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CBSE

Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 1
Matter in Our Surrounding

1 Marks Questions

1. Which of the following are matter?

Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold drink, smell of perfume.

Ans. Chair, air, smell, almonds, cold drink and smell of perfume are matter.

2. Convert the following temperature to Celsius scale:

i) 300 K

ii) 573 K

Ans. i)

ii)

3. What is the physical state of water at:

a.

b.

Ans. b. is the boiling point of water hence at both the temperatures water is in
gaseous state i.e. water vapour.

4. For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of
state?

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Ans. During the change of state the heat or energy provided to particles of matter is utilized
to take the particles of matter apart from each other as a result the temperature of substance
or matter remains constant during change of state.

5. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.

Ans. If we decrease temperature and increasing pressure we can liquefy the atmospheric
gases.

6. Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between


the particles— water, sugar, oxygen.

Ans. Oxygen< water< sugar.

7. What is the physical state of water at—

(a) (b) (c) ?

Ans. At 25°C water is liquid, at water is solid(ice), at water is gas(water vapour).

8. If the humidity in the air increase then the rate of evaporation:

(a) decrease

(b) increase

(c) remain same

(d) both (b) and (a) depending upon the temperature

Ans. (a) decrease

9. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) boiling is a bulk phenomenon and evaporation is a surface phenomenon

(b) boiling is a surface phenomenon and evaporation is a bulk phenomenon

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(c) boiling and evaporation both are surface phenomenon

(d) boiling and surface both are bulk phenomenon

Ans. (a) boiling is a bulk phenomenon and evaporation is a surface phenomenon

10. If the temperature of a place is increase then evaporation:

(a) decrease

(b) increase

(c) remain same

(d) none of the above

Ans. (b) increase

11. Which of the following have least inter atomic spacing?

(a) solid

(b) liquid

(c) gases

(d) plasma

Ans. (a) solid

12.If you decrease the surface area and increase the temperature, then the rate of
evaporation

(a) increase

(b) decrease

(c) remain same

(d) may increase or decrease depending upon other factors

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Ans. (c) remain same

13. 300k will have its corresponding temperature in degree centigrade as:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (c)

14. Liquid to gas and gas to liquid changes are called:

(a) vaporization and condensation

(b) condensation and vaporization

(c) sublimation and condensation

(d) condensation and sublimation

Ans. (a) vaporization and condensation

15. Physical state of water at is respectively

(a) liquid, solid and gas

(b) solid, liquid and gas

(c) solid, gas and liquid

(d) gas, solid and liquid

Ans. (a) liquid, solid and gas

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 1
Matter in Our Surrounding

2 Marks Questions

1. Give reasons for the following observation:

The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several meters way, but to get the smell from
cold food you have to go close.

Ans. Since hot sizzling food has temperature higher than cold food and at higher
temperature diffusion rate (movement) of particles is very fast due to this the smell of hot
sizzling reaches us from several meters away.

2. The mass per unit volume of substance is called density.

(density = mass/volume).

Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys,
honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.

Ans. Arranging substances in their increasing order of densities:


Air< exhaust from chimneys< cotton< water< honey< chalk< iron.

3. Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have
observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.

Ans. Ice represents solid state of water. If we observe its 3D structure, a large empty space is
found inside ice as a result it becomes less in weight as compared to water. Due to its specific
structure though solid, ice floats on water.

4. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?

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Ans. On a hot dry day rate of evaporation is faster. In a desert cooler when exhaust fan is on,
hot air enters through the straw mates and at this site evaporation of water takes place and
that also at faster rate. It takes away heat from air so the air becomes cool even cooler on a
hot dry day.

5. How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?

Ans. During summers the water present on the surface of the earthen pot evaporates which
causes the cooling effect. Besides earthen pot bears pores on it hence evaporation occurs
continuously so is cooling.

6. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?

Ans. Some liquids get quickly vapourised and they are called volatile liquids. Acetone, petrol
and perfume are also volatile liquids therefore they get heat from our palm and cause
cooling.

7. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?

Ans. Saucer has a bigger surface area as compared to cup. Since evaporation is a surface
phenomenon, by using a saucer instead of cup we are increasing the surface are for
evaporation to occur. Faster evaporation of particles of tea or milk allows cooling and taking
a sip becomes easier.

8. What type of clothes should we wear in summer?

Ans. Cotton is a good absorbant of water hence it absorbs sweat quite well and pores in the
fabric expose that sweat to easy evaporation hence we should prefer wearing cotton clothes
in summer.

9. Convert the following temperatures to the celsius scale.

(a) 293 K (b) 470 K.

Ans. a)

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b)

10. Convert the following temperatures to the Kelvin scale.

(a) 25° C
(b) 373° C.

Ans. a)
b)

11. Give reason for the following observations.

(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving anysolid.

(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.

Ans. a) Some substances possess the property of sublimation like camphor and naphthalene
balls. Such substances directly change from solid to gaseous state without changing into
liquid like ice→water→water vapour does. Therefore, naphthalene balls disappear with time
without leaving any solid.

b) Being a volatile substance (gets evaporated easily) perfumes change from liquid to
gaseous state very fast. Those particles mix up with air particles and diffuse to reach our
nostrils such that we get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.

12. Give two reasons to justify—

(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.

(b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.

Ans. a) The room temperature is generally always more than and less than and
within this range water is a liquid so water at room temperature is a liquid.

b) The melting point of iron is much higher than the room temperature therefore an iron
almirah is a solid at room temperature.

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13. Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?

Ans. While melting ice absorbs latent heat of melting from the surroundings and gets
changed into water that makes the cooling effect more intense as compared to water at same
temperature.

14. What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?

Ans. As compared to boiling water it is observed that steam produces more severe burns
since as the steam changes into boiling water it releases heat of condensation which is
equivalent to latent heat of water result is more severe burning.

15. What is evaporation? What are the factors affecting it?

Ans. Evaporation is the process by which water (liquid) changes to vapours at any
temperature below its boiling point.

Factor on which evaporation depends:

(a) Surface area

(b) Humidity

(c) Wind speed

(d) Temperature

16. What happen when we apply pressure to the particles of matter?

Ans. When we apply pressure to the particles of the matter, then the particles come closer to
each other because pressure is the force applied per cross-sectional area so the force applied
brings the particle closer to each other.

17. Define latent heat of vaporization and latent heat of fusion.

Ans. Latent heat of vaporization is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid to gas
at atmospheric pressure without changing its state.

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Latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to change 1 kg of solid into liquid
without changing its state.

18. If the melting point of an object A is high then what state you expect it to be at room
temperature?

Ans. Melting point is the temperature at which a solid melts/change into a liquid state. So, if
the melting point of an object A is higher means that it requires greater temperature to
change into liquid the object will remain the same at room temperature because room
temperature is less and the object cannot change its state.

19. What happens when the temperature of the solids increase?

Ans. When temperature of the solid is increased, kinetic energy of the particles increases as
results particles vibrates more freely with greater speed. They overcome the force of
attraction between the particles and start moving more freely.

20. When heat is being supplied to a solid, then what does the heat energy do to the
particles of solid?

Ans. The heat supplied to the solid, helps the particles to overcome the forces of attraction
between them and increases their kinetic energy, as a result of which particle break free the
forces of attraction and changes to liquid state.

21. Why is it that on increasing the wind speed the rate of evaporation increases?

Ans. When the speed of wind increases, then they blow away with them the water vapour in
the air and as results evaporation will increase because the surrounding air will be able to
receive more vapours and hence evaporation increases.

22. Why do we say that evaporation is a surface phenomenon?

Ans. Evaporation is called a surface phenomenon because only particles of the surface of
liquid gains energy and changes into vapours.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 1
Matter in Our Surrounding

3 Marks Questions

1. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter
does this observation show?
Ans. If diver has ability to cut through water in a swimming pool then it shows that the
particles of matter have a kind of force working between them. Because of this force the
particles of matter remain together till some external force is applied.

2. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?


Ans. The characteristics of particles of matter are as follows:
i) particles of matter have gap between them.
ii) particles of matter are in continuous motion
iii) particles of matter have an attraction force between them to keep them together.

3. (a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter.


(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas
container, shape, kinetic energy and density.
Ans. (a)

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(b) Rigidity→ It is the property of matter to maintain its shape even if external forces work
and the solids show this property.

Compressibility → It is the property of matter to allow compression under high pressure and
the gases show this property.

Fluidity → It is the property of a substance to easily flow and allow change in its shape under
external forces and this property is exhibited by both liquids and gases.

Filling a gas container → Gases can be compressed easily hence they can be filled within a
vessel at high pressure. This property of gases allows their convenient filling into a small
container or cylinder and that also in a large volume. It also allows their easy transport from
one place to the other eg CNG.

Shape→ According to the type of matter shape differs depending upon location of particles
like Solids have definite shape while Liquids acquire the shape of their container and gases
as such don’t have any shape.

Kinetic energy → It is the kind of energy present in an object when it is under motion as the
particles of that object/matter are continuously moving therefore matter has kinetic energy.
However greater is the movement more will be the kinetic energy and vice a versa i.e. solid <
liquid < gas Density → Mass per unit volume of a substance/matter is known as its density i.e.
density = mass/volume.

4. Give reasons

(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.

(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.

(c) A wooden table should be called a solid.

(d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood
we need a karate expert.

Ans. (a) Since the attraction force between particles of a gas is negligible i.e. extremely less
hence particles freely move/flow in all possible directions as a result gas fills completely the

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vessel in which it is kept.

(b) Freely moving particles of gas hit the walls of its container continuously and randomly
therefore such random and erratic motion of gas particles exerts pressure on the walls of the
container.

(c) A wooden table particles are quite rigid, have a fixed location and also possess a definite
shape and volume. Due to all these properties we should call a wooden table a solid
substance.

(d) Air is a mixture of gases and since particles of gas are far apart so same is true for air
therefore we can easily move our hand in air. But a solid block of wood is hard and rigid that
resists any change in location of its particles hence we need a karate expert in case of a solid
block of wood.

5. Name A,B,C,D,E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state.

Ans. A – Fusion (Heating – Melting)

B – Vapourisation

C – Cooling – Condensation (Liquefaction)

D – Cooling – Freezing (Solidification)

E – Sublimation

F – Solidification

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6. Are the three state of matter inter-convertible? How can they interconnect?

Ans. Yes, three states of matter are inter-convertible.

(a) Solid can be changed into liquid by boiling and liquid can be changed to solid by cooling
it i.e. by solidification.
(b) Liquid can be changed to gas by vaporization by heating it and gas can be changed to
liquid by condensation i.e. subjecting it to low temperature.
(c) Solid can be changed to gaseous form/state by sublimation and liquid can be changed to
solid by condensation.

7. How does evaporation cause cooling?

Ans. When a substance evaporates from a surface, it absorbs heat from the surface and
change into vapour state. So, the particle of liquid absorbs energy from the surface and the
absorption of heat from makes the surface cool.

8. Why should we wear cotton clothes in summer?

Ans. During summer, we perspire more and the particles at the surface of the liquid gain
energy from the surrounding or body surface and change into vapour. Now, cotton being an
absorber of water helps in absorbing the sweat and exposed it to atmosphere for easy
evaporation and we feel cool.

9. Differentiate between physical and chemical change?

Ans.

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10. A solution of is labeled 40%. The density of the solution is 1.3gm/l. what is

the concentration of the solution in % (m/v)?

Ans. Concentration of the solution is 40%


This means that
100 gm of the solution contains 40g of H2 So4

Density =

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11. What is the state of inter particle distance inside a solid, liquid and gas?

Ans. In solids, the particles are very close to each other and are bonded by strong forces of
attraction so inter particle distance is least. In liquid, the particles are far away from each
other and are bonded by weak forces of attraction, so inter particle distance is large. In
gases, particles are very far apart from each other and are bonded by very weak forces of
attraction so, inter particle distance is a largest.

12. Why it is that to smell cold food, we have to go close but smell of hot food reaches us
several meters away?

Ans. In hot food, the particles are at high temperature so quickly changes to vapour and
hence the vapours have greater kinetic energy so travel faster and travel to far off distances.

Whereas in cold food, because of temperature being low, particles do not change to vapour
state and hence cannot travel faster so the smell does not reaches to a person sitting far
away.

13. Why is it that a wooden chair should be called a solid and not a liquid?

Ans. A wooden chair should be called a solid not a liquid because the particles of wooden
chair are very close to each other, it has negligible compressibility and it maintains its shape
when subjective to outside force.

14. Give an experiment to show that ammonium chloride undergoes sublimation.

Ans. Experiment to show that ammonium chloride undergoes sublimation:

(a) Take an inverted funnel and inside it china dish with crystal of ammonium chloride
.

(b) Heat the crystals with the help of a burner.

(c) As soon as the crystal is heated, we observe the vapours of and the solidified

Ammonium chloride along the walls at the upper end of the beaker.

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(d) This shows that solid ammonium chloride does not undergo liquid state but directly
changes to vapour state which them solidifies i.e. it undergoes sublimation (solid changes
directly to gases without undergoing liquid state).

15. What is distillation and fractional distillation? What is the basic property that
separates the two methods?

Ans. Distillation is used for the separation of components of a mixture containing two
miscible liquid that boil without decomposition and have sufficient difference in their
boiling points. Fractional distillation is used for the separation of components of a mixture
containing more than two miscible liquids for which the difference in their boiling points is
less than 25k.

The property that separates the two processes is difference in the boiling points of the
components of the mixture i.e. if difference in boiling points is large then we use distillation
but if difference in boiling points is less, we use fractional distillation.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 2
Is Matter Aroud Us Pure

1 Marks Questions

1. Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures.

Ans. You can do it by yourself like try mixing chalk powder and water then separate them.

2. Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture.

soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.

Ans.

3. How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?

Ans. If we allow the given liquid to evaporate by heating it as in a clean china dish so:

any residue remaining in the china dish will indicate that water is not pure but
contains impurities.
no residue in china dish will indicate that water is pure.

4. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?

(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid

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(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air.

Ans. Pure substances are: ice, iron, hydrochloric acid, calcium oxide, mercury.

5. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

(a) Soil

(b) Sea water

(c) Air

(d) Coal

(e) Soda water.

Ans. Sea water, air and soda water are solutions.

6. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

(a) Salt solution

(b)Milk

(c) Copper sulphate solution

(d) Starch solution.

Ans. Milk and starch solution have larger particles since they are not true solutions so they
will show tyndall effect.

7. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

(a) Sodium

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(b) Soil

(c) Sugar solution

(d) Silver

(e) Calcium carbonate

(f) Tin

(g) Silicon

(h) Coal

(i) Air

(j) Soap

(k) Methane

(l) Carbon dioxide

(m) Blood

Ans.

8. Which of the following are chemical changes?

(a) Growth of a plant

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(b) Rusting of iron

(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand

(d) Cooking of food

(e) Digestion of food

(f) Freezing of water

(g) Burning of a candle.

Ans. Rusting of iron, cooking of food, digestion of food, burning of a candle are chemical
changes.

9.Which of the following solution scatter light?

(a) colloidal solution

(b) suspension

(c) both

(d) none

Ans. (c) both

10. Which of the following methods would you use to separate cream from milk?

(a) fractional distillation

(b) distillation

(c) centrifugation

(d) filtration

Ans. (c) centrifugation

11.Cooking of food and digestion of food:

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(a) are both physical processes

(b) are both chemical processes

(c) cooking is physical whereas digestion is chemical

(d) cooking is chemical whereas digestion physical

Ans. (b) are both chemical processes

12. Mercury and Bromine are both

(a) liquid at room temperature

(b) solid at room temperature

(c) gases at room temperature

(d) both (a) and (b)

Ans. (a) liquid at room temperature

13. Blood and sea water are:

(a) both mixtures

(b) both are compound

(c) blood is a mixture whereas sea water is a compound

(d) blood is a compound and sea water is a mixture

Ans. (a) both mixtures

14. Sol and Gel are examples of examples of

(a) Solid-solid colloids

(b) Sol is a solid-liquid colloid and Gel is liquid solid colloid

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(c) Sol is a solid-solid colloid and Gel is a solid-liquid colloid

(d) Sol is a liquid-solid colloid and Gel is a solid-liquid colloid

Ans. (b) Sol is a solid-liquid colloid and Gel is liquid solid colloid

15. In a water-sugar solution:

(1) water is solute and sugar is solvent

(2) water is solvent and sugar is solute

(3) water is solute and water is also solute

(4) none of these

Ans. (b) Sol is a solid-liquid colloid and Gel is liquid solid colloid

16. Boron and carbon:

(a) are metalloids

(b) boron is metalloid and carbon is non-metal

(c) boron is metallic and carbon is a metal

(d) boron is non-metal and carbon is a metalloid

Ans. (a) are metalloids

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 2
Is Matter Aroud Us Pure

2 Marks Questions

1. What is meant by a substance?

Ans. Substance can be defined as that kind of matter where constituent particles cannot be
separated from each other by any physical process since they are all similar in chemical
properties.

2. How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their
boiling points is more than ), which are miscible with each other?

Ans. We can separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol by distillation technique
since difference in their boiling points is more than . So through distillation we can
get them separated.

3. Name the technique to separate

(i) butter from curd,


(ii) salt from sea-water,
(iii) camphor from salt.

Ans. (i) centrifugation method.


(ii) evaporation method.
(iii) sublimation method.

4. What type of mixtures are separated by the technique of crystallisation?

Ans. From impure samples of solids, pure solid crystals can be obtained by the method of
crystallization for eg to obtain pure sugar from impure sample of the same.

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5. What is a mixture? What are its various types?

Ans. A mixture is constituted by more than one substance (element/or compound) mixed in
any proportion. They are of two types:
(a) Homogenous mixture
(b) Heterogeneous mixture

6. Define solute, solvent and solution?

Ans. Solute: - It is the component of the solution which is added to the solvent.
Solvent: - It is the component of the solution to which the solute is added or it dissolves the
solute.
Solution: - It is constituted by solute and solvent.
For e.g. solution of NaCl- has NaCl as solute and water as solvent.

7. What is a solution? What are the properties of solution?

Ans. A solution is a homogenous mixture of two or more substance. The various properties
of solution are: -
(a) It is a homogenous mixture.
(b) The particles of a solution are smaller than 1nm and hence cannot be seen by naked eyes.
(c) It does not scatter the beam of light passing through it.
(d) The component of solution cannot be separated from each other by the process of
filtration.

8. Differentiate between elements and compounds.

Ans.

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9. What is tyndall effect? Which kinds of solution show it?

Ans. The scattering of a beam of light by particles of solution when light is passed through it
is called tyndall effect. Those solutions where size of the particle is very small for e.g.
colloidal solution shows tyndall effect.

10. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixture?

Ans.

11. What is centrifugation? Where it is used?

Ans. Centrifugation is a technique used for separation of constituents of mixture and is


based upon the principle that denser particles stay at bottom and lighter particles stays at the
top when spun rapidly. It is used separate cream from milk.

12. What is a suspension? What are the properties of suspension?

Ans. A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture in which the solute particles do not dissolve
but remains suspended throughout the bulk of the medium.

Properties of suspension:
(a) The particles can be seen by naked eyes.
(b) They scatter a beam of light passing through it.
(c) The particles settle down when left undisturbed.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 2
Is Matter Aroud Us Pure

3 Marks Questions

1. List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

Ans.

2. Differentiate between homo generous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.

Ans.

3. How are sol, solution and suspension different from each other?

Ans.

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4. To make a saturated solution,36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water
at293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.

Ans. Mass of sodium chloride (solute) = 36 g

Mass of water (solvent) = 100 g

Mass of solution = 36 + 100 = 136 g

Therefore, concentration percentage = mass of solute/mass of solution

= 26.47 %

5.Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

• cutting of trees,
• melting of butter in a pan,
• rusting of almirah,
• boiling of water to form steam,
• passing of electric current, through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen
and oxygen gases,
• dissolving common salt in water,
• making a fruit salad with raw fruits, and

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• burning of paper and wood.

Ans. cutting of trees = chemical change

melting of butter in a pan = physical change

rusting of almirah = chemical change

boiling of water to form steam = physical change

passing of electric current, through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and
oxygen gases = chemical change

dissolving common salt in water = physical change

making a fruit salad with raw fruits = physical change

burning of paper and wood = chemical change

6. Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?

(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.


(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium
chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd.
(f) Oil from water.
(g) Tea leaves from tea.
(h) Iron pins from sand.
(i) Wheat grains from husk.
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.

Ans. (a) Evaporation method

(b) Sublimation method

(c) by heating and then after filtration

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(d) by Chromatography

(e) by method of centrifugation

(f) by using separating funnel

(g) by filtration method using strainer

(h) with the help of a magnet

(i) by winnowing

(j) by centrifugation

7. Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words solution, solvent, solute,
dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.

Ans. Take more amount of solvent (water) in a pan and after heating it add little amount of
solute (sugar) to the solvent. Solute will dissolve completely in the solvent forming true
solution, then add tea leaves that are insoluble along with another soluble liquid milk. After
boiling allow filtration with a sieve so the filtrate you obtain is tea while the residue has tea
leaves that are thrown away.

8. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures


and collected the data as given below(results are given in the following table, as grams
of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution).

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of
potassium nitrate in50 grams of water at 313 K?

(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and
leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the

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solution cools? Explain.

(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this
temperature?

(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?

Ans. (a) At 313 K temperature the amount of potassium nitrate required was 62g in 100ml of
water so in 50g water we will need to dissolve potassium nitrate.

(b) At 373K saturated solution preparation needs 54g potassium nitrate and at room
temperature (293 K) saturation solution formation occurs with 35g potassium nitrate hence =
54 – 35 = 19g potassium nitrate will precipitate out as undissolved salt.

(c) Solubilities are (in 100 mg of water) 32,36,35,37 respectively for the mentioned salts and
the highest solubility is of ammonium chloride at this temperature.

(d) Solubility of salts is directly proportional to the temperature i.e. if temperature increases
then solubility will increase and if the temperature decreases solubility will also decrease.

9. Explain the following giving examples.

(a) saturated solution


(b) pure substance
(c) colloid
(d) suspension

Ans. (a) saturated solution: It is a solution in which no more solute particles can be dissolved
at a particular temperature.

(b) pure substance: Such substance that has a uniform composition i.e. has particles with
identical properties is called pure substance eg sugar, salt, water, nitrogen etc.

(c) colloid: It is a kind of heterogeneous mixture/solution in which particle size is between


1nm and 1000nm. Colloids have dispersion medium and dispersed phase.eg smoke, milk,
shaving cream, jelly, cheese etc.

(d) suspension: It is a kind of heterogeneous mixture in which insoluble solid particles

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remain suspended in the medium and dispersion particles are visible to the unaided eyes.eg
muddy river water, chalk powder in water, dust storm, sand in water etc.

10. Write a method to separate different gases from air.

Ans. Air is a homogeneous mixture of various gases.

It can be separated from its various components by fractional distillation.

(a) First compress and cool the air by increasing the pressure and decreasing the
temperature.

(b) We obtain the liquid air; now allow the liquid air to warm up slowly in fractional
distillation column.

(c) The various gases separate from each other according to their boiling points at various
heights of the fractionally column.

11. What is a colloid? What are its various properties?

Ans. Colloids are the heterogeneous mixture of substances in which the particle size is too
small and cannot be seen by naked eyes.

(1) It is a heterogeneous mixture, but appears homogenous.

(2) The size of particles is too small to be individually seen by naked eyes.

(3) They scatter beam of light passing through it and makes its path visible.

(4) The particles of colloid do not settle down when left undisturbed.

12. A solution contains 60g of NaCl in 400g of water. Calculate the concentration in term
of mass by mass percentage of the solution.

Ans. Mass of solute (NaCl) = 60g

Mass of solvent (water) = 400g

. 6 / 9
Mass of solution = Mass of solute + Mass of solvent

= 60 + 400 = 460g

Mass percentage of solution =

= = = 13.4%

13. Differentiate between metals and non metal based upon the various properties that
they show.

Ans.

14. Differentiate between mixtures and compound by giving appropriate examples?

Ans.

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15. Write a method to separate a mixture of salt and ammonium chloride?

Ans. A mixture of salt and ammonium chloride can be separated by the process of
sublimation. Since ammonium chloride changes directly from solid into gaseous state on
heating and salt does not so this principle is used to the mixture of two.

(1) The mixture of NH4Cl (ammonium chloride) and salt is taken in a china dish inside an

inverted funnel.

(2) The mixture is heated and because NH4Cl sublimates thus changes into vapours directly.

(3) Salt which is non-sublimable substance settles into the inverted funnel.

Separation of NH4Cl salt by sublimation

16. What is crystallization? Where is it used? Why is this better than simple
evaporation technique?

Ans. Crystallization is a process that separates a pure solid in the form of crystals from its
solution. It is used to purify solids. For e.g. salt from sea water is purified using
crystallization. It is a better technique than simple evaporation because:

(a) Some solid may decompose or get charred on heating to dryness during evaporation.

(b) On evaporation, some of the impurities still remain dissolved in the solution.

17. What is chromatography? What are its various applications and underline the basic

. 8 / 9
principle involved?

Ans. Chromatography is a technique used for separation of those components whose


solubility in the same solvent is different.

Its various applications are:

(a) It is used to separate different colours in dye.

(b) It is used to separate pigments from natural colours.

(c) It is used to separate drugs from blood.

The basic principle in chromatography is the different solutes have different solubility in the
same solvent. For e.g. if we take a spot of ink on a paper and dip it in water than that
coloured component which is more soluble in water rises faster and the other which is less
soluble remains at the bottom and hence the two component can be separated.

18. A solution of acid is labeled is 95%. What is the mass of this that must be

diluted with water to get 5L of solution containing 10 g of per litre?

Ans. 1L of the diluted solution must contain 10 g of .

Therefore, 5L of the diluted solution must contain 50 g of .

The concentration of the acid in the bottle is 95%.

This means that

95 g of is present in 100 g of the acid solution

50 g of will be present in

52.64 g of the solution

9 / 9
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 3
Atoms and Molecules

1 Marks Questions

1. Atomic radius is measured in nanometers and

(a) 1nm = m

(b) 1m = nm

(c) 1m = nm

(d) 1nm = m

Ans. (c) 1m = nm

2. Symbol of Iron is :-

(a) Ir

(b) I

(c) Fe

(d) None of these

Ans. (c) Fe

3. Atomicity of chlorine and Argon is

(a) Diatomic and Monoatomic

(b) Monoatomic and Diatomic

(c) Monoatomic and Monoatomic

1 / 4
(d) Diatomic and Diatomic

Ans. (a) Diatomic and Monoatomic

4. Molecular mass of water is

(a) 18g

(b) 8g

(c) 33g

(d) 34g

Ans. (a) 18g

5. 1 Mole of a compound contains –

(a) 6.023× atoms

(b) 6.023× atoms

(c) 60.23× atoms

(d) 6.023× atoms

Ans. (a) 6.023× atoms

6. Oxygen is –

(a) Monovalent

(b) Bivalent

(c) Trivalent

(d) Tetravalent

Ans. (a) Monovalent

2 / 4
7. What is the molecular formula for Calcium Hydroxide?

(a) Ca

(b) Ca OH

(c) OH

(d) Ca

Ans. (b) Ca OH

8. Neutron is

(a) Chargeless and Massless

(b) Chargeless and has Mass

(c) Has charge and Mass

(d) Has charge and Massless.

Ans. (b) Chargeless and has Mass

9. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Cathode rays travel in straight line and have momentum.

(b) Cathode rays travel in straight line and have no momentum

(c) Cathode rays do not travel in straight line but have Momentum.

(d) Cathode rays do not travel in straight line and have no momentum.

Ans. (a) Cathode rays travel in straight line and have momentum.

10. –particles are represented as :-

(a)

. 3 / 4
(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (a)

11. and are

(a) Isotopes

(b) Isobars

(c) Isotones

(d) Both b and c

Ans. (b) Isobars

12. The maximum number of electrons in L shell is

(a) 8

(b) 18

(c) 28

(d) 38.

Ans. (a) 8

4 / 4
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 3
Atoms and Molecules

2 Marks Questions

1. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass
of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas?

Ans. As per the given 1:8 ratio mass of oxygen gas required to react completely with 1g of
hydrogen gas is 8g.

Therefore mass of oxygen gas required to react completely with 3g of hydrogen gas will be =
3 X 8 = 24g

2. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of conservation of
mass?

Ans. The postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory which is the result of the law of conservation of
mass is mentioned as below :

Atoms are indivisible particles, which cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

3 .Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite
proportions?

Ans. The postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory which explains the law of definite proportions
is “Atoms combine in the ratio of small whole numbers to form compounds and the relative
number and kinds of atoms are constant in a given compound.”

4. Why is it not possible to see anatom with naked eyes?

Ans. An atom is an extremely minute particle and as such actual mass of an atom of
hydrogen is considered to be 1.6X10-24 g. That is why it is not possible to see an atom with

1 / 7
naked eyes.

5. How many atoms are present in a

(i) S molecule and

(ii) ion?

Ans. (i) 2atoms of hydrogen + 1 atom of sulphur = 3 atoms

(ii)1atom of phosphorus + 4atoms of oxygen = 5 atoms

6. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, O, ,given atomic masses of Zn


= 65 u, Na = 23 u, K = 39 u, C = 12 u, and O = 16 u.

Ans. Formula unit mass of :

(i) ZnO = Atomic mass of Zn + atomic mass of O = (65 + 16)u = 81 u

(ii) O = Atomic mass of Na +atomic mass of O = (23x2) + 16 = 46 + 16 = 62 u

(iii) = (39 x 2) + 12 + (16 x3) = 78 + 12 + 48 = 138 u

7. Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of sodium or100 grams of iron (given,
atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?

Ans. We can find out the element with more number of atoms by calculating number of
moles of each of them :

Number of moles of sodium in 100g = m1/M1 = 100/23 = 4.34

Number of moles of iron in 100g = m2/M2 = 100/56 = 1.79

Therefore, the number of atoms is more for sodium as compared to iron.

8. When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced.
What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of
oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?

2 / 7
Ans. According to the law of chemical combination of constant proportions “in a chemical
compound the elementary constituents always combine in constant proportions by
weight/mass”. Therefore whether 3 g carbon is burnt in 8 g oxygen or 3g carbon is burnt in
50g oxygen in both cases only 11g carbon dioxide will be formed.

9. What is the mass of:

(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?

(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?

Ans. (a)since 1 mole of O = atomic mass of O = 16u=16g

then 0.2mole of O = 0.2 x 16 = 3.2g

(b) 1mol of O = molecular mass of O = 1x2 + 16 =18 u =18g

then 0.5mol of O = 0.5x18 = 9g

10. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8) present in16 g of solid sulphur.

Ans. 1mol of S8 = molecular mass of S8 = 32 x 8 = 256u=256g

since 256g of S8= 1mol = 6.022 x 1023 atoms (Avogadro number)

16g of S8= 16x6.022 x 1023/256 = 3.76x1022 molecules

11. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g ofaluminium oxide.

(Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of thesame element. Atomic
mass of Al = 27 u)

Ans. 1mol of = molecular mass of = 27x2 + 16x3 = 102u=102g

aluminium ions present in = 2Al3+

102 g of contains aluminium ions = 2x6.022x1023

then 0.051 g containsaluminium ions = 2x6.022x1023x0.051/102= 6.022x1020

3 / 7
12. State law of conservation of Mass?

Ans. According to law of conservation of Mass, mass can neither be created nor be destroyed
in a chemical reaction.

13. Define Valency? Find the Valency of oxygen and Aluminum.

Ans. Valency is defined as the number of electrons that an element has to gain or loose from
its outermost shell so that it can be stable or the combining capacity of an atom.

Oxygen – Atomic number = 8; Electronic configuration = 2, 6 i.e. it has to gain 2e- so that in :
outer most shell has 8e-, Valency of O is -2 Similarly, valency of Al (Aluminum) is +3 (
electronic configuration → 2, 8, 3) so it looses 3e- from its outermost shell.

14. Calculate the molar mass of and CaC O3?

Ans. Molar Mass of =

2× Mass of sodium + 1× Mass of sulphur + 4× Mass of oxygen

= 2×23+1×32+4×16

= 46+32+64

= 142 a.m.u.

Molar Mass of CaC =

1× Mass of calcium +1×Mass of carbon + 3×Mass of oxygen

= 40+12+3×16

= 40+12+48 = 100 a.m.u.

15. Write the chemical formula for

a) Calcium Phosphate b) Magnesium Hydroxide c) Aluminum chloride.

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Ans. Chemical formula for

1) Calcium Phosphate

2) Magnesium Hydroxide

3) Alminium chloride

16. State the law of constant Proportion?

Ans. According to law of constant proportion, whatever the method of its formation, a
chemical compound in its pure state will always contain the same elements combined
together in the fixed ratio by mass.

17. How many molecules of water are present in a drop of water which has a mass of
50mg?

Ans. We know that:-

5 / 7
1 mole of an compound = 6.023×1023 atoms

= Gram molecular mass

Gram Molecular mass of O = 18g

= 1.673× molecules.

18. Find the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of an element X
which is represented as .

Ans. The element is

Now, 82 = Atomic Number

207 = Mass Number.

(a) Atomic number = number of protons

82 = Number of protons.

(b) Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons

207 = 82 + Number of neutrons

207 – 82 = Number of neutrons

125 = Number of neutrons.

19. Define the terms:- a) Atomic number b) Mass number

Ans. Atomic Number is defined as the total number of protons present in an atom.

Mass number is defined as the sum total of number of protons and the number of neutrons

6 / 7
present in an atom.

20. What is meant by e/m ratio? What was the value of this ratio for a particle in the
cathode rays?

Ans. ratio is the ratio of charge of the particle to mass of those particle.

The ratio for cathode rays was found out to be 1.759× C / Kg.

21. Complete the following equations which describe nuclear charge –

a)

b)

c)

Ans. In any nuclear reaction, mass number (no. of p+ + no. of no) and atomicnumber (no. of
p+) must be conserved.

(1)

(2)

(3)

22. Stat the properties of cathode rays?

Ans. Properties of cathode rays are :-

(1) They travel in straight line

(2) They have momentum and energy

(3) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

7 / 7
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 3
Atoms and Molecules

3 Marks Questions

1. Define the atomic mass unit.

Ans. According to the latest recommendations of International Union of Pure and Applied
Chemistry (IUPAC) the atomic mass unit (amu) is abbreviated as u or unified mass.
For chemical calculations the atomic masses of elements are expressed by taking the atomic
mass of one atom of an element as the standard mass. Like the atomic mass of carbon is
taken as 12 units and each unit is called as 1 a.m.u i.e.
1 amu = 1/12 of atomic masses of .

2. Write down the formulae of


(i) sodium oxide
(ii) aluminium chloride
(iii) sodium suphide
(iv) magnesium hydroxide

Ans.

Compound Formula
Sodium oxide O
Aluminium Chloride AlC
Sodium Sulphide S
Magnesium Hydroxide Mg

3. Write down the names ofcompounds represented byfollowing formulae:


(i)
(ii) CaC
(iii)

1 / 9
(iv) KN
(v) CaC .

Ans.

Formula Compound
Aluminium sulphate
CaC Calcium chloride
Potassium sulphate
KN Potassium nitrate
CaC Calcium carbonate

4. What is meant by the term chemical formula?

Ans. A chemical formula is the representation of elements present in a compound with the
help of symbols and also the number of atoms of each element with those numbers only. For
e.g.: A molecule of water (compound) contains 2 atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
hence its chemical formula is H2O.

5. What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.

Ans. When two or more atoms in a group is having a charge, such is called a polyatomic ion.
For e.g. : , etc.

6. Write the chemical formulae of the following.


(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate.

Ans.

Compound Chemical formula


Magnesium chloride MgC

. 2 / 9
Calcium oxide CaO
Copper nitrate CuN
Aluminium chloride AlC
Calcium carbonate CaC O3

7. Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds.


(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate.

Ans.

Compound Formula Elements present


Quick lime CaO Calcium and oxygen
Hydrogen bromide HBr Hydrogen and bromine
Baking powder NaHC Sodium, hydrogen, carbon and oxygen
Potassium sulphate Potassium, sulphur and oxygen

8. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances.


(a) Ethyne,
(b) Sulphur molecule,
(c) Phosphorus molecule, (Atomic mass of phosphorus= 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HN

Ans. (a) Ethyene = = 12x2 + 1x2 =24 + 2= 26 u =26 g


(b) Sulphur molecular = = 32 x 8 = 256 u= 256 g
(c) Phosphorus molecule = = 31 x4 = 124 u= 124 g
(d) Hydrochloric acid = HCl = 1+ 35.5 = 36.5 u= 36.5 g
(e) Nitric acid = HN = 1 + 14 + (16x3) = 15 + 48 = 63 u =63 g

9. What is the mass of—


(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?

3 / 9
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium= 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite ( )?

Ans. (a) Atomic mass of nitrogen is 14 u.


therefore 1 mol of N = 14g

(b) Atomic mass of aluminium = 27u


therefore 1 mol of Al = 27g and so 4 mol of Al = 27x4 = 108g

(c) molecular mass of = 23x2 + 32 + 16x3 = 46 + 32 + 48 = 126 u


therefore 1 mol of has weight/mass 126g.
hence, 10 mol of = 10x126 = 1260g

10. Convert into mole.


(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide.

Ans. (a) molecular mass of = 32 u= 32g(1 mole)


since 32 g of =1mole then 12g of = 1x12/32 =0.375mole.

(b) molecular mass of O = 1x2 + 16 = 18 u= 18g(1mole)


20g O = 1x20/18 = 1.11mole.

(c) molecular mass of C = 12 + 16x2 = 12 + 32 = 44 u= 44g (1mole)


22g of C = 1x22/44 = 0.5mole.

11. State the Postulates of Dalton Theory?

Ans. The postulates of Dalton theory are

a) All matter is made of vary tiny particles called atom


b) Atoms are indivisible particle; they cannot be created or destroyed during a chemical
reaction
c) Atoms of a \given element are identical in mass and chemical properties
d) Atoms of different elements have different mass and chemical properties.

4 / 9
e) Atom combines in the ratio of their whole number to form compounds
f) The relative number and kinds of atoms are constant in a compound.

12. Find the percentage of water of crystallization in feS . 7 O.

Ans. The RMM of FeS .7 O= 55.9 + 32.0 + 4 × 16 + 7(18)


= 55.9 + 32 + 64 + 126
= 277.9 g/mol.
277.9 g/mol of FeS contain 126g of water
∴ 100g of crystal will contain of water of crystallization
This is 45.34 of water of crystallization
The amount of water of crystallization in FeS .7 O = 45.34% by mass.

13. 2.42g of copper gave 3.025g of a black oxide of copper, 6. 49g of a black oxide, on
reduction with hydrogen, gave 5.192g of copper. Show that these figures are in
accordance with law of constant proportion?

Ans. The percentage of copper is first oxide

The percentage of copper is second oxide =


=80.02
As the percentage of copper in both the oxides is same, thence law of constant composition is
verified.

14. A compound was found to have the following percentage composition by mass Zn =
22.65%, S = 11.15%, H = 4.88%, O = 61.32%. The relative molecular mass is 287g/mol. Find
the molecular formula of the compound, assuming that all the hydrogen in the
compound is present in water of crystallizations.

Ans. Zn : S:O:H =

To obtain an integral ratio, we divide by smallest number

= 1 : 1 : 11 : 14

5 / 9
∴ empirical formula is Zn S
Let Molecular formula be
RMM for the molecular
Formula = 287
287n = 287
n = 1
∴ Molecular formula is Zn S

15. Which element will be more reactive and why → the element whose atomic number
is 10 or the one whose atomic number is 11?

Ans. Element with atomic number 11 is more reactive than the one with atomic number 10
because electronic configuration of atomic number 11 will be 2, 8, 1 so, it has to loose only
1e- from its outermost shall to be stable which is more easy than the element with atomic
number 10 because its electronic configuration is 2, 8 and has 8e- in the outermost shell and
hence is already stable.

16. What are the failures of Dalton Atomic theory?

Ans. Failures of Dalton Atomic Theory are :-

1) Atom is not the smallest particle as it is made up of protons, neutrons and electrons.
2) Atom’s mass can be cornered to energy (E = mc2) and hence can be created and destroyed.
3) Atoms of one element have been charged into atoms of another element through artificial
transmutation of elements.
4) Atoms of same element need not resemble each other in all respects as isotopes (Different
of same element) exist.
5) Atoms of different elements need not differ in all respects as isobars (same forms of
different elements) exist.

17. Calculate the molecular Mass of


a) Ammonium sulphate
b) Penicillin
c) Paracetamol

6 / 9
Ans. a) Ammonium Sulphate

b) Penicillin
=16 × mass of carbon + 18 × Mass of hydrogen + 2 × Mass of Nitrogen + 1 × mass of sulphur +
4 × Mass of oxygen.
= 16 × 12 + 18 × 1 + 2 × 14 + 1 × 32 + 4 × 16
= 192 + 18 + 28 + 32 + 64 = 334 g /mol.

c) Paracetamol
= 8 × Mass of carbon + 9 × Mass of hydrogen + 1 × mass of Nitrogen + 1 × mass of oxygen.
= 8 × 12 + 9 × 1 + 1 × 14 + 1 ×16
= 96 + 9 + 14 + 16
= 135 g /mol

18. The following questions are about one mole of sulphuric acid ?

a) Find the number of gram atoms of hydrogen in it?


b) How many atoms of hydrogen does it have?
c) How many atoms (in grams) of hydrogen are present for every gram atom of oxygen
in it?
d) Calculate the number of atoms in ?

Ans. 1 Mole of H2 SO4 = gram molecular Mass = 6.023 × 1023 molecules


a) In H2 So4 → 2 gram atoms of hydrogen are present
b) 6.023 1023 atoms = H2SO4
So, 2H = 2×6.023×1023
= 12.046×1023

c) In H2SO4;
for every 2 hydrogen there ave4 oxygen
so for 1 hydrogen = oxygen are present
= 2 oxygen are present

7 / 9
For 1 oxygen = hydrogen one present
= 0.5 Hydrogen are present

d) 1 Mole of H2SO4 = 6.023×1023 atoms.

19. Write an experiment to show that cathode rays travel in straight line?

Ans. Experiment to show that cathode rays travel in straight line:-

a) Take a discharge tube coated with a fluorescent substance


b) Place an opaque object in the path of the cathode rays.
c) When cathode rays were made to pass through the discharge tube then discharge the
glowed wherever cathode rays fall except in the region of the shadow of the opaque object.
d) The above experiment shows that cathode rays travel is straight line.

20. What is radioactivity? What are the applications of radioisotopes?

Ans. The spontaneous emission of radiation by a substance is called as radioactivity.

Applications of radioisotopes:-

a) Isotope of CO-60 emits r-radiation which is used in radiotherapy for cancer.


b) Iodine-131 is used in diagnosis and treatment of disease of the thyroid gland.
c) Isotope P-32 is used in treatment of leukemia.
d) Carbon – 14 is used to study biochemical processes.

21. There are 2 elements C and B. C emits an α – particle and B emits a β – particle. How
will the resultant elements charge?

. 8 / 9
Ans. When a α-particle is released, atomic number decreases by 2-units and mass number
decrease by 4- units. When a β particle is releases by 1 unit and mass number remains the
same.
So, c-emits a α-particle so,

The resultant element will have its atomic number decreases by 2 units and mass number
decreases by 4 units.
B-emits a β-particle, so,

The atomic number of B increases by 1 unit and mass number remains same.

22. What are isotopes? Name the isotopes of hydrogen and draw the structure of their
atoms?

Ans. Isotopes are atoms of the same element having same atomic number and different mass
number.

There are 3 isotopes of hydrogen:-

1) Protium =
2) Deuterium -
3) Tritium =
p+ = Proton
e- = electron.

9 / 9
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 3
Atoms and Molecules

5 Marks Questions

1. In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The


products were2.2g of carbon dioxide, 0.9g water and 8.2g of sodium ethanoate. Show
that these observations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass.

sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid→ sodium ethanoate + carbondioxide + water

Ans. According to law of conservation of mass :

mass of reactants = mass of products

Lets calculate and find out both results –

mass of reactants = mass of sodium carbonate +mass of ethanoic acid

= 5.3g + 6g

= 11.3g

mass of products = mass of sodium ethanoate + mass of carbon dioxide + mass of water

= 8.2g +2.2g + 0.9g = 11.3g

Hence it is proved that these observations are in agreement with the law of conservation of
mass.

2. Calculate the molecular masses of

1.
2.
3.

1 / 3
4.
5. C
6.
7.
8.
9. C OH

Ans.

1. Molecular mass of
= atomic mass of H x 2= 1 x 2= 2u.
2. Molecular mass of
= atomic mass of O x 2 = 16 x 2= 32u.
3. Molecular mass of
= atomic mass of Cl x 2 = 35.5 x 2 =71u.
4. Molecular mass of
= atomic mass of C + (atomic mass of O x 2)
= 12 + (16 x 2)
= (12 + 32) = 44 u
5. Molecular mass of C = 12 + atomic mass of hydrogen x 4
= 12 + (1x4)
= 12 + 4 = 16 u
6. Molecular mass of
= (12 x 2) + (1x6) = 24+6 = 30 u
7. Molecular mass of
= (12x2) + (1x4) = 24 + 4 = 28 u
8. Molecular mass of
= 14 + (1x3) = 14 + 3= 17 u
9. Molecular mass of C OH
= 12 + (1x3) + 16 + 1 = 12+3+16+1 = 32 u

3. If one mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 grams, what is the mass (in grams) of 1 atom
of carbon?

2 / 3
Ans. Weight of one mole of carbon = atomic mass of carbon (1 atom of carbon) = 12 u

Therefore one mole of carbon contains = 12 g = 6.022 x atoms (Avogadro number)

so 1 atom of carbon = 12/ g


or, 12 u = 12/6.022 x g
1 u = 12/6.022 x x12 g
1 u = 1/6.022 x g
1 u = 0.1660577 x g
or, 1 u = 1.660577 x g

4. A 0.24 g sample of compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain
0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the
compound by weight.

Ans. Mass of the given sample compound = 0.24g

Mass of boron in the given sample compound = 0.096g

Mass of oxygen in the given sample compound = 0.144g

% composition of compound = % of boron and % of oxygen

Therefore % of boron = mass of boron x 100/mass of the sample compound


= 0.096 x 100/0.24
= 40%

Therefore % of oxygen = mass of oxygen x 100/mass of the sample compound


= 0.144 x 100/0.24
= 60%

3 / 3
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 4
Structure of the Atoms

1 Marks Questions

1. What are canal rays?

Ans. E. Goldstein discovered positively charged rays, those rays are called canal rays.

2. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?

Ans. That atom will not contain any charge because one negative charge of single electron
and one positive charge of single proton are neutralized by each other.

3. Name the three sub-atomic particles of an atom.

Ans. Proton, Neutron and Electron.

4. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery


of

(a) Atomic Nucleus

(b) Electron

(c) Proton

(d) Neutron

Ans. (c) Proton

5. Isotopes of an element have

(a) the same physical properties

1 / 6
(b) different chemical properties

(c) different number of neutrons

(d) different atomic numbers.

Ans. (a) the same physical properties

6. Number of valence electrons in Cl– ion are:

(a) 16

(b) 8

(c) 17

(d) 18

Ans. (b) 8

7. Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

(a) 2,8

(b) 8,2,1

(c) 2,1,8

(d) 2,8,1.

Ans. (a) 2,8

8. Atomic Number of an element is equal to:

(a) Number of Protons

(b) Number of electrons

(c) Number of neutrons

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(d) Both a) and b)

Ans. (a) Number of Protons

9. The charge of proton (p+) is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (a)

10.

(a) Isotopes

(b) Isobars

(c) Isotones

(d) Both a) and b)

Ans. Isotopes

11. Helium has:

(a)

(b)

(c)

3 / 6
(d)

Ans. (a)

12. In which form is oxygen stable?

(a)

(b)

(c) O

(d) Both a) and c)

Ans. (a)

13. How many electrons does Na+ has in its Outermost shell?

(a) 10

(b) 11

(c) 18

(d) 8

Ans. (d) 8

14. Atomic number of an element during a Chemical reaction.

(a) Increases

(b) Remain Constant

(c) Decreases

(d) May be a) or c)

Ans. (b) Remain Constant

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15. The molecular formula for Aluminum chloride us

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) Both b and c

Ans. (c)

16. Atomicity of fluorine is:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Ans. (b) 2

17.Molecular formula for calcium fluoride is –

(a)

(b) Ca F

(c)

(d) 2 Ca F

Ans. (a)

18.Electronic configuration of calcium is

. 5 / 6
(a) 2, 8, 8, 2

(b) 2, 8, 6, 4

(c) 2, 8, 7, 1

(d) 2, 8, 1, 7.

Ans. (a) 2, 8, 8, 2

19. Nitrogen is:

(a) Monatomic

(b) Diatomic

(c) Triatomic

(d) Tetratomic

Ans. (b) Diatomic

6 / 6
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 4
Structure of the Atoms

2 Marks Questions

1. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atomic neutral as a
whole.

Ans. As per Thomson’s model of an atom, the number of electrons (negatively charged) are
equal to the number of protons (positively charged) in an atom. Hence the + and – charges
are neutralized by each other that makes atom neutral as a whole.

2. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in


the nucleus of an atom?

Ans. The sub atomic particle proton is present in the nucleus of an atom according to
Rutherford’s model of an atom.

3. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.

Ans.

4. What do you think would be the observation if the α-particle scattering experiment is
carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?

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Ans. Yes the observations would have been different if the α-particle scattering experiment
is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold.

5. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two protons in its nucleus. How many
neutrons does it have?

Ans. The number of neutrons present in a helium atom

= atomic mass – no. of protons

= 4-2 = 2

6. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.

Ans. Distribution of electrons in carbon atom:

atomic number of carbon = 6 = 2,4

Distribution of electrons in sodium atom:

atomic number of sodium = 11 = 2,8,1

7. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of
electrons in the atom?

Ans. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then the total number of electron in the atom will
be 10 because K shell can accommodate total 2 and L shell can accommodate maximum 8
electrons that makes a total of 10.

8. If number of electrons in an atomic 8 and number of protons is also 8, then

(i) what is the atomic number of the atom? and

(ii) what is the charge on the atom?

Ans. (i) atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons = 8

(ii) atom will be neutral (no charge) because number of protons (+) is equal to the number of

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electrons (-)

9. With the help of Table 4.1, find out the mass number of oxygen and sulphur atom.

Ans. mass number of oxygen = number of neutrons + number of protons

= 8+8 =16

mass number of sulphur = number of neutrons + number of protons

= 16 + 16 = 32

10. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?

Ans. Main limitation to the J.J. Thomson’s atomic model was that it didn’t explain the
arrangement of electrons in an atom

11. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.

Ans. Na has atomic number 11, so its electronic configuration is = 2,8,1

When it gives away its outermost shell single electron it changes to Na+ =10= 2,8

The above configuration indicates completely filled K, L shells.

12. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.

Ans. When Z = 3, so that element has 3 electrons in its shells distributed as = 2,1.

Its valency is 1 because it can easily give away its outermost single electron and the element
is Lithium(Li).

13. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under

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Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?

Ans. The mass number of X = 6+6 = 12

The mass number of Y = 6+8 = 14

since their number of protons are same but atomic mass are different so they are isotopes.

14. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.

(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.

(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it


is neutral.

(c) The mass of an electron is about 12000 times that of proton.

(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine.

Put tick (ü) against correct choice and cross (×) against wrong choice in questions 15, 16
and 17

Ans. (a) false

(b) true

(c) true

(d) false

15. The nucleus of an atom of Bi – 210 (atomic number = 83) emits a -particle and
becomes a polonium nuclide. Write as equation for the nuclear change described.

Ans. Whenever a – particle is emitted, atomic number increase by 1 unit and mass
number remains same. So. Equality is

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16. How can one conclude that electrons are fundamental particles?

Ans. Electrons were concluded to be the fundamental particles because the ratio of

electron remains same irrespective of the nature of gas and electrodes inside the discharge
tube.

17. What happens to the nucleus of an atom when it emits a r-ray?

Ans. When a nucleus emits a γ – ray than there is no change in the mass or charge of nuclide
but energy of nuclide decreases by an amount equal to energy of photon emitted.

18. Write the electronic configuration of following ions:

(a)

(b) Mg

(c) Al3+

(d) O

Ans. a) electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8

b) Mg electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2

c) Al3+ electronic configuration = 2, 8

d) O = electronic configuration = 2, 6.

19. State Mendeleev’s Periodic law?

Ans. According to Mendeleev’s Periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of
elements and periodic function of their atomic weight (mass).

According to Mendeleev’s Periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of elements and
periodic function of their atomic weight (mass).

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20. Define ionization energy and electron affinity?

Ans. Ionization energy of an element is the amount of energy that must be supplied to one
mole of the element in the gaseous state to obtain one mole of caters in the gaseous state.

Electron affinity → point is the energy change that accompanies the formation of one mole of
anions in the gaseous state from one mole of the atoms of the element in the gaseous state.

21. Why is atomic number is more important than atomic weight in predicting the
chemical properties of elements?

Ans. Atomic number is the number of protons in an atom and during a chemical reaction the
number of protons remains unchanged. Atomic number also gives number of electrons.
Electrons are present in shell which participate in chemical reactions and decides chemical
properties. Whereas atomic weight is the sum of number of protons and number of neutrons
so atomic number is more important in predicting the chemical properties of elements.

22. What are the advantages of the Periodic Table?

Ans. Atomic radius increases down a group because as we move along a group the atomic
number increases and the number of shells also increases and the distance of the nucleus
from the outermost election increases as it gets far away from the nucleus.

Atomic radius decreases along a period because as we move from left to right along a period,
the atomic number of the atom increases, and the positive charge nucleus and electrons are
added to the same orbit and increased nuclear charge will increase the force of attraction of
the electrons.

23. Which of the following electronic configuration are wrong and why?

(a) 2, 8, 2

(b) 2, 8, 8, 2

(c) 2, 8, 9, 1.

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Ans. 2, 8, 9, 1 is wrong because after filling 8 electrons in third shell next two electrons in the
fourth shell to maintain stability of an atom.

24. What are ions? What are its two types?

Ans. When one or more electrons are removed from a neural atom, a positively charged
particle is formed and this is called an ion. It is of two types

1) Cation

2) Anion.

25. Show diagrammatically the formation O2- ion?

Ans. The atomic number of oxygen [0] = 8

Electronic configuration of 0=2, 6 i.e so, it needs only 2 electrons to complete its outermost
orbit and hence on gaining it becomes ion and electronic configuration is 2, 8.

26. Define Isotopes and Isobars?

Ans. Isotopes are atoms which have same atomic number but different mass number for eg:
.

Isobars are atoms which have the same mass number but different atomic number eg:
.

7 / 7
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 4
Structure of the Atoms

3 Marks Questions

1. For the symbol H, D and Tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each of them.

Ans.

2. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.

Ans. Isotopes of carbon:


both have same number of electrons and protons.

Isobars:

3. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Ans.

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4. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?

Ans. Rutherford’s model of atom didn’t explain the stability of atom because as per his model
revolving charged electrons while moving through orbit should emit energy and this energy
loss will shrink the orbit and ultimately the electron would hit the nucleus and thus atom is
unstable but it is not true.

5. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Ans. That number of electrons (present in outermost shell) /valence electrons which an atom
gives or takes or shares to complete its octet, or acquire stable configuration. Therefore,
valency of sulphur = 16= 2,8,6= 2 electrons can be gained easily hence valency is 2.

valency of oxygen = 8 = 2,6 = 2 electrons can be gained easily hence valency is 2.

6. If bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes &

, Calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.

Ans. The average atomic mass of bromine

= 3926.3 + 4074.3/100
= 8000.6/100
= 80 u

7. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the
percentages of isotopes in the sample?

Ans. Since average atomic mass =

16.2= 16X + 1800 – 18X/100


1620 = -2X + 1800
2X = 1800 – 1620
X = 180/2 = 90
When 90% is the X-16 sample so for X-18 sample % = 100-90=10%

8. In a gold – foil experiment:

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a) Why did many α – particles pass through the gold foil undeflected?
b) Why did few α – particles deflect through small angles.
c) Why did few α – parties, after striking the gold foil, retrace their path.

Ans. a) Many α – particle passed through the gold foil undeflected shows that most of the
space inside the atom was empty.
b) Few α – particles deflected through small angles shows that there is positive charge at the
centre of the gold foil.
c) Few α – particle after striking the gold foil retrace their path shows that the positively
charged centre was concentrated in a very small volume of space and was called nucleus.

9. Compare the three major particles in atoms with respect to their mass and charge?

Ans.

Inside an atom, proton and neutron are concentrated at the centre in a nucleus and electrons
revolve around the nucleus in definite circular orbits.

10. Write an experiment to show cathode rays are deflected by magnetic fields?

Ans. Experiment to show that cathode rays were deflected by magnetic fields:
1) Take a discharge tube with fluorescent material on its inside.
2) Place a horse – shoe magnet in the centre of the discharge tube.
3) When cathodic rays are produced and travel through discharge tube, then cathode rays
get deflected by the magnets in the direction of anode showing that they are deflected by
magnetic field and also that they are negatively charged.

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12. Write the postulates of Bohr theory?

Ans. The postulates of Bohr’s theory are:


1) Electron move around the nucleus in definite circular path called orbits.
2) Each orbit is associated with a fixed amount of energy.
3) The larger the radius of the orbit, the greater is the energy of the electrons in them.
4) Electrons can move from one orbit to another by gaining or losing a fixed amount of
energy.

13. Explain the variation of atomic radius along a period and down a group.

Ans. Metals are electropositive in nature because all metals loose electrons from their
outermost shell in order to become stable and hence become positively charged. Non-metals
are electronegative in nature because all non-metals gain electrons in order to become stable
and hence become negatively charged.

14. Why metals are electropositive and non-metals are electronegative in nature?

Ans. Metals are electropositive in nature because all metals loose electrons from their
outermost shell in order to become stable and hence become positively charged. Non-metals
are electronegative in nature because all non-metals gain electrons in order to become stable
and hence become negatively charged.

4 / 7
15. Explain the formation of ion and why is it formed?

Ans. Because Al has atomic number of 13, its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 3 so in order
that it becomes stable, it should have 8 electrons in its lose from its outermost shell and

as result it has 8 e- in the outermost shell and forms ion.

16. Find the percentage composition of sucrose .

Ans. The molecular mass of Sucrose is

= 144 + 22 + 176

= 342 g /mol.

The composition of sucrose by Mass is


C = 42.11%
H = 6.43%
O = 51.46%

17. Complete the following Table:

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Ion Number of electrons Atomic Number of Neutrons Atomic Mass
a)

B)

c)

Ans. An element is represented as

X – Symbol of element; Z=Atomic number A=Mass Number.

Z = Atomic Number = No. of protons

Number of protons = Number of electrons

A = Mass Number = No. of protons + No of neutrons.

18. Calculate

a) The number of gram – atoms of oxygen


b) The number of atom of oxygen
c) The number of molecules of ozone in 32 g of ozone

Ans. 1 Mole of O = Gram Atomic Mass = Number of atoms


a) In oxygen, 2 gram – atoms are present
b) Gram Atomic mass of oxygen = atoms
= 1 Mole of oxygen

16 g of oxygen (O) = 6.023 × 1023

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c)

19. What mass of water will contain the same number of molecules as 8.0 g of ferrous
oxide [FeO]?

Ans. Gram Atomic Mass = atoms


So, 18 g of = atoms.

In FeO = 56+16= 72 g
So, 72 g of FeO =

So, 2g of water will contain the same number of Molecules as 8 g of Feo.

7 / 7
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 4
Structure of the Atoms

5 Marks Questions

1. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?

Ans. The electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom are known as the valence
electrons. Those electrons determine the valency of that atom.

The atomic number of chlorine is 17 = 2,8,7

so the number of valence electrons for chlorine is 7 and it needs 1 more electron to complete
its octet (8). Therefore, its valency is one.

Similarly, sulphur = 16 = 2,8,6

so the number of valence electrons for sulphur is 6 and it needs 2 more electrons to complete
its octet (8). Therefore its valency is two.

Similarly, for magnesium = 12 = 2,8,2

It becomes easier for magnesium to give away its two valence than to acquire 6 more
therefore its valency is two.

2. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.

Ans. To remove the drawbacks of Rutherford’s atomic model and to explain structure of
atom in detail Neils Bohr in 1912 proposed a model of atom. The special features of Bohr’s
model are given below:

i) An electron revolves in the orbit of atom with well-defined energy.

ii) Energy of orbits increases from inner shell to the outer shells i.e. energy for orbit nearest
the nucleus is lowest.

1 / 4
iii) If energy is supplied then electron moves from lower orbit ot the higher orbit and if an
electron jumps from higher orbit (energy level) to the lower orbit (energy level) then energy
is radiated as electromagnetic waves.

iv) Each orbit or shell represents an energy level. Such orbits are represented as
K,L,M,N,O……….. and named from centre to outwards.

v) The shell or orbits are associated with certain amount of energy and energy of
orbits/shells increases from inward to outwards.eg K<L<M<N<O…………

3. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this chapter.

Ans. There are total three atomic models each of which tried to explain the atomic structure
in a better way. Following table compares the specific characteristics of the models:

4. Summarise the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the
first eighteen elements.

Ans. The following rules are followed for writing the number of electrons in different energy
levels or shells:

(i) The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula 2n2, where
‘n’ is the orbit number or energy level index, 1,2,3,…Hence the maximum number of
electrons in different shells are as follows:

first orbit or K-shell will be

second orbit or L-shell will be

2 / 4
third orbit or M-shell will be

fourth orbit or N-shell will be and so on.

(ii) The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost or bit is
8.

(iii) Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell, unless the inner shells are filled. That
is, the shells are filled in as tep-wise manner.

5. Explain with examples

(i) Atomic number,

(ii) Mass number,

(iii) Isotopes and

(iv) Isobars.

Give any two uses of isotopes.

Ans. i) Atomic number = It is the number of protons present inside nucleus of the atom.

It is represented as Z. Forge: for hydrogen Z= 1, because in hydrogen atom the number of


protons is 1.

ii) Mass number = It is the total number of protons and neutrons present inside the nucleus
of an atom and is represented by A = P + Nmass of carbon is 12 u because it has 6 protons
and6 neutrons, 6 u + 6 u = 12 u.

iii) Isotopes = They are atoms of the same element and have same atomic number but
different mass number/atomic mass. for example: carbon,12 C and 14 6 C

iv) Isobars = They are atoms of different elements having same mass number but different
atomic number. for example, calcium, atomic number 20, and argon, atomic number 18. The
number of electrons in these atoms is different, but the mass number of both these elements
is 40. That is, the total number of neutrons is the same in the atoms of this pair of elements.

3 / 4
Two uses of isotopes are as follows:

(i) An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.

(ii) An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

6. Complete the following table.

Ans.

4 / 4
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 5
The Fundamental Unit of Life

1 Marks Questions

1. Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic
material?

Ans. Chloroplast and Mitochondria.

2. Where are proteins synthesised inside the cell?

Ans. Ribosomes are the sites for protein synthesis inside the cell.

1 / 1
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 5
The Fundamental Unit of Life

2 Marks Questions

1. Who discovered cells, and how?

Ans. In 1665, an English scientist named Robert Hooke discovered cells. When he saw honey
comb like structure while observing thin slice of cork under his self-designed microscope.

2. Why is the cell called the structural and functional unit of life?

Ans. All living organisms are made up of cells so cell is the basic building unit of a living
organism and all the activities performed by a living organism are sum total of activities
performed by its cells hence cell is called the structural and functional unit of life.

3. Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?

Ans. Plasma membrane is a highly specific structure. It is made up of lipids and proteins
who selectively allow the entry of substance into cell and exit of some other substances from
the cell i.e. selectively permeable.

4. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence,


what will happen?

Ans. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence then
such cell would not survive any more as all components of that cell are digested up by its
lysosomes.

5. Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?

Ans. Lysosomes are cell organelles filled with hydrolytic(digestive) enzymes. When a cell is

1 / 2
damaged, its lysosomes may burst out and its enzymes digest up its own cell. Due to this, we
can say that lysosomes are suicide bags.

6. What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breakdown?

Ans. The rupture or break down of cell’s plasma membrane indicates that cell is damaged
and in such condition the lysosomes of the damaged cells may burst and the digestive
enzymes present inside those lysosomes would digest their own cell. This will result into
death of the cell.

7. What would happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?

Ans. The functions of golgi apparatus includes storage, modification and packaging of
products in the vesicles. If there was no golgi apparatus for a cell then all sort of storage,
modification, packaging and dispatch of materials within and outside the cell would be
impossible.

8. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?

Ans. It is Mitochondria of the cell also known as the power house of the cell because it
synthesizes energy in the form of ATP during respiration which is vital for various life
activities.

9. Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesised?

Ans. The endoplasmic reticulum is of two types:

i) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER): It is responsible for the synthesis of lipids


constituting cell membrane.

ii) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER): It bears the ribosomes and is therefore responsible
for the synthesis of proteins constituting cell membrane.

2 / 2
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 5
The Fundamental Unit of Life

3 Marks Questions

1. How do substances like and water move in and out of the cell? Discuss.

Ans. The exchange of gases between cells takes place by diffusion process.

Diffusion is defined as movement of a substance from a region of higher concentration to


lower concentration. is formed inside cell due to respiration and it accumulates in the

cell so its concentration is high in the cell as compared to the surroundings. On the other
hand is utilized inside cell during respiration and therefore its concentration decreases

inside the cell while remains comparatively high in the surroundings. As a result,

diffuses out and diffuses into the cell.

2. Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating differences between prokaryotic
and eukaryotic cells.

Ans.

1 / 4
3. Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from
animal cells.

Ans.

4. How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?

Ans.

2 / 4
5. How does an Amoeba obtain its food?

Ans. Amoeba feeds on microorganisms (like planktons) which float on water. It develops
false feet or pseudopodia to surround the food finally captures the food within a sac like
structure called the food vacuole inside which digestion of food takes place.

6. What is osmosis?

3 / 4
Ans. Osmosis is the movement of water(solvent) from a region of high water concentration
through a semipermeable membrane to a region of low concentration of water. It can take
place only in liquid medium and not in solid or gases. Example is absorption of water from
soil by plant roots

7. Carry out the following osmosis experiment:

Take four peeled potato halves and scoops each one out to make potato cups. One of
these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough
containing water. Now,

(a) Keep cup A empty

(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B

(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C

(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D.

Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups and answer the following:

(i) Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion of B and C.

(ii) Why is potato A necessary for this experiment?

(iii) Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D.

Ans. i) When we put one teaspoon sugar in cup B and one teaspoon salt in cup C, the
hypertonic solution is formed inside so through osmosis water from outside enters inside
and collects in the hollowed portion of cups B & C.

ii) Potato A is necessary to observe osmosis.

iii) In hollowed out portion of A & D there is no solution (liquid medium) present therefore
osmosis cannot take place and as a result water does not gather.

4 / 4
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 6
Tissues

1 Marks Questions

1. Where is apical meristem found?

Ans. The apical meristem is found at the apex (growing tips) of the stem and roots.

2. Which tissue makes up the husk of coconut?

Ans. Sclerenchymatous tissue.

3. What are the constituents of phloem?

Ans. The constituents of phloem are: sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma,
phloem fibres(bast).

4. Name the tissue responsible for movement in our body.

Ans. Muscle/muscular tissue.

5. Vertical growth in plants takes place by –

(a) Latral meristem

(b) apical meristem

(c) Intercalary meristem

(d) none of the above

Ans. (b) apical meristem

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6. Which of these components of blood fight infection?

(a) RBC

(b) WBC

(c) Platelets

(d) serum

Ans. (b) WBC

7. In desert plants, rate of water loss gets reduced due to presence of :

(a) cuticle

(b) stomata

(c) lignin

(d) suberin

Ans. (a) cuticle

8. Cartilage is not found in –

(a) nose

(b) ear

(c) kidney

(d) larynx

Ans. (c) kidney

9. Which of these types of cells is most likely to divide?

(a) Epidernins

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(b) Parenchyma

(c) Meristem

(d) Xylem

Ans. (c) Meristem

10. Companion cells are associated with –

(a) Sieve tubes

(b) Sclerenchyma

(c) Vessels

(d) Parenchyma

Ans. (a) Sieve tubes

11. Which tissue has chloroplast in cells?

(a) Parenchyma

(b) Chlorenchyma

(c) Sclernehyma

(d) Aerenchyma

Ans. (b) Chlorenchyma

12. Intestine absorbs due digested food materials. What type of epithelial are
responsible for that?

(a) Stratified squamous epithelium

(b) columnar epithelium

(c) pseudostratified epithelium

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(d) Cuboidal epithelium

Ans. (b) columnar epithelium

13. The meristmatic tissue is found

(a) In flowers

(b) At the tip of the leaves

(c) Below the epidermis of stem

(d) At root tip

Ans. (d) At root tip

14. Movement of passage of food in the intestine is caused by the contraction of

(a) cardiac muscles

(b) unstriated muscles

(c) striated muscles

(d) Nerve tissue

Ans. (b) unstriated muscles

15. A long tubular outgrowth of a nerve cell which conducts impulses away from the
cell body is termed as :-

(a) cyton

(b) axon

(c) Neuron

(d) dendrite

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Ans. (d) dendrite

16. You have been provided with narrow thick – walled living cells, elongated in shape
and possessing thickening of cellulose and pectin these cells belong to:

(a) Parenchyma

(b) collenchyma

(c) sclerenchyma

(d) none of the above

Ans. (b) collenchyma

17. Which one of the following is the correct definition of the tissues?

(a) Group of dissimilar cells which perform similar function

(b) Group of similar cells which perform similar functions.

(c) group of similar cells which perform specific functions

(d) Group of dissimilar cells which perform different functions.

Ans. (a) Group of dissimilar cells which perform similar function

18. A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the side ways conduction
of water in the branches is:

(a) collenchyma

(b) xylem parenchyma

(c) parenchyma

(d) xylem vessels

Ans. (d) xylem vessels

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19. White blood corpuscles:

(a) help in blood clotting

(b) help in transport of oxygen

(c) are enucleated

(d) protect the body from diseases

Ans. (d) protect the body from diseases

20. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated.
Which among the following may be possible reason?

(a) tendon break

(b) break of skeletal muscles

(b) ligament break

(d) Areolar tissue break

Ans. (b) ligament break

6 / 6
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 6
Tissues

2 Marks Questions

1. What is a tissue?

Ans. It is a group of cells similar in origin and structure and they are specialized to perform a
particular function like muscle cells in our body form the muscle tissue that bring about
body movements(specific function).

2. What are the constituents of phloem?

Ans. The constituents of phloem are: sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma,
phloem fibres (bast).

3. Name types of simple tissues.

Ans. The simple tissues (found in plants) are of following three types:

i) parenchyma

ii) collenchymas

iii) Sclerenchyma

4.What does a neuron look like?

Ans. A neuron comprises of a cell body (cyton) along with one or more short
branches(Dendron) and one hair like long branch (axon).

5. Define the term “tissue”.

Ans. It is a group of cells similar in origin and structure and they are specialized to perform a

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particular function like muscle cells in our body form the muscle tissue that bring about
body movements (specific function).

6. How many types of elements together make up the xylem tissue? Name them.

Ans. Xylem tissue is made up of following 4 types of elements:

i) Tracheids

ii) vessels

iii) fibres

iv) parenchyma

7. How are simple tissues different from complex tissues in plants?

Ans.

8. Differentiate between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma on the basis of


their cell wall.

Ans.

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9. What are the functions of the stomata?

Ans. The functions of stomata are:

i) gaseous exchange like exchange of .

ii) Process of transpiration i.e. loss of excess water in the form of water vapour occurs
through stomata.

10. What is the specific function of the cardiac muscle?

Ans. Cardiac muscles are the muscles of heart that pumps blood to all parts of body and the
pumping needs rhythmic contraction and relaxation of cardiac muscles throughout the life
without any fatigue.

11. Name the following.

(a) Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth.

(b) Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans.

(c) Tissue that transports food in plants.

(d) Tissue that stores fat in our body.

(e) Connective tissue with a fluid matrix.

(f) Tissue present in the brain.

Ans. (a) epithelial tissue

(b) tendons

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(c) phloem

(d) adipose tissue

(e) blood

(f) nerve tissue

12. Identify the type of tissue in the following: skin, bark of tree, bone, lining of kidney
tubule, vascular bundle.

Ans.

13. Name the regions in which parenchyma tissue is present.

Ans. Parenchymatous tissue is present in the epidermis, cortex, pith of the stem, root, leaves,
flowers and fruits of plants.

14. What is the role of epidermis in plants?

Ans. It is a protective layer to the plant parts. It can also absorb water from soil like in the
roots and even allow exchange of gases through stomata.

15. How does the cork act as a protective tissue?

Ans. In plants the secondary meristem cuts off many external layers of cells that are dead

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and arranged in a compact manner. Such layers together make cork. They have deposition of
suberin which is very hard and impermeable hence protects plants from unfavorable
conditions and microbial attack etc.

16. What are meristmatic and permanent tissue?

Ans. Meristmatic tissue – It consist of small, thin walked, continuously dividing cells. The
cells contain a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm.

Permanent tissue – It consist of cells, may be thin or thick walled, undergone differentiation
and assumed definite shape, size and function. Cells have very less cytoplasm, nucleus is
present on the periphery with a big central vacuole.

17. What are the function of Tendon and ligament?

Ans. Ligaments – They connect one bone to another bone. They are strong, elastic, consisting
of yellow fibers.

Tendon – They connect muscle to bone. They are tough, non – elastic, consisting of white
fibres.

18. Draw a well labeled diagram of neuron

Ans. Structure of Neuron

19. Differentiate the following activities on the basis of voluntary or involuntary

(a) Jumping of frog

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(b) Pumping of the heart

(c) writing with hand

(d) Moving of chocolate in stomach

Ans. (a) Voluntary

(b) Involuntary

(c) Voluntary

(d) Involuntary

20. Name the following –

(a) Tissue that stores fats in our body.

(b) Tissue present in the brain

(c) Connective tissue with fluid matrix.

(d) Tissue that connects muscles to bones in humans.

Ans. a) Adipose tissue

b) Nervous tissue

c) Blood

d) Tendons

21. Write difference between cartilage and bone.

Ans.

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22. Which components of xylem are living and which ones are dead?

Ans. Xylem is composed of four elements –

(a) Tracheids – Non – living

(b) Vessels – Non – living

(c) Xylem parenchyma – living

(d) Xylem fibres – Non – living

23. Define due process of differentiation.

Ans. In a multicellular organism, cells become specialized to perform different function.


These function are taken up by different group of cells According to function of these cells
become morphologically different. This phenomenon is known as differentiation.

24. Define tissue. What is the utility of tissue in multicellular organisms.

Ans. Tissue – Group of similar cells performing similar function are called tissue. In living
organisms cells are grouped together to perform specific functions.

25. Mention characteristics of permanent tissues.

Ans. Characteristics of permanent tissue –

1. Cells are large, thin or thick walled.

2. Cytoplasm is present as a layer along the cells wall.

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3. Nucleus is relatively small in size, large central vacuole is present.

4. lack the power of cell division

26. Mention the functions of nervous tissue.

Ans. Function of nervous tissue –

a) They conduct nerve impulse from one part of the body to other.

b) They also receive stimuli from the outside environment and send the message to the brain
and spinal cord

27. Animals of colder regions and fisher of cold water have thick layer of subcutaneous
fat. Explain, why?

Ans. Thick layer of subcutaneous fat act as insulator. It prevents body heat t release in
surrounding. Hence, keep their body warms.

28. Name the two main types of plant tissues.

Ans. Plant tissues are mainly divided into two types

a) Meristmatic tissue – It consist of undifferentiated actively dividing cells

b) Permanent tissue – It consist of differentiated cells which have lost the ability to divide

29. Water hyacinth floats on water surface. Explain.

Ans. Water hyacinth floats on the surface of water due to presence of aerenchyma. It is
modified form of parenchyma, which contain air cavities. It provides buoyancy which helps
water hyacinth in floating.

30. Name the two types of vascular tissues.

Ans. Types of vascular tissues are –

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a) Xylem – It conduct water and minerals from roots to the parts of the plant

b) Phloem – It conduct food from leaves to all parts of plant

31. How many types of element are present in the phloem?

Ans. Phloem composed of four elements –

a) Sieve tube – Helps in conduction of food material

b) Companion cells – It helps sieve tube in conduction of food material

c) Phloem parenchyma – storage

d) Phloem fibres – It provide mechanical support.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 6
Tissues

3 Marks Questions

1. What is the utility of tissues in multi-cellular organisms?

Ans. There is a clear cut division of labour in multicellular organisms i.e. different parts of
the body of a multicellular organism perform specific functions. For example, brain controls
all other parts of body, heart pumps blood to all parts of body, kidneys remove waste
materials from body, sense organs collect information from external sources for sensory
perception etc. All these functions would never be possible without formation of tissues in
multicellular organisms.

2. Give three features of cardiac muscles.

Ans. i. Cardiac muscles are involuntary i.e. they don’t work under our will.
ii. Its cells are cylindrical, branched, striated and uninucleate.
iii. It shows rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout the person’s life.

3. What are the functions of areolar tissue?

Ans. Areolar tissue is a kind of filler tissue found between skin and muscles, around our
blood vessels and nerve cells and also in the bone marrow. Its functions are therefore

i) To fill the space inside organs.


ii) To help in repair and maintenance of nearby tissues/organs.
iii) To support and prevent injuries to internal organs.

4. Diagrammatically show the difference between the three types of muscle fibres.

Ans.

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5. Differentiate between striated, untreated and cardiac muscles on the basis of their
structure and site/location in the body.

Ans.

Striated muscle Untreated muscle Cardiac muscle

They show light and dark They don’t show any


They show striations on
bands (striations) when we striations on staining.
staining.
stain them. Their cells are long but
Their cells re cylindrical and
Their cells are elongated and spindle shaped and
branched.
cylindrical also unbranched. unbranched.
Cells are uninucleate.
Cells are multinucleate. Cells are uninucleate.
They are again involuntary
They are responsible to bring They are involuntary in
in their function
about voluntary movements action (walls of tubular
(contraction and relaxation
(like tongue, limbs etc) organs, blood vessels etc)
of heart)

6. Draw a labelled diagram of a neuron?

Ans.

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7. Complete the table:

Ans.

8. How many types of tissues are found in animals? Name the different types.

Ans. In animal four types of tissues are found –

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(a) Epithelium or Epithelial tissue (covering tissue) – It forms outer protective covering all
over the body.
(b) Connective tissue – (supporting tissue) – It binds cells of other tissues in the body and give
them rigidity and support.
(c) Muscular tissue (contractile tissue) –It helps is movement of the body by contraction and
relaxation.
(d) Nervous tissue – It receiver stimulates and transmit messages

9. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary muscles. Give one example of each

Ans.

10. What are the major functions of blood?

Ans. Functions of blood are –

(a) Transport food materials


(b) Transports oxygen and carbon – dioxide
(c) Transports excretory products to the kidneys, from where they are eliminated
(d) Regulates temperature by distributing heat within the body
(e) WBC’S protect due body from disease and helps in wound healing
(f) Platelets help in blood clotting

11. Write about the functions of –

(a) Epidermis
(b) cork
(c) stomata.

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Ans. Epidermis – its main function is protection. It forms waterproof coating, which reduces
loss of water.
Stomata – These are the small opening which helps in exchange of gases

Cork – It is protective in function. It prevents desiccation, by preventing loss of water from


the plant body. It prevents infection and mechanical injury

12. Differentiate between parenchyma and collenchyma.

Ans.

13. Mention the characteristics features of connective tissue

Ans. Characteristics of connective tissue.


a) The cells are living and are embedded in a non – living intercellular matrix
b) It is composed of cells and numerous, thick structures called fibres.
c) It binds the cells of other tissue in due body.
d) It gives rigidity and support.

14. Diagrammatically show the difference between the three types of muscels fibres

Ans.

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15. How does cardiac muscle differ from both voluntary and involuntary muscles in
both structure and function?

Ans. 1) Cardiac Muscles are involuntary


2) They are composed of branching network of fibres.
3) The fibres have centrally located one or two nuclei
4) Intercalated discs are present at intervals in the fibres.
5) They function throughout the life

16. Write differences between blood and lymph.

Ans.

17. Give reasons for –

(a) intercellular spaces are absent in scleranchymatons tissues.


(b) Meristematic cells have a prominent muscles and dense cytoplaom but they lack
muscles
(c) We get crunchy and granular feeling, when we chew pear fruit.

Ans. a) Sclerenchyma has thick lignified walls. Hence, intercellular spaces are absent.
b) Meristematic cells have continuously dividing cells. Cells of meristem are not
differentiated. It continuously divides and form new cells which increase length and girth of
the plant body.
c) due to presence of stone cells or grit cells, known as sclereids

18. Why is epidermis important for the plants?

Ans. Outer protective covering of plants is called epidermis.

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a) It is covered with a waterproof coating or layer called cuticle which reduces loss of water.

b) It also consist of small pores called stomata which helps in the exchange of gases

19. Describe different types of meristems.

Ans. Based on their location in the plant body, meristems are of three types.

a) Apical meristems – Occurs at the tips of roots and shoots and brings about an increase in
length of the plant

b) Lateral meristems – It occurs on the sides almost parallel to the long axis of the root, stem
and its branches. Brings about an increase in the width or girth of the organs.

c) Intercalary meristems – It occurs at the base of the internodes in monocots. It brings about
increase in the length of the internode.

20. If you are provided with three slides, each containing one types muscles fibres, how
will you identify them.

Ans. a) Striated muscles or voluntary muscles show light and dark bands under microscope

b) unstriated muscles or involuntary muscles show no light or dark bands, multinucleate.

c) Cardiac muscles fibres show light light and dark bands, fibres are interconnected with one
or two nuclei

21. If a potted plant is covered with a glass jar, water vapours appear on the wall of
glass jar. Explain why?

Ans. Plant always loose water from the surface of leaves. This process is known as
transpiration. Water reaches leaves by xylem vessels, where evaporation takes place by
stomata.

22. Identify the following tissue and mention their function.

Ans. a) Parenchyma – Food storage, they have ability to divide hence, play a role in wound

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healing, regeneration and grafting

b) Collenchyma – It provides mechanical strength and elasticity

c) Sclerenchyma – It is mechanical & protective tissue.

23. Differentiate between meristmatic and permanent tissue.

Ans.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 7
Diversity in Living Organisms

1 Marks Questions

1. In which kingdom will you place an organism which is single celled, eukaryotic and
photosynthetic?

Ans. Kingdom Protista.

2. Which division among plants has the simplest organisms?

Ans. Division thallophyta.

3.The lowest category of classification is –

(a) phylum
(b) genus
(c) species
(d) family

Ans. (c) species

4. Prokaryotic organism is found in kingdom.

(a) protista
(b) fungi
(c) monera
(d) plantae

Ans. (c) monera

5. Which of the following structures are characteristics of reptiles but not of

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amphibians?

(a) Scales
(b) Lungs
(c) Smooth moist skin
(d) Vertebral Column

Ans. (a) Scales

6. Water vascular system is characteristic of.

(a) porifera
(b) Mollusca
(c) Echinodermata
(d) cnidaria

Ans. (c) Echinodermata

7. Which one of the following is not the exclusive trait of Arthropoda?

(a) presence of wings


(b) jointed appendages
(c) chitinous exoskeleton
(d) presence of haemocoel

Ans. (a) presence of wings

8. Pinus is a ---------- plant.

(a) bryophytic
(b) gymnospermous
(c) Pteridophytic
(d) angiosperms

Ans. (b) gymnospermous

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9. Well defined nucleus is absent is –

(a) blue green algae


(b) diatoms
(c) algae
(d) yeast

Ans. (a) blue green algae

10. Which is the simplest of the following many – celled animals?

(a) sponge
(b) hydra
(c) starfish
(d) jellyfish

Ans. (a) sponge

11. Which one is not a flightless bird?

(a) Ostrich
(b) kiwi
(c) Penguin
(d) Dove

Ans. (d) Dove

12. Which phylum contains the greatest number of species of animals?

(a) sponges
(b) molluscs
(c) Arthropods
(d) Chordates.

Ans. (c) Arthropods

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13. Pteridophyta do not have –

(a) root
(b) stem
(c) flowers
(d) leaves.

Ans. (c) flowers

14. Who is known as father of taxonomy?

(a) Linnaeus
(b) Darwin
(c) Mendel
(d) Watson

Ans. (a) Linnaeus

15. Presence of diaphragm is the characteristic feature of –

(a) amphibian
(b) reptile
(c) mammals
(d) Pisces.

Ans. (c) mammals

16. The branch of Biology dealing with classification is known as –

(a) Physiology
(b) taxonomy
(c) Paleontology
(d) mycology

Ans. (b) taxonomy

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17. Which of the following characteristics does not apply to fungi?

(a) Non-green
(b) saprophytic or parasitic
(c) Autotrophic
(d) Heterotrophic

Ans. (c) Autotrophic

18. Which of the following is not a criterion for classification of living organisms?

(a) Body design of the organism


(b) Ability to produce one’s own food
(c) Membrane bound nucleus & cell organelles
(d) Height to the plant

Ans. (d) Height to the plant.

5 / 5
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 7
Diversity in Living Organisms

2 Marks Questions

1. Why do we classify organisms?

Ans. A large number of organisms exist on this earth. We cannot study such enormous
biodiversity one by one i.e. studying variety of life forms individually is an impossible task.

Hence, we make groups or categories of organisms depending upon their similarities and
dissimilarities with other organisms. This allows an easier and systematic study of the life
forms.

2. Give three examples of the range of variations that you see in life forms around you.

Ans. i) Life forms vary in their size – Some organisms are too small and cannot be seen with
naked eyes like microorganisms while others are too big like the biggest animal which is the
blue whale.

ii) Number and type of cells – Some organisms have a prokaryotic cell like bacteria and that
single cell performs all the required functions while others have eukaryotic cells organized
into tissue, organ and even organ systems like human beings.

iii) Mode of nutrition – Some organisms are autotrophic i.e. capable of making their own
food eg plants while other organisms are heterotrophic i.e. they are dependent on other
organisms for their food supply.

3. Which do you think is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms?

(a) the place where they live.

(b) the kind of cells they are made of. Why?

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Ans. The classification of organisms based on the place where they live is not quite
convincing because other living in the same habitat they hardly share any other feature for
example whales, corals, starfishes, octopus, fishes, sharks etc all are aquatic i.e. they live in
water their appearance and all other features are very different.

Therefore, classification of organisms based on the kind of cells they are made of is more
widely accepted. For such categorization organisms belonging to prokaryotic group will have
a particular cell structure and functional pattern which will be different from the eukaryotic
group.

4. What is the primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made?

Ans. The primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made is the form
and functions of that organism.

5. On what bases are plants and animals put into different categories?

Ans. On the basis of their mode of nutrition plants and animals are put into different
categories.

6. Which organisms are called primitive and how are they different from the so-called
advanced organisms?

Ans. Such organisms that possess quite simple structure and body design also haven’t
changed much from their ancient sort of details even after long period of evolution on earth
are called as the primitive organisms like bacteria who are still single celled and prokaryotic
while advanced organisms have complex body design like trees and humans.

7. Will advanced organisms be the same as complex organisms? Why?

Ans. Yes we can say that the advanced organisms are the same as complex organisms
because advancement has occurred due to the process of evolution where a group of simple
organisms have changed themselves into the complex forms of life for better survival.

. 2 / 7
8. What is the criterion for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom Monera
or Protista?

Ans. The criterion used for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom Monera or
Protista is their cell structure.

Both Monerans as well as Protists are unicellular or single celled organisms but among
monerans the cell is prokaryotic i.e. do not contain well defined nucleus while in protists the
cell is eukaryotic i.e. have a well-defined nucleus.

9. In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will have the smallest number of
organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common and which will have the
largest number of organisms?

Ans. Smallest number of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common will be


Species while grouping with largest number of organisms with common characteristics will
be the Kingdom.

10. How are pteridophytes different from the phanerogams?

Ans. Pteridophytes do not produce seeds but develop naked embryos while phanerogams
are seed producing plants like gymnosperms and angiosperms.

11. How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from each other?

Ans.

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12. How are the criteria for deciding divisions in plants different from the criteria for
deciding the subgroups among animals?

Ans. Animals are classified into subgroups on the basis of their level of body organization
(cellular, tissue, organ grade) and symmetry, body cavity and presence or absence of
notochord etc.

13. Explain how animals in Vertebrata are classified into further subgroups.

Ans. Animals in Vertebrata are classified into further subgroups based on their development
of nervous system, circulatory system, reproductive methods etc.

14. Name two egg laying mammals.

Ans. Mammals give birth to young one but some mammals lay eggs like – platypus and
echidna

15. Mention the features of vertebrates

Ans. a) Presence of tubular, dorsal, hollow nerve cord.

b) Presence of a solid, rod – like structure called the notochord at some stage.

c) triploblastic and coelomate

d) Presence of post – anal tail (reduced or absent in many adult chordates)

16. Give the technical name of the following –

(a) pea

(b) potato

(c) tiger

(d) humans

Ans. a) Pisum sativum

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b) Solanum tuberosum

c) Panthera tigris

d) Homo sapiens

17. How pteridophytes different from phanerogams?

Ans. Pteridophyta has hidden reproductive organs. External flower or seeds are absent. In
phanerogams, well developed reproductive organs which produce seeds are present.

18. Define – sporophyte and gametophyte

Ans. sporophyte – It is the diploid (2n) phase or individuals in the life of an organism and
produce spores.

Gametophyte – It is the haploid (n) phase or individuals in the life – cycle of an organism and
produce gametes for sexual reproduction.

19. What is alternation of generation?

Ans. When sporophyte diploid (2n) phase alternates to gametophyte haploid (n) phase or
vice versa. In order to complete life cycle, it is called alternation of generation. e.g Obelia and
fern etc.

20. What is Binomial nomenclature? Who proposed it?

Ans. It is the naming system in which the name of the organism has two words first word is
the name of ‘genus’ and second word is the name of ‘species’ of the organism. It was
proposed by Carl Von Linnaeus.

21. State any two characteristic features of animals

Ans. Characteristics of animals –

a) Animals are multicellular organisms with heterotrophic mode of nutrition.

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b) They have power of locomotion and possess nervous system.

22. Name the group of plants with the following characters:

a) Plants without root, stem, leaf and flowers.

b) Plants lacking chlorophyll.

Ans. (a) Thallophytic

(b) Fungi

23. Name the various units of classification.

Ans. Units of classification are – species, Genus family, order, class, Phylum (Division),
Kingdom.

24. Why are bacteria and fungi classified along with plants?

Ans. Bacteria are kept under plants because they are mostly non-green and they possess cell
wall. Fungi is kept under plants because it do not move but it lacks chlorophyll and derive
nutrition from dead organic matter or by other methods.

25. Give difference between bony and cartilaginous fishes.

Ans. In bony fishes skeleton is bony (made up of bones) while in cartilaginous fishes skeleton
is made up of cartilage.

26. In what respects are lichens unusual plants?

Ans. A lichen is a close partnership between an alga and a fungus. The algal cells grow in the
fungal mycelium. Alga make food by photosynthesis. The fungus provides shelter and
protection to the alga. Thus, both the alga and the fungus benefit. This kind of association is
called a symbiotic association.

6 / 7
27. Name two coelenterates with diagrams. How do poriferan animals differ from
coelenterate animals?

Ans. Examples of coelenterates.

Poriferans are the simplest multicellular and branched. The cells are loosely held together
and do not form tissue Coelenterates have one continuous central cavity called coelentron.

28. Differentiate between the heart of a fish and a birds?

Ans. Heart of fish is two chambered – auricle and ventricle whereas birds have four
chambered heart.

29. What is the difference notochord and nerve card?

Ans. Notochord is a solid stiff but flexible rod like structure gives vertebral column in higher
chordates (animals) while nerve cord is a solid or hollow tube like structure gives brain and
spinal cord (nervous system)

7 / 7
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 7
Diversity in Living Organisms

3 Marks Questions

1. How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate animals?

Ans.

2. How do annelid animals differ from arthropods?

Ans.

3. What are the differences between amphibians and reptiles?

Ans.

1 / 8
4. What are the differences between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in
the mammalian group?

Ans.

5. What are the advantages of classifying organisms?

Ans. Because of the huge biodiversity i.e. variety of life forms existing on earth it becomes
very difficult to study them individually so scientists have made groups of organisms based
on their similarities and dissimilarities. Such catergorisation of organisms is known as
classification which help us to study them easily and systematically.

6. How would you choose between two characteristics to be used for developing a
hierarchy in classification?

Ans. We would choose the characteristic related to their structure and function that will help
developing a hierarchy from one level to the next level. Like arthropods are organisms with
jointed appendages but among arthropods insects and spiders make to separate groups
having peculiar characteristics to define them. Hence we can make the hierarchy in
classification by selecting general to specific characteristics.

7. Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms.

Ans. The basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms is as follows:
a) The organisms are made of prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells.
b) The organism has a single cell in its body or is a multicellular life form.
c) The organism prepares its own food or is dependent on other for food.

8. What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is the basis for these divisions?

2 / 8
Ans.

9. What is the basis of grouping organisms into live kingdoms?

Ans. Basis for the classification of five kingdom classification –


a) Cell structure
b) Mode and source of nutrition
c) Body organization

10. Define – (a) bilateral symmetry

(b) coelom

(c) Triptoblastic

Ans. (a) Bilateral symmetry – Body can be divided into two similar halves only by one plane
that passes through the central or median axis e.g. – tortoise, humans.
(b) Coelom – It is the body cavity which is lined externally as well as by regular layer of
mesoderm
(c) Triploblastic – When the body of an animal develops form three germ layer – ectoderm,
mesoderm and endoderm, are called triploblastic

11. Differentiate monocot and dicot plant.

Ans.

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12. Write characteristics of angiosperms.

Ans. Characteristics of angiosperms –


a) The angiosperms are the dominant group of land plants. These are the most common
flowering plants.
b) The angiosperms are seed bearing plants and the seeds are enclosed inside the fruit
formed from ovary.
c) Carpel is like of megasporophyll as gymnosperms, but it is differentiated ovary, style and
stigma
d) The pollen grain is received by the stigma causing pollination.
e) Ovary develops into fruit and ovules into seeds after the act of fertilization.

13. Write the main characteristics of Mammalia.

Ans. Characteristics of mammalia are –


a) Mostly terrestrial but found in all types of habitats
b) Body is of varied shape divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail.
c) Skin covered with hair and has sweat glands
d) They possess mammary glands which produce milk to nourish the young ones
e) Respiratory organs are lungs only.
f) The heart is four – chambered

14. Describe the general characteristics of Gymnosperms

4 / 8
Ans. Characteristics of gymnosperms.
a) The stem is erect aerial branched or unbranched.
b) The leaves are usually dimorphic i.e., presence of two types of leaves on a plant.
c) These are naked seeded plants i.e., their ovules are not enclosed in the ovary.
d) The microsporophyll (male reproductive organ) and megasporphyll (female reproductive
organ) are compactly arranged around the central axis forming male cone & female cone
respectively.

15. What is classification? What is the need of classification? What is the basis of
classification?

Ans. Classification – The process of grouping similar things into groups or categories on the
basis of similarities and differences is called classification.
Need of classification – It is very difficult to study large number of organisms individually. So
organism having similar characters grouped together and the studied easily.
Classification – Cell structure, mode & source for the nutrition and body organization.

16. Observe the figures given below and answer the following questions.

(a) which of the following animals are invertebrates underline them

(b) name the underlined animals

(c) give two important characteristics of underlined animals.

Ans. a) A, B, D
b) A – Amoeba, B – Starfish (asterias) D – Hydra.

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c) i) Amoeba –
1. It is uninucleate
2.locomotion is by finger like pseudopodia

ii) Asterias (starfish) –


1. Body is radially symmetrical
2. Body cavity is modified into a water – vascular system with elastic tube – like out word
extension for locomotion called tube – feet or podia.

iii) Hydra –
1. Mouth is surrounded by tentacles which helps in feeding
2. Respiratory, circulatory and excretory organs are absent.

17. Write characteristics of Aves.

Ans. Characteristics of aves are –


(i) Body is covered with feathers divided into head, neck and tail.
(ii) Birds are bipedal. The fore-limbs are modified into wings for flight.
(iii) Mouth is surrounded by a beak. Teeth are absent.
(iv) Skeleton is light because the long bones are hollow and contain air cavities.
(v) Respiration is by lungs which have air-sacs.
(vi) The heart is four – chambered.

18. You are given an assortment of plants on laboratory table. What characteristics will
you look for in order to label a particular specimen as –

(a) Angiosperm (b) Moss (c) Algae (d) Fungi (e) Gymnosperm.

Ans. Angiosperm – Flowering plants


Moss - Leaves and roots are absent, presence of rhizoids.
Algae - Absence of stem, root and leaves, presence of pigments.
Fungi - Non-green, made up of hyphae
Gymnosperm – Naked – seeded plants, i.e, seeds are not enclosed within the fruit.

19. What are the major divisions of the kingdom planate? What is the basis of these

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divisions?

Ans. Major division of kingdom plantae – thallophya, bryophyta, pteridophyta,


gymnosperms and angiosperms. This kingdom includes Basis for classification –
(a) All organisms which are multicellular, eukaryotic and green autotrophs.
(b) Green plants are further classified on the basis of differentiation of the plant body.
(c) Second level of classification plant body has vascular tissue or not. Further classification
is based on (i) whether seeds are present or not. (ii) Whether seeds are enclosed within fruit
or not.

20. Write characteristics of kingdom Animalia.

Ans. Characteristics of kingdom animalia are


(a) Animals are multicellular, eukaryotic organisms
(b) Animal nutrition is heterotrophic. They lack photosynthetic pigments.
(c) Animal lack cell walls.
(d) Animals possess the power of locomotion
(e) Most Animals have a nervous system which is used to coordinate their body actions and
response.
(f) In sexual reproduction, animals produce haploid male gametes (sperms) and female
gametes.

21. Name the group of plants known as “Amphibians of plant world”. Mention their
three important characters.

Ans. Bryophytes are the plants which lives on land and in water so they are called
amphibians of the plant kingdom. These plants shows following character -
(a) The plant body is either thallus – like (thalloid) or leaf like (foliose)
(b) True leaves and roots are lacking; the plants are anchored to the soil by means of
filamentous rhizoids.
(c) Plant body is green and autotrophic
(d) The vascular tissue are absent.

22. Give three points of how birds have adapted themselves to an aerial mode of life.

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Ans. Adaptations of birds to aerial mode of life.
(a) Their body is covered with feathers.
(b) Forelimbs are modified into wings
(c) They have hollow bones which helps them in flight.

23. Give difference between vertebrates and invertebrates.

Ans.

8 / 8
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 8
Motion

1 Marks Questions

1. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) both speed and velocity are same

(b) speed is a scalar and velocity is a vector

(c) speed is a vector and velocity is scalar

(d) none of these

Ans. (b) speed is a scalar and velocity is a vector

2. What is the slope of the body when it moves with uniform velocity?

(a) positive

(c) negative

(b)zero

(d) may be positive or negative

Ans. (b) zero

3. Which of the following is the position time graph for a body at rest?

(i)

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(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Ans. (i)

4. What does area velocity time graph give?

(a) distance

(b) acceleration

(c) displacement

(d) none of the above

Ans. (c) displacement

5. If a body starts from rest, what can be said about the acceleration of body?

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(a) Positively accelerated

(b) Negative accelerated

(c) Uniform accelerated

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a) Positively accelerated

6. What does slope of position time graph give?

(a) speed

(b) acceleration

(c) uniform speed

(d) Both (a) and (c) depending upon the type of graph.

Ans. (a) speed

7. When a body moves uniformly along the circle, then:

(a) its velocity changes but speed remains the same

(b) its speed changes but velocity remains the same

(c) both speed and velocity changes

(d) both speed and velocity remains same

Ans. (a) its velocity changes but speed remains the same

8. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) speed distance are scalar, velocity and displacement are vector

(b) speed distance are vector, velocity and displacement are vector

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(c) speed and velocity are scalar, distance and velocity are vector

(d) speed and velocity are vector, distance and displacement are scalar

Ans. (a) speed distance are scalar, velocity and displacement are vector

9. What does the slope of velocity – time graph give?

(a) Distance

(b) displacement

(c) Acceleration

(d) Change in velocity.

Ans. (c) Acceleration

10. The displacement of the body can be-

(a) Positive

(b) negative

(c) Zero

(d) All of these.

Ans. (d) All of these.

11. Which of the following gives both direction and magnitude-

(a) scalar

(b) vector

(c) Both

(d) None.

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Ans. (b) vector

12. If a moving body comes to rest, then its acceleration is-

(a) Positive

(b) negative

(c) Zero

(d) All of these depending upon initial velocity.

Ans. (b) negative

5 / 5
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 8
Motion

2 Marks Questions

1. Distinguish between speed and velocity.

Ans. Speed of a body is the distance travelled by it per unit time while velocity is
displacement per unit time of the body during movement.

2. Under what condition(s) is the magnitude of average velocity of an object equal to its
average speed?

Ans. If distance travelled by an object is equal to its displacement then the magnitude of
average velocity of an object will be equal to its average speed.

3. What does the odometer of an auto mobile measure?

Ans. The odometer of an auto mobile measures the distance covered by that automobile.

4. What does the path of an object look like when it is in uniform motion?

Ans. Graphically the path of an object will be linear i.e. look like a straight line when it is in
uniform motion.

5. During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in five
minutes. What was the distance of the spaceship from the ground station? The signal

travels at the speed of light, that is, 3 × 108m s–1.

Ans.

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=

6. Which of the following is true for displacement?


(a) It cannot be zero.
(b) Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled by the object.

Ans. Both (a) as well as (b) are false with respect to concept of displacement.

7. When will you say a body is in


(i) uniform acceleration?
(ii) non-uniform acceleration?

Ans. (i) uniform acceleration: When an object travels in a straight line and its velocity
changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, it is said to have uniform acceleration.

(ii) non-uniform acceleration: It is also called variable acceleration. When the velocity of an
object changes by unequal amounts in equal intervals of time, it is said to have non uniform
acceleration.

8. A bus decreases its speed from to in 5 s. Find the acceleration


of the bus.

Ans. Initial speed of bus (u) =

= final speed of bus (v)=

= time (t) = 5 s

acceleration (a) = (v – u) /t = (16.67 – 22.22)/5 = -5.55/5 =

9. What is the nature of the distance-time graphs for uniform and non-uniform motion
of an object?

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Ans. If an object has a uniform motion then the nature of distance time graph will be linear
i.e. it would a straight line and if it has non uniform motion then the nature of distance time
graph is a curved line.

10. What is the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity-
time graph?

Ans. The area occupied below the velocity-time graph measures the distance moved by any
object.

11. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s-2 for 2
minutes. Find (a) the speed acquired, (b) the distance travelled.

Ans. (a) u=o, , t= 2min = 120 seconds.


v=u+at =

(a) speed acquired = v=

(b) = = 720 m

12. A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of .


What will be its velocity 3 s after the start?

Ans. u = 0, , t= 3s
v= u +at = = 6 cm/s

13. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of . What distance will it cover in 10
s after start?

Ans. u = 0, , t= 10s

= 200m

. 3 / 9
14. Differentiate between distance and displacement?

Ans.

15. Derive mathematically the first equation of motion V=u + at?

Ans. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity.


Let V=final velocity; Vo= initial velocity, T= time, a =acceleration.
So by definition of acceleration

If Vo=u=initial velocity, then [V= u +at]

16. Calculate the acceleration of a body which starts from rest and travels 87.5m 5 sec?

Ans. u= 0 (starts from rest) u= initial velocity


a=? a=acceleration
T= 5 sec, t= time
S= 87.5m (S=distance)

From 2nd equation of motion –

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(i)

17. Define uniform velocity and uniform acceleration?

Ans. Uniform velocity A body is said to move with uniform velocity if equal displacement
takes place in equal intervals of time, however small these intervals may be.
Uniform acceleration A body is said to move with uniform acceleration if equal changes
in velocity takes place in equal intervals of time, however small intervals may be.

18. A car travels at a speed of 40km/hr for two hour and then at 60km/hr for three
hours. What is the average speed of the car during the entire journey?

Ans. In first case;

= 40km/hr

= 80km

In second case, = 3hrs

= 60km/hr

= 180km

The total distance = = 80 + 180 = 260km

Total time, = 2+3 = 5hrs

Average speed =

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19. The velocity time graph of two bodies A and B traveling along the +x direction are
given in the figure

(a) Are the bodies moving with uniform acceleration?


(b) Which body is moving with greater acceleration A or B?

Ans. (a) Yes the bodies are moving with uniform acceleration.
(b) The body A is moving with greater acceleration.

20. Derive the second equation of motion, s = ut + numerically?

Ans. Let at time t = 0, body has initial velocity =

At time ‘t’, body has final velocity = V


S = distance traveled in time ‘t’
We know, total distance traveled = Average velocity time

Average velocity =

Total distance = s =

(i)

Now from first equation of motion, (ii)

Use the value of (V) from (ii) in (i)

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Let

21. Calculate the acceleration and distance of the body moving with which
comes to rest after traveling for 6sec?

Ans. Acceleration = a =?
Final velocity = V = o (body comes to rest)
Distance = s =?
Time = t = 6 sec
From, V = u + at
O = 5 + a 6
-a 6 = 5

a =

a =

Now,

-25 =

15m=s

22. A body is moving with a velocity of 12m/s and it comes to rest in 18m, what was the
acceleration?

Ans. Initial velocity =u=12m/s


Find velocity =V=0

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S= distance= 18m
A= acceleration =?

From 3rd equation of motion;

=2 a 18

23. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration of until it
travels a distance of 800m, find the find velocity?

Ans. Initial velocity = u = 0


Final velocity = v = ?
Acceleration =
Distance =s=800m

=2 4 800

u=80 m/s

u2=6400

24. The driver of a car traveling along a straight road with a speed of 72KM ph observes
a signboard which give the speed limit to be 54KM ph. The signboard is 70m ahead
when the driver applies the brakes0 calculate the acceleration of the car which will

cause the car to pass the signboard at the stated speed limit?

Ans. Initial speed = u=72 km/hr

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Final speed = v =54 km/hr

Distance = S = 70m
Now,

= 2 a 70

225 -400 =140a


- 175 =140a

25. Differentiate between scalars and vectors?

Ans.

9 / 9
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 8
Motion

3 Marks Questions

1. An object has moved through a distance. Can it have zero displacement? If yes,
support your answer with an example.

Ans. Yes, if an object has moved through a distance it can have zero displacement because
displacement of an object is the actual change in its position when it moves from one
position to the other. So if an object travels from point A to B and then returns back to point
A again, the total displacement is zero.

2. A farmer moves along the boundary of a square field of side10 m in 40 s. What will be
the magnitude of displacement of the farmer at the end of 2 minutes20 seconds?

Ans. Distance covered by farmer in 40 seconds =

Speed of the farmer = distance/time = 40m/40s = 1 m/s.


Total time given in the question = 2min20seconds = 60+60+20 =140seconds
Since he completes 1round of the field in 40seconds so in he will complete 3rounds in 120
seconds (2mins) or 120m distance is covered in 2minutes. In another 20seconds will cover
another 20m so total distance covered in 2min20sec = 120 +20 =140m.
Displacement = 200 = (as per diagram) = 14.14 m.

. 1 / 17
3. A train starting from a railway station and moving with uniform acceleration attains
a speed 40 km in 10 minutes. Find its acceleration.

Ans. Since the train starts from rest(railway station) = u = zero

Final velocity of train =v=

time (t) = 10 min = = 600 seconds

Since a = (v – u)/t

4. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance-time graph is a
straight-line parallel to the time axis?

Ans. If the object’s distance time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis indicates
that with increasing time the distance of that object is not increasing hence the object is at
rest i.e. not moving.

5. What can you say about the motion of an object if its speed time graph is a straight
line parallel to the time axis?

Ans. Such a graph indicates that the object is travelling with uniform velocity.

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6. A train is travelling at a speed of . Brakes are applied so as to produce a
uniform acceleration of . Find how far the train will go before itis brought
to rest.

Ans. u = =

, v =0(train is brought to rest)

v= u+at = 25 + (-0.5)x t

0 =25 – 0.5 x

0.5t = 25, or t = 25/0.5 = 50seconds

= 1250 – 625 = 625m

7. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of . If the


acceleration of the stone during its motion is in the downward direction,
what will be the height attained by the stone and how much time will it take to reach
there?

3 / 17
Ans.

v = 0 (since at maximum height its velocity will be zero)

v = u + at =

0 = 5 – 10t

10t = 5 , or, t = 5/10 =0.5second.

= 2.5 – 1.25 = 1.25m

8. Derive the second equation of motion graphically?

Ans. let at time T=0 body moves with initial velocity u and at time ‘t’ body has final velocity
‘v’ and un time ‘t’ it covers a distance’s.
AC=v, AB=u, OA= t, DB=OA=t, BC=AC-AB =V-u
Area under a v-t curve gives displacement so,
S= Area of DBC + Area of rectangle OABD (i)

Area of DBC= Base Height DB BC

= t (v-u) (ii)

Area of rectangle OABD= length Breadth

4 / 17
= OA BA

= t u (iii)

S= ut+ t (v-u)

S= ut + t at ( use V-u=at)

S= ut+ at2

9. A car moving with a certain velocity comes to a halt if the retardation was ,
find the initial velocity of the car?

Ans. V=0 (comes to rest) V= final velocity

S= 62.5m

(retardation)

U=?

From 3rd equation of motion,

= 2 (-5) 62.5

= -10 62.5

u= [u=25m/s ]

10. Two cars A and B are moving along in a straight line. Car A is moving at a speed of
80KMph while car B is moving at a speed 50KMph in the same direction, find the

5 / 17
magnitude and direction of

(a) tive v the relative of car A with respect to B

The relative velocity of car B with respect to A.

Ans. (a) Velocity of car A = 80KMph

Velocity of Car B = - 50 kmph

(-ve sign indicates that Car B is moving in opposite direction to Car A )

Relative velocity of car A with respect to B

= velocity of car A + (- velocity of car B)

= 80 + (-(-50))

= 80+50

=+130KMph

+130 KM ph shows that for a person in car B, car A will appear to move in the same direction
with speed of sum of their individual speed.

(b) Relative velocity of car B with respect to A

= velocity of car B+ (- velocity of car A)

= -50 + (-80)

= -130kmph

It shows that car B will appear to move with 130 kmph in opposite direction to car A

11. A ball starts from rest and rolls down 16m down an inclined plane in 4 s.

(a) What is the acceleration of the ball?

(b) What is the velocity of the ball at the bottom of the incline?

6 / 17
Ans. u= initial velocity = 0(body starts from rest)

S= distance = 16 m

T= time = 4s

(i) From,

16= a 16

(ii) From, v= u +at

v=0+2 4

[v= 8m/s]

12. Two boys A and B, travel along the same path. The displacement – time graph for
their journey is given in the following figure.

(a) How far down the road has B travelled when A starts the journey?

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(b) Without calculation, the speed, state who is traveling faster A or B?

(c) What is the speed of A?

(d) What is the speed of B?

(e) Are the speed of A and B uniform?

(f) What dose point X on the graph represent?

(g) What is the speed of approach of A towards B?

What is the speed of separation of A from B?

Ans. (a) When A starts his journey at 4 sec, B has already covered a distance of 857m

(b) A travels faster than B because A starts his journey late but crosses B and covers more
distance then B in the same time as B

(c) Speed of A =

Let at t =12 min, distance covered = 3500m

(d) Speed of B = ​

(e) Speed of approach of A towards B = 375 m/min- 214 m/min

= 161 m/min

(f) Speed of separation of A from B = 161 m/min.

13. A body is dropped from a height of 320m. The acceleration due to the gravity is

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?

(a) How long does it take to reach the ground?

(b) What is the velocity with which it will strike the ground?

Ans. Height = h

Distance = s = 320m

Acceleration due to gravity =

Initial velocity = u =0

(a) from s = ut +

(b)

14. Derive third equation of motion numerically?

Ans. We know;

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………(i)

…….(ii)

Where, v = final velocity

u = initial velocity

a = acceleration

t = time

s = distance

From equation (i) t =

Put the value of t in equation (ii)

10 / 17
15. The velocity time graph of runner is given in the graph.

(a) What is the total distance covered by the runner in 16s?

(b) What is the acceleration of the runner at t = 11s?

Ans. (a) We know that area under v-t graph gives displacement:

So, Area = distance = s = area of triangle + area of rectangle

Area of triangle =

= 30m

Area of rectangle = length breadth

= (16-6) 10

=10 10

= 100m

Total area = 180m

Total distance =180m

(b) Since at t = 11sec, particles travels with uniform velocity so, there is no change in velocity
hence acceleration = zero.

11 / 17
16. A boy throws a stone upward with a velocity of 60m/s.

(a) How long will it take to reach the maximum height ?

(b) What is the maximum height reached by the ball?

(c) How long will it take to reach the ground?

Ans. u = 60 m/s; ; v=0

(a) The time to reach maximum height is;

(b) The maximum height is;

(c) The time to reach top is equal to time taken to reach back to ground. Thus, time to reach
the ground after reaching top is 6s Or the time to reach the ground after throwing is 6 + 6
=12s.

17. The displacement x of a particle in meters along the x- axis with time ‘t’ in seconds
according to the equation-

(a) draw a graph if x versus t for t = 0 and t =5 sec


(b) What is the displacement come out of the particles initially?
(c) What is slope of the graph obtained?

12 / 17
Ans. X= 20m + (12) t

(i) At t=0
X=20+12 0=12 m

(ii) At t=1
X=20+12=32m

(iii) At t =2
X= 20+24= 44m

(iv) At t=5
X=20+12 5=72 m

(a)

(b) At T= 0 (initially)
Displacement =20m.

(c) Slope =

18. The velocity of a body in motion is recorded every second as shown-

13 / 17
calculate the –
(a) Acceleration
(b) distance travelled and draw the graph.

Ans. (a) Acceleration =slope of the velocity time graph

a=

(b) Distance

= 600-300 = 300 m

(c)

19. Draw the graph for uniform retardation –

(a) position – time graph

(b) velocity – time

(c) Acceleration- time

Ans. (1) Position – time

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(2) Velocity – time

(3) Acceleration- time

20. The displacement – time graph for a body is given. State whether the velocity and
acceleration of the body in the region BC, CD, DE and EF are positive, negative or Zero.

15 / 17
Ans. (i) For AB, the curve is upward stopping i.e. slope is increasing so velocity is positive
and remains same so, V= +ve but a=0
(ii) For BC, curve has still has +ve slope so, V= +ve but velocity is decreasing wrt time so,
a=negative
(iii) For CD, both velocity and acceleration are Zero because slope is Zero.
(iv) For DE, velocity is the (v is increasing wrt time) and so is acceleration is +ve.
(v) For EF, velocity is +ve (positive slope of x-t graph) but acceleration is Zero because
velocity remains some with time.

21. Derive the third equation of motion as graphically?

Ans. Let at time t=0, body moves with initial velocity u and time at ‘t’ has final velocity ‘v’
and in time ‘t’ covers a distance ‘s’

16 / 17
Area under v-t graph gives displacement
S = Area of DBC + Area of rectangle OABD

S =

Now, v-u = at

Put the value of ‘t’ in equation (i)

third equation of motion

. 17 / 17
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 8
Motion

5 Marks Questions

1. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter200 m in 40 s. What


will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of 2 minutes 20 s?

Ans. circumference of circular track = 2 r

= = 4400/7 m

rounds completed by athlete in 2min20sec = s= 140/40 = 3.5

Therefore, total distance covered = 2200 m

since one complete round of circular track needs 40s so he will complete 3rounds in 2mins
and in next 20s he can complete half round
Therefore, displacement = diameter = 200m.

2. Joseph jogs from one end A to the other end B of a straight 300 m road in 2 minutes 50
seconds and then turns around and jogs 100 m back to point C in another 1 minute.
What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging (a) from A to B and (b) from

1 / 9
A to C?

Ans. (a) distance = 300m


time = 2min30seconds = 150 seconds
average speed from A to B = average velocity from A to B
= 300m/150s = 2m/s

(b) average speed from A to C = (300+100) m/(150+60) sec


= 400m/210s = 1.90m/s

displacement from A to C = (300 – 100) m =200 m


time =2min30sec + 1min = 210s
velocity = displacement/time = 200m/210s = 0.95m/s

3. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be
. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the
average speed is . What is the average speed for Abdul’s trip?

Ans. If we suppose that distance from Abdul’s home to school = x km s

while driving to school: ,

velocity = displacement/time
20 = x/t, or, t=x/20 hr
on his return trip: , 40= x /t’

or, t’ =x/40 hr
total distance travelled = x + x = 2x
total time = t + t’ = x/20 + x/40 = (2x + x)/40 = 3x/40 hr
average speed for Abdul’s trip = 2x/(3x/40) = 80x/3x = 26.67km/hr

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4. A motorboat starting from rest on a lake accelerates in a straight line at a constant

rate of 3.0 m s–2 for 8.0 s. How far does the boat travel during this time?

Ans. since the motorboat starts from rest so u= 0


time (t) = 8s,

distance(s) =

5. A driver of a car travelling at applies the brakes and accelerates


uniformly in the opposite direction. The car stops in 5 s. Another driver going at
in another car applies is brakes slowly and stops in 10 s. On the same graph
paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars. Which of the two cars
travelled farther after the brakes were applied?

Ans.

As given in the figure below AB (in red line) and CD(in red line) are the Speed-time graph for
given two cars with initial speeds respectively.
Distance Travelled by first car before coming to rest=Area of

3 / 9
= 325/9 m
= 36.11 m

Distance Travelled by second car before coming to rest=Area of

= 25/6 m = 4.16 m
∴Clearly the first car will travel farther (36.11 m) than the first car (4.16 m).

6. Fig 8.11 shows the distance-time graph of three objects A, B and C. Study the graph
and answer the following questions:

(a) Which of the three is travelling the fastest?

(b) Are all three ever at the same point on the road? Fig. 8.11

(c) How far has C travelled when B passes A?

(d) How far has B travelled by the time it passes C?

Ans.

4 / 9
(a) It is clear from graph that B covers more distance in less time. Therefore, B is the fastest.

(b) All of them never come at the same point at the same time.

(c) According to graph; each small division shows about 0.57 km.

A is passing B at point S which is in line with point P (on the distance axis) and shows about
9.14 km

Thus, at this point C travels about

= 9.14 km – 2.1375 km = 7.0025 km

Thus, when A passes B, C travels about 7 km.

(d) B passes C at point Q at the distance axis which is = 5.28 km

Therefore, B travelled about 5.28 km when passes to C.

7. A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20 m. If its velocity increases uniformly at


the rate of 10 m s-2, with what velocity will it strike the ground? After what time will it
strike the ground?

Ans. Let us assume, the final velocity with which ball will strike the ground be 'v' and time it
takes to strike the ground be 't'

Initial Velocity of ball u=0

5 / 9
Distance or height of fall s=20 m

Downward acceleration

As we know,

or,

Final velocity of ball,

t= (v-u)/a

Time taken by the ball to strike= (20-0)/10

= 20/10

= 2 seconds

8. The speed-time graph for a car is shown is Fig. 8.12.

Fig. 8.12

(a) Find how far does the car travel in the first 4 seconds. Shade the area on the graph
that represents the distance travelled by the car during the period.

(b) Which part of the graph represents uniform motion of the car?

Ans.

6 / 9
(a) Distance travelled by car in the 4 second

The area under the slope of the speed – time graph gives the distance travelled by an object.

In the given graph

56 full squares and 12 half squares come under the area slope for the time of 4 second.

Total number of squares = 56 + 12/2 = 62 squares

The total area of the squares will give the distance travelled by the car in 4 second.

on the time axis,

5 squares = 2seconds, therefore 1 square = 2/5 seconds

on speed axis there are 3 squares = 2m/s

therefore, area of one square =

so area of 62 squares=

Hence the car travels 16.53m in the first 4 seconds.

(b) The straight line part of graph, from point A to point B represents a uniform motion of
car.

9. State which of the following situations are possible and give an example for each of
these:

(a) an object with a constant acceleration but with zero velocity

7 / 9
(b) an object moving in a certain direction with an acceleration in the perpendicular
direction.

Ans. (a) An object with a constant acceleration can still have the zero velocity. For example,
an object which is at rest on the surface of earth will have zero velocity but still being acted

upon by the gravitational force of earth with an acceleration of 9.81 ms-2 towards the center
of earth. Hence when an object starts falling freely can have constant acceleration but with
zero velocity.

(b) When an athlete moves with a velocity of constant magnitude along the circular path, the
only change in his velocity is due to the change in the direction of motion. Here, the motion
of the athlete moving along a circular path is, therefore, an example of an accelerated motion
where acceleration is always perpendicular to direction of motion of an object at a given
instance. Hence it is possible when an object moves on a circular path.

10. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250 km. Calculate its
speed if it takes 24 hours to revolve around the earth.

Ans. Let us assume An artificial satellite, which is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250
km covers a distance 's' as it revolve around earth with speed 'v' in given time 't' of 24 hours.

= 42250 km

Radius of circular orbit r

Time taken by artificial satellite t= 24 hours

Distance covered by satellite s=circumference of circular orbit

= 2π r

∴ Speed of sattellite v=(2π r)/t

8 / 9
= 3.073km/s

13. The position of a body at different times are recorded in the table given below:

(a) Draw the displacement time graph for the above data?

(b) What is the slope of graph?

What is the speed of the motion?

Ans. (a)

(b) Slope of the graph =

(c) Slope of the graph of a displacement-time graph = speed

Hence speed = 6m/sec

9 / 9
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 9
Forces and Laws of Motion

1 Marks Questions

1. A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on a level ground. After covering a
short distance, the ball comes to rest. The ball slows to a stop because
(a) the batsman did not hit the ball hard enough.

(b) velocity is proportional to the force exerted on the ball.

(c) there is a force on the ball opposing the motion.

(d) there is no unbalanced force on the ball, so the ball would want to come to rest.

Ans. (c) there is a force on the ball opposing the motion.

2. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity v?

(a)

(b)
(c)
(d) mv

Ans. (d) mv

3. Using a horizontal force of 200 N, we intend to move a wooden cabinet across a floor
at a constant velocity. What is the friction force that will be exerted on the cabinet?

Ans. 200 N

4. What is the S.I. unit of momentum?


(a) Kg ms.

1 / 4
(b) ms / Kg

(c)

(d) Kg / ms

Ans. (c)

5. What is the numerical formula for force?


(a) F = ma

(b) F =

(c)
(d)

Ans. (a) F = ma

6. If the initial velocity is zero then the force acting is :-


(a) Retarding

(b) Acceleration

(c) Both

(d) None.

Ans. (a) Retarding

7. What is the S.I. unit of force.


(a)

(b) Kg m/s
(c)

(d)

Ans. (a)

2 / 4
8. Newton’s first law of motion is also called:
(a) Law of Inertia

(b) Law of Momentum

(c) Law of Action & Reaction

(d) None of these

Ans. (b) Law of Momentum

9. Which law explains swimming?


(a) Newton’s first law

(b) Newton’s second law

(c) Newton’s third law

(d) All of these

Ans. (c) Newton’s third law

10. The S.I. unit of weight is:


(a) Newton

(b) Newton m

(c) Newton/sec

(d) Newton m/s

Ans. (a) Newton

11. Which equation defines Newton’s Second law of motion?

(a) F = ma =

(b) F = m = P

3 / 4
(c) = ma=P

(d) F = ma = P
Ans. (d) F = ma = P

12. The people in the bus are pushed backwards when the bus starts suddenly due to:-
(a) Inertia due to Rest

(b) Inertia due to Motion

(c) Inertia due to direction

(d) Inertia.

Ans. (a) Inertia due to Rest

13. If the force acting on the body is zero. Its momentum is


(a) zero

(b) constant

(c) Both

(d) None

Ans. (b) constant

14. The inability of the body to change its state of rest or motion is :-
(a) Momentum

(b) Force

(c) Inertia

(d) Acceleration.

Ans. (c) Inertia

4 / 4
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 9
Forces and Laws of Motion

2 Marks Questions

1. An object experiences a net zero external unbalanced force. Is it possible for the
object to be travelling with a non-zero velocity? If yes, state the conditions that must be
placed on the magnitude and direction of the velocity. If no, provide a reason.

Ans. No, it is not possible for the object to be travelling with a non-zero velocity if an object
experiences a net zero external unbalanced force since unbalanced forces cannot be equal to
zero.

2. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out of it. Explain.

Ans. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out of it because carpet fibres vibrate
in forward and backward direction as carpet is beaten but the loosely bound dust particles
due to inertia remain at rest and so they come out.

3. Why is it advised to tie any luggage kept on the roof of a bus with a rope?

Ans. It is advised to tie any luggage kept on the roof of a bus with a rope because when bus
moves the luggage also gets moving with the velocity same as that of the bus and in the same
direction but when bus changes direction or deaccelerates, due to inertia of motion luggage
moves in the same direction and may get thrown away from roof of buses.

4. A stone of 1 kg is thrown with a velocity of across the frozen surface of a


lake and comes to rest after travelling a distance of 50 m. What is the force of friction
between the stone and the ice?

Ans. since

1 / 8
(object comes to rest so v=0)

-100 a = 400

a = 400/-100 =

therefore, the force of friction between the stone and the ice

F = m x a = 1 x (-4)N = -4 N

5. An automobile vehicle has a mass of 1500 kg. What must be the force between the
vehicle and road if the vehicle is to be stopped with a negative acceleration of
?

Ans. since = -2550 N (negative sign symbolises acceleration in


opposite direction)

6. An object of mass 100 kg is accelerated uniformly from a velocity of to


in 6 s. Calculate the initial and final momentum of the object. Also, find the
magnitude of the force exerted on the object.

Ans. Initial momentum of the object = = 500 kg m/s

Final momentum of the object = = 800 kg m/s

since v = u + at

a = 3/6 =

since = 50 N

7. Akhtar, Kiran and Rahul were riding in a motorcar that was moving with a high
velocity on an expressway when an insect it the windshield and got stuck on the
windscreen. Akhtar and Kiran started pondering over the situation. Kiran suggested
that the insect suffered a greater change in momentum as compared to the change in

2 / 8
momentum of the motorcar (because the change in the velocity of the insect was much
more than that of the motorcar). Akhtar said that since the motorcar was moving with
a larger velocity, it exerted a larger force on the insect. And as a result the insect died.
Rahul while putting an entirely new explanation said that both the motorcar and the
insect experienced the same force and a change in their momentum. Comment on these
suggestions.

Ans. Since the mass of insect is negligible in comparison to the mass of motorcar therefore
there will be no any change in the momentum of motorcar.

v =

v = 4 m/s

momentum = = 40 kg m/s

8. State Newton’s second law of motion?

Ans. According to Newton’s second law of motion, the rate of charge of momentum of a body
is equal to the force acting on it and the change in momentum takes place in the same
direction as the force applied.

9. What is the momentum of a body of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 15 m/s.

Ans. Mass of Body = 200 g =

Velocity of Body = 15 m/s

Momentum of the Body =

3 / 8
= 3 Kg M/S

10. Define force and what are the various types of forces?

Ans. Force is the push or pull which can produce the change in state or shape of the body.
The various types of force are:

(a) Gravitational force

(b) Electrostatic force

(c) Electromagnetic force

(d) Nuclear force.

11. A force of 25 N acts on a mass of 500 g resting on a frictionless surface. What is the
acceleration produced?

Ans. Force is the push or pull which can produce the change in state or shape of the body.
The various types of force are:

(a) Gravitational force

(b) Electrostatic force

(c) Electromagnetic force

(d) Nuclear force.

12. State Newton’s first law of Motion?

Ans. According to Newton’s first law of motion, a body at rest will continue to be at rest and
a body in motion will continue to be in motion until and unless it is acted upon by an
external force.

13. A body of mass 5 Kg starts and rolls down 32 m of an inclined plane in 4s. Find the
force acting on the body?

4 / 8
Ans. Initial velocity = u=0

Time = t 4 sec.

Distance = S = 32 m

M= mass = 5 Kg

S = ut +

Force = F=Ma

= 20 N

14. On a certain planet, a small stone tossed up at 15 m/s vertically uploads takes 7.5 s to
return to the ground. What is the acceleration due to gravity on the planet?

Ans. Initial velocity = u=15 m/s

V=Final velocity = 0

V=u+at

O=15+at

t=

5 / 8
Time taken to reach the highest = point

Time taken to reach the downward =

Time taken for the entire journey = 2

The acceleration due to gravity on the planet

15. Why is the weight of the object more at the poles than at the equator?

Ans. Weight of the object is more at the poles than at the equator because w=weight = mg.
because g at equator is less because its radius is more and hence weight is less and vice –
versa for poles.

16. Why does the passenger sitting in a moving bus are pushed in the forward direction
when the bus stops suddenly?

Ans. The passengers sitting in the moving bus are pushed in the procured direction when the
bus stops suddenly because of inertia due to rest. The bus comes to rest so the passengers
feet comes to rest but due to inertia his upper part of body is still in motion and so he falls
forward.

17. Why does the boat moves backwards when the sailor jumps in the forward
direction?

Ans. When the sailor jumps in the forward direction, the boat moves backwards because
while jumping the sailor pushes the boat backwards (action) and by Newton’s third law the
boat pushes him in the forward direction (reaction).

. 6 / 8
18. Derive the law of conservation of momentum from Newton’s third law?

Ans. Acc. to Newton’s third law every action has an equal and opposite reaction and it acts
on two different bodies.

From law of conservation of momentum, for an isolated system, the total initial momentum
for an event is equal to total initial momentum.

Let FAB = force exerted by body A on body B

FBA = force exerted by body B on A.

Let the mass of body A = mA

Mass of body B = mB

Initial velocity of Body A = uA

Initial velocity of Body B = uB

Final velocity of Body A = VA

Final velocity of Body B = VB

Rate of change of velocity of A =

Rate of change of Momentum of A =

Rate of change of Momentum of B =

From Newton’s second law,

F = (Rate of change of Momentum)

7 / 8
From Newton’s third law,
FAB = - FBA

So, mA uA + mB uB = mA VA + mB VB
Law of conservation of Momentum.

19. An astronaut has 80 Kg mass on earth.

i) What is his weight on earth?

ii) what will be his mass are weight on mars where

Ans. Mass of astronaut on earth = 80 Kg=M


Acceleration due to gravity = of earth.

i) Weight on earth = Mg
= 800 N

ii) Acceleration due to gravity = on Mars

Weight on mars = Mg

= 296 n
The Mass of astronaut on Mars = 80 Kg because Mass remains constant.

8 / 8
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 9
Forces and Laws of Motion

3 Marks Questions

1. Which of the following has more inertia:

(a) a rubber ball and a stone of the same size?

(b) a bicycle and a train?

(c) a five rupees coin and a one-rupee coin?

Ans. (a) as tone of the same size will have more inertia than a rubber ball.

(b) A train will have more inertia than a bicycle.

(c) A five rupees coin will have more inertia than a one-rupee coin.

2. In the following example, try to identify the number of times the velocity of the ball
changes:

“A football player kicks a football to another player of his team who kicks the football
towards the goal. The goalkeeper of the opposite team collects the football and kicks it
towards a player of his own team”.

Also identify the agent supplying the force in each case.

Ans. In the given example the velocity of football changes four times. As described below:

(i) when the football player is supplying the force when he kicks the football to another
player.

(ii) when the other player kicks football towards the goal.

(iii) When the goalkeeper of other team stops the ball.

1 / 16
(iv) When the goalkeeper kicks the football towards player of his team.

3. Explain why some of the leaves may get detached from a tree if we vigorously shake
its branch.

Ans. Some of the leaves may get detached from a tree if we vigorously shake its branch
because the some of the leaves due to property of inertia remain at rest while we vigorously
shake branch of the tree as a result those leaves detach and fall off.

4. Why do you fall in the forward direction when a moving bus brakes to a stop and fall
backwards when it accelerates from rest?

Ans. when a moving bus brakes to a stop we fall in the forward direction because we are
also moving with the speed of bus due to the inertia of motion and when suddenly it puts
brakes i.e. comes to rest the lower half of our body also comes to rest but the upper half of
our body not being in close contact with bus is still in the phase of motion so we fall in the
forward direction.

When the bus accelerates from rest, we are also at rest being on the resting seat as the engine
applies force in forward direction we fall backwards due to the inertia now.

5. If action is always equal to the reaction, explain how a horse can pull a cart.

Ans. With a balance force the overall impact is absence of movement but with unbalanced
forces, the resultant or the bigger force causes the motion. Same is true in the case where a
horse pulls a cart. Horse exerts more force on the cart than the cart exerts to resist its
movement hence this is an unbalanced force and the cart moves in the direction of horse’s
pull.

6. Explain, why is it difficult for fireman to hold a hose, which ejects large amounts of
water at a high velocity.

Ans. It is difficult for fireman to hold a hose, which ejects large amounts of water at a high
velocity because of the third law of newton when the hose ejects large amounts of water at a
high velocity in forward direction the water coming out pushes the hose pipe in backward

2 / 16
direction and it becomes difficult to hold it.

7. From a rifle of mass 4 kg, a bullet of mass 50 g is fired with an initial velocity of
.Calculate the initial recoil velocity of the rifle.

Ans. Initial Momentum of rifle and bullet (before fire)

= mv

= 0

Final Momentum of rifle and bullet (after fire)

where(50g = 0.05kg)

= - 0.44m/s

8. A 8000 kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal track. If
the engine exerts a force of 40000 N and the track offers a friction force of 5000 N, then
calculate:

(a) the net accelerating force;

(b) the acceleration of the train; and

(c) the force of wagon 1 on wagon 2.

Ans. (a) The net accelerating force = Force exerted by engine - frictional force of track =
40000 - 5000 = 35000 N

(b) the acceleration of the train = a = F/m = 35000/(5 x 2000) = 35000/10000 =

(c) the force of wagon 1 on wagon 2

Wagon 1 will have to exert force on all 4 wagons next to it

3 / 16
so mass of other 4 wagons =

F = ma

9. Two objects, each of mass 1.5 kg, are moving in the same straight line but in opposite

directions. The velocity of each object is 2.5 m s-1 before the collision during which they
stick together. What will be the velocity of the combined object after collision?

Ans. Momentum before collision took place

= 0

Since the objects stick together after collision hence

momentum after collision

= 3v

momentum before collision = momentum after collision

0 = 3v, v= 0/3 = 0

the velocity of the combined object after collision (v)= 0

10. According to the third law of motion when we push on an object, the object pushes
back on us with an equal and opposite force. If the object is a massive truck parked
along the roadside, it will probably not move. A student justifies this by Answering that
the two opposite and equal forces cancel each other. Comment on this logic and explain
why the truck does not move.

Ans. According to the third law of motion when we push on an object, the object pushes back
on us with an equal and opposite force result is the two opposite and equal forces cancel
each other but when one of these forces is bigger than inertia so the object moves in the
direction of force applied. As this student explains the truck is massive so the force applied

4 / 16
cannot overcome force caused by inertia. Therefore, the truck does not move.

11. A hockey ball of mass 200 g travelling at is struck by a hockey stick so as to


return it along its original path with a velocity at . Calculate the change of
momentum occurred in the motion of the hockey ball by the force applied by the
hockey stick.

Ans. mass of hockey ball = 200 g = 0.2 kg

(return velocity)

initial momentum of hockey ball = 2 kg m/s

final momentum of hockey ball = -1 kg m/s

change in momentum of hockey ball = 2 - (-1) = 2 + 1 = 3 kg m/s

12. A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of strikes a


stationary wooden block and comes to rest in 0.03 s. Calculate the distance of
penetration of the bullet into the block. Also calculate the magnitude of the force
exerted by the wooden block on the bullet.

Ans. v =u + at

the distance of penetration of the bullet into the block

= 4.5 - 2.25

= 2.25 m

5 / 16
the magnitude of the force exerted by the wooden block on the bullet

m = 10 g = 0.01 kg

13. An object of mass 1 kg travelling in a straight line with a velocity of


collides with, and sticks to, a stationary wooden block of mass 5 kg. Then they both
move off together in the same straight line. Calculate the total momentum just before
the impact and just after the impact. Also, calculate the velocity of the combined object.

Ans. Wooden block is stationery (at rest) so its velocity

mass of combined object is = 1 kg + 5 kg = 6 kg

total momentum before the impact = 10 kg m/s

law of conservation of momentum:

total momentum just before the impact = total momentum after the impact= 10 kg m/s

thereforethe velocity of the combined object: = 6v

v = 10/6 = 1.67 m/s

14. How much momentum will a dumb-bell of mass 10 kg transfer to the floor if it falls
from a height of 80 cm? Take its downward acceleration to be .

Ans. height from which dumb bell falls = 80 cm = 0.8 m

since we know

= 16

15. A force of 15 N acts for 5s on a body of mass 5 Kg which is initially at rest. Calculate.

6 / 16
a) final velocity of the body

b) the displacement of the body

Ans. a) Force = F = 15 N

Time t = 5s

Mass = M = 5 Kg

Initial velocity =u=0

V = Final velocity = ?

Displacement = ?

F = Ma

Now, 1)

V=15 m/s

b)

16. Differentiate between mass and weight?

Ans.

7 / 16
17. A scooter is moving with a velocity of 20 m/s when brakes are applied. The mass of
the scooter and the rider is 180Kg. the constant force applied by the brakes is 500 N.

a) How long should the brakes be applied to make the scooter comes to a halt?

b) How far does the scooter travel before it comes to rest?

Ans. Initial velocity = u=20 m/s

Final velocity = V=O

Mass of scooter = M = 180 Kg

& Rider

Force = F = 500 N

a) F=Ma

500=180 a

Since the final velocity is zero, the acceleration is negative (Retardation)

So,

Now, V=u + at

8 / 16
2.78 =20

b) S=ut+

18. State Newton’s third law of motion and how does it explain the walking of man on
the ground?

Ans. According to Newton’s third law of motion, if a body A exerts a force F on the body B
then the body B exerts a force -F on the body A and the forces act along the same line.

When a person walks on the ground, then he pushes the ground backwards with a force F
and in reaction the ground also pushes the man in the forward direction and hence the man
walks forward.

Acc. to Newton’s third law:

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.

19. With what speed must a ball be thrown vertically up in order to rise to a maximum
height of 45m? And for how long will it be in air?

Ans. Initial velocity = u = ?

Final velocity = ( Body comes to rest)

Acceleration due to gravity=

Distance = S = 45 m

9 / 16
1)

U = 30 m/s

2) V=Vo+at

O=30+(-10)

=3s.

The ball takes 3s to go up

The ball takes 3s to come down

The total time of flight=6 sec.

20. State Newton’s second law of motion and derive it mathematically?

Ans. According to Newton’s second Law of motion, rate of change of momentum is equal to
the force acting on it and both take place in the same direction

Mass of Body = m kg

Initial velocity = u

Force = F

Let the direction of the force be the same as the direction of motion of the body.

Let force act for time = t sec

Final velocity = V

Initial Momentum = Pi = mv

Final momentum = Pf

10 / 16
Change in Momentum = Pf - Pi = mv - mu

Rate of change in Momentum =

Now, Acceleration =

Use (2) in (1)

Rate of change in Momentum = ma from Newton’s second law of motion, F = ma

21. A bullet travelling at 360 m/s; strikes a block of soft wood. The mass of the bullet is
2.0g. The bullet comes to rest after penetrating 10 cm into the wood?

a) Find the average deceleration force exerted by the wood.

b) Find the time taken by the bullet to come to rest.

Ans. Initial velocity = u = 360 m/s

Final Velocity =0

Distance Travelled = S = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Acceleration = ?

Force = ?

1)

m = Mass = 2g = 0.002 Kg

Force = F = Ma

11 / 16
Average decelerating force = 1296 N

b)

22. Two objects A and B are dropped from a height the object B being dropped. S after A
was dropped. How long after A was dropped will A and B be 10 m apart?

Ans. Initial velocity = u = O

Let A for s → acceleration = a =

For object A: - Distance Travelled =

For object B, time = (t-1) s

12 / 16
Subtracting equation b) & a)

The objects will be 10 m apart 1.52 s after A is dropped.

23. A boy throws a stone up with a velocity of 60 m/s.

1) How long will it take to reach the maximum height

2) What will be the maximum height reached by the stone?

3) What will be its velocity when it reaches the ground?

Ans. Initial velocity = u = 60 m/s

Final velocity = V = O

Acceleration due to gravity =

1) V = u + gt

10 t = 60

T = 6 sec

13 / 16
2) h = height

= 360 -180

= 180 m

3) The velocity when it reaches the ground = 60 m/s.

24. A certain particle has a weight of 30 N at a place where the acceleration due to
gravity is

a) What are its mass and weight at a place where acceleration due to gravity is
.

b) What will be its mass & weight at a place where acceleration due to gravity is zero.

Ans. Weight of particle = w = 30 N

Acceleration due to gravity =

m = Mass of particle

1) w = mg

W = mg g at the place

14 / 16
= 10.71 N

Mass at the place = 3.061 Kg

2) At a place where g O; w = weight = O

But Mass = 3.061 Kg because mass is a constant quantity.

25. Why does a person while firing a bullet holds the gun tightly to his shoulders?

Ans. A person while firing a bullet holds the gun tightly to his shoulder because while firing
the bullet, the bullet moves in the forward direction with a greater force and as a reaction by
Newton’s third law the gun will also move with the same force in the backward direction, so
to prevent the shoulder of the person getting injured he must hold the gun tightly so that the
force is not felt that strongly.

26. A car is moving with a velocity of 16 m/s when brakes are applied. The force applied
by the brakes is 1000 N. The mass of the car its passengers is 1200 Kg.

a) How long should the brakes be applied to make the car come to a halt?

b) How for does the car travel before it comes to rest?

Ans. Initial velocity = u = 16 m/s

Final velocity = v = o

Force = F = 1000 N

Mass = M = 1200 Kg

F = Ma

15 / 16
The acceleration is negative because it retards the body.

a) v = u + at

b) s = Distance Travelled

S = 153.6 m

. 16 / 16
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 9
Forces and Laws of Motion

5 Marks Questions

1. Two objects of masses 100 g and 200 g are moving along the same line and direction
with velocities of , respectively. They collide and after the collision,
the first object moves at a velocity of . Determine the velocity of the second
object.

Ans. Given,
m1 = 100 g = 0.1 kg

m2 = 200 g = 0.2 kg

velocity of the first object =

velocity of the second object =

Momentum before the collision =

= 0.4 kg m/s

since velocity of first object after collision = 1.67 m/s


If we suppose that velocity of second object = v
As per law of conservation of momentum,
(initial momentum = final momentum)

0.4 = 0.167 + 0.2v


0.2v = 0.4 - 0.167
v = 0.2333/0.2 = 2.33/2 = 1.16 m/s

2. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels a
distance of 400 m in 20 s. Find its acceleration. Find the force acting on it if its mass is 7

1 / 5
metric tonnes (Hint: 1 metric tonne = 1000 kg.)

Ans. According to the question,


In velocity of truck (u) = 0
distance = s= 400m and time = 20s
mass of truck = 7metric tones = 7000kg

400 =0 + 200a
400 = 200a
a = 400/200 =
therefore, = 14000N

3. A stone is dropped from a 100m high tower. How long does it take to fall?

a) the first 50m and

b) the second 50m.

Ans. Initial velocity = u=0


Total height = h = 100m

a) Let for first 50m the time stone takes is ‘t’ sec.
S=-50 m (-ve sign shows the stone falls in downward direction)

2 / 5
t = 3.16 sec.

b) for the entire journey,


u = 0
S = -100 m

4. A body of mass 10Kg starts from rest and rolls down an inclined plane. It rolls down
10m in 2S? t = 4.47sec

a) What is the acceleration attained by the body.


b) What is the velocity of the body at 2S?
c) What is the force acting on the body?

Ans. Mass = m = 10kg


Initial velocity = 0
Distance = S = 10m
Time = t = 25

a)

b)

3 / 5
c)
=
F = 50 N

5. A body of mass 2Kg is at rest at the origin of a frame of reference. A force of 5 N acts
on it at t = 0. The force acts for 4S and then stops.

a) What is the acceleration produced by the force on the body.


b) What is the velocity at t= 4s
c) Draw the v – t graph for the period t = 0 to t = 6S.
d) Find the distance travelled in 6S.

Ans. Force = F = 5N Mass = m = 2kg

a) F = Ma; a = acceleration

b) Final velocity = v = o?
Initial velocity = u = o (body starts from Rest)
Time = t = 4s.
v = u +at v =
v = 10 m/s

c)

d) Distance Travelled = Area under


v-t curve = Area of

. 4 / 5
= 45 M

5 / 5
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 10
Gravitaion

1 Marks Questions

1. What is the acceleration of free fall?

Ans. The acceleration of free fall is g = 9.8 m/s2(on earth).

2. What do we call the gravitational force between the earth and an object?

Ans. Weight.

3. In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?

Ans. In the upward direction only.

4. Even though stone also attracts earth towards itself, earth does not move

(a) Because of greater mass of earth

(b) Because of lesser mass of stone

(c) Force exerted by stone is less

(d) Force exerted earth is large

Ans. (a) Because of greater mass of earth

5. The weight of an object is:

(a) Greater on earth and lesser on Moon

(b) Lesser on earth and Greater on earth

1 / 6
(c) Equal on both earth and Moon

(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Greater on earth and lesser on Moon

6. Weight of an object has S.I, unit of:

(a) Newton

(b) kg

(c) N/Kg

(d) Kg/N

Ans. (a) Newton

7. Which of the statements is correct?

(a) Mass is constant and weight is variable

(b) Mass is variable and weight is constant.

(c) Both Mass and weight are variable

(d) Both Mass and weight are constant.

Ans. (a) Mass is constant and weight is variable

8. If cross – sectional area of an object is more than the pressure applied by the
external force is:

(a) Less

(b) More

(c) Remains same

(d) None of the above.

2 / 6
Ans. (a) Less

9. If the acceleration due to gravity at a place is more, the weight of that object will:

(a) Decrease

(b) Increase

(c) Remains same

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Increase

10. Weight of the object is:

(a) More at the equator and less at poles

(b) More at poles and less at equator

(d) Same at poles and equator

(d) Depend on Mass of the object

Ans. (b) More at poles and less at equator

11. If the distance between the object increase, mass remaining same then the
gravitational forces between the object will :-

(a) Increase

(b) Decrease

(c) Remain same

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a) Increase

3 / 6
12. The S. I. units of mass, force and weight are respectively:

(a) Kg, N, N

(b) N, Kg, N

(c) N, N, Kg

(d) Kg, N, Kg

Ans. (a) Kg, N, N

13. Units of ‘g’ are:

(a)

(b) N/Kg

(c)

(d)

Ans. (a)

14. The relation between the weight of an object on the moon ( ) and on the earth (

) is:

(a)

(b) Wm = We

(c)

(d) Wm = 6We

Ans. (a)

4 / 6
15. S. I. unite of Pressure:

(a)

(b)

(c) Nm

(d) N/m

Ans. (b)

16. Units of pressure are:

(a)

(b)

(c) Nm

(d) N/m

Ans. (b)

17. Units of Relative Density are:

(a)

(c) Depends on the density of the substance

(b) Unit less

(d) Depend on the density of water

Ans. (b) Unit less

18. Pressure at a point in the liquid is

5 / 6
(a) Same in all directions

(b) Greater in the upward direction

(c) Grater in the downward direction

(d) None of the Above

Ans. (a) Same in all directions

19. If the area of an object is less than the pressure acting on that object will be

(a) Less

(b) More

(c) Independent of area

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) More

6 / 6
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 10
Gravitaion

2 Marks Questions

1. What do you mean by free fall?

Ans. It is the object falling towards earth under the influence of attraction force of earth or
gravity.

2. What do you mean by acceleration due to gravity?

Ans. During free fall any object that has mass experiences force towards centre of earth and
hence an acceleration works as well. “acceleration experienced by an object in its freefall is
called acceleration due to gravity.” It is denoted by g.

3. Why is it difficult to hold a schoolbag having a strap made of a thin and strong
string?

Ans. It is difficult to hold a schoolbag having a strap made of a thin and strong string because
a bag of that kind will make its weight fall over a small area of the shoulder and produce a
greater pressure that makes holding the bag difficult and painful.

4. What do you mean by buoyancy?

Ans. It is the upward force experienced by an object when it is immersed into a fluid.

5. You find your mass to be 42 kg on a weighing machine. Is your mass more or less than
42 kg?

Ans. Mass will be slightly more than 42 kg.

1 / 13
6. You have a bag of cotton and anir on bar, each indicating a mass of 100 kg when
measured on a weighing machine. In reality, one is heavier than other. Can you say
which one is heavier and why?

Ans. The bag of cotton is heavier since volume of cotton bag is greater than iron bar, so the
up thrust is larger in case of cotton hence real mass of cotton bag is more and it is heavier.

7. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance
between them is reduced to half?

Ans. The force of gravitation between two objects is inversely proportional to the square of
the distance between them therefore the gravity will become four times if distance between
them is reduced to half.

8. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to their masses. Why then, a
heavy object does not fall faster than alight object?

Ans. In free fall of objects the acceleration in velocity due to gravity is independent of mass
of those objects hence a heavy object does not fall faster than alight object.

9. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object
on its surface? (Mass of the earth is and radius of the earth is
.)

Ans. F = G

= 9.81 N

10. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. Does the

2 / 13
earth attract the moon with a force that is greater or smaller or the same as the force
with which the moon attracts the earth? Why?

Ans. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by same gravitational force because
for both of them formula to calculate force of attraction is the same

F = G

d is also same for both.

11. If the moon attracts the earth, why does the earth not move towards the moon?

Ans. Earth does not move towards moon because mass of moon is very small as compared to
that of earth.

12. Amit buys few grams of gold at the poles as per the instruction of one of his friends.
He hands over the same when he meets him at the equator. Will the friend agree with
the weight of gold bought? If not, why? [Hint: The value of g is greater at the poles than
at the equator.]

Ans. Since and given in the question that value of g is greater at the poles than
at the equator, hence weight of same amount of gold will be lesser at equator than it was on
the poles. Therefore, the friend will not agree with the weight of gold bought.

13. Why will a sheet of paper fall slower than one that is crumpled into a ball?

Ans. A greater surface area offers greater resistance and buoyancy same is true in the case of
a sheet of paper that has larger surface area as compared to paper crumpled into a ball. So
sheet of paper falls slower.

14. Gravitational force on the surface of the moon is only 1/6 as strong as gravitational
force on the earth. What is the weight in newton’s of a 10 kg object on the moon and on
the earth?

Ans. value of gravity on earth =

3 / 13
value of gravity on moon = 1/6th of earth = 9.8/6 =

weight of object on moon = 16.3 N

weight of object on earth = 98 N

15. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49 m/s. Calculate

(i) the maximum height to which it rises,

(ii) the total time it takes to return to the surface of the earth.

Ans. (i) v = u + gt

9.8t = 49
t = 49/9.8 = 5 s

= 245 -122.5 = 122.5

(ii) total time taken to return = 5 + 5 = 10 s

16. A stone is released from the top of a tower of height 19.6 m. Calculate its final
velocity.

Ans.

t = 2

. 4 / 13
since v= u + at

= 19.6 m/s

17. Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth and the Sun, given that the
mass of the earth and of the Sun . The average distance

between the two is .

Ans.

18. Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of water?

Ans. Since of plastic has density very less as compared to water i.e. weight of plastic is less
than the buoyant force experienced by it therefore a block of plastic released under water
come up to the surface of water/floats.

19. The volume of 50 g of a substance is . If the density of water is , will

the substance float or sink?

Ans. Density of that substance (d) = mass/volume = 50/20 =

since the density of substance (2.5) is greater than the density of water (1) therefore it will
sink.

20. State the Universal law of Gravitation?

Ans. According to Universal law of Gravitation every particle in the universe attracts every
other particle with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and

. 5 / 13
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Let = Masses of two bodies

r = Distance of separation

f = force acting b/w them

So,

G = Universal Gravitational constant

21. If heavier bodies are attracted more strongly by the earth, why do they not fall
faster to the ground?

Ans. Heavier bodies do not fall fast on the ground even though they are attracted by the
earth strongly because of their larger mass, the acceleration produced in them by the force of
earth will be less as
F = m

m-mass, F=force, a = Acceleration

so if Mass is more, Acceleration will be less

22. State Archimedes Principle?

Ans. According to Archimedes Principle when a body is partially or completely immersed in


a fluid, experiences an up thrust which is equal to the weight of fluid displaced.

23. A stone is dropped from the edge of the roof. It passes a window 2m high is 0.1 s.

6 / 13
How far is the roof above the window?

Ans. S = h = height

u = Initial velocity

t = Time

g = Acceleration due to gravity

Let, the time taken to fall through height ‘h’ is ‘t’ so,

equation – (1) (-h because fall is downward)

Let to fall (h = 2) m time taken is (t + 0.1) s.

Subtract equation (2) from (1)

7 / 13
Substitute t in equation (1)

The roof is 19.0 m above the window.

24. How does acceleration due to gravity change with the shape of earth?

Ans. Since earth is not a perfect sphere, it is flattened from the top and bulges at the centre
and acceleration due to gravity (g) is inversely proportional to the radius of earth so, g is
more at poles because of lesser radius and less at equator because of greater radius.

25. What do you understand by the gravitational force of earth and weight?

Ans. Gravitational force of earth is the force by which earth exerts on any object towards
itself.

Weight is the force which the object exerts on the earth.

26. A man of mass 60 Kg is standing on the floor holding a stone weighing 40 N. What is
the force with which the floor is pushing him up?

8 / 13
Ans. The gravitational pull on the man = Mg

The weight he is carrying = 40 N

The total downward force on the floor = 40 N + 600 N

= 640 N

The Gravitational force and upward force of the floor is an action – reaction pair.

The force with which the floor pushes the man = 640 N.

27. What is acceleration due to gravity and how is it different from acceleration?

Ans. Acceleration due to gravity is the acceleration produced in the object when it falls freely
under the effect of gravitational force of earth only. Acceleration is produced when any
external force applied on the body makes it to move.

28. If the mass of one object is doubled and mass of other remains the same and if
distance between them is halved then how does the gravitational force change?

Ans. Let = Mass of first object

= Mass of second object

R = Distance between the two objects

G = Universal Gravitational constant

F = Gravitational force.

. 9 / 13
Using equal 1)

29. Show that if mass of two bodies are equal their weights will be same in whichever
part of universe it may be measured?

Ans. Consider two bodies of masses and . Let them be taken to a planet whose mass is

and the radius to be . The gravitational force of attraction exerted by the planet on

the mass will be:

Force between planet and =

Force between planet and =

10 / 13
If two bodies have the same mass, that is if then

are the weights of the bodies on that planet. Therefore, if the mass of two bodies

are equal, their weights will be same.

30. The radius of the earth is about 6370 Km. An object of mass 30 Kg is taken to a height
of 230 Km above the surface of earth.

(a) What is the mass of the body

(b) What is the acceleration to gravity at this height

(c) What is the weight of the body at this height.

Ans. a) The mass of the body will be 30 Kg because mass is constant

b) The distance of the body form the centre of the earth = 6370 + 230 Km

= 6600 Km

Acceleration due to gravity = g =

c) Weight at that height = mg

= 274.8 N

31. What is the importance of the universal law of Gravitation?

Ans. The importance of universal law of gravitation:

11 / 13
1) The force that binds us to the earth.

2) The motion of the moon around the earth.

3) The motion of the planet around the sun

4) The tides due to the moon and the sun

32. Define Pressure? How is thrust different from Pressure?

Ans. The pressure due to a force is defined as the force acting or unit area.

Pressure (P) =

A unit of Pressure is .

Thrust is also the pressure but it is the force acting on a surface normal to its area.

33. What are fluids? What are the factors on which the upward pressure at a point on a
fluid depends?

Ans. Fluids are that which flow and it includes both liquids and gases.

Factors on which the upward pressure at a point of the fluid depends are:

1) the depth of the point from the surface of the liquid.

2) the density of the liquid

3) the acceleration due to gravity.

34. Define density and relative density?

Ans. Density of a substance is defined as the mass of the unit volume of the substance. Its
units are .

Relative Density of a substance is the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of

12 / 13
water.

Relative Density of substance =

It is unit less.

35. Calculate the pressure at a depth of 50 m below the surface of sea. The density of sea
water is .

Ans. Depth of the point where = 5 cm or 0.05 m pressure is to be calculated

Density of sea water =

Acceleration due to gravity =

Pressure = Depth Density of water Acceleration due of gravity

Pressure = or Pa

13 / 13
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 10
Gravitaion

3 Marks Questions

1. State the universal law of gravitation.

Ans. According to Newton’s universal law of gravitation:

Every mass in this universe attracts every other mass with a force which is directly
proportional to the product of two masses and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between them.

2. Write the formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth
and an object on the surface of the earth.

Ans. The formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and an
object on the surface of the earth is given below:

F = magnitude of gravitational force

G = Universal gravitation constant

M = mass of earth

m = mass of object

d = distance of object from the centre of earth

3. What are the differences between the mass of an object and its weight?

Ans.

1 / 19
4. Why is the weight of an object on the moon 1/6th its weight on the earth?

Ans. since we know Mass of object remains the same whether on earth or

moon but the value of acceleration on moon is 1/6th of the value of acceleration on earth.
Because of this weight of an object on moon is 1/6th its weight on the earth.

5. Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of water?

Ans. As an object comes in contact with the surface of a fluid it experiences two types of
forces: gravitational force or gravity that pulls the object in downward direction and the
second force is the force of buoyancy that pushes the object in upward direction.

It is these two forces that are responsible for an object to float or sink

i.e. if gravity >buoyancy then object sinks

if gravity<buoyancy then object floats.

6. What happens to the force between two objects, if

(i) the mass of one object is doubled?

(ii) the distance between the objects is doubled and tripled?

(iii) the masses of both objects are doubled?

Ans. (i) the force between two objects will be doubled.

(ii) the force between two objects will become 1/4th and 1/9th of the present force.

2 / 19
(iii) the force between two objects will become four times the present force.

7. What is the importance of universal law of gravitation?

Ans. The universal law of gravitation is important due to the following:

i) this law explains well the force that binds us to earth.

ii) this law describes the motion of planets around the sun.

iii) this law justifies the tide formation on earth due to moon and sun.

iv) this law gives reason for movement of moon around earth.

8. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of40 m/s.

Taking , find the maximum height reached by the stone. What is the net

displacement and the total distance covered by the stone?

Ans. Initial velocity of stone (u) = 40 m/s

at maximum height stone will be at rest so v= 0

v = u + gt

10t = 40

t = 40/10 = 4 s

distance covered /maximum height

= 160 - 80 = 80 m

net displacement of stone = 0(thrown upwards then falls back to same place)

3 / 19
total distance covered by the stone = 80 + 80 = 160 m

9. The volume of a 500 g sealed packet is . Will the packet float or sink in water
if the density of water is ? What will be the mass of the water displaced by this

packet?

Ans. Density of the packet = mass/volume = 500/350 =

Since the density of packet is more than density of water so it will sink. And packet will
displace water equal to its volume:

volume of water displaced by packet (volume of packet)

mass of water displaced = volume of water displaced density of water

= 350 g

10. The radius of earth is 6370 Km and of mars is 3400 Km. If an object weighs 200 N or
earth, what will be its weight on mars. The mass of mars is 0.11 that of earth.

Ans. Let m = Mass of the body

Me = Mass of earth

Mm = Mass of Mars

re = Radius of earth

= Radius of Mars

G = Universal gravitational constant

Weight of body on earth = =

Weight of body on Mars = =

4 / 19
Divide one equal by another

As, M, = 0.11 Me

Fe = 200 N

re = 6370 Km

rm = 3400 Km

Fm = 77.22 N

Weight of the body on Mars = 77.22 N

11. Determine the value and units of universal Gravitational constant, G?

Ans. From Universal law of Gravitation,

= Mass of earth

= Mass of object

R = Radius of earth

. 5 / 19
F = Attractive force between earth and object

Units of G

Units of

6 / 19
12. What is the up thrust experienced by a cube of edge – length 5 cm made of iron
when completely immersed in ethanol of density

Ans. Volume of the cube

Volume of ethanol displaced

Density of ethanol

of ethanol has a mass of 0.8

(that is ) of ethanol will have a mass

= 800 Kg

The Density of ethanol

Mass of ethanol = 0.1 Kg

Weight of ethanol displaced = 0.98 N

By Archimedes’s principles

Up thrust = weight of fluid displaced = 0.98 N

13. A stone is dropped from a height of 50 m on earth. At the same time, another stone
is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity up wards from the
ground with a velocity of 50 m/s. At what height from the ground will the two stones

meet

Ans. Volume of the cube =

7 / 19
Volume of ethanol displaced

Density of ethanol

of ethanol has a mass of 0.8

(that is 106 cm3) of ethanol will have a mass

= 800 Kg

The Density of ethanol

Mass of ethanol = 0.1 Kg

Weight of ethanol displaced = = 0.98 N

By Archimedes’s principles

Up thrust = weight of fluid displaced = 0.98 N

14. What is acceleration due to gravity and calculate its value on earth?

Ans. Acceleration due to gravity (g) is the acceleration produced is the object when it falls
freely under the effect of gravitational force of earth.

Let M = Mass of earth

m = Mass of object

r = Radius of earth

g = Acceleration due to gravity

f = force.

By Newton’s law of gravitation.

8 / 19
Now, F = Ma (from Newton’s law)

F = mg → ii) (for free fall)

Equating i) & ii)

15. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. The speed of the ball was 10 m/s when it had
reached one half of its maximum height.

(a) How high does the ball rise?

(b) Find the velocity and acceleration 1s after it is thrown.

Ans. a) Let the initial velocity = u

Let the maximum height reached = h m

When it reached , the velocity = 10 m/s

Now

9 / 19
When the ball reaches the highest point, v = o

100 = 20 h-10 h

100 = 10 h

10 m=h

Maximum height reached = 10 m

Initial velocity of the ball when it was thrown up = 14.14 m/s.

b) Velocity after 1s

10 / 19
Acceleration after

16. How does weight of a rocket change as it moves from earth to moon?

Ans. The acceleration due to gravity on earth and on the moon is different and for a body of
mass ‘m’ its weight on earth = mg earth and on Moon, weight = mg moon

Now,

Putting the values of G, M, R for earth & Moon it is found that i.e. the

weight of the object will be less on the earth than on the moon.

17. Give a mathematical proof of the Archimedes principle?

Ans. According to Archimedes’s Principle, for a fully or partially immersed object,

Up thrust = weight of fluid displaced

Let cross-section of solid =

Height of solid = hm

Density of liquid =

Top surface of the solid by at depth = xm

Downward pressure acting on the top surface = xdg Pa

Downward force acting on the top surface = ndg xA = Axdg Newton

11 / 19
Bottom surface of the solid is at a depth (h + x)m from the surface of liquid.

Upward pressure acting on bottom surface =(h + n) dg

Upward force = (h + m) dg A

Excess upward force = (h + n) dg A – ndg A = A hdg → (1)

Volume of solid =

Volume of fluid displaced =

Mass of fluid displaced = A hd kg

Weight of fluid displaced = A hdg Newton → (2)

From equation (1) & (2)

Upward force = weight of fluid displaced y

18. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by a 15 Kg mass on a 25 Kg


mass separated by a distance of 25 cm. What is the acceleration produced on each
mass?

Ans. Mass of first Body =

Mass of second Body =

r = Distance between them = 25 cm = 0.25 m

F = Gravitational force =

Both the 15 Kg and 25 Kg mass attracts each other by a force equal to .

12 / 19
Since F = ma

a = Acceleration

Acceleration of the 15 Kg mass =

Acceleration of the 25 Kg mass =

19. A stone is dropped from a height of 100 m on earth. At the same time, another stone
is thrown vertically upwards from a ground with a velocity of 50 m/s. At what height
from the ground will the stone meat?

Ans. Let the two stones meet after t s. The distance travelled by a falling body is given by:

U =0

The height reached by the stone moving up in t s:

Total distance travelled by two stones 100 m

13 / 19
t = 2 sec

The stone meet after 2s they are dropped

The height through which the stone makes up in 1

= 100 – 20 = 80 m

They meet 80 m above the ground.

20. What id the up thrust experienced by a balloon of volume 120 filled with
hydrogen. The density of air and density of hydrogen

at room temperature. What is the maximum weight this balloon can

lift?

Ans. The up thrust = weight of the air displaced

Mass of air displaced

= 136.8 Kg

Weight of air displaced = (Mg)

= 1340.6 N

Downward force = weight of the balloon + weight of

Now, Mass of the balloon + Mass of

= 75+120 (0.081)

= 84.72 Kg

Weight of the balloon and filling it

14 / 19
= 830.3 N

Net up thrust = 1340.6 – 830.3

= 510.3 N

Maximum weight the balloon can lift = 510.3 N

21. A boy on a cliff 49 m high, drops a stone, one second later, he throws another stone
vertically downwards. The two stones hit the ground at the same time. What was the
velocity with which the second stone was thrown?

Ans. For the first stone, Initial velocity u = o

Let the stone take t s to reach the ground

For the second stone, the initial velocity =

Time of flight = 3.16 2-1s

= 2.162 s

15 / 19
The second stone was thrown downward with a velocity of 12.1 m/s

22. What makes a body to float or sink in a liquid?

Ans. When an object is immersed in a liquid, it exerts a weight in the downward direction
and the liquid exerts a force called up thrust in the upward direction on the object.

If the object sinks in the liquid, then the weight of the body is greater than the up thrust
acting on the object by the liquid.

If the object floats in the liquid, then the weight of the body is less than the up thrust acting
on the object by the liquid.

23. A block of wood tied to the bottom of water tank as shown. The wooden block exerts
tension, on the wire tied to it. The dimension of the block are .

The density of the wood is . What is the tension in the wire?

Ans. The volume of the block

Mass of the block = 0.016 × 600 = Density × Volume

= 9.6 Kg

Weight of the block (M = Mass, g = Acceleration due to gravity)

16 / 19
= 9.6 g

Up thrust on the block = Weight of water displaced

Mass of water displaced = volume of the block Density of water

= 16 Kg

Weight of the water displaced = Mass acceleration due to gravity

= 16 g

Up thrust = 16gN

Weight of the block = 9.6gN

Net up thrust = 16g – 9.6g

= 6.4gN

= 62.72N

The tension in the string = Net up thrust

= 62.72N

24. The weight of balloon and gas inside it is 12 KN. The volume of the balloon is
. The density of air is . Calculate

a) the weight it can lift

b) the acceleration as it rises.

Ans. The up thrust = the weight of air displaced.

17 / 19
Net upward force = the up thrust – the weight of the balloon

The weight of the balloon can carry is 2820N

b) Mass of the balloon =

Net up ward force = Mass × Acceleration

Up word Acceleration of the balloon

25. A cylindrical block of wood of height 4.2m and mass 100Kg floats vertically in water.
The relative density of wood is 0.8

1) What height of the block will be seen above the water ?

2) If block of lead of mass 10kg is placed, what height of the block will be seen above
water?

Ans. a)

18 / 19
b) Mass of the block of wood = 100Kg

Mass of water displaced = 100Kg

Mass of lead placed on the block of wood = 10Kg

Total mass of the block of wood + weight placed on it = 110 Kg

Mass of water now displaced = 110Kg

When 100 Kg of water was displaced, 3.36m was submerged

When 110 Kg of water is to be displaced,

m will be damaged.

= 3.696 m will be submerged.

Height seen above water = 4.2 - 3.696

= 0.504 m

19 / 19
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 10
Gravitaion

5 Marks Questions

1. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time
another stone is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/s.
Calculate when and where the two stones will meet.

Ans. Suppose both the stones will meet after t seconds.

h + h’ = 100 m
= 100
25t = 100
t = 4 s
= 80 m
Therefore, the two stones will meet after 4 seconds when the falling stone would have
covered a height of 80 m.

2. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6 s. Find

(a) the velocity with which it was thrown up,


(b) the maximum height it reaches, and

1 / 3
(c) its position after 4 s.

Ans. (a) time taken by ball to reach maximum height(t) = 6/2 = 3 s


v = u + gt

u = 29.4 m/s (the velocity with which it was thrown up)

(b) the maximum height it reaches: therefore

= 88.2 - 44.1
= 44.1 m

(c) its position after 4 s will be:


Since in first 3 s it will reach the maximum height and in next 1 s it will start a free fall so, u =
0, t =1

= 4.9 m

Therefore, after 4s the position of ball = 44.1 - 4.9 = 39.2 m.

3.The Olympic high jump record is 2.45m held by Cuba let acceleration due to gravity
on earth was and not . Calculate the height to which the jumper
would have jumped?

Ans. Height = h = 2.45m


v = final velocity
u = Initial velocity
g = Acceleration due to gravity

a)

At the highest point v = o


The velocity with which he jumps is u

2 / 3
= 24.5 s
The height will be 24.5m

4. State the factors on which acceleration due to gravity (g) depends?

Ans. Acceleration due to gravity depends upon:

1) Height above at a height ‘h’ above the earth → The acceleration due to gravity on going
above earth decreases as

So, will be less

2) Rotation of earth → Since the earth rotates about it polar axis;


The radius of the circle decreases as we move from the equator to the poles, acceleration due
to gravity increases as we move from equator to poles.

3) Shape of earth → The radius of the earth is more at the equator and less at poles so
acceleration due to gravity increases as we move from equator to poles.

3 / 3
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 11
Work and Energy

1 Marks Questions

1. A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10 s. What is its power?

Ans. P = W/t = 1000J/10s = 100 W

2. Can there be displacement of an object in the absence of any force acting on it?
Think. Discuss this question with your friends and teacher.

Ans. No.

3. S.I. unit of power is:

(a) J/s

(b) Js

(c) s/J

(d)

Ans. (a) J/s

4. If the body starts from rest, then change in its kinetic energy is

(a) positive

(b) Negative

(c) Zero

(d) May be Positive or negative depending upon the mass of the body

1 / 3
Ans. (a) positive

5. Which of the following quantities have same units?

(a) Power and energy

(b) Power and work

(c) work and energy

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c) work and energy

6. If a body is stored at a height ‘h’ then it will posses:

(a) Kinetic energy

(b) Potential energy

(c) Both

(d) None

Ans. (b) Potential energy

7. If the force applied on the body distances the body in the opposite direction of force
applied then work done is

(a) Positive

(b) Negative

(c) Zero

(d) Data incomplete

Ans. (b) Negative

2 / 3
8. If the force is applied at an angle θ then work done is

(a) F = Force

(b) S = Distance

(c) W = work

(d) None

Ans. (a) W = FS Cos θ F = Force

9. What is the work done in lifting a body of mass 5Kg vertically through 9m?

(a) 450J

(b) -450J

(c) 45J

(d) 540J

Ans. (a) 450J

10. How are Joule (J) and ergs (erg) related?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None

Ans. (a)

3 / 3
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 11
Work and Energy

2 Marks Questions

1. When do we say that work is done?

Ans. Work is done when a force acts on an object and displacement occurs in the direction of
force.

2. Write an expression for the work done when a force is acting on an object in the
direction of its displacement.

Ans.

3. Define 1 J of work.

Ans. 1 J is that work which is done when a force of 1 N is applied on an object and it moves a
distance of 1 m in the direction of force.

4. A pair of bullocks exerts a force of 140 N on a plough. The field being ploughed is 15
m long. How much work is done in ploughing the length of the field?

Ans. Work done


= 2100 J

5. A force of 7 N acts on an object. The displacement is, say 8 m, in the direction of the
force. Let us take it that the force acts on the object through the displacement. What is
the work done in this case?

Ans. Since Work (W)= Force(F) displacement(d)

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6. What is the kinetic energy of an object?

Ans. Kinetic energy of an object is a kind of mechanical energy and it is present in that object
due to its state of motion(movement).

7. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.

Ans. Kinetic energy =

where, m = mass of the object, v = velocity of the object(motion)

8. What is power?

Ans. Power is the rate of work done. It is denoted by P.

power = work/time

P = W / t

9. Define 1 watt of power.

Ans. If an agent works at the rate of 1 J/s then the power of that agent is 1 watt (where watt is
the unit of power).

10. An object thrown at a certain angle to the ground moves in a curved path and falls
back to the ground. The initial and the final points of the path of the object lie on the
same horizontal line. What is the work done by the force of gravity on the object?

Ans. For calculating work done there must be displacement but since in this example
vertical displacement is zero (as initial and final points lie on the same horizontal line) so the
work done by force of gravity is zero.

11. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.

2 / 8
Ans. Chemical energy of battery is changed into heat energy and light energy.

12. Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from to .


Calculate the work done by the force.

Ans. Work done by the force = change in kinetic energy

= 210 J

13. A mass of 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved to a point B. If the line joining A


and B is horizontal, what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force?
Explain your answer.

Ans. Since work done on the object by gravitational force depends upon change in the
vertical height of the object. Vertical height of the object is not changing as the joining A and
B is horizontal at the same height hence the work done is zero.

14. The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. Does this
violate the law of conservation of energy? Why?

Ans. It doesn’t violate the law of conservation of energy because the potential energy of a
freely falling object decreases progressively since it keeps changing into kinetic energy of the
free falling object therefore the total energy to the object remains conserved.

15. What are the various energy transformations that occur when you are riding a
bicycle?

Ans. It is the transformation of our muscular energy into mechanical energy to ride the
bicycle.

3 / 8
16. Does the transfer of energy take place when you push a huge rock with all you might
and fail to move it? Where is the energy you spend going?

Ans. While we push a huge rock with all our might(power) but fail to move it no energy
transfer occurs as cellular energy simply wastes out in muscle contraction and relaxation
even heat generation(sweating).

17. A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during month. How much
energy is this in joules?

Ans. Energy consumed by a certain household = 250 kWh


since 1 kWh
therefore 250 kWh

18. An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much energy does it use in 10 hours?

Ans. Electric heater’s power (p) = 1500 W = 1.5 kW


= 15 kWh

19. An object of mass, m is moving with a constant velocity, v. How much work should
be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest?

Ans. In order to bring the object to rest the work done must be equal to the kinetic energy of
the moving object

20. Soni says that the acceleration in an object could be zero even when several forces
are acting on it. Do you agree with her? Why?

Ans. Yes we agree with her statement. Because when many balanced forces act on the object
its displacement becomes zero.

21. Find the energy in kW h consumed in 10 hours by four devices of power 500 W each.

Ans. Since Energy = power x time

4 / 8
= 20000 Wh = 20 kWh

22. A freely falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground. What happens to its
kinetic energy?

Ans. A free falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground since on striking the
ground its kinetic energy is transmitted to the ground.

23. If a huge force acts on an object, but the displacement of the object is zero then what
can we say about the work done?

Ans. Work done on the body is defined as the force applied on the body producing a net
displacement on the body.
Work Done =
If the application of force produces no displacement the work done on the body is zero.

24. Differentiate between Potential and kinetic energy?

Ans.

25. State the law of conservation of energy?

Ans. According to law of conservation of energy:

1) energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, it can only be changed from one form to
another

5 / 8
2) energy of the universe is constant.

26. A man of mass 50 Kg runs up a flight of stairs having a rise of 5 m, is 4s.

a) What is the work done by the man?

b) What is the average power developed by the man?

Ans. Mass of Man = 50 Kg

Distance moved = 5 m

Time Taken = 4s

a) work Done =

In this case, Increase in Potential energy =

Work done = Mgh

= 2500 J

b) Power =

27. State the difference between Power and energy?

6 / 8
Ans.

28. Write the expression for

a) the potential energy of the body

b) the kinetic energy of the body

Ans. a) Potential energy of = P.E = mgh

m = Mass of Body

g = Acceleration due to gravity

h = Height

b) Kinetic energy of =

the body

m = Mass of body

v = Velocity of body

29. If a 100 J of work was done, when a force of 12.5 N acts, what was the distance moved
by the force?

Ans. W = Work = 100 J

Force = F = 12.5 N

Distance Moved

S = Displacement

7 / 8
Since, work done =

8 m = S

30. A 1800 Kg car is moving at 30 m/s. when brakes are applied. If the average force
exerted by the brakes is 6000N, find the distance travelled by the car before it comes to
rest?

Ans. M = Mass of car = 1800 Kg

V = velocity of car = 30 m/s

F = Force = 6000 N

K. E =

K E = 810000 J

K. E of car = work done by the car =

8 / 8
CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 11
Work and Energy

3 Marks Questions

1. The kinetic energy of an object of mass, m moving with a velocity of is 25 J.


What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic
energy when its velocity is increased three times?

Ans. K.E. of the object =

= 2 kg

If velocity is doubled

= 200/2 = 100 J i.e. K.E. will become four times

If velocity is increased three times

= 225 J i.e. K.E. will become nine times

2. Define average power.

Ans. An agent may not be able to perform same amount of work in a given period of time
always. In other words power of that agent may vary with time. Hence we can take average
power in such situations. Average power is defined as average amount of work done by a
body per unit time (i.e. total energy consumed divided by total time).

1 / 13
3. Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not work is done in the
light of your understanding of the term ‘work’.

• Suma is swimming in a pond.

• A donkey is carrying a load on its back.

• A wind-mill is lifting water from a well.

• A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.

• An engine is pulling a train.

• Food grains are getting dried in the sun.

• A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.

Ans. Work will be done if a force acts on an object and displacement occurs in the direction
of force. According to this explanation work is done in following activities:

• Suma is swimming in a pond.

• A donkey is carrying a load on its back.

• A wind-mill is lifting water from a well.

• An engine is pulling a train.

• A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.

4. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its


potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half
way down.

Ans. Potential energy = 2000 J

When the object is half way down the height of the object is = 2.5 m

initial velocity (u) = 0 (thrown from ground/rest)

2 / 13
= 50

Kinetic energy

= 1000 J

5. What is the work done by the force of gravity on a satellite moving round the earth?
Justify your answer.

Ans. The satellite is moving on a round path, displacement in the object is perpendicular to
the direction of force. .

Therefore, work done is zero.

6. A person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes and gets tired. Has he
done some work or not? Justify your answer.

Ans. When a person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes and gets tired he
applies force in upward direction and displacement of bundle of hay is in forward direction
which is perpendicular to the direction of force applied therefore displacement is zero

3 / 13
No work done.

7. Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which
occur when we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it to oscillate. Why does the
bob eventually come to rest? What happens to its energy eventually? Is it a violation of
the law of conservation of energy?

Ans. The bob eventually comes to rest due to the frictional force offered by the air and the
rigid support holding the thread.

It is not a violation of the law of conservation of energy since mechanical energy can get
converted into another form of energy which cannot be utilised for useful work. This loss of
energy is called dissipation of energy.

8. Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of
60 km/h?

Ans. Initial velocity of the car (u) = 60 km/h

Final velocity (v) = 0 (object has to be stopped)

Initial kinetic energy =

= 208333.30 J

Final kinetic energy = 0

Therefore, work done = change in kinetic energy = 208333.30 ― 0 = 208333.30 J

9. In each of the following a force, F is acting on an object of mass, m. The direction of


displacement is from west to east shown by the longer arrow. Observe the diagrams

4 / 13
carefully and state whether the work done by the force is negative, positive or zero.

Ans. (i) Since in this diagram displacement is perpendicular to the direction of force, so work
done is zero.

(ii) Since in this diagram displacement is in the direction of force, so work done is positive.

(iii) Since in this diagram displacement is in the opposite direction of the force applied hence
work done is negative.

10. In the force - displacement graph, calculate the work done during

a) the interval 0<x<2 m

b) the interval 2<x<6 m

c) the interval 0<x<9 m

Ans. Since area under a force displacement graph gives the work done, hence

a) for 0<x<2

work Done = Area of triangle OAE

= 8J

b) for 2<x<6

5 / 13
work Done = Area of rectangle A BED

= 32J

c) for 6<x<9

work Done = Area of triangle DBC

= 12J

11. Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of the body? Calculate the kinetic
energy for a body of mass 5 Kg moving a velocity

Ans. Kinetic energy of the body is defined as the energy possessed by the virtue of motion of
the body. Let a body of mass ‘m’ is at rest.

A force F N acts on it and produces an acceleration of a and it acquires a velocity of v


m/s and moves a distance of s m.

Now, from third equation of motion

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From Newton’s second law,

Work Done on the moving Body = Kinetic energy

Mass = 5Kg

Velocity = 2.5m/s

K. E =

K. E = 15.625J

12. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 40m/s.

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a) At what height will its kinetic energy and potential energy be equal

b) Calculate the P. E. of the body if its mass = 10Kg

Ans. Initial velocity = u = o

Final velocity = v = 40m/s

M = Mass of the body

a) Kinetic energy = K. E. =

Potential energy = P.E= mgh

Now, K. E = P.E

= mgh

800 = gh

80m = h

b) PE = mgh

P.E. = 8000J

13. A body of mass 5Kg is lifted vertically at a constant velocity of 12m. calculate

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a) the force applied

b) work done in lifting the body

c) what happens to the work performed?

Ans. Mass = m = 5Kg

Height = h = 12m.

g = Acceleration due to gravity

a) P.E. = mgh

= 600J

b) Force = ?

Work done = P. E. energy of the Body

F = 50N

c) The work done in lifting the body gets stored as the potential energy.

14. Derive an expression for the potential energy of the body. Calculate P.E of body of
mass 10Kg at a height of 10m.

Ans. Potential energy of a body of mass = m Kg at a height = h m from the ground.

Gravitational force of attraction on the body = mgN

In order to lift this body to B at h m above the ground.

In order to lift this body with a constant velocity, force applied = mg N

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Distance moved by force = h m

Work done in lifting the body from a to

b= mgh

Energy spent in lifting the body to height ‘h’. As energy cannot be destroyed, this energy gets
stored in the body as its potential energy

m = 10 Kg

h = 10 m

P. E = mgh

P.E= mgh

= 1000 Joules

15. Show that total energy is conserved if the ball of mass ‘m’ is the thrown downwards
from a height ‘h’

Ans. According to law of conservation of energy, energy is neither created nor be destroyed.
It can be only changed from one form to another.

Consider a body of mass ‘m’ at rest at A at an elevation ‘h’ from the ground.

Total energy at A

Potential energy of the body = mgh

As the body is at rest, K. E = O

Total energy of the body at A = PE + KE

= mgh + O

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= mgh

Total energy on the ground:

Let the body fall to ground As it strikes the ground, its elevation is O.

P. E. w. rt. Ground = O

Let us find its velocity as it strikes the ground at B.

As it falls freely, vo = O

Acceleration

Distance Travelled = -h

Total energy of the body on ground = KE + PE

= mgh + O

= mgh

Total energy at point C.

Let the ball fall through x and be at C during its fall.

Elevation of the body at c = h - x

Potential energy at C = mg (h - x)

Let the velocity at C be v

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= 2gx

Total energy at C = mg (h - x) + mgx

= mgh

i. e total energy at all point of the fall is always same.

16. What is Power? Show that power ? Calculate power of a body


of Mass 10Kg accelerating with acquires a velocity of 5m/s?

Ans. Power is the rate at which work is done

Power =

Unit of Power is watt (w)

Mass = 10 Kg

a = acceleration

v = 5 m/s

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P = Fv

P = 500 W

17. What do you understand by the units of electrical energy? How many joules of
energy is consumed if the electrical meter shows 400 units of energy?

Ans. Unit of electrical energy is defined as the energy spent (or used) by electrical appliance
at the rate of 1 kw for 1 hr.

or 1 unit = 1 kwh

Now, 1kwh

= 3.6×106ws

So, if 400 units of electrical energy is consumed then,

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 12
Sound

1 Marks Questions

1. Guess which sound has a higher pitch: guitar or car horn?

Ans. Sound of Guitar has a higher pitch.

2. In which of the three media, air, water or iron, does sound travel the fastest at a
particular temperature?

Ans. Sound will travel the fastest in iron at a particular temperature.

3. What is the audible range of the average human ear?

Ans. 20 Hz to 20,000Hz.

4. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to identify your friend by his voice while
sitting with others in a dark room?

Ans. Pitch of the sound wave.

5. A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths
of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound
in air as .

Ans. For 20 Hz sound waves the wavelength would be

= v/n = 344/20 = 17.2 m

For 20 kHz sound waves the wavelength would be

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= 0.0172 m

6. Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the
rod with a stone. Find the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in air and in
aluminium to reach the second child.

Ans. Since speed of sound in air = 344 m/s

And speed of sound in aluminium = 6420 m/s

we know that v = distance/time therefore time = d/v

time taken by sound wave in air/time taken by sound wave in aluminium

= d/344: d/6420 = 6420/344 = 18.66/1

the sound will take 18.66 times more time through air than in aluminum in reaching other
boy.

7. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a
minute?

Ans. Frequency of source of sound being 100 Hz means the sound source vibrates 100 times
in one second. therefore vibrations made by sound source in 1min(60 sec) =
6000

8. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.

Ans. Yes.Sound follows the same laws of reflection as light does. We can say that because
here the directions in which the sound is incident and is reflected make equal angles with
the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence, and the three are in the same
plane.

9. When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance

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between the reflecting surface and the source of sound production remains the same.
Do you hear echo sound on a hotter day?

Ans. As the sensation of sound persists in our brain for about 0.1 s. To hear a distinct echo
the time interval between the original sound and the reflected one must be at least 0.1s.
There for the total distance covered by the sound from the point of generation to the
reflecting surface and back should be at least = 34.4 m. Thus, for hearing

distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be half
of this distance, that is, 17.2 m. Speed of sound will increase with increase in temperature.
Therefore, on a hotter day speed of sound will be greater hence echoes may be heard more
than once because of multiple reflections of sound result will be no distinct echo will be
heard by us.

10. Give two practical applications of reflection of sound waves.

Ans. Two practical applications of reflection of sound waves

i. Megaphones or loudhailers, horns, musical instruments such as trumpets and shehanais,


are all designed to send sound in a particular direction without spreading it in all directions.

ii. Stethoscope is a medical instrument used for listening to sounds produced within the
body, chiefly in the heart or lungs. In stethoscopes the sound of the patient’s heartbeat
reaches the doctor’s ears by multiple reflection of sound.

11. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the
base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given, and speed

of sound .

Ans.

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= 10000

= 100 m/s

we also know that v = u + gt = 0 + 10t

100 = 10t or, Time taken by stone to reach the pond surface(t) = 100/10 = 10 sec

Therefore, time taken by soundto reach the top from pond surface = d/v = 500/340

= 1.47 sec

so the total time taken for splash being heard at the top = 10 + 1.47 = 11.47 s

12. A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 m s–1. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the
frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?

Ans. Since we know that

ν = 339/0.015 = 22600 Hz

Since the resulting frequency is beyond the audible range of human beings(20Hz to 20kHz)
therefore sound will not be audible to human ears.

13. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?

Ans. The repeated reflection of sound due to which sound persists for a long time is called
reverberation.

To reduce reverberation, the roof and walls of the auditorium are generally covered with
sound-absorbent materials like compressed fibreboard, rough plaster or draperies. The seat
materials are also selected on the basis of their sound absorbing properties

14. What is loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?

Ans. Loudness is a measure of the response of the ear to the sound. Even when two sounds

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are of equal intensity, we may hear one as louder than the other simply because our ear
detects it better.

Loudness of sound depends upon the amplitude of those sound waves. Higher is the
amplitude of vibrating air particles louder will be the sound.

15. Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch a prey.

Ans. Bats search out prey and fly in dark night by emitting and detecting reflections of
ultrasonic waves. The high-pitched ultrasonic squeaks of the bat are reflected from the
obstacles or prey and returned to bat’s ear. The nature of reflections tells the bat where the
obstacle or prey is and what it is like.

16. How is ultrasound used for cleaning?

Ans. Ultrasound is generally used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach places, for example,
spiral tube, odd shaped parts, electronic components etc. Objects to be cleaned are placed in
a cleaning solution and ultrasonic waves are sent into the solution. Due to the high
frequency, the particles of dust, grease and dirt get detached and drop out. The objects thus
get thoroughly cleaned.

17. Explain the working and application of a sonar.

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Ans. Sonar is a device that uses ultrasonic waves to measure the distance, direction and
speed of underwater objects.

Sonar consists of a transmitter and a detector and is installed in a boat or a ship. The
transmitter produces and transmits ultrasonic waves. These waves travel through water and
after striking the object on the seabed, get reflected back and are sensed by the detector. The
detector converts the ultrasonic waves into electrical signals which are appropriately
interpreted. The distance of the object that reflected the sound wave can be calculated by
knowing the speed of sound in water and the time interval between transmission and
reception of the ultrasound. Let the time interval between transmission and reception of
ultrasound signal be t and the speed of sound through sea water be v. The total distance, 2d
travelled by the ultrasound is then, .

The above method is called echo-ranging. The sonar technique is used to determine the
depth of the sea and to locate underwater hills, valleys, submarine, icebergs, sunken ship etc.

18. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 s later.
Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine
is 3625 m.

Ans. Distance of object from submarine = 3625 m

Therefore, distance travelled by sonar waves = 7250 m

since, speed = distance/time= 7250/5 = 1450 m/s

19. Explain how defects in a metal block can be detected using ultrasound.

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Ans. Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks. Metallic
components are generally used in construction of big structures like buildings, bridges,
machines and also scientific equipment. The cracks or holes inside the metal blocks, which
are invisible from outside reduces the strength of the structure. Ultrasonic waves are
allowed to pass through the metal block and detectors are used to detect the transmitted
waves. If the reis even a small defect, the ultrasound gets reflected back indicating the
presence of the flaw or defect.

20. Explain how the human ear works.

Ans. The outer ear is called ‘pinna’. It collects the sound from the surroundings. The
collected sound passes through the auditory canal. At the end of the auditory canal there is a
thin membrane called the ear drum or tympanic membrane. When a compression of the
medium reaches the eardrum the pressure on the outside of the membrane increases and
forces the eardrum inward. Similarly, the eardrum moves outward when a rarefaction
reaches it. In this way the eardrum vibrates. The vibrations are amplified several times by
three bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) in the middle ear. The middle ear transmits the
amplified pressure variations received from the soundwave to the inner ear. In the inner
ear, the pressure variations are turned into electrical signals by the cochlea. These electrical
signals are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve, and the brain interprets them as sound.

21. Wavelength of sound wave has units:

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(a) metres

(b) metres/sound

(c)

(d)

Ans. (a) metres

22. Light is a

(a) Longitudinal wave

(b) Transverse wave

(c) Both

(d) None

Ans. (b) Transverse wave

23. In compression, pressure density is

(a) High

(b) Less

(c) Remains same

(d) May be a) or b) depending upon disturbance

Ans. (a) High

24. Frequency of ultrasonic sound wave is

(a) Greater than 20 HZ

(b) Greater than 20,000 HZ

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(c) Greater than 2 HZ

(d) Greater than 2 MHZ

Ans. (b) Greater than 20,000 HZ

25. S. I. units of frequency are:

(a) second

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (b)

26. Stethoscope work on the principle of:

(a) Multiple reflection of sound

(b) Ultrasounds

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a) Multiple reflection of sound

27. Audible Range of human ear is:

(a) 20 HZ – 20 KHZ

(b) 20 HZ – 20 MHZ

(c) 20HZ – 20,000 HZ

(d) Both a) and b)

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Ans. (d) Both a) and b)

28. The order of bones is human area from outside to inside:

(a) Hammer, stirrup Anvil

(b) Hammer, Anvil and stirrup

(c) Anvil, Stirrup and Hammer

(d) Stirrup, Hammer and Anvil

Ans. (a) Hammer, stirrup Anvil

29. Which of the following is used in echocardiography?

(a) Ultrasound waves

(b) Infrasound waves

(c) X-Ray waves

(d) Both a) and c)

Ans. (a) Ultrasound waves

30. Infrasound is produced by:

(a) Bats

(b) Dogs

(c) Rhinoceros

(d) Rats

Ans. (c) Rhinoceros

31. Speed of sound is maximum in:

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(a) Solids

(b) Liquids

(c) Gases

(d) Plasma

Ans. (a) Solids

32. Inner Ear is called as

(a) cochlea

(b) Pinna

(c) Hammer

(d) Anvil

Ans. Cochlea

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 12
Sound

2 Marks Questions

1. Explain how sound is produced by your school bell.

Ans. When the peon strikes the school bell with a hammer, the particles of bell metal start
vibrating and those vibrations produce sound.

2. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?

Ans. Since sound waves need a medium for their propagation therefore we can say that
sound waves are mechanical waves.

3. Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound
produced by your friend?

Ans. There is no air on moon hence there is no medium for sound propagation on moon. As
a result, me and my friend will not be able to hear any sound produced by my friend.

4. Which wave property determines

(a) loudness,

(b) pitch?

Ans. (a)The amplitude of the wave determines loudness of sound.

(b)The frequency of the wave determines pitch of sound.

5. How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to its speed?

Ans. From the equation:

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where v = velocity/speed

n = frequency of wave

= wavelength of wave

6. Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440
m/s in a given medium.

Ans. The time interval between successive compressions from the source

T = 1/ = 1/500 = 0.002 second.

7. A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source
of the sound. What is the time interval between successive compressions from the
source?

Ans. The time interval between successive compressions from the source

T = 1/ = 1/500 = 0.002 second.

8. Distinguish between loudness and intensity of sound.

Ans.

9. An echo returned in 3 s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the
source, given that the speed of sound is ?

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Ans. Speed of sound = distance/time

Therefore, distance travelled by sound during echo = 1026 m

so the distance of reflecting surface = 1026/2 =513 m

10. Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved?

Ans. The ceilings of concert halls are curved because such architecture helps the sound to
reach all the corners and places of concert hall.

11. What is the range of frequencies associated with

(a) Infrasound?

(b) Ultrasound?

Ans. Infrasound = less than 20 Hz

Ultrasound = greater than 20 KHz

12. A submarine emits a sonar pulse, which returns from an underwater cliff in 1.02 s.
If the speed of sound in salt water is1531 m/s, how far away is the cliff?

Ans. Distance travelled by a sonar pulse = speed of sound in salt water time

= 1561.62 m

Therefore, the distance of cliff from submarine = 1561.62/2 = 780.81 m

13. What is sound and how is it produced?

Ans. Sound is a form of energy that produces a sensation of hearing in our ears. Sound gets
produced when any object vibrates/oscillates.

14. Describe with the help of a diagram, how compressions and rarefactions are
produced in air near a source of sound.

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Ans.

15. Why is sound wave called a longitudinal wave?

Ans. Sound wave is called a longitudinal wave because sound waves travel in the air through
compressions and rarefactions.

16. Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But thunder is heard a few seconds
after the flash is seen, why?

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Ans. Since speed of thunder (sound) is much less (332 m/s) as compared to speed of flash
(light) which is about therefore light travels faster than sound hence thunder is
heard a few seconds after the flash is seen.

17. Differentiate between longitudinal and transverse wave?

Ans.

18. Define the terms:

a) Wavelength

b) Frequency

Ans. a) The distance between two consecutive rest or two consecutive troughs is known as
the wavelength of the wave.

b) The number of vibrations that particle covers in 1 second is called the frequency wave.

19. An underwater device directs ultrasounds of frequency 75 KHZ towards water


surface. What is the wavelength of sound in the air above the water surface and what is
its frequency? Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s.

Ans. When sound wave travels from one medium to another, the frequency remain
unchanged while the wavelength and velocity change

Frequency in air = 75,000 HZ

Wavelength,

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20. What is an echo? Name two areas of its application?

Ans. When sound waves strike a surface, they are reflected with the same velocity and the
reflected sound wave are heard as echo. It is used in SONAR and detecting flaws in metal
objects.

21. Why are sound waves called as mechanical waves?

Ans. Mechanical waves are those which requires a medium for their propagation, since
sound also requires medium for its Propagation, hence is a mechanical wave.

22. Define a) Time Period b) Amplitude of a wave

Ans. a) Time Period of a wave: The time required by a wave to complete one vibration is
called time Period.

b) Amplitude: The magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium on either side of
mean value is called the amplitude of wave.

23. What do you understand by loud and soft sound?

Ans. Louder sound: Sound which have higher amplitude and high energy are called louder
sound.
Softer sound: Sound which have lesser amplitude and less energy are called soft sound.

24. A sound wave travels at a speed of 340 m/s. If the wavelength of wave is 1.4 m, what
is the frequency of wave?

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Ans. Speed of sound wave = 340 m/s

Wavelength of sound wave = 1.4 m

Frequency = ?

Since, velocity = Frequency Wavelength

25. What do you understand by low pitched and high pitched sound?

Ans. High pitch sound are those sound which have higher frequency that is in 1 second they
complete large number of vibrations.

Low pitch sound are those sound which have lesser frequency that is in 1 second they
complete less number of vibrations

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26. Why do we see light first and hear the sound later during thunderstorm?

Ans. Since speed of light is greater than the speed of sound hence it travels faster and is seen
first during a thunderstorm.

27. What are laws of reflection of sound?

Ans. Laws of reflection of sound:

a) The incident, normal and reflected all lie in the same plane

b) Angle of incidence of sound is equal to angle of reflection of sound.

28. Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved?

Ans. Ceilings of concert halls are corned so that sound after reflection from the curved
surface which have greater surface area, can reach to all places of halls.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 12
Sound

3 Marks Questions

1. How does the sound produced by a vibrating object in a medium reach your ear?

Ans. As we speak, the particles of air near our mouth are pushed forward so they get
compressed. Then they compress the other particles of air. As the compression proceeds the
particles of air near our mouth expand again and thus rarefaction occurs. This process is
repeated further and as a result sound wave propagates in the form of compressions and
rarefactions to the listener’s ear.

2. What are wavelength, frequency, time period and amplitude of a sound wave?

Ans. wavelength: For a sound wave, the combined length of a compression and an adjacent
rarefaction is called its wavelength even the distance between centres of two consecutive
compressions or two consecutive rarefactions is also equal to its wavelength.

frequency: The number of vibrations or oscillations per second is called frequency i.e. it is
the number of complete waves or cycles produced in one second.

Time period: The time taken to complete one vibration/oscillation/complete wave is called
time period. It is measured in seconds.

Amplitude: It is the maximum displacement of the particles of the medium from their

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mean/original position at rest.

3. Cite an experiment to show that sound needs a material medium for its propagation.

Ans. Take an electric bell and an airtight glass bell jar. The electric bell is suspended inside
the airtight bell jar. The bell jar is connected to a vacuum pump If you press the switch you
will be able to hear the bell. Now start the vacuum pump. When the air in the jar is pumped
out gradually, the sound becomes fainter, although the same current is passing through the
bell.

After some time when less air is left inside the bell jar you will hear a very feeble sound. Now
if we evacuate the bell jar no sound is heard.

Result: The above mentioned activity shows that sound needs a medium to propagate.

4. What happens when sound travels in air?

Ans. When sound wave travels through air then the pressure and density of air changes. As
the disturbance propagates through a medium, then alternate regions of pressure variations
are created.

The region where particle come closer to each other (high density) and pressure of air is high
is called as compression. The region where particles far apart from each other (low density)
and pressure of air is less is called as rarefaction compression and rarefactions always occur
together.

5. Establish the relation for a wave that velocity = frequency wavelength.

Ans. Since, velocity =

For a wave, for one vibration, the distance b/w two consecutive crest or trough is called its
wavelength .

Time required to complete one vibration is called its Time Period (T).

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(Frequency) is defined as the no. of vibrations particle covers in 1 second.

6. When a wave travels from one medium to another, the wavelength changes but not
the frequency. The wavelength of sound disturbance 30 cm in air and of the wave
velocity is 340 m/s. What will be the wavelength of this disturbance in Helium & water?
The speed of sound in helium is 970 m/s and 1450 m/s in water?

Ans. Wavelength of sound disturbance = 30 cm

Wave velocity of sound = 340 m/s

(velocity = frequency wavelength)

a) Helium: → speed of sound = 970 m/s

b) Water: → speed of sound = 1450 m/s

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7. Sound waves of wavelength travel from a medium in which its velocity is v m/s
into another medium in which if velocity is 3 v m/s. What is the wavelength of the sound
in the second medium?

Ans. Since velocity = wavelength frequency

Now, when waves moves from one medium to another, the frequency remains the same

Now, when velocity in first Medium =


velocity in Second Medium = 3v

The wavelength of the sound in the second medium is one – third of the wavelength in the
first Medium.

8. Sound requires a medium to travel? Justify experimentally.

Ans. Sound requires medium for propagation and it can be proved by following experiment:
1) Take a bell jar and suspend an electric bell in it,

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2) The bell jar is connected to a vacuum pump. Till the air is in the bell jar, the sound of the
electric bell is louder.
3) Now, with the help of vacuum pump, pump out the air gradually
4) Now as air is pumped out, the sound of the bell gets fainter and fainter.
5) Now, when the bell jar is completely vacuumed no sound is heard.
6) This shows that air is required for propagation of sound.

9. A cork on the surface of water moves up down completing five vibrations in 4s. The
waves travel from a cork to the shore which is 20 m away in 10 s calculate

(a) the speed


(b) frequency
(c) wavelength

Ans. a) required to complete 1 vibrations sec.

Time required to complete 1 vibration = Time Period

Time Period (T) = second

Distance Travelled = 20 m
Time taken = 10 second

Velocity =

Now,
Velocity = Frequency × Wavelength

1.6 m =

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So, a) Speed = 2 m/s
b) wavelength = 1.6 m
c) Frequency = 1.25/second

10. An observer far away from a railway station hears the train starting. The sound
arrives both from the steel rails and through air with a time difference of 3.5 s. How far
is the railway station from the observer? The speed of sound in air and steal is 340m/s
and 5130 m/s respectively?

Ans. Let distance between railway station and observer = d


Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s

Time taken by sound in air =

Speed of sound in steel = 5130 m/s

Time taken by sound in steel =

Time difference between sound in steel and air

1274.46 m = d

11. How can ultrasound be used to detect the defect in metal block?

Ans. Ultrasound are those waves which have frequency greater than 20 KHZ. Now, metal
blocks are subjected to ultrasound at one end and at the other end, detectors are placed. If
the metal block does not contain any defect then ultrasound travel through and are detected
by detectors. If the metal block has any defect, than from that region ultrasounds are not

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detected and gets reflected back indicating the presence of defect in the block.

12. What is reverberation? What is done to reduce it?

Ans. The repeated reflection of sound that results in the persistence of sound is celled as
reverberation. We can reduce reverberation by:-
1) Covering roofs and walls of auditorium with sound absorbing materials
2) seat materials is also selected on the basis of sound absorbing property

13. Discuss briefly the structure and working of human ear?

Ans. Structure of human ear:

Outer ear is called pinna followed by an auditory canal in which ends in a tympanic
membrane. The tympanic membrane is then connected to three bones, hammer, anvil and
stirrup. Then there is cochlea connected to an auditory nerve.

Working of human ear →


The pinna collects the sound and collected sound passes through reaches auditory nerve.
After which it forces the ear drum (tympanic membrane) to vibrate. The vibrations are than
amplified by 3 bones and the pressure variations reaches the inner ear after which cochlea
converts them to electrical signal. Auditory nerve carries the electrical signal to brain and
brain interprets them as sound.

14. A man standing in a valley between two parallel mountains fires a gun and hears
echo at an interval of 2 s and 3.5 s. what is

a) the distance between two mountains


b) the location of the man with respect to the mountain.

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Ans. The speed of sound is air = 340 m/s

The two mountains are marked as A & B and man is at P.


The first echo comes from mountain A.
Time taken by echo to reach man = 2s
Time taken by sound to trammel from P to A = 1s
Distance travelled by sound in 1S = 340m
The Distance of A from P = 340m
The second Echo comes from mountain B.
Time taken by echo to reach Thomas = 3.5s
Time taken by sound to trend from P to A = 1.75s
Distance travelled by sound in 1.75 sec = 595m
Distance of B from P = 595m
Distance between mountains = 340 + 595 = 935m

15. What is SONAR? Write its working?

Ans. SONAR stands for sound Navigation and Ranging. It uses ultrasonic waves. It consists of
a transmitter which produces and transmits ultrasonic waves. These waves travel though
water and after striking the object on the sea bed gets reflected back and are sensed by
detector. The waves are then converted to electrical signals by detector. The time taken by
wave to reach detector is recorded. Now, distance of the object from the ship is calculated by

wring formula .

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 13
Why Do We Fall ill

1 Marks Questions

1. Which one of the following is not important for individual health?


(a) Living in clean space

(b) Good economic condition

(c) Social equality and harmony

(d) Living in a large and well-furnished house.

Ans. (a) Living in clean space

2. ‘Penicillin’, a lifesaving antibiotic, was discovered by


(a) Alexander Fleming

(b) Edward Jenner

(c) H.G. Khorana

(d) William Harvey.

Ans. (a) Alexander Fleming

3. Making anti-viral drugs is more difficult than making anti-bacterial medicines


because-
(a) Viruses make use of host machinery.

(b) Viruses are on the border line of living and non-living

(c)Viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own

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(d) Viruses have a protein coat.

Ans. (c)Viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own

4. Which one of the following deficiency disease?


(a) Diabetes

(b) Malaria

(c) Goitre

(d) Tetnus

Ans. (c) Goitre

5. The chemical that kill or stop the growing of certain kinds of microbes are called-
(a) vaccines

(b) microbes

(c) antibiotics

(d) fungi

Ans. (c) antibiotics

6. Choose the wrong statement –


(a) High blood pressure is caused by excessive weight and lack of exercise.

(b) Cancers can be caused by genetic abnormalities.

(c) Peptic ulcers are caused by eating acidic food.

(d) Acne is not caused by staphylococci.

Ans. (d) Acne is not caused by staphylococci.

7. Rabies occurs through the bite of.

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(a) female Anopheles Mosquito

(b) Female culex mosquito

(c) Rabid dog

(d) housefly.

Ans. (c) Rabid dog

8. AIDS is caused by –
(a) Bacteria

(b) Virus

(c) Protozoa

(d) Fungi

Ans. (b) Virus

9. Identify a protozoan disease –


(a) Ringworm

(b) Measles

(c) Diphtheria

(d) Amoebiasis

Ans. (d) Amoebiasis

10. If you live in a overcrowded and poorly ventilated house, it is possible that you may
suffer from which of the following diseases.
(a) Cancer

(b) AIDS

(c) Air borne diseases

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(d) Cholera.

Ans. (c) Air borne diseases

11. The symptom of goiter is


(a) Swelling of eye

(b) Swelling of the thyroid gland

(c) Swelling of the liver

(d) Swelling of the limbs.

Ans. (b) Swelling of the thyroid gland

12. Which one of the following does not help in the prevention of AIDS?
(a) Use of disposable syringes.

(b) Safe sex practiced between single partners.

(c) Proper screening of blood before transfusion

(d) Using same syringe again and again

Ans. (d) Using same syringe again and again

13. You are aware of Polio Eradication Programme in your city. Children are vaccinated
because –
(a) vaccination kills polio causing micro-organisms

(b) Prevents the entry of polio causing micro-organisms

(c) It creates immunity in the body.

(d) all the above.

Ans. (c) It creates immunity in the body.

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14. ‘BCG’ vaccine is given to infants for protection against –
(a) Diarrhoea

(b) cholera

(c) Pneumonia

(d) Tuberculosis

Ans. (c) Pneumonia

15. Which one is not sexually transmitted disease?


(a) AIDS

(b) Gonorrhoea

(c) syphilis

(d) Diabetes.

Ans. (d) Diabetes.

16. Which one of the following causes kala-azar?


(a) Ascaris

(b) Trypanosome

(c) Leishmania

(d) Bacteria

Ans. (c) Leishmania

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 13
Why Do We Fall ill

2 Marks Questions

1. State any two conditions essential for good health.

Ans. Two conditions essential for good health are:

(i) hygienic surroundings

(ii) good economic and social status

2. State any two conditions essential for being free of disease.

Ans. Two conditions essential for being free of disease:

(i) healthy habits and surroundings

(ii)mental stability and financial status

3. Are the answers to the above questions necessarily the same or different? Why?

Ans. Answers though not identical are similar because for being disease free one needs to be
physically and mentally healthy.

4. How many times did you fall ill in the last one year? What were the illnesses?

(a) Think of one change you could make in your habits in or der to avoid any of/most of
the above illnesses.

(b) Think of one change you would wish for in your surroundings in order to avoid any
of/most of the above illnesses.

Ans. I fall ill only once last year. I had suffered from typhoid.

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(a) I will avoid street food specially those which are cooked at unhygienic places and kept
uncovered.

(b) I shall keep my surroundings cleaner than earlier.

5. A doctor/nurse/health-worker is exposed to more sick people than others in the


community. Find out how she/he avoids getting sick herself/himself.

Ans. A doctor/nurse/health-worker is exposed to more sick people than others in the


community still they avoid getting sick themselves because they take care of the preventive
measures like personal and community hygiene/cleanliness and immunisation to prevent
infectious diseases.

6. A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that she/he is sick. What would help us to
find out

(a) that the baby is sick?

(b) what is the sickness?

Ans. (a) If the baby is crying and remains restless no matter whatever is done to ease
him/her out then he/she is sick.

(b) We must observe symptoms and severity of the symptoms to diagnose the sickness.

7. Under which of the following conditions is a person most likely to fall sick?

(a) when she is recovering from malaria.

(b) when she has recovered from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from
chicken-pox.

(c) when she is on a four-day fast after recovering from malaria and is taking care of
someone suffering from chicken-pox. Why?

Ans. A person is most likely to fall sick when she is on a four-day fast after recovering from
malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chicken-pox because during her fast

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she was on a limited diet and didn’t get sufficient nourishment hence her health condition is
poor such that she is very likely to fall sick.

8. Under which of the following conditions are you most likely to fall sick?

(a) when you are taking examinations.

(b) when you have travelled by bus and train for two days.

(c) when your friend is suffering from measles. Why?

Ans. We are most likely to fall sick when a friend is suffering from measles since measles is
an infectious/communicable disease that can spread easily from one person to the other.

9. How are acute diseases different from chronic diseases?

Ans. Acute disease – Diseases which last for short periods of time and are severe are called
acute diseases.

Chronic disease – Diseases which are long lasting are called chronic diseases.

10. What is the full form of AIDS? Name the causal organism.

Ans. AIDS – Acquired Immuno deficiency syndrome It is caused by HIV – Human Immuno
deficiency virus.

11. State two conditions essential for keeping good health.

Ans. Conditions for keeping good health are

(a) Public and personal hygiene

(b) Regular exercise, sleep and relaxation.

(c) Proper habits.

(d) Nutrition

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12. Define

(a) health

(b) disease.

Ans. (a) Health – It is defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well being
and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

(b) Disease – A disease in the malfunctioning of body organs due to one reason or the other.

13. What are non-communicable diseases? Give examples.

Ans. Non-communicable diseases are those which cannot be spread from person to person.
For example – Diabetes, cancer.

14. Define carriers. Give two examples.

Ans. Carriers are the organisms which harbor disease-causing germs without showing away
sign of disease themselves, but have the ability to infect other healthy individuals.

For Example – Housefly, female insect Anopheles.

15. Why do children need vaccination?

Ans. The children are more susceptible to disease, hence are given vaccines to develop
immunity against some diseases.

16. How can we prevent influenza?

Ans. Influenza is an air borne disease, so it is prevented by keeping away from the patients.

17. State giving reasons whether the following statements are correct or not.

(a) Health is only the absence of any physical disease.

(b) Children need not be immunized.

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Ans. A) This statement is incorrect because health is a state of complete physical, mental and
social well being, not merely absence of disease.

b) This statement is incorrect because children need to be immunized because of poorly


developed immune system they are more susceptible to diseases.

18. What is peptic ulcer?

Ans. Peptic ulcer is a disease in which patient is suffering from acidity related pain and
bleeding in the stomach and duodenum, due to stressful life style.

19. What are the different types of diseases? Explain them.

Ans. Diseases are broadly grouped into two types –

a) Communicable or infectious disease – Those diseases which are passed on from one
person to another in various ways through air, water, food, physical contact and insects.

b) Non-communicable diseases – Those diseases which cannot be spread from person to


Peron. Forex - arthritis, marasmus etc.

20. Which bacterium causes peptic ulcers? Who discovered the above pathogen?

Ans. Peptic ulcer is caused by bacterium Helicobacter pylori, it was discovered by Robin
warren and Barry Marshall.

21. Name the target organs for the following disease-

(a) Hepatitis targets ______________

(b) Fits or unconsciousness targets __________________

(C) Pneumonia targets _________________

(d) Fungal disease targets ______________

Ans. a) liver

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b) Brain

c) lungs

d) skin

22. How are diseases diagnosed by physician?

Ans. The malfunctioning of organs produces external symptoms of diseases. Symptoms


indicate that there is something ‘wrong’ within the body. On the basis of symptoms doctor
diagnosed the diseases.

23. Who discovered ‘vaccine’ for the first time? Name two diseases which can be
prevented by using vaccine.

Ans. The malfunctioning of organs produces external symptoms of diseases. Symptoms


indicate that there is something ‘wrong’ within the body. On the basis of symptoms doctor
diagnosed the diseases.

24. Name the approaches generally adopted to treat infectious diseases.

Ans. Vaccines were first developed by Edward Jenner for the treatment of smallpox.

Polio and Tuberculosis can be prevented by using vaccine.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 13
Why Do We Fall ill

3 Marks Questions

1. Why are we normally advised to take bland and nourishing food when we are sick?

Ans. We are normally advised to take bland and nourishing food when we are sick because
we are weak during illness and need complete nourishment for faster recovery.

2. What are the different means by which infectious diseases are spread?

Ans. Infectious diseases can spread by following means:

a) through contaminated food and water

b) through air

c) through vectors or carriers (housefly, mosquito etc)

d) through direct skin contact or sexual contact

e) through cuts and wounds

3. What precautions can you take in your school to reduce the incidence of infectious
diseases?

Ans. To reduce the incidence of infectious diseases in my school the precautions will include:

(i) Isolating diseased students and clean surroundings

(ii) clean food and purified drinking water

(iii) not eating junk food and open/uncovered food materials

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4. What is immunisation?

Ans. Immunisation is a method of preparing memory cells in immune system. In this method
weak or dead microbes of disease are injected in the body such that develop memory
lymphocytes(WBCs) but do not cause disease. eg vaccination against polio, tetanus etc.

5. What are the immunisation programmes available at the nearest health centre in
your locality? Which of these diseases are the major health problems in your area?

Ans. DPT vaccine: it is for diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus in infants.

Pulse polio vaccine: it is to prevent polio.

BCG vaccine: bacillus calmette Guerin vaccine for tuberculosis.

Hepatitis vaccine

TAB vaccine for typhoid.

tuberculosis and diarrhea are the major health problems in our area.

6.List any three reasons why you would think that you are sick and ought to see a
doctor. If only one of these symptoms were present, would you still go to the doctor?
Why or why not?

Ans. If we have fever, headache, stomachache, loose motions, cough and sneeze etc we feel
weak. Then we would that we are sick and ought to see a doctor. If only one of these
symptoms were present we should still go to see the doctor. Any of these symptoms may be
initial signs of a severe disease.

7. In which of the following case do you think the long-term effects on your health are
likely to be most unpleasant?

• if you get jaundice,

• if you get lice,

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• if you get acne.

Why?

Ans. The long-term effects on our health are likely to be mistune pleasant if we get jaundice
because the symptoms severely affect our internal organs and persist for long time.

8. Conduct a survey in your neighbourhood to find out what the three most common
diseases are. Suggest three steps that could be taken by your local authorities to bring
down the incidence of these diseases.

Ans. Three most common diseases in my locality are diarrhoea, malaria and tuberculosis
and following steps I would suggest to be taken by our local authorities to bring down the
incidence of these diseases:

i. Supply of safe drinking water and preventing incidences of open drains.

ii. Improved and hygienic environment free of garbage and wastes thrown in the open.

iii. Eradication of mosquitoes

iv. Immunisation/vaccination camps

9. Why are antibiotics not effective for viral disease.

Ans. Antibiotics block the bacterial pathways without affecting the pathways of humans. In
the case of viruses, they have very few biochemical pathways of their own. They use the
metabolic machinery of host and grow and reproduce.

10.What is inflammation? What are the changes occur during inflammation?

Ans. It is the recruitment process by immune system in which immune system recruits many
cells to the affected tissue to kill the disease causing germs.

During this process, certain local effects such as swelling and pain and general effects such
as fever may develop.

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11.Why do some children fall ill more frequently than others living in the same
locality?

Ans. A system which protects our body from diseases and infections is known as immune
system. This system is developed in adults due to long term exposure to environment.
Children fall ill more frequently because they do not have well developed immune system.

12.How can the disease be prevented?

Ans. Diseases can be prevented by –

(a) By presenting exposure to disease causing microbes – For this, exposure to overcrowded
areas can be avoided, source of drinking water must be checked, and we must provide clean
environments.

(b) By consuming proper and sufficient food / balanced diet.

(c)By immunization.

13. Give two examples for each of the following:

(a) Chronic diseases

(b) Infectious diseases

(c) Non-infection diseases.

Ans. (a) Chronic diseases – Tuberculosis, arthritis

(b) Infectious diseases – Common cold, Mumps

(c) Non-infectious diseases – Haemophilia, obesity

14. Give difference between vaccines and antibiotics.

Ans.

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15. The body of a patient has lost its power of fighting against infections. Which disease
may the patient be suffering from? Name the pathogen and describe any two modes of
its transmission from the patient to other person.

Ans. Patient is suffering from AIDS.

It is caused by HIV (Human Immuno deficiency Virus) Modes of transmission are

(1) By sexual contact with infected person.

(2) By the use infected syringe.

16. What are the means of spread of diseases?

Ans. Diseases spread through –

(1) Air – When an infected person sneezes or coughs or spits, a healthy person standing
nearby can inhale these droplets, causing infection in that person.

(2) By water – Some diseases can spread from one person to another when a sick person’s
stools gets into water. The people drinking the infected water thus get the disease.

(3) By physical contact – Some of the diseases like AIDS, syphilis and gonorrhea spread by

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sexual contact. These diseases are not transmitted by casual physical contact like
handshakes, hug’s, sports like wrestling and other ways in which we touch other socially.

16. What are the conditions favoring for air-bone diseases?

Ans. Conditions favoring for air-borne infections -

a) Close proximity to the infected person.

b) Over – crowding

c) Poor – Ventilation

17. What are the various dimensions of health?

Ans. Various dimensions of health are–

a) Physical dimensions Physical health implies ‘perfect functioning of all the organs and
systems of the body.

b) Mental dimension – Mental health implies a state of balance and harmony between the
individual and surrounding world.

c) Social dimension – A person is socially healthy if he has a good job, a good house, a happy
family, good neighbors and understanding friends.

18. What are the causes of diseases?

Ans. Causes of diseases are –

a) Infection by micro – organisms – Bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoa and worms cause
communicable diseases.

b) Malfunctioning of body organs.

c) Deficiency of one or more nutrients.

d) Genetic factors

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e) Polluted environment.

19. Give the schedule of immunization for infants and children up to six years.

Ans. Schedule of Immunization

20. Explain giving reasons –

(a) Balanced diet is necessary for maintaining health body.

(b) Health of an organism depends upon the surrounding environmental conditions.

Ans. a) Balanced diet contain all the nutrient required for maintaining proper health as well
as needed for growth and repair. Lack of single nutrient causes deficiency diseases.

b) surrounding environmental conditions plays an important role in the maintenance of


health. For ex we feel depressed if –

(i) surrounding are dirty or polluted

(ii) garbage is not collected or disposed off

(iii) drains are not cleaned and water collects in the streets or open spaces. Unclean
surrounding causes the entry of germs via air, water, food or vectors and makes the person
unhealthy.

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21. What is immunization, immune system, immunity?

Ans. Immunization is a specific method of preventing diseases by inoculating vaccines in the


human body.

Immune system – It is a system which protect are body against infection

Immunity – The body’s power to resist and overcome infection is called immunity.

22. Name the agents and the diseases caused by them?

Ans.

23. What are the different aspects of maintaining good health?

Ans. Different aspects for maintaining good health-

a) Community health – It involves all the factors relating to personal health along with the
services necessary for providing good health for the community.

b) Personal health (hygiene) It is the science of preserving and promoting health mainly
through the active efforts of an individual. It is practiced through active, sanitary habits and
healthy way of life.

c) Exercise, relaxation and sleep. Regular exercise is very necessary to keep the body fit.
Proper sleep of about 6-8 hours is essential, Relaxation is very essential for good health.

d) Nutrition – Optimum nutrition is essential for maintenance of good health. One should
take sufficient and balanced food for maintaining good health.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 14
Natural Resources

1 Marks Questions

1. Biotic components of biosphere is not constituted by –


(a) Producers

(b) Consumers

(c) decomposer

(d) air

Ans. (d) Air

2. Major source of mineral in soil is the –


(a) Parent rock from which soil is covered

(b) Plants

(c) animals

(d) bacteria

Ans. (a) Parent rock from which soil is covered.

3. One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature
(a) the sun

(b) water

(c) wind

(d) polythene bags

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Ans. (d) Polythene bags

4. The nitrogen molecules present in air can be converted into nitrates and nitrites by –
a) a biological process of nitrogen fixing bacteria present in soil

b) a biological process of carbon fixing factor present in soil

c) any of the industries manufacturing nitrogenous compounds.

d) The plants used as cereal crops in field

Ans. a) a biological process of nitrogen fixing bacteria present in soil.

5. What are the two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere?

Ans. oxygen and ozone .

6. Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen.

Ans. urea and proteins.

7. Which one of these are not fossil fuel –


(a) coal

(b) Petrol

(c) Diesel

(d) wood

Ans. (d) wood

8. Which step is not involved in the carbon cycle?


(a) Photosynthesis

(b) Transpiration

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(c) Respiration

(d) Burning of fossil fuels.

Ans. (b) Transpiration

9. Total earth’s surface covered by water is


(a) 75%

(b) 60%

(c) 85%

(d) 50%

Ans. (a) 75%

10. Growth of lichens on barren rocks is followed by the growth of


(a) Mosses

(b) ferns

(c) gymnosperms

(d) Algae.

Ans. (a) Mosses

11. If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the temperature of the earth will
(a) increase

(b) go on decreasing

(c) Increase during day and decrease during night

(d) be unaffected.

Ans. (c) Increase during day and decrease during night

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12. The fertility of soil is lost due to
(a) Afforestation

(b) crop rotation

(c) Soil erosion

(d) strip cropping

Ans. (c) Soil erosion

13. Which organism cannot fix atmospheric Nitrogen?


(a) Rhizobium

(b) Nostoc

(c) Azotobactor

(d) E. coli

Ans. (d) E. coli

14. Harmful UV radiations coming from sun to earth are absorbed by –


(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (d)

15. Which substance is responsible for depletion of ozone layer?


(a)

(b)

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(c) CFC’S

(d) CO

Ans. (c) CFC’S

16. Which of the following statements does not give the correct definition in relation
with ‘water pollution’?
(a) The addition of undesirable substances from water bodies.

(b) The removal of desirable substances from water bodies.

(c)A change in pressure of water bodies.

(d) A change in temperature of the water bodies.

Ans. (c) A change in pressure of water bodies.

17. Rainfall patterns depend on –


(a) The underground water table

(b) The number of water bodies in an area.

(c) The density pattern of human population in an area.

(d) The prevailing season in an area.

Ans. (b) The number of water bodies in an area.

18. The major component of air in Venus & Mars is –


(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) He

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Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following is present abundantly in air?


(a) Nitrogen

(b) Oxygen

(c)

(d) Water

Ans. (a) Nitrogen

20. The regions of earth from outside to inside is:


(a) Core, mantle, and crust

(b) Core, crust, and mantle

(c) crust, mental, and core

(d) mantle, core, and crust

Ans. (c) crust, mental, and core

21. Which layer is topmost layer from earth’s surface?


(a) Troposphere

(b) Stratosphere

(c) Mesosphere

(d) Thermosphere

Ans. (d) Thermosphere

22. The process by which O2 gets converted to CO2 is:

(a) Photosynthesis

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(b) Breathing

(c) Respiration

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d) Both (a) and (b)

23. What is atmosphere? What are its different regions?

Ans. The layer of air surrounding the earth is called as atmosphere. The different regions
are:
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere

24. Conversion of water vapours into droplets of water is by:


(a) Evaporation

(b) Condensation

(c) Sublimation

(d) Freezing

Ans. (b) Condensation

25. Water evaporates from the surface of leaf by:


(a) Transpiration

(b) Evaporation

(c) Condensation

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (a) Transpiration

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26. Percentage composition of O2 in air is

(a) 21%

(b) 52%

(c) 78%

(d) 12.5%

Ans. (a) 21%

27. CFC stand for


(a) carbon fluorine compounds

(b) carbon fluoro compound

(c) chloro fluoro Carbons

(d) chlorine fluoro compound

Ans. (c) chloro fluoro Carbons

28. Water vapours changes into water droplets by:


(a) condensation

(b) evaporation

(c) sublimation

(d) none

Ans. (a) condensation

29. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?


(a)

(b)

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(c) ozone gas

(d) both (a) and (b)

Ans. (a)

30. Layer of earth where life is possible is called


(a) biosphere

(b) lithosphere

(c) hydrosphere

(d) none

Ans. (a) biosphere

31. Main constituent of atmosphere of mars is:


(a)

(b)

(c) ozone gas

(d) none

Ans. (b)

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 14
Natural Resources

2 Marks Questions

1. What are the different states in which water is found during the water cycle?

Ans. Water occurs in all three states of matter during the water cycle: solid: ice, liquid:
water, gas: water vapour.

2. List any three human activities which would lead to an increase in the carbon
dioxide content of air.

Ans. Three human activities which would lead to an increase in the carbon dioxide content
of air are:
• burning of coal and petroleum
• combustion of wood
• deforestation (cutting down forests)

3. What is the greenhouse effect?

Ans. Due to trapping of radiations by green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane etc
results into increase in the global temperature excess of which leads to global warming and
the phenomenon that cause it is named green house effect.

4. What is soil erosion?

Ans. The loss of (wearing away) topmost layer of soil which contains humus and air is called
soil erosion.

5. What is the role of decomposer in biogeochemical cycles?

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Ans. Decomposers decomposes dead decaying organic matter into simpler form and return
minerals into nutrient pool like air, water and soil.

6. What is greenhouse effect? Name a green house gas?

Ans. Increase in earth’s temperature due to increased concentration in atmosphere,

this phenomenon is known as green house effect.


Carbon dioxide is one of the green house gasses.

7. How can we prevent soil erosion?

Ans. Methods of prevention of soil erosion –


a) Deforestation should be stopped. Afforestation should be done.
b) The boundaries of the fields should be planted with trees in two or three rows, to reduce
the effect of strong winds in the fields.
c) Crop rotation helps to maintain the fertility of the soil. The water holding capacity of the
soil is also maintained by this method.

8. What are the causes of water pollution?

Ans. Causes of water pollution are –

a) Domestic wastes like detergents and sewage


b) Agricultural wastes, such as fertilizers and pesticides which are used to increases crop
yield.
c) Substances like compounds of calcium and magnesium get dissolved in water from
natural deposits, acting as pollutants
d) Rivers, ponds and lakes are used by people for bathing and washing. These activities
contaminate water with various germs such as bacteria and protozoans.

9. What are the different types of natural resources? Give examples.

Ans. Natural resources are of two types -


a) Inexhaustible natural resources – Those resources that are present in unlimited quantity

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in nature and are not likely to be exhausted by human activities, for example air, water,
solar energy.
b) Exhaustible natural resource – These resources are present in limited quantity in nature
and these are likely to be exhausted by human activities for example coal, petroleum,
minerals.

10. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.

Ans.

11. River from land, add minerals to sea water. Discuss how?

Ans. River passes through land takes minerals present in the soil and adds it into the sea
water.

12. Draw water cycle.

Ans.

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13. Mention two ways of restoring fertility of soil.

Ans. Soil fertility can be restored by –


(a) By alternating cropping with leguminous crops.
(b) By application of manures and fertilizers.

14. Why does cultivation of legumes improves soil fertility?

Ans. Leguminous plants bears nodules in their roots. These nodules contain nitrogen fixing
bacteria, which converts atmospheric nitrogen into soluble form and adds it into the soil and
thus increases the fertility of soil.

15. Mention two causes of over-exploitation of natural resources.

Ans. Causes of over exploitation of natural resources are –

(a) tremendous population increase


(b) industrial and technological progress which has increased the rate at which these
resources are being used.
(c) Rapid urbanization.

16. Name the constituents of soil.

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Ans. Soil contain the following components –

(a) Soil particles – gravel, sand, silt and clay.

(b) Humus – Organic neater, formed by decomposition of dead organisms.

(c) Soil air

(d) Soil water

(e) Soil organisms.

17. What is a soil? How is it important to us?

Ans. The topmost fertile layer of earth is called soil. It provides us –

(i) Food and Fodder.

(ii) Clothing

(iii) Provide anchorage to the plants.

(iv) Water and minerals to the plants.

18. Mention importance of air

Ans. Importance of air –

a) It provides oxygen for respiration in plants and animals.

b) It provides CO2 for photosynthesis

c) Atmosphere filters sunlight reaching to earth and affects the climate.

d) It is reservoir of several elements essential for life.

19. Write the factors on which fertility of soil depends.

Ans. The fertility of soil depends upon –

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(a) presence of organic matter (humus) and nutrients.

(b) Capacity of the soil to retain water and air.

20. What is biological nitrogen fixation? Name the organisms responsible for it.

Ans. It is a process in which atmospheric nitrogen is converted into usable or soluble form
by micro-organism. Microbes responsible nitrogen fixation are – Rhizobium, Azotobacter,
Blue green algae, etc.

21. What are biogeochemical cycles?

Ans. The constant interaction between biotic and abiotic components of biosphere which
involves exchange of matter and energy is called as biogeochemical cycle.

22. Why is life possible on earth?

Ans. Life is possible on earth because of the following reasons:

(a) The temperature on earth is suitable for different life forms.

(b) The presence of oxygen in air which is required by all living organisms.

23. Why do terrestrial life forms require fresh water?

Ans. Terrestrial life forms require fresh water because their bodies cannot tolerate and
cannot excrete the high amounts of dissolved salt in saline water.

24. How does atmosphere control the climate?

Ans. The atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the earth steady during the day and
prevents the sudden increase temperature during day. It also prevents the escape of heat
into the outer space and thus maintains a liveable climate on earth.

25. How are wind created?

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Ans. During the day, the air above the land gets heated faster and starts rising. As the rises, a
region of low pressure is created and the air over the sea moves into the area of low
pressure. This movement of air from one region to another creates winds.

26. How does sun helps in breaking up of rocks into smaller pieces?

Ans. Sun heats up rocks during the day so that they expand. In the night, these rocks cool
down and contract. Because all parts of rock do not expand and contract at same rate, as a
result huge cracks are formed and then they break into smaller pieces.

27. Write the composition of air.

Ans. Composition of air is as follows:

In addition to this, water vapours are prevent.

28. How is soil pollution done?

Ans. Soil pollution happens in following ways:


(a) Use of large amounts of fertilizers and pesticide kills the microorganisms that help in
recycling of nutrients in soil.
(b) Earthworms are also killed by pesticide which enriches the soil by making humus.
(c) Useful components get removed and other harmful substances get added which affect the
fertility of soil.

29. Explain carbon cycle in nature.

Ans.

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(a) in air is converted into organic compounds in plants and when they are eaten up by

animals then it goes to animals.


(b) Organic compounds in plants also get converted to petroleum, coal.
(c) directly converts into carbonates in water and then to limestone.

Organic compound in animals get converted to Co2 in atmosphere by respiration and

decomposition.

30. What is smog? How is it formed?

Ans. Smog is smoke and fog. It is formed when air gets polluted and high levels of smoke is
formed. When it gets mixed with fog then smog is formed.

31. Why water is so important in life?

Ans. Water is important for life in following ways:


(a) All cellular processes important for life take place in water medium.
(b) Water helps in transportation of substances in the body.
(c) It also helps in transportation of substances in plant also.

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32. How does living organism help in the erosion of rocks?

Ans. Living organism like lichen while growing on the surface of rocks, they release certain
substances that cause the rock surface to powder down and hence break rocks into fine
particles.

33. How is rain formed?

Ans. Water from water bodies gets evaporated and water vapours are formed. These water
vapours then move up the atmosphere and condense into small water droplets. As many
water droplets combine, bigger water droplets are formed, as they grow heavy and big, the
fall down in the form of rain.

34. Discuss the oxygen cycle in atmosphere?

Ans. (a) Atmospheric oxygen is taken by animal and human beings respiration.
(b) They then release as by- products of respiration.

(c) The is used up during photosynthesis by plants.

(d) The plants form organic molecules like glucose and atmospheric oxygen.
(e) Oxygen is thus replenished whereas glucose stored in plants and eaten up by animal.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 14
Natural Resources

3 Marks Questions

1. How is our atmosphere different from the atmospheres on Venus and Mars?

Ans. On Earth air is a mixture of a number of gases mainly nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%)
while carbon dioxide is only 0.03% while In planets such as Venus and Mars the major
component of the atmosphere is found to be carbon dioxide. In fact, carbon dioxide
constitutes up to 95-97% of the atmosphere on Venus and Mars.

2. How does the atmosphere act as a blanket?

Ans. The atmosphere covering the Earth is like a blanket because air is a bad conductor of
heat. The atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the Earth fairly steady during the
day and even during the course of the whole year. The atmosphere prevents the sudden
increase in temperature during the daylight hours. And during the night, it slows down the
escape of heat in to outer space.

3. What causes winds?

Ans. When air is heated by radiation from the heated land or water, it rises. But since land
gets heated faster than water, the air over land would also be heated faster than the air over
water bodies. Therefore, during the day, the air above the land gets heated faster and starts
rising. As this air rises, a region of low pressure is created and air over the sea moves into
this area of low pressure. The movement of air(wind) from one region to the other creates
winds.

4. How are clouds formed?

Ans. When water bodies are heated during the day, a large amount of water evaporates and

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goes into the air. Some amount of water vapour also get into the atmosphere because of
various biological activities. This air also gets heated. The hot air rises up carrying the water
vapour with it. As the air rises, it expands and cools. This cooling causes the water vapour in
the air to condense in the form of tiny droplets. This condensation of water is facilitated if
some particles could act as the ‘nucleus’ for these drops to form around. Normally dust and
other suspended particles in the air perform this function. As such the clouds are formed.

5. List any three human activities that you think would lead to air pollution.

Ans. (i) Burning of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum releases different oxides of nitrogen
and sulphur in air.

(ii) Burning of wood release suspended particles and smoke in air.

(iii) Use of harmful chemicals like aerosols, CFCs etc.

6. Why do organisms need water?

Ans. All organisms are made up of cells. All cellular processes take place in a water medium.
All the reactions that take place within our body and within the cells occur between
substances that are dissolved in water.

Substances are also transported from one part of the body to the other in a dissolved form.
Hence, organisms need to maintain the level of water within their bodies in order to stay
alive.

7. What is the major source of freshwater in the city/town/village where you live?

Ans. Major sources of water are:

· rain water that provides water to all other sources

· lakes, ponds and pools

· rivers, wells and tube wells

· dams

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8. Do you know of any activity which may be polluting this water source?

Ans. The fertilisers and pesticides used in our farms, sewage from our towns and cities and
the waste from factories, specific industries also use water for cooling in various operations
and later return this hot water to water-bodies. Such activities are polluting the water
bodies.

9. How is soil formed?

Ans. Over long periods of time, thousands and millions of years, the rocks at or near the
surface of the Earth are broken down by various physical, chemical and some biological
processes. The end product of this breaking down is the fine particles of soil. Factors
responsible are as follows:

The Sun: The Sun heats up rocks during the day so that they expand. At night, these rocks
cool down and contract. Result is formation of cracks.

Water: Water helps in the formation of soil in two ways. One, water could get into the cracks
in the rocks formed due to uneven heating by the Sun. If this water later freezes, it would
cause the cracks to widen.

Wind: In a process similar to the way in which water rubs against rocks and wears them
down, strong winds also erode rocks down.

Living organisms: The lichen grows on the surface of rocks. While growing, they release
certain substances that cause the rock surface to powder down and form a thin layer of soil.
Other small plants like moss, are able to grow on this surface now and they cause the rock to
break up further. The roots of big trees sometimes go into cracks in the rocks and as the roots
grow bigger, the crack is forced bigger.

10. What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion?

Ans. The methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion are as follows:

(i) prevention of deforestation and overgrazing.

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(ii)afforestation and reforestation

(iii) improved methods of agriculture

11. Why is the atmosphere essential for life?

Ans. We need atmosphere for following reasons:

(i) It works like a blanket and traps the radiations reflected back from earth surface that
keeps the average temperature of earth of quite steady and suitable for sustenance of life.

(ii) It provides carbon dioxide for photosynthesis and oxygen for respiration and
combustion.

(iii) Prevents sudden change in temperature.

(iv) Enables us to hear sounds.

12. Why is water essential for life?

Ans. Water essential for life because:

i. All organisms are made up of cells. All cellular processes take place in a water medium. All
the reactions that take place within our body and within the cells occur between substances
that are dissolved in water.

ii. Substances are also transported from one part of the body to the other in a dissolved form.

iii. Essential for digestion.

iv. Helpful in excretion and egestion.

v. Regulates our body temperature by sweating and evaporation.

13. How are living organisms dependent on the soil? Are organisms that live in water
totally independent of soil as a resource?

Ans. Plants need simple nutrients like certain elements for their proper growth and they get

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most of these elements from soil. With the help of these elements plants prepare their own
food in the presence of sunlight. Since all other organisms are dependent upon plants for
their nutrition hence we can say that organisms that live in water are not totally
independent of soil as a resource. Another reason is that organic matter from soil dissolves
into water and provides nutrients to the aquatic organisms.

14. You have seen weather reports on television and in newspapers. How do you think
we are able to predict the weather?

Ans. The weather predictions are made based on information obtained about general
patterns of changes in temperature, humidity, winds and clouds.

15. We know that many human activities lead to increasing levels of pollution of the air,
water-bodies and soil. Do you think that isolating these activities to specific and limited
areas would help in reducing pollution?

Ans. Isolating many human activities lead to increasing levels of pollution of the air, water-
bodies and soil would help in reducing water and soil pollution but it can hardly make any
difference to air pollution severity the reason is gases will spread from isolated places and
reach everywhere. Instead of isolating we must stress on sustainable management of our
resources and cut down or replace their use like using cleaner fuels like CNG in place of
fossil fuels.

16. Write a note on how forests influence the quality of our air, soil and water
resources.

Ans. Quality of air: Forests have trees and plants that absorb carbon dioxide and liberate
oxygen thus maintaining their levels in the biosphere.

Quality of soil: Roots of trees hold the soil particles and prevent soil erosion from taking
place. Dead trees and plants or their parts add humus and organic matter to soil thus making
it fertile.

Quality of water: Forest allows easy going of the water cycle in nature with cloud formation
and condensation in the form of rain.

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17. List the abiotic and biotic factors of soil formation.

Ans. Abiotic factors responsible for soil formation are:

a) Sun - the sun heats up rocks during the day so that they expand. In night, the rocks cool
down and contract. Unequal expansion and contraction in different parts of rock results in
the formation of cracks and turns into soil.

b) Water – Continual movement of rain and river water, causes breaking down of rock
particles into finer particles

c) Wind – Wind blowing across a rock surface also has an abrasive effect on the rocks.

Biotic factors responsible for soil formation – certain life forms like the lichens can grow on
the surface of rocks. The lichens produce acids which corrode the rocky surface, and produce
fine particles.

18. Mention human activities that lead to air pollution.

Ans. Sources of air pollution are

a) Forest fires, smoking volcanoes dust storms, pollen grains floating in air and decay of
organic natter

b) Over – population, deforestation, urbanization, and industrialization.

c) Burning of fossil fuels in automobiles, thermal power plants and industries.

19. Why does Mathura refinery pose problem to Taj Mahal?

Ans. Mathura refinery released acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide in
the air. In the air, in the presence of moisture, sulphur dioxide is oxidised to sulphuric acid
(H2SO4) and nitrogen dioxide is oxidized to nitric acid. These acid come down to earth

surface and water bodies along with rain water. The rain water containing acids as
pollutants in it called acid rain. This acid rain is posing problem to the marbles of Taj Mahal.

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20. How does the atmosphere act as a protective blanket? Mention the harmful affects
of ultraviolet rays?

Ans. The atmosphere acts as protective blanket for the Earth. It absorbs most of the harmful
radiation such as ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun. The harmful radiation are
absorbed in the upper atmosphere as well as reflected back into the space. The excessive
heat and sun’s rays are reflected back into the space by dust particles, water vapours and
clouds. Due to this Earth receives the right amount of heat and sun’s rays, which helps in
climate control and allows living organisms to exist.

Harmful effects of U. V. rays – It causes blindness and skin cancer.

21. Give reasons –

a) step farming is common in hills.

b) fertile soil has lot of humus.

Ans. (a) On the sloping areas in hills, step farming reduces the steepness of the slopes and
checking soil erosion.

(b) Decomposition of dead organic matter takes place in the top layer soil. This convents
organic matter into humus. Hence, fertile soil has humus.

22. What are the harmful effects of air pollution.

Ans. Harmful effects of air pollution –

(a) Air pollution effects the respiratory system of living beings and causes bronchitis,
pneumonia, asthma and lung cancer.

(b) Burning of fossil fuels like coal and patrol releases oxides of nitrogen and sulphur, which
causes acid rain.

(c) The burning of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum also increases the amount of
suspended particles in air. Presence of these pollutants in air during cold season causes the
formation of smog which reduces visibility and causes problems on the roads.

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23. Why does water need conservation even though large oceans surround the land
masses?

Ans. Water needs conservation –

(a) Due to increasing population, use of water increases in large quantities.

(b) Due to increased water pollution.

(c) Due to less rainfall water level decreases.

24. What is weathering? What are the different means by which weathering occurs.

Ans. Formation of soil due to breakdown of rocks is known as weathering.

It occurs by

(a) Physical means – such as the sun (temperature), rain, wind, frost.

(b) Biological means – Through the action of plants, animals and micro-organisms.

25. List the ways by which carbon dioxide concentration increases in the atmosphere.

Ans. (a) Both plants and animals release carbon dioxide to the atmosphere as a product of
respiration.

(b) By decomposition of organic wastes and dead bodies by decomposers.

(c) By burning of fossil fuels, like wood, coal, petrol, gas and kerosene.

(d) By volcanic eruptions.

(e) By weathering of carbonate containing rocks through the action of soil micro-organisms,
plant roots and acid rain.

26. ‘Water is essential for the sustenance of life’ Justify the statement.

Ans. Importance of water for life –

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(a) It acts as a universal solvent.

(b) Most of the activities occur in water inside the body.

(c) Substances are transported from one part of the body to the other in a dissolved form.

(d) It dissolves waste products and help in excretion.

(e) Aquatic organisms utilize oxygen dissolved in water.

27. How do forests influence our air, water and soil?

Ans. (a) Forest act as purifier of air, They utilize carbon – dioxide and release oxygen, in the
process of photosynthesis.

(b) Forest also maintain level of water under the soil Roots of trees absorbs water and
increase water level.

Trees also help in the formation of clouds by the process of transpiration and increases
humidity (water vapour) in the air. This water vapour further forms clouds and helps in
rain.

(c) Roots of trees hold the soil and prevent soil erosion. This maintains the fertility of the soil.

28. What is greenhouse effect? How it affects earth’s atmosphere.

Ans. Increased concentration of , water vapour and other atmospheric gases like

methane nitrous oxides inhibit the escape of solar radiations. This results in increase of the
temperature of atmosphere above the surface of earth making it warmer. This phenomenon
is known as greenhouse effect.

The warm atmosphere would melt the snow of polar and alpine regions which may raise the
sea-level and submerge low lying area of laud.

29. What are the harmful effects of water pollution?

Ans. Harmful effects of water pollution are –

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a) Polluted water causes water –borne diseases such as dysentery, cholera, jaundice.

b) Pesticides like DDT enter into the water bodies along with rain water. From here, they
enter the food chain via producers and they get concentrated at each trophic level. This is
known as biological magnification. It badly affects the organism at of the top of the food
chain.

c) Eutrophication – The excessive growth of phytoplankton due to discharge of sewage water,


reduces the dissolved oxygen which affects aquatic life.

30. What is biogeochemical cycle? How cycling of nutrients takes place in the
atmosphere?

Ans. The cyclic flow of nutrients between non-living environment (soil, air, water) and living
organisms is called biogeochemical cycling.

31. List the ways by which carbon dioxide concentration decrease from the
atmosphere.

Ans. Ways by which carbon dioxide concentration decreases –

a) Photosynthesis – Plants takes carbon dioxide from air and utilizes it in the synthesis of
food.

b) Fossilization – Dead plants and animals changes into fossils fuels like coal & petroleum

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due pressure, temperature of earth

c) Carbon dioxide present in water traps carbonates and graphites in the rocks.

32. How do fossil fuels causes air pollution?

Ans. Burning of fossil fuels has following effects –

a) Burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of nitrogen and Sulphur. It causes respiratory
problems as well as acid rain.

b) Burning of fossil fuels increase amount of suspended particles in air, which forms smog
during winter. It reduces visibility and causes accidents on roads.

c) On burning it release CO2 which traps Solar energy and increases the temperature of the

earth.

33. Write in detail what happens when water gets polluted.

Ans. When water gets polluted, then following events happen:

(a) Undesirable substances get added to water-bodies which may cause cholera.

(b) Desirable substance may get removed from water-bodies and dissolved oxygen in water
which is important for aquatic life and endangering aquatic life.

(c) If water gets polluted, then temperature of water changes which would adversely affect
the life forms in water.

34. Discuss the nitrogen cycle in nature?

Ans. Nitrogen cycle in following steps:

(a) Nitrogen in atmosphere gets converted to protoplasm in green plants by nitrogen


fixation.

(b) The protoplasm gets converted into ammonia by ammonification.

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(c) The ammonia then converts to nitrites and then nitrates.

(d) Then nitrogen in atmosphere gets directly converted to nitrates through nitrification.

(e) The nitrates get converted into nitrogen through denitrification.

35. What is greenhouse effect? What would happen if the level of in air would

increase?

Ans. The phenomenon by which heat is trapped by various gases in air leading to higher
temperature on earth is called as greenhouse effect.

If the levels of increase in air, then because is a greenhouse gas, greenhouse effect

would increase leading to rapid increase in temperature of earth’s atmosphere. This would
results in melting of glaciers and would endanger life forms on earth.

36. What is the function of ozone in the atmosphere? How is ozone hole created?

Ans. Ozone layer absorbs harmful radiations from the sun and prevents them from reaching
the earth’s surface where they may damage the forms of life. Compound like CFC reacts with
ozone to molecules and convert them to free oxygen. As a result, reaction in ozone layer
takes place and ozone holes have been detected over Antarctica.

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37. What is soil? What is the role of soil in agriculture?

Ans. The soil refers to the loose surface of the earth’s crust. Soil is the medium for growth of
all plants. It provides physical supports and nutrients and also the sufficient quantities of air
and water for growth of plants.

38. What is the difference between the atmospheres of the earth and atmosphere of
Venus and Mars?

Ans. Atmosphere of earth has oxygen which is important for sustaining life on earth It is
required during breathing and respiration two most important events of life, whereas
atmosphere of Mars has as units main constituent and thus life is not possible on earth.

39. What is air pollution? How does it lead to acid rain?

Ans. The mixing of undesirable substances in air that changes the basic constituents of air
and makes it harmful is called air pollution.

When we burn fossil fuel like coal and petroleum, various oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are
produced. These oxygens then mix with rain water and form nitric and sulphuric acid which
then falls down on earth surface as acid rain. This acid rain is very dangerous as it can cause
various disorders to living organisms and also destroys the buildings and monuments.

40. Why is so important for life on earth? What are the two ways by which it is

fixed on earth?

Ans. helps in heating up of the earth’s surface which helps to maintain suitable

temperature for life forms on earth. It is also required for photosynthesis by plants. It is fixed
in two ways-

(a) Green plants convert into glucose in presence of sunlight.

(b) Marine animals use carbonates dissolved in sea- water to make their shells.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 14
Natural Resources

5 Marks Questions

1. Draw nitrogen cycle? Explain the different steps.

Ans. Steps of Nitrogen cycle


1) Ammonification – The process of conversion of complex organic compounds like proteins
into ammonia is called ammonification.

2) Nitrification – The process of conversion of ammonia into nitrites and nitrates is called
nitrification. It occurs in two steps.

3) Denitrification – The process of conversion of nitrite salts in the soil and water to free
nitrogen gas. This is done by bacteria pseudomonas.

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2. Draw carbon cycle.
Ans.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 15
Improvement in Food Resources

2 Marks Questions

1. What do we get from cereals,pulses, fruits and vegetables?

Ans. We get carbohydrates from cereals, proteins from pulses, vitamins and minerals from
fruits and vegetables.

2. What factors may be responsiblefor losses of grains duringstorage?

Ans. Factors that may be responsiblefor losses of grains duringstorageare :

abiotic factors : Unfavourable conditions of humidity and temperature.


biotic factors : Insects, rodents, bacteria, fungi etc that feed on grains.

3. What are weeds? Give two examples.

Ans. The unwanted plants growing in fields, are called weeds,


Common weeds are – Amaranthus, Chenopodium.

4. What is crop rotation?

Ans. The practice of growing different crops in the same field alternatively, in a pre-planned
succession is called crop rotation.

5. What are drones?

Ans. The practice of growing different crops in the same field alternatively, in a pre-planned
succession is called crop rotation.

6. What is pasturage and how is it important?

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Ans. Flower available for the collection of nectar and pollen is known as pasturage or flora.

(i) Quality of honey and taste of honey depends upon pasturage.

(ii) Pollen grains serve as protein food for bees.

7. What is an layer and a broiler? What are the differences between the two?

Ans. The egg laying poultry bird is called egg layer where as the bird reared for obtaining
meat is called chicken or broiler.

The housing (shelter), feed and environmental requirements are different from those of
layers the feed for broiler is protein – rich and vitamin rich with a adequate fat.

8. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence of preparation of green


manure

(a) Green plants are decomposed in soil


(b) Green plants are cultivated for preparing manure or crop plant parts are used
(c) Plants are ploughed and mixed into soil
(d) After decomposition it becomes green manure.

Ans. b, c, a, d.

9. What are the benefits of poultry farming over cattle farming?

Ans. Benefits of poultry farming over cattle farming are

a) Investment involved is small

b) Area required is small.

c) Maintenance is easy.

d) Returns are quick.

10. Define niter – cropping Mention its advantages.

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Ans. Inter – cropping is the practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously in the
same field in rows.

Advantages –

1) Productivity is increased

2) It economises space and time of cultivating two or more crops.

3) It helps to maintain soil fertility.

11. What are the advantages of organic farming?

Ans. Advantages of organic farming are –

a) Natural ecosystem is not disturbed

b) Soil fertility is preserved.

c) Harmful effects of chemicals on the living organisms are avoided

d) Pollution of air, water and soil does not take place.

12. Differentiate between mixed cropping and Inter-cropping.

Ans.

Mixed Cropping Inter – Cropping


Aim is to increase productivity per unit
a) Aim is to minimize risk of crop failure.
area
Seeds of component crops are mixed before Seeds of component crops are not
b)
sowing. mixed.
Sowing is done in rows in a precise
c) Sowing is not done in rows.
pattern.

13. Give difference between Rabi and kharif crop?

Ans.

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Rabi Crop Kharif Crop
a) It is sown in winter season. It is sown in summer (kharif) season.
b) It requires cold and dry climate. It requires hot and humid climate.

14. What is hybridization?

Ans. Hybridization refers to the crossing between genetically dissimilar plants. In this
method, the two crop verities are selected, each with at least one of desired characteristics
such as high-yield or resistance to disease.

15. List the various methods of weed control.

Ans. Methods of weed control are –

a) Mechanical methods – Weeds are removed by pulling out by hand or by using a khurpa
(trowel), hoe

b) Cultural methods – cultural methods include proper seed bed preparation timely sowing
of seeds, inter-cropping along with suitable rotation.

c) Chemical methods – weeds can be controlled by the use of chemicals like 2,4,-D.

d) Biological methods – Insect of other organisms of weed plants is used to attack the weeds
and reduce their number.

16. What are the characteristics features of ideal shelters for cattle?

Ans. Characteristics of shelter are –

1) The shed is properly roofed to protect the animals from rain, heat and cold.

2) The floor of the shed is made sloping to facilitate cleaning and keep their sitting space dry.

3) Arrangement for clean drinking water is made.

4) The sheds have proper arrangement for disposal of excreta.

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17. What are the hazards of using fertilizers?

Ans. Effects of using fertilizers –

a) Effect on soil quality – continued use of fertilizers leads to a loss of organic matter, a
deterioration of soil structure.

b) Eutrophication – Excessive use of fertilizers build up nitrates on the soil.

Nitrates and phosphates are washed by rain and carried to lakes, ponds and rivers and
causes excessive growth of plants of algae. Algae deplete the oxygen content of the water
body.

18. How do insects pest damage crop plants?

Ans. Insect – pests damage / harm the plants in following ways-

a) They cut root, stem and leaf.

b) They suck the cell sap from various plant parts.

c) They bore into stems and fruits.

d) They form galls.

e) They eat stored grains.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 15
Improvement in Food Resources

3 Marks Questions

1. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?

Ans. The biotic factors include living organisms like honey bees and earthworms who help in
better crop production while pests(insects and rodents) and microbes that produce bad effect
on crop production.

The abiotic factors are the climatic conditions and non living natural resources like soil,
water and air. They also affect crop production since favourable conditions of temperature,
humidity and mineral nutrition improve crop production.

2. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?

Ans. The desirable agronomiccharacteristics for crop improvements are as follows :

(i) For cereal crops desirable characteristic is dwarfness since such plants will utilise less
amount of nutrients.

(ii) For fodder crops desirable characteristics are tallness and profuse branching so that we
can obtain more amount of leaves for feeding our animals.

3. What are macro-nutrients and why are they called macro nutrients?

Ans. There are sixteen nutrients which are essential for plants.Amongst these thirteen
nutrients, six are required in large quantities and are therefore called macro nutrients.

Macronutrients:nitrogen, phosphorus,potassium, calcium,magnesium, sulphur.

4. How do plants get nutrients?

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Ans. Nutrients are supplied to plantsby air, water and soil.

Source Nutrients provided

Air carbon, oxygen

Water hydrogen, oxygen

nitrogen, phosphorus,potassium, calcium,magnesium, sulphur,iron, manganese,


Soil
boron,zinc, copper,molybdenum, chlorine

5. Compare the use of manure and fertilizers in maintaining soilfertility.

Ans.

Manure Fertilizer

Manure is prepared bythe decomposition of Fertilizers are commercially produced in


animal excreta and plantwaste so contains factories to supply nitrogen,phosphorus and
large quantities of organicmatter and also potassium that ensures soil fertilityinterms
supplies small quantities of nutrients to the of proper dose, time, and observing
soil that improves soil fertility. preandpost-application precautions.

6. Why should preventive measures and biological control methods bepreferred for
protecting crops?

Ans. Prevention is better than cure so is true for plants also. Such preventions involve
spraying of herbicides, weedicides, insecticides, pesticides, fungicides etc in the crop field.

Since their excessive use can harm the crop plants and cause pollution so proper seed bed
preparation, timelysowing of crops, intercropping and croprotation are additionally
applicable. Other than these biological control methods like use of resistant varieties is
highly useful.

7. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds andwhy?

Ans. The method of cross breeding is commonly usedfor improving cattle breeds for

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example in milch animals Exotic or foreign breeds (for example, Jersey,Brown Swiss) are
selected for long lactationperiods, while local breeds (for example, RedSindhi, Sahiwal) show
excellent resistance todiseases. The two can be cross-bred to get animals with both the
desired qualities

8. Discuss the implications of the following statement:


“It is interesting to note thatpoultry is India’s most efficientconverter of low fibre food
stuff(which is unfit for humanconsumption) into highlynutritious animal protein food.”

Ans. Under poultry the birds kept are fed on agricultural waste material and broken grains
etc which are not useful for humans but those birds consuming such waste provide us with
eggs and meat. It is highlynutritious animal protein food hence the statement made is quite
appropriate.

9. What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?

Ans. The management practices that are common in dairy and poultryfarming are :

food requirements
Proper cleaning and shelter facilities
Protection from unfavorable climatic conditions and diseases.
Protection from pests.

10. What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their management?

Ans.

Broilers Layers

1. used for meat purpose.


2 .Broiler chickens are fed with vitamin- 1. used for egg production.
richsupplementary feed for good growth 2. Layers don’t need any specific diet as
rate andbetter feed efficiency and care is prescribed for broilers their requirements
taken to avoidmortality and to maintain are simpler.
feathering ancarcass quality

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Other than above differences housing, nutritional and environmental requirements of
broilers are some what different from those of egg layers.

11. How are fish obtained?

Ans. There are two ways of obtaining fish. They can be obtained by :
1. capture fishing : It is the way of obtaining fish from their natural resources(rivers, lakes,
oceans).
2. culture fishery : It is also known as fish farming where selected fishes are reared and bred.

12. What are the advantages of composite fish culture?

Ans. Composite fish culture has following advantages :

Both local and imported fish species can be used in such systems.
Due to non-competitive nature of selected fishes food available in all the parts of the
water reservoir isused.
Increases the fish yield from the water reservoir (intensive fish farming).

13. What are the desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production?

Ans. The desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production are :

high honey collection capacity.


they must sting less.
They should stay in a given beehive for long periods, and breed very well.

14. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?

Ans. Pasturage refers to the flowers availableto the bees for nectar and pollen collection.The
value or quality of honey depends upon the pasturage. Along with this the kind of flowers
available will determine the taste of the honey.

15. For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries and bee-keeping?

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Ans. For increasing production, steps that are common in poultry, fisheriesand bee-keeping
are as follows :

good varieties/breeds are used.


good nutritious food is provided.
hygienic conditions/cleanliness is taken care of

16. What are the benefits of cattle farming?

Ans. Cattle farming has dual benefits :

(i) Draught animals for farm labour (males)i.e. for agricultural work such as tilling, irrigation
and carting.

(ii) Milch animals (dairy animals)those are milk producing females.

17. How do storage grain losses occur?

Ans. There are various biotic and abiotic factors responsible for the storage grain losses :

biotic factors : Insects, rodents, bacteria, fungi etc that feed on grains.
abiotic factors : Unfavourable conditions of humidity and temperature.

18. Why are manure and fertilizers used in fields?

Ans. Manure helps in enriching soil withnutrients and organic matter and increasing soil
fertility. The bulk of organic matter in manure helps in improving the soil structure.

Fertilizers are used to ensure good vegetative growth (leaves,branches and flowers), giving
rise to healthy plants by providing specific nutrients like nitrogen,phosphorus and
potassium.

19. Define (a) Pisciculture (b) hatcheries (c) swarming

Ans. a) Pisciculture – The rearing and management of fish on a large scale is called
pisciculture.

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b) Hatcheries – Nurseries where fish eggs or fish seed are put in fresh water fishery, are
called hatcheries.
c) Swarming – It is a process in which the new queen leaves the old hives and takes a new
shelter, for reproduction is called swarming.

20. What is green manuring? Give examples of green manures.

Ans. Green manure is a manure which is prepared by using herbaceous plant, that is grown
and ploughed under and mixed with the soil, while still green. The process of ploughing
green plants and mixing with the soil is called green manuring.

Plants used as green manure are –

Sun hemp, cluster bean (guar), lentil (Masur), Cow pea (Lobia)

21. Discuss the preventive measures for the storage of grains.

Ans. Preventive measure for the storage of grains are

a) Drying – For Storage of grains, the moisture Content of grains should be reduced below 14
percent. This can be done by drying in sun followed by drying in shade.
b) Maintenance of hygiene – Godowns and stores should be properly cleaned. Dirt, rubbish,
webs or refuse of the previously stored grains should be removed. Cracks and holes in the
walls, floor or ceiling should be sealed and made water proof. New gunny bags should be
used for storing food grains. After filling the gunny bag, its mouth should be tightly stitched.
c) Improved storage structure – For storage of grains and seeds, proper improved storage
structure should be used. In such structure temperature, moisture, Oxygen and Carbon-
dioxide can be manipulated as desired.

22. Name three basic scientific approaches for increasing yield of a crop.

Ans. Three scientific approaches for increasing yields of a crop are –

(i) Crop production management : It includes proper irrigation and nutrient management. It
can be done by adding manure and fertilizers. Nutrient management can also be done by
crop rotation, intercropping and mixed-cropping.

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(ii) Crop protection management : Plants needs protection from weeds, insects, pests and
pathogens. It can be done by the biological method, chemical method, cultural method.
(iii) Crop variety management : Crop variety can be improved by hybridization or by
Transgenic methods. It can be done for obtaining desired plant characteristics.

23. What are the advantages of bee-keeping?

Ans. Advantages of bee-keeping are –

a) It requires low investments and provides additional income to the farmer.


b) Besides honey bee keeping provides other products such as wax, royal jelly and bee
venom.
c) Bee helps in cross pollination.

24. Differentiate between capture fishing, aquaculture and mariculture.

Ans. a) Capture fishing – Obtaining fish from water bodies like river, sea, oceans, etc is
known as capture dishing.
b) Aquaculture – It is the culture of aquatic organisms in fresh water or marine water.
c) Mariculture – The culture of marine fish is called mariculture.

25. List the steps to be taken to prevent and control diseases in animals.

Ans. Steps to be taken to control diseases are –

a) Providing proper shelters.


b) Ensuring animal hygiene and proper disposal of dead animals and animal wastes.
c) Periodic screening of animals for diseases and immediate isolation of diseased animals.
d) Providing proper diet and suitable medicines under the advice of a veterinary doctor.
e) Hygienic handling of all animal products and by products.
f) Compulsory vaccinations.

26. Give difference between manures and fertilizers.

Ans.

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Manure are organic natural substances
derived from the decomposition of Fertilizers are inorganic or organic
1.
biological materials (plants and animal substances.
residues)
Manure contains organic matter in large
2. Organic matter is not present.
quantities.
3. They are not nutrient – specific. They are nutrient specific.

27. What are the components of cattle feed?

Ans. Cattle feed contains two types of substances – Roughage and concentrates – in the form
of fodder and grain along with a lot of water.

a) Roughage – It consists of coarse and fibrous substances having low nutrient content- the
animals get rough age from hay (straw of cereals) and grain respectively along with a lot of
water.
b) Concentrate – foods rich in one or more nutrients (like carbohydrate, fats, proteins,
minerals and vitamins) and low in fibres are provided by cotton seeds, oilseeds, oilcakes, and
cereal grains like gram and bajra. In winters cattle are mostly fed on green fodder, mainly
Berseem and Lucerne, in other seasons they are given maize, bajra, jowar and dry fodder.

28. Define the following (i) White revolution (ii) silver revolution (iii) blue revolution.

Ans. White Revolution – Increased production of milk is known as white revolution. It


involved use of new improved high milk – yielding cross breeds of mulch animals.

Silver revolution – Tremendous increase in egg production is known as silver revolution.

Blue revolution – It refers to the increased production of fish.

29. What is green manuring? Give example of green manures?

Ans. Green manure is a manure which is prepared from herbaceous plant that is grown and
ploughed under and mixed with the soil, While still green. This process is known as green
manuring. Plants used as Green manure are :-

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Sun hemp, cluster bean (guar), Lentil (maser), Cow pea (Berseem)

30. What are the main practices involved in keeping of animals or animal husbandry?

Ans. Main practices involved in animal husband day.

a) Breeding – It is done to obtain animals with desired characters. Breeding can develop high
milk yielding and high meat-yielding animals.
b) Feeding – It deals with the study of proper food (called feed), mode and time of feeding of
different animals.
c) Weeding – It is elimination of uneconomical animals.
d) Heeding – It means the proper care and management of animals.

31. Name the abiotic and biotic factors which affects stored grains and how?

Ans. Biotic factors – Insects, birds, rodents, mites, fungi and bacteria.

Abiotic factors – Moisture, temperature and material of the storage container.

The above factors bring about –


a) Infestation of food grains by insects and micro-organisms.
b) Degradation in quality.
c) Loss in weight.
d) Poor germination potential of grains
e) Discoloration of produce
f) Poor marketability and lower profits.

32. What is the need of crop improvement? what are the desirable agronomic
characteristics for crop improvement

Ans. Crop improvement is to develop superior plants having following characteristics like

a) High – yield
b) Varieties with produce of better quality.
c) Disease resistant varieties
d) Varieties with desirable agronomic characteristics like

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(i) Dwarfness in cereals so that less nutrients are consumed
(ii) Tallness and profuse branching in case of fodder crops.

33. Define (i) Draught breeds

(ii) Dual purpose breeds

(iii) Dairy breeds

Ans. Draught breed – cattle which are used for work; bullock.
Dual purpose breeds – Breeds where females are used for milk and males, for work.
Dairy animals – Breed which are used for milk only are called dairy animals.

34. What are the symptoms of diseased animals?

Ans. Symptoms of diseased animals are –


a) The animal stops eating and becomes lethargic, looks tired and remains isolated.
b) The animal shiver with high body temperature
c) The animal shows excessive formation of saliva which sometimes hangs from the mouth.
d) The animal passes loose dung and colored urine.
e) The lips and ears of the animal droop
f) Milk –yield, egg laying capacity or working capacity of the animals is reduced.

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CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 15
Improvement in Food Resources

5 Marks Questions

1. Explain any one method of crop production which ensureshigh yield.

Ans. To ensurehigh yield various cropping patterns can be very useful. The cropping
patterns to be mentioned here are :

1. mixed cropping
2. inter cropping
3. crop rotation

Mixed cropping is growing two or morecrops simultaneously on the same piece ofland, for
example, wheat + gram, or wheat +mustard, or groundnut + sunflower. Thisreduces risk and
gives some insuranceagainst failure of one of the crops.

Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite
pattern (as shown below).The crops areselected such that their nutrientrequirements are
different. This ensuresmaximum utilisation of the nutrientssupplied, and also prevents pests
anddiseases from spreading to all the plantsbelonging to onecrop in a fieldfor example,
soyabean + maize, or fingermillet (bajra) + cowpea (lobia).

Crop rotation is growing of different crops on a pieceof land in a pre-planned

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succession.Depending upon theduration, crop rotation is done for differentcrop
combinations. The availability ofmoisture and irrigation facilities decide thechoice of the
crop to be cultivated after oneharvest. If crop rotation is done properly thentwo or three
crops can be grown in a yearwith good harvests.

2. What are the advantages of inter-cropping and crop rotation?

Ans.

Advantages of inter cropping Advantages of crop rotation


Crop rotation if well planned allows
Inter cropping ensuresmaximum
replenishment of soil nutrients without using
utilisation of the nutrientssupplied, and
even fertilisers like growing leguminous plants
also prevents pests anddiseases from
after a non leguminous crop in the same field
spreading to all the plantsbelonging to
will ensure nitrogen enrichment of that soil.
one crop in a field. This way,both crops
Hence it prevents any decrease in the soil
can give better returns.
fertility.

3. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agriculturalpractices?

Ans. varieties to obtain a new and better variety is called genetic manipulation.

In agricultural practices to reduce the application of insecticides and fungicides or even


fertilizers such varieties are being prepared that are :

high yielding
pest resistant
resistant to environmental stress
don’t need fertilizers for good growth

All these features help not only to improve quality and quantity of products but alsoreduces
chances of environmental pollution.

4. How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers?

Ans. Animal husbandry is the scientificmanagement of animal livestock. It includesvarious

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aspects such as feeding, breeding anddisease control.

As the population increases and asliving standards increase, the demand formilk, eggs and
meat is also going up. Also,the growing awareness of the need for proper treatment of
livestock has broughtin new limitations in livestock farming. Thus,livestock production also
needs to beimproved. This improvement can be brought about by good animal husbandry
practices like providing good food and preventing diseases in the cattles that will benefit
farmers to obtain better quality and quantity products.

5. How do you differentiate between capture fishing, maricultureand aquaculture?

Ans.

Capture fishing Mariculture Aquaculture

These are culture fisheries that


These culture fisheries are
are maintained in the marine
It is the method of maintained in fresh water or
water bodies only to rear and
catching fishes from marine bodies and allows
breed marine animals like fish
natural resources. rearing and production larger
and prawns hence also called
number of aquatic animals.
marine culture.

6. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?

Ans. Genetics manipulation – It is a process in genetic make up of crop plants is improved to


obtain desired characteristics.

Advantages of genetic manipulation


1) It develops high – yielding varieties.
2) It develop disease resistant varieties
3) It develops pest resistant varieties.
4) It develops varieties with short maturation period and uniform maturity.
5) It develops varieties with produce of better quality.
6) It develops varieties resistant to a biotic and biotic stresses.

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