the scrubber seal. entering the scrubber.
system? blowers. D
When securing the operation of an inert gas close the deck isolating close the flue gas isolating secure the inert gas secure the salt water
297527 1 D
system, the final step should be _________. valve valve blower supply to the scrubber
entry without a breathing a person may work safely breathing apparatus would
apparatus may be made without breathing not be necessary, if self-contained breathing
If personnel are required to enter a cargo tank that
297651 2 at the top of the tank, apparatus in cold weather, expected to be in the tank apparatus should always
has not been certified as "gas free", __________.
since petroleum vapors since the vapors are less for only a short period of be used
are heavier than air volatile time
D
The concentration of
The residues in the The toxic gases in the
Which of the following conditions must be met combustible gases in the
compartment must not be compartment's
before a marine chemist will issue a certificate for compartment's
297653 1 capable of producing any atmosphere must be All of the above.
a compartment to be "safe for workers, safe for hot atmosphere must be less
toxic gas under existing within permissible
work"? than 10 percent of the
atmospheric conditions. concentrations.
lower flammable limit.
D
The concentration of
The gas free status is
The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested flammable gas in the
The tank should be good as long as the initial
297655 1 and designated "gas free". Which of the following compartment is less than All of the above.
frequently retested. conditions remain
statements is correct concerning this tank? 10% of the lower
unchanged. D
flammable limit.
A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a
muck, sludge, or scale in
marine chemist as being "Safe for Men" and "Safe the ambient temperature a product leaks into the
297656 3 the tank give off additional all of the above
for fire." This condition may change changes certified tank
vapors D
if___________.
If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen
content is not within permissible concentration, and
dangerous gases are either present, or may be Safe for Men - Safe for Safe for Men - Not Safe Not Safe for Men - Safe Not Safe for Men - Not
297656 1
produced by residues, what would be the safety Fire for Fire for Fire Safe for Fire
designation listed on a marine chemist's
certificate? D
the gas or oxygen the compartment was not
The designation "Not safe for men - Not safe for concentrations within a dangerous gases are tested due to the
fire" means __________. compartment is not within present presence of ballast slops
permissible limits or bunkers D
The only portable electrical lamp permitted in a
297657 2 compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is battery fed self-contained approved explosion proof All of the above
__________. D

If emergency welding repairs must be made to the
all of the above as
297658 1 upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent gas freed inerted filled with water
necessary
compartments may need to be __________. D
free of all dangerous
A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the inerted with carbon free of most flammable thoroughly ventilated for at
297660 1 concentrations of
tank is __________. dioxide for 24 hours gas concentrations least 24 hours
flammable or toxic gases
D
Each compartment where
Which of the following precautions are necessary The adjacent
The pump room is to be flammable gas is
297662 2 when using any electrical equipment in a compartments are to be All of the above.
gas free. expected to accumulate is
hazardous location, such as a cargo pump room? gas free.
to be closed and secured.
D
A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material
Safety Date Sheet (MSDS), that can cause genetic
297702 1 cryogenic carcinogen teratogen mutagen
changes in sperm or egg cells is called a
__________. D
A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
297703 1 (MSDS), having a flash point below 100°F viscous liquid explosive liquid combustible liquid flammable liquid
(37.78°C) is called a/an __________. D
Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
297703 8 (MSDS) that violently self-reacts under commonly flammable toxic explosive unstable
occurring conditions is called __________. D
Physical data on a Material Safety Data Sheet
(MSDS) which describes chemicals that produce
health effects requiring medical attention where
297704 3 moderate exposure level high toxicity high exposure level moderate toxicity
damage may be permanent but is neither life-
threatening nor seriously disabling, is called
__________. D
What term is listed on a Material Safety Data
Sheet (MSDS) to describe a chemical that can
297704 1 Low toxicity Recommended toxicity Moderate toxicity High toxicity
produce life- threatening or seriously disabling
health hazard ? D
Which health hazard term is listed on a Material
Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to indicate that contact
297706 1 Freeze hazard Cyanosis Freon hazard Cryogenic
with the substance will freeze body tissue on
contact? D
The physical data term on a Material Safety Data
Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by
297709 1 vapor pressure vapor gravity vapor level vapor density
a material is lighter or heavier than air is called
__________. D
How much force the vapor
What does the vapor pressure listed in Section III How fast a chemical gets How much of the chemical Whether the vapor is
297709 3 exerts inside a closed
of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) indicate? into the air. can evaporate. lighter or heavier than air.
container. D
adapter or shore
A vessel over 100 gross tons in coastwise service deballasting pump which oil and water separator to
stop-check valve located connection made in
298001 3 is to deballast its fuel tanks to a facility while in is independent of the retain oily waste in a
at the pump discharge accordance with 33 CFR
port. This vessel must have a/an __________. ballasting pump holding tank D
Part 155

An ocean going ship of 4000 gross tons must be
fitted with a standard discharge shore connection
for the discharge of oily wastes to a reception
298001 4 151 153 154 155
facility. The dimensions for the connection are
specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations
under Part __________. D
When a temporary
connection utilizes an
Any permanently American National
Which of the following statements is true connected flange coupling Approved quick- connect Standard Institute (ANSI)
concerning oil transfer connections? must have a bolt in each couplings may be used. standard flange, a bolt in
hole. every other hole is
acceptable if at least four
bolts are used.
D
CFR), each pressure gage used in fuel transfer
298003 1 3% 5% 7% 10%
operations must be calibrated to indicate pressure
within what percent of the actual pressure? D
all ballast is processed ballast is taken on and ballast and cargo tanks all ballast lines, tanks, and
A segregated ballast system is a system where
298009 1 through the oily water discharged through a are separated by pumps are independent of
__________.
separator separate main deck riser cofferdams those used for oil
D
If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped notify the terminal
notify the Coast Guard of reduce pumping pressure spread absorbent material
298011 2 by tightening the coupling bolts, you should operator, then shutdown
a potential oil spill to reduce the leakage rate on deck beneath the leak
__________. and repair the leak
D
If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped notify the Coast Guard of reduce the pumping
spread absorbent material stop transfer operations
298011 4 by tightening the coupling bolts, you should a potential pollution pressure to reduce the
on deck beneath the leak and renew the gasket
__________. incident leakage rate D
While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose begins
apply dispersants to the repair the leak with duct
298011 6 leaking, causing a sheen on the water. You should reduce the rate of transfer shut down operations
sheen tape
__________. D
Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak
place a large drip pan
develops in the hose and you have ordered the notify the terminal repair the hose with a
298011 5 under the leak and plug replace the hose
pumping stopped. Before resuming pumping you superintendent patch
the scuppers D
should __________.
On U.S. inspected ships, oily water separating
298012 1 equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors must 33 CFR 151 18 CFR 201 46 CFR 41 46 CFR 162
be approved under __________. D
The deck scuppers should be plugged only if fixed containment is only if portable only if fixed containment whenever the vessel is
298015 4
__________. not used containment is not used drains are open being fueled
D
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33
CFR), the pump being used for cargo transfer has at least four times the sum at least more than the
a relief valve setting of 65 psi and a static head of for the pressure of the sum of the pressure of the
298018 5 55 psi 98 psi
10 feet. The vessel's cargo hose used for the relief valve setting plus relief valve setting plus the
transfer must have a maximum allowable working static head pressure static head pressure
pressure of at least __________. D

Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require
a 1500 gross ton vessel (constructed before July have the fill fitting altered have a designated crew
use a drip collar on the fill use an automatic back
298021 1 1, 1974) equipped with a fill fitting for which on or before December member stand watch over
fitting pressure shut off nozzle
discharge containment is impractical to 31, 1986 the fill fitting
__________. D
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations
A small cut in the hose An slight oil seepage
(33 CFR Part 156), which of the following Evidence of internal or
298024 2 cover which just pierces between the hose and All of the above.
conditions would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as external deterioration.
the reinforcement. flange connection. D
being suitable for use in transferring oil?
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 One and one half times Sufficient for maximum
Twice the distance Not over 300 feet (91.4 m)
298026 1 CFR), how much hose should you use in the distance between ship vessel movement without
between ship and dock. of hose.
transferring oil in bulk? and dock. straining the hoses. D
The International Oil Pollution Prevention
one year from the date of two years from the date of three years from the date four years from the date of
298030 1 Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period of
issue issue of issue issue
__________. D
To comply with the Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR Part 155), regarding fuel oil
2 barrel capacity which
discharge containment, a vessel of 300 or more
may be bolted in place
298101 3 but less than 1600 gross tons must have a fixed 5 U.S. gallon capacity 3 barrel capacity one-half barrel capacity
below the loading
container or enclosed deck area under or around
manifold valves
each fuel oil tank vent that has at least a
__________. D
For a ship of 10,000 gross tons, constructed after
30 June 1974, a fixed container, or enclosed deck
298105 2 area, must exist under or around each fuel oil tank 5 gallons (18.9 l) 10 gallons (37.8 l) 21 gallons (79.5 l) 42 gallons (158.9 l)
vent. The container must have a capacity of at
least __________. D
A ship of 6000 gross tons constructed after June
30, 1974, must have a fixed container, or enclosed
deck area under or around each fuel oil vent,
298110 1 5 gallons 21 gallons 1/2 barrel 1 barrel
overflow, and fill pipe. This fixed container, or
enclosed deck area must have a capacity of at
least __________. D
each part of the transfer
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention system not necessary for each scupper or drain in a
the discharge containment
298112 1 Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil the transfer operation is discharge containment all of the above
is in place
to or from a vessel unless __________. securely blanked or shut system is closed
off
D
The use of sinking and dispersing agents for the the most common method too expensive for common generally harmful to sea
298203 2 generally safe to sea life
removal of surface oil is __________. used in the United States use life
D
In port, after chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank,
pumping it into the sewer centrifuging and circulating it through an oil discharging it into a slop
298206 1 you should dispose of the waste oil by
connection reclaiming it and water separator barge or holding tank D
__________.
The emergency shutdown requirements of
298303 1 Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part condensate pumps air compressors induced draft fans cargo transfer systems
155) apply to __________. D

If you detect oil in the water around your vessel
try to find out where the oil have the pumpman check
298306 4 while discharging fuel, the FIRST thing to do is call the Master shutdown operations
is coming from the discharge piping
__________. D
For all loading operations, the terminal must supply
the vessel with a means in which the vessel's
designated person-in- charge may stop the flow of via a communications
pneumatically or
298307 1 oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in electrically device used for no other All of the above.
mechanically
the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. purpose
This means of control may be activated
__________. D
If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while
close the static leg filling close the overflow tank reduce the fuel oil stop the fuel oil pumping
298308 1 the fuel oil tanks are being topped off, the engineer
valve filling valve pumping rate operation D
should __________.
The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention
298500 1 fuel oil only crude oil only liquefied petroleum gas petroleum oil of any kind D
Regulations (33 CFR), means __________.
The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution
298501 1 Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) includes sludge oily ballast water bilge slops all of the above
__________. D
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations Leakage of oil to the water Spilling oil on the main Pumping oil overboard
298502 3 (33 CFR), which of the following qualifies as a by an improperly blanked deck and having it flow through a fixed piping All of the above.
discharge of oil? transfer hose. over the side. system. D
The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution
298502 1 spilling leaking dumping all of the above D
regulations, means __________.
The word "discharge" as used in Pollution pumped into navigable
leaked into navigable poured into navigable
298502 2 Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 151) applies waters through a fixed all of the above
waters waters D
to oil __________. piping system
A person on a fixed, or floating platform engaged in
food, ground to less than paper, ground to less than
298552 1 oil exploration, located 10 nautical miles from food waste none of the above
1" 1" D
nearest land MAY discharge __________.
According to MARPOL, the definition of gray water
298557 1 toilets hospital sinks cargo spaces dishwashers D
includes drainage from __________.
The vessel may discharge The vessel may discharge
disinfected and sewage into the sea, from
comminuted sewage into an approved system
Which of the following statements is true
The vessel must have an the sea, from an approved which is not comminuted
298570 1 concerning the overboard discharge of vessel All of the above
approved sewage plant. system, only if the vessel or disinfected, only if the
sewage at sea?
is more than three nautical vessel is more than 12
miles from the nearest nautical miles from the
land. nearest land.
D
each oil transfer hose has
each part of the transfer no loose covers, kinks,
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 each hose is supported in
system necessary to allow bulges, or soft spots, and
298601 2 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a a manner that prevents All of the above.
the flow of oil is lined up no gouges, cuts or
vessel unless __________. strain on its coupling
for transfer slashes that penetrate the
hose reinforcement
D
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state spectacle flanges are packing glands of the fuel hose is supported to
vessel is surrounded by
298601 4 that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel installed in cargo pump transfer pump must not prevent strain on its
an oil containment boom D
unless the __________. overboard discharges leak at all couplings

Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), drains and scuppers are transferor and transferee
hose is supported to
298606 2 require that the person-in-charge of transfer closed by the mechanical know the identity of the all of the above
prevent kinking or damage
operations is to insure that the __________. means product to be transferred D
possession of a copy of
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify
the facilty operations
298606 3 that the person-in-charge of bunkering is vessel draft quantity of fuel received quality of fuel received
manual or vessel transfer
responsible for the __________. D
procedures
communications with
298606 1 that the person-in-charge of bunkering is vessel draft quantity of fuel received quality of fuel received
terminal operator
responsible for the __________. D
(33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a
298607 1 oil record book certificate of inspection valve inspection record declaration of inspection
vessel unless each person in charge has signed
the __________. D
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)
state that a person may not transfer oil or
298607 2 hazardous materials to or from a vessel unless machinery log oil record book valve inspection record Declaration of Inspection
each person-in- charge has signed the
__________. D
person-in-charge of the oil
The Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations
master of the vessel and master and chief engineer terminal supervisor, transfer operations on the
(33 CFR) require a meeting before starting any oil
298609 1 the terminal of the vessel and the Master of the vessel and vessel and the person-in-
transfer operation. That meeting must be between
superintendent terminal supervisor the Coast Guard charge of the oil transfer
the __________.
operations at the facility
D
has in his or her
has notified the captain of is in the immediate vicinity
has in his or her possession a valid
No person may transfer oil to or from a vessel the port at least 24 hours and immediately available
298610 1 possession a copy of the Certificate of Inspection or
unless the person in charge __________. before beginning each oil to the oil transfer
vessel's Oil Record Book Tank Vessel Examination
transfer operation personnel D
Letter
According to Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), a
"suspension order" to suspend oil transfer Officer-In-Charge, Marine
298612 1 Captain of the Port District Commander all of the above
operations can be withdrawn by the appropriate Inspection
__________. D
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations Designated persons- in-
Any local Coast Guard The senior deck officer
298613 1 (33 CFR), who is to make the final decision of Captain of the Port officer charge of vessel and
representative present
when oil transfer may begin? facility D
The transfer procedures for oil products are in the upper pump room where they can be easily
298616 1 in the pilothouse in the officer's lounge
required to be posted __________. flat seen or readily available
D
According to 33 CFR Part 156, each pressure
298617 1 gage used in an oil transfer operation must be 1 percent 3 percent 5 percent 10 percent
accurate to within __________. D
An applications for a waiver of any requirements of
the day before the 5 days before the 10 days before the 30 days before the
298620 3 the regulations for oil transfer operations must be
operations operations operations operations D
submitted __________.
The authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil Nearest Coast Guard Officer-in-Charge, Marine
298620 1 Area Commander Captain of the Port D
transfer operations rests with the __________. office Inspection

the person in charge has
No person may serve as the person-in- charge of
there is ready access the vessel and facility are a rapid means of the Captain of the Port
298621 2 both the vessel and the facility during oil transfer
between the two immediately adjacent transportation between authorizes such procedure
operation unless __________. D
the two
consistently recorded
recorded as cubic meters through the Oil Record
When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all verified by the Chief recorded directly from the
298703 1 with a conversion to Book in one specified unit
quantities should be __________. Engineer oil discharge monitor
barrels (gallons, barrels, cubic
meters) D
Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must
298704 1 engineer on watch Chief Engineer Chief Mate Master D
be signed by the __________.
completely black it out and draw a single line through
If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record erase the entry and notify the ship's officer-in-
298705 1 make the correct entry the wrong entry and initial
Book, you should __________. rewrite it charge
alongside it D
When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the
recorded only for signed by the oiler who
date, operational code, and item number shall be recorded only for recorded chronologically
298706 1 operations involving enters them in the Oil
inserted in the appropriate columns. Furthermore, accidental oil discharges in the blank space
discharge of oily waste Record Book
the required particulars shall be __________. D
Oil Pollution Regulations (33 CFR) require any
298710 3 transfer or discharge of oil or oily mixtures to be bridge log Master's log engine room log oil record book
recorded in the __________. D
Which of the following operations aboard a tanker The discharge overboard
must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank- Any internal transfer of oil in port or at sea of any The loading or unloading
to-tank basis according to Coast Guard cargo during a voyage. bilge water accumulated of any or all oil cargo.
Regulations? in machinery spaces.
D
have a valid International have a valid National
The regulations regarding Oil Record Books do not are on an international are on a voyage of more
298714 1 Oil Pollution Prevention Pollutant Discharge
apply to MODUs that __________. voyage than 24 hours
Certificate Elimination System permit
D
Passenger vessels shall maintain an Oil Record
298716 1 150 gross tons and above 200 gross tons and above 300 gross tons and above 400 gross tons and above D
Book, if the vessel is __________.
a list of agencies or
a list which specifies who
According to 33 CFR Part 151, which of the officials of Coastal State
a list of agencies or will be responsible for
following is NOT required to be provided as part of administrations a list of personnel duty
298903 2 officials in regularly visited informing the parties listed
the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution responsible for receiving assignments
ports and the priority in which
Emergency Plan? and processing incident
they must be notified
reports
D
According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a
298906 1 shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires one year two years four years five years
after __________. D
annually by the owner and
and the entire plan
According to 33 CFR Part 151, shipboard oil annually by the owner and only once every five years submit a letter to the
resubmitted for approval
298907 2 pollution emergency plans must be reviewed a letter submitted six and a letter submitted six Coast Guard within one
once every five years, six
__________. months prior to expiration months prior to expiration month of the anniversary
months prior to expiration
date of the plan approval D
According to 33 CFR, records of garbage disposal until each quadrennial until the end of each for a minimum of two
299000 1 for a minimum of one year D
are required to be maintained __________. Coast Guard inspection voyage years

Plastic garbage bags containing comminuted
299006 2 paper and rags may only be discharged 3 miles from land 12 miles from land 25 miles from land ashore
__________. D
Which CFR regulation identifies the placard to be
299008 1 posted on the vessel describing the proper 33 CFR Part 159.51 33 CFR Part 157.37 33 CFR Part 157.100 33 CFR Part 151.59
disposal of garbage? D
What would be the minimum distance from any
shoreline that a vessel must be located before it is
299020 1 permitted to perform a complete ballast water 12 nautical miles 50 nautical miles 100 nautical miles 200 nautical miles
exchange to be in compliance with U.S. Federal
Ballast Water Management Regulations? D
Prior to discharging ballast
Prior to entering U.S.
To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast water in U.S. waters, the
waters, use any Coast
Water Management regulations, which of the vessel must perform a
Retain ballast water on Guard approved
299022 2 following procedures may be followed by an ocean complete ballast water All of the above
board the vessel. alternative
vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an exchange in an area no
environmentally sound
international voyage? less than 200 nautical
method of BWM.
miles from any shoreline.
D
A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of
299102 1 survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined liferaft life cushion life preserver buoyant apparatus
as a _______. D
Life jackets should be marked with the
299106 1 maximum weight allowed stowage space assigned vessel's home port vessel's name D
__________.
The suits provide for
Not all models will The immersion suit seals The suit is flameproof and
limited body movement
automatically turn an in body heat and provides provides protection to the
299110 1 Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? such as walking, climbing
unconscious person face- protection against wearer while swimming
a ladder and picking up
up in the water. hypothermia indefinitely. through burning oil.
small objects like a pencil.
D
A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft
__________.
Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated
299142 1 liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which The hydrostatic release A sheer pin A rottmer release A weak link in the painter
sinks in water over 100 feet deep? D
removing the rubber
An inflatable liferaft can be manually released from cutting the straps that loosing the turnbuckle on pushing the button on the
299144 1 sealing strip from the
its cradle by __________. enclose the container the securing strap hydrostatic release
container D
After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept opening the automatic using the electric bilge using the bailers and
299148 1 draining the water pockets D
dry inside by __________. drain plugs pump cellulose
An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by an oar and canvas
299152 5 a boat bucket an air tank filled with water All of the above SF-0042 D
using __________. weighted down
Your survival craft is rolling in heavy seas. You can shifting the rudder moving all personnel
299152 1 moving all personnel aft rigging a sea anchor
reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________. constantly forward and low D
The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall
299205 1 buoyant oars one 50 meter line one first aid kit all of the above D
include __________.
When a person who has fallen overboard is being
astern and the victim just ahead and the victim just just off the bow and the just off the bow and the
299206 3 picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should
off the bow off the bow victim to windward victim to leeward D
normally approach with the wind __________.

A man aboard a vessel, signaling by raising and
all is clear, it is safe to all is clear, it is safe to
299304 1 lowering his outstretched arms to each side, is danger, stay away a distress signal
pass approach
indicating __________. D
299305 1 Distress signals may be __________. red flares smoke signals sound signals All of the above D
sounding four short blats
You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by displaying three black and after two seconds continously sounding the
299307 1 displaying a large red flag
__________. balls in a vertical line sounding three more rapid fog horn
blasts on the whistle
D
As a vessel changes course to starboard, the first turns to starboard
turns counterclockwise to remains aligned with
299351 1 compass card in a magnetic then counterclockwise to also turns to starboard
port compass north
compass___________. port D
Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass making a structural a short circuit near the
299353 1 belt buckles All of the above D
by___________. change to the vessel compass
299353 2 Which would influence a magnetic compass? Electric wiring Iron pipe Radio All of the above D
A vessel heading NNW is on a course of
299355 1 274.5° 292.0° 315.5° 337.5° D
__________.
Each distress signal and self-activated smoke
signal must be replaced not later than the marked
299378 2 12 24 36 42
date of expiration, or not more than how many
months from the date of manufacture? D
may be substituted for 10 should be stowed may be used by boat should be used when
Coast Guard approved buoyant work
299403 1 percent of the required life adjacent to rescue boats crews and line handlers carrying out duties near a
vests__________.
preservers and emergency stations during rescue boats drills weather deck's edge D
A life line must be connected to the liferaft
__________.
Which procedure should NOT be done for a Revive the person with Lay the person
299451 1 Loosen the clothing. Give pain reliever. D
person whom has fainted? smelling salts. horizontally.
The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is
299452 1 tea coffee whiskey and water Ammonia inhalant D
__________.
A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the
head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of turning the victim's head positioning the victim so
giving the victim water if elevating the head and
299457 1 concussion. If the patient feels no indication of to the side to keep his the head is lower than the
he is thirsty, but no food shoulders slightly
neck or spine injury, recommended treatment airway open body
would include __________. D
allow the person to
A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial
perform the Heimlich give back blows and continue coughing and
299460 1 obstruction of the airway. An observer should immediately start CPR
maneuver something to drink dislodge the obstruction
__________.
on his own D
immediately give a
A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops make the victim
299462 2 stimulant, by force if administer oxygen immediatly start CPR
breathing. You must __________. comfortable in a bunk
necessary D
pain at the site of the
pain and uncontrolled vomiting and involuntary
The symptoms of a fractured back are leg cramps in the muscles fracture and possible
299471 1 jerking of the arms and urination or bowl
__________. in one or both legs numbness or paralysis
legs movement D
below the injury
The sea anchor shown as item number 18 will keep the liferaft end on to reduce the possibility of right the raft if it inflates
299500 1 check the liferaft's way SF-0042 D
NOT __________. the sea broaching or capsizing inverted

In the illustration, the sea anchor is shown as item
299502 1 7 13 15 18 SF-0042 D
number __________.
In the illustration shown, where would you find the
299503 1 Item #2 Item #4 Item #22 Item #23 SF-0042 D
knife?
an outside heat source conduction of heat
By definition, spontaneous combustion is a result chemical reactions within
290050 3 heating a substance until through a wall of material All of the above.
of __________. a substance
it ignites to the substance
C
Spontaneous combustion can occur in paint thinner in an open fuel accumulated in the oily rags stored in an gasoline stored in steel
290051 4 C
__________. can bilges unvented compartment drums
Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish interrupting the chain
290053 4 removing the heat removing the oxygen removing the fuel C
a shipboard fire by __________. reaction
transmitting the heat of a hot combustion gases
A fire can spread by "convection" as a result of burning liquids flowing into the transfer of heat across
290101 6 fire through the ship's flowing through ventilation
_______. another space an unobstructed space
metal systems C
To prevent the spread of fire by convection cool the bulkhead around remove combustibles from close all openings to the
290101 4 shut off all electrical power C
__________. the fire direct exposure area
Fusible link fire dampers are operated by a mechanical arm outside electrical controls on the the heat of a fire melting a break-glass and pull-
290104 3 C
__________. the vent duct bridge the link cable system
The midships house of your ship is constructed
They can be kept open if
with an interior stair tower from the main deck to They may be kept open if
They may be kept open if the Muster List ("Station
the bridge. According to 46 CFR Part 92.07, under They are to be kept closed the ventilation or air
290105 1 they can be automatically Bill") has personnel
which of the circumstances listed may the doors at all times. conditioning system is
closed from the bridge. designated to close them
from each deck to the stair tower be kept open shut down.
in case of fire.
when underway? C
The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can the accumulation of the fire spreading by way fixed foam systems to be
290106 1 faster cooling of the fire
contribute to __________. explosive gases of the ventilation system ineffective
C
One of the common hazards onboard a vessel is
represented by the accumulation of harmful gases
in tanks, holds, etc. Which of the following gases is
290200 4 Hydrogen Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Ammonia
the most dangerous to personnel safety in
confined atmospheres, as it is absorbed by the
blood 300 times more quickly than oxygen? C
Which of the toxic gases listed is a product of
290200 2 incomplete combustion and is often present when Carbon dioxide Hydrogen sulfide Carbon monoxide Nitric oxide
a fire burns in a closed compartment? C
In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower
290201 2 must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by ventilation radiation convection conduction
__________. C
Before entering any space that has been sealed,
290203 1 its oxygen level should be tested. What level of 10.00% 15.80% 20.80% 25.80%
oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air? C
Which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen Test tank atmosphere with Observe the amount of Ventilate the tank with Open the manhole cover
290203 2 is present for safe entry into a seldom used cargo a combustible gas rust deposited on the fresh air and test with an for approximately ten
tank? indicator. tank's surface. oxygen indicator. minutes. C
The airborne concentrations of substances (such
as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all
290206 1 exposure limits concentration limits threshold limit values substance limit values
workers may be repeatedly exposed without
adverse effects are called __________. C

All of the hydrogen sulfide Only 80% of the hydrogen
When hydrogen sulfide is burned (flared) on a All of the hydrogen sulfide The hydrogen sulfide not
will be converted to sulfide will be converted to
290206 4 MODU, which of the following conditions can be will be converted to sulfur converted will not be
hydrogen and free sulfur dioxide or free
expected to occur? dioxide. dangerous. C
sulphur. sulphur.
Requirements for hydrogen sulfide preparation and
Minerals Management American National
290207 1 equipment usage aboard MODUs in U.S. offshore U.S. Coast Guard U.S. Corps of Engineers
Service Standards Institute
waters are administered by the __________. C
Locations on a MODU, where flammable
290209 1 hydrocarbon gas or vapors may accumulate due to gaseous locations hazardous locations classified locations designated locations
drilling operations, are defined as __________. C
Hydrogen sulfide in explosive concentrations has
been detected on the drill floor. The abandon rig all survival capsules and only the leeward survival only the windward survival
290210 1 only the windward liferafts
signal has been sounded. To evacuate the rig, the liferafts capsules and liferafts capsules
crew should use __________. C
On a MODU, if there is a probability of
encountering hydrogen sulfide during the drilling of
290212 1 a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be pipe rack crown block shale shaker all of the above
installed to dilute the concentration of gas at the
__________. C
What additional precautions should be taken when
Seal off all tank and Remove all bulk materials Provide respiratory
290214 1 making temporary repairs to a MODU that is All of the above.
compartment ventilation. from the P- tanks. protection and monitoring.
operating while hydrogen sulfide is present? C
Hydrogen sulfide is the constituent giving sour
crude oil the characteristic odor of rotten eggs. chemical burning of the irritation of the intestinal its high toxicity resulting in dependency addiction to
290215 2
One of the hazards associated with hydrogen skin tract death the highly toxic fumes
sulfide is __________. C
When pumping sour crude, which gas should be
290215 1 tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to Benzene Carbon monoxide Hydrogen sulfide Tetraethyl lead
repair a leaking pump? C
Hydrogen sulfide gas (H2S) is highly toxic and has
it also tends to numb the
a characteristic odor of rotten eggs. The sense of it has a smell similar to the gas is odorless in any it is better to rely on eye
290216 4 sense of smell after initial
smell cannot always be depended upon to detect petroleum products concentration irritation as a detector
exposure
hydrogen sulfide gas because __________. C
A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of place a portable fire
label the fixed firefighting store paint cans on metal not allow oily rags to
290302 2 accidental fires in the paint locker, is to extinguisher immediately
system shelves only accumulate in the space
__________. outside the locker C
Stowing portable
Which of the practices listed should be avoided Smoking near the burner Smoking in the machine Stowing oily rags in a
290302 3 acetylene bottles in the
since it represents a fire hazard? front shop paint locker
vertical position C
lower the carbon reduce the amount of
To initially combat a fire, the ventilation system to a allow the exhaust fans to protect the fire fighters
290304 2 monoxide smothering available oxygen to the
compartment should be secured to __________. remove the smoke from smoke
capabilities fire C
According to 46 CFR Part 199, on a cargo vessel,
fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of
290306 4 5% 10% 25% 40%
leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced
is more than __________. C

On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held

290306 1 within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of 5% 10% 25% 40%
the crew replaced is more than __________. C
As soon as you hear the fire and emergency the ring buoys are thrown everyone is suited in an
290307 3 the engines are stopped the fire pump is started C
signal, you should ensure that __________. overboard approved life vest
As soon as you hear the fire and emergency ring buoys are thrown life preservers have been
290307 9 engines are stopped fire pumps are started
signal, you should ensure that the __________. overboard issued to everyone
C
At the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel, determine which type of
290307 2 locate the fire sound the alarm fight the fire C
you must FIRST __________. fire is burning
Which of the actions listed should be taken by the
Engine room ventilation Main engines should be The fire pump should be The fixed CO2 system
290307 4 engineer on watch when the general alarm is
should be started. secured. started. should be activated.
sounded continuously for 10 seconds? C
While on watch in the engine room, you hear a Open the master control Secure auxiliary
Make an entry in the Start the fire pump and
290307 7 continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which valves on the fixed CO2 condenser overboard
official logbook. check discharge pressure.
of the following actions should you take? system. discharge. C
To prevent the spread of fire by convection you remove combustibles from cool the bulkhead around close all openings to the
290309 1 shut off electrical power C
should __________. direct exposure the fire area
Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a in a locked cabinet in the in an unlocked cabinet in in a separate and
290402 3 at a fire hydrant location C
MODU must be stowed __________. machinery space the machinery space accessible location
How often must the emergency generator be
290403 1 Once each day Once each week Once each month Once each year C
tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
Fire axes required on MODUs must be stored in
290404 1 the enclosure for fire hoses with the location Fire Axe Location Hose Station No. _____ Fire Station No. _____ Firefighting Equipment
marked '_________________.' C
On a MODU, firefighting equipment must be
290405 1 three months six months twelve months eighteen months C
inspected once every __________.
According to regulations, the master or person-in-
only when it happens
290406 6 charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of to the next of kin to the nearest OCMI to the nearest coroner
while underway
a loss of life __________. C
According to regulations, the master or person-in- to the nearest Marine
only when it happens
290406 7 charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of to the next of kin Safety or Marine to the nearest coroner
while underway
a loss of life __________. Inspection Office C
After a fire aboard a MODU, the Coast Guard must
be notified if there is death, an injury resulting in
290406 1 $(SA)15,000 $(SA)10,000 $(SA)25,000 $(SA)50,000
more than 72% incapacitation, or property damage
in excess of __________. C
A device for preventing sparks or flames from
pressure-vacuum relief
290500 3 entering a tank, while permitting the free passage gas absorption detector flame screen sacrificial anode
valve C
of gases, is called a __________.
They help prevent the
Why are flame screens on tank vents an important They provide a 'dead air They accelerate the They smother flames once
290502 1 passage of flames from or
safety device? space' within a fuel tank. dispersal of fuel vapors. a fire has been started. C
into the vent line.
Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a corrosion prevent dirt from entering dissipate fumes leaving prevent flames from prevent accidental
290503 4 C
resistant wire mesh screen to __________. the tank the vent entering the tank overflow
Fuel oil tank vents must be fitted with corrosion escape of flammable
290503 1 entry of sea water flames entering the tank damage to the ball check C
resistant screens to prevent __________. vapors
The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm the emergency power and the general alarm 24 volt the flow of CO2 under
290554 1 all of the above C
siren is obtained from __________. lighting bus DC bus pressure

smoke density has been

all smoke and toxic fumes overhaul has been
After a fire has been extinguished in a closed decreased sufficiently to
a lifeline and explosion are removed and an completed to remove any
290602 1 space, personnel may safely enter the space when see the bulkhead opposite
proof flash light are used adequate oxygen supply possible source of
__________. the compartment's
is present reignition
entrance
C
If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated
290604 1 compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of unburned carbon particles excess nitrogen a lack of oxygen excess hydrogen
__________. C
The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8%
by volume in air. The instrument shown in the
illustration is used to sample a tank that had
290608 1 0.42% 0.98% 1.26% 7.20% SF-0002
contained benzene and a 90% reading is obtained.
What percentage of benzene vapor would be
indicated at the sampling point? C
The flammable limits of kerosene is 0.7% to 6.0%
by volume in air. If a tank having contained the atmosphere contains the sample contains
insufficient oxygen exists the sample is below the
290610 2 kerosene is tested with the combustible gas 50% kerosene vapor by approximately 3.0% SF-0002
in the space to support life lower explosive limit
indicator, shown in the illustration, and a reading of volume in air kerosene vapor by volume
50% is obtained, this means __________. C
Combustible gas indicators measure the
concentration of combustible gases as a the needle will rise slowly the needle will move the needle will move to
290612 4 percentage of the lower explosive limit of the gas. to and remain at the rapidly to and remain at the maximum reading and it will not be detected
If the hydrocarbon content of the sample exceeds maximum reading the maximum reading return back to zero
the upper explosive limit __________. C
When using the combustible gas indicator to test a
the needle will move to the needle will move to
cargo tank, and the hydrocarbon content of the the needle will move to an audible beeping will be
290612 1 the maximum reading and the maximum reading and
atmosphere exceeds the upper explosive limit zero and stay there heard
stay there return to zero immediately
(UEL), __________. C
Combustible gas indicators measure the presence
290615 2 of combustible gases as a percentage of the flash point upper explosive limit lower explosive limit fire point
__________. C
To detect the presence of explosive gases in any
290621 1 space, tank, or compartment, you should use a flame scanner halide torch combustible gas indicator detector filament
__________. C
efficiency, to keep the bilge water level from
continuing to rise? C
Which of the following is required to be included in Chemical protection face Self-contained breathing
290700 1 Approved work vest 5 cell approved flashlight C
the fireman's (emergency) outfit? shield apparatus
As part of the emergency outfit required to be
of a minimum number of listed by NEMA and
290702 2 carried onboard all tank vessels over 1000 gross of the Type II or Type III all of the above
two explosion proof type bearing its label
tons, flashlights must be __________. C
A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, fresh-air breathing self-contained breathing
290703 1 canister-type gas mask combustible gas indicator C
must have a __________. apparatus apparatus

Before making any welded repairs to the internals
290802 1 of a vessel's fuel tank in a U.S. port, the tank must the chief engineer the master of the vessel a certified marine chemist the insurance underwriter
be examined by __________. C
hydraulic directional valve spring-loaded catch that
method that automatically
that automatically automatically lifts to
releases the door in the
290805 1 Fire doors are released by a/an __________. releases the door in the release the door in the pneumatic heat sensor
event of a disruption of
event of a disruption to the event of the presence of a
control system power
control power system fire C
After completing an international oil pollution
prevention (IOPP) certificate survey under Coast
Guard Regulations (33 CFR Part 151), no U.S.C.G. Officer in
State Water Management Environmental Pollution Marine Pollution
290807 1 significant change may be made in the Charge of Marine
Authority Agency Investigatory Board
construction, equipment, fittings, arrangements, or Inspection
materials covered by the survey without the
sanction of the __________. C
The most common and widely used cooling agent
291003 2 used for fighting fires on merchant vessels is carbon dioxide flue gas water steam smothering
_______. C
The most common cooling agent used for fighting
291003 1 carbon dioxide flue gas water steam smothering C
fires on tank vessels is __________.
Which of the firefighting agents listed is the least
291004 1 CO2 Steam W ater Carbon tetrachloride C
hazardous to personnel?
After you have put water on a burning mattress,
dry the mattress in a warm make sure the fire is out pull the mattress apart to secure the mattress in a
291050 2 and the fire appears to have been extinguished,
area with CO2 ensure no fire remains well ventilated area C
you should then __________.
hold the nozzle steady
To fight a large class "A" fire contained in a closed hold the nozzle steady
while applying a straight
compartment, the nozzleman should open a door sweep a straight stream sweep a fog stream and direct a fog stream in
291051 3 stream in the area where
enough to insert the hose nozzle and initially around the compartment around the compartment the area where he
he suspects the source of
__________. suspects the fire
the fire to be
C
When entering a burning compartment equipped
a straight stream into the the high velocity fog into the high velocity fog at the the high velocity fog at the
291051 2 with a fire hose and an all- purpose nozzle, you
center of the space the center of the space overhead to absorb heat deck to cool it for entry
should first direct __________. C
Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT
291052 5 Dry chemical Foam W ater Carbon dioxide C
suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire?
two hose teams should water must not be used if
To effectively and safely combat a passageway the fire should be attacked the fire should be attacked
291053 1 attack the fire from the passageway is above
fire, __________. from above if possible from one direction only
opposite directions the metacentric height
C
When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard
prevent any deformation eliminate flammable
291054 1 ship, water fog can be used to extinguish the fire contain the burning liquid cool the surrounding metal
of the tank top combustion gases
and __________. C
A straight stream of water should be used to
291055 2 galley grease fires fuel oil fires burning bedding materials a fire in the paint locker C
extinguish __________.
In order to complete ventilation of the open the door and
close the portholes in close the door in
291059 2 compartments shown in figure 2 of the illustration, portholes in compartment do nothing SF-0013
compartments A and C compartment D C
you should___________. B

In the illustration shown, the type of ventilation
291059 3 depicted in figure 1 and figure 2 respectfully is horizontal; vertical vertical; combination combination; horizontal cross-flow; horizontal SF-0013
__________. C
In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to
compartment "B" by the following method:
291061 1 I II III I and III SF-0013
I. radiation
II. convection III. Conduction C
only need to set up a hose
cool adjoining horizontal advance the hose team
A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge keep the door tightly team to cool the door,
and vertical surfaces into the room without any
291064 1 room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire you closed until all the oil has then open the door and SF-0013
before opening the door to additional preparatory
should __________. been consumed by the fire extinguish the fire using a
extinguish the fire action
type B-II extinguisher C
When fighting a large fire on your vessel and not rotate personnel, in station personnel on the
cool the deck directly
291068 3 attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is order to consistently and hot deck, immediately All of the above
above the space of the fire
important to __________. quickly extinguish the fire above the fire C
According to 46 CFR's Part 96, what is the
minimum period of time that an approved self-
291070 4 10 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes 60 minutes
contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is required
to provide an air supply? C
What is the minimum period of time that the air
291070 1 supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is 10 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes
required to last? C
The bayonet catch on an all purpose nozzle is mechanical foam pick up
291100 2 mechanical foam nozzle high velocity fog tip chemical foam applicator C
used to latch in place the __________. tube
A low velocity fog applicator is held in an all-
purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator
291101 1 water pressure a keeper screw a spring-loaded catch a locknut
is prevented from rotating in the joint by
__________. C
The correct name for the device shown in the
291102 2 suicide nozzle fog applicator combination nozzle in-line fog nozzle SF-0011 C
illustration, is a/an __________.
With the handle of the device shown in the
291102 8 illustration is in the position labeled "C" the nozzle a fog a spray no flow a solid stream SF-0011
will deliver __________. C
The significant difference between the high velocity number of personnel
difference in available degree to which the water ability to exclude free
291152 2 fog tip and the low velocity fog applicator used with required to effectively use
water pressure stream is broken up oxygen
the all-purpose nozzle is the __________. each of them C
Which of the listed firefighting agents and
Light water and foam
291154 1 associated applications provide the largest Straight stream of water Low velocity water fog Carbon dioxide interface
mixture C
shielding effect for the fire fighter?
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require each
machinery space fire hose to be equipped with an
may not exceed 3 feet in may not exceed 4 feet in must be less than 6 feet in must be less than 10 feet
291158 3 approved combination nozzle and applicator. The
length length length in length
maximum allowable length of the applicator
__________. C

may be greater than 6 feet
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require each in length when
machinery space fire hose to be equipped with an demonstrated to OCMI
may not exceed 4 feet in may not exceed 5 feet in must be less than 6 feet in
291158 2 approved combination nozzle and applicator. The that the applicator will not
length length length
maximum allowable length of the applicator interfere with the
__________. placement of the
machinery C
An extinguishing agent which effectively cools,
291159 1 dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat Halon 1301 dry chemical water fog carbon dioxide
and smoke screen is __________. C
A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the hose sections all-purpose nozzle hose sections rolled
291200 4 foam nozzle attached C
__________. disconnected attached separately
Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting
291201 4 Vise grips Channel locks Spanner wrench Pipe wrench
and disconnecting fire hose couplings?
C
keep them rolled tightly in
To properly maintain fire hoses, you should keep exterior linings damp thoroughly drain them keep them partially filled
291203 1 the rack with female
__________. by periodic washdowns after each use with fresh water
coupling protected C
Male fire hose couplings Male fire hose couplings
Which of the following statements concerning fire Fire hose couplings must Fire hose couplings
291203 2 are strong and not easily can be easily damaged by
hose couplings is true? be lubricated with oil. should be painted red.
damaged. dropping.
C
If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure
become elongated by
291204 1 with the nozzle shut off, the fire hose will burst under pressure lash about violently remain motionless
125%
__________. C
Which of the following statements is correct
concerning fire hoses used within the machinery The fire hoses must be 1 The fire hoses must all be
The fire hoses must be in The fire hoses must be of
291206 3 spaces of cargo vessels, on which the fire main 1/2 inches in diameter or fitted with approved 5/8
75 foot lengths. the lined type.
installations were contracted for on, or after 26 less. inch nozzles.
May 1965? C
Which of the following statements is correct The fire hoses must be 1 The fire hoses must all be
The fire hoses must be in The fire hoses must be of
291206 2 concerning fire hoses used within the machinery 1/2 inches in diameter or fitted with approved 5/8
75 foot lengths. the lined type.
spaces of cargo vessels? less. inch nozzles. C
A spanner wrench must There is less hose nozzle
A 2-1/2 inch hose should Backup hoseman should
Which of the following statements is FALSE always be used when thrust when using high
be deployed with a be placed wherever the
291210 2 concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire attaching nozzles or velocity fog when
minimum of a nozzleman hose makes a significant
hose? additional lengths of compared to straight
and two hose men. turn.
hoses. stream. C
According to 46 CFR, a ships fire main system at least two streams of
a low velocity spray a water spray or solid at least 25 psi delivered
291251 3 must have enough fire hydrants for each water from separate
applicator stream pressure
accessible space to be reached with __________. outlets C
While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses
from a single 'wye' gate attached to a hydrant at the base of the "Y" in at the base of the "Y" on each leg of the "Y"
291255 1 on each leg of the "Y" 90°
outlet, you need only turn the valve handle either direction counterclockwise 180° 180°
__________. C
The relief valve for a fire pump should be set at 25
psi above the pressure necessary to maintain the
291302 3 50 psi 75 psi 125 psi 150 psi
required fire hose streams, or at a minimum
pressure of ______, whichever is greater. C

friction in the piping and
Pressure within a firemain system will vary from
291303 3 leaky pilot valves leaky pump suction valve valves and position in the wear in the hydrant
point to point due to __________.
system C
There is always a lower water pressure at the fire
hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the Friction in the piping and
291303 1 Leaky pilot valve Leaky pump suction valve Wear in the hydrant
pump. Which of the following reasons is the valves
common cause of this loss in pressure? C
How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a
291350 1 Once a week. Once a month. Once a year. During each drill. C
mobile offshore drilling unit?
If not attached to the nozzle, each low velocity next to the fire hydrant to
in a protected area on the inside a machinery space on a rack inside the
291353 1 spray applicator on a MODU must be stowed which the fire hose is
main deck near the entrance quarters near the entrance C
__________. attached
A fire pump used on a MODU requires 175 psi
discharge pressure to maintain the required 50 psi
291354 1 pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants. 125 psi 175 psi 200 psi 225 psi
The maximum pressure setting for this installation
relief valve is __________. C
Fighting an oil rig fire in a watertight compartment reducing the level of drill
causing a list due to the reducing the KG to
291355 2 with hoses could reduce the stability of the rig by progressive down flooding water from the storage
water in the compartment minimum allowable
__________. tanks C
Fighting an oil rig fire in the ballast pump room with increasing the A reduced KG caused by
reduction of drill water a list caused by water
291355 1 hoses would adversely affect the stability of the rig permeability of the pump water filling the
from the storage tanks filling the compartment
most by __________. room compartment C
Extinguishing an oil fire when using foam is a
291400 4 cooling dampening smothering vapor absorption C
result of __________.
When using foam, a 'Class B' fire is extinguished
291400 1 cooling the surface replacing the fuel smothering the fire all of the above C
by __________.
Aqueous film forming firefighting foam is also
291401 4 chemical foam high-expansion foam mechanical foam all of the above C
known as __________.
Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced foam chemical with air bicarbonate soda with air
291401 3 soda acid and water dry chemical and water
by mechanically mixing and agitating __________. and water and water
C
When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-
291403 3 be dryer be lighter be more heat resistant cling to vertical surfaces C
expansion foam will __________.
A tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate
291408 2 aboard. Approximately how much foam solution 200 gallons 420 gallons 667 gallons 986 gallons
can be produced from this supply? C
If your vessel is to carry ten portable foam fire
291450 1 extinguishers, you must maintain a supply of at one spare extinguisher one spare charge five spare charges ten spare charges
least __________. C
Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing
291451 1 Halon 1211 Carbon dioxide Foam Dry chemical C
when stowed in low temperatures?
Which type of fire extinguisher is most prone to the
291451 2 Halon 1211 Carbon dioxide Foam Dry chemical C
freezing when exposed to low temperatures?
The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is
291453 1 used in conjunction with a fire hose to produce Chemical foam Low velocity fog Mechanical foam High velocity fog SF-0020
which of the listed fire extinguishing agents? C

educting mechanical foam educting air through "C",

The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit educting air through "D" educting chemical foam
through "D" and mixing it mechanical foam through
291454 1 shown in the illustration, is produced by and mixing it with water in through "D" and mixing it SF-0020
with water and air in "D", and mixing them with
__________. chamber "E" with water in chamber "E"
chamber "E" water in chamber "E" C
Immediately after a class "B" fire has been carefully apply a low wade through the foam sweep the foam blanket
be careful not to disturb
291550 2 extinguished by the use of foam, crewmen should velocity fog over the foam blanket to evenly overboard and secure
the foam blanket
__________. blanket distribute the foam firefighting equipment C
The rekindling of a fire can occur when a fire,
extinguished by smothering, is resupplied with
291550 4 oxygen. Which of the fire extinguishing agents Low velocity fog High velocity fog Chemical foam Dry chemical
listed, when properly used on an oil fire, will
prevent rekindling? C
A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can
291552 1 dry chemical soda acid foam high velocity fog C
be effectively fought using __________.
Foam is effective in combating which of the listed
291553 2 Class A Class B Classes A and B Classes B and C C
classes of fire?
When a fire occurs in a ruptured oil cargo tank,
291553 1 caused by an explosion or collision, the best water CO2 foam carbon tetrachloride
firefighting agent to use is __________. C
AFFF can be used AFFF can be used to AFFF may be used in a AFFF is an effective chain
Which of the following statements concerning
291555 1 effectively on live extinguish combustible joint attack with dry breaking agent similar to
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) is correct?
electrical equipment. metal fires. chemical. Halon. C
Which of the listed equipment must be provided on
Foam fire protection
291630 2 a MODU helicopter deck equipped with fueling Fuel testing station Foam testing station Fire alarm
system
facilities? C
Halogenated fire extinguishing agents such as breaking the chain
291651 4 cooling producing excess CO2 foaming action C
Halon 1301 extinguish fires by __________. reaction
The agent can not be
Which of the following statements is true The agent is highly toxic Halon extinguishes the fire
The agent is less effective used on electrical fires
291651 1 concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing as stored in pressurized by a chain breaking
than carbon dioxide. because it leaves a
agent? cylinders. reaction.
residue. C
The engine will ingest a
substantial quantity of the
Which of the listed factors should be considered The engine will stall
The high engine The engine will absorb the available Halon through its
most important when combating an engine room regardless of how little
291652 2 combustion temperatures Halon into its cooling intake and exhaust it out
fire with a fixed Halon 1301 system in a motor Halon has been taken in
liquefy the Halon. system. the stack if the engine is
vessel? through the air intake.
not automatically shut
down.
C
The amount of Halon remaining in a fire
checking the quantity
291751 3 extinguisher cylinder is determined by internal inspection weighing the cylinder checking the tag
indicating gauge
__________. C
it produces toxic vapor it will produce eye irritation
The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon it will produce skin
291800 2 Halon is lighter than air byproducts when exposed immediately after
fire extinguishers is that _________. irritation
directly to flame discharge from cylinder C
The passive safety device installed on each Halon
291801 1 fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over safety valve relief valve rupture disc control head
pressurization is called a __________. C

291850 2 CFR), portable Halon fire extinguishers used on a HALON 1301 only HALON 22 only HALON 1211 only HALON 1301 or 1211
MODU may be charged with __________. C
Portable Halon fire extinguishers used on a MODU
291850 1 HALON 1301 only HALON 22 only HALON 1211 only HALON 1301 or 1211 C
may be charged with __________.
Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the supply and exhaust mechanical and natural
291951 1 fuel supply only exhaust ventilation only C
automatic shutdown of the __________. ventilation ventilation
CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated pressure from the control the control cylinders have
the discharge valve is the control box glass is
291951 9 discharge heads will discharge automatically when cylinders is initially been completely
open broken
__________. detected discharged C
activate individual groups
automatically activate the
In a fixed CO2 system, the 'pilot' cylinders are direct CO2 to the pilot of CO2 bottles in a activate the main bank all
291951 8 main bank if an abnormal
used to __________. house predetermined time delay at once
heat rise is detected
sequence C
Control valves for a CO2 fire extinguishing system
it is impractical to locate there is also a control the CO2 cylinders are also an automatic heat sensing
291952 3 may be located within the protected space when
them outside valve outside in the space trip is installed
__________. C
In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces, control valve, then shut off
control valve and actuate CO2 releasing valve and control valve, then open
291952 2 you must physically open the engine room the engine room
the alarm actuate the alarm the CO2 releasing valve
__________. ventilation C
The empty weight of a '100 pound' cylinder in a
fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system is 130 pounds.
291953 1 200 lbs 210 lbs 220 lbs 230 lbs
What is the minimum acceptable weight of the
cylinder before recharging would be required?
C
A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on open the three-way valve
close all three-way valve lock the smoke detector
a vessel equipped with a combination smoke whose number (on the
operate the control heads levers that are in the indicator on the monitoring
detection/carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing handle) corresponds with
291954 2 mounted on the main pilot detecting position with the line, which automatically
system. After ensuring the space is unoccupied the line index chart
cylinders exception of the valve(s) activates the CO2
and properly sealed off, you should NEXT number for the space on
to the involved space extinguishing system
__________. fire C
On a cargo ship equipped with a combination
open the applicable three-
detection-carbon dioxide system, the presence of activate the pilot CO2
open the applicable three- way valve for #4 hold.
fire is indicated at the cabinet simultaneously in open the three-way valves cylinders, directing the
way valve for #3 hold and After discharge, secure
291954 1 two spaces: #3 hold upper between decks, to each space discharge to #3 hold, then
fight the fire in #4 hold the valve; then open the
containing bagged coffee beans; and #4 lower hold simultaneously to #4 hold through the
with water applicable valve for #3
containing fertilizer. To combat these fires you three- way valve
hold.
should __________. C
A ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing
system is normally designed for a storage tank 14.7 PSIA and 0 degrees 150 PSIG and 72 degrees 300 PSIG and 0 degrees 1500 PSIG and 72
291959 1
pressure and temperature of approximately Fahrenheit Fahrenheit Fahrenheit degrees Fahrenheit
__________. C
According to 46 CFR Part 95, which of the
The ambient temperature
following statements is FALSE concerning the The compartment shall be
The compartment must be of the room should never The door must be kept
291962 2 regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide clearly identified and
properly ventilated. be allowed to exceed 130 unlocked.
cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing marked.
degrees Fahrenheit. C
system?
Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-Each cylinder must weigh The cylinders are It has a portable hose and It has distribution piping
292002 1
portable CO2 system? less than 50 pounds. mounted horizontally. nozzle. installed permanently.
C

To operate a CO2 fire extinguisher equipped with a
rotate the cutter disc valve
292003 2 squeeze grip handle, you are to remove the raise the lower grip invert the extinguisher depress the upper grip
wheel
locking pin and __________. C
directing the carbon
The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide discharging the carbon bouncing the discharge off
forming a cloud cover over dioxide at the base of the
292010 1 from a portable extinguisher to a fire is by dioxide to the top of the an adjacent bulkhead just
the flames flame in a slow sweeping
__________. flame above the burning surface
motion C
You notice a large amount of smoke coming from
an open laundry room doorway, accompanied by
begin breaking out the activate the fixed CO2 locate and don an
292011 5 the odor of burning cotton fabric. After activating close the door to the room
nearest fire hose system available SCBA
the fire alarm, your next course of action should be
to ______. C
Before you initiate the engine room fixed CO2
evacuate all engine room
292050 3 system to extinguish a serious fire, you would start the emergency diesel stop the main engine turn off electrical power
personnel
__________. C
What danger to personnel exists when a carbon
292052 2 dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a small Second degree burns Electric shock Suffocation Burst eardrums
enclosed space? C
A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge over pressurization of the rupture of cylinder due to over pressurization of the flooding of a space where
292053 1
piping to prevent __________. space being flooded temperature increase CO2 discharge piping personnel are present
C
The empty weight of a '100 pound' (45.4 kg)
cylinder in a fixed CO2 system is 130 pounds (58.9
292100 3 200 lbs (90.7 kg) 210 lbs (95.2 kg) 220 lbs (99.8 kg) 230 lbs (104.3 kg)
kg). What is the minimum acceptable total weight
of the cylinder before recharging is required?
C
How often must fixed CO2 fire extinguishing
292101 1 systems be inspected to confirm the cylinders are Quarterly. Semiannually. Annually. Biannually.
within 10% of the stamped full charge weight? C
Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when
292102 3 the weight of the charge has diminished to what 80% 85% 90% 95%
percent? C
Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when
292102 1 the cylinder charge weight is less than what 80% 85% 90% 95%
percent of the stamped full weight charge? C
Carbon dioxide extinguishers must be recharged
292102 2 80% 85% 90% 95% C
when the charge weight is less than _____.
When is it required for carbon dioxide fire Each time the vessel dry- When the charged weight When the trigger seal has
292103 5 At least once each year.
extinguishers to be recharged? docks. decreases by 10%. been broken.
C
The extinguisher should The extinguisher should
The extinguisher should The extinguisher should
be returned to its proper be returned to its proper
A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire be returned to its proper be replaced with a fully-
location for future location for future
292104 1 extinguisher has been partially discharged. What is location for future charged spare and re-
availability for use as long availability for use as long
the proper action to take? availability for use charged before it can be
as the weight loss is no as the weight loss is no
regardless of weight. available for use.
more than 15%. more than 25%. C

If a fire broke out in an automation console, you
would first secure the power and then proceed to
292150 1 Soda acid Dry chemical CO2 Foam
use which of the listed hand portable fire
extinguishers? C
To extinguish an electrical fire, you should use
292150 2 mechanical foam chemical foam carbon dioxide soda acid C
__________.
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the
292150 8 most effectively used for putting out a paint locker Solid stream of water Soda acid extinguisher Carbon dioxide Dry powder
fire? C
Which of the listed fire extinguishers would be
292150 4 most effective to use on a fire in a small electric Soda acid Foam CO2 Light water
motor? C
Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed To keep the fire from Carbon dioxide takes a
The fire may warp the Updraft from the fire tends
292151 1 fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, spreading through the long time to disperse to all
CO2 piping. to carry the CO2 away.
as quickly as possible? bulkheads. portions of a space. C
The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been
After any personnel in
activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge Immediately after the fire One half-hour after the fire After the metal surfaces
292152 2 fireman outfits reenter the
fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible is extinguished. is extinguished. have cooled down.
engine room.
products from the engine room? C
When reentering an engine room that has been enter from the highest
leave the access door enter from the lowest attempt to operate
292154 1 flooded with CO2, the investigating team should level with breathing
partially open possible level propulsion machinery
initially __________. apparatus C
Hand portable, semi-
If a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room Fixed CO2, semi- portable Semi-portable CO2, fixed Hand portable, fixed CO2,
portable CO2, then as a
292155 1 bilges, in which of the following sequences should CO2, then hand portable CO2, then hand portable then as a last resort the
last resort the fixed CO2
the fire extinguishing agents or systems be used? CO2. CO2. semi- portable CO2. C
system.
The most effective method in the use of a CO2 fire
base or nearest edge of a
292156 3 extinguisher is for the discharge to be directed at middle of a fire top and sides of a fire highest flames of a fire
fire C
the __________.
When a cylinder is used to store CO2 in a fixed
firefighting system and is retested in accordance
292204 1 with regulations, all flexible connections between 2750 psi 1500 psi 1000 psi 300 psi
cylinders and distribution piping must be renewed
or tested at __________. C
The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of
One B-II and One C- II
292208 1 2,900 square feet. According to 46 CFR Part 95, One B-I extinguisher One B-II extinguisher One B-III extinguisher
extinguisher C
what will fulfill the requirements for fire protection?
A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard a MODU
used at the earliest weighed again in one
292250 3 has lost 10% of its charge. It now must be hydro tested recharged
opportunity month C
__________.
A fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system on a MODU.
with a capacity of over 300 lbs (136 kilograms) two or more releasing automatic release in event an audible alarm and time an audible and visible
292251 1
CO2, protecting spaces other than tanks, must stations of a fire delay alarm
have __________. C
permanent extinguishment
The advantage of using a dry chemical fire its good stability and non-
292300 1 regardless of the reignition its excellent cooling ability all of the above
extinguishing agent is __________. toxicity
sources C

removing the fuel by
Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire cooling the fuel below smothering and removing breaking up the molecular
292301 1 absorbing the heated
by __________. ignition temperature the oxygen from the fuel chain reaction
vapors C
Regarding the fire extinguisher shown in the
292350 6 illustration, the small cylinder, labeled as #4, compressed air nitrogen carbon dioxide Halon SF-0006
contains __________. C
To operate the dry chemical fire extinguisher
operate the squeeze grip depress the puncturing remove the cartridge
292350 5 shown in the illustration, you must FIRST invert the extinguisher SF-0006
valve lever guard C
__________.
The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration
292352 2 light water foam dry chemical Halon 1301 SF-0006 C
should be filled with __________.
The fire extinguishing agent used in the fire
292352 3 extinguisher shown in the illustration is light water chemical foam dry chemical carbon dioxide SF-0006
__________. C
The state of charge can
The large canister piece be determined by The extinguisher can be
292352 5 concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the All of the above. SF-0006
contains light water. examining the pressure recharged aboard ship.
illustration?
gage. C
In addition to weighing the cartridge, what other
Weigh the powder in the Discharge small amount Check the hose and Check the external
292403 1 routine maintenance is required for a cartridge-
canister. to see that it works. nozzle for clogs. pressure gage.
operated dry chemical extinguisher? C
with any other dry
Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective with any foam strictly in a cooling on materials that contain
292450 2 chemical extinguishing
when used __________. extinguishing agents capacity their own oxygen
agents C
dry chemical leaves a
The MAIN objection to the use of a dry chemical powder conducts
extinguishing action is not powder residue which extinguisher will need to
292452 2 fire extinguisher on an electrical fire is that the electricity back to the fire
as good as with soda acid may render electrical be recharged
__________. fighter
equipment inoperative C
When an electrical fire has been extinguished with electrical contacts or
machinery suffering fire being rekindled by chemical crystals
292452 1 a dry chemical agent, there is always a possibility relays being rendered
thermal shock damage spontaneous combustion suffocating the fire fighter
of the __________. inoperative C
sweep the chemical
direct the chemical invert the dry chemical
When using a dry chemical fire extinguisher to fight attack the fire from the discharge back and forth
292453 5 discharge into the center extinguisher to fight the
a fuel oil fire, you should __________. leeward side across the burning fuel
of the burning fuel surface fire
surface C
Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively
292454 2 Class "A" only Class "B" only Class "B" and "C" only Class "A" and "C" only C
used on which of the listed classes of fires?
15 pound CO2 fire 35 pound CO2 fire
292500 3 CFR), a 10 pound dry chemical extinguisher is 1 3/4 gallon foam 12 gallon foam
extinguisher extinguisher
equivalent to a __________. C
Cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguishers
292530 1 used on MODUs, should have the propellant three months six months 12 months two years
cartridge weighed every __________. C
On a MODU, hand portable extinguishers are
292532 1 II only II and III I and II I only C
size(s) __________.
On a MODU, size I and II fire extinguishers are
292532 2 fixed systems steam generated hand portable units semi-portable units C
considered ____________,
Semi-portable fire extinguishers used on MODUs
292535 1 II, III, and IV I, II, and III III, IV, and V IV and V C
are of the sizes __________.

Each hand portable, semi-portable, and fixed fire
292537 1 extinguishing unit on a MODU must be tested and six weeks six months twelve months two years
inspected at least once every __________. C
A fire discovered in an operating laundry room
292555 4 dryer is considered to be which of the listed Class A Class B Class C Class D
classes of fire? C
Fires resulting from escaping liquefied flammable cooling below the ignition cutting off the oxygen interrupting the chemical
292602 2 stopping the flow of gas C
gases are generally extinguished by __________. point supply chain reaction
If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a
find a soda acid
292603 1 high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST secure the ventilation shut off the fuel oil supply secure the generator
extinguisher
__________. C
If a fire occurs in the fire room as a result of fuel oil
292603 2 leaking from the boiler fuel oil manifold, the FIRST pressurize the fire main activate the CO2 system secure the fuel supply sound the general alarm
action taken should be to __________. C
When fighting a spreading fire resulting from a look for a CO2 use a soda acid
292603 5 shut off the fuel supply smother the fire with rags C
broken fuel line, you should FIRST __________. extinguisher extinguisher
An initial attempt to extinguish a galley grease fire a mechanical foam the range hood
292605 3 water fire dampers only C
may be made by using __________. system extinguishing system
The device illustrated would be used to extinguish fires in an electronics small oil fires on the
292606 2 mattress fires fires in an ullage opening SF-0006
__________. console engine room floor plates
C
Which of the listed type of fires would the fire
Fire in an electronics Small oil fire on the engine
292606 1 extinguisher, shown in the illustration, be suitable Mattress fire Fire in an ullage opening SF-0006
console room floor plates
for extinguishing? C
During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred
blanket the cargo spill with apply CO2 on the burning prevent the spread of fire
292612 1 due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST stop the transfer of cargo
foam fuel at its source with a foam dam
__________. C
Which of the following would be considered a Waste rag fire in the Oil fire in the engine room Fire in the main
292614 4 Electrical fire in a motor C
Class "B" fire? engine room bilges switchboard
Before attempting to put out a class "C" fire
292650 2 involving an electric-driven centrifugal pump, you insulate your shoes ground the fire hose secure its power supply start the fire pump
should FIRST __________. C
When fighting an electrical fire, you should first secure electricity to the
292650 6 stop ventilation to the area stop the vessel apply CO2 to the fire C
__________. circuit
A burning AC motor would be considered what
292651 7 Class "A" Class "B" Class "C" Class "D" C
class of fire?
A fire in an electrical generator is considered to be
__________.
A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded
292651 1 class "A" fire class "B" fire class "C" fire class "D" fire C
electrical motor, is considered a __________.
Which of the listed classes of fire is considered as
one involving electrical equipment?
Which of the listed classes of fire would apply to a
main switchboard fire?
Which of the listed fire extinguishers should be
292655 3 Foam Soda acid Carbon dioxide Carbon tetrachloride C
used on an electrical fire aboard ship?
Which of the listed fire extinguishers should be
292655 5 Foam Soda acid Carbon dioxide Low velocity fog C
used on an electrical fire aboard ship?

The most important property of any extinguishing
ability to suppress
292657 2 agent used in fighting class "C" fires is the agent's cooling capacity non-conducting property lack of fumes
rekindling
__________. C
"Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a
mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the
292703 1 Class B Class C Class D all of the above
extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight
which type of fire? C
are exempt from all tests
must be removed from the must also be inspected
When fire detecting systems, fire extinguishing and/or inspections as
need only to be Coast vessel as the only and/or tested in
systems, and associated equipment are not normally required by a
Guard inspected and/or systems allowed and accordance with Coast
292802 1 required by the Coast Guard but are installed on a Coast Guard inspector if
tested after their initial approved are those listed Guard Regulations at
cargo vessel at the option of the vessel's owner, maintained in a suitable
installation on the Coast Guard each Inspection for
they __________. working condition and
Certificate of Inspection Certification
used only as a back up
C
three hand portable B-II five hand portable B- II fire six hand portable B-II fire nine hand portable B- II
292803 5 299 gross ton 2800 horsepower uninspected motor
fire extinguishers extinguishers extinguishers fire extinguishers C
towing vessel would require __________.
On an uninspected vessel, all portable fire American Society for the
American Bureau of
292803 3 extinguishers are required by law to be approved insurance underwriter U.S. Coast Guard Testing of Materials
Shipping
by the __________. (ASTM) C
Part 95.50), how many B-II hand portable fire
292804 3 Two Four Six Eight
extinguishers are required in a space containing
two 4000 bhp main propulsion diesel engines? C
How many approved B-II fire extinguishers must
292804 1 be carried in the machinery space of a 3000 HP 1 2 3 7
vessel? C
Flooding of any ship's compartment, resulting in a
change the free surface
293021 5 serious loss of reserve buoyancy, will always increase the trim decrease ship stability cause a serious list
effect C
__________.
the percentage of the
the void portion of the ship all cofferdams, double the part of the enclosed
The reserve buoyancy of a ship consists of volume of a compartment
293021 7 below the waterline which bottoms, and wing tanks and watertight portion of a
__________. which can be occupied by
is enclosed and watertight that are slack vessel above the waterline
water if flooded
C
The center of volume of the immersed portion of
293022 1 center of flotation metacentric height center of buoyancy center of gravity C
the vessel is the __________.
In small angle stability, when external forces exist,
the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically
293024 1 center of gravity center of flotation metacenter metacentric height
upwards through the center of buoyancy and
through the __________. C
Stability is determined principally by the location of
geometric center of the
293033 5 two points in a vessel. These points are the center keel center of gravity center of flotation
water plane area
of buoyancy and the __________. C
When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from
293034 6 the keel to the metacenter is called the metacentric differential height of the baseline height of the metacenter righting arm
__________. C

When the height of the metacenter is less than the
293034 1 height of the center of gravity, a vessel has what Stable Neutral Unstable Positive
type of stability? C
When the height of the metacenter is less than the
293034 7 height of the center of gravity, a vessel has what Stable Neutral Negative Positive
type of stability? C
Any single ship's compartment sustaining partial
increase reserve decrease the free surface
293040 1 flooding with free communication to the sea will seriously reduce stability result in the ship's sinking
buoyancy effect C
__________.
At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a
293042 1 vessel's stability is determined by the vessel's metacentric height displacement righting moment inclining moment
__________. C
Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is
293044 1 bow stern keel boot topping C
greatest at the __________.
Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known
293051 2 pitch surge sway heave C
as __________.
Heave is the motion of a vessel along the
293052 2 longitudinal axis transverse axis vertical axis centerline axis C
__________.
The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as
293052 1 surge sway heave pitch C
__________.
What is the usual effect of moving weight from low The reserve buoyancy is
293104 1 The stability is increased. The draft is increased. The stability is decreased. C
in the vessel to above the main deck? decreased.
Which of the listed conditions will occur to the
The center of gravity will
ship's center of gravity if 200 tons of steel is The reserve buoyancy will The center of gravity will The reserve buoyancy will
293106 1 remain in the same
transferred to the ships cargo hold from shore rise. be lowered. remain the same.
position.
side? C
using water from two
A vessel would most likely develop a list if you burning fuel from a equally sized tanks on using fuel from tanks on using water from the fore
293131 1
were __________. centerline tank either side of the the port side only peak tank
centerline simultaneously C
The difference between the average of the forward
293135 2 list heel trim flotation C
and aft drafts is __________.
The difference between the forward and aft drafts
293135 3 list heel trim flotation C
of a vessel would be the _________.
For a vessel with a block coefficient of 1, the increase the forward draft decrease the forward draft
have no effect on the
293138 1 addition of weight at the center of flotation will and decrease the after and increase the after have no effect on the trim
stability
__________. draft draft C
What effect will transferring fuel oil from #1P
The mean draft will The mean draft will The forward draft will The after draft will
293150 1 double bottom to #3P double bottom have on the
increase. decrease. decrease. decrease. C
trim of a vessel?
The distance between the bottom of the hull and
293151 1 tonnage reserve buoyancy draft freeboard C
the waterline is called __________.
Symbol #5 shown in the illustration, represents
293160 2 displacement leverage center centerline counterflood limits SF-0022 C
__________.
Compliance with the terms of the load line
Master or Offshore
293170 1 certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the Ballast Control Operator Barge Supervisor Operator representative
Installation Manager
__________. C

The principal effect of liquid free surface is
amount of liquid in the dimensions of the liquid
293201 2 dependent upon the volume of displacement of the height of liquid in the tank weight of liquid in the tank
tank surface
vessel and the __________. C
The free surface effects of a partially filled liquid placement of the tank displacement volume of size of the surface area in
293202 1 density of the liquid C
tank decrease with increased __________. above the keel the MODU the tank
If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU have a slow and easy
293257 2 be tender be stiff have a tendency to yaw C
will __________. motion
which exists when the
Damage stability of a MODU is the stability
293263 1 wind speed is less than 50 before collision after flooding at survival draft
__________.
knots C
A floating MODU with an initial negative
293265 3 will capsize will incline further may lie at an angle of loll may be initially level C
metacentric height __________.
For a MODU with a list, a decrease in 'GMT' will
293266 1 stabilize at an angle of loll decrease increase remain constant C
cause the angle of inclination to __________.
Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to
293271 1 the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a 'FSCL' 'KG' 'KGL' 'GML'
MODU yields __________. C
Adding the transverse free surface correction to
293272 1 the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a 'FSCT' 'KG' 'KGT' 'GMT'
MODU yields __________. C
Progressive flooding on a MODU is controlled by pumping out flooded
293300 1 transferring drill water dumping bulk materials evacuating the unit C
securing watertight boundaries and __________. compartments
The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU It returns the MODU to an It reduces free surface It lowers the center of It raises the center of
293301 1 C
serves which of the purposes listed? even keel. effect. gravity. gravity.
During counter flooding to correct a severe list or
continue counter flooding,
trim aggravated by an off center load, a MODU continue counter flooding immediately stop counter deballast from the low
293302 2 but in the opposite
suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. in the same direction flooding side
direction
You should __________. C
Main wooden shoring for use in damage control, is
293501 3 usually less than 10 feet long and has a nominal 2"x 2" 2"x 4" 4"x 4" 2"x 6"
cross-section dimension of ______. C
The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is
bearing against the hatch coaming and is
Shore "A" will support the Shore "A" will not slip Shore "B" will support the Shore "B" will crack at the
293505 1 supporting a load in the direction indicated by the SF-0018
greatest load. under load. load without it cracking. pointed end.
arrows. Which of the following statements is
correct for the condition? C
shoring should be
After an emergency shoring installation has been repair is completed and no timbers are nailed in place damaged plating should
293506 1 frequently inspected for
completed, the __________. further action is needed to prevent looseness be straightened by heating
looseness C
The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell
welding brackets across chipping out and slot drilling a hole at each end cutting a square notch at
293603 1 plating of a ship may be prevented by
both ends of the crack welding the entire crack of the crack each end of the crack
__________. C
The best information on the nature and extent of
alarms and monitoring personnel at the scene of person-in-charge of the
293750 1 damage on a MODU is obtained from the tool pusher
devices the damage affected spaces
__________. C
Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at, or
continued progressive
293752 1 above the waterline, reduces the threat of free surface effects capsizing the MODU wind overturning moments
flooding C
__________.

only plug holes in
The object of plugging holes below the waterline eliminate all water reduce the entry of water
293757 1 machinery or other vital plug the largest holes first
on a MODU should be to __________. entering through the hole as much as possible
spaces C
Progressive flooding in the engine room may be
transferring reserve feed pumping out flooded evacuating the engine
293764 1 minimized by securing watertight boundaries and dumping fuel oil
water compartments room
__________. C
The jettisoning of topside weight from your ship It returns the ship to an It reduces free surface It lowers the center of It raises the center of
293765 1 C
serves which purpose? even keel. effect. gravity. gravity.
During counter flooding to correct a severe list or
continue counter flooding,
trim aggravated by an off center load, your ship continue counter flooding immediately stop counter deballast from the low
293766 2 but in the opposite
suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. in the same direction flooding side
direction C
Your first course of action should be __________.
Lifejackets should always be stowed in locked watertight
294000 9 the forepeak the after peak readily accessible spaces C
__________. containers
locked watertight
294000 5 Lifejackets should be stowed in __________. the forepeaks the pump room readily accessible spaces C
containers
locked watertight
294000 7 Lifejackets should be stowed in __________. survival craft mess rooms readily accessible spaces C
containers
locked watertight
294000 8 Lifejackets should be stowed in __________. the forepeak the after peak readily accessible spaces C
containers
should be stowed in
engineering spaces in lieu may be used as a
should not be stowed
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, of approved life substitute for approved life
where they could be
294001 2 Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests preservers because they preservers during routine all of the above
confused with life jackets
__________. are less bulky and permit drills, but never during an
in an emergency
free movement in confined emergency
spaces C
should be stowed in
engineering spaces in lieu may be used as a
should not be stowed
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, of approved life substitute for approved life
where they could be
294001 5 Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests preservers because they preservers during routine All of the above
confused with life jackets
__________. are less bulky and permit drills, but never during an
in an emergency
free movement in confined emergency
spaces C
They must be worn with They must be able to
Which of the following statements is NOT true They come in two sizes, They are required to be of
294002 4 the correct side facing support the wearer in an
concerning life-jackets? child and adult. a highly visible color. C
outward. upright position.
Where would you find a list of the lifesaving U. S. Coast Guard
294004 1 Ship's articles Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection C
equipment onboard your supply boat? Regulations
Where would you find a list of the lifesaving U. S. Coast Guard
294004 3 Ship's articles Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection C
equipment onboard your supply boat? Regulations
According to 46 CFRs Part 199, for each
passenger vessel normally operating above 32
294005 5 degrees north latitude, the minimum number of 1 2 3 4
immersion suits to be carried for each lifeboat is at
least __________. C
An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an whistle, strobe light, and whistle, handheld flare,
294005 2 air bottle for breathing whistle and handheld flare C
__________. reflective tape and sea dye marker
An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an whistle, strobe light, and whistle, handheld flare,
294005 11 air bottle for breathing whistle and handheld flare C
__________. reflective tape and sea dye marker

During the annual
After purchasing, the suit
Immersion suits should be maintenance, the front Small leaks or tears may
should be removed from
Which of the following statements concerning worn during routine work zipper should be be repaired using the
294005 3 its storage bag and hung
immersion suits is correct? on deck to provide lubricated only with repair kit packed with the
on a hanger where it will
maximum protection. manufacturers suit.
be readily accessible.
recommended lubricant C
During the annual
After purchasing, the suit
Immersion suits should be maintenance, the front Small leaks or tears may
should be removed from
Which of the following statements concerning worn during routine work zipper should be be repaired using the
294005 9 its storage bag and hung
immersion suits is correct? on deck to provide lubricated according to repair kit packed with the
on a hanger where it will
maximum protection. manufacturers suit.
be readily accessible.
recommendations. C
The wearer of the suit is
The immersion suit seals
Not all models will The suit will still be no way restricted in body
in all body heat and
Which of the following statements concerning automatically turn an serviceable after a brief (2 movement and the suit
294006 2 provides protection
immersion suits is correct? unconscious person face- seconds) exposure to may be donned well in
against hypothermia for
up in the water. flame and burning. advance of abandoning
weeks. C
ship.
It is inflated by a small
It inflates by sea water
CO2 bottle that is It is inflated by a small
How is the external flotation bladder of an It is inflated by blowing bleeding into the flotation
294007 3 automatically tripped CO2 bottle that is
immersion suit inflated? through an inflation tube. bladder and reacting with
when the front zipper is at manually tripped.
a chemical.
the top of zipper track.
C
It is inflated by a small
It inflates by sea water
CO2 bottle that is It is inflated by a small
How is the external flotation bladder of an It is inflated by blowing bleeding into the flotation
294007 7 automatically tripped CO2 bottle that is
immersion suit inflated? through an inflation tube. bladder and reacting with
when the front zipper is at manually tripped.
a chemical.
the top of zipper track.
C
Some leakage should be
You are testing the external inflation bladder on an
Replace the inflation Contact the manufacturer expected and a topping off
294007 5 immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Replace the suit.
bladder. for repair instruction. tube is provided; no other
Which of the actions listed should be taken?
action is necessary.
C
In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that
each manned watch
294009 2 are readily accessible, lifejackets must also be the mess room the steering gear room each fire station
station C
stowed at ___________.
Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how
294102 1 1 2 4 8 C
many must be equipped with a water light?
Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV on
294102 5 ocean service, how many must be equipped with a 1 2 4 8
water light? C
For a MODU not on an international voyage, an
approved substitute for an impulse projected shoulder type throwing
294108 3 spring-loaded line thrower hand thrown buoyant line heaving line
rocket type line throwing appliance is a gun
__________. C

For a OSV not on an international voyage, an
approved substitute for an impulse projected shoulder type throwing
294108 5 spring-loaded line thrower hand thrown buoyant line heaving line
rocket type line throwing appliance is a gun
__________. C
During an evacuation from a MODU, an individual
there is a severe list to the
without the option of a survival craft or liferaft there is a rescue craft in water temperature is a rigid survival craft is in
294114 2 windward side of the
should enter the water on the leeward side, except the area below 40°F the area
MODU C
when __________.
Pull yourself out from You should remove your
Dive down to prevent your
An inflatable liferaft has inflated on top of you in an Wait for others to lift the under the raft in a face up lifejacket before
294200 4 lifejacket from fouling as
upside down position. What should you do next? raft off of you. position to keep your attempting to right an
you come out.
lifejacket clear of the raft. inflatable raft. C
right the raft using the
294200 2 If a liferaft should capsize, __________. climb onto the bottom swim away from the raft inflate the righting bag C
righting straps
If the liferaft you are in should capsize, all right the raft using the
294200 3 climb onto the bottom swim away from the raft inflate the righting bag C
personnel should leave the raft and __________. righting straps
One feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep lashings on the floor of the
straps hanging from the safety straps on the inside ridges in the floor of the
294201 4 people stationary in rough weather is the set of raft for the passenger's
overhead of the raft raft
__________. feet C
throwing the entire
An inflatable liferaft can be launched by kicking the hydrostatic container overboard, then removing the securing
294204 10 the float-free method only
__________. release pulling on the operating straps
cord to inflate the raft
C
throwing the entire
An inflatable liferaft can be launched by kicking the hydrostatic container overboard, then removing the securing
294204 36 the float-free method only
__________. release pulling on the operating straps
cord to inflate the raft
C
An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container, Swim away from the Take no action as the pull Manually open the
Cut the painter line so it
attached to the ship by its painter, as the ship is container so you will not on the painter will cause container and inflate the
294204 5 will not pull the liferaft
sinking rapidly. Which of the actions listed should be in danger as it goes the liferaft to inflate and liferaft with the hand
container down.
be taken with respect to the liferaft container? down. open the container. pump. C
An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container, Swim away from the Take no action as the pull Manually open the
Cut the painter line so it
attached to the ship by its painter, as the ship is container so you will not on the painter will cause container and inflate the
294204 41 will not pull the liferaft
sinking rapidly. Which of the actions listed should be in danger as it goes the liferaft to inflate and liferaft with the hand
container down.
be taken with respect to the liferaft container? down. open the container. pump.
C
If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an
set the water lights on release the dye marker free the liferaft from the break the seal on the
294204 18 inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and
immersion from the liferaft vessel carbon dioxide cylinder
becomes inoperable, it will fail to __________. C
The most important thing to remember when ensure that the operating inflate the raft on the
open the CO2 inflation
294204 44 launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to open the raft container cord is secured to the vessel, then lower it over
valve C
__________. vessel the side
The most important thing to remember when ensure that the operating inflate the raft on the
open the CO2 inflation
294204 12 launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to open the raft container cord is secured to the vessel, then lower it over
valve C
__________. vessel the side

The operating cord of the inflatable liferaft has a
294204 7 6 fathoms 50 feet 100 feet 300 feet C
length of __________.
secured to a permanent
The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be
294204 24 free running on deck faked out next to the case object on deck via a weak stowed near the raft
__________.
link C
secured to a permanent
The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be
294204 37 free running on deck faked out next to the case object on deck via a weak stowed near the raft
__________. C
link
Make sure the operating
Which of the following operations should be carried Turn the valve on the CO2 cord is secured to the After inflation, detach
294204 16 Open the liferaft casing
out when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand? cylinder to start inflation vessel before throwing it operating cord from liferaft
over the side C
The most important reason for taking anti- prevent impaired
reduce appetite by prevent loss of body
294207 2 seasickness pills as soon as possible after assist in sleeping judgment due to motion-
decreasing nausea moisture by vomiting
entering a liferaft is to __________. induced deliriousness C
The most important reason for taking anti- prevent impaired
reduce appetite by prevent loss of body
294207 5 seasickness pills as soon as possible after assist in sleeping judgement due to motion-
decreasing nausea moisture by vomiting
entering a liferaft is to __________. induced deliriousness
C
asphyxiation due to
You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high collapse of the raft due to hypothermia caused by
294207 4 keeping the canopy starvation
latitudes, the greatest danger is __________. cold temperatures cold temperature
closed C
An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the single hook at the top two lines passed under
294208 2 the towing bridle all of the above C
the ship by using __________. of the raft the raft
An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the single hook at the top two lines passed under
294208 5 the towing bridle All of the above C
the ship by using __________. of the raft the raft
the pressure valve may be
the canopy should be deflating the floor panels
While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical periodically opened to the entrance curtains
294210 3 deflated so that it will not may help to cool
weather __________. prevent excessive air should never be opened
block cooling breezes personnel C
pressure
the pressure valve may be
the canopy should be deflating the floor panels
While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical periodically opened to the entrance curtains
294210 2 deflated so that it will not may help to cool
weather, __________. prevent excessive air should never be opened
block cooling breezes personnel C
pressure
In each inflatable raft, what piece of equipment is
There is no equipment Several various- sized Self-adhesive rubberized
294213 2 provided to make quick, emergency, temporary Glue and rubber patches
provided repair clamps canvas patches C
repairs to a cut, or rip in a raft?
When making a permanent repair to an inflatable
liferaft using a repair kit, how long after the repair You do not have to hold
294213 4 12 hours 24 hours 2 hours
is made should you hold off 'topping up' the lost off
air? C
In the illustration shown, the sea painter is
294219 1 3 6 7 9 SF-0043 C
identified as item number _____.
When abandoning a MODU, following the
plot a course for the take a vote on which go one direction until fuel
294301 4 launching of the survival craft you should stay in the immediate area
nearest land direction you should go runs out C
__________.
When abandoning ship, after launching the motor plot course for nearest go only with the direction go one direction until fuel
294301 1 stay in the immediate area C
lifeboat you should __________. land of the sea runs out

The person-in-charge of a MODU shall insure that
the fuel tank of each motor- propelled lifeboat is
294302 2 three months six months twelve months twenty-four months
emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once
every __________. C
When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be before the gripes are before the boat is moved before the tricing pendant after the boat is in the
294303 2 C
rigged __________. released from the davits is released water
When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in
fore and aft with a lead of from the falls to the tricing
294303 1 heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines on only the forward falls on only the after falls
about 45° to the boat gear
__________. C
The No. 2 lifeboat on a vessel would be found aft of No. 1 lifeboat port aft of No. 1 lifeboat
294304 5 on the port side on the starboard side C
__________. side starboard side
next to boat No. 2 on the aft of boat No. 1 on the aft of boat No. 1 on the aft of boat No. 2 on the
294304 2 The No. 3 lifeboat would be __________. C
starboard side port side starboard side port side
The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts
Minerals Management person-in-charge of the
294305 1 on a MODU must be approved by the lease operator Coast Guard
Service unit
__________. C
The instructions for launching lifeboats liferafts on Minerals Management person-in-charge of the
294305 2 lease operator Coast Guard C
must be approved by the __________. Service unit
The instructions for the launching procedures of
Minerals Management person-in-charge of the
294305 3 controls rescue boats and life rafts on an OSV lease operator Coast Guard
Service unit
must be approved by the __________. C
In lifeboat situations, which of the following visual Self-contained rocket
Red aerial pyrotechnic
294306 6 distress signals is acceptable for daylight use Handheld red flare propelled parachute red Orange smoke signal
flare C
only? flare
The person-in-charge shall insure that each
lifeboat on a MODU is lowered to the water,
294307 2 month two months three months six months
launched, and operated at least once every
__________. C
The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue
294307 4 boat on a OSV is lowered to the water, launched, month two months three months six months
and operated at least once every __________. C
A qualified person must be assigned as the second
294308 1 in command of a lifeboat on a MODU if the lifeboat 20 persons 30 persons 40 persons 50 persons
has a capacity of more than __________. C
The master or person-in-charge of a MODU shall kept clear of any posted with a list of
surfaced with a nonskid roped off to prevent
294308 2 insure that each deck from which lifeboats are obstructions that would persons assigned to the
texture unnecessary access
launched is __________. interfere with launching lifeboat C
The master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall kept clear of any posted with a list of
surfaced with a nonskid roped off to prevent
294308 5 insure that each deck from which rescue boats are obstructions that would persons assigned to the
texture unnecessary access
launched is __________. interfere with launching lifeboat C
"Category 1" EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that commercial fishing
294310 3 offshore supply vessels orbiting satellites in space naval warships C
are monitored by __________. vessels
"Category 1" EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that commercial fishing
294310 11 offshore supply vessels orbiting satellites in space naval warships C
are monitored by __________. vessels
Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested
294310 8 using the integrated test circuit and output indicator week two weeks month two months
every __________. C

Each EPIRB required on a OSV, other than an
EPIRB or SART in an inflatable liferaft, shall be
294310 15 week two weeks month two months
tested using the integrated test circuit and output
indicator every __________. C
According to 46 CFR Part 199, the maximum
294311 3 lowering speed for a lifeboat on gravity davits must 70 feet per minute 114 feet per minute 256 feet per minute 500 feet per minute
not be more than __________. C
pushing the switch lever
Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested the engineers, from a shutting off the current to
294312 5 arm while the winch is all of the above
by __________. panel in the engine room the winch
running C
cut off power to the winch cut off power to the winch
The function of the lifeboat davit limit switch is to control the descent rate of control the ascent rate of
294312 3 when the lifeboat nears when the lifeboat reaches
__________. a lifeboat a lifeboat
the final stowed position the davit bumpers
C
To cut off power when the
To cut off power when the
Which of the following statements defines the To stop the davits from davits are about 12 inches
294312 2 davits hit the track safety None of the above.
purpose of the lifeboat gravity davit limit switch? going too fast. from the track safety stops
stops.
when hoisting.
C
At a speed of six knots the fuel aboard a survival
294315 3 8 hours 12 hours 24 hours 48 hours C
craft should last __________.
Most enclosed lifeboats or covered survival
capsules will automatically right themselves if they The lower ballast tanks The fuel tanks are not less The passengers are The sea anchor is
294317 2
capsize. This will occur when which of the are filled with water. than half full. strapped to their seats. deployed to windward.
following conditions exists? C
The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should
294318 4 oxygen nitrogen compressed air nitrogen and oxygen C
be refilled with __________.
With the air supply on, the air pressure in the changing in relation to the less than outside air greater than outside air equal to outside air
294318 2 C
survival craft will be __________. speed of the craft pressure pressure pressure
When inspecting a survival craft, you should check hydraulic starting system hydraulic pressure is steering controls are
294320 1 sea anchor is deployed
to make sure that the __________. has been drained within the specified range locked
C
If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the loaded more on port side loaded equally on both loaded equally on both
294321 1 allowed to sit anywhere C
personnel should be __________. to forward sides with more forward sides with more aft
When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in wait for calmer weather transfer only those
transfer all personnel tie up close to the rescue
294323 3 heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat before transferring personnel who are not
immediately vessel
should __________. personnel seasick C
When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft transfer only those wait for calmer weather
transfer all personnel
294323 1 in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival tie up to the rescue vessel personnel who are not before transferring
immediately
craft should __________. seasick personnel C
climb on top of the remain seated inside the
When transferring survivors from a survival craft to remove their lifejackets to
survival craft while waiting survival craft and make enter the water and swim
294323 4 a rescue vessel, personnel onboard the craft make it easier to climb
for their turn to transfer to the transfer one person at over to the rescue vessel
should __________. onboard the rescue vessel
the rescue vessel a time
C
climb on top of the remain seated inside the
When transferring survivors from a survival craft to remove their lifejackets to
survival craft while waiting survival craft and make enter the water and swim
294323 2 a rescue vessel, personnel onboard the craft make it easier to climb
for their turn to transfer to the transfer one person at over to the rescue vessel
should __________. onboard the rescue vessel
the rescue vessel a time C

Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important
294327 5 oars sail boat plug life preservers C
item to check is the __________.
The survival craft engine is fueled with
294330 1 kerosene unleaded gasoline diesel oil liquefied gas C
__________.
On all vessels, regardless Where motor- propelled
All emergency lighting and
of voyage duration, the lifeboats are carried,
power systems,
entire steering gear, regardless of length or
Which of the following statements is true regarding regardless of source, must
whistle, and bridge- person capacity, each
294331 1 the operational testing and inspecting of a cargo be operated and tested at All of the above.
engine room lifeboat motor must be
vessel's lifesaving equipment by the ship's force? least once each week
communication systems operated ahead and
under load for at least 2
must be tested within 12 astern at least 3 minutes
hours.
hours of departure. once a week.
C
Davit launched lifeboats must be equipped with tanks for the storage of ballast tanks to prevent auxiliary mechanical
294334 1 buoyant oars or paddles
__________. drinking water the boat from capsizing propulsion (Fleming gear) C
Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival
small sips at regular a complete daily ration at one-third the daily ration small sips only after
294336 5 situation has been established, the drinking routine
intervals during the day. one time during the day. three times during the day. sunset.
should include __________. C
be safe if mixed with fresh protect against heat
294337 1 Drinking salt water will __________. prevent seasickness promote urine excretion C
water cramps
asphyxiation due to
You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high collapse of the raft due to hypothermia caused by
latitudes, the greatest danger is __________. cold temperatures cold temperature
closed C
The equipment is
The speed with which it
What is a major advantage of using a positive lightweight and the wearer The average operating Facial hair will not affect
294411 1 can be put into operation
pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus? can work without difficulty time is over an hour. the mask performance.
is around 45 seconds.
in confined spaces. C
While donning the positive-pressure self- Replace the defective
Take the average of the
contained breathing apparatus, you discover that gages with a new pair Assume that the lower
294414 1 Replace the air cylinder. two gages as the correct
the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator from the spare parts gage reading is correct.
pressure. C
pressure gage differ from each other by 500 psi. inventory.
Which of the components listed are
interchangeable between different backpack self-
294415 1 The face piece The regulator The air cylinder All of the above
contained breathing apparatus produced by
various manufacturers? C
marked 'SELF-
On a MODU, the locker or space containing the equipped with battery
located in close proximity CONTAINED
294418 1 self-contained breathing apparatus must be powered emergency all of the above
to the main control station BREATHING
__________. lighting
APPARATUS' C
For use as protection from gas leaking from a
portable ventilation self-contained breathing
294419 2 refrigeration unit, each MODU must be equipped flame safety lamp gas mask
system apparatus
with a __________. C
The recommended equipment for a pump room
rescue aboard a tank vessel is a lifeline, harness, be a minimum of a two not be less than 50 feet in not be more than 100 feet
294420 7 be a new nylon line
and breathing apparatus. The regulations state inch line length in length
that each approved lifeline must __________. C
Clean air standards, referred to as 'Grade D', apply high pressure fluid driving air powered filling open circuit
294423 1 bladder type accumulators C
to compressed air for use in __________. accumulators plunger pumps breathing systems

In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned,
295000 11 fire control plan certificate of inspection muster list or station bill ship's articles C
you should look at the __________.
Where would you look to find out what your duties
295000 7 Coast Guard Regulations Certificate of Inspection Muster list Ship's articles C
are during a fire?
You can find the location of your abandon ship
295000 8 vessel's logbook vessel's documentation muster list Certificate of Inspection C
post by checking the __________.
If you hear more than six short blasts, followed by
one long blast on the whistle, and supplemented go to your man overboard
295001 7 start the fire pump go to your lifeboat station stand by for collision
by the same signal on the general alarm, you station
should __________. C
While at your lifeboat station, a signal consisting of
295002 5 two short blasts of the ship's whistle is sounded. abandon ship commence lowering boats stop lowering boats secure from boat stations
This indicates __________. C
A continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period
of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by a
secure from boat stations
295003 5 continuous sounding of the general alarm for a boat stations signal fire alarm signal lower lifeboats signal
signal
period of not less than 10 seconds, is the
__________. C
A continuous sounding of the vessel's whistle,
supplemented by a continuous ringing of the
295003 3 man overboard boat stations fire stations secure from all drills
general alarm bells for a period of not less than 10
seconds, is the signal for __________. C
A long continuous blast of
Rapid short blasts of the Rapid short blasts of the the ships whistle for a A long continuous blast of
ship's whistle for a period ships whistle for a period period of not less than 10 the ships whistle for a
Which of the following signals represents the
of not less than 5 of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented period of not less than 5
295003 2 emergency signal for a fire aboard a U.S. flag
seconds, supplemented seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing seconds, supplemented
merchant vessel?
by the same signal on the by a continuous ringing of of the general alarm bell by the same signal on the
general alarm bell. the general alarm bell. for not less than 10 general alarm bell.
seconds.
C
You hear the general alarm bells and ships whistle
295003 13 sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the abandon ship dismissal from drills fire and emergency lower lifeboats
signal for __________. C
a 30 second on - 30 an intermittent ringing of
The signal to man emergency stations on MODUs the continuous ringing of announced over PA
295004 1 second off alternating the general alarm for not
is __________. the general alarm signal system
signal less than ten seconds C
During the required periodic boat drill aboard a shown a video
instructed in the use of instructed in the use of life not required to attend the
295010 1 MODU, each person not assigned duties as per demonstrating lifeboat
portable fire extinguishers preservers boat drill
the Muster List ("Station Bill") is __________. launching C
Which of the actions listed and instituted on your
Displaying posters Showing video tapes of Incorporating safety Publishing comprehensive
295107 2 part will have the greatest lasting effect on the
illustrating safety practices actual accidents practices in daily routine safety rules
crew with respect to safety? C
Which of the listed conditions can be considered Excessive knowledge or
295108 1 Speed Human error Excitement C
as the single greatest cause of accidents? skill
Which of the following conditions can contribute to
295109 3 Good housekeeping Inspections Unsafe conditions Intelligent work habits C
accidents?

When working around deck machinery it is a good the coil may become
it doesn't allow for proper a sudden yank on the line your work shoes may
295110 1 safety practice to avoid standing in a 'bight' of a tangled and difficult to
faking of the line may trap your leg cause damage to the rope
rope because __________. manage C
concentration of adjacent spaces have not
enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared
flammable vapors in the been inspected for
295208 2 for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and oxygen content is 21% all of the above
atmosphere is 5% of the combustible materials and
designated "NOT SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if
L.E.L. possible spread of fire
_______. C
Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing Swim away from the Take no action because Manually open the
Cut the painter so it will
an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface container so you will not the painter will cause the container and inflate the
295502 1 not pull the liferaft
upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which be in danger as it goes liferaft to inflate and open liferaft with the hand
container down.
action should you take? down. the container. pump. C
Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival
small sips at regular a complete daily ration at one third the daily ration small sips only after
295513 1 situation has been established, the drinking routine
intervals during the day one time at noon three times during the day sunset
should include __________. C
If you are forced to abandon an OSV, following the
plot a course to the take a vote on which go in one direction until
295515 3 launching of the survival craft you should stay in the immediate area
nearest land direction to go the fuel runs out C
__________.
more than 6 short blasts
A continuous ringing of the
a continuous ringing of the and 1 long blast of the
general alarm, and a continuous sounding of
295517 1 The abandon ship signal is __________. general alarm bells for at ships whistle and the
sounding of the ships the ships whistle
least 10 seconds same on the general
whistle C
alarm bells
The abandon ship signal sounded by the vessels 6 short blasts and 1 long more than 6 short blasts 1 long blast of at least 10
295517 2 more than 6 short blasts C
whistle is __________. blast and 1 long blast seconds
When administering only mouth-to- mouth
296000 1 resuscitation, you should continue the victim's 4 8 12 20
ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute? C
When administering only mouth-to- mouth
296000 4 resuscitation, you should continue the victim's 4 8 12 20
ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute? C
immediately give a
If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased make the victim
296001 3 stimulant, by force if immediately start CPR administer oxygen
breathing, you should __________. comfortable in a bunk
necessary C
The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal
cupping a hand around applying his mouth tightly holding the jaw down
296001 1 during mouth-to-mouth ventilation by pinching the keeping the head elevated
the patient's mouth over the victim's mouth firmly
victim's nostrils and __________. C
296001 2 during mouth-to-mouth ventilation by pinching the keeping the head elevated
victim's nostrils and __________. C
immediately give a
If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased make the victim
296002 1 stimulant, by force if immediately start CPR administer oxygen
breathing, you should __________. comfortable in a bunk
necessary C
After a person has been revived by artificial walked around until he is given several shots of allowed to do as he
296010 1 kept lying down and warm C
respiration, they should be __________. back to normal whiskey wishes
asked about the
After a person has been revived by artificial walked around until he is given several shots of
296010 2 kept lying down and warm circumstances of the
respiration, they should be __________. back to normal whiskey C
accident

start chest compressions do not tilt the head back

In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim, drain water from the lungs begin mouth-to- mouth
296012 2 before the victim is since it may cause
__________. before ventilating ventilations
removed from the water vomiting C
When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that Raise the victim's head Blow harder to force the Re-tip the head and try lungs so that air pressure
296016 1
no air is getting into the lungs. What should you higher than his feet. air past the tongue. again. will blow out any
do? obstruction. C
When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that Raise the victim's head Blow harder to force the Re-tip the head and try lungs so that air pressure
296016 2
no air is getting into the lungs. What should you higher than his feet. air past the tongue. again. will blow out any
do? obstruction. C
296017 1 during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching keeping the head elevated
the victim's nostrils and __________. C
296017 2 during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching keeping the head elevated
the victim's nostrils and __________. C
When administering mouth to mouth rescue
296019 1 breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the 4 8 12 20
rate of how many breaths per minute? C
You are administering chest compressions during
296021 1 CPR. Where on the victim's body should the Tip of the sternum Top half of the sternum Lower half of the sternum Left chest over the heart
pressure be applied? C
You are administering chest compressions during
296021 3 CPR. Where on the victim's body should the Tip of the sternum Top half of the sternum Lower half of the sternum Left chest over the heart
pressure be applied? C
Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear dark red with a steady bright red with a steady
296102 1 bright red and in spurts dark red and in spurts C
__________. flow flow
A person reports to you with a fishhook in their push the barb through, cut
cut the skin from around
296103 1 thumb. The accepted procedure for removing it pull it out with pliers it off, and then remove the have a surgeon remove it
the hook
should be to __________. hook C
not be moved, but made
comfortable until medical not be allowed to lie down
A person suffering from possible broken bones and be assisted in walking be examined then walked
296200 1 assistance arrives, where injured but moved
internal injuries should __________. around to a bunk
provided he is in a safe to a chair or bunk
environment C
What is the primary purpose for applying a splint
296201 1 Control bleeding Reduce pain Immobilize the fracture Reset the bone C
when administering first aid?
What is the primary purpose of a splint when
296211 1 Reduce pain Control bleeding Immobilize a fracture Reset the bone C
applied in first aid treatment?
Which of the following is NOT a treatment for Keep the patient warm, Have the injured person Massage the arms and Relieve the pain of the
296301 1
traumatic shock? but not hot. lie down. legs to restore circulation. injury.
C
After an accident, the victim may go into shock and Keep the person lying Give the person a
Slightly elevate the head
296303 3 die. Which of the following actions should be taken Keep the person awake. down and at a comfortable stimulant to increase
and feet.
to help prevent shock? temperature. blood flow.
C

The fundamental treatment for preventing
have the victim exercise to stay away from electrical keep the victim warm and apply ice packs and avoid
296303 2 traumatic shock following an accident is to
increase circulation equipment dry while lying down excitement
__________. C
attempt to stand him
lay him down with his administer a liquid lay him down with his
296306 1 If a crew member faints, you should __________. upright to restore
head slightly raised stimulant head lower than his feet
consciousness C
Which of the following should NOT be done for a Get the person in the Lay the person with the Splash cold water in the
296306 2 Loosen the clothing.
person who has fainted? open air. head higher than the feet. face. C
Which of the following should NOT be done for a Stimulate face with cold
296306 4 Provide fresh air Loosen clothing Elevate head C
person who has fainted? water
placed in a position with
An unconscious person should NOT be given an inhalation
296307 1 the head lower than the given something to drink treated for injuries
__________. stimulant
body C
A man has suffered a burn on his arm
characterized by reddening of the skin, blistering,
296400 2 Major burn Third degree burn Second degree burn Blister burn
and swelling. This is an example of what kind of
burn? C
First, second, and third degree burns are classified source of heat causing the
296400 4 area of the body burned layers of skin affected size of the burned area C
according to __________. burn
make the person stand up
When treating a person for third degree burns, you submerge the burn area in cover the burns with thick break blisters and remove
296401 1 and walk to increase
should __________. cold water sterile dressing dead tissue
circulation C
In treating a person for first degree thermal burns,
296402 2 disfigurement infection pain asphyxia C
it is important to prevent or reduce __________.
complete obstruction of
296404 1 Severe airway burns will cause __________. nausea reddening of cheeks nosebleed C
respiratory passages
Administer a strong
What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with Cover the affected area Immerse the area in a Wash the area with soap
296407 1 stimulant and treat for
tank residue from a cargo of leaded gasoline? with petroleum jelly. solution of boric acid. and water immediately.
shock. C
If a person is unconscious as a result of an electric
administer ammonia check for serious burns on determine if he/she is massage vigorously to
296500 1 shock, you should first remove the victim from the
smelling salts the body breathing restore circulation
electrical source and then __________. C
cover the burned area
brush away the charred apply rubbing alcohol to
Basic emergency care for a victim of a serious flood the burn area with with a clean cloth and
296502 2 skin and wrap the burned the burned area and wrap
electrical burn is to __________. water for two minutes transport the patient to a
area with a clean cloth
medical facility C
Which of the following symptoms may be observed
weak pulse at wrist or respiration is weak or has
296504 1 in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric flushed face All of the above symptoms
neck stopped
shock? C
remove the patient from
When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim apply ointment to the
flush water over any shutdown electrical power the vicinity of the live
296506 1 in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his burned areas on the
burned area of the patient in the area electrical equipment or
first step is to __________. patient
wiring C
To effectively treat a person suffering from heat administer artificial put him in a tub of ice give him sips of cool
296600 2 take his blood pressure C
exhaustion, you should __________. respiration water saline solution
To effectively treat a person suffering from heat administer artificial put him in a tub of ice give him sips of cool
296600 7 take his blood pressure C
exhaustion, you should __________. respiration water saline solution

be the best thing to try if
Physical exertion on the part of a person who has increase survival time in increase the rate of heat not affect the heat loss
296601 1 there were no rescue in
fallen into cold water can __________. the water loss from the body from the body
sight C
296601 2 there was no rescue in
fallen into cold water can __________. the water loss from the body from the body
sight C
The most effective warming treatment for a crew
running or jumping to mouth-to-mouth
296603 2 member suffering from hypothermia is lying in the sun a warm water bath
create heat resuscitation C
__________.
Which of the listed procedures should be followed Apply warm compresses Cover with an electric
296603 4 when individuals are rescued in cold climates and Give them brandy Get them to a hot room to the neck, chest wall and blanket set for maximum
suffer from hypothermia? groin. temperature C
Which of the listed procedures should be followed Cover with an electric
Immerse them in a warm
296603 5 when individuals are rescued in cold climates and Give them brandy Get them to a hot room blanket set for maximum
bath 104°F (40°)
suffer from hypothermia? temperature C
If a person with diabetes has been injured, the
reduced appetite and slurred speech and loss of
296700 2 symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma would sneezing and coughing excessive thirst and fever
thirst coordination
include __________. C
Muscle tenseness in
Which of the following symptoms would be Dilated pupils and shallow Diarrhea and frequent Extreme sweating and
296705 2 almost the entire
indicated if a person's appendix ruptured? breathing urination reddening skin C
abdomen
When a patient is suspected of having give patient a laxative to give patient morphine evacuate patient to a give patient aspirin with a
296706 1 C
appendicitis, the primary action is to __________. relieve pain sulfate to relieve pain hospital glass of water
When giving first aid, you should understand how
which medications to how to diagnose an illness the limits of your
296707 1 to conduct primary and secondary surveys in how to set broken bones
prescribe from symptoms capabilities
addition to __________. C
Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking
296708 1 stomach lower intestines inner ear bladder C
motions which affect fluids in the __________.
When administering first aid you should avoid any conversation with the unnecessary haste and
296711 1 instructing bystanders touching the patient
__________. patient appearance of uncertainty
C
296712 1 Normal average body temperature is __________. 72.0°F 96.8°F 98.6°F 30.0°C C
296712 2 Normal mouth temperature is __________. 96.4°F 97.5°F 98.6°F 99.7°F C
After an injury, which of the following can be Whether or not the
The degree of pain being The degree of vision Whether or not the brain is
296715 1 determined by examining the condition of a victim's victim's blood pressure is
suffered. impairment. functioning properly.
pupils? normal. C
To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is aromatic spirits of
296802 1 bicarbonate of soda paregoric aspirin C
__________. ammonia
Dosage of medications
Medical treatment of Setting of broken bones Emergency treatment of
296803 1 Which of the following best defines First Aid? and application of
internal injuries and transport of victim the injury at the scene
bandages C
Which of the following statements is true The rescue party should The tank vapors should be
The victim should not be The victim should be fitted
concerning the actions of a properly organized provide the victim with tested with an
296901 1 moved until the extent of with a canister type OBA
rescue party for removing an unconscious victim oxygen or fresh air explosimeter before
his injuries is determined. as soon as possible. C
from a tank containing toxic vapors? immediately. personnel enter.

immediately give the not interfere, but should
For a victim who is coughing and gagging, as a wait for the victim to
victim four abdominal encourage the victim to bend the victim over and
296902 4 result of a partial obstruction of the airway by a become unconscious then
thrusts and four back cough till the restriction is give them four back blows
foreign body, a rescuer should __________. give them four back blows C
blows cleared
being used on the types of
The litter on a MODU must be capable of carrying at least two floating for at least two
296903 1 helicopters serving the all of the above
__________. injured persons hours
unit C
You have found a person laying prone and not
Leave the accident scene
breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Immediately begin cardiac Immediately begin artificial Shut off power or remove
296906 1 and summon medical
Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you massage. respiration. the wire from the victim.
assistance.
should do? C
You are making a round of the engine room and Send the QMED to the
Immediately enter the
while entering the cargo pump room, you discover After finishing your round, Promptly notify the deck area and have him
296908 2 area and see if the person
a person laying at the bottom of the ladder. What notify the bridge. watch officer. determine if the person
is conscious.
action should be taken first? has fainted. C
By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which are highly volatile with a have a flash point of 80°F give off flammable vapors
297104 2 spontaneously ignite C
__________. flash point of 0°F or higher at or below 80°F
Which of the following substances would be
297104 5 diesel oil lube oil alcohol kerosene C
classified as a flammable liquid?
A characteristic of most petroleum vapors is that not explosive at low
297105 6 lighter than air heavier than air inert in stable air C
they are __________. temperatures
will always form explosive
Petroleum vapors are heavier than air and will normally dissipate are of no concern if the
297105 7 vapors below 32°F may collect in ship's bilges
__________. rapidly wind is blowing C
ambient
A liquid having a flash point above 80°F, but below
297113 1 A flammable liquid C flammable liquid D combustible liquid E combustible liquid C
150°F, would be termed a grade __________.
Which of the petroleum products listed has the
297114 2 Hydraulic oil Lubricating oil Diesel oil Refrigeration oil C
lowest flash point?
An insulating flange should be used in a cargo when the terminal is
when static electricity may
297115 2 hose connection instead of a bonding wire when pumping LNG only equipped with a cathodic during cold weather
be generated
__________. protection system
C
When fueling, it is important to ground the ship bonding cable before the bonding cable through a
fuel hose before the bonding cable only if
297115 3 with regard to static electricity. Therefore, you must fuel hose has been ground fault circuit
bonding cable sparks are seen
connect the __________. connected breaker C
Where in the Code of Federal Regulations will you
297116 1 Title 46 Subchapter D Title 46 Subchapter N Title 46 Subchapter O Title 33 Subchapter O
find information about the compatibility of cargoes?
C
Which of the precautions listed should be observed Secure all lighting to the Provide a portable fan to Prohibit smoking in the Display a black triangle
297300 1 C
when taking on diesel fuel? main deck. blow away fumes. area. during daylight hours.
"Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed
cargo lines at the terminal product before the start of product during the final product after the final
297308 1 at an oil terminal facility, when there is a change of
before loading loading phase of loading discharge
__________. C
To determine if all requirements of the Declaration
the bunker facility must be vessel and bunker facility vessel and bunker facility
of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations
the vessel is responsible inspected by the must be independently must be inspected by a
prior to bunkering from a shore side facility,
297310 3 to provide an inspected oil designated person-in- inspected by the representative of the
inspections are required to be made of both the
hose charge of the vessel and designated persons- in- Coast Guard Captain of
bunkering facility and the vessel. Which statement
vice versa for the vessel charge the Port C
is true?

During fueling operations oil is detected in the
secure operations until the
water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is make an entry in the oil
297311 1 exact type of oil is notify the Coast Guard All of the above
determined to be from some source other than record book to that effect
determined C
your vessel, you should __________.
the loading of new cargo
calculating the ratio of
The term "load on top" is used on many crude oil calculating the ullage in into a decanted slop tank
297313 1 loading ballast by gravity cargo expansion in a
carriers, is to provide a method for __________. the cargo tanks as a procedure to
cargo tank
minimize pollution C
Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter
Federal Aviation National Fire Protection National Transportation
297323 2 refueling must meet the standards of the Corps of Engineers
Administration Association Safety Board
__________. C
A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank
pump discharge pressure tank foot valve is partially
297327 1 when discharging cargo, this would indicate that tank liquid is too viscous pump is sucking air
is excessive clogged
the __________. C
a Butterworth system
A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as a water operated a mechanism which filters using crude oil instead of a cleanup for pump room
297328 1
__________. Butterworth system and purifies crude oil water as the cleaning bilges
medium C
After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses
297331 2 to the bilges over the side into a bucket all of the above C
should be drained __________.
In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil
opened to the atmosphere
297334 2 wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must gas free inerted full of cargo
for ventilation
be __________. C
In a crude oil washing system, according to Coast
Guard regulations (33 CFR), each cargo tank shall
be fitted with a sufficient number of machines,
297337 1 5% for vertical areas 10% for vertical areas 15% for vertical areas 20% for vertical areas
such that those areas unwashed by direct
impingement shall not exceed 10% for horizontal
areas, and __________. C
When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the
reduce the time the lessen the effect of roll or lessen the effect of heave
297340 1 tape should be lowered and brought back quickly avoid creating a spark
sounding tube is open pitch on the reading on the reading
to __________. C
The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel
quantity of fuel to be flash point of the fuel as it fuel temperature as it is viscosity of the fuel being
297401 2 tank when fuel oil is being received, is determined
received is received received received C
by the __________.
Increased viscosity of the Fueling valve may
Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks product needs higher Air pockets may cause the A temperature rise of the become stuck closed and
297401 1 not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold loading pressure, which fuel to bubble out of the fuel will cause an overflow cause the fuel oil to spill
temperatures? increases the chances of ullage hole. from the tank vent. before the valve can be
a spill. opened.
C
Increased viscosity of the The fueling valve may
product needs higher Air pockets may cause the The change in its specific become stuck closed and
Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be
297401 3 loading pressure, which fuel to bubble out of the volume when heated may cause the fuel oil to spill
topped off when loading cold oil?
increases the chance of a ullage hole. cause an overflow. before the valve can be
spill. opened. C

The tanks should be
After fuel tanks have been filled and bunkers The pressure- vacuum The tanks should be made
The tanks should be marked with a bull stamp
297404 1 completed, which of the listed procedures should relief valve should be seaworthy to prevent
sounded to verify levels. on the manifold filling
be followed next? reset. contamination. C
valve.
to prevent gas from
When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during
slowly to prevent surge escaping through the after the shore pumps are
297407 1 bunkering operations, the tank valve should be rapidly to prevent overflow
stresses pressure-vacuum relief stopped
closed __________. C
valves
When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a so that the obstruction of
on the windward side of on the leeward side of the at a right angle to the wind
297410 1 tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you your body will protect you
the opening opening direction
should position yourself __________. from the fumes C
The component in an inert gas system used for
cleaning the gas of solid and sulphur combustion
297501 1 filter cooler scrubber purifier
products, while simultaneously cooling the inert
gas, is called the __________. C
What is the required gas supply capacity of an 125% of shore side 125% of cargo pump
297508 2 125% of forced draft rate 125% of fan capacity C
inert gas system? loading rate capacity
dilute tank atmospheres to prevent fires in the
prevent the generation of blow out cargo lines to
An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to keep gas concentrations pumproom by continually
297511 2 flammable or combustible prevent gas
__________. below the lower explosive displacing flammable
gas in tanks concentrations
limit vapors C
areas where direct
Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are the majority of crude oil washing the entire bottom impingement from deck
297523 1 all vertical surfaces
primarily used for _________. tank cleaning of the tank mounted machines cannot
be satisfactorily reached C
Immediately start up the
If the inert gas system was not in operation while inert gas system and
Continue loading under Continue loading, as this
297525 2 loading crude oil on a tank vessel, what action Immediately stop loading. admit gas to the deck
"Emergency Procedures". is a normal procedure.
would you take? main when oxygen
content is below 8%.
C
When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to continue at a slower rate
continue only under
297525 1 maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content until these requirements be shut down immediately monitored more frequently
"Emergency Procedures"
less than 8%, cargo operations should _________. are met
C
It requires following
When completed, more
additional work
Crude oil washing has which of the following Its cleaning ability is very Allows buildup of cargo cargo is retained aboard
297528 1 procedures and close
disadvantages? poor. residue on tank walls. the ship than with water
attention by the crew
washing.
during cargo operations.
C
Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes" a second scrubber, known particles of rust in the
a lighter grade of crude
are faced with additional problems for their safe additional time for tank as an alkaline scrubber, to tanks reaching a high
297530 1 being needed for tank
operation. One such problem is called "polyphoric cleaning. be added in series to the temperature during "gas
washing.
oxidation" and results in ________. "normal" scrubber. free" operations. C
The number of fire The tanks which are safe
What information can be obtained from a marine The quality of fuel in the The vessel's stability
297650 2 extinguishers required to enter when the
chemist's certificate issued to a fishing vessel? vessel's tanks information
onboard. certificate was issued C

The number of fire The tanks which were
What information can be obtained from a marine The quality of fuel in the The vessel's stability
297650 3 extinguishers required safe to enter when the
chemist's certificate issued to a fishing vessel? vessel's tanks information
onboard. certificate was issued C
The number of fire The tanks which are safe
What information can be obtained from a marine The quality of the barge's The barge's stability
297650 1 extinguishers required to enter when the
chemist's certificate on a tank barge? cargo. information.
onboard. certificate was issued. C
A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is
297652 1 an absence of dangerous concentrations of all flammable liquids any combustible liquid flammable or toxic gases residues from cargo oil
__________. C
What would be considered the normal percentage
297654 3 of oxygen contained in the earths atmosphere at 8% 16% 21% 79%
sea level? C
A tank or compartment is considered gas free
297660 2 when it is free of dangerous concentrations of all flammable liquids any combustible liquid flammable or toxic gases all cargo oil
__________. C
While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs
It is solely the chief
are to be carried out on a section of heating coil Prior to any hot work, an
engineer's responsibility to Repairs should proceed
located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" The repair work cannot be inspection must be made
ensure all safety as scheduled since a
product. According to 46 CFR Part 91, within the done at this time due to by the senior officer
297661 3 precautions are observed, chemist's certificate is not
subpart pertaining to "special operating the lack of the chemist's present, and an entry
and all entries are to be required for that type of
requirements", which of the following procedures certificate. made in the official
made in the engine room work.
should be followed when a certified marine chemist logbook.
log.
is not available? C
A chemical that causes a substantial proportion of
exposed people or animals to develop an allergic
297700 2 reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure skin contact hazard physical hazard sensitizer skin absorption hazard
is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
as a __________. C
A category of health hazard, as listed on a Material
297702 4 Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which includes pyrophoric hazard reactive hazard reproductive hazard contamination hazard
teratogens and mutagens, is called a __________.
C
A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety
297703 7 Data Sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required irritant polymerization hazard oxidizer toxin
to start or support fire is called a/an __________. C
A specific document which identifies a chemical,
and lists its physical properties, health hazards,
required controls, firefighting procedures, clean up Hazardous Chemical Physical/Chemical Material Safety Data Hazardous Chemical
297705 1
methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling Information Sheet Characteristics Document Sheet Loading Document
and storage requirements, is commonly called a
__________. C
A self-propelled ship of 400 gross tons, designated, installed, or designed for cargo oil
designated for fuel oil installed for fuel oil
constructed in January 1974, may carry fuel oil in constructed for fuel oil using specifications from
298013 1 carriage after Jan 31, carriage on August 1,
tanks forward of the collision bulkhead, if such carriage before July 1, 1976 Pollution Prevention
1975 1974
tanks were __________. 1974 Regulations C
routine discharge of oil
The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution
298014 1 due to collisions during ballasting and tank loading and discharging due solely to groundings
occurring during tanker operations is __________.
crude oil washing C

routine discharge of oil
The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution
298014 3 due to collisions during ballasting and tank loading and discharging due solely to groundings
occurring during tanker operations is __________.
crude oil washing C
Small oil spills on deck can be kept from
driving wooden plugs into closing the lids on the keeping plugs in the
298015 5 contaminating the surrounding waters by plugging the scuppers
the vents vents sounding pipes
__________. C
slowly operating the bilge holding its slops onboard pumping them into a
A ocean going ship having an inoperative oily circulating them through
pump at half capacity so until they can be settling tank for separation
298016 2 water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by the lube oil purifier to
that it never completely discharged to a shore side before pumping the oily
__________. remove water and debris
dewaters the bilges reception facility water residue overboard
C
CFR Part 154), the pump being used for cargo
transfer has a relief valve setting of 65 psi and a
298018 4 static head of 10 feet. The vessel's cargo hose 55 psi 65 psi 75 psi 98 psi
used for the transfer must have a maximum
allowable working pressure of at least
__________. C
An ocean going ship of 400 gross tons or above
portable flange adapter portable flange adapter portable flange adapter portable flange adapter
must be fitted with a standard oil discharge shore
using a four bolt pattern using a five bolt pattern using a six bolt pattern using a eight bolt pattern
298022 2 connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution
and a bolt circle diameter and a bolt circle diameter and a bolt circle diameter and a bolt circle diameter
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted
of 83 mm of 183 mm of 183 mm of 83 mm C
with a suitable __________.
An ocean going ship of 6000 gross tons or above
portable adapter that
must be fitted with a standard discharge shore clip-on flange suitable for
portable connection using suitable discharge shore meets the same
298022 1 connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution service pressure of 4
a four bolt pattern connection specification outlined in 33
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted kg/cm2
CFR, Subchapter "O"
with a __________. C
maximum allowable
minimum burst pressure working pressure (MAWP)
of at least two times the for each hose assembly
According to Coast Guard Pollution Prevention minimum design burst sum of the relief valve must be more than the distinct marking on the
298023 1 Regulations (33 CFR), each hose assembly used pressure of at least 250 pressure plus the static sum of the relief valve female end to identify the
for transferring oil must have a __________. psi head pressure of the oil setting plus the static manufacturer of the hose
transfer system where the head pressure of the
hose is installed transfer system, where the
hose is installed.
C
A cut in the cover which A blown gasket when
(33 CFR), which of the following conditions would Evidence of internal or
298024 1 makes the reinforcement hydrostatic test pressure All of the above.
disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for external deterioration.
visible. is applied.
use in transferring oil? C
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) fuel oil burners into oil transfer hoses into fuel oil strainers into the lube oil strainers into fixed
298027 3 C
prohibits draining __________. buckets buckets ship's bilges drip pans
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) local port authority has engineer on watch has
local port authority gives discharge is led to a
298028 1 state that a ship's oily bilge slops may be pumped completed the required signed the declaration of
permission reception facility
in port only if the __________. pollution inspection inspection C

overboard only through an
overboard on the outgoing approved oily water anytime as long as the oil
298029 2 Bilges may be pumped __________. overboard only after dark
tide separator and oil content content is very little
monitor C
the vessel owners cease
An International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) the ship changes its port the certificate exceeds 2 an intermediate survey as
to belong to IMO
298032 1 Certificate ceases to be valid on a U.S. Ship when of documentation to San years from the date of required by 33 CFR
(International Maritime
__________. Francisco issue 151.17 is not carried out C
Organization)
A "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard must be
fixed in a conspicuous place in each machinery
298033 2 33 CFR 151 33 CFR 153 33 CFR 155 46 CFR 42
space, or at the bilge and ballast pump control
station as required by __________. C
Exemption or partial exemption from compliance
with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous
OCMI in the vessel's Commandant of the Coast
298034 1 Material Pollution Prevention Regulations Captain of the Port vessel's Chief Engineer
home port Guard
prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted by the
__________. C
"Prohibited oil spaces" as specified in the Pollution
A vessels double- bottom A vessels midship fuel Tanks storing oil in the Oil tanks in the afterpeak
298038 2 Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155) provide
fuel oil tanks. tanks. forepeak compartment. compartment.
regulations for which of the following?
C
Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the
298038 1 Part 151 Part 154 Part 155 Part 156 C
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)?
The discharge of all
The discharge of
garbage is prohibited in
The discharge of plastic or dunnage, lining, and
According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 Part the navigable waters of
garbage mixed with plastic packing materials that do All of the above are
298041 1 151), which of the following statements is accurate the United States and in
into any waters is not float is prohibited correct.
concerning the discharge of garbage? all other waters within
permitted. within 25 nautical miles of
three nautical miles of the
the nearest land.
nearest land.
C
provided on all vessels
provided with flush back capable of reducing the capable of processing all
According to Code of Federal Regulations 33, that may operate on the
capabilities insuring the size of garbage so that it garbage generated
grinders or comminuters used for the discharge of Great Lakes and shall
298045 1 passage of all ground will pass through a screen onboard the vessel
garbage between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the discharge under the
particles through a final with openings no greater including all deck and
nearest land must be __________. highest load line of the
control element than 25 millimeters engine department refuse C
vessel
Mobile offshore drilling units not required to have maintain a logbook on not be required to maintain an unofficial report only major events
298047 1 C
an official logbook shall __________. Form CG-706 maintain a logbook logbook to the OCMI
Fuel oil and bulk lubricating oil discharge
fixed container with a enclosed deck area with a fixed container with a
containment on a 200 gross ton ship (constructed overflow manifold that
298102 1 capacity of 5 U.S. gallons capacity of 5 U.S. gallons capacity of one-half barrel
before July 1, 1974) may consist of a/an empties into the day tank
(19 l) (19 l) (.08 m3)
__________. C
The vessel's International
Where will you find the procedures for the The vessel's Certificate of The vessel's Oil Record The vessel's Oil Transfer
298111 1 Oil Pollution Prevention
reporting of oil discharge into the water? Inspection Book Procedures
Certificate
C
wash down the area
In the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck wash down the area with cover the area with
298200 3 immediately with a fire cover the area with foam
occurring while fueling, you should __________. kerosene absorbent material C
hose

A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil
298203 1 skimmers straw dispersants sawdust C
spills would be the use of __________.
In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical absorb the oil for easy remove the oil from the disperse or dissolve the oil
298205 1 not affect the oil C
agents would __________. removal water in the water
In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or
298207 1 reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of Chemical agent removal Mechanical removal Absorbent removal None of the above
which type of oil removal? C
298208 2 require that all oil spills in United States waters be local port authority Corps of Engineers U.S. Coast Guard state pollution board
reported immediately to the __________. C
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 stops the flow of oil to
shuts off the main shuts off the firefighting secures electrical power
298300 3 CFR), tank vessels are required to have a means shore facility or other
propulsion plant foam systems to all motors
of emergency shutdown. This device __________. vessel
C
When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels
is transferring oil to a facility, the Pollution a remote location of equal the usual operating station the engine room, cargo
two or more locations on
298300 2 Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), require an distance from the tank of the person in charge of control room and bridge
the tank vessel
emergency means to stopping the flow of oil which vessel and facility the oil transfer sequentially
must be operable from __________. C
When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels
is transferring oil to a facility, the Pollution a remote location of equal the usual operating station the engine room, cargo
two or more locations on
298300 5 Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), require an distance from the tank of the person in charge of control room and bridge
the tank vessel
emergency means to stopping the flow of oil which vessel and facility the oil transfer sequentially
must be operable from __________. C
If an emergency pump control is used as the a means that is not
298302 1 emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must the main deck manifold the facility the pump dependant on electrical
stop the flow of oil through __________. power C
requires an emergency means of stopping the flow manually-operated quick- self-closing automatic emergency pump control automatic pressure-
298302 2
of oil during oil transfer operations. That closing valve disconnect fitting on the cargo deck sensitive oil flow regulator
emergency means may be a/an __________. C
If you observe any situation which presents a
Notify the person in
safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer Close the valves at the Shut down the transfer
298306 5 charge of the shore Sound the fire alarm.
operations, which of the following actions should transfer manifold. operation.
facility.
be taken FIRST? C
While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water
Search the vessel for Notify terminal
298306 1 near the barge. Which of the following actions Stop loading Notify the Coast Guard
leaks superintendent
should you carry out FIRST? C
While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams run out the vessel's fire order the shore facility to
298309 1 unplug the deck scuppers call the chief engineer C
open. You should FIRST __________. hose shut down
Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side
Set out drip pans and
facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, Open the intake valve to Signal the shore control Close the valve on the
298310 1 sawdust and begin to mop
which of the following actions should be taken an adjacent tank. point to shutdown. tank vent line.
up the spill.
FIRST? C
If you observe any situation which presents a
safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer Wait for the person- in- Notify the ballast control Shutdown the transfer
298311 1 Sound the fire alarm.
operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions charge to act. operator. operations.
should be taken first? C

The Exclusive Economic Zone extends from the
298503 1 baseline of territorial sea of the United States 53 miles 100 miles 200 miles 300 miles
seaward ___________ . C
Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a engages in a voyage to a
mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have an is drilling on the Outer moves to a new drilling port of another country
International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Continental Shelf location in U.S. waters which is a party of
certificate when the unit __________. MARPOL C
A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in
oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the
298554 1 3 nautical miles 5 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 25 nautical miles
sea when the distance from the nearest land is at
least __________. C
Which of the circumstances listed is an exception Garbage accumulation A person falls overboard, The destination port or
The garbage to be
298555 1 to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V onboard has exceeded and a plastic ice chest is terminal cannot receive
discharged will sink.
to MARPOL 73/78? storage space. thrown for flotation. garbage.
C
According to MARPOL, the definition of medical
298558 1 pathological wastes sharps expired pharmaceuticals dialysis wastes C
waste does NOT include __________.
How many miles out to sea must a vessel be
298570 3 located before it can pump overboard an untreated 3 nautical miles 6 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 25 nautical miles
sewage holding tank? C
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require soundings shall be persons on duty during oil
hoses shall be blown valves used during
298600 1 that on the completion of oil transfer operations all entered in the oil record transfer shall be
down with air transfer shall be closed
__________. book accounted for C
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part an oil containment boom all parts of the transfer a representative sample
oil residue has been
298605 1 156), state that no person may transfer oil to or is available for immediate system have been has been taken from the
drained from all hoses
from a vessel unless __________. use properly lined up oil being received
C
the maximum amount of
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part the maximum transfer rate a representative sample
oil residue has been oil to be transferred has
298605 2 156), state that no person may transfer oil to or and pressure has been has been taken from the
drained from all hoses been recorded on the
from a vessel unless __________. established oil being received
declaration of inspection
C
document signed by
paper issued by the Coast application you must annual report submitted
vessel and shore facility
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations Guard marine inspector complete and submit to by vessel personnel to the
persons-in- charge
298607 4 (33 CFR), the declaration of inspection is the which allows you to the Coast Guard to have Coast Guard declaring
declaring that all transfer
__________. conduct a transfer an inspector visit your that all transfer equipment
requirements have been
operation vessel has been inspected
met
C
describes the procedure must be signed by both
Prior to transfer of fuel, the Declaration of for draining the sumps of the person-in- charge of requires the "Discharge of
is the same as the
298607 3 Inspection required by Coast Guard Regulation (33 oil lubricated machinery the pumping and the Oil Prohibited" placard to
Certificate of Inspection
CFR) __________. into the bilges of U.S. person-in-charge of be posted at the gangway
vessels receiving C
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention include a copy of the
give a schedule for give a description of the be permanently posted or
Regulations (33 CFR), the oil transfer procedures Certificate of Inspection of
298614 1 inspection of valves as oily water separator available at the fueling
required for an uninspected towing or fishing the towing or fishing
required in 155.410 required in 155.380 station C
industry vessel should __________. vessel

An application for an exemption of any
Nearest Coast Guard
298620 2 requirements of the regulations for oil transfer District Commander Commandant Captain of the Port
office
operations must be submitted to the __________. C
On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of
10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 detached monthly for initialed after each
kept readily available for 1 maintained onboard for
298700 1 ppm oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the enclosure in the Oil engineering watch by the
year only not less than 3 years
bilge monitor continuous record must be Record Book watch engineer
__________. C
In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of
operational items are grouped into operational
298702 1 number abbreviation letter all of the above
sections. Each section is codified by a/an
__________. C
Oil Pollution Regulations (33 CFR), require any
298710 2 transfer, or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be Pollution Control Record Bridge log Oil Record book Masters log
recorded in the __________. C
A MODU is required to carry an Oil Record Book,
298713 1 and must maintain the book on board for one year two years three years four years
__________. C
The overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil
298717 1 Chief Mate Chief Engineer Master Cargo Engineer C
Record Book is given to ________.
With regards to a ship's Oil Record Book, an oil
298718 1 tanker of 150 gross tons and above must maintain Part I only Part II only Both Part I and Part II Part III
entries in ________. C
Each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily within 48 hours of within 12 hours of
within 24 hours of
298722 1 mixture that requires an entry in the OIL Record completion of the without delay completion of the
completion of the project
Book shall be fully recorded ________. operation operation C
According to 33 CFR Part 151, all tankships of 150
GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and synthetic plastic discharge shipboard oil pollution vapor recovery
298900 3 oil discharge plan
above, are required to prepare and maintain a plan emergency plan procedures plan
USCG approved __________. C
and can be implemented
When amendments are made to the shipboard oil one month prior to the and cannot be without immediate
six months prior to the end
298904 1 pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be anniversary date of the implemented without approval as long as final
of the approval period
submitted to the Coast Guard __________. plan approval approval is received within
six months of submittal C
any barge or other ship
which is constructed or an oil tanker of 150 gross an oil tanker of 400 gross
all vessels, regardless of
A shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is operated in such a tons or above, or other tons and above, or other
298905 1 size and commercial
required of __________. manner that no oil in any ship of 400 gross tons or ships of 150 gross tons
application
form can be carried above and above
aboard C
According to 33 CFR Part 151, when off loading
records kept onboard for
299003 2 garbage to another ship, your records must identify overall length operator's name of record ships official number
three years
the ships name and __________. C
When off-loading garbage to another ship, your
299003 1 records must identify that ship by name and home port operator's name of record official number master's name
__________. C

According to 33 CFR Part 151, a vessel sailing fairly dense material that victual waste when at
absolutely no garbage at
299005 2 through specific "special areas" may discharge or incinerated ash at anytime will sink, i.e. metal cans or least 12 nautical miles
anytime
dispose of __________. glass bottles at anytime from shore C
Regulations concerning the recordkeeping
299009 1 requirements of shipboard garbage disposal can 46 CFR Part 32 46 CFR Part 56 33 CFR Part 151 33 CFR Part 155
be found in _______. C
Prior to discharging ballast
Prior to entering U.S.
To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast water in U.S. waters, the
waters, a vessel may use Ballast water may only be
Water Management regulations, which of the vessel must perform a Ballast water may only be
any Coast Guard discharged overboard
299022 1 following procedures may be followed by an ocean complete ballast water discharged overboard if
approved alternative through an approved oily
vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an exchange in an area no the vessel is underway.
environmentally sound water separator.
international voyage? less than 100 nautical
method of BWM.
miles from any shoreline.
C
An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) whistle, light, and whistle, light, and sea dye
299109 1 air bottle for breathing whistle and light C
____________. reflective tape marker
The suit is flameproof and The immersion suit seals All models will
the suit should be donned
provides protection to the in body heat and provides automatically turn an
299110 4 Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? just after the survival craft
wearer while swimming protection against unconscious person face-
are launched.
through burning oil. hypothermia for weeks. up in the water. C
If a hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable
set the water lights on the release the dye maker free the liferaft from the break the seal on the
299140 1 liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes
immersion from the liferaft vessel carbon dioxide cylinder
inoperable, it will fail to __________. C
If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an
set the water lights on release the dye- maker for free the liferaft from a break the seal on the
299147 1 inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and
immersion the liferaft sinking vessel carbon dioxide cylinder
becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________. C
In each inflatable rescue boat, what piece of
Several various- sized Self-adhesive rubberized
299151 1 equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, No equipment is provided. Glue and rubber patches.
sealing clips. canvas patches. C
temporary repairs to a large hole in a raft?
lashings on the floor of the
A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep lifelines on the inside of ridges in the floor of the
299154 1 raft for the passenger's straps from the overhead
people stationary in rough weather is __________. the raft raft
feet C
A person has fallen overboard and is being picked
up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in an approach from an approach across the
299206 1 an approach from leeward the most direct approach
danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be windward wind
maneuvered to make __________. C
Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts
299300 2 a rocket shoulder rifle an oil lantern red flares an air horn C
include __________.
consists of 5 or more short consists of the raising and may be used individually is used to indicate doubt
299302 1 A distress signal __________. blasts of the fog signal lowering of a large white or in conjunction with about another vessel's
apparatus flag other distress signals intentions C
A magnetic compass card is marked in how many
299350 1 90 180 360 400 C
degrees?
As a vessel changes course to starboard, the
first turns to starboard remains aligned with turns counterclockwise to
299351 3 compass card in a magnetic also turns to starboard
then counterclockwise compass north port C
compass___________.

The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part
299352 1 Card Needle Lubber's line Gimbals C
of the compass?
A vessel heading ENE is on a course of
299355 9 022.5° 045.0° 067.5° 090.0° C
__________.
A vessel heading NW is on a course of
299355 2 274.5° 292.0° 315.5° 337.5° C
__________.
A vessel heading SSE is on a course of
299355 6 112.5° 135.0° 157.5° 180.0° C
__________.
A vessel heading WSW is on a course of
299355 5 202.5° 225.0° 247.5° 271.0° C
__________.
Self-contained rocket
Which visual distress signal is acceptable for
299356 1 Handheld red flare propelled red parachute Orange smoke signal Red aerial pyrotechic flare
daylight use only?
flare C
What is the maximum length of time that distress
299375 1 1 and 1/2 years 2 years 3 and 1/2 years 5 years C
flares are approved for?
By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will
299377 1 expire not more than how many months from the 24 months 36 months 42 months 54 months
date of manufacture? C
three rockets, one of
Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain two rockets, one of which four rockets, two of which five rockets, two of which
299390 1 which shall be buoyant
__________. shall be the buoyant type shall be the buoyant type shall be the buoyant type
type C
Have them sent ashore to
If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, Have your crew check They do not need any Have them serviced by
299400 1 an approved maintenance
how should they be maintained? them annually. maintenance. the shipyard.
facility. C
Your vessel is required to have an impulse-
have a breaking strength be made of synthetic
299405 2 projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line be of light color be 250 meters in length
of 9000 lbs force material C
must __________.
On vessels on an international voyage, each
50 percent of all persons 75 percent of all persons
299409 1 inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of 6 persons 10 persons
on board on board
not less than __________. C
A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people in ocean
299410 1 service is required by regulation to carry 8 liters of fresh water 12 units of provisions 12 liters of fresh water 24 units of provisions
__________. C
Have them sent ashore to
If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, Have your crew check They do not need any Have them serviced by
299412 2 an approved maintenance
how should they be maintained? them annually maintenance the shipyard annually
facility annually C
Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved
servicing facility every 12 months or not later than
299413 1 the next vessel inspection for certification. 12 months 15 months 17 months 18 months
However, the total elapsed time between servicing
cannot exceed __________. C
placed in a position with
An unconscious person should NOT be given an inhalation treated for injuries until
299454 1 the head lower than the given something to drink
__________. stimulant conscious
body C
If a person gets something in his or her eye and
get them to rub their eye remove it with a match or remove it with a moist, remove it with a piece of
299459 1 you see that it is not embedded, you can
until the object is gone toothpick cotton-tipped applicator dry sterile cotton C
__________.
medical treatment of emergency treatment at
299463 1 First aid means __________. setting of broken bones dosage of medications C
accident the scene of the injury

touching the patient
When administering first aid you should avoid any conversation with the unnecessary haste and
299463 2 instructing bystanders before washing your
__________. patient appearance of uncertainty
hands C
To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is aromatic spirits of
299464 1 bicarbonate of soda paregoric aspirin C
__________. ammonia
To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, administer artificial put him in a tub of ice
299467 1 give him sips of cool water cover him with a light cloth C
you should __________. respiration water
299468 1 there was no rescue in
fallen into cold water would __________. the water loss from the body from the body
sight C
Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking
299469 1 stomach lower intestines inner ear bladder C
motions which affect fluids in the __________.
Muscle tenseness in
Dilated pupils and shallow Diarrhea and frequent Extreme sweating and
299473 1 What are the symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix? almost the entire
breathing urination reddening of skin
abdomen C
The most effective treatment for warming a crew raising body temperature bundling the body in
running or jumping to laying prone under heat
299475 1 member suffering from hypothermia is rapidly by placing hands blankets to rewarm
increase circulation lamps to rewarm rapidly
__________. and feet in hot water gradually
C
The most effective warming treatment for a crew
running or jumping to laying prone under heat
299475 2 member suffering from hypothermia is lying in the sun a warm water bath
create heat lamps to rewarm rapidly
__________. C
In the illustration, the sea painter is item number
299501 1 1 12 16 18 SF-0042 C
__________.
In the illustration, which item correctly identifies the
299505 1 Item #2 Item #12 Item #13 Item #22 SF-0042 C
ballast bags?
The external recognition light can be seen for up to
299506 1 two miles and is shown as item 3 5 8 23 SF-0042
number__________. B
The lowest temperature at which the vapor formed
from a liquid ignites in the presence of an ignition
215710 2 flash point fire point upper explosive limit lower explosive limit
source and continues to burn steadily is called the
________. B
The process that occurs when heat is generated
by a chemical reaction within a substance and
290050 1 chemical ignition spontaneous combustion chemical combustion radiation ignition
continues to a point of ignition is known as
__________. B
Fires resulting from "spontaneous combustion" are
290051 2 usually caused by the improper disposal of cigarette butts oily rags burner torches lighted matches
__________. B
In which of the areas listed is a fire resulting from
290051 5 Engine room bilges Paint locker Battery storage locker Fuel oil tank B
spontaneous combustion most likely to occur?
smoking in a battery room
Spontaneous combustion can result from water dripping on a oil soaked rags stored in a an open flame near a fuel
290051 3 or near a battery storage
__________. running electric motor closed compartment tank vent B
locker
The four basic components of a fire are chain
290054 4 carbon monoxide oxygen carbon dioxide any gaseous substance B
reaction, heat, fuel, and __________.
The three basic elements necessary for any fire fuel oil, nitrogen, and
290054 2 heat, gas, and flames fuel, heat, and oxygen heat, nitrogen, and fuel B
are __________. oxygen

The spreading of fire as a result of heat being
290101 1 carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an conduction convection radiation windage
example of heat transfer by __________. B
Fire dampers installed in the ships galley
ventilation system, which automatically close CO2 system pressure
290104 4 remote operated valve fusible link heat or smoke detector
during a fire, are normally operated by the use of a switch
__________. B
Which of the following gases represents the
greatest threat to personnel safety in an engine
290200 3 Nitrogen Carbon monoxide Carbon trioxide Hydrogen sulfate
room where the exhaust gas is leaking from a
diesel engine? B
You cannot use water to
Phosgene gas may be
Which of the statements listed is accurate It will explode if exposed It will burn rapidly once fight the fire because it will
290201 1 formed if it comes in
concerning fires involving carbon tetrachloride? to a flame. ignited. react with the carbon
contact with hot metal.
tetrachloride. B
A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long Water vapor present when
The tank is especially Carbon monoxide is
290202 1 period of time. Which of the following statements is The tank is safe to enter. the tank was sealed has
dangerous to enter. present.
true? oxidized. B
Engine room bilges where Emergency battery
Highly toxic concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas Fire room bilges where Sewage compartment
chemical cleaners and storage compartment
290205 3 are most likely to be found in which of the locations hydrazine has bilges where leaked
solvents have where discharge gases
listed? accumulated. sewage has accumulated.
accumulated. have accumulated. B
The characteristic odor of "rotten eggs" is normally
290206 5 nitrogen oxide hydrogen sulfide hydrogen chloride sodium chloride
associated with which toxic and poisonous gas?
B
The maximum concentration of hydrogen sulfide to
290206 3 which workers may be regularly exposed without 10 ppm 20 ppm 40 ppm 80 ppm
adverse effects is __________. B
Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified
290212 2 location on a MODU must provide a complete three minutes five minutes seven minutes ten minutes
change of air every __________. B
Since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas on a
a yellow gas that is easily
290213 1 MODU can be dangerous to personnel, it is lighter than air heavier than air mildly toxic
recognized
important to know that this gas is __________. B
High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are
cause involuntary skeletal paralyze your breathing
290216 3 most dangerous to personnel because inhaling this cause eye inflammation cause dizziness
muscle contractions system B
gas can __________.
High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are
cause involuntary skeletal paralyze your breathing
290216 1 most dangerous to personnel because they can cause eye inflammation cause dizziness
muscle contractions system B
__________.
When hydrogen sulfide has been encountered on
a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices
must sound an alarm (differing from the lower
290217 1 20 50 100 200
concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees
when the concentration of the gas reaches or
exceeds how many parts per million? B
Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by allowing better access in eliminating potential fuel improving personnel
290301 1 eliminating trip hazards B
__________. an emergency sources qualifications
To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting kept in nonmetal discarded as soon as cleaned thoroughly for
290301 2 kept in the paint locker B
they should be __________. containers possible reuse

stowed safely at the work covered with a fine mesh
Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should returned to the paint drained into a common
290302 1 site until work is screen to protect from
be __________. locker after each use container after each use
completed ignition sources B
Which of the following procedures reduces the Having a portable CO2 Having a fire hose
Keeping the duct interior Keeping the duct exterior
290304 1 possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from ready at each duct charged at each duct
clean. clean.
rapidly spreading? opening. opening. B
put on lifejackets and go secure the propulsion
When the general alarm is sounded continuously, proceed to their man
290307 6 start the fire pump to their abandon ship diesel engines and
the engine room personnel should __________. overboard stations
stations evacuate the engine room
B
While on watch in the engine room, you hear a Secure the burners then Start the fire pump and Open the master control
Open the guardian valve
290307 8 continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which proceed to your assigned establish flow to the fire valves on the fixed CO2
and standby to maneuver. B
of the following actions should you take FIRST? boat station. main. system.
How many fireman's outfits are required on a
290402 4 1 2 3 4 B
MODU?
How many people onboard a MODU must be
290402 2 one person two people three people four people B
trained in the use of the fireman's outfit?
the boots and gloves that
the self contained
are made of rubber or the lifeline, if used by
The fireman outfits required for MODUs are not to the oxygen and explosion breathing apparatus,
electrically non-conductive personnel entering a
290402 1 be used for any other purpose except for meter when it is used for when used as protection
material, if used when compartment which might
__________. detection of flare gases from gas leaking from a
repairing electrical be deficient of oxygen
refrigeration unit
equipment B
Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore
290403 2 drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full one hour two hours ten hours four hours
load for at least __________. B
On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated when the rig is being
290405 2 during abandon drill during fire drill quarterly B
__________. moved
Who is responsible for reporting a casualty for a
290406 2 The pilot. The owner. The surveyor. The engineer. B
mobile offshore drilling unit?
Who shall insure that all records required by
Officer-in-Charge, Marine
290406 3 regulations are retained onboard a mobile offshore Owner Pilot Engineer
Inspection
drilling unit involved in a casualty? B
senior mechanic, or senior electrician, or
The person on a MODU who is responsible for chief engineer, or
master, or person-in- mechanic on duty if no electrician on duty if no
290409 1 maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and engineer-in-charge if no
charge senior mechanic senior electrician
sanitary condition is the __________. chief engineer is required
designated designated B
Control of a fire on a MODU should be addressed immediately after restoring following control of following establishment of
290410 1 immediately B
__________. vital services flooding fire boundaries
Which of the devices listed below is designed to
290500 1 prevent flames from entering through fuel tank Safety cap Flame screen Spark arrester Flame inhibitor
vents? B
Which of the devices listed is designed to prevent
290500 4 flames from entering a fuel tank through tank Ball check Flame screen Spark arrester Flame inhibitor
vents? B

Sprinkler heads installed Sprinkler heads installed
Sprinkler heads installed
According to 46 CFR Part 76, which of the in the living spaces would in the galley would have a None of the above;
in the galley and living
following statements is true regarding sprinkler have a higher melting higher melting point sprinkler heads with
290552 1 spaces would have the
heads which are normally activated by the melting point fusible link than fusible link than those fusible links are prohibited
same fusible link melting
of a fusible link? those installed in the installed in the living aboard U.S. flag vessels.
point.
galley. spaces. B
Sprinkler heads installed Sprinkler heads installed
Sprinkler heads installed
in the living spaces would in the galley would
Which of the following statements is true regarding in the galley and living Sprinkler heads with
have a higher melting generally have a higher
290552 3 an overhead fire fighting sprinkler head which is spaces would have the fusible links are prohibited
point fusible link than melting point fusible link
activated by the melting of a fusible link? same fusible link melting aboard U.S. flag vessels
those installed in the than those installed in the
point.
galley. living spaces. B
You are in compartment "A", shown in the
illustration, and suspect a fire in compartment "B". move a lighted candle
290555 1 open the watertight door feel the bulkhead tap the bulkhead SF-0005
In order to check for and confirm the fire in along watertight door seal
compartment "B" you should __________. B
limit the spread of the fire protect people in the
The primary function of an automatic sprinkler instantaneously extinguish
290556 1 and control the amount of areas which have had alert the crew to the fire
system is to __________. the fire which triggered it
heat produced sprinkler heads installed
B
the presence of harmful
concentrations of an oxygen deficiency in a
290600 1 An oxygen indicator will detect __________. amounts of carbon all of the above
explosive gas space
monoxide B
To determine that a compartment contains
290600 2 sufficient oxygen to sustain life, you should use explosimeter oxygen indicator fresh air indicator all of the above
a/an __________. B
A gas sample should only Prolonged exposure to
An oxygen reading of 14%
Which of the following statements is true regarding be taken from the lowest gases such as CO2 may
290601 2 is considered safe for All of the above.
oxygen indicators? portion of the tank to test affect the accuracy of the
entering.
for oxygen. indicator. B
Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely The fire area is safe for The fire area is sufficiently
The cause of the fire is to
290603 1 out, which of the following conditions must be men to enter without a cooled so that accidental All of the above.
be known.
established? breathing apparatus. skin burns will not occur.
B
that concentration above the percentage of
The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of that concentration above the percentage of oxygen
which there is just enough flammable vapor by
290605 1 flammable vapors and air is defined as which the mixture is too present in the air sufficient
flammable vapor to volume in air sufficient to
__________. rich to burn to support combustion
produce an explosion create an explosion B
The flammable limits of methane by volume is 5%
to 15%. If the combustible gas indicator reading is
290609 1 50% when sampling a compartment containing 0.5% by volume 2.5% by volume 7.5% by volume 50.0% by volume
methane, the flammable vapor concentration at the
sample point is __________. B
The flammable limits of kerosene are 0.7% to 6.0%
by volume in air. The combustible gas indicator
290610 1 reading is 50% of the lower explosive level. The too rich to burn 0.35% 2.65% in the flammable range
flammable vapor concentration at the sample point
is __________. B

The flammable limits of Benzene are 1.4% to 8%
by volume in air. If a combustible gas indicator is The meter will be unable
The meter will deflect to The meter will deflect to
used to sample a tank that contains a Benzene The meter will deflect full to detect a concentration
290613 2 the 70% explosive the 50% explosive
vapor/air mixture of 0.7% Benzene vapor by scale and return to zero. of 0.7% Benzene vapor in
position. position.
volume in air, which of the listed indications will be air.
observed on the meter? B
concentration of lower explosive limit of a upper explosive limit of a concentration by weight of
The reading of a combustible gas indicator
290615 1 flammable gas in a flammable gas flammable gas nonflammable gas in a
indicates the percentage of the __________. B
compartment concentration concentration compartment
To identify combustible To detect combustible To indicate the absence of
290615 4 What is the purpose of an explosimeter? All of the above. B
gases. gases. oxygen.
Combustible gas indicators are used to detect
flammable gases or vapors present in a tank. This vapor detecting carbon
290618 3 inflatable bag heated filament sensitive liquid chemical
is accomplished by an intricate instrument compound
incorporating a/an __________. B
Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the
290621 2 flame safety lamp combustible gas indicator gasometer oxygen indicator B
use of the __________.
rise? B
The assembled lifeline
The helmet shall provide The boots and gloves All protective clothing
What Coast Guard Regulations apply to the shall have a breaking
290701 1 effective protection shall be fire retardant and must be electrically
equipment of a fireman's outfit? strength of at least 2,500
against impact. water resistant. nonconducting. B
pounds.
The assembled lifeline The combustible gas
Which of the following statements represents the The flashlight must be of All protective clothing
shall have a minimum indicator hose must be
290701 3 Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) applicable to an approved three cell must be electrically non-
breaking strength of 1,500 100 feet (30.48 m) in
the equipment required in a fireman's outfit? fireproof type. conductive.
pounds (683.8 kg). length.
B
According to CFRs, how many emergency outfits
290702 1 are required to be carried onboard all tankships One emergency outfit Two emergency outfits Three emergency outfits Four emergency outfits
over 1,000 gross tons? B
will completely remove
When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, has the greatest ability to has the greatest cooling will completely remove
291000 1 combustible vapors from
water fog __________. produce foam ability toxic fumes from the air B
the air
When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent,
displacement of gases of extinguishment of incipient
291000 3 the fire is extinguished principally by the isolation of the fuel absorption of heat
combustion smoldering
__________. B
A low velocity fog applicator is used in firefighting apply large droplets of extinguish hard to reach
291002 2 cool and smother the fire break up burning embers B
to __________. foam electrical fires
Low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by smothering and washing
291002 1 smothering and cooling cooling and washing out none of the above B
__________. out
The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning
291050 1 carbon dioxide water in a solid stream foam dry chemical B
mattress fire is the use of __________.

the flames should be a straight stream of water a straight stream of water
When entering a compartment which is on fire, you must wear rubber
291051 1 beaten back from the door should be used to cool the should be used to cool the
__________. gloves
with water fog door fire fighters B
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would
291052 3 be suitable for use on an oil fire, but dangerous on CO2 Water fog Halon Dry chemical
an electrical fire? B
This action will cause the So that one hose team So that the extinguishing
It is impossible for the fire
Why should passageway fires be fought from one passageway to become does not push the flames water can be trapped at
291053 2 main to handle two fully
end only? slippery and difficult for heat and smoke directly at the end of the
pressurized hoses.
fire fighters to stand. the other hose team. passageway.
B
Which of the listed types of fires should be
291055 3 Bilge Mattress Galley range Switchboard B
extinguished with a straight stream of water?
To allow venting of To provide airflow around To allow water used to
What is the purpose of opening the doors and To keep the hose teams
291059 1 combustion products from the compartment in the fight the fire to flow out of SF-0013
portholes in figure 2 of the illustration? cool.
the fire to the atmosphere. order to contain the fire. the superstructure. B
As shown in figure 2, fresh air entering through
windward doorways and portholes while pushing
291060 2 vertical ventilation horizontal ventilation loop ventilation cross-flow induction SF-0013
heat and smoke out leeward doorways and
portholes is known as _________. B
set up a hose team to cool
only need to advance a only need to keep the the closed door to set the
A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge immediately shut down
hose team into the room door tightly closed until all boundary, then open the
291064 2 room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire you ventilation for the involved SF-0013
without any additional the oil has been door and extinguish the
should __________. space
preparatory action consumed by the fire fire using a type B-II
extinguisher B
remotely de-energize the cool the purifier room door
only need to keep the power to the purifiers and advance the hose team using a 12 foot applicator
A large fire has developed in the HFO purifier room
door tightly closed until all ventilation fans in the into the room without any prior to sending in
291064 5 accessed by door "E". To combat this fire you SF-0013
the burning oil has been room and activate the additional preparatory personnel equipped with
should __________.
consumed by the fire fixed fire extinguishing action type B- II portable
system for that space extinguishers
B
When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members
securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling
291066 1 water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while safety perimeter fire boundary buffer zone cooling zone
monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are
setting a _________. B
Which fire boundary should be set FIRST, after the An adjacent store room A store room directly An adjacent store room An adjacent store room
291067 1 discovery of a fully evolved fire in a ship's laundry containing spare engine above the laundry room containing spare bed containing laundry
room which is too hot for a direct entry? parts. containing combustibles. mattresses. detergent.
B
When fighting a large fire on your vessel and station personnel on the
not rotate personnel for stand erect and not stay
291068 2 attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is hot deck, immediately All of the above
consistency low or crouch on the deck
important to __________. above the fire B
A fully charged standard SCBA can be expected to
291070 3 supply air under non- stressful conditions for 15 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes 60 minutes
approximately _______. B

What is the minimum period of time that the air
291070 2 supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is 15 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes 60 minutes
required to last? B
The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose stowed separately in a clip attached to the all- coated with heavy grease painted red to be identified
291100 3
firefighting nozzle should always be __________. or rack at each fire station purpose nozzle by a chain to prevent corrosion as emergency equipment
B
The all-purpose, or combination nozzle is capable
and high velocity water and high and low velocity
291102 1 by itself of producing a solid stream of water only and low velocity water fog
fog water fog B
__________.
When the handle "A" is in the mid- position of the Low velocity fog will be High velocity fog will be A solid stream will be
No water will be emitted
291102 5 combination nozzle shown in the illustration, which emitted from the part emitted from the part emitted from the part SF-0015
from the nozzle.
of the following statements will be correct? labeled "D". labeled "D". labeled "B". B
With the handle in position "A", the device shown
291102 3 low velocity fog a solid stream no water flow high velocity fog SF-0011 B
in the illustration will produce __________.
With the handle in the position labeled "A", shown
291102 11 in the illustration, the nozzle will deliver a low velocity fog a solid water stream no water flow minimum water flow SF-0011
__________. B
A person manning a fire hose under pressure with
an all-purpose nozzle attached should be aware low velocity to high
291103 1 solid stream to fog shut to solid stream fog to shut
that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the velocity fog
handle position is changed from __________. B
As a general rule of thumb, with no adverse wind
conditions, approximately how far could a straight
291106 1 50 feet 100 feet 150 feet 200 feet
stream of water reach from a fire hose having a
nozzle pressure of 100 psi? B
The physical difference of the water spray patterns
a difference in water the method of breaking up the type of fire being the capacity of the fire
291152 3 developed by the high velocity fog tip and low
pressure the water stream fought pump
velocity fog applicator is due to __________. B
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that
low velocity fog spray applicators be provided for
the combination hose nozzles in the machinery
291157 1 1 2 3 4
spaces of tank vessels. How many applicators are
required to be maintained in the machinery spaces
of these vessels? B
Each fire hydrant serving the machinery spaces of
a MODU containing oil fired boilers, internal low velocity spray
291158 1 fireman's outfit marine strainer pick axe
combustion machinery, or fuel oil units, must be applicator
equipped with a __________. B
the nozzle and fittings to
Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire all sections to be quickly the nozzle end to be run all sections to be quickly
291200 2 be easily and quickly
main in a manner which will allow __________. connected out to the fire drained
inspected B
Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect
291201 2 Locking wrench Spanner wrench Crescent wrench Pipe wrench B
fire hose couplings?
A fire hose is subject to damage if the swivel on
291203 4 Graphite Grease Soap T alc
the female coupling is lubricated with __________.
B
The size of the fire hydrant hose connections must
291206 1 1 inch 2 1/2 inches 3 inches 3 1/2 inches B
be either 1 1/2 inches or __________.

Replacement of valve
How are solid materials kept from fouling a fire Using a Cadmium Use of in-line system Periodic shutdown and
291250 4 seats at each fire main
hose nozzle? Chloride coating. strainers. backflush of fire main.
station. B
Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire prevent rust and foreign prevent rust and foreign protect the fire pumps filter out some of the salt
291250 2 main system at individual fire hydrants to matter from entering the matter from entering the from becoming clogged in an effort to reduce
__________. system piping hoses and nozzles with marine growth pipeline scaling B
prevent foreign matter
The device shown in the illustration is used to produce both straight provide high velocity fog
291250 3 from clogging hoses and produce mechanical foam SF-0010
__________. steam and fog patterns patterns B
nozzles
Lower level fire main stations in the engine room operating the self-
flushing out the hydrants repacking valve stems at a weekly replacement of
291253 2 should undergo regular routine maintenance, cleaning strainers once a
with full fire main pressure three month intervals fire hose fittings
including __________. day B
fire main is drained in fire main is being used for
291258 2 fire main cut out valves shall be sealed open at all fire main is in actual use fire pump is secured
freezing weather washdown purposes
times except when the __________. B
opened up and internally
protected against freezing
Fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on behind glass or a suitably examined at each Coast
291258 1 or be fitted with cutout all of the above
exposed decks shall be __________. marked enclosure Guard biannual inspection
valves and drain valves
for certification
B
The discharge side of every fire pump must be
291300 1 gate valve pressure gage check valve strainer B
provided with a __________.
According to 46 CFR Part 108, when fire pumps
are used for purposes other than firefighting
check valve installed in shut off valve at a quick disconnect union regulator in the line set at
291304 2 service, each pipe connection to the other service
the line manifold near the pump within ten feet of the pump 125 psi
(except for branch lines used for deck washing)
must have a __________. B
Fire hose can be used for purposes other than used for portable water determined by the Chief
291304 5 used for drills and testing approved by OCMI B
firefighting service when __________. service Engineer
Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may capable of being quickly
on line and in operation at kept available for use on
291304 1 be used for other purposes, provided that one connected to the fire main rated at or above 125 psi
all times to the fire main the fire main at all times
pump is __________. with a suitable pipe spool
B
Which of the following components provides a
291305 1 Rosebox suction Sea chest suction Cofferdam sluice valve Fire pump stuffing box
direct source of seawater for the fire main system? B
While in dry-dock in a U.S. port, you discover that
place a cement box patch silver braze a patch over patch the leak with epoxy
291306 1 the spool piece for the fire pump sea suction is replace the spool piece
on the spool piece the leak sealer B
wasted away. You should __________.
Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have
American Petroleum National Standard Fire American Society of Underwriter's
291350 3 threads to meet the specifications of the
Institute Hose Coupling Mechanical Engineers Laboratories, Inc.
__________. B
the other services are run a separate fire pump is all other services are
On a MODU, a fire pump may be used for other all of the above conditions
291354 2 off a reducing station with available for use on the operated by a manifold
purposes if __________. are met
pressure gage fire main near the pump
B
chemically absorbing the smothering the burning chemically absorbing the releasing large amounts of
291400 2 Foam tends to extinguish a fire by __________.
oxygen material burning material carbon dioxide
B

When compared to low-expansion foam, a high- not cling to vertical
291403 2 be wetter be lighter be more heat resistant B
Which of the listed firefighting agents produces a
291403 1 buoyant blanket to separate the burning vapors CO2 Low-expansion foam Water fog Steam
from air? B
The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is
291453 5 high velocity fog mechanical foam low velocity fog light water SF-0020 B
used with a fire hose to produce __________.
Which of the devices listed must be used in
A plain or common fire The mechanical foam
291453 3 conjunction with the portable in- line foam Any low velocity applicator An all-purpose nozzle
hose nozzle nozzle
proportioner to produce foam? B
Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for
at a temperature not less
291501 1 producing chemical foam, should be stored in a freezer in a cool dry place in open bins
than 80°F
__________. B
The usual method for effectively applying foam on spraying directly on the flowing the foam down a sweeping the fire with the spraying directly on the
291552 5 B
a fire is by __________. base of the fire vertical surface foam surface of the fire
play the foam stream off play the foam stream on
When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should play the foam stream only use the foam on
291552 4 nearby vertical vessel the base of the fire with
__________. directly on the burning oil flowing liquids
structures whirling motion B
When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire,
directly into the bilge
291552 3 the stream of foam is most effective when directed at the overhead at a vertical surface onto the deck
water
__________. B
The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire dry chemical extinguisher foam extinguisher and low foam extinguisher and foam and soda acid
291553 5
is through the use of a __________. and solid stream water velocity water fog solid stream water extinguishers
B
Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is
Aqueous film forming
291553 3 best suited for use on a large class "B" fire CO2 Dry chemical Steam smothering system
foam
occurring on the open deck of a vessel? B
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agent CO2 applied in
A solid stream of water in Precool with water fog CO2 applied in
291553 4 combinations is the best for simultaneous use on a conjunction with dry
conjunction with CO2. before applying foam. conjunction with foam. B
large oil fire? chemical.
A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing pressure needed to
maximum pressure name of the space or date of the last
291633 1 system on a MODU must be marked with the maintain an effective
allowed at that branch spaces which it serves maintenance inspection B
__________. stream at that point
Which of the following statements describes the Halon is not toxic and safe
Halon cools rather than Halon is more effective Halon can extinguish
291650 1 advantage of using a Halon fire extinguisher to breathe under all
smothers a fire. than CO2. combustible metal fires.
versus a CO2 fire extinguisher? conditions. B
Which of the following statements is true The agent is extremely The agent leaves no The agent extinguishes a
concerning Halon 1301? toxic in any concentration. residue. fire by smothering.
B
Which of the following statements is true The agent is highly toxic The agent can not be
The agent by weight is Halon extinguishes the fire
291650 6 concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing at normal room used on electrical fires as
more effective than CO2. by smothering.
agent? temperature. it leaves a residue. B
Fire fighting agents, such as Halon and Purple K, breaking the chain
291651 3 dissipating heat removing the fuel all of the above B
suppress the fire by __________. reaction
291653 1 Halon 1301 enters the fire area as a __________. powder gas pellet glassy slag B

If a protected space is To avoid confusion during

A cylinder is considered ventilated mechanically, an emergency situation,
Which of the following statements holds true for
satisfactory if its weight is the ventilation system there should be only one
291700 1 both CO2 and Halon 1301 fixed extinguishing All of the above.
within 10% of the stamped must be automatically action necessary (such as
systems?
full weight of the charge. shutdown by the release a single pull box) to
of the agent. activate the system.
B
Inspection of a Halon fire extinguisher involves
weighing of the the service technicians the last date it was
291751 1 checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and each sight glass
extinguisher report charged
__________. B
Inspection of a portable CO2 fire extinguisher
weighing of the the service technicians the last date it was
291751 4 involves checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and each sight glass
extinguisher report charged B
__________.
Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" at the base of the fire near toward the upwind side of
291830 1 at the top of the flames in short, quick bursts B
fire should be directed __________. the edge the fire
After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the left closed with ventilation
opened and burned checked for the proper opened and doused with
291901 1 fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for off until all boundaries are
material removed oxygen level water to prevent reflash
the space to be __________. cool B
a blanket of bubbles
isolating the heat from the
291902 4 CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________. formed on the surface of smothering cooling
fuel
the fire B
The fire extinguishing action of CO2 comes mostly breaking the fire chemical isolating the heat from the
291902 3 smothering cooling B
from __________. chain reaction fuel
a blanket of bubbles
The fire extinguishing action of CO2 is derived isolating the heat from the
291902 2 formed on the surface of smothering cooling
mostly from __________. fuel B
the fire
For which of the listed classes of fire combinations
Class "C", class "D", and
291903 1 would carbon dioxide be most suitable as the Class "A" and class "B" Class "B" and class "C" Class "A" and class "C"
class "E" B
extinguishing agent?
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow
291904 1 reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its Foam CO2 Water stream Water fog
ignition temperature? B
Distribution piping within
The piping shall be used
A separate supply of the space shall be
Which of the following statements is correct for no other purpose
carbon dioxide must be proportioned from the
291950 1 concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing except that it may be All of the above.
provided for each space supply line to give the
systems? incorporated with the fire-
protected. proper throttling to the
detecting system.
outlets. B
Operation of the release control valve on a fixed secure all mechanical
release CO2 to the sound the general alarm sound an alarm in the
291951 4 CO2 fire extinguishing system, must automatically ventilation in the protected
protected space signal for a fire ballast control room B
__________. space
It absorbs the pressure It controls the rate of
What is the function of the small gas accumulator It delays the release of It directly activates the
shock to the piping discharge of carbon
291951 7 cylinder attached to the discharge piping of the carbon dioxide into the warning siren in the
resulting from the initial dioxide into the engine
engine room fixed CO2 system? engine room. engine room.
release of carbon dioxide. room.
B
Which of the following statements describes how Remote pull cables
Steel wire trigger lines
the main bank of CO2 bottles is released into an Manually releasing the CO2 pressure from the provided to each group of
291951 2 provided to all bottles in
engine room from most fixed CO2 fire bottles in groups of four. pilot cylinders. four bottles in the main
the main bank.
extinguishing systems? bank. B

A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a
machinery space, designed with a stop valve three independent
291952 6 one control two independent controls four independent controls
installed in the line leading to the protected space, controls
is actuated with __________. B
Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems for
machinery spaces are actuated by one control the same control releasing a separate control two separate controls to three separate controls to
291952 5
operating the stop valve leading to the space and the CO2 releasing the CO2 release the CO2 release the CO2
__________. B
When fighting a machinery space fire, you should visually checking to see modulating the proper
operating a separate listening for the sound of
291952 1 operate a fixed CO2 system by opening the control that CO2 is discharging amount of CO2 from
control to release CO2 the warning siren
valve to the space protected and __________. through the piping individual bottles B
If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on
National Fire Protection American Bureau of Marine Fire Protection
291955 1 any vessel, it must be of a type approved by the U.S. Coast Guard
Association Shipping Guild
__________. B
In the event of a fire, automatic activation of a fixed
291955 3 CO2 extinguishing system can result in which of Machinery space Paint locker Cargo hold All of the above
the following areas? B
An excessive amount of
What would be the most probable cause for a high
An air leak has developed The tank cooling system The pilot cylinder insulation has been
291956 1 pressure alarm to be activated in a Low Pressure
in the tank. has malfunctioned. discharge valve is leaking. installed on the tank and
CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system ?
piping. B
protect that space is not more than __________. B
Normally manned machinery spaces protected by
a fixed carbon dioxide system fitted with storage
cylinders of at least 300 pounds in extinguishing
gas weight are required to be fitted with audible
291963 2 15 seconds 20 seconds 45 seconds 90 seconds
alarms so arranged that the alarm will be sounded
prior to the discharge of CO2. According to CG
regulations pertaining to CO2 fire protection
systems, what is the minimum delay period? B
When pilot cylinder pressure is used to initialize
the release of CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing
291965 1 system containing four storage cylinders, what 1 2 3 4
would be the minimum number of pilot cylinders
required in this installation? B
292000 5 which of the listed CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire 5 lbs (2.27 kg) 15 lbs (6.81 kg) 25 lbs (11.35 kg) 35 lbs (15.89 kg)
extinguishers by size is classified as B-II? B
The empty weight of a B-II CO2 fire extinguisher is
292000 2 34 pounds, therefore, the full charged weight is 44 lbs 49 lbs 54 lbs 59 lbs
__________. B
To use a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you must open the valve on the side
292003 3 turn the tank upside down pull the locking pin shake thoroughly B
FIRST __________. of the tank
Fire extinguishers designated as size III, IV, and V
292005 2 portable units semi-portable units fixed systems disposable units B
are considered __________.

In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire
invert the CO2 squeeze the two trigger
292007 1 extinguisher, the operator must FIRST open the discharge valve remove the locking pin
extinguisher handles together
__________. B
Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on
292009 1 Foam CO2 Dry Chemical Water fog B
electrical fires?
If conditions permit, locate

and use the nearest Immediately act to protect
You notice smoke coming from an open laundry Immediately act to protect Go to the nearest fire
portable fire extinguisher the compartment that is
292011 1 room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which spaces adjacent to the station and begin to break
and attempt to gain directly above the laundry
of the following should you do FIRST? fire. out the fire hose.
immediate control or room.
minimize the fire spread.
B
Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be for the first 20 seconds during the entire period
for at least 20 seconds if all doors and ventilation
292050 2 equipped with an alarm which is to sound CO2 is being released into that CO2 is being
prior to release of CO2 are not secured
__________. the space released B
To let them know they To make them aware that
Why is it necessary to warn engine room To make them aware To prevent possible injury
292050 4 should leave the engine ventilation will
personnel before activating the fixed CO2 system? there is a fire. from frostbite.
room. automatically stop. B
As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous
carbon monoxide
292051 1 under certain conditions as it can cause hallucinations freeze burns and blistering undulation
poisoning B
__________.
the CO2 gas is lighter
prolonged exposure to
One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide the 'snow' which is than air and a large
high concentrations of rapid dissipation of the
292052 1 to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is sometimes discharged amount is required to
CO2 gas causes CO2 vapor
__________. along with the gas is toxic extinguish a fire near the
suffocation
deck B
During the annual servicing of your ship's fixed
CO2 system, you receive the report shown in the
292100 1 105 103 and 108 109 All of the above SF-0014
illustration. Which CO2 cylinders require
recharging? B
inspecting the pressure weighing the cylinder and
Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire gauge to ensure the recharging if weight loss hydrostatic testing of the discharging, cleaning
292103 1
extinguisher includes __________. needle is within operating exceeds 10% of the cylinder inside, and recharging
range weight of the charge
B
Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be Dry chemical, cartridge-
292103 2 Soda acid Carbon dioxide Foam B
easily recharged aboard ship? operated
The fire protection provided for the propulsion
pressurized water
292150 7 motor and generator of a diesel electric drive fixed foam extinguisher fixed CO2 system steam smothering system
sprinkler system
vessel is usually a __________. B
Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2, it use all CO2 available to standby with water or thoroughly ventilate the jettison all burning
292152 1
is advisable to __________. cool the surrounding area other agents space of CO2 materials
B
Which of the following statements describes the Apply CO2 to the base of Apply the CO2 to the top Direct the CO2 in as near
Bounce the CO2 off the
292156 4 correct method to use when applying CO2 from a the flames in a sweeping of the flames with a a vertical upward direction
bulkhead. B
portable fire extinguisher? motion. beating motion. as possible.

the total supply of CO2 to the total supply of CO2 be
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for carbon a separate supply of CO2
be at least sufficient for equal to the gross
292202 1 dioxide fixed fire extinguishing systems require be provided for each all of the above
the space requiring the tonnage of the vessel
__________. space protected B
greatest amount divided by 30
According to 46 CFR Part 95, a fixed CO2 fire
fighting system which contains a maximum of 2450
pounds of carbon dioxide to be maintained aboard
292204 4 1.5 inches 2 inches 2.5 inches 3 inches
the vessel, the minimum nominal pipe size of the
fixed system branch lines to the various spaces
must be __________. B
how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire
292205 3 extinguishers are required to be installed in a Four Six Eight Ten
machinery space containing an 8,000 horsepower
main propulsion diesel engine? B
A vessel carries a total of ten B-II CO2 fire
292207 5 extinguishers. How many spare extinguishers must 0 1 5 10
the vessel carry? B
A vessel has eight B-II CO2 fire extinguishers. How
292207 4 0 1 2 4
many spare extinguishers must the vessel carry?
B
On a MODU, a CO2 fire extinguisher is checked by discharging a small checking for broken
292250 2 reading the gage pressure weighing the extinguisher B
__________. amount of CO2 inspection seals
The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration
292350 4 requires the use of the puncture lever indicated by 1 3 4 5 SF-0006
piece number __________. B
The purpose of piece #3 on the fire extinguisher initiate the pressurization indicate the state of hang the extinguisher on a
292350 3 carry the extinguisher SF-0006
shown in the illustration, is to __________. of the extinguisher charge of the extinguisher bulkhead
B
removing the cartridge
depressing the puncturing tightening the vent cap
The unit shown in the illustration is pressurized squeezing the spring- guard, lifting the
292350 2 lever and squeezing the and puncturing the SF-0006
and operated by __________. loaded nozzle puncturing lever, and
nozzle cartridge seal
squeezing the nozzle B
The upper handle (#1) is
The weight of the charge for operating the valve, The lower handle (#10) is
Which of the following statements is true regarding is equal to the gross the lower handle (#10) at for operating the valve, The unit must be turned
292350 7 SF-0006
the device illustrated? weight stamped on the the top of the left side of the upper handle (#3) is upside down to operate.
unit. the large cylinder is for for carrying.
carrying. B
The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration is a cartridge-operated foam cartridge-operated dry cartridge-operated CO2
292352 4 foam extinguisher SF-0006 B
__________. extinguisher chemical extinguisher type extinguisher
The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the dry chemical hose reel light water hose reel Halon 1301 hose reel
292354 1 CO2 hose reel system SF-0009 B
illustration is a large __________. system system system
Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire cartridge weight is not less recharge of weight loss
pressure gage is within powder is not caked and
292400 1 extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring than 1/4 ounce of weight exceeds 10% of the
the operating range there is a full charge
that the __________. stamped on cartridge weight of charge
B

Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire cartridge weight is not less

pressure gage is within powder is not caked and correct amount of water is
292400 5 extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring than 1/4 ounce of weight
the operating range there is a full charge stored in the container
that the __________. stamped on cartridge B
may cake up and fail to deteriorates to an
The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher is always ready for use puts out the fire with its
292400 2 discharge properly if not unusable condition within
__________. and requires no attention cooling action
occasionally agitated three years B
Recharging a previously used cartridge- operated replacing the propellant
authorized fire equipment puncturing the cartridge recharging the cartridge
292402 1 dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by cartridge and refilling it
servicing personnel only seal after installation and refilling it with powder
__________. with powder B
According to CFR 91.25-20, the performance of
annual preventive maintenance on the fire oiling the hinge on piece examining seal on cylinder renewing handle return hydrostatically testing
292404 1 SF-0006
extinguisher illustrated, by the vessel's crew, would No. 3 piece No. 4 spring in piece No. 1 piece No. 6
include what item? B
During an inspection of a ships storeroom, you find
sealed containers of chemicals labeled "potassium
degreasing machinery recharging dry chemical engine jacket water descalling evaporator
292405 1 bicarbonate" and "potassium chloride". These
parts fire extinguishers treatment tubes
chemicals are most commonly used aboard ship
for _______. B
When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the
292450 3 listed fire extinguishing agents should NEVER be Halon Solid water stream Low velocity fog Steam smothering
sprayed directly into the fire? B
The initial discharge of the The agent may be applied There is no danger of The illustrated
extinguisher should be at in short bursts by opening reflash in using the extinguisher must never
292451 1 concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the SF-0006
close range to scatter the and closing the squeeze illustrated extinguisher on be used in conjunction
illustration?
burning material. nozzle piece #1. a class B fire. with water.
B
discharge a stream at the
discharge a stream
base of the fire, starting at play the stream off use concentrated amounts
The best way to effectively use a dry chemical type horizontally and allow it to
292453 2 the near edge, and use adjacent vertical surfaces in small locations and put
fire extinguisher in fighting a fire, is to __________. flow down evenly on all
side-to-side sweeping until the area is blanketed the fire out in sections
burning surfaces
motions B
To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon chemically treated saw
292454 1 mechanical foam dry chemical chemical foam B
dioxide or __________. dust
When using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in
292455 2 a windy location, you should direct the stream from downwind upwind across the wind directly above
__________. B
If a vessel has four hand portable fire extinguishers
292501 1 that can be recharged by personnel onboard, how 1 2 3 4
many spare charges must be carried?
B
On a MODU, a fire extinguisher charged with 15
292531 1 pounds of CO2 or 10 pounds of dry chemical is a I II III IV
size __________. B
Fire extinguishers used on MODUs are indicated
used for electrical fires
292533 1 by size using the designators "I" through "V", with the smallest size the most accessible size the most effective size
only B
"I" being __________.

accomplished by an
The inspection of portable fire extinguishers on a recorded by the person-in- completed every six
292536 1 authorized servicing all of the above
MODU must be __________. charge months
representative B
If a mobile offshore drilling unit has four hand
portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged
292539 1 1 2 3 4
by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges
must be carried? B
The minimum number of portable C-II fire
292540 1 extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU 1 2 3 4
is __________. B
To determine the number of portable fire
Safety of Life at Sea
292541 1 extinguishers required on a mobile offshore drilling hot work permit Certificate of Inspection operations manual
Certificate B
unit, you should check the __________.
A fire in the paint locker would probably be
292600 1 Class A Class B Class C Class D B
__________.
Burning paint, turpentine, or grease would be an
example of which of the following classes of fire?
292601 1 A grade "E" petroleum product is __________. a flammable liquid a combustible liquid kerosene light fuel oil B
extinguish the fire using a
If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a notify the engineer on isolate and secure the
292603 4 throw sand on the fire combination nozzle with
leaking fuel line, you should FIRST __________. watch piping
applicator B
A galley grease fire would be classified as
__________.
The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is
292609 1 class A class B class C class D B
essential to extinguish the fire is __________.
292613 2 A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a __________. Class A fire Class B fire Class C fire Class D fire B
292613 3 An oil fire would be classified as a __________. class A class B class C class D B
Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class
292613 1 Class "A" Class "B" Class "C" Class "D" B
of fire?
A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the electric fresh water
292614 3 main switchboard engine room bilge breathing compartment B
__________. transfer pump
Which of the following classes of fire would
probably occur in the engine room bilges?
Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely
292614 1 Classes A and B Classes B and C Classes C and D Classes A and D B
occur in the engine room of a vessel?
Completely discharge a
To extinguish an electrical fire, your FIRST action apply mechanical or
292650 5 apply a low velocity fog secure the power 15 pound (6.8 kg) CO2
should be to __________. chemical foam
extinguisher B
You are transferring fuel from the storage tanks to
the day tanks by means of an electric fuel oil shut off power to the shut off the power
292650 4 secure the fuel manifold spray water on the fire
transfer pump. If the pump motor catches fire, you pump ventilation
would FIRST __________. B
A class "C" fire would most likely occur in the
292651 3 engine room bilges main switchboard paint locker rag bin B
__________.
Which of the hazards listed is of a primary
292656 1 concern, other than fire damage, associated with a Susceptible to reflash Electrocution or shock Explosion Deep seated fire
class C fire? B
A class "D" fire would involve the burning of
292700 1 diesel oil magnesium dunnage electrical insulation B
__________.

When involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with
are more susceptible to
an aluminum superstructure, it is important to are susceptible to
292750 1 generate poisonous fumes collapse than steel all of the above
remember that aluminum structures exposed to the spontaneous ignition
structures B
high heat __________.
secure any source of air
cool nearby decks and supply by closing tank
To extinguish a fire in an oil cargo tank, you should activate the fixed CO2 activate the portable CO2
292751 2 bulkheads with high tops, ullage openings, PV
FIRST __________. system system
velocity fog valves, and other
openings B
Commence draining that
Which of the actions listed should be taken FIRST Seal off all vents to that Activate the CO2 system Shut off the steam heating
292751 4 tank as quickly as
to control an oil fire in a fuel oil tank? tank. to that tank. coils.
possible. B
A fire in an oil rig ballast pump room can be
cooling the outside shutting all sources of air flooding the compartment
292754 1 brought under control with minimal impact on closing the sea chest
bulkheads with water into the compartment with salt water
stability by __________. B
If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that is not higher than 12 does not block access to will cover less than 25 will be easily visible from
292756 1
it __________. inches above the deck the fire station hydrant percent of deck space the bridge B
Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) state that all
handheld portable fire extinguishers required
292803 6 A B C D
aboard uninspected motor vessels shall be type
__________. B
Where would you look to find the number of hand Subchapter C, Rules and
Modern Marine Engineer's The Damage Control
292803 1 portable fire extinguishers required on an Regulations for Fire fighter's Handbook
Manual Book
uninspected towing or fishing industry vessel? Uninspected Vessels B
CFR), what quantity of B-II extinguishers would be
required in an oil fired boiler space on a 25,000
292804 2 1 2 3 4
gross ton cargo vessel in which no sand, soda
impregnated sawdust, or other approved dry
materials are provided? B
When opening a watertight door to check a
compartment suspected of flooding, which of the
293001 2 1 2 3 4 SF-0019
dogs shown in the illustration should you back off
FIRST? B
Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to tap the bulkhead with a
open the watertight door open a hatch dog on the feel the bulkhead to see if
293003 2 determine whether or not a compartment has hammer to check for a
and take a quick look side of the hinges it is hot
flooded. Therefore, you should __________. water level B
When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to movement of the center of
movement of the center of upward movement of the increased free surface in
293020 1 return to its original position is caused by the buoyancy toward the low
gravity center of flotation the buoyant wedge
__________. side of the vessel B
Flooding of any compartment in a ship, resulting in
cause a serious decrease the heeling
293021 4 a serious loss of reserve buoyancy, will always increase ship stability reduce ship stability
permanent list moment
__________. B
excess of the buoyant difference between
unoccupied space below volume of intact space
293021 1 Reserve buoyancy is the __________. force over gravitational buoyancy in salt and fresh
the waterline above the waterline B
force waters
The reserve buoyancy of a vessel varies directly
293021 8 free surface freeboard rolling period none of the above B
with changes in the vessel's __________.

With damaged floating vessels, the most important

293021 2 bilge pumping capacity reserve buoyancy level attitude instability
consideration is the preservation of __________.
B
A vessel should normally behave as if all of its
weight is acting downward through the center of
293022 2 keel center of buoyancy tipping center amidships section
gravity and all of its support is acting upward
through the __________. B
Which abbreviation represents the height of the
293032 1 BK KB CB BM B
center of buoyancy?
Stability is determined principally by the
293033 1 relationship of the center of gravity and the aft perpendicular center of buoyancy keel center of flotation
__________. B
The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant
ship's displacement in position of the ship's position of the ship's position of the ship's
293033 3 ship is the method for determining the exact
seawater center of gravity center of buoyancy metacenter
location of the __________. B
determine the position of
The purpose of the a vessels "inclining determine the location of verify data in the vessel's
293033 4 the lightship center of verify the hydrostatic data
experiment" is to __________. the metacenter operating manual
gravity B
When the height of the metacenter is the same as
293034 8 the height of the center of gravity, the upright stable neutral positive negative
equilibrium position is __________. B
A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the reserve buoyancy
293038 2 freeboard is increased tanks are ballasted trim is increased B
__________. increases
What standard mathematical formula is commonly
Standard Logarithmic
293047 1 used to calculate a vessels water plane area for Simpsons Rule Reynolds Number Rule Pythagorean Rule
Rule B
stability purposes?
Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while
293050 2 pitch surge sway roll B
underway is known as __________.
The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a
293051 1 yaw sway surge heave B
vessel is called __________.
Transverse oscillating rotation about the
293055 4 longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as pitching rolling swaying surging
__________. B
Pitching is the rising and falling motion of the bow
293056 1 Longitudinal Transverse Vertical Centerline B
of a ship oscillating about which axis?
A vessel which is subjected to 'hogging' has its main deck under has its main deck plating has its bottom plate under has its bottom plating
293100 1
__________. compressive stress under tensile stress tensile stress under ductile stress
B
A vessel which is subjected to 'hogging' has its main deck under main deck plating under bottom plate under bottom and deck plating
293100 2
__________. compressive stress tensile stress shearing stress under compressive stress
B
If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave
293100 4 pitch poling hogging stresses sagging stresses yawing stresses
amidships, the vessel is subjected to __________.
B
A vessel which is subjected to 'sagging' has its main deck under has its bottom plating is supported on a wave is said to be under a form
293101 1
__________. tensile stress under tensile stress whose crest is amidships of transverse bending B
A vessel having a concentration of weight toward
293102 1 stiff tender buoyant neutral B
the top of the vessel is said to be __________.

A ballast tank is one-third full when additional
ballast is added until it is two- thirds full. The virtual rise in the center of value of the moment to
293103 1 free surface effect transverse stability
increased amount of liquid in the tank will have the gravity trim 1 inch (MT1)
greatest influence on the __________. B
You can generally improve the vessel's stability in pumping double bottoms ballasting appropriate port transferring ballast deballasting double
293105 1
a hazardous situation by __________. to the forepeak or starboard deep tanks athwartships bottoms
B
The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the virtual rise in the center of moment to trim 1 inch
293107 1 Vertical position of KB vertical weight distribution B
ship's period of roll is the __________. gravity (MT1)
The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the virtual rise in the center of moment to trim 1 inch
293107 2 length of KB vertical weight distribution B
ship's period of roll is the __________. gravity (MT1)
If your vessel has a starboard list after taking on
293130 1 to starboard to port forward aft B
fuel, you would transfer fuel __________.
If fuel oil is burned from the port side tanks alone,
293131 3 go down by the head list to starboard trim by the stern list to port B
the ship will __________.
The difference between the initial trim of a vessel
293134 2 and the trim after a new load condition is known as angle of list change of trim angle of trim change of draft
__________. B
A stiff wind has caused a difference to occur
293136 2 between the port and starboard drafts. This list heel trim flotation
condition is known as __________. B
The difference between the starboard and port
293136 1 list heel trim flotation B
drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.
The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is
293137 1 the righting arm couple longitudinal stability metacentric height transverse inclination B
__________.
list until the center of
In the absence of external forces, adding weight to trim to the side opposite
heel until the angle of loll buoyancy is aligned decrease draft at the
293139 1 one side of a floating vessel will cause the vessel TCG until all moments are
is reached vertically with the center of center of flotation
to __________. equal
gravity B
The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel weight required to sink the displaced submerged
293156 1 total weight of the vessel reserve buoyancy B
floating in sea water is equal to the __________. vessel volume
Symbol #3, shown in the illustration, represents
293159 1 displacement amidships forward perpendicular baseline SF-0022 B
__________.
The symbol shown in the illustration and used to
293159 3 represent amidships, is indicated by number 2 3 4 5 SF-0022
__________. B
The symbol shown in the illustration to represent
293159 2 the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft 2 3 4 5 SF-0022
perpendiculars is __________. B
Keeping the draft of a MODU at, or below the load
293161 1 line mark, insures the unit will have adequate reserve ballast reserve buoyancy lightweight displacement critical motion
__________. B
Load line regulations are designed to insure that a
293162 1 MODU has adequate structural strength and lifesaving equipment stability mooring tension riser tension
sufficient __________. B
The document certifying the correctness of the
Certificate of
293163 1 load line marks on a MODU is called the Certificate of Inspection Load Line Certificate SOLAS Certificate
Documentation
__________. B

any person from the Coast

an officer of the Coast
Many uninspected motor vessels require load any person designated by Guard who performs
Guard designated by the any person from the Coast
lines. For the purpose of the Load Line the American Bureau of duties with respect to the
293166 1 Commandant to command Guard who is in charge of
Regulations, the term 'surveyor' means Shipping who actually inspection, enforcement,
all Coast Guard activities a marine inspection zone
__________. examines the vessel and administration of Title
within his district
52 of the revised statute
B
amidship's draft to which a angle of reduced
Many uninspected vessels require load lines to reserve buoyancy under freeboard for the light ship
293166 2 vessel can be lawfully freeboard for subdivision
indicate the maximum __________. any condition displacement
submerged calculations B
The effects of free surface on initial stability
volume of liquid in the volume of displacement of location of the tank in the height of the center of
293201 1 depend upon the surface area dimensions of the
tank the MODU MODU gravity of the MODU
free liquids and the __________. B
The free surface corrections depend upon the
volume of liquid in the displacement of the location of the tank in the height of the center of
293203 1 surface area of the free liquids and the
tank MODU MODU gravity of the MODU B
__________.
Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has virtual height of the center
293205 1 uncorrected 'KG' metacenter metacentric height B
the effect of raising the __________. of gravity
Reducing the free surface of a liquid within a tank virtual height of the center
293205 2 uncorrected 'KG' metacenter metacentric height B
has the effect of lowering the __________. of gravity
Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying
293207 1 liquid cargo should be avoided in order to maintain hog and sag maintain good stability prevent oil pollution all of the above
__________. B
Free surface effect occurring in partially filled cargo
reduce hogging and
293207 9 or fuel storage tanks on board a vessel should be maintain vessel stability prevent oil pollution all of the above
sagging
avoided to __________. B
Vessel stability can be adversely affected by increasing the free surface ballasting down by the ballasting down by the
293207 7 decreasing the laden draft B
__________. effect bow stern
When any tank or compartment is partially filled
with a liquid free to move as the ship rolls, the free increase reserve
293207 3 reduce ship stability cause a permanent list change the ship's trim
surface effect is present. This condition will usually buoyancy
__________. B
using an onboard crane to transferring pipe from the
A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU emptying a partially filled
293252 2 filling a partially filled tank lift a freely swinging heavy setback area to the pipe
may be caused by __________. tank B
object rack
transferring pipe from the
A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU using fuel from a pressed emptying a partially filled
293252 3 filling a partially filled tank setback area to the pipe
may be caused by __________. fuel tank tank
rack B
Although 'KG' for a MODU in a lightweight
293255 1 condition is relatively high, the vessel is stiff 'KM' is small 'KM' is high 'BL' is small 'KB' is large
because __________. B
Subtracting the height of the center of gravity
corrected for longitudinal free surface effects from
293259 2 'GM' 'GML' 'KGL' 'KML'
the height of the longitudinal metacenter of a
MODU yields __________. B

Subtracting the height of the center of gravity
corrected for transverse free surface effects from
293259 1 'GM' 'GMT' 'KGT' 'KMT'
the height of the transverse metacenter of a
MODU yields __________. B
A continual change in the list, or trim of any floating an immediate need to
293261 2 negative 'GM' progressive flooding structural failure B
MODU indicates __________. counterflood
When the force of the wind causes a floating centers of buoyancy and righting moment equals down flooding point is deck edge immersion
293264 1
MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________. gravity are in the same the wind heeling moment below water occurs
B
For a MODU with a list, an increase in 'GMT' will
293266 3 stabilize at an angel of loll decrease increase remain constant B
cause the inclination to __________.
For a MODU with transverse inclination, an
293266 5 list to stabilize at an angle list to decrease trim to decrease list to increase B
increase in 'GMT' causes __________.
For a MODU with trim, an increase in 'GMT' will
293266 4 stabilize at an angle of loll decrease increase remain constant B
cause the inclination to __________.
When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the move to the height of the
293267 1 remain stationary move toward the low side move toward the high side B
center of buoyancy will __________. metacenter
stability at angles less
The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a stability at all angles of stability at angle less than
293268 1 initial stability than the limit of positive
MODU is used as a measure of __________. inclination the downflooding angle
stability B
The volume of a floating MODU above the
293269 1 waterline that can be made watertight is its displacement volume reserve buoyancy gross tonnage net tonnage
__________. B
The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a height of the tank above
293273 1 surface area of the tank displacement volume draft of the MODU B
floating MODU decrease with the __________. the keel
Where are self-closing doors required on a
293307 1 In the galley In each stair tower To each sleeping room To the engine room B
MODU?
If double bottom fuel tank levels are found to have contamination of the
a damaged pneumercator a puncture, crack, or hole improper record keeping
293401 4 increased after a ship's grounding, you should contaminated steam
line in the skin of the vessel of fuel transfer activities B
suspect __________. supply system
contamination of the
If fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a damaged pneumercator a puncture, crack, or hole improper record keeping
293401 3 contaminated steam
a grounding, you should suspect __________. line in the skin of the vessel of fuel transfer activities
supply system B
Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel
oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level condensation in the fuel a crack in the hull portion contamination from the
293401 2 a load of bad fuel
has increased. You therefore should suspect tank of the fuel tank saltwater flushing system
__________. B
Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension
293501 2 of 4" X 4" (10.2 cm X 10.2 cm) should not be 8 feet (2.43 m) 10 feet (3.048 m) 16 feet (4.87 m) 20 feet (6.09 m)
longer than __________. B
approximately 1/2 inch approximately 1/2 inch
After measuring the length to which a section of approximately 1/2 inch
longer than measured shorter than measured to the same length as the
293502 1 shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring shorter per foot of shoring
length to allow for length to allow for the use measured length
__________. to allow wet expansion
trimming of wedges B
in containers labeled in
According to 46 CFR Part 35, containers which on the lowest level of the
accordance with ABS on or above the weather
exceed a capacity of five gallons and contain below the weather deck in engine room in locations
293700 2 requirements for deck in locations
flammable liquids and gases other than diesel fuel a paint or lamp locker designated by the chief
flammable liquids and designated by the master
must be stowed __________. engineer B
gases

Control of flooding on a MODU should be following restoration of
293754 1 first following control of a fire only if a threat exists B
addressed __________. vital services
When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a
the tank may be partially the tank is completely
293755 1 MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates the tank is full the tank level has dropped
flooded flooded
__________. B
When patching holes in the hull of a MODU,
293756 1 pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be caulking gaskets strong backs wedges
used as __________. B
The two courses of action to take if the underwater
establish and maintain secure power to the counterflood to maintain
293759 1 hull of a MODU is severely damaged, are to plug dewater the compartment
flooding boundaries compartment even keel
the opening and to __________. B
In plugging submerged holes on a MODU, rags,
reduce the water pressure reduce the water leaking prevent progressive rapid reduce the possibility of
293760 1 wedges, and other materials should be used in
on the hull in around the plugs flooding stress fractures
conjunction with plugs to __________. B
force the warped, bulged,
The objective of shoring the damaged area of a support and hold the area withstand subsequent make a watertight seal at
293762 1 or deformed sections back
MODU is to __________. in the damaged position additional damage the damaged area
into place
B
The master or person-in-charge of a MODU is
If it creates a hazard to If the grounding lasts over
293763 1 required to submit a casualty report of an At the owner's discretion Under any condition
navigation 48 hours
international grounding under what condition? B
Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will inaccessible to on the topmost deck of the
294000 6 locked up readily accessible for use B
be __________. passengers vessel at all times
Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will inaccessible to on the topmost deck of the
be __________. passengers vessel at all times
as substitutes for the
when working near or over approved life preservers
Approved buoyant work vests may be carried under the supervision and
the water under during routine drills,
294001 3 aboard tank vessels and shall be worn by crew control of designated all of the above
unfavorable working weather permitting, when
members __________. ship's officers
conditions a vessel is moored pier
side
B
Lifejackets are designed Lifejackets must always Lightly stained or faded
Which of the following statements is TRUE Buoyant vests may be to turn an unconscious be worn with the same lifejackets will fail in the
294002 2
concerning lifejackets? substituted for lifejackets. person's face clear of the side facing outwards to water and should not be
water. float properly. used. B
Lifejackets are designed Lifejackets must always Lightly stained or faded
Which of the following statements is TRUE Buoyant vests may be to turn an unconscious be worn with the same lifejackets will fail in the
294002 3
concerning lifejackets? substituted for lifejackets. person's face clear of the side facing outwards to water and should not be
water. float properly. used. B
Lifejackets are not
Kapok lifejackets must Lifejackets must always
Which of the following statements is TRUE Buoyant vests may be designed to turn a
294003 1 have plastic- covered pad be worn with the same
concerning lifejackets? substituted for lifejackets. person's face clear of the
inserts. side facing outwards.
water when unconscious.
B
Which of the documents listed will describe
294004 2 Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection Forecastle card Clearance papers B
lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?
Which of the documents listed will describe
294004 4 Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection Forecastle card Clearance papers B
lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?

During the annual

After purchasing, the suit Any tear or leak will
Immersion suits should be maintenance, the front
Which of the following statements concerning should be stowed in the render the suit
294005 8 worn while performing zipper should be
immersion suits is correct? storage bag in which it unserviceable and it must
routine work on deck. lubricated using light
was received. be replaced.
machine oil or mineral oil.
B
The immersion suit
Not all models will The suit is flameproof and The suit provides a full
reduces the rate of body
Which of the following statements concerning automatically turn an provides protection to a range of body movement
294006 3 cooling and greatly
immersion suits is correct? unconscious person face- wearer swimming in and is suitable for routine
increases the survival time
up in the water. burning oil. wear on deck.
in cold water.
B
The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit after you notice that your
294007 1 before you enter the water after you enter the water after one hour in the water
should be inflated __________. suit is losing buoyancy
B
The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit after you notice that your
294007 8 before you enter the water after you enter the water after one hour in the water
should be inflated __________. suit is losing buoyancy B
keep both hands in front
enter the water on the
If you must enter the water on which there is an oil protect your lifejacket by of your face to break the
294008 1 windward side of the wear very light clothing
fire, you should __________. holding it above your head water surface when diving
vessel B
head first
immediately jump into the run to the radio room to
A person who observes an individual fall overboard call for help and keep the go to the control room for
294010 3 water to assist the send an emergency
from an OSV should __________. individual in sight the distress flares
individual message B
On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to One ring life buoy on each Two ring life buoys on
294101 1 One ring life buoy. Three ring life buoys.
have a buoyant line attached? side of the MODU. each side of the MODU.
B
On a OSV, how many ring buoys are required to One ring life buoy on each Two ring life buoys on
294101 2 One ring life buoy Three ring life buoys B
have a buoyant line attached? side of the OSV each side of the OSV
What is the minimum required number of ring life
294102 3 4 8 12 16 B
buoys on a MODU?
What is the minimum required number of ring life
294102 4 4 8 12 16 B
buoys on an OSV on ocean service ?
They provide sufficient
Only a light layer of A tear in the suit will not
Which of the following statements is true flotation to do away with They should be tight
294105 2 clothing may be worn appreciably reduce its
concerning an immersion suit and its use? the necessity of wearing a fitting.
underneath. value. B
lifejacket.
One life preserver or buoyant work vest is required
operating line throwing
294106 1 to be worn on a MODU when a person is working on the rig floor working over water working on the pipe racks
equipment
__________. B
group to form a small
tie themselves to the unit circle of survivors to send the strongest
If there are a number of survivors in the water after form a raft by lashing their
294110 1 to avoid drifting with the create a warmer pocket of swimmer to shore for
abandoning a MODU, they should __________. lifejackets together
current water in the center of the assistance
circle B

If there are a number of survivors in the water after tie themselves to the unit circle of survivors to send the strongest
form a raft by lashing their
294110 7 abandoning an OSV and no rescue craft or liferaft to avoid drifting with the create a warmer pocket of swimmer to shore for
lifejackets together
are in sight, they should __________. current water in the center of the assistance
circle B
tie themselves to the unit circle of survivors to send the strongest
If there are a number of survivors in the water after form a raft by lashing their
294110 6 to avoid drifting with the create a warmer pocket of swimmer to shore for
abandoning a vessel, they should __________. lifejackets together
current water in the center of the assistance
circle B
If you continue to wear extra clothing when
make it more difficult to
294110 8 entering the water after abandoning your vessel, it weigh you down preserve body heat reduce body heat
breathe
will __________. B
If you wear extra clothing when entering the water make it more difficult to
294110 4 weigh you down preserve body heat reduce your body heat B
after abandoning a MODU it will __________. breathe
immediately jump into the run to the radio room to
A person who observes an individual fall overboard call for help and keep the go to the control room for
294112 2 water to assist the send an emergency
from a MODU should __________. individual in sight the distress flares B
individual message
without the option of a survival craft or liferaft there is a rescue craft in there is hydrogen sulfide water temperature is a rigid survival craft is in
294114 1
should enter the water on the leeward side, except the area present below 40°F the area
when __________. B
standing on the CO2 getting at least three or
doing nothing; it will right
If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can bottle, holding the bottom four men to push down on
294200 6 pushing up on one side itself after the canopy
right it by __________. straps, and throwing your the side containing the
supports inflate
weight backwards CO2 cylinder
B
act as stabilizers by filling hold the freshwater
The purpose of the four water pockets, located on stow rainwater; these four
with sea water as soon as required by regulation to
294201 1 the underside at each corner of the raft, is to spaces will not take up none of the above
raft is inflated and in an be provided in the raft
__________. valuable space
upright position when packed
B
Water pockets on the under side of an inflatable
294201 2 catching rain water stability easy drainage maneuverability B
liferaft are for __________.
Water pockets on the under side of an inflatable
294201 6 catching rain water stability easy drainage maneuverability B
liferaft are for __________.
294203 11 Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________. a pistol a towing connection a portable radio canned milk B
294203 2 Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________. a pistol a towing connection a portable radio canned milk B
The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will in one of the equipment in a special pocket near on a cord hanging from in a pocket on the first aid
294203 8 B
always be located __________. bags the forward entrance the canopy kit
The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will in one of the equipment in a special pocket near on a cord hanging from in a pocket on the first aid
294203 3 B
always be located __________. bags the forward entrance the canopy kit
As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the
releasing the tie- down releasing the CO2
294204 17 hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from breaking the weak link pulling the operating cord
strap canister
its cradle by __________. B
Do not attach the cord to
If a raft is to be released manually, where should
anything but throw it To some fixed object on To the special pad eye on
294204 15 the operating cord be attached before throwing the Stand on it with your foot.
overboard with the raft the ship. the 'raft davit launcher'.
raft overboard? B
container.

The first step to manually launch an inflatable use the float-free method pull on the operating cord
294204 47 trip the hydrostatic release release the gravity brake B
liferaft is to _______. only to inflate the raft
The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also
294204 6 lifeline painter drogue marker B
serves as a __________.
Which of the following is the correct procedure to Connect the stainless Pull the line (painter) from Remove the raft from the
Open the canopy relief
294204 3 follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand steel link (float free link) to the container and make it container to permit
valves.
from an ocean going vessel? the vessel. fast to the cleat provided. complete inflation.
B
Which of the following is the correct procedure to Connect the stainless Pull the line (painter) from Remove the raft from the
Open the canopy relief
294204 40 follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand steel link (float free link) to the container and make it container to permit
valves.
from an OSV? the vessel. fast to the cleat provided. complete inflation.
B
Pull on the hydrostatic Push on the hydrostatic Push on the hydrostatic Pull on the hydrostatic
Which of the following must be carried out in order
294204 1 release, pull on the sea release, pull on the sea release, push on the sea release, push on the sea
to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?
painter. painter. painter. painter. B
Pull on the hydrostatic Push on the hydrostatic Push on the hydrostatic Pull on the hydrostatic
Which of the following must be carried out in order
294204 38 release, pull on the sea release, pull on the sea release, push on the sea release, push on the sea
to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?
painter. painter. painter. painter. B
Which of the following must be carried out in order It will be easily launched It is easily launched by It is only necessary to
Depress the hydrostatic
294204 2 to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not by simply breaking the cutting the container attach the weak link to the
release button.
designed for float- free operation? weak link. securing straps. vessel. B
Which of the following must be carried out in order It will be easily launched It is easily launched by It is only necessary to
Depress the hydrostatic
294204 39 to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not by simply breaking the cutting the container attach the weak link to the
release button.
designed for float- free operation? weak link. securing straps. vessel. B
One of the first actions to be taken by survivors
take an anti- seasickness open the pressure relief drink at least one can of
294206 4 when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to stream the sea anchor
pill valve water
__________. B
open the pressure relief drink at least one can of
294206 10 when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to break out food rations read the instruction card
valve water B
__________.
prepare to cut the sea open the pressure relief drink at least one can of
294206 11 when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to break out food rations
painter valve water B
__________.
294206 15 when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to break out food rations take anti- seasickness pill
valve water
__________. B
294206 16 when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to break out food rations stream the sea anchor
valve water
__________. B
asphyxiation due to
The greatest danger in cold temperatures, when at hypothermia caused by collapsing of the raft due
sea in an inflatable liferaft is __________. the cold temperature to the cold temperature
closed B
asphyxiation due to
The greatest danger in cold temperatures, when at hypothermia caused by collapsing of the raft due
sea in an inflatable liferaft is __________. the cold temperature to the cold temperature B
closed
The lights must be
In accordance with SOLAS regulations, which of Outside and inside canopy The lights must
capable of being shut off The lights must always
294209 7 the following is true concerning inflatable liferaft lights must be manually automatically turn on and
during daylight hours to remain on.
battery powered lights? switched on after inflation. off by photoelectric cells.
extend battery life.
B

On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries taking no action as there taking no action as they
unscrewing the bulb operating the switch for
294209 5 to operate the light on the inside of rafts can be is no way of preserving shut off automatically in
during daylight the light
made to last longer by _______. power daylight B
On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries operating the "off switch" taking no action as there
unscrewing the bulb removing the batteries
294209 3 to operate the light on the inside of the rafts can be for the light during the is no way of preserving
during the daylight during the daylight
made to last longer by __________. daylight power B
Each liferaft container without an indicated
maximum stowage height above the waterline, 3 meters (10 feet) above 18 meters (59 feet) above indicated on the vessels required by the vessels
294212 2
must be stowed at a height not more than the waterline the waterline certificate of inspection Muster List ("Station Bill")
__________. B
Each liferaft container without an indicated
3 meters (10 feet) above 18 meters (59 feet) above indicated on the vessels required by the vessels
294212 4 maximum stowage height must be stowed at a
the waterline the waterline certificate of inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") B
height not more than __________.
When using the rainwater collection tubes on a poured overboard
passed around so all can saved to be used at a later
294215 1 liferaft, the FIRST collection should be because of salt washed used to boil food
drink time
__________. off the canopy B
When using the rainwater collection tubes on a poured overboard
passed around so all can saved to be used at a later
294215 2 liferaft, the FIRST collection should be because of salt washed used to boil food
drink time
__________. off the canopy B
According to regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is on the Muster List on a sign next to the on the Certificate of
294216 1 in the Operations Manual B
required to be marked __________. ("Station Bill") liferaft Inspection
In the illustration shown, the hydrostatic release is
294218 1 3 6 7 10 SF-0043 B
identified as item number _____.
A frapping line, shown in the illustration, is
294303 3 1 2 3 4 SF-0029 B
indicated by number __________.
Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat into
294303 4 the vessel while boarding passengers are called lifelines frapping lines tricing lines tripping lines
__________. B
On a vessel with lifeboats on both sides, the No. 2 forward of lifeboat No. 4 forward of lifeboat No. 4 aft of lifeboat No. 1 on the
294304 1 all of the above B
lifeboat would be located __________. on the starboard side on the port side starboard side
The No. 1 lifeboat on a ship would be found aft of the forward lifeboat aft of the forward lifeboat
294304 4 on the port side on the starboard side
__________. on the port side on the starboard side
B
Each distress signal and self-activated smoke
signal must be replaced not later than the marked
294306 2 48 months 42 months 36 months 12 months
date of expiration, or from the date of manufacture,
not later than __________. B
Which of the following steps should normally be
Ration food and water Determine position and Check pyrotechnic
294309 2 taken first by those who have boarded a lifeboat in Search for survivors.
supplies. closest point of land. supplies.
an emergency situation? B
Which of the following steps should normally be
Ration food and water Determine position and Check pyrotechnic
294309 5 taken first by those who have boarded a lifeboat in Search for survivors
supplies closest point of land supplies B
an emergency situation?
controlled by the automatically engaged if
manually disengaged applied by dropping the
294311 1 The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________. centrifugal brake lowering speed is
when hoisting a boat counterweighted lever B
mechanism excessive

the davits should always

the gripes should be the boats are generally the tricing pendant should
be hand cranked the last
294311 4 When operating gravity davits, __________. released after the boat is lowered by surging the be tripped prior to
12 inches into the final
moving falls around cruciform bits releasing the gripes
stowed position B
When using the hand crank to retrieve and stow a Put the emergency
Make certain the hand Make certain the crank is Disconnect the limit
294311 5 lifeboat on gravity davits, which of the listed disconnect switch in the
brake is disengaged. in the locked position. switch.
precaution should always be observed? 'off' position. B
After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit
294312 8 heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks hoist man limit switch brake handle preventer bar
until the movement is stopped by the __________.
B
the possibility of the davit
the lifeboat from being
It is important to test lifeboat davit limit switches on damage to the winch wires parting when the damage to the releasing
294312 10 lowered at an unsafe
a regular basis to prevent _________. motor lifeboat is being retrieved gear
speed
and stowed in its davit
B
The required periodic inspection of MODU lifeboat removal of electrical removal of drain plugs replacement of limit disconnecting emergency
294312 7
winch control apparatus must include __________. enclosure covers from electrical enclosures switches switches
B
A right-handed propeller will cause the survival walk the stern to starboard walk the stern to port in run faster than a left- right the survival craft if
294315 4 B
craft to __________. in reverse reverse handed propeller capsized
Prevents smoke and other
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Provides combustion air Pressurizes the water Provides air for passenger
294318 5 noxious fumes from
pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat? for the diesel engine. spray system. respiration.
entering craft. B
To activate an air regeneration canister on a put it into an container of tear off the tabs on the
294322 1 turn it upside down push 'on' button B
survival craft, you __________. water canister
When retrieving the survival craft, the winch that the cable has not
that all personnel are which way the wind is the hydraulic fluid level
294325 3 operator should stop the winch and check jumped any grooves on
seated in the craft blowing before lifting
__________. the drum B
When retrieving the survival craft, the winch that the cable has not
that all personnel are which way the wind is the hydraulic fluid level
294325 5 operator should stop the winch and check jumped any grooves on
seated in the craft blowing before lifting
__________. the drum B
After being launched from a MODU, a totally frequent opening of frequent flushing of the
regular checks of bilge use of ear plugs to
294327 3 enclosed survival craft which has been afloat over hatches to permit entry of water spray system with
levels dampen engine noise B
a long period of time, requires __________. fresh air fresh water
After being launched from an OSV, a totally frequent opening of frequent flushing of the
regular checks of bilge use of ear plugs to
294327 7 enclosed survival craft which has been afloat over hatches to permit entry of water spray system with
levels dampen engine noise B
a long period of time, requires __________. fresh air fresh water
the small lever to release
the cap should be the cage must be free of there is an automatic ball
In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate the rubber ball float must
294327 2 removed to drain the boat rubbish or the ball may not check located in a siphon
properly __________. be turned
when it is waterborne seat properly tube
counterclockwise B
Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted
294329 1 Hatches Releasing gear lever Boat hooks Compass B
bright red?
Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted
294329 3 Buoyancy tanks Releasing gear lever Boat hooks Oars B
bright red?
With the sprinkler system and air system on, and
a fire and toxic a drop greater than ten
294332 1 all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected a nuclear environment a hurricane
environment feet B
from __________.

In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel,
294336 2 water should be given only to personnel who are thirsty sick or injured wet awake
__________. B
Some food and water
When should food or water be provided to should be consumed
294336 4 After 12 hours After 24 hours After 48 hours
survivors after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft? immediately and then not
until 48 hours later B
You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a
294336 6 liferaft or lifeboat. How much water per day should 1 can 1 pint 1 quart 1 gallon
you permit each person after the first 24 hours? B
Provided every effort is used to preserve body
moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how
294340 1 Up to 3 days Up to 14 days Up to 25 days Up to 35 days
long is it normally possible to survive in a survival
craft without stored quantities of water? B
Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as
preserve body moisture content by avoiding
294340 2 Up to 3 days 8 to 14 days 15 to 20 days 25 to 30 days
perspiration, how long is it normally possible to
survive without stored quantities of water? B
You are wearing a self-contained breathing
give two or three strong
apparatus while fighting a fire in an enclosed tug twice on your lifeline take a deep breath and
retreat immediately to exhalations to increase
294406 2 space. If sudden strong resistance to breathing is and slow your breathing remove your apparatus for
outside air the flow through the
experienced, your first action should be to until help arrives adjustment
apparatus
__________. B
Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the
A fresh air breathing A self-contained breathing
294407 1 wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide An ammonia gas mask All of the above
apparatus apparatus
oxygen to sustain life? B
To safely enter a closed compartment, where CO2
test the air with an Orsat wear a self- contained wear a canister type gas test the air with an
294408 2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing
apparatus breathing apparatus mask explosimeter
system, you should __________. B
While donning the positive-pressure self-
contained breathing apparatus, you discover that
the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator
294414 4 20 PSI 200 PSI 1000 PSI 2000 PSI
pressure gage differ from each other by 500 psi.
Which of the listed action should you consider as
appropriate? B
an oxygen breathing
A MODU must have a self-contained breathing the same self- contained a portable ventilation
a gas mask certified by apparatus, provided that
apparatus to be used as protection from gas breathing apparatus system that will provide a
294419 1 the Mine Safety and the device has been
leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this required with the fireman's complete change of air
Health Administration inspected within three
requirement, you may use __________. outfit every three minutes
years B
Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in Self-contained breathing
294424 1 Wet handkerchief Canister type mask Dust or gas mask B
a compartment with insufficient oxygen? apparatus
Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed
295000 10 ship's articles muster list bunk card forecastle card B
on the __________.
In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned,
295000 2 Certificate of Inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") Ship's Articles Fire Control Plan B
you should look at the __________.
In order to find out which liferaft you are assigned,
295000 14 Certificate of Inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") Ship's Articles Fire Control Plan B
you should look on the __________.
Where would you look to find out what your duties U.S. Coast Guard
295000 3 Ship's articles Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection B
are during a fire? Regulations

You can find the location of your abandon ship
295000 5 Certificate of Inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") vessel's logbook vessel's documentation B
post by checking the __________.
Seven short blasts and one long blast of the ship's
boat stations (abandon
295001 3 whistle and the same signal on the general alarm fire or emergency man overboard dismissal from drills
ship)
bell is sounded, this signal indicates __________.
B
more than six short blasts
three short blasts on the and one long blast on the rapid ringing of the ship's four long blasts on the
295001 4 The signal for abandon ship is __________. whistle or three rings on whistle and the same bell and general alarm for whistle and the same on
the general alarm signal on the general at least 10 seconds the general alarm
alarm B
More than six short blasts Steady rapid ringing of the Less than five short blasts
Three short blasts of the
and one long blast of the ship's bell for at least 10 and one long blast of the
Which of the following emergency signals are used whistle along with the
295001 1 whistle, along with the seconds, along with the whistle, along with the
to report for boat stations or boat drills? same signal on the
same signal on the same signal on the same signal on the
general alarm bells.
general alarm bells. general alarm bells. general alarm bells. B
More than six short blasts Steady rapid ringing of the Less than five short blasts
Three short blasts of the
and one long blast of the ship's bell for at least 10 and one long blast of the
Which of the following emergency signals are used whistle along with the
295001 8 whistle, along with the seconds, along with the whistle, along with the
to report for boat stations or boat drills? same signal on the
same signal on the same signal on the same signal on the
general alarm bells.
general alarm bells. general alarm bells. general alarm bells.
B
The signal given to commence lowering the 3 short blasts of the ship's 1 short blast of the ship's 3 long blasts of the ship's 1 long blast of the ship's
295002 3 B
lifeboats is __________. whistle whistle whistle whistle
The traditional signal to commence lowering 3 short blasts of the ships 1 short blast of the ships 3 long blasts of the ships 1 long blast of the ships
295002 7 B
lifeboats and liferafts is __________. whistle whistle whistle whistle
When whistle signals are used as commands for
use the float-free method drill is over, secure all
295002 4 launching the lifeboats, one short blast means lower all boats raise all boats
only boats B
__________.
While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal
295002 2 consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This abandon ship commence lowering boats stop lowering boats secure from boat stations
indicates __________. B
While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal
295002 6 consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This abandon ship commence lowering boats stop lowering boats secure from boat stations
indicates __________. B
If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a
period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented
295003 6 by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells boat station fire station man overboard station collision station
for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to
your __________. B
If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a
period of not less than 10 seconds; supplemented proceed to your man
295003 4 go to your lifeboat station go to your fire station standby for collision
by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells overboard muster station
for the same time period, you should __________.
B

The fire alarm signal onboard United States flag
merchant vessels is a continuous blast of the
whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
SOLAS Safety
295003 8 supplemented by the continuous ringing of the Certificate of Inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") Fire Alarm Zone Chart
Construction Certificate
general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
Where can this information be readily found
aboard ship? B
The fire alarm signal onboard United States flag
merchant vessels is a continuous blast of the
whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
SOLAS Safety
295003 12 supplemented by the continuous ringing of the Certificate of Inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") Fire Alarm Zone Chart
Construction Certificate
general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
Where can this information be readily found
aboard ship? B
Continuous blast of the
More than six short blasts
ship's whistle for a period Three short blasts of the
More than six short blasts and one long blast on the
Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard a vessel is of not less than 10 whistle supplemented by
295003 10 and one long blast on the whistle supplemented by
__________. seconds supplemented by the same signal on the
whistle. the same signal on the
the same signal on the general alarm.
general alarm.
general alarm.
B
Which of the following represents the emergency of not less than 10 whistle supplemented by
signal for fire aboard ship? seconds supplemented by the same signal on the
general alarm.
general alarm.
B
Which of the following represents the emergency of not less than 10 whistle supplemented by
signal for fire aboard ship? seconds supplemented by the same signal on the
general alarm.
general alarm.
B
the continuous blast of the
ships whistle for not less
than 10 seconds an intermittent ringing of
The signal for a fire emergency on an OSV is a 30 second on 30 second announced over the PA
295004 2 supplemented by the the general alarm for not
__________. off alternating signal system
continuous ringing of the less than ten seconds
general alarm bells for not
less than 10 seconds
B
During an emergency drill on a vessel, you hear
"three (3) short blasts on the whistle and three (3) dismissal from fire and
295006 2 abandon ship fire and emergency man overboard
short rings on the general alarm bells". This is the emergency stations
signal is for __________. B
When you hear three short blasts on the ship's
are required to be at your should point to the man
295006 1 whistle and the same signal on the general alarm are dismissed from drills should start the fire pump
liferaft overboard
bells, you __________. B

are required to go to your should point to the man
liferaft overboard
bells, you __________. B
are required to go to your should point to the man
liferaft overboard
bells, you __________. B
While reading the muster list, you see that 'three
short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same
295006 4 abandon ship dismissal from drills fire and emergency man overboard
signal on the general alarm bells' is the signal for
__________. B
At the required fire drill conducted aboard a
MODU, all persons must report to their stations in the Muster List ("Station by the person conducting at the previous safety
295011 1 by the tool pusher
and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties Bill") the drill meeting
assigned to them __________. B
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) states that
be comparable with their
295012 1 duties assigned to the crew by the Muster List be given on a bid basis not exceed regular hours be overtime duties
regular work B
("Station Bill") will __________.
You are replacing a section of heavy piping on Place an old mattress
Position several men Attach lines to the ends of
deck and using a chain fall to lift the pipe. Which of under the hoist to prevent Have a first aid kit at the
295101 1 under the pipe so they can the pipe and have your
the following precautions should be taken to the load from hitting the job site.
catch it if it falls. helpers steady the load.
prevent personal injury? deck. B
One precaution to take prior to working in a freshly
painted compartment where there are an wear a breathing keep a charged fire hose
295105 1 take shallow breaths of air ventilate the area
excessive amount of paint fumes, is to apparatus while working handy
__________. B
Survival practice in the MODU mooring system is adjust as evenly as tighten the anchor buoys
deballast the unit to transit release the anchors on
295200 2 to slack off the tensions on the leeward side and practical the windward on the leeward side
draft the windward side
__________. tensions anchors B
On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes
295202 1 Over speed trip. Air inlet shut off. Water injector. Fuel cutoff valve. B
which type of diesel engine shutdown desirable?
Some food and water
When should food and water be provided to
295511 1 After 12 hours After 24 hours After 48 hours immediately and then not
survivors after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft? B
until 48 hours later
In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel,
295512 1 water should be given only to personnel who are thirsty sick or injured wet awake
__________. B
Artificial resuscitation to an adult should be At least 30 times per
296000 6 4 to 6 times per minute 12 to 15 times per minute 20 to 30 times per minute B
administered __________. minute
When artificial respiration is being given to an adult
At least 30 times per
296000 3 that shows indications of having a pulse, it should 4 to 6 times per minute 12 to 15 times per minute 20 to 30 times per minute
minute
be administered __________. B
The most essential element in the administration of to have the proper the administration of the treatment for traumatic
296006 1 the speed of treatment
CPR is __________. equipment for the process oxygen shock
B
The most essential element in the administration of to have the proper the administration of the treatment for traumatic
296006 4 the speed of treatment
CPR is __________. equipment for the process oxygen shock
B
When administering artificial respiration, it is of the use the mouth-to- mouth use rhythmic pressure know all approved
296006 3 clear airways B
utmost importance to __________. method method methods

When administering artificial respiration, it is of the use the mouth-to mouth use rhythmic pressure know all approved
296006 6 clear airways B
utmost importance to __________. method method methods
The necessity for administering artificial respiration blue color and lack of
296009 1 vomiting irregular breathing unconscious condition
may be recognized by the victim's __________. breathing
B
The necessity for administering artificial respiration blue color and lack of
296009 3 vomiting irregular breathing unconscious condition
may be recognized by the victim's __________. breathing B
A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding when all other means when the victim is to prevent bleeding from
296100 1 with puncture wounds B
only __________. have failed unconscious minor wounds
As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to hold a large bandage in
296100 2 hold a victim in a stretcher stop uncontrolled bleeding restrain a delirious victim B
__________. place
A person has suffered a laceration of the arm.
Apply a tourniquet to Remove any small foreign Administer fluids to assist
Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a Apply a pressure bandage
296104 1 prevent the bleeding from matter and apply the body in replacing the
sterile dressing and direct pressure. Which of the over the dressing.
restarting. antiseptic. lost blood.
following actions should be taken next? B
have the patient lie down stop the bleeding, clean, apply an ice pack to the apply a hot towel to purge
First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds
296106 1 and cover the wound medicate, and cover the wound and cover it when the wound, then medicate
should be to __________.
when the bleeding stops wound the bleeding stops and cover it B
Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled applying direct pressure to heavy application of a pouring ice water directly
296108 1 pinching the wound closed B
by __________. the wound disinfectant into the wound
If a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb, you prevent further movement apply a tourniquet without alternately apply hot and
296201 2 attempt to set the fracture B
should __________. of the bone delay cold compresses
Unless there is danger of further injury, a person
radio advice has been the wound has been
296203 1 with a broken bone should not be moved until the bone has been set the fracture is immobilized
obtained washed B
bleeding is controlled and __________.
Which of the following treatments is used for Open clothing to allow Keep the victim in a sitting
296301 2 Administer CPR Administer fluids B
traumatic shock? cooling of the body position
avoid self-inflicted wounds protect the person from
When treating a person for shock, you should wrap preserve present body
296303 1 decrease body heat caused by spastic injury during
the victim in warm coverings to __________. heat
movement transportation B
If there is no head injury, extreme physical
discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in Flat on back with feet Flat on back with head
296304 1 Head up and feet down Arms above the head
shock should be placed in which of the positions raised 12 to 18 inches and feet at the same level
listed? B
A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm.
There is extensive damage to the skin with
296400 1 Dermal burn Third degree burn Second degree burn Lethal burn
charring present. This is an example of what kind
of burn? B
washing the area with a flooding, bathing, or covering the area with
Surface burns should first be treated by leaving them exposed to
296401 4 warm soap and water immersing the area in cool talcum power and
__________. the atmosphere
solution water bandaging tightly B
The FIRST action in the treatment of a person
move him to a cool confirm and maintain an apply cool damp dressing
296404 2 suspected of having airway burns is to have him drink cool liquids
location open airway to his neck
__________. B
The most effective first aid treatment for chemical apply ointment to burned flood the affected area wrap the burn with sterile apply an ice pack to the
296405 1 B
burns is to immediately __________. area with water dressing burned area

If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling
296408 1 a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with boric acid solution water baking soda solution ammonia
__________. B
Since electrical burn victims have been subjected
296500 2 to electric shock, the FIRST medical response is to indication of broken bones breathing and heartbeat location of burns bleeding injuries
check for __________. B
Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive loss of water and salt from intake of water when
296600 5 loss of body temperature gain in body temperature B
__________. the body working or exercising
Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive loss of water and salt from intake of water when
296600 10 loss of body temperature gain in body temperature B
__________. the body working or exercising
A crew member suffering from generalized
296603 3 a small dose of alcohol treatment for shock a large meal a brisk rub down B
hypothermia should be given __________.
A crew member suffering from generalized
hypothermia should be given __________.
Temperature falls below
Temperature is high, pulse Temperature is high, pulse Temperature falls below
Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun normal, pulse is rapid and
296605 2 is strong and rapid, and is slow and feeble, and normal, pulse is rapid, and
stroke? feeble, and skin is cold
skin is hot and dry. skin is clammy. skin is clammy.
and clammy. B
Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun normal, pulse is rapid and
296605 3 is strong and rapid, and is slow and feeble, and normal, pulse is rapid, and
stroke? feeble, and skin is cold
skin is hot and dry. skin is clammy. skin is clammy.
and clammy. B
If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is orange juice or a candy
296701 1 soda crackers and water an ounce of whiskey a glass of milk B
conscious, he should be given __________. bar
If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is orange juice or a candy
296701 2 soda crackers and water a cup of warm tea a glass of milk B
conscious, he should be given __________. bar
muscular convulsions with severe agitation and
Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder severe nausea and sudden thirst and craving
296703 1 partial or complete loss of desire to get out of close
characterized by __________. cramps for candy
consciousness spaces B
keep the patient awake
While providing assistance to a victim of an get professional medical remove any soiled
move a patient to a and make him walk if
296704 2 epileptic seizure, it is most important to advice for further medical clothing and put the
comfortable bed necessary to keep him
__________. care patient in a clean bed
awake B
Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in
296705 1 lower left side lower right side upper left side upper right side B
the abdomen located in the __________.
stomach cramps and reddening of skin and
296708 2 Symptoms of seasickness include __________. fever and thirst nausea and dizziness B
diarrhea hives
relieving the patient's pain avoiding possible injury to preventing convulsions
The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient providing enough fluids to
296709 1 by giving aspirin or the spinal cord by and muscle spasms
is __________. prevent dehydration B
stronger medication incorrect handling caused by the injury
Beginning at the back of
Prick the skin of the hands Selectively raise each arm Roll patient onto his
Which of the following procedures can be used for the neck, and proceeding
and the soles of the feet and each leg and watch stomach and prick along
296710 1 checking for spinal cord damage to an to the buttocks, press the
with a sharp object to patient's face to see if he the length of his spine to
unconscious patient? spine to find where it
check for reaction. registers pain. check reaction.
hurts.
B
The sorting of accident victims according to the
296713 1 evaluation triage surveying prioritizing B
severity of their injuries is called __________.

rapidly evaluate the
In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, provide the necessary accurately diagnose the prescribe treatment for the
296714 1 seriousness of obvious
the rescuer must be able to __________. medication ailment or injury victim
injuries B
avoid subjecting the victim not move the victim to a
If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life place the victim on a
to any unnecessary another location until all
296716 1 threatening situation, the person giving first aid pull the victim by the feet stretcher before
disturbance during injuries have been
must __________. attempting removal
movement assessed
B
296800 1 Antiseptics are used principally to __________. promote healing prevent infection reduce inflammation increase blood circulation B
296800 2 Antiseptics are used principally to __________. speed healing prevent infection reduce inflammation increase blood circulation B
You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a
296904 1 liferaft. How much water per day should you permit 1 can 1 pint 1 quart 1 gallon
each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours? B
When a rescuer discovers a burn victim in the remove the person from
shutdown electrical power flush water over any apply ointment to the
296905 1 vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first the vicinity of the electrical
in the area burned area of the victim burned area of the victim
step is to __________. equipment or wiring
B
Which of the following is classified as a grade "E"
297001 1 Benzene Bunker "C" Very light naphtha Most commercial gasoline B
combustible liquid?
flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8
297002 1 A C D E
1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below,
is a grade __________. B
a 2.0% concentration of
there is no possible there is no possible
Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% an ethylene oxide spill ethylene oxide in air would
ethylene oxide ethylene oxide
297100 1 and an upper explosive limit of 100% by volume in always results in an give a reading of 2.0% on
concentration in air which concentration in air which
air. This means __________. explosion a combustible gas
is too lean to burn is too rich to burn B
indicator
The explosive range of petroleum vapors when
297102 1 0% to 1% by volume 1% to 6% by volume 6% to 12% by volume 12% to 20% by volume B
mixed with air is __________.
An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a cargo tank during flash evaporator flash
297103 1 diesel engine cylinder fuel tank vent outlet B
__________. Butterworthing chamber
Fuel tanks should never be filled by cascading static electricity could be
excessive fuel vapors will spillage of fuel could occur water contamination of the
297103 3 liquid through an open hatch or manhole because generated by fuel falling
be released with an open hatch fuel could occur
__________. through vapor- laden air
B
When handling petroleum products, static
the flowing petroleum
297103 5 electricity is generated by moving machinery and a grounded person stray electric currents a short circuit
liquids
__________. B
Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" In a common vent header In a cargo tank during In a cargo tank during In the overflow line while
297103 6
on a tanker? during tank ballasting. "Butterworthing". inerting operations. topping off.
B
Any liquid with a flash point above 80°F is a
297104 3 flammable liquid combustible liquid coal base oil synthetic base oil B
__________.
The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are
297105 1 lighter than air heavier than air odorless nontoxic B
flammable, explosive, and __________.

The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are heavier
297105 2 odorless explosive nontoxic visible B
than air and are __________.
As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil
297106 2 remain the same increase decrease none of the above B
stored in a tank will __________.
The highest concentration of a harmful substance
297109 1 to which a person may be exposed without danger odor threshold threshold limit value vapor pressure tolerance point
to health, is termed the __________. B
By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is
297111 1 kerosene gasoline caustic potash animal and vegetable oils B
__________.
Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low
volatility, but the fumes will self-ignite and continue
297112 2 flash point ignition point volatility point upper explosive limit
to burn steadily if the fuel is heated to the
__________. B
If diesel fuel vapors in a compartment are an explosion may occur if
the vapor air mixture is too the vapor air mixture is too the upper explosive limit
297112 1 considered to be within the flammable range a source of ignition is
rich to burn lean to burn has been exceeded
__________. present B
A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is
297117 2 rich to burn lean to burn cool to burn dense to burn B
too __________.
the concentration above the percentage of
The Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) of a mixture of the concentration above the percentage of oxygen
which just enough flammable vapor by
297117 3 flammable vapors and air, is defined as which the mixture is too present in the air sufficient
flammable vapor exists to volume in the air sufficient
__________. rich to burn to support combustion
produce an explosion to create an explosion
B
Which of the following conditions is true
The mixture is too lean to The mixture is too rich to The vapor is about to Conditions are perfect for
297117 1 concerning flammable liquid vapors with a
burn. burn. explode. combustion.
concentration above the upper explosive limit? B
Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest A partially filled tank of A partially filled tank of
297118 1 A full tank of diesel oil A full tank of lubricating oil B
potential for an explosion? diesel oil hydraulic oil
upper and lower
percentage of vapor upper and lower two temperatures between
two temperatures between
The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the concentrations in an pressures between which which an atmosphere will
297119 2 which an atmosphere will
__________. atmosphere which will an atmosphere will not burn if an ignition source
self- ignite
burn if an ignition source burn is present
is present B
Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas calibrate the gas leak detect leaks in cargo
297204 1 inert the barrier spaces odorize the cargo B
carriers to __________. detectors piping
297254 1 CFR), you are required to test cargo discharge 6 months 12 months 18 months 24 months
piping every __________. B
When you have completed bunkering operations, drained into drip pans or stowed with their ends steam cleaned and
297302 1 blown down with inert gas B
the hoses should be __________. tanks open for venting flushed with hot water
"Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually
297309 1 provided with a water supply from the inert gas scrubber firemain mucking supply system potable water supply
__________. B
Posting of the Declaration
Which of the following operations must be Overboard disposal of all Sampling performed
of Inspection in a Topping off any tanks
297314 1 personally supervised by the person- in-charge waste oil or slops from periodically during loading
conspicuous place under being loaded.
when taking on fuel? drip pans. to ensure uniformity.
glass.
B

Posting of the Declaration

Which of the listed operations must be personally Disposing overboard all Periodic sampling during
of Inspection in a Topping off of any tanks
297314 2 supervised by the person-in- charge while taking waste oil or slops from the loading to ensure
conspicuous place under being loaded.
on fuel? drip pans. uniformity.
glass. B
The safe rate of bunkering heavy fuel oil is directly type of fuel transfer pump temperature of the fuel oil size of the fuel storage distance from the fuel oil
297321 2
related to the __________. aboard being received tanks ashore storage tanks ashore
B
When using portable tank cleaning machines, the the machine is inside the the machine is not inside a sailor is standing by the the hose has been
297326 1 B
hoses may be disconnected when __________. tank the tank machine partially drained
Which of the listed cargo hoses presents the
297332 1 greatest resistance to collapsing when operated Lightweight cargo hose Rough bore cargo hose Smooth bore cargo hose All of the above
under vacuum? B
Sufficient portable drive heads for a crude oil
washing system must be provided in order to avoid
297338 1 2 times 3 times 4 times 5 times
one head being used during the tank washing
procedure more than __________. B
To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude
oil washing process, due to the presence of water
in the crude oil washing fluid, the contents of any
297339 1 one-half meter one meter one and one-half meters two meters
tank to be used as a source of crude oil for
washing must first reduce a portion of the tank
contents by a vertical height equal to __________.
B
According to 33 CFR Part 155, to prevent the
to a level corresponding to to a level corresponding to to a level corresponding to to a level corresponding to
overflow of cargo tanks due to thermal expansion,
297400 1 the bottom of the 98.5 % of the cargo tank 1 to 3 inches from the tank 1 to 3 inches from top of
to what is the maximum level that cargo tanks are
expansion trunk volume top the vent pipe
allowed to be filled for topping-off purposes? B
The most critical part of the bunkering operations,
pumping operation is first
297403 1 which can result in an oil spill, is when the hose joints are made up tanks are being topped off system is being lined up
started
__________. B
During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate
297409 1 terminal operator person-in-charge master chief engineer
must be personally supervised by the __________.
B
After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-
volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be
297503 3 50 millimeters of water 100 millimeters of water 150 millimeters of water 200 millimeters of water
able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, with
a minimum of __________. B
Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be
fitted with an alarm to give an audible and visual
297505 1 4% by volume 8% by volume 12% by volume 16% by volume
warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas
exceeds __________. B
Each inert gas system gas main must have an
automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas
297507 2 cargo pump failure blower failure deck seal low water level low inert gas temperature
production plant. This valve must close
automatically upon __________. B
The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas maximum cargo pump size of the largest cargo
297508 3 shore side loading rate boiler forced draft fan rate B
system is related to the __________. discharge rate tank

Which of the following methods is used to supply
297512 1 inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo Exhaust gas pressure High capacity fan Inert gas compressor Natural aspiration
tanks? B
Each inert gas system must be equipped with the
following instruments: oxygen concentration
indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and after the gas regulating downstream of the upstream of the liquid
297513 1 scrubber outlet
recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of valve blowers filled breaker
measurement for these instruments must be
located __________. B
Which of the following represents the maximum
percent of oxygen, by volume, permitted to be
297514 3 less than 6% less than 8% less than 10% less than 12%
discharged by a ship's inert gas system when
operating properly? B
percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be
297514 1 6% 8% 10% 12%
achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the
commencement of crude oil tank washing? B
percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be
297514 2 6% 8% 10% 12%
achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the
commencement of crude oil tank washing? B
Each tank ship having an inert gas system must
have portable instruments to measure
concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert
297515 2 nitrogen oxygen carbon dioxide water vapor
atmospheres. The ship must also carry
instruments that can measure concentrations of
_________. B
supply conditioned gas
The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas produce 100% oxygen generate a high oxygen produce a gas of 100%
297516 1 with reduced oxygen
system is to _________. free gas content gas pure nitrogen
content B
undesirable and it may
likely to over pressurize likely to over heat the
297517 1 Excessive recirculation of inert gas is _________. highly recommended lead to high oxygen
the cargo tanks deck water seal
content of the inert gas B
Both crude oil washing and water washing use
direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. the solvent effect of the
297521 1 a higher pressure jet a higher temperature none of the above.
Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in crude oil
utilizing __________. B
When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and
297524 1 ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is clean ballast dirty ballast segregated ballast dedicated ballast
referred to as _________. B
When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering be stopped until the oil
be completed only after
the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the be completely discharged be terminated can settle out, then
297531 1 "load on top" has been
oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the in order to load automatically resumed at a slower
completed B
deballasting must _________. discharge rate
Repair of structures on a MODU in the vicinity of An oxygen-deficient
Toxic gasses may be Flammable gasses may Liquid muds may flood
297600 1 liquid mud handling areas presents which of the atmosphere may be
present. be present. adjoining spaces. B
possible listed hazards? present.
Explosive and flammable gases are most likely to on the drill floor and liquid
297601 1 in machinery spaces in bulk storage tanks at any location
be encountered on a MODU __________. mud handling areas
B

What information can be obtained from a marine The tanks which were The number of fire
The vessel's stability The quality of fuel in the
297650 4 chemist's certificate issued to an offshore supply safe to enter when the extinguishers required to
information vessel's tanks
vessel? certificate was issued be aboard B
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require
297663 1 electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel tanks, flame resistant explosion proof corrosion resistant moisture proof
to be battery powered and __________. B
A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety
Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates allergic-like
297700 1 skin contact hazard sensitizer pyrophoric hazard oxidizer
reaction in some people after repeated exposure is
__________. B
A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material
297702 2 Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can damage the pyrophoric teratogen mutagen cryogenic
fetus during development is called a __________. B
Data Sheet (MSDS) that can undergo a sudden
297703 6 combustible explosive flammable toxic
and violent release of pressure and heat is called
__________. B
Data Sheet (MSDS), that can spontaneously burst
297703 9 into flames when exposed to air at temperatures explosive pyrophoric unstable flammable
below 130°F (55.5°C) with no ignition source
needed, is called __________. B
The lowest temperature at which a liquid, listed on
a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off
297703 4 boiling point flash point viscosity point toxic point
enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an
ignition source is called its __________. B
The temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a
297703 3 Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), will change to flash point boiling point condensation point reactive point
a gas is called its __________. B
Which of the following terms is the minimum
temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a
297703 5 Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off Explosion point Flash point Fire point Danger point
sufficient vapor concentration to ignite in the
presence of an ignition source? B
A written document identifying chemical material,
listing its physical properties, describing health
hazards, required controls, correct procedures for
297705 2 HCIS MSDS PELS PPES
firefighting, spill or leak cleanup, waste disposal,
and the safe handling and storage of the material,
is called an __________. B
If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Paints or coatings that are The name of each Other similar mixtures of
297707 2 None of the above.
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify? safe to use with it. hazardous ingredient. liquids, solids or gases.
B
The physical data term on a Material Safety Data
297708 1 Sheet (MSDS) describing whether a liquid is lighter solubility specific gravity viscosity flotation point
or heavier than water is __________. B
In a closed container of liquid, the force exerted by
297709 2 vapor on the walls of the container above the liquid storage pressure vapor pressure over-pressure reactive pressure
surface is called __________. B

CFR), the minimum number of bolts permitted in
298000 1 three four six nine
an ANSI standard flange on an oil hose is
__________. B
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR), what is the minimum
298000 2 2 bolts 4 bolts 6 bolts 8 bolts
number of bolts required in a temporarily
connected standard ANSI coupling? B
The minimum number of bolts necessary for a
298000 3 standard ANSI oil transfer hose temporary flange two bolts four bolts six bolts eight bolts
coupling (eight bolt hole flange) is __________. B
According to 33 CFR's, an oceangoing ship of over
400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard
discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle
298001 2 125 mm 183 mm 215 mm 250 mm
diameter is required for this shore connection to
transfer oily ballast to a shore side reception
facility? B
To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when
open sea suction valves, start the cargo pump, then open block valves, then open sluice valves, then
298006 1 ballasting through the cargo piping system, you
then start the cargo pump open sea suction valves start the cargo pump start the cargo pump
should FIRST __________. B
An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated
transfer the oil to the sea pump the oil into the slop discharge the oil over the pump the oil into a clean
298007 1 oil found in the pump room bilges is to
chest tanks side on an outgoing tide ballast tank
__________. B
Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be
298009 3 discharged overboard without being processed Cargo tank ballast Segregated ballast Engine room bilges Cargo pumproom bilges
through an oily water separator? B
the terminal foreman is the hose leak is securely a drip pan is placed under
298011 1 CFR), if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its the hose is replaced
notified wrapped the leak
fabric, you may transfer oil after __________. B
If a leak in a fueling hose coupling cannot be reduce the pumping spread absorbent material notify the local port
stop the fueling operation
298011 3 stopped by tightening the coupling joint, you pressure to reduce the on deck beneath the leak authority of a potential oil
and correct the leak
should __________. leakage rate in order to confine it spill
B
Small oil spills on deck may be prevented from keeping the drip pans plugging all scuppers and placing floating booms closing ullage openings
298015 2 B
entering the water by __________. empty drains alongside the ship between soundings
Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude
298017 1 oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded clean ballast dirty ballast segregated ballast crude oil
as __________. B
more than the sum of the at least four times the sum more than the maximum
CFR), the maximum allowable working pressure at least 600 psi (4.14
298018 3 pressure of the relief valve for the pressure of the pump pressure when a
(MAWP) for each hose assembly used for MPa)
setting relief valve setting relief valve is not installed
transferring oil must be __________. B
use a fixed container or
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 use one gallon portable use an automatic back
enclosed deck area under fill fuel tanks forward of
298020 2 CFR), a vessel built in 1977 with a gross registered containers under tank pressure shut off nozzle
or around each lube oil the collision bulkhead first
tonnage of 219 tons, must __________. vents when fueling when fueling
tank vent when fueling B
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) lube oil purifiers into the fuel oil heaters into lube oil strainers into drip
298027 2 waste oil into the slop tank B
prohibit draining __________. bilge buckets pans

The Federal Pollution Prevention Regulations (33
298031 1 CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the Port Authority U.S. Coast Guard Corps of Engineers State Pollution Board
__________. B
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 Foreign vessels when
foreign vessels not in U.S. U.S. Vessels 26 feet or U.S. vessels less than 26
298033 1 CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is engaged in
navigable waters more in length feet in length
required on all __________. noncommercial service B
having undergone a major
having undergone a major
Some Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), for which the building conversion for which the
conversion and has been the delivery of which is on
298035 1 only apply to "new ships." Under these regulations, contract has been placed contract was placed
completed before or after June 10, 1975
a new ship is a ship __________. after December 31, 1975 between June 30, 1974
December 31, 1979
and December 31, 1975
B
Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by discharging it to a pumping or throwing it dumping it in fuel storage
298036 1 draining it into the bilges
__________. dockside oil waste station over the side in port tanks
B
If a vessel moored at a U.S. terminal does not
comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention
298037 1 Inspector General Captain of the Port local port authority state pollution board
Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the
__________. B
According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 CFR
151), who is responsible for insuring that a ship is
298040 1 U.S. Coast Guard Vessel's Master Vessel owner Vessel operating company
not operated unless a waste management plan is
utilized? B
any garbage that comes the resultant sludge that is
the final discharge of the final waste product of
298044 1 Victual waste is __________. from food or food collected after water
sewage treatment plants a manufacturing process
provisions washing a boiler B
A passenger vessel
Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from
A vessel engaged in the equipped with a USCG A crude oil tanker
mandatory requirements on ballast water United States Navy
298046 1 foreign export of Alaskan approved system engaged in the coastwise
management for control of non-indigenous species frigate.
North Slop Crude Oil. designed to kill aquatic trade.
in waters of the United States?
organisms in ballast water. B
The tanks used for oily waste on a new ocean
going cargo ship of 6000 gross tons must meet
298100 1 certain requirements for isolation between oil and 33 CFR 155.370(b)2 46 CFR 56.50-50(h) 33 CFR 151.23(a)2 46 CFR 74.15-10(b)
bilge systems. These requirements are set forth in
__________. B
According to 33 CFR Part 155, a 1500 gross ton a container with a capacity
freight vessel, with a keel laid in 1969, must have a portable containers of at of 3 barrels if it serves one
self-closing scupper
298101 2 fuel oil discharge containment for the fuel tank least 5 U.S. gallon 20 inch high coamings or more vents; each with
drains
vents. This containment must consist of capacity an inside diameter of 3
__________. inches or more
B
A tank vessel with an oil cargo capacity of 5000
barrels is required by regulations to have a fixed inside transfer hose
number of cargo oil tank
container, or enclosed deck area under or around diameter or loading arm
298109 1 cargo oil service pressure vents, overflows and fill all of the above
each oil loading manifold and each oil transfer nominal pipe size
pipe connections
connection point. The capacity of these diameter
containment areas is based upon __________. B

wash down immediately
If an oil spill occurs on deck, you should cover the area with wash down immediately
298200 2 cover the area with foam with an oil dispersing
__________. absorbent material with a fire hose
solvent B
remove plugs from remove plugs from
remove plugs from use absorbent material,
When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill scuppers to allow the spill scuppers and wash the
298200 1 scuppers and wash fuel such as sawdust, to clean
occurs on deck, you should __________. to run overboard and wipe fuel overboard with a
overboard with water up the spill
the area dry with rags solvent
B
The most common type of containment device for
298201 1 straw booms skimmers chemical dispersants B
spilled oil on the water is the use of __________.
need not be reported
If 1/4 liter of oil is spilled during fueling and causes must be reported to the must be reported to the must be reported to the
298208 3 since the spill was less
a sheen upon the water, it __________. fire department Coast Guard harbormaster B
then 1 barrel
need not be reported
If a cup of oil is spilled during fueling and causes a must be reported to the must be reported to the must be reported to the
298208 1 since the spill was less
sheen upon the water it __________. fire department Coast Guard harbormaster
than 250 barrels B
While your vessel is fueling, you notice that the
transfer hose has developed a large bulge. Which
Wrap the bulge area with Report the incident to the Simply order new hose for
298301 1 of the following actions should be taken, according Stop the transfer of fuel.
nylon line. Coast Guard the next fueling operation.
to Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), if you are
the person-in-charge? B
You are taking on fuel when you notice oil in the
notify the U.S. Coast notify the Army Corps of
298306 3 water around your vessel. You should immediately begin cleanup operation leave the area
Guard Engineers
stop fueling and __________. B
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations,
any ship operating under the authority of the
United States which engages in coastwise or
298400 2 international voyages is prohibited from 33 CFR 150 33 CFR 151 33 CFR 156 33 CFR 159
discharging any oil or oily mixture overboard while
in a "special area". The descriptions of the "special
areas" are designated in __________. B
The International Oil Pollution Certificate required
International Maritime American Bureau of Environmental Protection
298550 1 by MARPOL is issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the U.S. Coast Guard
Organization Shipping Agency
__________. B
International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
298556 1 Certificates are required for each U.S. oil tanker at 100 gross registered tons 150 gross registered tons 300 gross registered tons 400 gross registered tons
or above __________. B
Disinfected and Disinfected and

Uncomminuted sewage Uncomminuted sewage
comminuted sewage from comminuted sewage from
from an approved system from an approved system
Which of the following statements is true an approved system may an approved system may
may be discharged into may be discharged into
298570 2 concerning the overboard discharge of vessel be discharged into the be discharged into the
the sea, if the vessel is the sea, if the vessel is
sewage at sea? sea, if the vessel is more sea, if the vessel is more
more than six nautical more than ten nautical
than two nautical miles than three nautical miles
miles from nearest land. miles from nearest land.
from nearest land. from nearest land.
B
bonding cables are flange couplings are scuppers and drains are an oil containment boom
298602 1 require that no person may transfer oil to or from a
installed on all tanks properly bolted unplugged is ready for immediate use B
vessel unless __________.

The senior deck officer The designated person-in- Any local Coast Guard
298608 1 (33 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil The captain of the port
present charge representative
transfer may begin? B
According to 33 CFR Part 156, no person may
unless radio
serve as the person-in- charge of oil transfer unless authorized by the unless the vessels are
298621 3 under any circumstances communication is set up
operations on more than one vessel at a time Captain of the Port moored clear of all docks
between the vessels
__________. B
No person may serve as the person-in- charge of unless radio
unless authorized by the unless the vessels are
298621 1 oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at under any circumstances communication is set up
Captain of the Port moored clear of all docks
a time __________. between the vessels B
A 6" inside diameter
nonmetallic oil transfer
Each pressure gauge in Each nonmetallic oil
hose having a small slash
Which of the following statements concerning oil the system must indicate transfer hose, larger than
penetrating the hose
298623 1 transfer, related equipment, tests and inspections a reading that is within 5% a 3" inside diameter must All of the above.
reinforcement may remain
is true? of the actual system be inspected, and tested
in service if there is no
pressure. annually.
visible internal
deterioration. B
detailed listing of all
The sections of an Oil Record Book preceding the damage control plan for list of machinery space complete classification of organizations to call in the
298707 1
log pages contain a __________. isolating firemain valves operation items hazardous materials event of an accidental oil
spill B
A ship of 150 gross tons A non-tanker that carries A ship of 200 gross tons
Which ship must maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast An oil tanker of 100 gross
298721 1 or above, other than an oil more than 200 cubic or above, other than an oil
Operations) of the Oil Record Book? tons or above.
tanker. meters of oil in bulk. tanker.
B
Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not discharging at an is within "Special Areas"
more than 12 nautical
discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo instantaneous rate of oil defined in Regulation 1
298723 1 miles from the nearest at anchor or stopped
tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless content not exceeding 30 (10) of Annex I to
land
the vessel is ________. liters per nautical mile MARPOL 73/78 B
the operating instructions
According to Coast Guard regulations (CFR 33), all information ordinarily a one-line schematic of
an explanation and for any and all oily-water
298901 1 the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan must provided in the oil record the plan to be
purpose of this plan separators installed
include __________. book implemented
aboard the vessel
B
Which of the following is NOT a mandatory
steps to control a national and local
298902 1 requirement of the shipboard oil pollution reporting requirements diagrams
discharge coordination
emergency plan? B
Records for ground
Discharging or transfer of Maintaining records for
garbage disposal are not The recording of garbage
Which statement regarding garbage disposal is garbage while in port to a the incineration of
299001 1 required when disposal disposal should include
correct? shore facility must be garbage aboard ship is
into the sea occurs more the approximate weight.
recorded. not required.
than 25 miles offshore.
B

no record is required if
the U.S. Coast Guard records must be provided dumping is carried out
When dumping garbage into the sea, other than in an entry into the official
299002 1 must be notified for each and maintained for two more than 25 miles
special areas, __________. log book must be made
occurrence years offshore and there is no
included plastic material
B
Ocean vessel Ballast Water Management
299021 1 33 CFR Part 110 33 CFR Part 151 46 CFR Part 35 46 CFR Part 56 B
Regulations can be found in __________.
On a rigid liferaft which is equipped with all the
299100 1 required equipment you will NOT find a bailer bilge pump first aid kit painter
__________. B
A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of
299103 1 survivors to hold on to while in the water would be life ring life float inflatable liferaft survival capsule
correctly called a __________. B
They provide sufficient
Only a light layer of A puncture in suit will not
Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and floatation to do away with They should be tight
299108 1 clothing may be worn appreciably reduce its
their use? the necessity of wearing a fitting.
underneath. value.
life jacket. B
The immersion suit
Not all models will The suit is flameproof and The suit provides a full
reduces the rate of body
automatically turn an provides protection to a range of body movement
299110 3 Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? cooling and increases the
unconscious person face- wearer swimming in and is suitable for routine
survival time in cold water
up in the water. burning oil, wear on deck.
to hours or days.
B
If you find an inflatable liferaft with the steel bands
299150 1 still in place around its case, you should double wrap with line leave the bands in place tell the Mate remove the bands yourself
__________. B
a heavy metal anchor with a cone shaped bag used
a pad eye to which the made of wood, if it is an
299152 4 A sea anchor is __________. an extra long line used to to slow down the wind drift
sea anchor is made fast approved type
anchor in deep water effect
B
When a sea anchor for survival craft is properly completely stop the prevent the survival craft prevent the survival craft
299152 2 help to prevent broaching
rigged, it will __________. survival craft from drifting from pitching from rolling
B
The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be in one of the equipment in a special pocket on the on a cord hanging from in a pocket on the first aid
299157 1
located __________. bags exterior of the canopy the canopy kit B
You must insure that lifesaving equipment is inaccessible to on the topmost deck of the
__________. passengers vessel at all times
The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can examining the Certificate examining the plate on the referring to the Muster List referring to the Shipping
299171 1
be determined by __________. of Inspection outside of the container ("Station Bill") Articles
B
Information on the specification of a rescue boat examining the certificate examining the nameplate referring to the Muster List referring to the shipping
299172 1
can be found by __________. of inspection on the transom ("Station Bill") articles B
For the purpose of training and drills, rescue boats
299200 1 on an OSV should be launched if reasonable and once a week once a month once a year twice a year
practicable __________. B
An approved signaling device required on
299300 1 pistol orange smoke signal air horn lantern B
inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

The lubber's line of a magnetic compass indicates the vessel's is always parallel to the is located on the compass
299352 2 always shows true north B
__________. heading vessel's transom card
The lubber's line of a magnetic compass indicates the direction of the a relative bearing taken
299352 3 compass north magnetic north B
__________. vessel's head with an azimuth circle
A vessel heading NE is on a course of
299355 10 022.5° 045.0° 067.5° 090.0° B
__________.
A vessel heading SE is on a course of
299355 7 112.5° 135.0° 157.5° 180.0° B
__________.
A vessel heading SW is on a course of
299355 4 202.5° 225.0° 247.5° 270.5° B
__________.
The breaking strength of the service lines of the
299391 1 rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket 300 lbs 500 lbs 1000 lbs 1500 lbs
type line throwing appliances is __________. B
An approved servicing
299401 1 Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft? The Chief Mate Shipyard personnel A certified lifeboatman B
facility
299401 2 Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft? The person in Charge Shipyard personnel A certified lifeboatman B
facility
The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line
299404 1 strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded one knot two knots five knots ten knots
liferaft at a speed of at least __________. B
A regular service line An entry about the test
What is NOT requirement for testing the line The appliance should be A regular projectile should
299405 1 should be used when must be made in the
throwing appliance on a vessel? tested every three months be used when testing
testing Official Log Book B
The painter of an inflatable liferaft must have a
299406 1 36 feet 50 feet 100 feet 300 feet B
minimum length of __________.
A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people in ocean
299410 2 service is required by regulation to carry 8 liters of fresh water 12 liters of fresh water 12 units of provisions 24 units of provisions
__________. B
When scheduled service is required on an
299412 1 inflatable liferaft, who should perform the tests and The chief mate Shipyard personnel A certified lifeboatman
facility B
inspections?
Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and
299413 2 inspected at a USCG approved servicing facility six months twelve months eighteen months twenty-four months
every __________. B
A person who gets battery acid in an eye should
299458 1 boric acid solution water baking soda solution ammonia B
IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.
keep the patient awake
remove any soiled
While providing assistant to a victim of an epileptic prevent patient from and make him/her walk if
299461 1 give artificial respiration clothing and put the
seizure, it is most important to __________. hurting himself necessary to keep him/her
patient in a clean bed B
awake
immediately give a
A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops immediately check his make the victim
299462 1 administer oxygen stimulant, by force if
breathing. You must __________. pulse and start CPR comfortable in a bunk B
necessary
normal, pulse is rapid and
299466 2 What are the symptoms of sunstroke? is strong and rapid, skin is is slow and feeble, skin is normal, pulse is rapid,
feeble, skin is cold and
hot and dry. clammy. skin is clammy. B
clammy.
stomach cramps and reddening of skin and
299469 2 Symptoms of seasickness include __________. fever and thirst nausea and dizziness B
diarrhea hives

relieving the patient's pain avoiding possible injury to preventing convulsions
The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient providing enough fluids to
299471 3 by giving aspirin or the spinal cord by and muscle spasms
is __________. prevent dehydration
stronger medication incorrect handling caused by pain B
Beginning at the back of
Prick the skin of the hands Selectively raise each arm Roll patient onto his
the neck, and proceeding
What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord and the soles of the feet and each leg and watch stomach and prick along
299471 2 to the buttocks, press the
damage in an unconscious patient? with a sharp object to patient's face to see if he the length of hos spine to
spine to find out where it
check for reaction resisters pain check reaction
hurts B
Give them brandy or other
Keep them moving to Warm them under an
Which procedure should be followed when alcoholic stimulation to Move them to a warm
stimulate circulation to electric blanket to rapidly
299474 1 individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer promote a return to an room to gradually raise
raise their body regain normal body
from hypothermia? acceptable body their body temperature.
temperature. temperature.
temperature.
B
A crew member suffering from hypothermia should
be given __________.
In the illustration shown, the righting strap is shown
299504 1 8 9 12 16 SF-0042 B
as item number __________.
In the illustration shown, the pressure relief valve is
299507 1 3 4 9 11 SF-0042 B
indicated as item number __________.
In the illustration shown, the external lifelines are
299509 1 1 12 15 21 SF-0042 B
shown as item number __________.
As shown in the illustration, item #8 would be a(n) rain water catchment tube
299510 1 recognition light pressure relief valve floating sheath knife SF-0042 B
__________. assembly
In the illustration shown, the CO2 tripping lanyard
299511 1 12 15 17 18 SF-0042 B
is item number __________.
In the illustration shown, the weak link is item
299512 1 7 17 19 23 SF-0042 B
__________.
oil soaked rags are
Hazardous conditions exist which may result in powdered aluminum is dry metal turnings
290051 1 stowed in the machine all of the above
spontaneous combustion when __________. stowed dry accumulate
shop A
Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in overloaded electrical dirty swabs and cleaning
290051 8 rags soaked in linseed oil partially loaded fuel tanks A
__________. circuits gear
Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in overloaded electrical wet swabs and cleaning
290051 10 oil soaked rags partially loaded fuel tanks A
__________. circuits gear
The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat,
Any one component can Any two components must Any three components All four components must
oxygen and a chain reaction. Which of the
290053 2 be eliminated to be eliminated to properly must be eliminated to be eliminated to
following statements best describes what must be
extinguish a fire. extinguish a fire. properly extinguish a fire. extinguish any fire. A
eliminated to extinguish a fire?
Besides heat, fuel, and oxygen, which of the
290054 3 Chain reaction Thermal action Chemical occlusion Pyrotechnical reaction A
following is necessary for a fire to exist?
Except in rare cases, the most difficult condition to
interrupting the chain
290055 2 modify when fighting an oil fire in the engine room removing the fuel removing the heat removing the oxygen
reaction
bilge would be __________. A
The heat generated by a compartment that is on
fire can be transferred through a metal bulkhead or
290100 6 conduction radiation convection absorption
deck. This process describes heat transfer by
____________. A

The heat generated by a fire can be transferred
290100 2 through a bulkhead or deck, as a direct result of conduction radiation convection advection
__________. A
To prevent the spread of fire by conduction, you cool the bulkheads around remove combustibles from close all openings to the
290100 5 shut off all electric power A
should __________. the fire direct exposure area
Fire dampers prevent the fire spreading through
290101 5 convection conduction radiation direct contact A
the process of __________.
In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry
chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed
290107 1 extinguishing systems are automatically activated fusible link stack switch thermostat pyrostat
through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring
and a __________. A
In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower
290108 1 must be closed to prevent the spread of fire convection conduction radiation ventilation
by____________. A
moisture condenses in the most tank coatings give
A tank which has been sealed for a long period of steel surfaces consume sealed tanks usually form
290202 5 tank, displacing the off poisonous vapors in
time can be dangerous because __________. oxygen by rusting a vacuum
oxygen the presence of moisture
A
If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended
period, it will be unsafe to enter the steam and insufficient oxygen to a heavy concentration of excessive carbon dioxide toxic gases from organic
290202 2
water drum immediately after it has been opened, support life sewer gas in the drum decomposition
as there may be __________. A
Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should the forced ventilating the cargo pumps are a suitable gas mask is the oily water separator is
290202 3 A
ensure that __________. system is operating secured available de- energized
Hydrogen sulfide gas has an odor of "rotten eggs" it will paralyze the
290206 6 and can be extremely toxic and dangerous when respiratory system and it is lighter than air it is an extremely inert gas all of the above
above threshold limit values because ________. cause suffocation A
If hydrogen sulfide exposure is anticipated, fixed
monitoring devices aboard a MODU should have a
290219 1 low level concentration alarm to alert personnel 10 ppm 20 ppm 30 ppm 40 ppm
when concentrations of this gas first reach a
maximum of __________. A
If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free Opening switches in the Closing switches adjacent Securing all power to the
Leaving electrical circuits
290303 1 space, which of the following actions would be the space to de- energize to the space to operate space from a remote
energized in the space.
most hazardous to perform? circuits. vent fans. location. A
Watertight doors which All fire pumps shall be
Which of the following events shall be conducted All lifeboat equipment
290306 3 are in the drill area shall started and all exterior All of the above.
during a fire and boat drill? shall be examined.
be operated. outlets opened. A
Which of the following actions should be taken by The fixed CO2 system The engine room
The fire pump should be The boiler fires should be
290307 5 the engine room watch when the general alarm is should be initiated into ventilation should be
started. secured.
sounded continuously? action. secured. A
One man report the fire, One man report the fire,
Which of the following statements represents the One man report the fire, All three men fight the fire
one man fight the fire, and one man fight the fire, and
290307 10 correct action to take when three crew members and the other two men and report it immediately
one man evacuate and one man act as a safety
discover a fire? fight the fire. after it is extinguished.
secure the area. observer. A
Smoking in bed on a MODU is prohibited unless another person is
290400 1 at all times during evening hours during drilling operations A
__________. present

An inventory of rescue An inspection and
During a fire drill on a MODU, which of the Each fire pump is to be The lifeboat is to be
290401 2 and fire equipment is to be inventory of fire hoses is
following actions is required to be carried out? started. launched and operated.
taken. to be made. A
On a MODU, a fire drill shall be conducted once
290401 1 week month crew change other week A
every __________.
What is the minimum required number of fire axes
290404 2 that must be carried on a mobile offshore drilling 2 3 4 5
unit? A
Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked an arrow pointing to the
290405 3 the letter "E" a no smoking symbol the word 'DANGER' A
with __________. nearest exit
In the case of an injury, causing a person to be
the nearest Marine Safety
incapacitated for more than 72 hours, the master the American Bureau of
290406 5 or Marine Inspection the nearest hospital the Department of Energy
or person- in- charge of a mobile offshore drilling the Shipping
Office
unit must submit a report to __________. A
The date of each fire and boat drill conducted on a on the Certificate of on the Muster List
290407 1 in the official logbook in the Operations Manual A
MODU must be recorded __________. Inspection ("Station Bill")
A corrosion resistant fine mesh wire screen is
passage of flames into the entry of rodents into the debris stopping up the water from entering the
290503 5 commonly fitted to the end of tank vent piping to
tank tank vent pipe tank
prevent ________. A
Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion flames entering through escape of flammable
290503 2 corrosion in the tank vent damage to the ball check A
resistant screens to prevent __________. the tank vent vapors
According to CFRs, open tank hatches from tanks
290504 1 which are not gas free, and unattended, must be flame screens warning signs P.V. valves stop-check valves
protected by __________. A
The component shown in the illustration would be Combined fixed
290550 1 installed in which of the following types of fire Fixed temperature Rate-of-rise temperature and rate- of- Line type pneumatic SF-0004
detection systems? rise A
the presence of harmful
the amount of oxygen in a concentrations of
290600 3 An oxygen indicator will detect __________. amounts of carbon all of the above
space explosive gas
monoxide A
amount of combustible
the amount of oxygen in concentration of CO2 as a
The oxygen indicator is an instrument that gas as a percentage of
290600 4 the atmosphere of a percentage of oxygen in a None of the above
measures the __________. the lower explosive limit in
confined space confined space
a confined space A
The explosive range of a mixture of flammable
vapors and air lies between the lower and upper flammable vapor by the lower limit of oxygen present to support the temperature of the
290606 1
explosive limits. These limits are specified as a volume in air explosibilty of the mixture combustion flash point
percentage of __________. A
The explosive range of a mixture of flammable
flammable vapor by oxygen present to support the temperature of the the lower limit of
290606 2 vapors is specified as a percentage of
volume in air combustion flash point explosibility of the mixture
__________. A
The vapor explosive range of gasoline by volume
is 1.0% to 6.0% in air. If a gasoline tank is sampled
290611 1 with an explosimeter, and the reading obtained is 0.3% by volume 0.6% by volume 1.3% by volume 6.3% by volume
30% L.E.L., the vapor concentration at the sample
point is __________. A
Combustible gas indicators detect flammable
measuring the vapor
290618 2 gases, or vapors present in the atmosphere by an burning the vapors metering the vapors weighing the vapor
volume A
intricate system which includes __________.

rise? A
Coast Guard Regulations apply to which of the The assembled lifeline The combustible gas All protective clothing
The flashlight shall be
290701 2 following requirements of the equipment required shall have a breaking indicator hose must be must be electrically
Type II or Type III.
to be in a fireman's outfit? strength of 2,500 pounds. 100 feet in length. nonconducting.
A
Part 92), a bulkhead capable of preventing the
290800 1 A-60 B-60 C-60 D-60
passage of smoke and flame for one hour would
be classified as a/an __________. A
The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and
remote ventilation smoke and/or fire
290801 1 enclosed mud handling spaces to have remote pump shutdowns alternative control stations
shutdowns detection system
__________. A
According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), a
290804 1 fire door that is held open by magnets may be stairway enclosure wheelhouse engine room All of the above
found in the __________. A
will completely remove does not leave a harmful
Water fog is an effective fire extinguishing agent will completely remove
291000 2 has a great cooling ability combustible vapors from residue on electrical
because it __________. toxic fumes from the air
the air machinery A
Which of the following fire extinguishing agents
291000 4 Water fog Dry chemical Chemical foam Carbon dioxide A
has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?
The most effective method of extinguishing a class using a sodium based dry using nonconducting
291052 1 quenching and cooling blanketing and smothering A
"A" fire is by __________. chemical extinguishers
Which of the listed classes of fires can best be
291052 4 Class A and B Class A and C Class B and C Class A, B, and C A
extinguished with a water fog?
A solid stream of water might be useful in fighting a
to wash burning oil over to provide cooling for the in conjunction with
291055 4 burning oil fire on deck when it is used to cool the main deck
the side fire fighters chemical foam A
__________.
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would
Mechanical firefighting
291055 1 be incorrect for the direct use on a gasoline or oil A solid stream of water Low velocity water fog High velocity water fog
foam A
fire?
You are in charge of the hose team assigned to
cool the upper boundaries of the fire shown in
291062 1 figure 1 of the illustration. Which hose would you I II Both I and II Neither I or II SF-0013
use to safely accomplish this task?
I. Hose I II. Hose II A
set up a hose team to cool
A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge close all openings and advance the hose team the door, then open the
increase the ventilation to
291064 3 room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire you ventilation dampers to the into the room without any door and extinguish the SF-0013
the involved space
should __________. involved space additional action fire using a type B-II
extinguisher A

When fighting a large fire on your vessel and station personnel on the
rotate personnel due to stay low by kneeling or
291068 1 attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is hot deck immediately All of the above
heat stress crouching on the deck
important to __________. above the fire A
mechanical foam pickup
The device shown in the illustration and indicated low velocity fog applicator mechanical foam nozzle in chemical foam applicator
291101 2 tube in the all- purpose SF-0011
by the letter "E" holds the __________. in the all- purpose nozzle the all- purpose nozzle in the all- purpose nozzle
nozzle A
change to a small nozzle
In order to produce a high velocity water fog using pull the nozzle handle push the nozzle handle insert an in-line fog tip after changing the
291102 4
an all-purpose nozzle, you must __________. halfway back completely forward applicator position of the nozzle
handle A
The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle forward: off, center: fog, forward: solid stream, forward: fog, center: solid forward: off, center: solid
291102 9 A
are __________. back: solid stream center: fog, back: off stream, back: off stream, back: fog
When the handle is in position "C", the device
291102 7 no water flow a solid stream low velocity fog high velocity fog SF-0011 A
shown in the illustration will produce __________.
Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into position "B", secure the position "A", depress position "C", secure the
position "C", operate catch
291151 7 the device shown in the illustration, you must place water pressure, and turn piece "D", and open catch water pressure, and turn SF-0011
"E", and remove piece "D"
the handle in __________. piece "D" to your right "E" piece "D" to your left
A
The correct name for the devices shown in the
291151 2 low velocity fog applicator in-line foam applicator high velocity fog applicator smooth bore water nozzle SF-0026 A
illustration is a/an __________.
The low velocity fog applicator used in conjunction
stored in the rack when attached to the nozzle by coated with heavy grease left in place in the all-
291151 1 with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle, should
not in actual use the chain to prevent corrosion purpose nozzle A
always be __________.
insert the applicator in the insert the applicator in the
replace the high velocity replace the high velocity
solid stream outlet of the solid stream outlet of the
To prepare a low velocity fog applicator for use, tip with the fog applicator tip with the applicator and
291151 6 all- purpose nozzle and all- purpose nozzle and
__________. and pull the handle to the pull the handle back all
pull the handle back half pull the handle back to the
middle position the way back
way solid stream position
A
When approaching a fire from windward, you
291160 1 should shield firefighters from the fire by using an low-velocity fog high-velocity fog a straight stream of water foam spray
applicator and __________. A
so the hose can be
Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire after the hose has been with the nozzle in the solid so the nozzle is protected
291200 5 connected quickly if a fire
station in the hose rack __________. completely drained stream position by the hose
occurs A
female end and nozzle
Normally, fire hose should be stowed with the female end connected to male end attached to the female end connected to
291200 3 arranged to be quickly run
__________. the fire hydrant fire hydrant the nozzle A
out to the fire
Hose spanner wrenches should be used to hose spreaders for
291201 3 fire hoses to fire hydrants two female hose couplings two male hose couplings A
connect __________. attaching new fittings
If the threads and gasket of a fire hose coupling
are in good condition, the minimum mechanical
291201 1 advantage necessary for making a watertight your hands a hose wrench a monkey wrench a coupling wrench
connection to another hose coupling can be
developed with __________. A
Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must connected to the fire capped on the ends for supplied with a smooth open to the air to prevent
291202 1 A
always be __________. hydrant protection bore nozzle rot

a spanner wrench suitable lined or unlined hose,
A fire station located in the engine room, is a 6 foot or 10 foot low
291207 3 for the size of hose at that depending upon its all of the above
required by regulations to have __________. velocity fog applicator
station location A
According to 46 CFR part 95, each shipboard fire
hydrant is required to have at least one spanner hand-portable
291207 5 hose stowage rack foam applicator pick ax
wrench, one length of fire hose and one extinguisher
__________. A
Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one
291207 1 hose rack or reel hammer foam applicator pick ax A
spanner wrench and at least one __________.
National Standard fire
hose coupling threads
In heavy weather, the
Which of the following statements is true shall be used having 9
It must be marked in red hose may be removed
291208 1 concerning fire hose stations used in the engine threads per inch for 2 1/2 All of the above.
letters two inches high temporarily from the
room of a tank or cargo vessel? inch hose and 7 1/2
hydrant.
threads per inch for 1 1/2
inch hose. A
National Standard fire
hose coupling threads
In heavy weather, the
Which of the following statements is true shall be used having 9
It must be marked with the hose may be removed
291208 2 concerning fire hose used in the engine room of a threads per inch for 2 1/2 All of the above.
name of the vessel. temporarily from the
offshore supply vessel? inch hose and 7 1/2
hydrant.
threads per inch for 1 1/2
inch hose. A
When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily
291209 1 or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of a soft-bristled brush a wire brush paint thinner cornstarch
mild soapy freshwater and __________. A
A U.S.C.G. approved
Which of the following correctly identifies the A fire main international An international discharge A U.S.C.G. approved fuel
291252 2 sewage disposal SF-0028
device shown in the illustration? shore connection connection connection A
connection
The fire main system should be flushed with fresh help destroy marine prevent corrosion of valve eliminate cracking of fire
291253 1 identify loose pipe joints A
water whenever possible to __________. growth stems hose linings
No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the avoid personal injury prevent spray on electrical
291254 2 avoid kinking the hose make connecting easier A
horizontal, in order to __________. during connection equipment
Fire main shore connections on a 1,000 gross ton
at least two shore exterior "Y" connections
cargo vessel are required by Coast Guard suitable adapters to mate connections for 2 inch fire
291257 1 connections on each side for 1 1/2 inch fire hose
Regulations (46 CFR) to be provided with shore fire line couplings hose only
of the vessel only
__________. A
Which of the listed devices is required to be
International shore
291300 2 located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire Pressure gage Strainer Reduction valve
connection
main system? A
on a freight vessel, each fire pump must be
the pump relief valve
291301 1 capable of supplying the two highest outlets 50 psi 75 psi 125 psi
setting
simultaneously, at a Pitot tube pressure of
__________. A

The total area of the pipes

leading from a fire pump
Which of the following statements is correct The vessel must be Fifty foot length hoses of 1
must be more than the
concerning fire main system details used aboard equipped with a minimum 1/2 inch diameter may be
291304 3 discharge area of the All of the above.
2500 gross ton cargo vessels on international of two independently used in exterior locations
pump to avoid an
voyages? driven fire pumps. on the vessel.
excessive back pressure
buildup (discharge head).
A
The fire pumps may be
Each pump shall be
used for other purposes Fire pumps shall have a
Which of the following statements is true capable of delivering The total area of the pipes
provided at least one of minimum capacity of at
concerning fire pumps used aboard cargo vessels water simultaneously from leading from a pump shall
291304 4 the pumps is kept least one-third of that
of 1,500 gross tons and over, contracted for on, or the two highest outlets at be less than the discharge
available for use on the required for an
after May 26, 1965? a Pitot tube pressure of area of the pump.
fire main system at all independent bilge pump.
approximately 25 psi.
times. A
All fire hoses on a mobile offshore drilling units
291350 2 must be tested to a pressure of at least 100 psi 110 psi 120 psi 130 psi
__________. A
Any firefighting equipment carried in addition to the
meet the applicable be marked as additional be stowed in a separate
291351 1 minimum requirements on a MODU must all of the above
standards equipment area
__________. A
Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure at each fire station
291354 3 at the pump discharge at the manifold connection at the pump station A
gage located __________. discharge
works well on
Foam is a very effective smothering agent, in it provides cooling as a can be used to combat
291400 7 extinguishing electrical all of the above
addition __________. secondary effect combustible metal fires
fires A
mechanically mixing and gas bubbles liberated
Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced a chemical reaction of chemical reaction of foam
291401 1 agitating foam chemical, when the foam chemical
by __________. foam components and air components and water
water, and air contacts fire A
When compared to low-expansion foam, a high- not cling to vertical
291403 5 be less dense be heavier be more heat resistant A
Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire
291406 1 oil burning insulation hot bulkheads electrical machinery A
involving __________.
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly
oil fires in the engine room class C fires in paint
291407 1 known as 'light water', is especially suitable for any class D fire all of the above
bilges lockers
fighting __________. A
The supply of foam
The foam producing The foam producing
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 95), producing materials must The deck foam system
chemicals must be chemicals must be
require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo be sufficient to operate the must be completely
291430 2 discharged and recharged discharged and recharged
and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the equipment for at least 3 independent of the fixed
every year at annual every 2 years at the
following requirements? minutes for spaces other foam system.
inspection. annual inspection.
than tanks.
A
The supply of foam
The foam producing The foam producing
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed producing materials must The deck foam system
chemicals must be chemicals must be
foam extinguishing system on cargo and be sufficient to operate the must be completely
291430 1 discharged and recharged discharged and recharged
miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the equipment for at least 3 independent of the fixed
every year at annual every 2 years at the
following requirements? minutes for spaces other foam system.
inspection. annual inspection.
than tanks. A

According to 46 CFR's, a fixed foam system
aboard a tank vessel constructed in 1968, must be
designed to supply foam for a minimum of
__________. A
CFR Part 34), if a fixed foam system is activated
aboard a tank vessel, the foam supply must be
sufficient to last for a minimum of __________. A
The fire fighting device shown in the illustration
291454 2 mechanical foam nozzle chemical foam nozzle dual hose connector bending fire hose adaptor SF-0020 A
would be called a _________.
When an oil fire has been extinguished, the air from contacting the oil
spontaneous combustion toxic fumes from escaping
291550 1 surface of the oil should be kept covered with foam vapors permitting boiling of the heated oil
below the oil surface to the surface
to prevent __________. reignition A
The use of which type of fire extinguishing agent
involves covering the burning surface by deflecting
291552 2 Foam Dry chemical Carbon dioxide Halon 1301
the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue
agitation? A
Where foam extinguishing systems are provided
291631 1 on a MODU, each machinery flat in the protected coaming alarm drain fire sensor
space must have a/an __________. A
On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the posted with instructions on ventilated and equipped equipped with a battery
painted with red and black
291634 1 controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system the operation of the with explosion-proof powered source of
diagonal stripes
must be __________. system switches emergency lighting
A
The agent is considered
Which of the following statements is true Halon primarily The agent cannot be used
nontoxic at room The agent is less effective
291650 5 concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing extinguishes the fire by on electrical fires because
temperature in low than carbon dioxide.
equipment? cooling. it leaves a residue.
concentrations. A
Due to the hazards involved with Halon type fire
outside of an occupied
291851 1 extinguishers on a MODU, the size II extinguisher on class C fires in any inside emergency on class B fires
space A
may only be used __________.
A disadvantage of using CO2 for firefighting is that the CO2 does not the cylinders are regulated they are not effective on they are not effective on
291900 3
__________. significantly cool the fire pressure vessels class "B" fires class "C" fires A
There are two disadvantages to CO2 when used it cannot be used in a
it breaks down under there is no effect on a
as a total flooding firefighting agent. One of these the lack of cooling effect dead ship situation without
291900 2 extreme heat to form class "A" fire even in an
is the limited quantity available and the other is on heated materials electrical power available
poisonous gases enclosed space
__________. to the CO2 pump
A
According to 46 CFR Part 95, automatic
291951 10 mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for machinery spaces cargo compartments living quarters storerooms
CO2 systems protecting the vessels __________. A
When discharging the main bank of fixed CO2 into
sound the ships general secure the ventilation fan
291951 6 a major engine room fire, CO2 pressure is used to discharge each bottle All of the above.
alarm damper controls A
__________.
When the engine room fixed CO2 system is Activate an additional Send someone down to
Discharge extra carbon
activated, which of the following actions should be Manually operate the CO2 bottle to increase manually secure the fuel
291951 5 dioxide into the engine
taken FIRST if the automatic fuel oil and ventilation remote shutdown controls. pressure on the pressure oil pumps and ventilation
room.
shutoffs have failed to operate? switch plunger. fans.
A

Liquid CO2 would Excessive condensation
What would be a major consequence of allowing The entire charge may The warmed charge of
overflow from the tank inside the tank would
the refrigeration system of a low pressure fixed eventually be lost due to CO2 would not be
291957 1 through the drain line as freeze causing a
CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain CO2 boil- off venting effective in extinguishing a
the temperature restriction in the discharge
inoperable? through the relief valve. fire. A
increased. piping.
The discharge of CO2 will
When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire A timer mechanism The CO2 tank is divided The number of discharge
continue until the
extinguishing system is activated from a remote controls the discharge into separate sections nozzles in the space will
291958 1 temperature of the space
location, what determines the quantity of CO2 that valve and is preset for the designated for each determine the quantity
returns to ambient
will be released into the selected compartment? space being activated. protected space. released. A
conditions.
According to 46 CFR Part 95, the carbon dioxide
cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may
291960 4 be located inside the protected space if the 300 pounds 400 pounds 500 pounds 600 pounds
quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is
not more than __________. A
protect that space is not more than __________. A
Normally manned machinery spaces protected by
a fixed carbon dioxide system are required to be
291963 1 fitted with audible alarms so arranged that the 20 seconds 40 seconds 60 seconds 120 seconds
alarm will be sounded prior to the discharge of
CO2 by at least _________. A
If the empty weight of a B-II, portable, CO2, fire
extinguisher bottle is 34 pounds (15.4 kg), the
292000 4 47 lbs (21.3 kg) 48 lbs (21.8 kg) 49 lbs (22.2 kg) 50 lbs (22.4 kg)
cylinder must be recharged if the gross weight
decreases to __________. A
Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman
292004 1 hand-portable units semi-portable units fixed systems compact systems A
numerals I and II are __________.
You notice smoke coming from an open laundry Locate and acquire the Wait for the fire team to
Attempt to determine what
292011 2 room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which nearest emergency Break out a fire hose. arrive and assist them as
is burning.
of the following would you do FIRST? breathing apparatus. instructed. A
Before releasing CO2 into the machinery space,
292050 5 the alarm for a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system 20 seconds 30 seconds 40 seconds 60 seconds
must sound for at least __________. A
immediately assist the
If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system make certain that the CO2
leave the space fixed system by
292050 1 sounds in the engine room, you should start the fire pump starts flowing into the
immediately discharging all portable
__________. space
units as well A
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the
292150 5 CO2 Foam Water fog Soda acid A
safest to use when combating a class C fire?
Which of the listed fire extinguishers is
292150 6 recommended for use on an electrical switchboard CO2 ABC dry chemical CO2 propelled foam All of the above
fire? A
In which of the circumstances listed would a
292152 3 carbon dioxide fire extinguishing agent be most Within a closed space On a magnesium fire At a range of 15 feet As a cooling agent
effective? A

When any fire has been extinguished with carbon atmosphere containing a
fire being reignited by machinery suffering dry ice crystals clogging
292153 2 dioxide, there is always the danger of the dangerous charge of static
residual heat thermal shock damage the machinery
__________. electricity A
You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor
Chemical reaction of the
plates of the engine room with a 15 pound CO2 Sudden stoppage of the Complete lack of oxygen
292153 1 Reflashing of the fire. CO2 and oil forming
extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should main engine. in the engine room.
carbonic acid.
you now be preparing to handle? A
if attempts to extinguish
A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective if applied in connection
292156 1 if applied promptly to prevent rekindling the fire with low velocity
on burning oil only __________. with foam
fog have failed A
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 34) state
that any space containing charged CO2 cylinders,
292200 1 130°F (54.5°C) 140°F (60.0°C) 150°F (66.6°C) 160°F (71.1°C)
shall be properly ventilated to prevent a
temperature higher than __________. A
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 The alarm shall depend The emergency lighting The general alarm power
CFR), which of the following power sources would on no source of power The ship's general and power system via supply storage battery
292203 1
be acceptable for the carbon dioxide warning other than the carbon distribution panel. storage batteries or with a nominal potential of
alarm? dioxide. emergency generator. not less than 6 volts.
A
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require how
many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to
292205 1 Two Four Six Eight
be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000
horsepower steam propelled vessel? A
A vessel has eight B-II CO2 fire extinguishers. How
292207 3 1 2 4 8 A
many spare units must the vessel carry?
permanent extinguishment
The advantage of using a dry chemical fire its good stability and non-
292300 2 regardless of the reignition its excellent cooling ability all of the above
extinguishing agent is __________. toxicity
sources A
One advantage of a cartridge-operated dry
chemical fire extinguisher, over that of a stored can be easily recharged has a longer operating can be discharged further
292351 2 is lighter in weight
pressure dry chemical extinguisher is the former aboard ship time from the fire
__________. A
The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry removing the lid and
visual inspection of the weighing the CO2
292351 1 chemical fire extinguisher can be readily weighing the cylinder checking the level of dry
pressure gage cartridge
determined by __________. chemical A
When is it required for a dry chemical fire When the air temperature
292351 3 After each use Every six months Every 12 months
extinguisher to be recharged? exceeds 90°F
A
You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry
at the seat of the fire, at the main body of the to bank off a bulkhead
292356 1 chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be over the top of the fire
starting near the edge fire onto the fire
directed __________. A
If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry replace the pressure weigh the pressure
replace the entire charge have the unit
292401 1 chemical fire extinguisher has been punctured, you cartridge and weigh the cartridge to determine if it
of chemical agent hydrostatically tested A
must __________. chemical charge must be replaced
For the best extinguishing effect, the discharge
above the flames of the
292453 4 from a dry chemical type fire extinguisher should base of a fire top and sides of a fire highest flames in a fire
fire A
be directed at the __________.

direct the stream of bounce the chemical onto

When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical attack the fire from the spray the chemical across
292453 1 chemical toward the base the fire from adjacent
extinguisher you should always __________. leeward side the tops of the flames
of the fire structural members A
15 pound (6.8 kg) CO2 1 3/4 gallon (6.6 liter) 35 pound (15.8 kg) CO2
292500 2 10 pound dry chemical extinguisher is equivalent 12 gallon (45 liter) foam
fire extinguisher foam fire extinguisher
to a __________. A
A burning mattress is considered as which of the
292550 1 Class "A" Class "B" Class "C" Class "D" A
following classes of fire?
A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a class
292550 3 A fire B fire C fire D fire A
__________.
A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a
292551 1 class A class B class C class D A
__________.
A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a
__________.
If the items shown in the illustration are burning,
292553 1 "A" "B" "C" "D" SF-0001 A
this fire would be a Class __________ fire.
A fire involving trash and paper waste would be
classified as a __________.
Burning rubber is considered to be which of the
292555 2 Class A Class B Class C Class D A
listed classes of fire?
Burning wood is considered to be which of the
292555 1 Class A Class B Class C Class D A
listed classes of fire?
A fire that has developed in a pile of rubber gasket
292556 1 class A class B class C class D
material would be classified as a __________.
A
Fires are grouped into which of the listed Combustible solids, Flammable solids, liquids,
292604 1 Class A, B, C, and D Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 A
categories? liquids, and gases and gases
The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the less chance there is of
292607 1 harder it is to extinguish easier it is to extinguish easier it is to control A
__________. reignition
On a tank vessel, which of the following
292613 5 Oil W ood Rags Electrical wiring A
substances would be burning in a class "B" fire?
The material or substance involved in a class "B"
292613 6 diesel oil magnesium dunnage electrical insulation A
fire can be burning __________.
reducing the possibility of preventing saltwater
When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the preventing a total loss of eliminating the toxic fumes
292650 1 electrical shock to damage to electrical
main consideration is __________. electrical power from burning insulation
personnel equipment A
If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the
cut the cable with a cable remove the electrical load
292652 2 inner layers of insulation have burned, you should secure power to the cable insulate the melted ends
cutter on the cable
FIRST _______. A
The most important characteristic of a fire
292657 1 extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is non-conducting flame resistant easily removable wet
for the agent to be __________. A
In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action secure all sources of fresh begin transferring the fuel top off the tank to force station someone at the
292751 1
you should attempt is to __________. air to the tank to other tanks out all vapors fixed CO2 release controls A
discharge an initial charge direct a fire hose into the spray the tank boundaries
The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a secure all openings to the
292751 3 of CO2 with a hand tank and energize the fire with a fire hose to promote
cargo or fuel oil tank is to __________. tank
portable extinguisher main cooling A

burning jet fuel running
The primary danger in helicopter fires occurring on loss of the mooring heat damage to helicopter
292752 1 into the quarters or other rotating and flying debris
a MODU is __________. system structure
areas A
opening dead spaces to
Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel immediately sounding the operation of the
292755 1 check for fire or lingering evacuation of the vessel
must include __________. 'all clear' signal emergency generator
sources of heat
A
the sounding tube cap you have recently you operate the
In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may the dogs on a manhole
293000 1 from a damaged tank is replaced a gasket in a dewatering system from a
be lost if __________. cover are secure
missing watertight door flooded compartment
A
The knife edges and gaskets of watertight doors painted to prevent
293002 1 clean and uncoated lightly coated with tallow coated with petroleum jelly A
should be __________. weathering
When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel,
293021 3 decreases remains the same increases shifts to the low side A
reserve buoyancy __________.
A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is
293022 3 center of gravity center of buoyancy center of flotation metacenter A
acting downward from the __________.
When a vessel is inclined due to an external force,
such as the action of seas in which no cargo shifts,
293022 4 center of buoyancy center of gravity center of flotation metacentric radius
the tendency of the vessel to return to its original
position is caused by the shift in __________.
A
The quality of initial stability is indicated by
293023 1 GM KM Deck load Maximum allowed KG A
__________.
Which of the listed initials is used to represent the
293023 2 GM KG KM GZ A
indicator of initial stability?
The stability term for the distance between the
center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when
293024 2 metacentric height metacentric radius height of the metacenter righting arm
small angle stability applies is known as the
__________. A
It is measured vertically Its determination is the
With regards to the metacentric height, which of It is used to indicate the It is located below the
293024 3 above the center of objective of the inclining
the following statements is true? quality of initial stability. center of buoyancy. A
buoyancy. experiment.
'GM' cannot be used as an indicator of stability at "M" is not fixed at large there is no "M" at large "G" is not fixed at large there is no "G" at large
293025 1 A
all angles of inclination because __________. angles angles angles angles
The horizontal distance between the vertical lines
height of the center of
293026 1 of the gravitational and buoyant forces is called the righting arm metacentric height metacentric radius
buoyancy
__________. A
The upward force of displaced water is known as
293027 2 buoyancy deadweight draft freeboard A
__________.
at the intersection of the
At all angles of inclination the metacenter is vertically above the center vertically above the center upright vertical centerline geometric center of the
293029 1
located __________. of buoyancy of gravity and the line of action of underwater volume
the buoyant force A
Initial stability refers to the vessel's stability at small angles of when loaded with
293030 1 when at transit draft when GZ is zero A
__________. inclination minimum deck load
The important initial stability parameter 'GM' is the height of the metacenter height of the center of height of the center of
293034 4 metacentric height
__________. above the keel buoyancy above the keel gravity above the keel A

When the height of metacenter is greater than the
293034 3 height of the center of gravity, a vessel has what Positive. Neutral. Unstable. Negative.
type of stability? A
If weight is added at the keel, the ship's center of merge with the pass through the center of
293037 2 move down move up A
gravity will __________. metacenter flotation
A vessel's stability normally increases when tanks center of gravity is center of buoyancy is reserve buoyancy is
293038 1 freeboard is increased A
are ballasted because the vessel's __________. lowered lowered increased
The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest
center of gravity is center of buoyancy is reserve buoyancy is
293038 3 when all double-bottom fuel and water tanks are hull freeboard is increased
lowered lowered unchanged
full because the __________. A
Longitudinal stability indicates the tendency of a
293046 1 change in trim change in list change in mean draft change in the period of roll A
ship to resist a _______.
Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel
293053 3 yaw surge hog roll A
is known as __________.
In ship construction, the vessel's bilge keels are assist in reducing vessel improve vessel steering reinforce the vessels reinforce the vessels
293054 2 A
designed primarily to __________. rolling response garboard strake shear strake
Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about
293055 2 Longitudinal Transverse Vertical Centerline A
what axis?
Rolling is the transverse oscillating rotation of the
293055 6 Longitudinal Transverse Vertical Centerline A
vessel about what axis?
The vessel will list in
What is the usual effect of moving weight from the The stability of the vessel The trim of the vessel is The stability of the vessel
293104 2 proportion to the volume
main deck to a position lower in the vessel? is increased. changed substantially. is significantly decreased.
of the cargo shifted.
A
A vessel trimmed down by the bow has a greater draft forward a greater draft aft than
293133 1 zero trim a low mean draft A
__________. than aft forward
The difference between the starboard and port
293140 1 drafts caused by a transverse shift in weight is list squat trim flotation
called _______. A
For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance
293151 2 waterline freeboard deck Plimsoll mark amidships section A
between the keel and the __________.
The average of the observed drafts is known as mean of the calculated draft at the center of
293152 2 mean draft true mean draft A
__________. drafts flotation
wave crest plus the
wave crest plus the
'Air gap' is the vertical distance between the charted water depth, plus
293154 1 still water level wave crest charted water depth and
bottom of the hull and the __________. tidal correction and storm
tidal corrections A
surge
The symbol shown in the illustration used to
293157 1 1 2 3 4 SF-0022 A
represent displacement is __________.
The symbol shown in the illustration and is used as
293160 1 the reference from which transverse 5 4 3 1 SF-0022
measurements are made is __________. A
The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally
293169 1 Load Line mark Certificate of Inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") Tonnage mark A
be submerged is indicated by the __________.
You may improve a vessel's stability by keeping the fuel tanks increasing the free surface keeping the fuel tanks at keeping at least one fuel
293200 1
__________. topped off effect least half full tank empty for slops A
increasing the free surface
You may improve a vessel's stability by keeping double- bottom keeping fuel tanks at least keeping at least one fuel
293200 2 effect of liquid storage
__________. fuel tanks topped off half full tank empty for slops A
tanks

Reducing the free surfaces within a vessel, uncorrected height of the
293204 1 natural roll period metacentric height waterplane area A
reduces the __________. center of gravity
A vessel whose fuel tanks are half full is subject to serious loss of reserve
293207 5 free surface effect severe sagging severe hogging A
__________. buoyancy
Ships are less stable when water or fuel tanks are
293207 4 free surface effect increase in buoyancy decrease in draft reduction in trim A
partially filled because of the __________.
Vessel stability can be adversely affected by increasing the free surface decreasing the free ballasting down by the ballasting down by the
293207 6 A
__________. effect surface effect bow stern
Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or
293207 2 fuel tanks are partially filled as a result of the free surface effect free communication effect increase of buoyancy decrease in draft
__________. A
When the wave period and the apparent rolling synchronous rolling the roll amplitude is
293253 1 the roll period decreases the roll period increases A
period of the MODU are the same, __________. occurs dampened
The purpose of the inclining experiment on a lightweight and lightweight the position of the center the position of the
293254 1 the maximum load line
MODU is to determine __________. center of gravity location of buoyancy metacenter
A
If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU have a quick and rapid
293257 1 be tender be stiff yaw A
will __________. motion
A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the
293258 1 absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is positive negative zero vertical
__________. A
Forces within a mobile offshore drilling unit have
293260 1 caused a difference between the starboard and list heel trim flotation
port drafts. This difference is __________. A
A quick and rapid motion of a MODU in a seaway
293265 1 large 'GM' high center of gravity excessive free surfaces small 'GZ' A
is an indication of __________.
A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is
293265 2 small 'GM' low center of gravity a stiff vessel large 'GZ' A
an indication of __________.
For a MODU with trim, a decrease in 'GMT' will
293266 2 increase decrease remain constant stabilize at an angle A
cause the angle of inclination to __________.
The free surface effects of a partially filled tank in a surface area of the fluid in displacement volume of height of the tank above
293270 1 draft of the MODU A
floating MODU, increase with the __________. the tank the MODU the keel
What must be accurately determined to assess the The operation of the
The integrity of the The capacity of the water
293300 2 potential for progressive flooding after a MODU machinery space bilge All of the above.
watertight boundaries. sprinkler system.
has been damaged? level alarms. A
determine the cause
If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from assume the shift is due to counter flood on the side assume the cause is
293303 1 before taking
an unknown cause, you should first __________. off center loading opposite the list or trim environmental forces
countermeasures A
You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to
your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of
293304 1 increase decrease stop stabilize
tanks being filled, the flow rate to the other open
tanks on the same line will __________. A
In a compartment that has been completely
along the bottom of any at the center of all along the top of any on the overhead of the
293400 1 flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted
bulkhead bulkheads bulkhead compartment
__________. A
Following a grounding, you can best determine
waiting for the vessel to examining tank
293401 1 that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by sounding the tank checking fuel oil strainers
list boundaries A
__________.

In damage control, a flat block placed at the end of
293500 2 a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is strong back butt piece stiffener cradle
referred to as a __________. A
Which of the methods shown in the illustration is
293503 2 the correct way to fit wooden shoring for damage A B C D SF-0016
control? A
The wooden shoring, shown in the illustration, is
Shore "A" illustrates the
bearing against a hatch coaming. The load is Shore "B" will support the Shore "A" will support the Shore "B" will slip under
293505 2 recommended method of SF-0018
applied in the direction indicated by the arrows. greatest load. greatest load. applied load.
shoring.
Which of the following statements is true? A
It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a
293601 1 crack occurring in the hull because wedges tend to open the crack will work loose will splinter will pull through the plating
__________. A
A crack, located in the shell plating or deck plating V-grooving and welding
drilling a hole at each end installing welded brackets cutting a square notch at
293603 3 of a ship, may be temporarily prevented from from both sides of the
of the crack across both ends each end of the crack
increasing in length by __________. crack A
Stress concentrations may be reduced at the ends V-grooving and welding
drilling a round hole at installing welded brackets cutting a square notch at
293603 4 of a crack which has formed in the steel plating of from both sides of the
each end of the crack parallel to the crack each end of the crack
a ship by __________. crack A
The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a
developing free surface
293606 1 damaged tank may prevent the tank from filling completely developing free surfaces collapsing
moments A
__________.
Repair of vital machinery and services related to after control of fire, immediately before
after control of fire, but
293754 2 an emergency on a MODU should be flooding, and structural emergency is under after stability is restored
before control of flooding
accomplished (in sequence) __________. repairs control A
When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU,
293761 1 any effort should be taken to spread the pressure maximum possible area minimum possible area nearest watertight door nearest longitudinal girder
over the __________. A
The master or person-in-charge of a MODU is
it creates a hazard to the it will last longer than 24 it will last longer than 48 it occurs in international
293763 2 required to submit a casualty report of an
vessel hours hours waters A
intentional grounding when __________.
What must be accurately determined to assess the The operation of the
The integrity of the The capacity of the water
293764 2 potential for progressive flooding after your vessel machinery space bilge All of the above.
watertight boundaries. sprinkler system.
has been damaged? level alarms. A
If the ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from determine the cause
assume the shift is due to counter flood on the side assume the cause is
293767 1 an unknown cause, the first action is to before taking
off center loading opposite the list or trim environmental forces
__________. countermeasures A
In a compartment that has been completely at a point that is one- third
along the bottom of any at the vertical center of the along the top of the
293769 1 flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be from the bottom of the
bulkhead bulkhead bulkhead
exerted __________. bulkhead A
The zipper of an immersion suit should be the manufacturers epoxy resin consisting of low temperature water- sealing compound used in
294005 1 A
lubricated with __________. recommended lubricant at least two coatings soluble oil liferafts
The zipper of an immersion suit should be the manufacturers epoxy resin consisting of low temperature water- sealing compound used in
294005 10 A
lubricated with __________. recommended lubricant at least two coatings soluble oil liferafts


The immersion suit seals
All models will The suit is flameproof and not severely restricted in
in all body heat and
Which of the following statements concerning automatically turn an provides protection to the body movement and
294005 7 provides protection
immersion suits is correct? unconscious person face- wearer while swimming permits the wearer to
against hypothermia for
up in the water. through burning oil. perform any form of
weeks.
strenuous work.
A
follow directly behind
When abandoning ship in an emergency situation, jump off feet first from the dive head first from the dive head first from the
294008 5 another person on the
you should __________. windward side bridge main deck
leeward side A
holding down the lifejacket

against the chest with one both hands holding the
knees bent and held close body straight and arms
With no alternative but to jump from a vessel, the arm crossing the other, lifejacket below the chin
294008 4 to the body with both arms tightly at the sides for feet
correct posture should include __________. covering the mouth and with knees bent and legs
around the legs first entry into the water
nose with a hand, legs crossed
straight and feet together
A
Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be marked with the name of equipped with a water
294100 2 Coast Guard approved all of the above A
__________. the unit light
Each buoyant work vest on an OSV must be marked with the name of equipped with a water
294100 4 Coast Guard approved all of the above A
__________. the unit light
Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits
must wear the exposure suit in a boat drill, or
294105 1 participate in a drill which includes donning the suit month two months three months six months
and being instructed in its use at least once every
__________. A
How often is the line throwing appliance required
294108 6 Once a month Once a year Once a week Once every four months A
to be tested on an OSV ?
Fire it at an angle of
Which of the listed precautions should be taken Never remove the line
294108 2 approximately 90 degrees Wear asbestos gloves. All of the above.
when testing a line throwing gun? from the rocket.
to the horizon. A
Fire it at an angle of
Which of the listed precautions should be taken Never test the rocket with
294108 4 approximately 90 degrees Wear asbestos gloves. All of the above
when testing a line throwing gun? the service line attached.
to the horizon. A
against the chest with one both hand holding the
knees bent and held close body straight and arms
With no alternative but to jump from a MODU, the arm crossing the other, lifejacket below the chin
294109 1 to the body with both arms tightly at the sides for feet
correct posture should include __________. covering the mouth and with knees bent and legs
around legs first entry into the water
nose with a hand, and feet crossed
together
A
be placed in the middle of float on their backs with
remove their lifejackets
To help keep injured survivors warm in the water, a small circle formed by their arms extended for swim through the water at
294110 3 and hold on to the
after abandoning ship, they should __________. the other survivors in the maximum exposure to the fifteen minute intervals
uninjured survivors
water air A
To keep injured survivors warm in the water after a small circle formed by their arms extended for sip seawater at intervals
abandoning a MODU, they should __________. the other survivors in the maximum exposure to the of fifteen minutes
uninjured survivors A
water air

To keep injured survivors warm in the water after a small circle formed by their arms extended for sip seawater at intervals
abandoning an OSV, they should __________. the other survivors in the maximum exposure to the of fifteen minutes
uninjured survivors A
water air
When should the emergency position- indicating
Only when another vessel
294111 1 radio beacon be activated after abandoning a Immediately After on hour Only after sunset
is in sight
MODU? A
When should the emergency position- indicating
Only when another vessel
294111 2 radio beacon (EPIRB) be activated after Immediately After one hour Only after sunset
is in sight
abandoning an OSV? A
Onboard an OSV, the key to the most rapid and
294112 3 effective response to a man overboard situation is well-conducted drills a dedicated crew good equipment good communication
__________. A
Onboard mobile offshore drilling units, the key to
294112 1 the most rapid and effective response to a man well-conducted drills a dedicated crew good equipment good communication
overboard situation is __________. A
The order to abandon a MODU should only be Offshore Installation
294113 1 Barge Engineer Ballast Control Operator Rig Safety Supervisor A
given by the __________. Manager
without the option of a survival craft or liferaft there is burning oil on the there is a rescue craft in water temperature is a rigid survival craft is in
294114 3
should enter the water on the leeward side, except water the area below 40°F the area
when __________. A
should be righted by
standing on the carbon must be cleared of the
A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water standing on the lifeline, will right itself when the
294200 12 dioxide cylinder, holding buoyant equipment before
__________. holding the righting straps canopy tube inflate
the righting straps and it will right itself
and leaning backwards
leaning backwards
A
standing on the carbon must be cleared of the
A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water standing on the lifeline, will right itself when the
294200 5 dioxide cylinder, holding buoyant equipment before
__________. holding the righting straps canopy tube inflates
the righting straps and it will right itself
and leaning backwards
leaning backwards
A
Handholds or straps on the underside of an to right the raft if it to carry the raft around on
294200 8 for crewmen to hang on to to hang the raft for drying A
inflatable liferaft are provided __________. capsizes deck
Handholds or straps on the underside of an to right the raft if it to carry the raft around on
294200 11 for crewmen to hang on to to hang the raft for drying A
What is placed on the under side of an inflatable
294201 3 liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the Ballast bags A keel Strikes Sea anchor
wind or overturned? A
What is placed on the underside of an inflatable
294201 7 liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the Ballast bags A keel Strikes Sea anchor
wind or overturned? A
Generally, which of the following gases is used to
294202 2 CO2 Oxygen Hydrogen Compressed air A
inflate liferafts?
Generally, which of the following gases is used to
294202 7 CO2 Oxygen Hydrogen Compressed air A
inflate liferafts?
go into place as the raft is be put up after everyone be put up only in severe be used as a sail if the
294202 1 The canopy of your liferaft should __________. A
inflated is aboard weather wind is blowing

go into place as the raft is be put up after everyone be put up only in severe be used as a sail if the
294202 9 The canopy of your liferaft should __________. A
inflated is aboard weather wind is blowing
You have just abandoned ship and boarded a
not become alarmed remove the safety valve
liferaft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear unscrew the deflation
294202 4 unless it continues for a plug the safety valve and replace it with a soft
a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You plugs
long period of time patch
should __________. A
After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord is used to rig the boarding is cut immediately as it is
294204 8 serves as a sea painter detaches automatically A
__________. ladder of no further use
After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord is used to rig the boarding is cut immediately as it is
294204 42 serves as a sea painter detaches automatically A
__________. ladder of no further use
After having thrown the liferaft and stowage
forcing open the container hitting the hydrostatic using the hand pump
294204 43 container into the water, the liferaft is inflated by pull in on the painter line
which operates the CO2 release provided
__________. A
294204 9 container into the water, the liferaft is inflated by pulling on the painter line
__________. A
294204 30 container into the water, the liferaft is inflated by pulling on the painter line
__________. A
To release the davit cable of a davit launched
294204 4 pull the release lanyard pull the hydraulic release push the release button pull on the ratchet handle A
liferaft, you must __________.
To release raft from the
What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic To inflate the raft
294204 19 cradle automatically if the To test rafts hydrostatically None of the above
release? automatically A
ship sinks
To release raft from the
What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic To inflate the raft
294204 34 cradle automatically as To test rafts hydrostatically None of the above
release? automatically
the ship sinks A
An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a
sinking vessel. Which of the following actions The sea anchor is If upside down, the craft The painter detaches from
294205 3 The floor inflates.
occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 deployed. will right itself. the raft.
bottles to inflate the raft? A
An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a
sinking vessel. Which of the following actions The sea anchor is If upside down, the craft The painter detaches from
294205 5 The floor inflates.
occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 deployed. will right itself. the raft.
bottles to inflate the raft? A
Using a sea anchor when in a liferaft will reduce the drift rate of the keep the liferaft from aid in recovering the
294205 2 increase your visibility A
__________. liferaft turning over liferaft
If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft,
remain in the vicinity of head for the closest sea-
294206 5 your main course of action should be to head for the closest land get a majority opinion
the sinking vessel lanes A
__________.
If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do drag the raft ashore and get the provisions out of set the raft back out to sea
294206 8 find some wood for a fire
is __________. lash it down for a shelter the raft so someone may spot it
A
Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts
294206 1 should be posted aboard liferafts to look for survivors in the water food and water land bad weather
__________. A
Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back
294208 3 towing bridle main weather cover external lifelines righting strap A
aboard ship, you would use the __________.
Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back
294208 6 towing bridle main weather cover external lifelines righting strap A
aboard ship, you would use the __________.

at night because the light
The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on automatically as the with a switch near the by screwing the bulb in
294209 4 has a photosensitive
__________. liferaft inflates boarding handle after the raft is inflated
switch A
When inspecting a stored inflatable liferaft on deck,
fastened to the float- free secured to the hydrostatic fastened to the raft
294212 5 you should make sure that the operating cord is not fastened to anything
link release container
_________. A
fastened to some
When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should secured to the hydrostatic fastened to the raft
294212 1 substantial part of the not fastened to anything
make sure that the operating cord is __________. release container A
vessel
fastened to some
When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should secured to the hydrostatic fastened to the raft
294212 3 substantial part of the not fastened to anything
make sure that the operating cord is __________. release container
vessel A
Puncture leaks in the lower tubes, or bottom of an
sail twine and vulcanizing
294213 3 inflatable liferaft should first be stopped by using sealing clamps repair tape a tube patch
kit
__________. A
When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an deflate the floor of the raft inflate the floor of the raft take in the sea anchor to
remove their lifejackets to
294214 1 inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should to reduce the danger of to provide for additional prevent fouling of the
prepare for the transfer A
__________. capsizing stability rescue sling
When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an deflate the floor of the raft inflate the floor of the raft take in the sea anchor to
remove their lifejackets to
294214 2 inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should to reduce the danger of to provide for additional prevent fouling of the
prepare for the transfer
__________. capsizing stability rescue sling A
In the illustration shown, the weak link is identified
294217 1 8 6 4 1 SF-0043 A
as item number _____.
294300 2 Most lifeboats are equipped with __________. unbalanced rudders balanced rudders contraguide rudders straight rudders A
vote on what to do, so all
If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you remain in the immediate head for the closest sea-
294301 2 head for the nearest land hands will have a part in
should __________. vicinity lanes
the decision A
On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat fuel tanks
294302 3 must be emptied and the fuel changed at least 12 months 24 months 36 months 48 months
once every __________. A
reduce the swinging of the
secure the lifeboat in the
Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to lifeboat as it is being allow the bow and stern to be used as a safety line in
294303 5 davits when in the stowed
__________. lowered from the be lowered evenly an emergency
position A
embarkation level
The No. 2 lifeboat on a US flag vessel would on the starboard side aft of No. 1 lifeboat port aft of No. 1 lifeboat
294304 3 on the port side forward A
normally be found __________. forward side starboard side
Only when there is a
They should be set off at They should be set off at Immediately upon
294306 7 When should distress flares and rockets be used? chance of them being
half-hour intervals. one-hour intervals. abandoning the vessel.
sighted by rescue vessels.
A
Only when there is a
They should be set off at They should be set off at Immediately upon
294306 19 When should distress flares and rockets be used? chance of them being
half-hour intervals. one hour intervals. abandoning the vessel.
seen by rescue vessels.
A
on the downwind side of on the upwind side of the
the craft craft A
__________.
When using a handheld smoke signal in a lifeboat, activate the signal on the activate the signal on the activate the signal inside activate the signal under
294306 4 A
you should hold and __________. downwind side upwind side the boat water

When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, activate the signal on the activate the signal on the activate the signal inside activate the signal at the
294306 11 A
you should __________. downwind side upwind side the boat stern
When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, activate the signal on the activate the signal on the activate the signal inside activate the signal at the
294306 16 A
you should __________. downwind side upwind side the boat stern
Which of the following conditions represents the Only when there is a
Immediately upon
294306 15 appropriate time for setting off distress flares and chance of them being At half-hour intervals At one hour intervals
abandoning the vessel A
rockets? seen by rescue vessels
Immediately upon
294306 1 appropriate time for setting off distress flares and chance of them being At half-hour intervals. At one hour intervals.
abandoning the vessel.
rockets? seen by rescue vessels. A
Immediately upon
294306 18 appropriate time for setting off distress flares and chance of them being At half-hour intervals. At one hour intervals.
abandoning the vessel.
rockets? seen by rescue vessels.
A
Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed
294306 5 would be the most suitable for night signaling to a A red parachute flare A red handheld flare A flashlight A lantern
ship on the horizon? A
Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed
294306 14 would be the most suitable for night signaling to a A red parachute flare A red handheld flare A flashlight A lantern
ship on the horizon? A
All MODU personnel should be familiar with the boarding and operating
294309 3 maintenance schedule navigational systems fuel consumption rates A
survival craft __________. procedures
All OSV personnel should be familiar with the boarding and operating
survival craft __________. procedures
All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar boarding and operating
294309 4 maintenance schedules navigational systems fuel consumption rates A
with the rescue boat __________. procedures
All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats boarding and operating
__________. procedures
Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts
294309 8 should be posted aboard liferafts to look for survivors in the water food and water land bad weather
__________. A
What should you do with your emergency position Bring it inside the liferaft
Bring it inside the liferaft Leave it outside the liferaft Leave it outside the liferaft
294310 6 indicating radio beacon if you are in a liferaft and turn it off until the
and leave it on. and leave it on. but turn it off.
during storm conditions? storm passes. A
What should you do with your emergency position Bring it inside the liferaft
Bring it inside the liferaft Leave it outside the liferaft Leave it outside the liferaft
294310 10 indicating radio beacon if you are in a liferaft and turn it off until the
and leave it on. and leave it on. but turn it off.
during storm conditions? storm passes. A
Where would you find the FCC authorization for On the Ship Station On the side of the EPIRB On the Certificate of
294310 4 In the radio log. A
transmitting on your rig's EPIRB? License. transmitter. Inspection.
stop the winch just before
Limit switches are located on the survival craft limit the amount of cable stop the winch in case the
294312 6 the craft reaches final limit the ascent rate
winch systems for MODUs to __________. on the drum craft weighs too much
stowage position A
stop the winch just before stop the winch in case the
Limit switches are located on the survival craft limit the amount of cable
294312 9 the craft reaches its limit the ascent rate craft's weight exceeds
winch systems for OSVs to __________. on the drum
uppermost position load lift limit A
To prevent the davits from To keep the tricing lines
Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the To assist in cranking in the To stop the lifeboat from
294312 1 pulling up against the from releasing or getting
lifeboat? lifeboat. being lowered. A
stops. tangled.

During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout release the towline in an check water level in the
294315 6 help the helmsman steer look for food and water A
should be on station to __________. emergency bilge
In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the in the same direction as
294315 2 into the seas broadside to the seas in a series of figure- eights A
survival craft __________. the seas
Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could
294315 1 capsize run smoother run faster sink A
cause it to __________.
The purpose for the bag or box on top of some increase area for radar act as a sail in case of a steady the craft in heavy
294315 5 right it in case of capsize A
survival craft is to __________. detection power loss seas
The AMVER system for vessel in the Gulf of Minerals Management
294316 1 U.S. Coast Guard Department of Energy Corps of Engineers A
Mexico is administered by the __________. Service
A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright are seated with seatbelts are seated with seatbelts are to shift to one side to
294317 1 escape from the craft
position provided that all personnel __________. on and doors shut on and doors open right it
A
When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of priming the sprinkler filling the self-righting
294318 1 personnel air supply additional flotation A
compressed air, they are used for __________. system bags
The 'off-load' release system on a survival craft is when there is no load on when there is a load on only when the doors are
294319 2 when the engine is started A
designed to be activated __________. the cable the cable closed
Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to start the engine in cold aid in helping personnel
294320 2 prime the sprinkler system prime the air supply A
__________. weather breathe
If the engine of a survival craft does not start, if the air supply system is if the water sprinkler
294320 4 if the fuel valve is open if the limit switch is on A
check to see __________. open system is open
The air regeneration canister on a survival craft
294322 3 one hour two hours three hours four hours A
should last approximately __________.
While retrieving the survival craft, the engine when the craft clears the when the cable has been on approach to the
294325 1 at the embarkation A
should be stopped __________. water attached platform
While retrieving the survival craft, the engine when the craft clears the when the cable has been on approach to the
294325 4 at the embarkation A
should be stopped __________. water attached platform
reduce the drift rate of the keep the liferaft from aid in recovering the
294326 4 Using a sea anchor will __________. increase your visibility A
liferaft turning over liferaft
Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will keep the survival craft aid in recovering the
294326 2 reduce your drift rate increase your visibility A
__________. from turning over survival craft
Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will keep the survival craft aid in recovering the
294326 3 reduce your drift rate increase your visibility A
__________. from turning over survival craft
They are more seaworthy
They can go forward and They require less space Appearance and
294327 1 Why are lifeboats usually double- ended? and less likely to be
backward more easily. for stowing aboard ship. traditional styling.
swamped or broach to. A
The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led forward and outside of all forward and inside of all up and down from the to the foremost point on
294328 1 A
__________. obstructions obstructions main deck the ship
The sea painter on a rescue boat should be led forward and outside of all forward and inside of all up and down from the to the foremost point on
294328 2 A
__________. obstructions obstructions main deck the vessel
The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the
294329 2 footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the International orange Yellow White Red
following colors? A
The sprinkler system of a survival craft is used to spray oil on the sea to spray personnel during a
294332 3 cool the craft in a fire cool the engine A
__________. calm it fire
will pass through the body
After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within will quench thirst for only helps to prevent
294336 1 with very little being will help to prevent fatigue
the first 24 hours __________. two hours seasickness
absorbed by the system
A

will pass through the body

After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within will quench thirst for only helps to prevent
294336 7 with very little being will help to prevent fatigue
the first 24 hours __________. two hours seasickness
absorbed by the system A
Lifeboat covers or Fresh water may be
Freshwater can be
Which statement concerning the collection of fresh Fresh water may be canopies should be collected from
294338 1 evaporated from standing
water is FALSE? obtained from fish. washed with rain before condensation inside the
seawater.
drinking water is collected. liferaft. A
Lifeboat covers or Fresh water may be
Which statement concerning the collection of fresh Fresh water may be canopies should be collected from Freshwater can be
294338 2
water is FALSE? obtained from fish. washed with rain before condensation inside the collected from rainwater.
drinking water is collected. liferaft. A
a sponge used to mop up only condensation on the it should be strained
When collecting condensation for drinking water chlorine tablets should be
294339 1 and store condensation bottom of the canopy through a finely woven
from the inside of a liferaft, __________. used to make it drinkable
must be kept salt free should be collected cloth A
a sponge used to mop up only condensation on the it should be strained
When collecting condensation for drinking water, chlorine tablets should be
294339 2 and store condensation bottom of the canopy through a finely woven
__________. used to make it drinkable
must be kept salt free should be collected cloth A
A standard procedure for the emergency
disinfection of water in a potable water tank is to
add a small amount of standard laundry liquid
294349 1 one pint one quart one gallon two gallons
chlorine bleach to the water tank. Approximately
how much bleach would be considered appropriate
to add to a tank containing 1000 gallons of water?
A
Move the reserve lever to Move the tank selector
Open the bypass valve on the 'reserve' position on lever to the full tank
What should you do when the alarm bell on a self- Immediately evacuate the the regulator and the regulator and reset the position and reset the
294406 1
contained breathing apparatus sounds? contaminated area. immediately evacuate the alarm so you can alarm so you can
contaminated area. evacuate the area when it evacuate the area when it
sounds again. sounds again. A
When the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing Less than 1 minute supply
294406 6 A 4-5 minute supply of air. A 2-3 minute supply of air. A 1 minute supply of air. A
apparatus sounds, how much air supply remains? of air.
Because carbon dioxide is
Because carbon dioxide a colorless and odorless
Because carbon dioxide
Why should you wear a self-contained breathing breaks down in a fire into gas that becomes highly This action is unnecessary
dilutes the oxygen
apparatus before entering the engine room after carbon monoxide which toxic in the presence of as carbon dioxide is not
294408 3 concentration in the
the fixed CO2 system has been discharged to may cause blood high temperatures and will poisonous nor toxic but is
atmosphere and may
combat a major fire? poisoning in the person quickly incapacitate a a relatively harmless gas.
cause asphyxiation.
breathing this gas. person exposed to this
gas.
A
The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing the regulator in an a breathing bag containing the regenerator in an
294412 1 oxygen to the atmosphere
apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________. emergency excessive pressure emergency
A

Which of the following conditions represents a
The positive pressure in The equipment used is The equipment is compact
particular advantage of using a positive pressure The average operating
the face piece prevents lightweight and easy to and the wearer can work
294417 1 type self- contained breathing apparatus in an time for most air cylinders
contaminated air from wear by reducing physical in confined spaces without
atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life is over an hour.
entering the face piece. strain on the wearer. difficulty. A
or health?
According to 46 CFR Part 96, the recommended
made of steel or bronze a minimum of 1 inch a minimum of 25 feet in
294420 6 equipment for fireman's outfit includes a lifeline. new nylon rope
wire rope diameter length
The lifeline should be __________. A
Which of the following procedures is always Have the rescuers wear
Have the rescuers carry in Have the rescuer carry an
recommended in the rescue of an unconscious an approved self- Have the rescuers carry a
294420 4 a stokes basket for the emergency first aid kit for
person from a compartment containing an unsafe contained breathing combustible gas analyzer.
victim. the victim.
atmosphere? apparatus. A
Prior to entering a compartment containing an
atmosphere potentially dangerous to life or health, An emergency escape
294421 1 An SCBA A canister-type gas mask. All of the above.
you should don an approved breathing apparatus. hood
Which of the listed devices would be suitable? A
Part 35), a pressure-demand, open circuit, self
294425 1 30 45 60 90
contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) shall have
a minimum of how many minutes air supply. A
The Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew
instructions for lowering the time each weekly drill
295000 13 lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, all emergency signals work schedule
the survival capsule will be held
basic instructions, and __________. A
The Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew
instructions for lowering the time each weekly drill
295000 1 lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, all emergency signals work schedule
the survival capsule will be held
basic instructions, and __________. A
Your assigned emergency stations aboard your
295000 9 muster list certificate of inspection clearance papers permit to proceed A
vessel can be found on the ship's __________.
A continuous blast of the
More than six short blasts One long blast followed by
Which of the following is used to signal crew ships whistle for a period Three short blasts of the
295001 11 followed by one long blast three short blasts of the
members to report at boat stations or for boat drill? of not less than 10 ships whistle.
of the ships whistle. ships whistle.
seconds. A
The signal for lowering the ship's lifeboats is
295002 1 one short blast two long blasts three short blasts one long blast A
sounded on the ship's whistle as __________.
A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not
less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the
295003 7 continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for fire collision man overboard flooded compartment
not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a
__________. A
The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be Coast Guard marine
295008 1 person-in-charge company safety director entire crew A
signed by the __________. inspection officer
make a visual inspection
Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety move quickly about the increase all engine space shutdown auxiliary
295100 1 of all engine spaces and
practice to __________. ship lighting equipment
secure loose gear
A
check for items which may
When a ship is expected to encounter rough seas, move quickly about the make available extra maintain a negative trim
295100 3 become adrift and secure
it is a good safety practice to __________. ship survival gear on the vessel
loose gear A

Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require gears, conspicuously identified
protected with adequate identified by yellow and located where they may
295106 2 couplings, flywheels, and all rotating machinery as to their particular
covers or guards black warning signs not be easily contacted
capable of injuring personnel to be __________. hazard A
Which of the following must be eliminated to
295109 2 Unsafe actions Orderliness Frequent inspections Good work habit/practices A
prevent accidents?
storing all items in a
Safety is dependent on orderliness and tagging all items
storing items in their common storage
295204 2 cleanliness. Order may be maintained by according to their age and disposing of used items
assigned place container except those
__________. then storing them together
ready-for-sea A
four remote manual
three remote manual
According to 46 CFR Part 32, a cargo pump driven two remote manual shutdown stations located
one remote manual shutdown stations located
295206 1 by an internal combustion engine on the weather shutdown stations located fore, aft, port side
shutdown station fore, aft, and at the
deck must have __________. fore and aft midpoint, and starboard
midpoint
side midpoint A
According to 46 CFR's, all mariners directly
2 hours following the 12 hours following the 24 hours following the 32 hours following the
295212 1 involved in a "Serious Marine Incident" are
incident incident incident incident
required to submit to alcohol testing within ______.
A
According to 46 CFR's, besides analyzing a
mariner's breath for alcohol, what other specimen
295214 1 Saliva Skin Hair Cuticle
would be acceptable for alcohol level testing
following a "Serious Marine Incident"? A
If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, cut the line to the sea splash water over the get out of the raft and
295500 1 paddle away from the fire A
you should first __________. anchor liferaft to cool it swim to safety
against the chest with one
both hands holding the
arm crossing the other, knees bent and held close body straight and arms
With no alternative but to jump from an OSV, the lifejacket below the chin
295501 2 covering the mouth and to the body with both arms tightly at the sides for feet
correct posture should include __________. with knees bent and legs
nose with a hand, and feet around legs first entry into the water
crossed
together and ankles
crossed
A
If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do drag the raft ashore and get the provisions out of set the raft back out to sea
295514 1 find some wood for a fire
is __________. lash it down for shelter the raft so someone may spot it
A
If you are forced to abandon ship in a survival remain in the vicinity of head for the closest sea- have an all hands vote on
295515 2 head for the nearest land A
craft, you should __________. the vessel lanes what to do
If you have to abandon ship and enter a liferaft, remain in the vicinity of head for the closest sea-
295515 1 head for the closest land get a majority opinion
your main course of action should be __________. the vessel lanes
A
more than six short blasts a continuous blast of the one long blast followed by
Which of the following signals is used to report for three short blasts of the
295517 3 followed by one long blast whistle for a period of not three short blasts of the
boat station drills __________. whistle
of the whistle less than 10 seconds whistle
A
When administering artificial respiration to an
296000 2 adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated 12 to 15 times per minute 18 to 20 times per minute 20 to 25 times per minute as fast as possible
about __________. A
When administering artificial resuscitation to an
296000 5 adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated 12 to 15 times per minute 18 to 20 times per minute 20 to 25 times per minute as fast as possible
about __________. A

To determine whether or not an adult victim has a
296001 5 pulse, the rescuer should check for the pulse at the carotid artery in the neck femoral artery in the groin brachial artery in the arm radial artery in the wrist
__________. A
To determine whether or not an adult victim has a
296002 3 pulse, the rescuer should check for the pulse at the carotid artery in the neck femoral artery in the groin brachial artery in the arm radial artery in the wrist
__________. A
When administering chest compression during
296004 1 CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the Lower half of the sternum Right chest over the heart Top half of the sternum Left chest over the heart
pressure be applied? A
When administering chest compression during
296004 2 CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the Lower half of the sternum Tip of the sternum Top half of the sternum Left chest over the heart
pressure be applied? A
by not stopping the
Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial without losing the rhythm only with the help of two
296005 1 respiration for more than 5 at ten minute intervals
respiration should be done __________. of respiration other people
minutes A
by not stopping the
Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial without losing the rhythm only with the help of two
296005 2 respiration for more than 5 at ten minute intervals
respiration should be done __________. of respiration other people A
minutes
Before CPR is started on the victim, you should insure the victim is make the victim
296006 5 establish an open airway treat any bleeding wounds A
__________. conscious comfortable
Before CPR is started on the victim, you should insure the victim is make the victim
296006 2 establish an open airway treat any bleeding wounds A
__________. conscious comfortable
Only a trained person A size #2 airway tube is The airway tube will not
Which of the following is a correct statement with Inserting the airway tube
296013 1 should attempt to insert an the correct size for an damage the victim's
respect to inserting an airway tube? will prevent vomiting.
airway tube. adult. throat. A
Only a trained person A size #2 airway tube is The airway tube will not
Which of the following is a correct statement with Inserting the airway tube
296013 2 should attempt to insert an the correct size for an damage the victim's
respect to inserting an airway tube? will prevent vomiting.
airway tube. adult. throat. A
Bleeding from a vein may ordinarily be controlled applying direct pressure to heavy application of a pouring ice water directly
296105 2 pinching the wound closed A
by __________. the wound disinfectant onto the wound
In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a submerging the wound in
296105 1 applying direct pressure cooling the wound with ice applying a tourniquet A
wound should be controlled by __________. lukewarm water
The preferred method of controlling external applying direct pressure elevating the wounded applying pressure on a applying a tourniquet
296105 3 A
bleeding is by __________. on the wound area pressure point above the wound
Bleeding from a vein can be characterized as
296107 1 dark red and slow bright red and slow bright red and spurting dark red and spurting A
__________.
stop the bleeding, clean, lay the patient down and apply an ice pack to the apply a hot towel to purge
First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds
296110 1 medicate, and cover the cover the wound when the wound and cover it when the wound, then medicate
is to __________.
wound bleeding stops the bleeding stops and cover it A
Which of the listed types of bone fractures would
296202 3 Compound Hairline Closed Crack A
be considered as the most serious?
Which of the following conditions is NOT a
296302 2 Slow deep breathing Pale and cold skin Weak and rapid pulse Restlessness and anxiety A
symptom of traumatic shock?
A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and turning the victim's head positioning the victim so
giving the victim water but placing a pillow only under
296307 3 various symptoms indicate a concussion. Proper to the side to keep his the head is lower than the
no food the victim's head
treatment should include __________. airway open body A
Which of the following should not be used as a
296307 2 treatment for a person who has received a head Give a stimulant Elevate his head Stop severe bleeding Treat for shock
injury and is groggy or unconscious? A

In reviving a person who has been overcome by Prompt removal of the Determine the need for,
Keeping him warm and
296308 1 gas fumes, which of the following treatments would Giving stimulants patient from the and administer CPR if
comfortable
you AVOID using? suffocating atmosphere appropriate A
Apply burn ointment,
A victim has suffered a second degree burn to a Immerse the arm in cool Immerse the arm in cold
Open any blisters with a remove any foreign
small area of the lower arm. Which of the following water for 1 to 2 hours, water for 1 to 2 hours,
296401 3 sterile needle, apply burn material, and insure that
statements represents the proper treatment for this apply burn ointment, and open any blister, and
ointment, and bandage. nothing is in contact with
injury? bandage. apply burn ointment.
the burn. A
For small first degree burns the quickest method to immerse the burn in cool apply a bandage to
296401 2 administer aspirin apply petroleum jelly A
relieve pain is to __________. water exclude air
A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by warming the eye with laying the person flat on mineral oil drops directly
296403 1 gently flooding with water A
__________. moist warm packs his back on the eye
Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in
296405 3 acids or alkalis diesel oil acids, but not alkalis alkalies, but not acids A
contact with __________.
flushing with large
wiping the affected area all of the above may be
amounts of fresh water drying the acid or alkali
First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns, with a clean dry cloth and acceptable treatments
296405 4 and seeking medical with a rag followed by
especially in the eyes, includes __________. resting quietly for several depending on the severity
attention ashore or by applying a light cream
hours of the burn
radio A
When treating a chemical burn, you should flood
296405 2 five minutes ten minutes fifteen minutes twenty minutes A
the burned area for at least __________.
You have found a person laying prone and not
Shut off the power and Leave the accident scene
breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Immediately begin artificial Immediately begin cardiac
296501 1 then remove the wire from and summon medical
Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you respiration. massage.
the person. assistance. A
should do?
look for a second burn,
If a person was an unconscious victim of a severe locate the nearest water
which may have been remove any charred skin apply alcohol to the burn
296503 2 electrical burn, you would check for breathing, source and flood the burn
caused by the current from the burned area area as a disinfectant
pulse, and __________. with water for five minutes
leaving the body A
Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of moving to a shaded area bathing with rubbing placing patient in a tub of
296600 1 All the above A
__________. and laying down alcohol cold water
Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of moving to a shaded area bathing with rubbing placing patient in a tube of
296600 12 All of the above A
__________. and lying down alcohol cold water
A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of immerse the feet in warm warm the feet with a heat warm the feet at room rub the feet to restore
296602 6 A
both feet. You should __________. water lamp temperature circulation
A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of Give aspirin or other
Warm the frost bitten toes
296602 3 his right foot. Which of the following is NOT an Rub the toes briskly. Elevate the foot slightly. medication for pain if
rapidly.
acceptable first aid measure? necessary. A
A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of Give aspirin or other
Warm the frost bitten toes
296602 4 his right foot. Which of the following is NOT an Rub the toes briskly. Elevate the foot slightly. medication for pain if
rapidly. A
acceptable first aid measure? necessary.
A crew member has suffered possible frostbite to immerse the feet in warm warm the feet with a heat warm the feet at room rub the feet to restore
296602 1 A
the toes of both feet. You should __________. water lamp temperature circulation
cooling, removing to
Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of bathing with rubbing
296605 1 shaded area and having drinking ice water All of the above
__________. alcohol
the victim lay down
A

296605 4 shaded area and having drinking ice water All of the above
__________. alcohol
the victim lay down A
increased appetite and decreased appetite and
296700 1 Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________. gain in weight elevated temperature A
thirst thirst
When a patient is suspected of having
keeping a ice bag over the giving the patient a giving the patient giving the patient aspirin
296706 2 appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by
location of the appendix laxative morphine sulfate with a glass of water
__________. A
Where there are multiple accident victims, which
296713 3 type of injury should be the first to receive Severe shock Eye injuries Burns Major multiple fractures
emergency treatment? A
Which of the following methods is a convenient Compare the Watch the patient's eyes Look for uncontrolled
Look for discoloration of
296717 1 and effective system of examining the body of an corresponding parts of the as you probe parts of the vibration or twitching of
the patient's skin.
injury victim? body. body. parts of the body. A
Persons who have swallowed a non- petroleum increase the digestive
absorb the poison from neutralize the poison in
296801 1 based poison are given large quantities of warm, induce vomiting process and eliminate the
the blood the blood
soapy water or warm salt water to __________. poison A
While you are fighting a fire in a smoke- filled
compartment one of your shipmates falls
remove him from the
296900 1 sustaining a severe laceration and ceases begin artificial respiration control the bleeding treat for shock
compartment
breathing. Your FIRST response should be to
__________. A
You are in the mess room when a shipmate Administer abdominal
Make the victim lie down
suddenly begins to choke, is unable to speak and thrust (Heimlich Immediately administer Do nothing until the victim
296902 2 with the feet elevated to
starts to turn blue. Which of the following actions maneuver) in an effort to CPR. becomes unconscious.
get blood to the brain.
should you take? clear the airway. A
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) classify a liquid
297000 1 having a flash point of 175°F (79.4°C) as a Grade "E" Grade "D" Grade "C" Grade "B"
combustible liquid, __________. A
297003 1 A grade "A" petroleum product is __________. a flammable liquid a combustible liquid jet fuel lubricating oil A
A grade "E" combustible liquid is one having a
297004 4 flash point of 150°F or above. An example of a Engine lubricating oil Gasoline Alcohol Diesel oil
grade "E" product is __________. A
When petroleum products are handled, static splashing or agitation of excessive pressure on the low temperature fluids
297103 4 low viscosity fluids only A
electricity can be generated by __________. the fluids fluids only
297104 1 An example of a combustible liquid is __________. lube oil gasoline butane benzene A
Which of the following fuels would be classified as
297104 6 a combustible liquid rather than a flammable diesel oil alcohol gasoline all of the above
liquid? A
approximately 1% for
The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil is calculated in British also called absolute
297106 1 each 25°F (13.9°C) measured by weight
__________. Thermal Units viscosity
temperature rise A
Any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or
297111 4 below 80°F, as determined by flash point from an flammable liquid combustible liquid nonflammable liquid noncombustible liquid
open cup tester, describes a __________. A

Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) divide always have a Reid vapor will self-ignite at
give off flammable vapors have a flash point of
297111 3 petroleum products into combustible liquids and pressure of 14 pounds temperatures below 150°F
at or below 80°F (26.7°C) 150°F (65.6°C) or more
flammable liquids. Flammable liquids __________. (6.35 kg) or more (65.6°C) A
Bonding cables are used to reduce the possibility transferring flammable transferring dry mud to or transferring fuel oil from
297115 5 securing drill pipe on deck
of accidental spark discharge when __________. liquids to or from a vessel from a vessel storage to day tanks
A
A dehumidifier used in
All electrical circuits near spaces containing
How can the build up of static electricity be Each machine and hose Static neutralizers can be
and around the fueling flammable liquids will
297115 4 prevented so that a static spark does not ignite involved in the operation used to reduce ionization
operations should be significantly reduce the
flammable vapors? should be grounded. in the air.
opened. possibility of static
charges being generated.
A
open switch, connect connect ground cable,
connect ground cable, close switch, connect
The correct method for connecting a grounding or ground cable, close connect cargo hose, open
297115 7 open switch, and connect cargo hose, open switch,
bonding cable is to __________. switch, and connect cargo switch, and then close
cargo hose and connect ground cable
hose switch A
have crew members use
To minimize the possibility of an explosion caused have its electrical have crew members use
be electrically grounded to flame safety lamps during
297115 6 by the discharge of static electricity, the vessel equipment insulated from flashlights rather than AC
shore piping entry to areas that may
should __________. its structure lamps in vapor filled areas
contain explosive fumes
A
If a mixture containing air and a concentration of
flammable vapor, is capable of ignition when above the upper explosive
297119 3 in the flammable range at the rich point limit at the auto ignition point
exposed to a spark or other source of ignition, it is limit
said to be __________. A
Special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include high toxicity in small
297200 1 frost burns to flesh highly noxious odors all of the above A
__________. quantities
To prevent over-pressurization when loading liquid
297201 1 petroleum products, cargo tanks must be fitted with pressure-vacuum valve ullage opening over pressurization valve equalizing line
a/an __________. A
The design and
Where springs are construction of the valves
Valve bodies, discs,
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), Pressure-vacuum valves employed to actuate the is such that they must be
spindles, and seats must
which of the following conditions is true concerning for cargo tanks shall not valve discs, the springs removed for overhauling,
297251 1 all be made of bronze or a
the construction and/or operation of pressure- be less than 2 inches are to be either plated or insuring there will be no
corrosion resistant
vacuum relief valves? nominal pipe size. fabricated of a corrosion vent blockage which could
material.
resistant material. occur during a repair
period.
A
When bunkering operations are completed, the drained into drip pans or blown down with nitrogen steam cleaned and stowed with their ends
297302 2 A
hoses should be __________. tanks or inert gas flushed with hot water open for venting
No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose
larger than three inches in diameter unless it A bursting pressure A working pressure
297318 2 Metallic reinforcement Identification markings
meets certain requirements. Which of the following greater than 600 psi greater than 150 psi
is NOT a requirement? A

any special procedures the location, size, and the emergency cleanup
The "oil transfer procedures", required by the
inherent to that particular barrel capacity of each and containment
297319 2 Coast Guard Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations All of the above
vessel for topping off tank that is capable of procedures to be followed
(33 CFR), must include __________.
tanks carrying oil in the event of an oil spill A
If you are loading a petroleum cargo which is
there is room for
297320 1 below average ambient temperatures, you must the vents are sealed vapor baffles are installed all of the above
expansion
insure that __________. A
Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter
297323 1 static grounding device quick-disconnect nozzle splash guard vapor recovery system A
refueling must have a __________.
stop the pump throttle the discharge vent the pump casing gag relief valves to
If flammable liquids are being pumped with a
297329 1 immediately if it becomes valve to assure positive continuously to expel prevent recirculating and
centrifugal pump, you should __________.
vapor bound pumping vapors heating of the liquid
A
stop the pump throttle the discharge gag relief valves to
If flammable liquids are being pumped with a throttle the suction valve
297329 2 immediately if it becomes valve to assure positive prevent recirculating and
centrifugal pump, you should __________. to control capacity
vapor bound pumping heating of the liquid
A
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), A signal is not required for
A red flag (day), red light A yellow flag (day), red A green flag (day), green
297330 1 when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock, discharging oil, only
(night) light (night) light (night)
which of the following signals must be displayed? gasoline A
Which of the signals listed is required to be
297330 2 A red flag A yellow flag A red and yellow flag A red light A
displayed during the day while loading fuel?
filters should be installed the dock supervisor need
the inert gas system must water should be allowed
When a cargo oil tank is being cleaned by crude oil in bilge strainers to absorb not be notified before
297334 3 be properly operating in to settle on top before
washing while in port, __________. oil before discharge discharging oily mixtures
that tank discharging
overboard overboard
A
Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be
297336 1 isolated from the crude oil washing system by spade blanks face blanks non-return valves automatic closing valves
__________. A
When taking tank soundings on a MODU, coating better identify the correct show the depth of any reduce possibility of
297341 1 make the tape roll easier A
the tape with chalk helps to __________. reading water in an oil tank sparks
When taking tank soundings, coating the tape with better indicate the correct show the depth of any reduce possibility of
297341 2 make the tape roll easier A
chalk helps to __________. reading water in an oil tank sparks
The most critical time for preventing an accidental fuel begins to come hoses are being blown hoses are being
297403 2 tanks are being topped off
oil spill during bunkering, is when the __________. aboard down disconnected A
To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling
loading rate should be oiler should sound all tank vent valves should be
297406 1 hoses while you are topping off tanks, the hoses should be looped
decreased tanks continuously clear
__________. A
When fuel tanks are being topped off, the person-
temperature of fuel
297409 2 in-charge of bunkering is directly responsible for loading rate vessel draft readings quality of fuel received
received
the __________. A
When fuel tanks are being topped off, the person-
temperature of fuel
297409 3 in-charge of bunkering should carefully monitor the loading rate vessel draft readings quality of fuel received
received
__________. A
flow reversal of tank
The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas flue gas escaping to inert gas escaping to air entering inert gas
297500 2 vapors into the machinery
system is to prevent __________. atmosphere atmosphere system A
space

Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a Maintains the oxygen Drains off static electricity Maintains the water seal
297501 2 Cools the inert gas.
gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system? content at 5% by volume. in the inert gas. on the gas main.
A
According to 46 CFR Part 153, each inert gas
297503 4 system must be capable of maintaining a minimum 0.5 psig 1.0 psig 3.0 psig 14.7 psig
gas pressure of __________. A
Each inert gas system must be designed to supply
the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases,
297505 2 5% or less 10% or less 15% or less 20% or less
that has an oxygen content by volume of
__________. A
For typical crude oils, approximate values for the
297526 1 lower flammable limit and upper flammable limit, 1% and 11% 12% and 23% 24% and 38% 39% and 50%
would be in the range of _________. A
The gas free status
The gas free status only The gas free status only The gas free status only applies as long as the air
Which one of the following statements is true applies to the conditions applies for the duration of applies for a 24 hour temperature inside the
297659 2
concerning the gas free status of a compartment? of the compartment at the the work to be completed period following the compartment remains at
time of the inspection. inside the compartment. inspection. or below standard room
temperature.
A
To prevent an explosion when the pump room has
not been certified gas free and repairs are to be explosion proof self-
marine drop lamp and
297662 3 carried out, the only type of portable electric contained battery powered 1/2 HP electric hand drill portable hand grinder
extension cords
equipment allowed in the pump room would be an lamp
approved __________. A
Where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are
involved, power-driven or manually-operated spark the compartment itself is all cargo tanks have been
297662 1 the vessel is gas free all cargo tanks are empty
producing devices shall not be used in the cargo gas free inerted
pump room unless __________. A
A health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data
297701 1 Sheet (MSDS), that can cause cancer in exposed carcinogen cryogenic irritant mutagen
individuals is called a __________. A
Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
297707 1 (MSDS) referring to more than one chemical is mixture combination multi-material toxin
called a __________. A
Data Sheet (MSDS) that reacts with water or moist
297710 1 water-reactive toxic flammable combustible
air, and produces a health or physical hazard, is
called __________. A
U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), state that
ocean going ships of 400 gross tons and above
must be fitted with a standard discharge shore designed to accept pipes slotted to receive eight
suitable for a service
298001 1 connection for the discharge of oily waste from up to a maximum internal 10 mm in thickness bolts and 20 mm in
pressure of 6 kg/cm2
machinery space bilges to reception facilities. The diameter of 100 mm diameter
flange of this discharge connection must be
__________. A

According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR), a 299 gross ton
uninspected motor towing vessel, not equipped Three (port, starboard,
298005 1 One Two (port and starboard) Two (fore and aft)
with an oily water separator, is required to have and aft)
how many outlets accessible from the weather
deck to discharge oily bilge slops? A
When completing the ballasting operation of a
Back flow of contaminated Insufficient pump pressure Motor overload due to
298008 2 contaminated tank, which of the following problems Loss of pump suction
water when topping off high discharge head A
must be guarded against?
The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the tank that is completely fuel settling tank for isolated tank for analysis
oily water separator for
298009 2 Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) as separated from the cargo segregation from lighter because of its noxious
segregation
ballast water introduced into a/an __________. oil and fuel oil systems fluids properties A
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state
that when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each
fitted with an anti- siphon
298010 1 sea suction valve connected to the vessel's oil sealed or lashed closed fitted with a blank flange lined up for immediate use
device
transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be
__________. A
Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from plugging all scuppers and placing floating booms regularly emptying all drip thoroughly draining all
298015 1 A
contaminating any waters by __________. drains around the ship pans bunkering hoses
The oil transfer procedures required onboard
vessels with a capacity of 250 or more barrels a line diagram of the procedures for fighting oil procedures for cleaning
(39.7 cubic meters or more) of oil must contain vessel's oil transfer piping fires up oil spills
__________. A
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations a quick connection
an automatic back
(33 CFR), no person may use a connection for oil a clamped or compression coupling approved by the a connection not over six
298020 1 pressure shut off nozzle is
transfer operations unless it is a bolted or full fitted connection American Petroleum inches in diameter
used to fuel the vessel
threaded connection, or __________. Institute A
Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery drained into the vessel's
298027 1 reclaimed for other uses held in a slop tank purified and then reused A
may NOT be __________. bilges
If it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a Pump only if the discharge
Pump only during the Pump only on the Pump only as much as is
298028 2 vessel is in port, which of the following procedures is led to a shore tank or
hours of darkness. outgoing tide. necessary. A
should be followed? barge.
The plan will include the If the vessel is over forty
A description of the No official plan in writing is
responsibilities of all feet in length, the plan
According to Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR), vessel's procedure for required; however, all
personnel required to shall be submitted in
298039 1 which of the following describes items pertinent to collecting, processing, established routines shall
assist in the collection of writing to the Officer In
waste management plans? storing and discharging continue to be adhered to
garbage onboard the Charge of Marine
garbage shall be provided. and followed.
vessel. Inspection.
A
The discharge of plastic The discharge of plastic The discharge of plastic
According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 Part The discharge of plastic and plastic mixed with and plastic mixed with and plastic mixed with
151), pertaining to the discharge of plastic or and plastic mixed with garbage into waters garbage into waters garbage into waters
298042 1
garbage mixed with plastic, what statement is garbage into any waters is beyond three nautical beyond 12 nautical miles beyond 25 nautical miles
true? prohibited. miles from the nearest from the nearest land is from the nearest land is
land is permitted. permitted. permitted. A
have its forward most
According to Code of Federal Regulations 33, a be required to re- distill all
not discharge any frame members be certified for inland use
298043 1 vessel operating upon the Great Lakes shall water used for cooling or
garbage into these waters sufficiently stiffened to only
__________. condensate systems A
prevent ice damage

The containment drains

According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations The containment may be must have quick-closing
All containment drains Containment drains are
(33 CFR), which of the following statements is fixed or portable valves to be closed in the
298103 1 must lead to a common, prohibited from leading to
correct regarding the fuel oil containment under the depending upon the age event of leakage or failure
fixed drain tank. a common tank.
oil filling connection section? of the vessel. of any part of the transfer
connection.
A
The containment drains
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention must have quick-closing
They may be fixed or All containment drains Containment drains are
Regulations (33 CFR Part 155), which of the valves to be closed in the
298104 1 portable, depending upon must lead to a common prohibited from leading to
following statements is correct regarding the fuel event of leakage or failure
the age of the vessel. fixed drain tank. a common tank.
oil containment around loading manifolds? of any part of the transfer
connection.
A
According the Pollution Prevention Regulations, a
tank vessel with a total capacity of over 250,000
barrels of cargo oil, having two loading arms with a
298105 3 nominal pipe size diameter of 10 inches, must 126 gallons 168 gallons 252 gallons 491 gallons
have under each loading manifold a fixed container
or an enclosed deck area having a minimum
capacity of __________. A
all necessary components the transfer system is
The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) all unnecessary parts of the transfer system is
of the transfer system are connected to an automatic
298106 1 requires that no person may transfer oil to or from the transfer system are connected to a flexible
lined up before the back pressure shutoff
a vessel unless __________. open and drained overflow fuel hose
transfer begins nozzle
A
U.S. Coast Guard Regulations require that no
person may transfer oil or fuel to a vessel of 3000 fixed container or portable container of at
automatic back pressure quick-closing anti- spill
298107 1 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974, unless enclosed deck area of one least 5 U.S. gallon
shutoff nozzle valve
each fuel tank vent overflow and fill pipe is barrel capacity capacity
equipped with a/an __________. A
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part
155) state that no person may transfer oil or fuel to
a vessel of 300 gross tons or more, constructed fixed fuel oil discharge portable fuel oil discharge automatic back pressure quick-closing anti- spill
298108 1
after June 30,1974, unless each fuel tank vent, containment containment shutoff nozzle valve
overflow, and fill pipe is equipped with a/an
__________. A
An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, constructed
in January 1976, and not equipped with an oily onboard in the ship's
298113 1 in the forward peak tank in the oil purifier reservoir in a cofferdam
water separator, may retain all bilge slops bilges
__________. A
remove the plugs from the
use absorbent material, remove scuppers and
When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill scuppers to allow the spill
298200 5 such as sawdust, to clean wash the fuel overboard sound the general alarm
occurs on deck, you should __________. to run overboard and wipe
up the spill with a solvent
the area dry with rags A


emergency operating
requires an emergency means of stopping the flow usual operating station of
298300 1 bridge engine room station of the person- in-
of oil during oil transfer operations. The emergency the person- in-charge
charge
means must be operable from the __________. A
Which of the following represents an emergency
procedure used to stop the oil flow aboard tank Quick-acting power Self-closing emergency Pressure-sensitive oil Manually-operated quick-
298305 1
vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by actuated valve disconnect fitting pressure controller closing valve
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)? A
When you notice oil on the water near your vessel
notify the senior deck notify the terminal determine whether your
298306 2 while taking on fuel, you should FIRST stop loading
officer superintendent vessel is the source
__________. A
While taking on fuel, you notice oil on the water
Notify the terminal Determine if your vessel is
298306 6 around the vessel. Which of the following actions Stop fueling Notify the dispatcher
superintendent the source
should be taken FIRST? A
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations,
any discharge of oil, or oily mixture into the sea
from any oil tanker, or from any ship of 400 gross
298400 1 33 CFR 151 33 CFR 153 33 CFR 156 33 CFR 159
tons and above, other than an oil tanker, is
prohibited while in a "special" area. These "special
areas" are designated in __________. A
has the minimum required will assume the has financial reserves to
has financial backing to
A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that amount of protection and responsibility for any meet reasonable expected
298453 1 meet any liability resulting
the vessel __________. indemnity insurance (P & damage or loss to the crew costs of an intended
from the discharge of oil
I) shipper voyage
A
The term "oil" as defined in the Pollution noxious liquid substances
animal or vegetable based
298500 2 Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) means: petroleum in any form designated under Annex II All of the above
oil
__________. of MARPOL 73/78 A
No person may discharge garbage from a vessel
located near a fixed or floating platform engaged in
298553 1 1650 feet 1850 feet 2000 feet 2500 feet
oil exploration at a distance of less than
__________. A
According to MARPOL, the definition of oil does
298560 1 cooking oil crude oil sludge oil refuse A
NOT include __________.
no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside
officer-in-charge of the
298601 1 a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade USCG captain of the port terminal manager tank ship owner
vessel which is loading
cargo without having the permission of the
__________. A
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state hoses are supported to adequate deck lighting is each part of the transfer
a sample has been taken
298601 3 that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel prevent kinking and strain turned on one hour before system is blown through
from the oil being received
unless __________. on its coupling sunset with air A
CFR), no person may connect or disconnect an oil the designated person-in- that person holds a that person holds a
that person holds a valid
298603 2 transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil charge supervises that tankerman assistant license as master, mate,
port security card
transfer operation on a tank vessel unless procedure endorsement or engineer
__________. A

CFR), when may a person serve as the person-in- When authorized by the When licensed as a Whenever the vessel is Whenever the facility is
298604 1
charge of both a vessel and a facility during oil Captain of the Port. certified refueling officer. short of manpower. unmanned.
transfer operations? A
establishing the transfer
298606 4 that the person-in-charge of bunkering is quantity of fuel received quality of fuel received vessel draft
rate
responsible for __________. A
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations whether or not the
(33 CFR), the person-in- charge of transfer the identity of the product the size of the slop tank the status of the oily water transferring ship is a
298611 1
operations, both ashore and on the vessel, must to be transferred required under 155.330 separator "Public Vessel of the
agree on __________. United States" A
The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker the name of the person a description of the deck
a line diagram of the special procedures for
298615 2 transferring oil are NOT required to contain designated as the person discharge containment
vessel's oil transfer piping topping off tanks
__________. in charge of transfer system
A
During oil transfer operations, who would be
The designated person in
298618 1 responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer The tankerman The senior able seaman The oiler
charge
procedures are being followed? A
Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention oil and hazmat transfer large oil transfer shore pumping equipment
298619 1 cargo vessel design A
Regulations concerns __________. operations side facilities design
To serve as the person in charge of oil cargo
have a letter from the
transfer operations onboard a self- propelled tank be a certified tankerman
298622 1 be licensed only be 30 years old company stating his
vessel, an individual (PIC)
qualification
must __________. A
U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book Environmental Protection
298708 1 Local MSO/COTPs/MIO's local courthouse U.S. Customs Agency A
from the __________. Agency
6 months and then
not less than 3 years and
The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard submitted to the nearest the duration of the ship's
298709 1 be readily available for an annual inspection
the vessel for __________. Marine Safety Office for active employment
inspection
review A
Shifting suction of main Changing out sprayer
Which of the following machinery space operations Ballasting or cleaning of Daily inspection of engine
298711 1 fuel pump to reserve fuel plates to adjust for steam
is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book? fuel oil tanks. room bilges.
oil tank. demand. A
discharge of ballast or
A MODU is required to carry an Oil Record Book to sounding levels of all fuel grade and specific gravity fuel consumption rates on
298712 1 cleaning water from fuel
log entries in the book regarding the __________. tanks on a daily basis of all fuel oil carried a weekly basis
tanks A
has an oily water
is not equipped to is on an international has an International Oil
The requirement to carry an Oil Record Book does separator of sufficient
298715 1 discharge overboard any voyage to a country that is Pollution Prevention
not apply to a MODU that __________. capacity for the oil wastes
oil or oily mixture party to MARPOL Certificate
generated A
should not be used to is required to have entries
is to be kept in the
is the property of the U.S. record the accidental recorded within 48 hours
298719 1 The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships ________. personal possession of
government discharge of oily or oily of completion of the
the Master
mixtures particular operation
A
Which of the following is a mandatory section of list of individuals required
298902 2 reporting requirements removal equipment list plan exercises A
the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? to respond
Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil
298907 1 pollution emergency plan to be reviewed annually only biennially only quad-annually only only one every five years
__________. A

The amount of garbage disposed must be entered
barrels, measured in 55 weight in either kilogram cubic yards convertible to
299004 1 into the records maintained by each ship and cubic meters
gallon drums or pounds long tons
stated in __________. A
Comminuted or ground garbage which will be
discharged into the sea must be able to pass
299007 1 25 millimeters 50 millimeters 75 millimeters 100 millimeters
through a screen with a mesh size no larger than
__________. A
They must be tested for
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets They can be repaired by a They can be used for
299107 1 They should be replaced. buoyancy before being
which are severely damaged? reliable seamstress. children.
continued in use. A
All models will The immersion suit seals The suit will still be not restricted in body
automatically turn an in body heat and provides serviceable after a brief (2- movement and the suit
299110 2 Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
unconscious person face- protection against 6 minutes) exposure to may be donned well in
up in the water. hypothermia for weeks. flame and burning. advance of abandoning
ship. A
To release the davit cable of a davit launched
299143 1 pull the release lanyard pull the hydraulic release push the release button pull on the ratchet handle A
liferaft, you must __________.
To release the raft from
What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on To inflate the raft To test the rafts
299147 2 the cradle automatically None of the above.
an inflatable liferaft? automatically. hydrostatically.
as the ship sinks. A
299149 1 Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts? non-toxic inert gas Oxygen Hydrogen Carbon monoxide A
Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an
sail twine and vulcanizing
299151 2 inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using sealing clamps repair tape a tube patch
kit
__________. A
Puncture leaks in the lower tubes, or bottom of an
sail twin and vulcanizing
299151 3 inflatable liferaft should first be stopped by using sealing clamps repair tape a tube patch
kit
__________. A
When in a liferaft, the use of a sea anchor will keep the liferaft from aid in recovering the
299152 3 reduce your drift increase your visibility SF-0042 A
__________. turning liferaft
Hand holds or straps on the underside of an to right the raft if it to carry the raft around on
299155 1 for crewman to hang on to to hang the raft for drying A
The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry
299202 1 fishing kit searchlight sea anchor radar reflector A
a _____________ .
The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall
299205 2 compass one 50 foot line one can opener all of the above A
include one __________.
You are picking up a person who has fallen
overboard. A rescue boat should be maneuvered wind on your starboard
299206 2 victim to leeward victim to windward wind on your port side
to normally approach the victim with the side
__________. A
All of the following are recognized distress signals the repeated raising and
299303 1 under the Rules of the Road EXCEPT a green star signal orange-colored smoke red flares lowering of outstretched
__________. arms A
When a vessel signals her distress by means of a
299306 1 gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be 1 minute 3 minute 10 minutes 1 hour
at intervals of approximately __________. A
299350 2 How many degrees are there on a compass card? 360° 380° 390° 420° A
As a vessel changes course to starboard, the first turns to starboard
remains aligned with turns counterclockwise to
299351 2 compass card in a magnetic also turns to starboard then counterclockwise to
compass north port A
compass___________. port

When a magnetic compass is not used for a be shielded from direct be locked into a constant have any air bubbles have the compensating
299354 1 A
prolonged period of time it should __________. sunlight heading replaced with nitrogen magnets removed
A vessel heading ESE is on a course of
299355 8 112.5° 135.0° 157.5° 180.0° A
__________.
A vessel heading NNE is on a course of
299355 11 022.5° 045.0° 067.5° 090.0° A
__________.
A vessel heading SSW is on a course of
299355 3 202.5° 225.0° 247.5° 270.5° A
__________.
If hand held rocket-
propelled parachute flares
Which statement is TRUE concerning distress Hand held flares and Two hand-held smoke A very pistol with twelve
299376 1 are provided, they are the
signals in survival craft? orange smoke. signals shall be provided. flares is required.
only distress signals
required.
A
lay the crew member lay the crew member attempt to stand the crew
A crew member is unconscious and the face is administer a liquid
299450 1 down with the head and down with the head lower member upright to restore
flushed. You should __________. stimulant
shoulders slightly raised than the feet consciousness
A
A rescuer can most easily determine whether or
299453 1 not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the carotid artery in the neck femoral artery in the groin brachial artery in the arm radial artery in the wrist
pulse at the __________. A
Which should NOT be a treatment for a person
299455 1 who has received a head injury and is groggy or Give a stimulant. Elevate his head. Stop severe bleeding. Treat for shock.
unconscious? A
Prompt removal of the
In reviving a person who has been overcome by Applying artificial Keeping the patient warm
299456 1 Giving stimulants patient from suffocating
gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing? respiration and massage and comfortable
atmosphere A
make the victim lye down
A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and perform the Heimlich immediately administer do nothing until the victim
299460 2 with the feet elevated to
starts to turn blue. You should __________. maneuver CPR becomes unconscious
get blood to the brain A
299466 1 shaded area, and lying drinking ice water All of the above
__________. alcohol
down A
increased appetite and decreased appetite and
299470 1 Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________. gain in weight elevated temperature A
thirst thirst

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USCG

Engineering Test Environmental and Safety Formatted by Bruce Sherman

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What would be the approximate internal pressure

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pause for a moment until

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Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR) require that the

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On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held

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smoke density has been

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educting mechanical foam educting air through "C",

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