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Transportation Engineering
(Classroom Practice Questions)
Highway Development & Planning
01. Three new roads P,Q, R are planned in a district. The data for these roads are given in the table given
below. Based on the principle of maximum utility the order of priority for these three roads should be
Number of villages with

Length population
Road
(km)
< 2000 2000-5000 >5000
P 20 8 6 1
Q 28 19 8 4
R 12 7 5 2
(a) P, Q, R (b) Q,R, P (c) R,P,Q (d) R,Q,P
02. Four new road links are to be constructed P,Q,R and S with different road lengths. The details
of population and products served as follows: Suggest the order of priority for phasing the road
construction programme based on maximum utility approach.
No of villages with population ranges

Road lines Length in km
Industrial
1000 –2000 2000 –5000 5000 – 10000 >10000
product
P 300 100 80 30 6 200
Q 400 200 90 00 8 270
R 500 240 110 70 10 315
S 550 248 112 73 12 335
(a) RSPQ (b) PQRS (c) RPSQ (d) PQSP
03. Which one of the following is the chronological sequence in regard to road construction/design/
development?
(a) Telford, Tresaguet, CBR, Macadam (b) Tresaguet, Telford, Macadam, CBR
(c) Macadam, CBR, Tresaguet, Telford (d) Tresaguet, Macadam, Telford, CBR
KEY
01. (d) 02. (a) 03. (b)
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2 Transportation Engineering
Highway Allignment & Surveys Highway Geometric Design - Gradients
01. Consider the following statements: Common Data for Questions 01 & 02
Assertion (A): It is general practice to provide A road of width 3.5 m is to be laid. Calculate the
cant to the road surface with inner edge maximum height of the crown with respect to the
forming the pivot point. edges of the road in the following cases;
Reason (R): It does not change centre line
levels which have already been fixed at the
01. Straight line camber for village CC road in the
design stage
areas of light rainfall
Of these statements
(a) 14.3 mm (b) 29. 2mm
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) 57.5 mm (d)115 mm
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A 02. Parabolic camber for major district road with
(c) A is true but R is false thin bituminous surface in the areas of heavy
(d) A is false but R is true rainfall
(a) 17.37 mm (b) 23.75 mm
02. Flatter cambers are required for the purpose (c) 47.5 mm (d) 43.75 mm
of smooth traffic flow and steeper cambers
are necessary for the purpose of drainage. 03. Consider the following types of roads in the
In which one of the following situations can same rainfall region:
both these objectives be achieved ? 1. Water-bound Macadam roads
(a) When the camber slope is equal to the 2. Cement concrete roads
gradient
3. Bituminous high-speed roads
(b) When the camber slope is slightly greater
4. Gravel roads.
than half the gradient
The correct sequence of the descending
(c) When the camber slope is equal to half
order of steepness of camber of these roads
the gradient
is
(d) When the camber slope is slightly less than
the gradient (a) 4,1,2,3 (b) 4,1,3,2
(c) 1,4,3,2 (d) 1,4,2,3
KEY 04. While designing a hill road with a ruling

01. (c) 02. (c) gradient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal curve of
50m radius is encountered, the compensated
gradient at the curve as per the Indian Roads
Congress specifications should be
(a) 4.5% (b) 4.75%
(c) 5.0% (d) 5.25%
3 Objective Practice Questions
05. If the difference in elevation between the

HGD - Sight Distances
edges of a pavement of width 9 m and its
crown is 7.5cm, what is the camber of the
01. Brake is applied on a vehicle which then skids
CC pavement? (IAS-09)
a distance of 16 m before coming to stop. If
(a) 1 in 60 (b) 1 in 45
the developed average coefficient of friction
(c) 1 in 30 (d) 1 in 15
between the tyres and the pavement is 0.4
then the speed of the vehicle before skidding
06. Match List-I (type of pavement) with List-
have been nearly
II (camber) and select the correct answer
(a) 20 kmph (b) 30 kmph
using the codes given below. (IAS-05)
(c) 40 kmph (d) 50 kmph

List -I List-II
02. While driving at a speed of 30 kmph (with
A. Cement concrete 1. 4%
available friction 0.4) down the grade, the
B. WBM 2. 3%
driver requires a braking distance twice that
C. Thin Bituminous 3. 2%
required for stopping the vehicle when he
D. Earth 4. 1.5%
travels up the same grade. The grade is
Codes:
(a) 7% (b) 10.6%
A B C D
(c) 13.3% (d) 33.3%
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 2 4 1 03. A car is moving at a speed of 72 kmph on
(c) 3 2 4 1 a road having 2% upward gradient. If the
(d) 4 2 3 1 reaction time of the driver is 1.5 seconds,
assuming that f = 0.15, calculate the distance
07. What is the value of camber that should be moved by the vehicle before the car stops
provided in case of WBM pavement surface finally?
in an area of heavy rainfall? (IAS-05) (a) 24 m (b)150 m
(a) 1 in 33 (b) 1 in 25 (c) 1056 m (d) 324 m
(c) 1 in 60 (d) 1 in 72
04. A vehicle moving at 60 kmph on an ascending
gradient of a highway has to come to stop
position to avoid collision with a stationary
KEY
object. The ratio of lag to brake distance is
01. (b) 02. (d) 03. (b) 04. (a) 05. (a) 6:5. Considering total reaction time of the
06. (d) 07. (a) driver as 2.5 seconds and the coefficient
of longitudinal friction as 0.36, the value of
ascending gradient (%) is
(a) 3.3 (b) 4.8
(c) 5.3 (d) 6.805
05. The design speed on a road is 60 kmph driving at a speed of 58 kmph. At what speed
Assuming the driver reaction time of 2.5 would the driver have to travel just to be able
seconds and coefficient of friction of to read the sign?
pavement surface as 0.35, the required
stopped distance for two-way traffic on a 10. A sign is required to be put up asking drivers to
single lane road is slow down to 30 km/h before entering Zone Y
(a) 82.1m (b) 102.4 (see figure). On this road, vehicles require 174
(c) 164.2 m (d) 186.4m m to slow down to 30 km/h( the distance of
174 m includes the distance travelled during
06. For a given road, stopping sight distance is 80
the perception – reaction time of drivers). The
m and passing sight distance is 300 m. What is
sign can be read by 6/6 vision drivers from
the intermediate sight distance?
a distance of 48 m. The sign is placed at a
(a) 220 m (b) 190 m
distance of x m from the start of Zone Y so that
(c)160 m (d) 150 m
even a 6/9 vision driver can slow down to 30
07. A car is traveling along a road at a uniform km/h before entering the zone. The minimum
velocity when at time zero the driver value of x is ________ m.
recognizes a hazard. At a moment 0.8 second
Direction of vehicle movement
later, the driver brakes the vehicle (locking
the wheels), resulting in the vehicle sliding Sign
Start of zone Y
27.45 m in the same direction, at which time
it strikes another stationary vehicle at 40.25 Road
kmph. The road surface is dry and f = 0.75. Zone Y

x
What is initial speed of vehicle?
08. The impatient driver approaches an 11. The acceleration–time relationship for
intersection. The through traffic is quite heavy, a vehicle subjected to non-uniform
with an average gap of 5 sec. If this driver acceleration is,
dv _
can achieve an acceleration of a = 3 m/sec 2
dt v o i e - bt
starting from rest and his perception-reaction
Where, v is the speed in m/s, t is the time in s,
time is 0.75 second, determine if he can clear
a and b are parameters, and v0 is the initial
the intersection. Assume that the width of the
speed in m/s. If the accelerating behavior of
intersection is 7.5 m and his car is 6.1 m long.
a vehicle, whose driver intends to overtake a
20 slow moving vehicle ahead, is descried as,
09. A driver with vision needs 3 sec to read
40
dv _ i
a sign posted on a freeway. A person with dt v
20 Considering a = 2 m/s2, b = 0.05 s-1 and
vision can read this sign at a distance of
20
230 m. Show through computation whether dv
= 1.3 m/s2 at t = 3s, the distance (in m)
dt
this driver has sufficient time to read the sign
travelled by the vehicle in 35 s is _______.
12. Total reaction time of a driver does not

HGD - Overtaking Sight Distance
depend upon
(a) Perception time Common Data for Questions 1, 2 &3
(b) Brake reaction time The speeds of overtaking and overtaken vehicles
(c) Condition of mind of the driver are 80 kmph and 50 kmph respectively. The
(d) Speed of vehicle acceleration of overtaking vehicle is 2.5 kmph/
sec. Spacing between vehicles =16 m, reaction
13. Match List –I with List –II and select the correct time of driver = 2 sec.
answer using the codes given below the lists: Calculate the safe OSD. (Two lane road)
List – I
A. Lateral friction 01. On one way traffic road
B. Cut-off lagoons (a) 27.78 m (b) 165.33 m
C. Skid (c)193.11 m (d) 213.31 m
D. Sight distance
List –II 02. On two way traffic road

1. Disparity between relevant travel distances (a) 27.78 m (b) 165.33 m
2. Vehicle movement on a curve (c)193.11 m (d) 406.42 m
3. Summit curves
4. Prevention of flooding 03. On two way traffic four lane divided national
high-way
Codes: (a) 27.78 m (b) 165.33 m
A B C D (c)193.11 m (d)213.31 m

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 3 1 4 2 Common Data for Questions 04 & 05

(c) 2 4 1 3 On the same lane of a road a car ‘A’ is following

(d) 3 4 1 2 car ‘B’ at a centre distance of 25 m. Both cars
are traveling at a speed of 100 kmph when car
‘A’ attempts to overtake car ‘B’ at a uniform
acceleration of 0.8 m/sec2. After traveling for 5 sec
KEY
at that acceleration, it increases the acceleration
01. (c) 02. (c) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (c) rate to overtake car ‘B” and comes to a position
06. (c) 07. (82.8 kmph) 08. (-) 20 m (centre to centre) in front of car ‘B’ in another
09. (t=7.13 sec, V = 138 kmph) 10. (142 m) 5 sec.
11. (900.79) 12. (d) 13. (c)

04. What is this increased uniform acceleration
rate?
(a) 0.6 m/s2 (b) 0.8 m/s2
(c) 1.2 m/s2 (d) 2.4 m/s2
05. What is the distance traveled by car ‘A’ 01. If the pavement is rotated with respect to the
during the total period of acceleration? center line
(a) 148.89 m (b) 173.89 m (a) 0.11 m (b) 0.22 m
(c) 277.78 m (d) 322.78 m (c) 0.49 m (d) 1.2 m
Common Data for Questions 06 & 07 02. If the pavement is rotated with respect to the
A car travelling at 22.22 mps is overtaking another inner edge
car moving at 16.67 mps on a two lane two (a) 0.11 m (b) 0.22 m (c) 0.49m (d) 1.2 m
way undivided highway. The acceleration of the

03. A Highway is designed for a speed of 65 km/
overtaking car is 0.7 m/sec2. Driver reaction
hr to carry mixed traffic, the super elevation
time is 2sec, and length of rigid wheel base of
is not to exceed 7% and coefficient of lateral
vehicle is 6m.
friction is 0.15. Radius of horizontal curve is 125
m then which of the following statements is
06. The minimum overtaking sight distance in ‘m’
correct?
is,
(a) Design speed of 65 km/hr is allowed
(a) 33.34 (b) 202
(b) Maximum speed can be allowed is up to
(c) 460 (d) 236
30km/hr only
(c) Maximum speed can be allowed is up to
07. Desirable length of overtaking zone in ‘m’ is
59 km/hr only
(a) 457 (b) 606
(d) The road can allow a speed up to 80km/
(c) 1180 (d) 2300
hr
KEY for Objective Practice Questions Common Data for Questions 04 to 06

Determine the following for a road on a horizontal
01. (c) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (c) 05. (d)
curve in plains of radius 500 m. The design speed
06. (c) 07. (d) is 100 km/hr and the coefficient of lateral friction
is 0.15.
04. Super elevation required on a road, when full

HGD - Horizontal Curves lateral friction comes into play
(a) 0.16% (b) 0.75 %
Common Data for Questions 01 to 02 (c) 0.9 % (d) 10 %
A horizontal curve (in plains) of radius 600 m on a
two lane highway with width 7 m is to be designed 05. Coefficient of friction when no super elevation
to cater for mixed traffic at a speed of 65 kmph. is provided
The raise of outer edge of the pavement, with (a) 0.18 (b) 0.16
respect to ground level. (c) 0.373 (d) 0.7
06. Equilibrium super elevation required for 11. Assertion (A): The Centrifugal ratio decreases
pressure on inner wheel is equal to that of along the length of the transition curve
outer wheel is Reason (R): The super elevation increases
(a) 7 % (b) 10 % along the length of the transition curve
(c) 15.75% (d) 21.78%
12. Assertion (A): A skilful highway designer
07. Super elevation for mixed traffic condition (as ‘builds in’ speed control at critical locations
per IRC) if the design speed is now 60 km/hr on horizontal curves rather than increases
(with all the other parameters remaining the the super elevation
same as in the main problem) is Reason (R): A driver slows down on horizontal
(a) 3.2 % (b) 5.67 % curve due to feeling of discomfort because
(c)7.0 % (d) 10 .0 % of increase in side friction with reduced super
elevation
08. What will be the ruling radius of horizontal
curve on a national highway for a design KEY
vehicle speed of 100 km/h, assuming
01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (c) 04. (b) 05. (b)
allowable super elevation to be 7% and
lateral friction as 0.13 06. (c) 07. (a) 08. (b) 09. (a) 10. (a)
(a) 405 m (b) 395 m
11. (d) 12. (c)
(c) 385 m (d) 375 m

09. The centrifugal ratio for a vehicle is 0.25 width Horizontal Curves (Extra Widening)
of vehicle is 2.4 m. Height of vehicle to its C.G
is 4.2m, lateral friction is 0.15, assuming no
Common Data for Questions 01 & 02
super elevation
A national highway with design speed of 76 kmph,
(a) Lateral Skidding occur first
width of the pavement 7 m, length of wheel base 7
(b) Overturning occurs first
m, super elevation provided is 1/15 and coefficient
(c) Neither lateral skid nor overturning
of lateral friction is 0.15
(d) Both simultaneously
01. The ruling minimum radius of the curve, in m,

10. In the absence of super elevation, the
is
formation of pot holes is generally
(a) 78 (b) 123
(a) on the outer edge
(c) 158 (d) 209
(b) on the inner edge
(c) in the middle of the road
02. Total width of pavement on horizontal curve
(d) anywhere along the width of the road
in m is
(a) 7.24 (b) 7.45
(c) 7.69 (d) 7.78
03. The extra widening required for a two-lane Common Data for Questions 03 & 04
national highway at a horizontal curve of 300 There is a horizontal curve of radius 360 m and
m radius, considering a wheel base of 8m and length 180 m. The clearance required from the
a design speed of 100 kmph is center line of the inner side of the curve, so as to
(a) 0.42m (b) 0.62m provide
(c) 0.82m (d) 0.92m
03. Stopping sight distance of 80 m
(a) 1.23m (b) 1.78 m
04. The design speed for a two lane road is 80
(c) 2.2 m (d) 3.87 m
kmph, when a design vehicle with a wheel
base of 6.6 m is negotiating a horizontal curve
04. Overtaking sight distance of 250 m
on that road, the off tracking is measured
(a) 11.20 m (b) 15.32 m
as 0.096 m. The required widening of
(c) 19.85 m (d) 25.38 m
carriageway of the two lane road on the
curve is approximately Common Data for Questions 05 & 06
(a) 0.55m (b) 0.65m A horizontal circular curve with a centre Line radius
(c) 0.75m (d) 0.85m of 200m is provided on a 2 lane, 2-way SH section.
The width of the 2-lane road is 7.0m. Design
speed for this section is 80 km per hour. The brake
KEY reaction time is 2.4s, and the coefficients of friction
01. (d) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (c) in longitudinal and lateral directions are 0.355 and
0.15, respectively.
Set Back Distance & Curve Resistance 05. The safe stopping sight distance on the
section is
01. Set back distance
(a) 221 m (b) 195 m
(a) to compensate for visibility
(c) 125 m (d) 65 m
(b) provided on hair pin bends only
(c) essentially required on steep slopes
06. The set-back distance from the centre line of
(d) a part of transition curves
the inner lane is
(a) 11.5 m (b) 8.10 m
02. Assuming the safe stopping sight distance to
(c) 9.60 m (d) 9.77m
be 80 m on a flat highway section and with
a set back distance of 10 m, what would
be the radius of the negotiable horizontal KEY
curve? 01. (a) 02. (c) 03. (c) 04. (c) 05. (c)
(a) 800 m (b) 160 m 06. (d)
(c) 80 m (d) 70 m
05. The transitional property of a lemniscate

HGD - Transition Curves curve is disrupted when its deflection angle is
around
Common Data for Questions 01 & 02 (a) 30° (b) 45°
A two lane pavement in plane terrain with an extra (c) 60° (d) 90°
widening of 0.2 m is provided on a horizontal curve
of radius 200 m. The allowable rate or change of 06. The following purposes served by a transition
centrifugal acceleration is 0.6 m/sec3, allowable curve in a highway alignment include:
rate of change of super elevation is 1 in 100, design 1. Gradual introduction of the centrifugal
speed is 60 kmph. The pavement is rotated about force on moving vehicles from zero on
inner edge to achieve super elevation the straight alignment to a constant final
value on the circular curve.
01. The length of transition curve in meter is 2. Enabling the gradual introduction of
(a) 24.3 m (b) 38.7 m superelevation on the roadway.
(c) 48.6 m (d) 50.4 m Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
02. The value of shift in meter is (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 0.12 m (b) 0.33 m (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 0.49 m (d) 0.53 m
07. The rate of equilibrium super-elevation on a
Common Data for Questions 03& 04 road is
A highway is to be designed based on the 1. Directly proportional to the square of
following data; vehicle velocity
Design speed 80 kmph, radius of circular curve 900 2. Inversely proportional to the radius of the
m; width of pavement on curve ( no extra widening horizontal curve
is provided use we = 0) 7 m; road is passing through 3. Directly proportional to the square of the
plain terrain; rate of change of super elevation is 1 radius of the horizontal curve
in 150; the pavement is rotated about center line Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
03. The rate of change of centrifugal acceleration (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
in m/sec3
(a) 0.61 (b) 0.73
(c) 0.516 (d) 0.8
KEY
04. The length of transition curve in meter is
01. (d) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (a) 05. (c)
(a) 23.6 m (b) 19.3 m
(c) 16.5 m (d) none 06. (c) 07. (a)
04. The length of summit curve is

HGD - Vertical Curves (a) 202.5 m (b) 286.67 m
(c) 442 m (d) 956.78 m
01. Given the sight distance as 120 m. The height of
driver’s eye as 1.5m. Height of object is 0.15m. 05. The distance of highest point from the starting
Grade difference of international gradient is of 1 in 25 gradient is
0.09. The required length of summit parabolic (a) 150 m (b) 294.66 m
curve is (c) 450 m (d) 675 m
(a) 191.11 m (b) 249.35 m
(c) 294.5 m (d) 312.6 m 07. Consider the following statements in the
context of geometric design of roads.
02. A parabolic curve is used to connect a 4% I. A simple parabolic curve is an acceptable
upgrade with a 2% down grade as shown shape for summit curves.
in fig. The highest point on the summit is at a II. Comfort to passengers is an important
distance of (measured horizontally from the consideration the design of summit
first tangent curves.
point – FTP) The correct option evaluation the above
statements and their relationship is
N (a) I is true, II is false
+4% -2%
(b) I is true, II is true, and II is the correct reason
for I
150 mm (c) I is true, II is true, and II is NOT the correct
(a) 50 m (b) 60 m reason for I
(c) 75 m (d) 100 m (d) I is false, II is true
03. A rising gradient of 1 in 50 meets a falling 07. An ascending gradient with deflection angle
gradient of 1 in 100. The length of vertical 0.018 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 120.
curve if the rate of change of gradient is 1% A summit curve is to be designed for a speed
per 100m length, is of 80 km/hr so as to have an over-taking sight
(a) 100 m (b) 200 m distance of 470 m. The length of summit curve
(c) 300 m (d) 600 m is
(a) 414 m (b) 407 m
Common Data for Questions 04 to 05 (c) 236 m (d) 122 m
A rising gradient of 1/25 meets a falling gradient
of 1 in 50 on a national highway. The minimum
stopping or non overtaking sight distance is 180 m.
Design speed is 100 km/hr.
08. An ascending gradient meets a descending 03. The lowest point in the curve is located at a
gradient with deflection angle 0.018. The distance of________ from the flatter gradient
length of summit curve required to provide (a) 166 m (b) 200 m
overtaking sight distance of 500 m will (c) 380 m (d) 806 m
be
(a) 938 m (b) 781 m
KEY
(c) 467 m (d) 170 m
01. (c) 02. (b) 03. (a)
09. If R is the radius of the curve and L is the length

of the long chord, the shift of the curve is (all
Highway Materials & Testing
in meter units)
L2 L2
(a) R (b)
2R
01. Modulus of sub grade reaction using 30 cm
L2 L2 diameter plate is obtained as 200 N/cm3.
(c) (d)
24R 6R
The value of the same (in N/cm3) using the
standard plate will be
(a) 80N/cm3 (b)200 N/cm3
KEY
(c)150 N/cm3 (d)50 N/cm3
01. (b) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (c) 05. (b)
06. (a) 07. (b) 08. (c) 09. (c) 02. The modulus of subgrade reaction is
evaluated from which one of the following?
(IAS-09)
HGD - Balley Curves (a) Plate-bearing test (b) CBR test
(c) Direct shear test (d) Triaxial test
Common Data for Questions 01 to 03
A valley curve is to be designed for a NH in rolling 03. A plate load test conducted with a 75 cm
terrain where a falling gradient of 1/25 meets a diameter plate on soil sub grade yielded a
rising gradient of 1/20. The design speed is 100 deflection of 2.5 mm under a stress of 800 N/
km/hr. C = 0.6 m/sec3. cm2. The modulus of elasticity of elasticity of
HSD = 180 m. the sub grade soil in kN/cm2
(a) 141.6 (b)154.6
01. The length of valley curve is
(c) 160.0 (d)185.4
(a) 80 m (b) 113 m
(c) 374 m (d) 420 m
04. The specific gravities and weight proportions
02. The maximum value of impact factor while are given as under for the preparation of
traversing over the curve is Marshall mould. The volume and weight of
(a) 2.48 (b) 3.85 Marshall specimen are 475 cc and 1100 g
(c) 13.28 (d) 17.36 respectively.
Codes:
Specimen A1 A2 A3 A4 Bitumen
A B C D
Weight, g 825 1200 325 150 100
(a) 3 2 4 1
Specific
2.63 2.51 2.46 2.43 1.05 (b) 3 1 4 2
gravity
(c) 2 3 1 4
Assuming absorption of bitumen by (d) 4 2 3 1
aggregate is zero. Determine
(a) % air voids (Va) 08. In the Los Angeles Abrasion Test on aggregate,
(b) % bitumen by volume if the speed of the drum is increased to 50
(c) % voids in mineral aggregates rpm, then the abrasion value will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
05. A bitumen mixture contains 60% CA; 35% (c) Remain unchanged (d) Be
FA; 5% Asphalt (by weight). Determine unit unpredictable
weight of the mixture after compaction with
7.0% air voids. GCA= 2.72 GFA=2.66 GA= 1.0 09. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
06. A sub grade soil sample was tested using List-I
standard CBR apparatus and the observations A. Disintegration of aggregates due to
are given below. weathering
Load, kg Penetration, mm B. The removal of material from the surface
60.5 2.5 of the road by grinding action
80.5 5.0 C. Mutual under or grinding within the
Assuming that the load-penetration curve is mass under the action of traffic
convex throughout, the CBR value (%) of the D. Breaking up of road surface layer through
sample is cracking into irregular shaped areas
(a) 6.5 (b) 5.5 (c) 4.4 (d) 3.9 List-II
1. Attrition 2. Crazing
07. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 3. Soundness 4. Abrasion
answer using the codes given below the 5. Disintegration
Lists: List- I
A. Penetration test Codes:
B. Marshall test A B C D
C. Ring and ball test (a) 3 1 5 2
D. Benkelman beam (b) 2 5 1 4
List-II (c) 3 4 1 2
1. Design of bituminous concrete mix (d) 1 4 3 5
2. Overlay design
3. Gradation of asphalt cement
4. Determination of softening point
10. Assertion (A): In bituminous mixes, the pronounce on the suitability of the
minimum voids requirement provides space material
for densification under traffic movements and Which of the above statements is/are
expansion of bitumen at high temperature incorrect?
Reason (R): Insufficient voids in the bituminous (a) 3 only (b) 2 only
mix causes bleeding of the bituminous surface (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
and skidding
KEY
11. Match List-I (Tests) with List-II (Properties) and
select the correct answer using the codes 01. (a) 02. (a) 03. (a)
given below the lists: 04. (G1=2.41, Gm=2.315, Va=4.15%,
List-I VMA=12.51%, VFB = 67%)
A. CBR test 05. (Gt=2.48, Gm=2.31) 06. (c) 07. (b)
B. Plate bearing test
C. Triaxial test 08. (a) 09. (c) 10. (a)
D. Stabilometer and Cohesion-meter test 11. (d) 12. (d)

List-II
1. Modulus of sub-grade reaction Highway Construction and
2. Arbitary soil strength Pavement Maintenance
3. Exudation and expansion pressure
4. Shear parameters
01. Match the following :
Type of pavement
Codes:
A. gravel
A B C D
B. W.B.M
(a) 1 2 3 4
C. Bituminous
(b) 2 1 3 4
D. Cement concrete
(c) 1 2 4 3
Max traffic capacity(t/day)
(d) 2 1 4 3
1. 200 2. 500
3. 1500 4. >3000
12. Consider the following statements regarding
Codes: A B C D
ductility of bitumen:
(a) 1 2 3 4
1. Ductility is the property which does
(b) 2 1 3 4
not permit bitumen to undergo large
(c) 2 1 4 3
deformation without breaking.
(d) 1 2 4 3
2. Bitumens with high ductility are
generally adhesive but do not have
good cementing properties.
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two
different temperatures in order to
02. Pick up the correct statement for W.B.M roads 3. It seals the surface against ingress of water
(a) Screening consists of aggregates of Which of these, the correct statement are
smaller size, generally of the same (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2and 3
material as the coarse aggregates. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
(b) Purpose of binding material is to prevent
ravelling of stones 08. In W.B.M road construction the various stages
(c) Lime stone of kankar can be used as are
binding material 1. applying binder
(d) Rolling is done from camber to edges 2. Dry rolling
3. wet rolling
03. The function of a ‘Bituminous Surface Dressing 4. application of course aggregates
is 5. Application screenings
(a) to provide dust free pavement surface The correct sequence of operations is
(b) to present infiltration of surface water (a) 4,2,5,3,1,3 (b) 4,3,5,3,1,2
(c) to protect base course (c) 4,2,1,3,5,2 (d) 1,2,4,3,5,2
(d) all the above
09. In grouted or penetration macadam
04. The first coat of bituminous surfacing over an construction, the bitumen is
existing base such as W.B.M is (a) Premixed with aggregates
(a) seal coat (b) prime coat (b) Sprayed after aggregates are used
(c) tack coat (d) cut back (c) Sprayed before aggregates are spread
(d) none of the above
05. Functions of a ‘prime coat’ are 10. Pick up the incorrect
(a) to develop and interface condition for Type of premix Use
Bonding (a) Bituminous macadam Base course
(b) to seal the press (b) Bituminous carpet Surface course
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) Mastic asphalt Bridge decks
(d) none of the above (d) Bituminous concrete Sub base
06. ‘Tack coat’ is provided on 11. The highest quality construction in the group
(a) An existing black top of black top pavement is
(b) on W.B.M. (a) Bituminous macadam
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) Bituminous concrete
(d) None (c) Sheet asphalt
(d) Mastic asphalt
07. Read the following statements about a ‘Seal
Coat’
1. It is a very thin surface treatment
2. It develops skid resistance texture
12. Bituminous concrete is a homogenous mix of (c) lime stabilization

(a) Coarse aggregates, fine aggregates, (d) mechanical stabilization
Bitumen
(b) Coarse aggregate, mineral filler, Bitumen 18. For sandy soils the most common method
(c) Fine aggregate, mineral filler, Bitumen of stabilization among alternatives given for
(d) Coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, above problem is
mineral filler and Bitumen (a) cement stabilization
(b) Bitumen sand stabilization
13. Pick up the incorrect statement about (c) lime stabilization
Bituminous carpet (d) mechanical stabilization
(a) Thickness varies from 2 to 2.5 cm

19. ‘Ravelling’ in Bituminous pavement is due to
(b) size of stone chippings is 10 mm to 12 mm
(a) use of soft Bitumen
(c) Finally this is covered with seal coat
(b) excessive Bitumen content
(d) it is a road mix
(c) low Bitumen content
(d) use of open graded aggregates
14. ‘Sheet asphalt’ is a carpet of
(a) C.A and Bitumen
20. ‘Bleeding’ of pavement is due to
(b) C.A, F.A and Bitumen
(a) Insufficient Bitumen
(c) F.A and Bitumen
(b) excess Bitumen
(d) none of the above
(c) use of open graded aggregates
(d) dust in Bitumen
15. Expansion joints are generally provided at a
spacing of 21. ‘Reflection cracking’ is observed
(a) 50 m (b) 25 m (a) In flexible pavement
(c) 5 m (d) none (b) In rigid pavement
(c) In Bituminous over lay over rigid
16. Pick up the incorrect statement: pavement
(a) Half of the dowel bar is coated with (d) In rigid overlay over rigid pavement
Bitumen
(b) Tie bars are provided to held the
22. In Bituminous pavement, alligator cracking is
adjacent slabs tighter
due to
(c) Tie bars shall be of mild steel variety
(a) Inadequate wearing course
(d) Warping stresses are due to friction
(b) Inadequate thickness of sub base course
between C.C slab and soil base
of pavement
(c) Use of excessive Bituminous material
17. For B.C soils, the most common method of
(d) Fatigue arising from repeated stress
stabilization is
applications
(a) Cement stabilization
(b) Bitumen sand stabilization
23. ‘Bird bath’ of a pavement is 29. One of the probable causes of rutting on
(a) Localised depression flexible pavements is (GATE-96)
(b) Bleeding of Bitumen (a) Excessive stripping causes of rutting on
(c) swelling of surface flexible pavements is
(d) none of the above (b) Use of flaky aggregates in the wearing
course
24. ‘Longitudinal cracking’ is due to (c) Inadequate compact of pavement
(a) Fatigue layers
(b) Insufficient Bitumen (d) high wind speeds
(c) Frost action and difference volume
changes 30. An important purpose of prime coats is to
(d) Settlement of base layer (GATE-96)
(a) promote the bond between the base
25 ‘Mud pumping’ is a failure of
and the wearing courses
(a) Flexible pavements
(b) promote the adhesion between the
(b) Rigid pavement
base and the wearing surface and
(c) Semi rigid pavements
subsequent wearing surface
(d) all the above
(c) promote the bond between the sub
base course and the sub grade
26 The position of base course in a flexible
(d) increase the stability of the sub –
pavement is (GATE-91) grade
(a) over the sub-base
(b) below the sub – base 31. Flexible pavements derive stability primarily
(c) over the sub –grade but below the sub - from (GATE-96)
base (a) aggregate interlock, particle friction and
(d) over the wearing course when renewal cohesion
of surface is beaded (b) cohesion alone
(c) the binding power of Bituminous materials
27. The load transfer to lower layers in flexible (d) the flexible strength of the surface course
pavement is by (GATE-92) 32. The total thickness of pavement by CBR
(a) Bending action of layers method depends on the CBR value of
(b) shear deformation (GATE-97)
(c) grain to grain contact (a) base course (b) surface course
(d) Consolidation of subgrade (c) subgrade (d) all the above
28. For laying Bituminous carpet over water

33. Mud pumping is commonly associated with
bound macadam road surface, one has to
(GATE-97)
apply a (GATE-92)
(a)
Bituminous penetration macadam
(a) tack coat (b) seal coat
construction
(c) prime coat (d) slurry coat
(b) Cement concrete pavement on granular (a) Grouted macadam

subgrade (b) Premix carpet
(c) Premixed Bituminous construction (c) Bituminous or asphaltic concrete
(d) Cement concrete pavement on clay (d) Bituminous macadam
subgrade
39. The main function of prime coat is to
34. Alligator or map cracking is the common type (ESE -93)
of failure in (GATE-97) (a) provide bond between old and new
(a) Concrete pavements surfacing
(b) Bituminous surfacing (b) improve riding quality of pavement
(c) Gravel roads (c) provide bond between the existing base
(d) WBM construction and surfacing of new construction
(d) control dust nuisance
35. Base course is used in rigid pavements for
(GATE-97) 40. In the design of highways, expansion and
(a) Prevention of subgrade settlement contraction joints should respectively by
(b) Prevention provided at
(c) Prevention of slab cracking (a) 50 m and 32 m (b) 30 m and 10 m
(d) Prevention of thermal expansion (c) 25 m and 10 m (d) 25 m and 32 m

36. In order to keep the road surface dry, side 41. Which one of the following items of hill road
drains are constructed. The drains which are construction does not help in the prevention
filled with filler materials are known as of landslides in the monsoon season?
(ESE-92) (ESE -95)
(a) Jelly drains (b) Sub-soil drains (a) Retaining walls
(c) French drains (d) Scuppers (b) Catch water drains
(c) Breast walls
37. In the absence of super elevation, the (d) Hair-pin bends
formation of pot holes is generally
(ESE -92) 42. In which one of the following bituminous
(a) On the outer edge constructions, compaction by pneumatic
(b) On the inner edge roller is specified? (ESE -96)
(c) In the middle of the road (a) Premix carpet
(d) Anywhere along the width of the road (b) Bituminous macadam
(c) Bituminous concrete
38. In which of the following types of bituminous (d) Surface dressing
constructions, proportioning of materials is
determined from laboratory tests?
43. For an aggregate – soil mixture with – (a) neat the bottom of the slab
maximum size of aggregate as 60 mm, the (b) near the top of the slab
percentage of material between 6 mm and (c) at the middle
75 micron sizes for obtaining Fuller’s maximum (d) equally distributed at the top and bottom
density criterion shall be nearly
(ESE -97) 46. A road is passing is cut with impervious strata
(a) 37 (b) 35 at a depth of 0.5 m from the subgrade level.
(c) 28 (d) 15 To intercept seepage flow, a longitudinal
pipe drab in trench filled with filter material
44. Match List-I (Pavement deficiency) with List– I and clay seal is constructed. (ESE -98)
(Explanation) and select the correct answer (a) 1.75 m (b) 1.5 m
using the codes given below the lists: (c) 1.0 m (d) 0.5 m
(ESE -98)
List – I 47. For carrying out bituminous patch work during
A. Bird baths the rainy season, the most suitable binder is
B. Pot holes (ESE -99)
C. Ravelling (a) road tar
D. Subsidence (b) hot bitumen
List – II (c) cutback bitumen
1. A steep – sided, bowl shaped cavity (d) bituminous emulsion
caused by loss of surfacing as well as
base course erosion. 48. In cement concrete pavements, tie bars are
2. Deformation which may be caused by installed in (ESE -99)
localized or variable subgrade failure. (a) expansion joints
3. Irregular deformations which may be the (b) contraction joints
result of differential settlement. (c) warping joints
4. Removal of larger surface aggregates (d) longitudinal joints
leaving Craters.
5. Abrupt lowering of the road surface due 49. Assertion (A): The prime coat is an interface
to poor drainage. bituminous treatment when the existing base
Codes: A B C D course has a pervious texture like water
(a) 1 4 5 3 bound macadam.
(b) 2 1 3 5
(c) 5 2 4 3 Reason (R): The primer has to get into the
(d) 2 1 4 5 capillary voids in the existing base and it
should be of low viscosity. Bituminous emulsion
45. The general requirement in constructing a is generally used as a prime coat.
reinforced concrete road is to place a single (ESE -00)
layer of reinforcement. (ESE -98)
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct 02. A two lane road at present carrying a traffic
explanation of A of 1000 cv/day. It is to be strengthened for
(b) A and R are true and R is the not the growing traffic needs. The vehicle damage
correct explanation of A factor is 3. The rate of growth 10% per annum.
(c) A is true and R is false The period of construction is 5 years. The
(d) A is false and R is true pavement is to be designed for life of 15 years
after completion. The cumulative standard
50. Which of the following premix methods is axles used for design is (use lane distribution
used for base course? (ESE -04) factor as 0.75)
(a) bituminous carpet (a) 23 msa (b) 35 msa
(b) mastic asphalt (c) 42 msa (d) 87msa
(c) sheet asphalt
03. The following data pertains to the number of
(d) bituminous bound macadam
commercial vehicles per day for the design
of a flexible pavement for a national highway
KEY
as per IRC: 37-1984
01. (a) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (b) 05. (c) Type of Vehicles
06. (a) 07. (d) 08. (a) 09. (b) 10. (d) commercial considering Vehicle
Number of the number Damage
11. (b) 12. (d) 13.(d) 14. (c) 15. (a) vehicles per day of lanes Factor
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b) Two axle trucks 2000 5
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (b) Tandem axle
200 6
trucks
26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)
Assuming a traffic growth factor of 7.5% per
31. (a) 32.(c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c)
annum for both the types of vehicles, the
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40.(b)
cumulative number of standard axle load
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. b) repetitions (in million) for a design life of ten
46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50.(d) years is
(a) 44.6 (b) 57.8 (c) 62.4 (d) 78.7
Pavement Design 04. Calculate design repetitions for 20 years

period for various wheel loads equivalent to
01. On a soil of CBR 5 for initial traffic of 1000 cv/ 2268 kg wheel load using the following data
day. The period of construction is 5 years and for mixed traffic in both the directions is 1860
the design life is 15 years after opening to vehicles/day over a four lane road. The
traffic. The vehicle damage factor is 2.5. The details of the distribution of the wheel loads of
rate of growth of traffic is 7.5% per annum. the commercial vehicles are as given below.
What will be the cumulative standard axles The cumulative standard axles per lane of the
on the pavement in its life? road will be? Use lane distribution factor 0.4
and growth rate 7.5%.
09. Which of the following factors have to be

Percentage in total considered for the design of the flexible
Wheel load, kg
traffic volume pavement for a highway?
2268 25 1. Design wheel load
2722 12 2. Strength of pavement component material
3175 9 3. Expansion joints
3629 6 4. Climatic factors
4082 4 Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:
4536 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
4990 1
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
05. Number of load repetitions expected by 80

10. Statement (I): Bituminous roads disintegrate
kN standard axle load is 1,000, 160kN is 100,
even with light traffic, but such failures are
and 40kN is 1,000. Find the equivalent axle
not exclusively attributable to wrong surface
load and vehicle damage factor (VDF)?
treatment.
Statement (II): Improper preparation of
06. The main cause of rattling below the flexible
the subgrade and the foundation is often
pavement is
responsible for this disintegration.
(a) vehicular traffic

(b) absence of surface drainage
(c) improper mix of pavement KEY
(d) consolidation of one or more layers of 01. (34.6 msa) 02. (c) 03. (b)
pavement.
04. (F = 3.74, N = 25.86 msa) 05. (1.26)
06. (d) 07. (d) 08. (b)
07. The number of load cycles (Nf) to cause the
09. (d) 10. (a)
failure of a pavement is proportional to (P is
the respective applied load)
(a) P4 (b) P–4 Rigid Pavements
(c) P2 (d) P–1
01. A cement concrete pavement is constructed

08. Which one of the following is useful in
at a temperature of 10oC. The peak summer
functional evaluation of pavement?
temperature is 45oC. The coefficient of
(a) PCU (b) PSI
thermal expansion of concrete is 10 x 10-6 per
(c) PIEV o
C. The gap at expansion joint is 2.5 cm. The
(d)Bankelman beam
spacing of expansion joint is
(a) 35.7 m (b) 45m
(c) 55 m (d) 75 m
Common Data for Questions 02 & 03 Common Data for Questions 06 & 07
The rigid pavement of thickness 20 cm has A 20 cm thick cement concrete slab has a width
coefficient of relative stiffness 8 kg/cm ; Poisson’s 3 of 3.75m; f= 1.5 The allowable tensile stresses in
ratio 0.15; Young’s modulus of concrete 3 x 10 kg/ 5 concrete is 0.8 kg/cm2; The allowable tensile stress
cm2; coefficient of thermal expansion 10 x 10-6/oc; in reinforcing steel is 1200 kg/cm2; 10 mm diameter
The Bradbury coefficients at edge are cx = 0.92 bars at a spacing of 300 mm spacing is used. (Use
and cY = 0.72 respectively; temperature change is γc = 2400 kg/m3 for both PCC & RCC).
16.2oC. Radius of contact area between tyre and
the road surface is 15 cm. 06. The spacing of contraction joints in plain
cement concrete pavement is
02. Wapring stress at the edge is; (a) 2.2 m c/c (b) 2.75 m c/c
(a) 22.35 kg/cm2 (b) 34.65 kg/cm2 (c) 4.4 m c/c (d) 6.7 m c/c
(c) 45.75 kg/cm2 (d) 67.8 kg/cm2
07. The spacing of contraction joints in RCC
03. Wapring stress at corner is pavement is
(a) 2.18 kg/cm2 (b) 3.45 kg/cm2 (a) 4.2 m c/c (b) 6.57 m c/c
(c) 4.55 kg/cm2 (d) 8.75 kg/cm2 (c) 8.7 m c/c (d) 9.24 m c/c
08. A CC pavement of slab thickness 20 cm is

Common Data for Questions 04 & 05
placed over a soil with coefficient of friction as
A cement concrete pavement of thickness 18 cm,
1.2 the length of the pavement between two
has two lanes of 7.2 m with a longitudinal joint. With
successive contraction joints is 4m, width of
thickness of slab = 18 cm, Total width of pavement
the slab panel is 3 m , the density of concrete
=7.2, Permissible stress in steel in tension, ss = 1700
is 2400 kg/m3. The frictional stress developed
kg/cm2, Density of concrete = 2400 kg/m3, f = 1.5
during peak winter is
permissible bond stress in steel, sb=24.6 kg/cm2;
(a) 0.58 kg/cm2 (b)0.82 kg/cm2
Diameter of the bars used 10 mm
(c) 0.98 kg/cm2 (d) 1.1 kg/cm2
04. The spacing of tie bars is :

09. Reinforcement in concrete pavement
(a)550mm c/c (b)650 mm c/c
(a) 7 cm below top level
(c)750 mm c/c (d)850 mm c/c
(b) 5 cm above the bottom level
(c) in the centre of the slab
05. Minimum length of the tie bar is;
(d) in the bottom of the slab
(a) 30 cm (b) 35 cm
(c) 45 cm (d) 55 cm
10. Given that
r = radius of load distribution
E = modulus of elasticity of concrete
K = modulus of subgrade reaction
µ = Poisson’s ratio of concrete
h = thickness of slab 3. In a flexible pavement, any deformation

P = wheel load in the top layers is transferred to underlaid
The combination of parameters required for layers; but, in rigid pavements, there is
obtaining the radius of relative stiffness of slab or beam action due to which any
cement concrete slab is (ESE – 1995) deformation is only in the top layer of the
(a) E, K, µ, r (b) h, K, µ, r concrete slab.
(c) E, h, K, µ (d) P, h, K, µ Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
11. Assertion (A): Load stresses added to warping
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
stresses are considered while determining the
thickness of pavement
Reason (R): Joints and sealing devices are KEY
used to relieve and/or take care of warping 01. (a) 02. (a) 03. (d) 04. (a) 05. (b)
stresses, and the design for thickness is
06. (c) 07. (c) 08. (a) 09. (b) 10. (c)
accordingly based upon load alone.
Codes: 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b)
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a Traffic Engineering
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R true 01. If the spot speeds in kmph are 50, 40, 60,54
and 45, then the time mean speed and
12. Assertion (A): The critical combination of space mean speed are
stresses on a cement concrete pavement (a) 49.8 &48.82 kmph
during summer is given by load stress – (b) 49.8 & 49.8 kmph
warping stress + frictional stress. (c) 48.82 & 49.8 kmph
Reason (R): The critical combination of (d)48.82& 48.82 kmph
stresses in a cement concrete pavement
during winter is given by load stress + warping 02. The results of a speed study is given in the
stress + frictional stress. form of a frequency distribution table. The
time mean speed and space mean speed
3. Consider the following statements regarding respectively are
pavements: Speed range (mps) Frequency (pcu / hr)
1. Rigid pavements are more suitable 2.5 1
than flexible pavements for stage
7.5 4
construction.
11.5 0
2. Rigid pavements are more affected
15.5 7
by temperature variations than flexible
pavements.
(a) 11.75 and 8.66 mps 06. A single lane unidirectional highway has a
(b) 12.67 and 2.36 mps design speed of 65 kmph. The perception –
(c) 23.78 and 4.67 mps brake –reaction time of drivers is 2.5 seconds
(d) 11.23 and 2.67 mps and the average length of vehicles is 5m.
The coefficient of longitudinal friction of the
03. Three vehicles are traveling a kilometer pavement is 0.4. The capacity of this road in
segment of a highway and the following terms of ‘vehicles’ per hour per lane’ is
observations are made. (a) 1440 (b) 750
Vehicle – A : 1.2 min (c) 710 (d) 680
Vehicle – B : 1.5 min
Vehicle – C : 1.7 min 07. The theoretical capacity of a traffic lane in
What is space mean speed of vehicles? vehicle / hour / lane with one way traffic
flow at a stream speed of 40 kmph. Assume
04. Calculate design rate of flow of vehicles average length of vehicles is 5.0m.
based on peak hour flow (PHF)? (a) 2830 (b) 3130
(c) 4380 (d) 4830
Time period Volume (Vehicles)
4.00-4.15 pm 700 08. On a highway if the velocity of the moving
4.16 – 4.30 pm 812 vehicle on a lane is 40 kmph, stopping
4.31 – 4.45 pm 1000 distance is 20, the length of rigid wheel base
4.46 – 5.00 pm 635 if 6m then the flow of the traffic is
(a) 1200 vehicles per hour
(b) 1538 vehicles per hour
05. The survey on spot speed study at a section of
(c) 2000 vehicles per hour
a highway is given below. Determine
(d) 2400 vehicles per hour
(i) safe speed
(ii) design speed
09. If the standard deviation of the spot speed
(iii) minimum speed on the highway.
of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and the

Speed No of Speed No of mean speed of the vehicles is 33kmph, the
range vehicles range vehicles coefficient of variation in speed is
kmph observed in kmph observed (a) 0.1517 (b) 0.1867
0-10 10 50-60 250 (c) 0.2666 (d) 0.3646
10-20 40 60-70 300
20-30 50 70-80 90 10. On an urban road, the free mean speed
30-40 50 80-90 40 was measured as 70 kmph and the average
spacing between the vehicles under jam
40-50 150 90-100 20
condition as 7.0 m. The speed-flow-density
equation with linear speed-density is given by
U U sf ;1 k E and q Uk
k

j
Where, 14. The jam density on a free way is 130 veh/km,

U = space-mean speed (kmph); at a density of 100 veh/km, speed is 30 kmph.
Usf = free mean speed (kmph); Determine maximum flow using Greenberg’s
k = density (veh/km); model.
kj = jam density (veh/km);
q = flow (veh/hr). 15. A roundabout is provided with an average
The maximum flow (veh/hr) per lane for this entry width of 8.4m, width of weaving
conditions is equal to section as 14m, and length of the weaving
(a) 2000 (b) 2500 section between channelizing islands as
(c) 3000 (d) None of these 35m. The crossing traffic and total traffic on
the weaving section are 1000 and 2000 PCU
11. A linear relationship is observed between per hour respectively. The nearest rounded
speed and density on a certain section of capacity of the roundabout (in PCU per hour)
a highway. The free flow speed is observed is
to be 80 km per hour and the jam density is (a)3300 (b) 3733
estimated as 100 vehicles per km length. Based (c) 4500 (d) 5200
on the above relationship, the maximum flow
expected on this section and the speed at 16. Determine the capacity of rotary road way
the maximum flow will respectively be for the following data: width of weaving
(a) 8000 vehicles per hour and 80km per hour section 6m length of weaving section 20 m
(b) 8000 vehicles per hour and 25km per hour proportion of weaving traffic 0.5 average
(c) 2000 vehicles per hour 80km per hour width of the rotary road 5.5 m
(d) 2000 vehicles per hour and 40km per hour
17. Four legs in a rotary intersection are
12. A two lane road with one way traffic has a designated as 1,2,3 and 4. The traffic volume
maximum capacity of 1700 veh/h per lane. s (Vij) in terms of PCU/hour are given below.
Under the jam condition average length What is the proportion of weaving traffic
occupied by the vehicles is 5.5m. The speed to the total traffic in the weaving section
versus density relationship is linear. For a traffic between legs 2 and 3 ? What is the use of this
volume of 1000veh/hr, the minimum and value?
maximum density (in veh/km) respectively.
V12 150 V21 310 V31 1520 V41 30
V13 450 V23 200 V32 570 V42 1080

13. In a linear speed density model Free flow
V14 412 V24 1090 V34 240 V43 600
speed is 50kmph, jam density is 70 veh/km. at
a particular condition it is observed that there
are 20 vehicles on a lane in 1 km length of
road. The average speed on the road is ……..
18. For designing a 2- phase fixed type signal at

40
Cumulative arrival or departure

an intersection having north-south and east-
west road where only straight ahead traffic s 30 Cumulative
(No. of vehicles)
arrival
permitted, the following data is available. The
20
time lost per cycle is 12 seconds. The cycle
length (seconds) as per Webster’s approach 10
Cumulative
Departure
is
0
0 10 20 30 40 50
Parameter North South East West Time(s)
Design hour
1000 700 900 550 (a) 15 s (b) 25 s
flow(PCU/hr)
(c) 35 s (d) 45 s
Saturation flow
2500 2500 3000 3000
(PCU/hr)
22. Design parameters for a signalized intersection
(a) 67 (b) 77 (c) 87 (d) 91
are shown in the figure below. The green time
calculated for major and minor roads are 34
19. In signal design as per Indian Roads Congress
and 18s, respectively. The critical lane volume
specifications, if the sum of the ratios of normal
on the major road changes to 440 vehicles
flows to saturation flow of two directional
per hour per lane and the critical lane volume
traffic flow is 0.50 and the total lost time per
on the minor road remains unchanged. The
cycle is 10 seconds, the optimum cycle length
green time will
in seconds is
(a) increase for the major road and remain
(a) 100 (b) 80 (c) 60 (d) 40
same for the minor road.
(b) Increase for the major road and decrease
20. An intersection approach has an approach
for the minor road.
flow rate of 1000vph, a saturation flow rate of
(c) Decrease for both the roads.
2800vph, a cycle length of 90s, and effective
(d) Remain unchanged for both the roads.
green ratio for the approach 0.55. what
average delay per vehicle is expected under
7 m wide road,
these conditions? Also what is the critical minor road 2 lane
capacity of the lane? 180vph
Turns
21. The cumulative arrival and departure curve of
prohibited
one cycle of an approach lane of a signalized 660 vph (total right ward traffic)
intersection is shown in the adjoining figure. 550vph(total left ward traffic)
The cycle time is 50 s and the effective red Major road 4 lane
divided 14 m wide
time is 30 s and the effective green time is 20
s. What the average delay? 180vph
23. The cycle time of an intersection is 60

seconds, the green time for a phase is 27 54
seconds, and the corresponding yellow time
is 4 seconds. If the saturation headway is 2.4
seconds/vehicle, the start-up lost time is 2 6
seconds/phase, and the clearance lost time 3

is 1 second/phase, what is the capacity of
the movement per lane in veh/hr?
(a) 700 (b) 600 (c) 500 (d) 400 12
Combination Phase Phase Phase

24. A student riding a bike on a 5 km one way Choice I II III
street takes 40minutes to reach home. The P 1, 4 2, 5 3, 6
student stopped for 15 minutes during this Q 1, 2 4, 5 3, 6
ride. 60 vehicles overtook the student (
R 2, 5 1, 3 4, 6
assuming the number of vehicles overtaken
S 1, 4 2, 6 3, 5
by the student is zero) during the ride and
45 vehicles while the student stopped. The (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
speed of vehicle stream on that road (kmph ) 27. A driver traveling at the speed limit of 60 was
is? cited for crossing an intersection. He claimed
(a) 7.5 (b) 12 (c) 40 (d) 60 that duration of the amber display was
improper and consequently, a dilemma zone
25. On a section of a highway the speed and existed at that location.
density relationship is linear and is given by Amber duration = 4 sec
v=(80-0.75k) where v is in kmph and k is in Perception reaction = 1.5 sec
veh/h, the capacity of the section of highway Comfortable deceleration = 3 m/sec2
(in veh/hr) is Car length = 4.0 m
Intersection width = 14 m
26. A three-phase traffic signal at an intersection What is the minimum all red time required in
is designed for flows shown in the figure seconds to avoid drivers confusion
below. There are six groups of flows identified
28. Vehicles arriving at an intersection from one
by the numbers 1 through 6. Among these 1,
of the approach roads follows the Poisson
3, 4 and 6 are through flows and 2 and 5 are
distribution. The mean rate of arrival is 900
right turning. Which phasing scheme is not
vehicles per hour. If a gap is defined as the
feasible?
time difference between two successive
vehicle arrivals (with vehicles assumed to be
points), the probability (up to four decimal
places) that the gap is greater than 8 seconds
is ________
29. Consider the following situations:

Railway Engineering
1. Traffic volume entering from all roads is
less than 3000 vehicles per hour
2. Pedestrian volume is high 01. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
3. Total right turning traffic is high answer using the codes given below the lists:
4. A road in a hilly region (IES-1995)
A rotary will be more suitable than control by List-I
signals, in situations listed against A. Shovel B. Crow bars
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 C. Rail tongs D. Claw bars
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 List-II
1. To lift rail
30. Assertion (A): Prohibitory signs are part of 2. To remove dog spikes out of sleepers
regulatory signs which give a definite negative 3. To correct track alignment
instruction regarding movement prohibition, 4. To handle the ballast
restriction on weight, or speed of vehicles
Reason (R): According to the IRC Standards, Codes:
prohibitory signs are of octagonal shape with A B C D
side being 900 mm and with a white border (a) 3 4 2 1
and red background for the standard size (b) 4 3 1 2
Of these statements (c) 4 3 2 1
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the (d) 3 4 1 2
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a 02. Match List-I (Track parameter) with List-II
correct explanation of A (Equipments used) and select the correct
(c) A is true but R is false answer using the codes gives below the lists:
(d) A is false but R is true (IES-2003)
List-I List-II
KEY A. Unevenness 1. Track recording car
01. (a) 02. (a) 03. (41 kmph) 04. (4000 vph) B. Gauge 2. Amsler car
05. (i) 85% (60-70) kmph (ii) 98% (80-90) kmph C. Super elevation 3. Feeler and spring
(iii) 15% (30-40) kmph D. Alignment 4.Gyroscopic
06. (c) 07. (b) 0.8 (b) 0.9 (c) 10. (b) pendulum
11. (d) 12. (149 veh/km) 13. (35.7 kmph) Codes:
14. (5468 veh/hr) 15. (b) 16. (2064.10 veh/hr) A B C D
17. (0.8%) 18. (b) 19. (d) (a) 2 3 1 4
20. (14.23/veh, 1540 veh/hr) 21. (a) 22. (a) (b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 2 3 4 1
23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (2140 veh/hr) 26. (c)
(d) 3 2 1 4
27. (1.36 sec) 28. (0.1353) 29. (a) 30. (c)
03. Assertion (A): Packing is the method of forcing

Airport Engineering
and packing stone ballast below the sleepers
by ramming with a beater-cum-pick axe.
Reason(R): At points and crossings, packing 01. The length of a runway under standard
is carried out by lifting the track by means of conditions is 2100m. The airport is to be
track jack and requisite quantity of stone chips provided at an elevation of 300 m above the
is evenly spread below the sleepers by shovel mean sea level. What is length of runway
after elevation correction?
and the ships are allowed to consolidate by
(a) 2247 m (b) 2357 m
running trains. (IES-2003)
(c) 1987 m (d) 2013 m
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
02. For a runway at an elevation of 1000m above
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a
MSL and airport reference temperature of
correct explanation of A 16oC, the rise in temperature to be taken into
(c) A is true but R is false account as per ICAO is
(d) A is false but R is true (a) 24.5oC (b) 15oC
(c) 7.5oC (d) 6oC
04. Which of the following are related to
maintenance of railway track? 03. An airport is proposed at a location which
1. Jim crow and gauge bar is 486 m above MSL. The basic runway
2. Through packing and boxing length is computed as 2460 m. The local
3. Buffer stop and sand hump meteorological observatory has recorded
4. Creep adjustment the following information:
(a) Monthly average of the maximum daily
Select the correct answer using the codes
temperature of the hottest month of the
given below:
year= 46.3oC.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Monthly average of the daily
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
temperature of the hottest month of the
year=30.2oC. It is proposed to limit the
05. Assertion (A): The pandrol clip is a fit and effective gradient of the runway to 0.75.
forget type of fastening and is made from What is length of runway after temperature
silicon manganese spring steel bar and heat correction?
treated.
Reason (R): The pandrol clip has a point 04. The runway length after correcting for
contact and causes indentation on the rail elevation and temperature is 2845m. If the
due to heavy toe load and small contact. effective gradient on runway is 0.5percent,
(IES-2010) the revised runway length will be
KEY (a) 2845m (b) 2910m
(c) 3030m (d) 3130m
01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (b)
05. At a certain station, the mean of the average 09. The monthly mean of maximum daily
temperature is 25oC and mean of the temperature and monthly mean of average
maximum daily temperature is 40 C. What is o
daily temperature of the hottest month of the
the airport reference temperature (ART)? year are 49°C and 40°C respectively. Then
(a) 46.6 C o
(b) 45 C o
airport reference temperature is
(c) 35 C
o
(d) 30 Co
(IES-2003)
(a) 43°C (b) 69.6°C
06. The length of a runway under standard
(c) 37°C (d) 52°C
conditions is 1640 m. The airport site has
an elevation of 280 m and its reference
10. Consider the following aircraft operations:
temperature is 33.5oC. if the runway is to be
1. Normal landing.
constructed with an effective gradient of 0.20
2. Normal take – off with all engines.
percent, determine the corrected runway
3. Engine failure at take – off
length?
4. Emergency landing with all engines shut
07. What is effective gradient of the runways site 5. Landing with maximum payload with the
from the levelling data given below. help of ILS
End to end of Grade Which of the above aircraft operations are
runway (m) (per cent) taken into consideration in deciding the basic
(i) 0 to 300 +1.00 runway length required for an aircraft?
(ii) 300 to 900 – 0.50 (IES-2004)
(iii) 900 to 1500 +0.50
(iv) 1500 to 1800 +1.00 11. A runway is located 450 m above the mean
(v) 1800 to 2100 – 0.50 sea level. If the aeroplane reference field is
(vi) 2100 to 2700 – 0.40 1800 m, what is the approximate corrected
(vii) 2700 to 3000 – 0.10 runway length for elevation?
(IES-2006)
08. Which of the following factors are taken into (a) 1849 m (b) 1889 m
account for estimating the runway length (c) 1987 m (d) 2013 m
required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature 12. For design of a runway length, match list – I
2. Airport elevation (Factor) with List – II (Correction) and select
3. Maximum landing weight the correct answer using the codes given
4. Effective runway gradient below the list: (IES-2006)
Select the correct answer using the codes List – I
given below: (IES-1997) A. Standard basic length
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 B. Elevation
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 C. Temperature
D. Effective gradient

List – II (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

1. 7% for every 303 metres explanation of A
2. 0.5% (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a
3. 20% for each 1% gradient correct explanation of A
4. Depends upon aircraft and obtained from (c) A is true but R is false
ICAO Standard Tables (d) A is false but R is true
Codes:
A B C D 16. Airplane is cruising at a speed of 800 km/h at
(a) 4 1 2 3 an altitude where the air temperature is zero
(b) 2 3 4 1 degrees centigrade. The match number of
(c) 4 3 2 1 the flight at this speed is nearly
(d) 2 1 4 3 (IES-2010)
(a) 1.3 (b) 0.67
13. The total correction percentage for altitude
(c) 0.25 (d) 2.4
and temperature, in calculating the runway
length from basic runway length, normally
does not exceed (IES-2006) KEY
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 28 (d) 35 01. (a) 02. (c) 03. (3321m) 04. (d) 05. (d)
14. As the elevation increases, the runway length 06. (2186 m) 07. (0.2%) 08. (d) 09. (a) 10. (a)
has to be changed at what rate? 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)
(IES-2007) 16. (b)

(a) Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in
elevation above MSL
(b) Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in elevation
Harbour Engineering
above MSL
(c) Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in 01. A ship is berthed in a chamber and lifted by
elevation above MSL principles of buoyancy. Such a chamber is
(d) Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in called (IES-97)
elevation above MSL (a) dry dock (b) wet dock
(c) floating dock (d) refuge dock
15. Assertion (A): Wind Rose Diagram, showing
wind direction, duration and intensity are an 02. Match List – I (Description) with List – II
essential requirement for planning the best (Structure) and select the correct answer
direction of main runway of the airport. using the codes given below the lists:
Reason(R): Corrections for elevation (IES-98)
temperature and gradient have to be List – I
applied to determine the length of the A. Constructed approximately perpendic-
main runway of an airport, as per ICAO ular to the shore to retard erosion of an
recommendations. existing beach.
B. Structures that are placed parallel to the 05. Consider the following factors: (IES-99)
shoreline to separate the land from the 1. Size and type of ship served
water 2. Availability of materials
C. Built roughly perpendicular to the shore 3. Wharf configuration
for maintaining an entrance channel. 4. Mooring procedures
D. Built generally parallel to the shoreline to The spaces required alongside a wharf for
protect a shore area. berthing would depend upon factors
List – II (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1. Jetties 2. Breakwater (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
3. Seawalls 4. Groynes
5. Wharves 06. The phenomenon of movement and
Codes: deposition of sand in a zig – zag style due
A B C D to drifting of sand in the vicinity of coast is

(a) 4 3 1 5 called (IES-00)

(b) 5 2 4 3 (a) littoral drift (b) sedimentation
(c) 1 4 5 3 (c) beach drift (d) trough action

(d) 4 3 1 2
07. Match List – I (Structure) with List – II (Purpose)
03. How many hectares of anchorage area will
and select the correct answer using the codes
be required by a 181m long ship anchored by
given below the lists: (IES-00)
a single anchor in a harbour of 15m depth ?
List – I
(IES-98)
A. Breakwater
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 20
B. Wharf
C. Fender system
04. Assertion (A): The open type of wharf
D. Reventments
substructure is expensive in deep – water
List – II
locations where, however, a low – level super
1. Separates the land from sea water
– structure is required.
2. Lays vessels alongside, receives and
Reason (R): Open type of wharf substructure
discharges cargo and passengers
offers little restriction to water movements;
3. Protects a seashore
hence it can be used to support piers in rivers
4. Absorbs the energy of the moving vessel
and coastal areas alike. (IES 1998)
5. Retards erosion of an existing beach
Codes:
explanation of A.
A B C D
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a
(a) 5 2 4 3
correct explanation of A.

(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) A is false but R is true

(d) 1 4 3 5
08. The lowest tide which occurs in half lunar 13. Assertion (A): Wet docks are enclosed or
month is called (IES-00) partially enclosed basins provided with locks
(a) spring tide (b) neap tide and entrance gates to keep the water at
(c) lunar tide (d) tidal bore fairly constant level for allowing vessels to
come in, berth or leave at all times.
09. In deep water waves, individual particles Reason (R): Wet docks require expensive
(IES-01) arrangements like lock gate and the walls are
(a) are translated designed to withstand backfill pressure when
(b) are translated and rotated in a vertical the dock is full (IES-03)
plane about a horizontal axis
(c) are not translated, but they rotate in a 14. Assertion (A): Breakwaters are common in
vertical plane about a horizontal axis natural harbours.
(d) do no rotate in a vertical plane about a Reason (R): Breakwaters help in controlling
horizontal axis. wave action and sand movement into the
harbour area. (IES-04)
10. Assertion (A): The most common approach for
control of beach erosion is to build groyness. 15. Which one of the following is the best method
Reason (R): Groynes are constructed parallel for locating soundings to estimate the
to the shore. (IES-01) dredged material from the harbours?
(IES-05)
11. Consider the following factors: (IES-02)
(a) Two angles from shore
1. Mass of ships to be berthed
(b) Two angles from boat
2. Overall transit time
(c) One angle from shore and other from the
3. Speed of berthing
boat
4. Environmental conditions of the port
(d) Fixed intersecting ranges
Which of these factors are taken into account
while selecting the type of fender system ?
16. Why are moorings provided? (IES-05)
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
(a) For anchoring of ships
(c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 1 and 4
(b) For towing the ships to the sea
12. Assertion (A): The principal advantage of the (c) For repair of ships
solid fill type of wharf substructure is that its (d) For washing of ships and ship boards
great mass provides adequate resistance to

the impact of mooring ships. 17. What is the use of a station pointer? (IES-05)
Reason (R): Solid fill substructures are (a) For making soundings in water bodies
inexpensive (except in deep water) and (b) For Plotting of soundings in harbour area
require little maintenance. (IES-02) (c) For marking sunken shipping hazards
(d) For making tidal observations
18. Consider the following statements: List – I

(IES-05) A. Dolphins B. Groynes
1. Dock is a marine structure for mooring C. Fenders D. Silpways
up vessels, loading and unloading of List – II
passengers and/or cargo. 1. To protect the beach or retained earth
2. Dry dock is generally used only for 2. To cushion to absorb shock of ship during
carrying out repairs, inspections and loading and un – loading
painting. 3. Mooring structure in combination with
3. Wet dock is an enclosed or partially loading platform
closed basin provided with locks and 4. Repairing and building ship
entrance gate to keep the water level at Codes:
a fairly constant level. A B C D
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 4 3 1
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2 & 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 & 2 (d) 1 & 3
(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 3 4 2 1
19. Which of the following is not correct for
container ports? (IES-07) 22. What is the minimum turning radius for a
(a) The berth capacity is great passenger ship? (IES-08)
(b) Overall transit time is less (a) 2 × ship length
(c) There is minimal damage to cargo (b) 3 × ship length
(d) Minimal land is required for the (c) (1.5 ×ship length) + water depth
marshalling area (d) (2 × ship length) + (1.5 × draft)
20. Consider the following statements associated 23. Which of the following pairs are correctly
with groynes: (IES-00) matched? (IES-08)
1. Hydraulic behavior of a system of groynes 1. Vishakahpatnam and Plymouth:
is influenced by the characteristics of Semi- natural harbor
particles that constitute the littoral drift. 2. Paradip and Mangalore : Lagoon
2. Groyne is constructed approximately harbour
parallel to shore. 3. New York : Natural harbour
Which of these statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Match List – I (Harbour structure) with List–II
(Purpose) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists: (IES-08)
24. Echo – sounding machine is used for which of (a) 10 years (b) 16 years
the following? (IES-08) (c) 19 years (d) 25 years
1. Locating objects on sea – shore
2. Measuring sea – surface levels 27. On which of the following factors will be
3. Determining depth of sea – bed below selection of the type of Groyne depend?
sea surface 1. Availability of material
4. Locating sunken objects below sea 2. Foundation condition
surface 3. Presence or absence of marine borers
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. Topography of the beach
given below: 5. The height, period and angle of attack of
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 approaching waves
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: (IES-09)
25. Match List – I (Components) with List – II (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(Function) and select the correct answer (c) 1 and 2 (d) 5 alone
using the codes given below the lists:
(IES-08) 28. The zig zag deposition and movement of
List – I sand on sea beach is called.
A. Keel and Bilge blocks (IES-10)
B. Capstons and Bolards (a) littoral drift (b) beach drift
C. Fenders (c) trough action (d)sedimentation
D. Buoys
List – II 29. Assertion (A): in the overall design and layout
1. Impact absorbers of quay walls of the harbor (or port) differentiation is made
2. Floating indicators between ‘entrance’ and ‘channel’ depths.
3. Supports for ships in dry docks Reason (R): the ‘scend’ (or pitching) of a
4. Anchorage devices for ships vessel may be larger at the entrance to the
Codes: channel than within the channel
A B C D (IES -10)

(a) 3 4 1 2 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

(b) 4 3 1 2 explanation of A.

(c) 4 3 2 1 (b) Both A and R are true and R is not a

(d) 3 4 2 1 correct explanation of A.
26. Mean sea level at Indian ports and harbours (d) A is false but R is true
has generally been established based on the
analysis of tidal sea level fluctuations over
which period? (IES-08)
30. Which one of the groyne arrangement

represents an attracting groyne? (IES 2011)
KEY
(a) (b) 01. (c) 02. (a) 03. (d) 04. (b) 05. (c)
06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (a) 09. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (a)
Flow direction Flow direction
26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (d)
(c)
(d)
Tunnel Engineering
01. In “full face” method of constructing tunnel,

the first operation relates to
Flow direction
(IES-96)
(a) removal of bottom portion
31. In the offshore region at a particular harbour (b) excavation of one drift in the centre
facility, an oscillatory wave train approaches (c) removal of top portion
with wavelength of 80 m where the mean sea (d) excavation being done along the
depth is 30 m. What would be the velocity of perimeter
the individual waves?
(ESE-18) 02. Match List – I (Shape of tunnel) with List–II
(a) 17.15 m/s (b) 16.05 m/s (Suitable for) and select the correct answer
(c) 15.15 m/s (d) 14.05 m/s using the codes given below the lists:
(IES-97)
32. For proper planning of harbours, oscillatory List – I
waves in the relevant off-shore region must A. Circular section
be taken into account. If the sea depth is 30 B. Horse – shoe section
m and an oscillatory waves train is observed C. Egg – shaped
to have wavelength of 50 m, what would be D. Segmental – roof section
the velocity of the individual waves? List – II
(ESE-18) 1. soft rock 2. hard rock
(a) 9.43 m/s (b) 9.21 m/s 3. carrying water 4. sewers
(c) 9.08 m/s (d) 8.83 m/s 5. subways
Codes: A B C D 05. Which one of the following is a component of

(a) 3 4 2 1 a shield for tunneling? (IES-99)
(b) 3 1 4 5 (a) Liner plate (b) Trench jack
(c) 2 1 4 3 (c) Stiffener (d) Cutting edge
(d) 1 2 3 5
06. Which one of the following methods of
03. Which one of the following is considered to be tunneling is used in hard rock? (IES-05)
an advantage of the heading and benching (a) Fore poling method
method of tunnel construction? (IES-97) (b) Needle beam method
(a) it is suitable for construction in unstable (c) Heading and benching method
(b) in this method, it is easy to install timber (d) Shield tunneling method
support
(c) tunneling can be continuous and the 07. Tunnel alignment is carried out by (IES-01)
work can be expedited. (a) surface theodolite traverse
(d) In case of excessive water, it is easy to (b) triangulation
take corrective steps. (c) compass traverse
(d) aerial photography
04. Match List – I (Shape of tunnel) with List–II
08. With reference to tunneling, which of the
(Attribute for preference) and select the
following factors are to be considered for
correct answer using the codes given below
deciding the size of the shaft? (IES-01)
the lists: (IES-98)
1. System used for hoisting
List – I
2. Size of the muck car
A. Horse – shoe section
3. Quantity of muck to be lifted
B. Circular
4. Eventual use of the shaft
C. Egg – shaped
Select the correct answer using the codes
D. Segmental roof section
given below:
List – II
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
1. Gives self – cleaning velocity even in
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and
dryweather flow
2. Suitable for soft rocks
09. Which one of these methods of Tunnel
3. Best suited for non – cohesive soils
Construction is not suitable in rocks? (IES-02)
4. Suitable for soft materials
(a) Full face method
5. Suitable for sub – bays
(b) Compressed air method
Codes:
(c) Heading and benching method
A B C D
(d) Drift method
(a) 2 3 4 5
(b) 5 4 1 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 5
10. Match List – I (Method) with List – II (Suitability) 12. Consider the following statements with
and select the correct answer using the respect to tunneling methods:
codes given below the lists: (IES-03) (IES-05)
List – I 1. Full face excavation is suitable for small
A. Full face method size tunnel of short length in competent
B. Heading and Bench method rock. It is not suitable in urban areas.
C. Drift method 2. Heading and benching method is
D. American method suitable for soft rock tunnelling of medium
List – II size.
1. For tunneling of large cross – section area 3. Drift method is suitable for large tunnels in
through soft ground driving a top drift difficult or incompetent rock.
and then widening the sides. Which of these statements are correct?
2. For rock tunneling carried out first in (a) 1 & 3 (b) 1, 2 & 3
smaller section of the proposed tunnel (c) 2 & 3 (d) 1 & 2
and then widened.
3. For driving the top portion in advance of 13. A mucking operation is to be carried out by
the bottom portion for very large tunnel hauling trucks of 6 m3 capacity. Further,
section in unstable rocks. 1. Volume of muck per blast = 60 m3
4. For tunneling of small cross – section 2. Time allotted for mucking is 60 minutes
area in stable rock attacking the whole with operating efficiency = 50 minutes
section at a time. per hour.
Codes: A B C D 3. Effective cycle time of hauling truck = 25
(a) 2 1 4 3 min.
(b) 4 3 2 1 What is the number of hauling trucks required
(c) 4 1 2 3 for mucking?
(d) 2 3 4 1 (IES-06)
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
11. Assertion (A): Open cut is economical than
tunneling for depths of over burden less than 14. Which one of the following methods is
20meters. generally considered the best for tunnel
Reason (R): Heading and Bench method is ventilation?
suitable for tunneling in soft soils. (IES-03) (IES-07)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Driving the drift through the tunnel
explanation of A (b) ‘Blow in’ method
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a (c) ‘Blow out’ method
correct explanation of A (d) Combination of ‘Blow in’ and ‘Blow out’
(c) A is true but R is false methods
(d) A is false but R is true
15. Which one of the following methods of 17. How can additional access, quick removal of
tunneling is employed if the strata is sub - muck and natural ventilation in long tunnels
aqueous? (IES-08) be achieved? (IES-08)
(a) Shield tunneling (a) By providing jumbos and pumps
(b) Drift system (b) By providing scaffolding and liner plates
(c) Liner plate method (c) By providing conduits and shafts
(d) Pilot tunnel method (d) By providing pilot tunnels and well points
16. Weisbach Triangle method may be used for

KEY
which one of the following? (IES-08)
(a) To carry out surface alignment of a tunnel 01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (a) 04. (d) 05. (d)
(b) To transfer levels underground for a 06. (c) 07. (b) 08. (d) 09. (b) 10. (b)
tunnel 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c)
(c) To connect surface and underground 16. (d) 17. (c)
tunnel surveys
(d) To connect two ends of an underground
tunnel

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ACE

Number of villages with

No of villages with population ranges

(a) RSPQ (b) PQRS (c) RPSQ (d) PQSP

Highway Allignment & Surveys Highway Geometric Design - Gradients

KEY 04. While designing a hill road with a ruling

05. If the difference in elevation between the

kmph. The road surface is dry and f = 0.75. Zone Y

12. Total reaction time of a driver does not

List –II 02. On two way traffic road

11. (900.79) 12. (d) 13. (c)

A car travelling at 22.22 mps is overtaking another inner edge

way undivided highway. The acceleration of the

KEY for Objective Practice Questions Common Data for Questions 04 to 06

04. Super elevation required on a road, when full

01. The ruling minimum radius of the curve, in m,

05. The transitional property of a lemniscate

04. The length of summit curve is

09. If R is the radius of the curve and L is the length

D. Stabilometer and Cohesion-meter test 11. (d) 12. (d)

12. Bituminous concrete is a homogenous mix of (c) lime stabilization

Bituminous carpet (d) mechanical stabilization

(a) Thickness varies from 2 to 2.5 cm

28. For laying Bituminous carpet over water

(b) Cement concrete pavement on granular (a) Grouted macadam

Pavement Design 04. Calculate design repetitions for 20 years

09. Which of the following factors have to be

4082 4 Select the correct answer using the codes

05. Number of load repetitions expected by 80

01. A cement concrete pavement is constructed

08. A CC pavement of slab thickness 20 cm is

04. The spacing of tie bars is :

h = thickness of slab 3. In a flexible pavement, any deformation

Where, 14. The jam density on a free way is 130 veh/km,

V13 450 V23 200 V32 570 V42 1080

18. For designing a 2- phase fixed type signal at

Cumulative arrival or departure

capacity of the lane? 180vph

23. The cycle time of an intersection is 60

seconds/phase, and the clearance lost time 3

Combination Phase Phase Phase

29. Consider the following situations:

20. (14.23/veh, 1540 veh/hr) 21. (a) 22. (a) (b) 3 2 1 4

03. Assertion (A): Packing is the method of forcing

List – II (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

(IES-2007) 16. (b)

great mass provides adequate resistance to

18. Consider the following statements: List – I

30. Which one of the groyne arrangement

01. In “full face” method of constructing tunnel,

Codes: A B C D 05. Which one of the following is a component of

16. Weisbach Triangle method may be used for

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