RC From BigBook by GRE Center PDF

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c¨v‡mR¸‡jv‡K WU hy³ msL¨v w`‡q wPwýZ weMey‡Ki c¨v‡mR I cÖkœ mwbœ‡ewkZ
Kiv n‡q‡Q †hLv‡b cÖ_g msL¨vwU g~j n‡q‡Q| bgybv wnmv‡e †KejgvÎ 1.1 p1
weMey‡Ki †U÷ bs Ges wØZxq msL¨vwU c¨v‡mRwU cÖkœ mn Abyev` K‡i †Ìqv
D³ †U‡÷i Aax‡b cÖ_g ev wØZxq n‡q‡Q (see page 7)| †Kvb c¨v‡m‡Ri
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Zv cÖKvk K‡i| cÖwZwU fve©vj †mKk‡b A_© †Ìqv nqwb|
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grecenter.net/bigbook
Test 1.1 P1
It has been known for many decades that the 17. The author focuses primarily on
appearance of is roughly periodic, with an (A) present
average cycle of ing solar activity and evaluating
Line f solar cosmic rays, geological evidence often cited to support
(5) ultraviolet radiation, and x-radiation all vary directly them
with the sunspot cycle. But after more than a century of (B) giving a br
investigation, the relation o ments in solar physics and assessing
solar activity cycle, to their impact on future climatological research
terrestrial weather and climate remains unclear. For (C) discussing the difficulties involved in linking
(10) example, the sunspot cycle and the allied magnetic- terrestr
polarity cycle have been link ng how resolving that issue could
s rainfall, temperature, and have an impact on our understanding of solar
winds. Invariably, however, the relation is weak, and physics
commonly of dubious statistical significance. (D) pointing
(15) Effects of solar variabilit c inquiry into the terrestrial effects
recorded sunspot activity of solar activity and recommending its
in the notes kept by European observers in the late abandonment in favor of purely physics
seventeenth and early eighteenth centuries has led some oriented research
scholars to postulate a brief (E) outlining the specific reasons why a problem
(20) the Maunder minimum). in solar p
The Maunder minimum has been linked to a span of e overly theoretical approach of
unusual cold in modem physicists
et to be established, however, especially 18. Which of the following statements about the two
(25) since the records that Chinese naked-eye observers of model
solar activity made at that time appear to contradict it. 55 , is accurate?
Scientists have also sought evidence of long term solar
periodicities by (A) In both models cyclical solar activity is
ords of the thickness of ancient tree regarded as a long lived feature of the Sun,
rings. These studies, however, failed to link unequivocally persisting with little change over billions of
(30)
terrestrial clima years.
e’s past existence. (B) In both models the solar activity cycle is
If consistent and reliable geological or archaeological hypothe
evidence tracing the solar activity cycle in the distant past magnetic field.
could be found, (C) In one model the Sun’s magnetic field is thought
(35)
how to model solar activity. Currently to play a role in causing solar activity,
there are two model of solar activity. The first supposes whereas in the other model it is not.
that the Sun’s internal motions (caused by rotation and (D) In one model solar activity is presumed to be
convection) interact with its large-scale magnetic field unrelated to terrestrial phenomena, whereas
to produce a dy in the other model solar activity is thought to
(40)
to the energy of a magnetic field. have observa
In short, the Sun’s large scale magnetic field is taken cles of solar activity with
to be self sustaining periodicities longer than a few decades are
ined with little overall change considered to be impossible, whereas in the
for perhaps billions of years. The alternative explanation oilier model such cycles are predicted.
(45)
supposes that the Sun’s large scale magnetic field is a
remnant of the field the Sun acquired when it formed,
and is not sustained against decay. In this model, the solar
mechanism dependent on the Su
(50) acteristics of the solar
activity cycle could be expected to change over a long
period of time. Modern solar observations span too short
a time to reveal whether present cyclical solar activity
is a long-lived feature of the Sun
2
AbjvBb weMeyK: wRAviB †m›Uv‡ii GKwU wn‰Zlx D‡`¨vM
19. According to the passage, late seventeenth and early 22. It can be inferred from the passage that Chinese
eighteenth century observations of the Sun during the late seventeenth
lowing reasons? and early eighteenth centuries
(A) Th (A) are ambiguous because most sunspots cannot
aunder minimum was predicated were be seen with the naked eye
incorrect. (B) probably were made under the same weather
(B) Th conditions as those made in Europe
ot be related to climate. (C) are more reliable than European observations
(C) They suggest that the Maunder minimum made during this period
might for Europe. (D) record some sunspot activity during this period
(D) They estab (E) have been em entists seeking to
y cold weather worldwide at the time argue that a change in solar activity occurred
of the Maunder minimum. during this period
(E) They establish that solar activity at the time of
the M 23. It can be inferred from the passage that studies
m its present pattern. attempting to use tree ring thickness to locate
possible links bet
20. The author implies which of the following about sed on which of the
currently following assumptions?
oncerning the solar activity cycle? (A) The solar activity cycle existed in its present
(A) It best supports the model of solar activity form during the time period in which the tree
described in rings grew.
(B) It best supports the model of solar activity (B) The biological mechanisms causing tree
described in lines 45-52 growth are unaffected by short term weather
(C) It is insufficient to confirm either model of solar patterns.
activity d in the third paragraph. (C) Average tree ring thickness varies from species
(D) It contradicts both models of solar activity as to species.
they are presented in the third paragraph. (D) tree ring thicknesses reflect changes in
(E) It disproves the theory that terrestrial weather terrestrial climate.
and solar activity are linked in some way. (E) Both terrestrial climate and the solar activity
cycle randomly affect tree ring thickness.
21. It can be inferred from the passage that the argument
in favor of the model described in lines 37-45
would be stren ned if which of the following
were found to be true?
(A) Episodes of intense volcanic eruptions in the
distant past occurred in cycles having very
long periodicities.
(B) At the present time the global level of thunder
storm activity increases and decreases in
cycles with periodicities of approximately 11
years.
(C) In the distant past cyclical climatic changes had
periodi han 200 years.
(D) In the last century the length of the sunspot
cycle has been known to vary by as much as 2
years from its average periodicity of 11 years.
(E) Hundreds of millions of years ago, solar activity
cycles displayed the same periodicities as do
present day solar activity cycles.
3
Test 1.1 P2
The common belief of some linguists that each 26. In presenting the argument, the author does all of the
language is a perfect vehicle for the thoughts of the following EXCEPT
nation speaking it is in some ways the exact counterpart (A) give an example
Line of the conviction of the Manchester school of economics
(5) that supply and demand will regulate everything for (C) make a generalization
the best. Just as economists (D) make a comparison
y and demand left actual (E) present a paradox
wants unsatisfied, so also many linguists are deaf to
those instances in which the very nature of a language 27. Which of the following contributes to the
(10) calls forth misunderstandings in everyday conversation, misundersta hor in lines
and in which, consequently, a word has to be modified 13-14?
or defined in order to present the idea intended by the
speaker: “He took his stick (A) It is unclear whom the speaker of the sentence
is addressing
(15) t unreasonable to investigate (B) It is unclear to whom the word “his” refers the
the relative merits of different languages or of different first time it is used
details in languages. (C) It is unclear to whom the word “his” refers the
sec used
(D) The meaning of “took” is ambiguous.
24. The primary purpose of the passage is to (E) It is unclear to whom “He” refers.
(A) analyze an interesting feature of the English
language
(B) refute a belief held by some linguists
(C) show that ec levant to
linguistic study
(D) illustrate the confusion that can result from the
improper use of language
(E) suggest a way in which languages can be made
more nearly perfect
25. The misunderstanding presented by the author in

lines 13-14 is similar following?
I. X uses the word “you” to refer to a group, but Y
thinks that X is referring to one person only.
II. X mistakenl maly” to refer
to a typical example, but Y knows that
“anomaly” means “exception.”
III. X uses the word “bachelor” to mean “unmarried
man,” but Y mistakenly thinks that bachelor
means “unmarried woman.”
(A) I only
(B)
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only
4
FIRST PASSAGE SECOND PASSAGE
Test 1.1 17) C

18) B
19) A
24) B
25) A
26) E
ANSWERS 20) C 27) B
21) E
22) D
23) D
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cybtAveZ©bkxj hv M‡o GMv‡iv eQi cici n‡q _v‡K| Dciš‘ wePÿZ Kivi Rb¨ D×…Z Kiv nq|
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kZe‡l©iI AwaK mg‡qi AbymÜv‡bi ci, G¸‡jv Ges Ab¨ NUbvejx g~j¨vqb K‡i|
GKwÎZ fv‡e ‡mŠi wµqv Pµ wnmv‡e cwiwPwZ ‡c‡q‡Q hv ‡fŠMwjK (M) Av‡jvPbv K‡i‡Qb ‡fŠMwjK NUbvejxi mv‡_ ‡mŠi wµqvi
Rjevqy I AvevnvIqvi Kv‡Q A¯úó| D`vniY ¯îƒc, m~‡h©I `vM Pµ ms‡hv‡M RwoZ RwUjZv wb‡q Ges ‡mB mgm¨vi mgvavb ‡mŠi
Ges GKB ai‡bi Py¤^K-‡giæ P‡µi g‡a¨ GKUv `…k¨gvb ‡hvMm~Î Av‡Q c`v_© ‡evSvi ‡¶‡Î ‡h cÖfve ‡dj‡Z cv‡i Zv wb‡`©k K‡i|
Giƒc ZviZ‡gï BwZnv‡m ‡hgb e…wócvZ, ZvcgvÎv, Ges evZvm|
wbwðZfv‡e, hvB †nvK, e‡jB w`jvg, m¤úK©Uv `ye©j, Ges mvaviYZ: (N) Zy‡j a‡i‡Qb ‡mŠi wµqvi ‡fŠMwjK cÖwZwµqvi ‰eÁvwbK
cwimsL¨vbMZfv‡e m‡›`nc~Y©| AbymÜv‡bi wKQy ‡¶‡Îi wbõjZv wb‡q Ges wb‡f©Rvj c`v_©
‡Kw›`«K M‡elYvi ¯^v‡_© GUv cwiZ¨v‡Mi Rb¨ mycvwik K‡i‡Qb|
`xN© mg‡qi ‡mŠiZviZ‡gÏ cÖfveUvI D`NvUb Kiv n‡q‡Q| mß`k
kZvãxi ‡klw`‡K BD‡ivwcI ch©‡e¶KMY msi¶YK…Z m~‡h©i `v‡Mi (O) ‡Kb ‡mŠi c`v‡_©i GKUv mgm¨v GL‡bv ch©šÍ mgvavb Kiv nqwb
NUbvejxi Abycw¯’wZi ZvwjKv ‡i‡LwQ‡jb Ges Aóv`k kZvãxi ïiyi Zvi mywbw`©ó KviY wPwýZ K‡i‡Qb Ges AvaywbK c`v_©we`‡ì AwZ
w`‡K wKQy cwÐZ e¨w³ ‡m¸‡jv‡K ‡mB mgqKv‡ji m~h©`v‡Mi wµqvi ZvwË¡K cš’v‡K ÎywUc~Y© e‡j‡Qb|
msw¶ß weiwZ wnmv‡e ¯^xK…Z mZïƒ‡c Dc¯’vcb K‡i (‡hmgq Kvj‡K 18| ‡mŠi wµqvi `yBwU web¨v‡mi g‡a¨ jvBb .................. ‡Z ‡h
g¨vbwWqviwgwbgvg e‡j)| g¨vbwWqviwgwbgvg‡K BD‡iv‡ci A¯^vfvweK eY©bv ‡`qv n‡q‡Q Zv‡Z wb‡Pi ‡Kvb wee…wZUv mwVK?
VvÐvi GKUv Ask wnmv‡e hy³ Kiv n‡q‡Q hv lô`k kZvãx ‡_‡K (K) Dfq web¨v‡m cybtAveZ©bkxj ‡mŠi wµqv‡K m~‡h©i `xN©‡gqv`x
Dbwesk kZvãxi cÖ_g ch©šÍ we¯Í…Z wQj|g¨vbwWqviwgwbgv‡gi ev¯ÍeZv ‰ewkó hv kZ‡KvwU eQi c‡i mvgvb¨ cwieZ©b n‡e D‡jøL Kiv
GL‡bv cÖZxqgv‡bi A‡c¶vq, hvB‡nvK, we‡kl K‡I hLb Px‡bi ‡Lvjv n‡q‡Q|
‡Pv‡Li ch©‡e¶‡Kiv ‡mŠiwµqvi `wjjcÖ¯ÍZ Ki‡jv ‡mB mg‡qB GUvi
wbqwgZ ‡f` ‡`Lv w`‡jv|weÁvbxiv Rjevqy msµvšÍ c‡iv¶ Z_¨ cix¶v (L) Dfq web¨v‡m ‡mŠi wµqv Pµ‡K wekvj cwigv‡ci ‡mŠi Py¤^K
K‡I `xN© ‡gqv`x ‡mŠicybt AveZ©bkxjZvi cÖgvY ‡c‡q‡Q, ‡hgb Avw` ‡¶‡Îi Dci wbfi«kxj wnmv‡e Kíbv Kiv n‡q‡Q|
hy‡Mi Mv‡Qi ej‡qi cyiæ‡Z¡¡i dwmj ‡iKW©| GB M‡elYv, hvB‡nvK, (M) GKwU web¨v‡m ‡mŠi wµqvi Kvi‡bi Rb¨ m~‡hi« Py¤^K ‡¶Î fywgKv
‡fŠMwjK Rjevqy Ges ‡mŠi wµqv P‡µi mv‡_ Awfbœ m‡›`nvZxZ cvjb K‡i e‡j avibv Kiv nq, A_P Ab¨ web¨v‡m Zv bq|
ms‡hvM ¯’vcb Ki‡Z, A_ev GgbwK P‡µi AZxZ AwfÁZvI wbwðZ (N) GKwU web¨v‡m Abygvb Kiv nq ‡h ‡mŠi wµqv ‡fŠMwjK NUbvejxi
Ki‡Z e¨_© nq| hw` avivevwnK Ges wbf©i‡hvM¨ f~we`¨v I cÖZœZvwË¡K mv‡_ Am¤ú…³, A_P Ab¨ web¨v‡m aviYv Kiv nq ‡h c…w_exi Dci
msµvšÍ cÖgvYvw` hv `~i AZx‡Zi ‡mŠi wµqv Pµ‡K AbymiY K‡i‡Q Zv ch©‡e¶Y‡hvM¨ cÖfve i‡q‡Q|
cvIqv ‡hZ, Zvn‡jI ‡mŠi c`v‡_©i GKUv ¸iæZ¡c~Y© wel‡qi mgvavb
Kiv ‡hZt wK fv‡e ‡mŠi wµqv‡K web¨vm Kiv hvq| eZ©gv‡b ‡mŠi (O) GKwU web¨v‡m cybtAveZ©bkxj ‡mŠi wµqv Pµ‡K K‡qK hy‡Mi
wµqvi `yBwU web¨vm| cÖ_gUv g‡b K‡i ‡h m~‡h©i Avf¨šÍixY MwZ (N~wY© ‡P‡qI `xN©‡K Am¤¢e MY¨ Kiv nq, A_P Ab¨ web¨v‡m GB ai‡bi
I Pv‡ci Kvi‡Y m…ó) Bnvi wekvj gv‡ci Py¤^K ‡¶‡Îi mv‡_ wgwjZ Pµ‡K Abygvb Kiv nq|
nq we`ÿr Drcv`K hš¿ (Wvqbv‡gv) ‰Zwi Kivi Rb¨, GUv GKUv
wWfvBm ‡hLv‡b hvwš¿K kw³‡K ‡PŠ¤^K ‡¶‡Îi kw³‡Z iƒcvšÍi Kiv 19| c¨v‡mR Abyhvqx, kß`k kZvãxi ‡kl Ges Aóv`k kZvãxi cÖ_g
nq| ms‡¶‡c, m~‡h©i GB wekvj ‡PŠ¤^K kw³‡K ¯^wbf©i Kiv, hv‡Z w`‡Ki Pxbv‡ì ‡iKW© wb‡gœvwjwLZ ‡Kvb Kvi‡Y ¸iæZ¡c~Y© ?
Zvi (m~‡h©i) PvwjZ ‡mŠi wµqv Pµ‡K wbqš¿Y Kiv hv mvwe©K fv‡e
mvgvb¨, m¤¢eZ kZ ‡KvwU eQ‡ii ci cwieZ©b n‡e| weKí e¨L¨vq g‡b (K) Zviv civgk© ‡`q ‡h Z‡_ï wfwË‡Z g¨vbwWqvi wgwbgvg Abygvb
Kiv nq ‡h m~‡h©i GB wekvj ‡PŠ¤^K ‡¶Î m~‡h©i ‡¶‡Îi GKUv Ask hv Kiv n‡qwQj Zv mwVK wQj bv|
m~‡h©i DrcwËi mg‡q m…wó, Ges hv ¶q cÖwZ‡iva¨ bq| GB web¨v‡m, (L) Zviv civgk© ‡`q ‡h g¨vbwWqvi wgwbgvg AvenvIqvi mv‡_ m¤ú…³
‡mŠi Kvh©µg wbf©ikxj m~‡h©i Py¤^K ‡¶Î `ªyZ bó n‡q hvq| GBfv‡e, n‡Z cv‡ibv|
‡mŠi wµqv P‡µi PvwiwÎK ‰ewkó¨ `xN©Kvj c‡i cwieZ©b nIqvi Avkv (M) Zviv civgk© ‡`q ‡h g¨vbwWqvi wgwbgvg ïaygvÎ BD‡iv‡ci Rb¨
Kiv hvq| AvaywbK ‡mŠi ch©‡e¶Y Kvj LyeB Aí GKUv mgq hv w`‡q cÖ‡hvR¨ n‡Z cv‡i|
Dcmsnv‡i ‡cŠQvb hv‡ebv ‡h eZ©gv‡bi cybtAveZ©bkxj ‡mŠi wµqv
(N) Zviv g¨vbwWqvi wgwbgv‡gi mgqKv‡j wek¦e¨vcx A¯^vfvweK VvÐv
m~‡h©i GKwU `xN©‡gqv‡` Ae¯’vb Kiv ‰ewkó¨ ev gvgyjx GKvUv ¶Y¯’vqx
AvenvIqvi Aw¯ÍZ¡ ¡cÖgvY K‡i|
NUbv|
(O) Zviv cÖgvY K‡I ‡h g¨vbwWqvi wgwbgvg Gi ‡mB mgqKv‡ji
‡mŠiwµqv Zvi eZ©gvb aiY ‡_‡K D‡jøL‡hvM¨nv‡i ZviZg¨ nqwb|
20| ‡jLK wb‡Pi ‡KvbwU‡K eySv‡Z ‡P‡q‡Qb hv eZ©gv‡b weivRgvb 23| c¨v‡mR ‡_‡K GUv Abygvb Kiv ‡h‡Z cv‡i ‡h M‡elYvq Mv‡Qi
f~we`¨v Ges cÖZœZvwË¡K msµvšÍ cÖgvY ‡hUv ‡mŠi wµqv P‡µi mv‡_ ej‡qi cyiæË¡ eënv‡ii cÖ‡Póvi gva¨‡g ‡mŠi cybtAveZ©bZv Ges
mswkøó ? ‡fŠMwjK AvenvIqvi g‡a¨ m¤¢ve¨ ‡hvMm~Î wbY©q wb‡gœvwjwLZ ‡Kvb
(K) GUv ‡mŠi wµqv web¨vm‡K me‡P‡q fv‡jv mg_©b K‡i hv jvBb bs avibvi Dci wfwË K‡i?
............ ‡Z eY©bv Kiv n‡q‡Q| (K) ‡mŠi wµqv Pµ e…¶ ejq m…wói ‡mB mgq Kvj ‡_‡KB eZ©gvb
(L) GUv ‡mŠi wµqv web¨vm‡K me‡P‡q fv‡jv mg_©b K‡i hv jvBb Av`‡j we`¨gvb|
............‡Z eY©bv Kiv n‡q‡Q| (L) Rxe ‰eÁvwbK wµqvi d‡j nIqv e…‡¶i ea©b bvwZ`xN© AvenvIqvi
(M) ‡mŠi wµqv web¨v‡mi ‡KvbUv‡KB wbwðZ Kivi Rb¨ Z…Zxq ai‡b cÖfvweZ nqbv|
c¨vivM«v‡d hv eY©bv Kiv n‡q‡Q Zv ch©vß bq| (M) e…¶ ej‡qi Mo cyiæË¡ cÖRvwZ ‡f‡` wfbœ nq|
(N) Z…Zxq c¨vivM«v‡d ‡h fv‡e Dc¯’vcb Kiv n‡q‡Q Zv‡Z ‡mŠi wµqvi (N) e…¶ ej‡qi cyiæZ¡ ‡fŠMwjK AvenvIqvi cwieZ©b‡K cÖwZdwjZ
Dfq web¨v‡mi mv‡_ GUvi mvgÄm¨ ‡bB| K‡i|
(O) GUv ‡fŠMwjK AvenvIqv Ges ‡mŠi wµqv ‡Kvb GKfv‡e m¤ú…³ (O) ‡fŠMwjK AvenvIqv Ges ‡mŠi wµqv Pµ DfqB e…¶ ej‡qi
GB ZË¡‡K fyj cÖgvwbZ K‡i| cyiæZ¡‡K ‡nqvwj fv‡e cÖfvweZ K‡i|
21| c¨v‡mR ‡_‡K GUv Abygvb Kiv hvq ‡h web¨v‡mi ¯^c‡¶

jvBb............ ‡Z eY©bvi wb‡Pi ‡KvbwUi mZ¨Zv cvIqv ‡M‡j hyw³Uv
AviI ‡Rviv‡jv n‡Zv ?
(K) `~i AZx‡Z msNwUZ Zxe« Av‡MœqwMwii AMœyrcvZ¸‡jv PµvKv‡i
NU‡Zv hv‡ì AwZ`xN© cybtAveZ©bkxjZv wQj|
(L) eZ©gvb mg‡q wek¦ ch©v‡qi eR« S‡oi NUbv e…w× Ges n«vm
PµvKv‡i nq hv AvbygvwbK 11 eQ‡i cybtAveZ©bkxj|
(M) `~i AZx‡Z PµvKvi AvenvIqv cwieZ©b¸‡jv wQj 200 eQ‡ii
AwaK cybtAveZ©bkxj|
(N) MZ kZ‡K m~‡hi« `vM P‡µi ‰`N¨© Gi Mo cybtAveZ©bkxj mgq
11 eQ‡ii ‡P‡qI hZ`~i m¤¢e 2 eQi ZviZg¨ n‡qwQj e‡j Rvbv
hvq|
(O) kZ‡KvwU ermi Av‡M, ‡mŠi wµqv Pµ eZ©gvb w`‡bi ‡mŠi wµqv
P‡µi g‡Zv GKB ai‡bi cybtAveZ©bkxj wQj|
22| c¨v‡mR ‡_‡K GUv Abygvb Kiv hvq ‡h mß`k kZvãxi ‡Mvov
Ges Aóv`k kZvãxi cÖvi‡¤¢ Pxbv‡ì m~‡h©i ch©‡e¶Y
(K) wQj m‡›`nc~Y© Kvib AwaKvsk m~‡h©i `vM Lvwj ‡Pv‡L ‡`Lv ‡hZ
bv|
(L) m¤¢eZ GKB AvenvIqv cwi‡e‡k Kiv n‡qwQj ‡hfv‡e BD‡iv‡c
Kiv n‡qwQj|
(M) GB mg‡q Kiv BD‡ivcxq‡ì ch©‡e¶Y¸‡jvi ‡P‡qI AwaK wbf©i
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Test 1.2 P1
It is frequently assumed that the mechanization of work 17. Which of the following statements best summarizes
has a revolutionary effect on the lives of the people who the main idea of the passage?
operate the new machines and on the society into which (A) The effects of the mechanization of women’s
Line the machines have been introduced. For example, it has work h quently held
(5) been su assumption that new technology is inherently
ousehold, their traditional sphere, revolutionary.
and fundamentally altered their position in society. In the (B) Present studies have shown that mechanization
nineteenth century, when women began to enter factories, revolutionizes a society’s traditional values
Jules Simon, a French politician, warned that by doing so, and the customary roles of its members.
(10) women would give up their femininity. Friedrich Engels, (C) Mecha ed the nature of
however, predicted that women would be liberated from the women’s work to change since the Industrial
“social, legal, and economic subordination” of the family Revolution.
by technological developments that made possible the (D) The mechanization of work creates whole new
recruitment of “the whole female sex into public industry.” classes of jobs that did not previously exist.
(15) Observers thu ng the social desirability (E) The mechanization of women’s work, while
of mechanization’s effects, but they agreed that it would extremely revolutionary in its effects, has not,
transform women’s lives. on the whole, had the deleterious effects that
Historians, particularly those investigating the history some critics had feared.
of women, now seriously question this assumption of
(20) transforming power. They conclude that such dramatic 18. The author mentions all of the following inventions
technological as ex vations
EXCEPT the
amatic social changes in women’s
economic position or in the prevailing evaluation of women’s (A) sewing machine
(25) work. The employment of young women in textile mills (B) vacuum cleaner
during the Industrial Revolution was largely an extension (C) typewriter
of an older pattern of employment of young, single women (D) telephone
as domestics. It was not the change in office technology, (E) spinning jenny
but rather the separation of secretarial work; previously
(30) seen as an apprenticeship for beginning managers, from 19. It can be inferred from the passage that, before the
administrative work that in the 1880’s created a new class of Indus of women’s
“dead-end” jobs, thenceforth considered “women’s work.” work was done in which of the following settings?
The increase in th (A) Textile mills
twentieth century had less to do with (B) Private households
(35) the mechanization of housework and an increase in leisure (C) Offices
time for these women than it did with their own economic (D) Factories
necessity and with high marriage rates that shrank the (E) Small shops
available pool of single women workers, previously, in many
cases, the only women employers would hire.
(40) Women’s work has changed considerably in the past 200
years, moving from the household to the office or the factory,
and later hite collar instead of blue collar
work. Fundamentally, however, the conditions under which
women work have changed little since before the Industrial
(45) Revolution: the segregation of occupations by gender,
lower pay for women as a group, jobs that require relatively
low levels
men’s household labor
remains demanding. Recent historical investigation has
(50) led to a major revision of the notion that technology is
always inherently revolutionary in its effects on society.
Mechanization may even have slowed any change in the
traditional position of women both in the labor market and
in the home.
8
20. It can be inferred from the passage that the author 22. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
would consider which of the following to be an most probably believes which of the following to
indicatio he be true concerning those historians who study the
conditions of women’s work? history of women?
(A) Statistics showing that the majority of women (A) Their work provides insights important to those
now occupy white collar positions examining social phenomena affecting the
(B) Intervie ing that lives of both sexes.
they are now doing some household tasks (B) Their work
(C) Surveys of the labor market documenting disciplines.
the recent creation of a new class of jobs (C) Because they concentrate only on the role of
in workers women in the workplace, they draw more
outnumber men four to one reliable conclusions than do other historians.
(D) Census results showing that working women’s (D) While highly interesting, their work has not
wages and salaries are, on the average, as high had an impact on most historians’ current
as those of working men assumptions concerning the revolutionary
(E) Enrollment figures from universities effect of technology in the workplace.
demonstrating that increasing numbers of (E) They oppose the further mechanization of work,
young women which, according to their findings, tends to
level perpetuate existing inequalities in society.
21. The passage states that, before the twentieth century, 23. Which of the following best describes the function of
which of the following was true of many employers? the concluding sentence of the passage?
(A) They did not employ women in factories. (A) It sums up the general points concerning the
(B) They tended to employ sin mechanization of work made in the passage
as
(C) They employed women in only those jobs
that were related to women’s traditional ization of work which goes
household work. beyond the evidence presented in the passage
(D) They resisted technological innovations that as a whole.
would radically change women’s roles in the (C) It restates the point concerning technology
family. made in the sentence immediately preceding
(E) They hired women only when qualified men it.
were not available to fill the open positions. (D) It qualifies the authors agreement with scholars
who argue for a major revision in the
assessment of the impact of mechanization
on society.
(E) It suggests a compromise between two
seemingly contradictory views concerning
the effects of mechanization on society.
9
Test 1.2 P2
(This passage is excerpted from an article that was 26. Which of the following can be inferred about warm
published in 1982) blooded animals solely on the basis of information
Warm blooded animals have elaborated (A) The body temperatures of warm-blooded
physiological controls to maintain constant body
temperature (in humans, 37° C). Why then during laboratory.
Line sickness should temperature rise, apparently increasing (B) Warm-blooded animals require more iron in
(5) stress on the infected organism? It has long been known periods of stress than they do at other tim
that the level of serum iron in animals falls during ble
infection. Garibaldi first suggested a relationship at an environmental temperature of 37° C
between fever and iron. He found that microbial than they are at a temperature of 42° C.
synthesis of siderophores - substances that bind (D) In warm-blooded animals, bacteria
(10) iron—in bacteria of the genus Salmonella declined at are responsible for the production of
environmental temperatures above 37° C and stopped at siderophores, which, in turn, make iron
40.3° C. Thus, fever would make it more difficult for an
infecting bacteriu (E) In warm-blooded animals, infections that lead
used to test this hypothesis to fever are usually traceable to bacteria.
(15) because their body temperature can be controlled in the
laboratory. Kluger reported that of iguanas infected with 27. If it were to be determined that “similar phenomena
the potentially lethal bacterium A. hydrophilia, more occur
survived at temperatures of of the following, assuming each is possible,
fer the lower temperature. is likely to be the most effective treatment for warm
(20) When animals at 42° C were injected with an iron blooded animals with bacterial infections?
solution, however, mortality rates increased significantly.
Research to determine whether similar phenomena (A) A
occur in warm-blooded animals is sorely needed. animals’ body temperature
(B) Injecting the animals with an iron solution
24. The passage is primarily c (C) Administering a medication that makes serum
iron unavailable to bacteria
(D) Providing the animals with reduced iron diets
(A) the role of siderophores in the synthesis of (E) Keeping the animals in an environment with
serum iron temperatures higher than 37° C
(B) new tr
ydrophilia
(C) the function of fever in warm-blooded animals
(D) the mechanisms that ensure constant body
temperature
(E) iron utilization in coldblooded animals
25. According t
he following?
(A) That serum iron is produced through microbial
synthesis
(B) That microbial synthesis of siderophores in
Warm blooded animals is more efficient at
hig
nly iron bound to other substances can be
used by bacteria
(D) That there is a relationship between the synt
genus
Salmonella and environmental temperature
(E) That bacteria of the genus Salmonella require
iron as a nutrient
10
Test 1.2 17) A

18) D
19) B
24) C
25) D
26) A
ANSWERS 20) D 27) C
21) B
22) A
23) B
Test 2.1 P1
(This passage is from an article published in 1973) 18. According to the passage, despite the United States
armed forces’ commitment to occupational equality
The recent change to all volunteer armed forces for women in the military, certain other factors
in the United States will eventually produce a gradual preclude women’s
increase in the proportion of women in the armed forces (A) receiving equal pay for equal work
Line and in the variety of women’s assignments, but probably (B) having access to positions of responsibility at
(5) not the dramatic gains for women that might have
been expected. This is so even though the armed forces
operate in an ethos of institutional change oriented ssignments than before
toward occ (D) benefiting from opportunities arising from new
noncombat functions
(10) n are unlikely to be trained for any direct (E) being assigned all of the military tasks that are
combat operations. A significant portion of the larger assigned to men
society remains uncomfortable as yet with extending
equality in this direction. Therefore, for women in the 19. The passage implies that which of the following is a
military, th factor conducive to a more equitable representation
(15) equivalence, not identity or even similarity of of women in the United States armed forces than
task. Opportunities seem certain to arise. The growing has existed in t
emphasis on deterrence is bound to offer increasing
scope for er character of the present armed
t military assignments. forces
(B) The past service records of women who had
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to assignments functionally equivalent to men’s
assignments
(A) pre (C) The level of awareness on the part of the larger
ssignments available to women in the new society of military issues
United States all volunteer armed forces (D) A decline in the proportion of deterrence
(B) present a reasoned prognosis of the status of oriented noncombat assignments
women in the new United States all volunteer (E) Restrictive past policies governing the military
armed forces assignments open to women
(C) present the new United States all volunteer
armed forces as a model case of equal 20. The “dramatic gains for women” (line 5) and the
employment policies in action attitude, as described in lines 11-12 of a “significant
(D) analyze reforms in the new United States all portion of the larger society” are logically related to
volunteer armed forces necessitated by the each other
ry
(E) analyze the use of functional equivalence as a
substitute for occupational equality in the response to achievement of the former
new United States all volunteer armed forces (B) the major reason for absence of the former
(C) a precondition for any prospect of achieving the
former
(D) a catalyst for a further extension of the former
(E) a reason for some of the former being lost again
12
This page hasbeen deliberately left empty
for showing passage and questions together
Test 2.1 P2
Of the thousands of specimens of meteorites found on 21. The passage implies which of the following about
Earth and known to science; only about 100 are igneous; shergottites?
that is, they have undergone melting by volcanic action at I. They are products of volcanic activity.
Line some time since the planets were first formed. These igneous II. They derive from a planet larger than Earth.
(5) meteorites are known as achondrites because they lack III. They come from a planetary body with a
chondrules— small stony spherules found in the thousands chemical composition similar to that of Io.
of meteorites (called “chondrites”) composed primarily of (A) I only
unaltered minerals that condensed from dust and gas at the (B) II only
origin of the solar system. Achondrites are the only known (C) I and II only
(10) samples of volcanic rocks originating outside the Earth- (D) II and III only
Moon system. Most are thought to have been dislodged by (E) I, II and III
inter bod
ers, in solar orbit between Mars and Jupiter. 22. According to the passage, a meteorite discovered on
Shergottites, the name given to three anomalous Earth is unlikely to have come from a large planet
(15) achondrites so far discovered on Earth, present scientists for which of the following reasons?
with a genuine enigma. Shergottites crystallized from molten
rock less than 1.1 billion years ago (some 3.5 billion years (A) There are fewer large planets in the solar system
later than typical achondrites) and were presumably ejected than there are asteroids.
into space when an object impacted on a body similar in (B) Most large planets have been volcanically
(20) chemical composition to Earth. inactive for more than a billion years.
While most meteorites appear to derive from (C) The gravitational pull of a large planet would
comparatively small bodies, shergottites exhibit properties probably prohibit fragments from escaping its
that indicate that their source was a large planet, conceivably orbit.
Mars. In order t (D) There are no chondrites occurring naturally
(25) on Earth and probably none on other large
planets.
mall as the Moon is so great that no (E) Interbody impact is much rarer on large than
meteorites of lunar origin have been discovered. on small planets because of the density of the
While some scientists speculate that shergottites derive atmosphere on large planets.
(30) from Io (a volcanically active moon of Jupiter), recent
measurements suggest that since Io’s surface is rich in 23. The passage suggests that the age of shergottites is
sulfur and sodium, the chemical composition of its volcanic probably
products would probably be unlike that of the shergottites. (A) still entirely undetermined
Moreover, any fragments dislodged from Io by interbody (B) less than that of most other achondrites
(35) impact would be unlikely to escape the gravitational pull of (C) about 3.5 billion years
Jupiter. (D) the same as that of typical achondrites
The only other logical source of shergottites is Mars. (E) greater than that of the Earth
Space-probe photographs indicate the existence of giant
volcanoes on the Martian surface. From the small number
(40) of impact craters that appear on Martian lava flows, one can
estimate that the planet was volcanically active as recently as
a half-billion years ago—and may be active today. The great
objection to the Martian origin of shergottites is the absence
of lunar meteorites on Earth. An impact capable of ejecting
(45) a fragment of the Martian surface into an Earth intersecting
orbit is even less probable than such an event on the Moon,
in view of the Moon’s smaller size and closer proximity to
Earth. A recent study suggests, however, that permafrost
ices below the surface of Mars may have altered the effects
(50) of impact on it. If the ices had been rapidly vaporized by an
impacting object, the expanding gases might have helped
the ejected fragments reach escape velocity. Finally, analyses
performed by space probes show a remarkable chemical
similarity between Martian soil and the shergottites.
14
24. According to the passage, the presence of condrules 26. It can be inferred from the passage that each of
in a meteorite indicates that the meteorite the following is a consideration in determining
(A) has probably come from Mars whether a particular planet is a possible source of
(B) is older than the solar system itself shergottites that have been discovered on Earth
(C) has not been melted since the solar system EXCEPT the
formed (A) planet’s size
(D) is certainly less than 4 billion years old (B) planet’s distance from Earth
(E) is a small fragment of an asteroid (C) strength of the planet’s field of gravity
(D) proximity of the planet to its moons
25. The passage provides information to answer which of (E) chemical composition of the planet’s surface
the following questions?
(A) What is the precise age of the solar system? 27. It can be inferred from the passage that most
(B) How did shergottites get their name? meteorites found on Earth contain which of the
(C) What are the chemical properties shared by following?
shergottites and Martian soils? (A) Crystals
(D) How volcanically active is the planet Jupiter? (B) Chondrules
(E) What is a major feature of the Martian surface? (C) Metals
(D) Sodium
(E) Sulfur
15
Test 2.1 17) B

18) E
19) A
21) A
22) C
23) B
ANSWERS 20) B 24) C
25) E
26) D
27) B
2.2. -1st
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
17
2.2. -2nd
Practically speaking, the artistic maturing of the 21. The primary purpose of the passage is to
cinema was the single-handed achievement of David W. (A) discuss the importance of Griffith to the
Griffith (1875-1948). Before Griffith, photography in development of the cinema
Line dramatic films consisted of little more than placing the (B) describe the impact on cinema of the flashback
(5) actors before a stationary camera and showing them in and other editing innovations
full length as they would have appeared on stage. From (C) deplore the state of American cinema before the
the beginning of his career as a director, however, Griffith, advent of Griffith
because of his love of Victorian painting, employed (D) analyze the changes in the cinema wrought by
composition. He conceived of the camera image as having the introduction of the multireel film
(10) a foreground and a rear ground, as well as the middle (E) document Griffith’s impact on the choice of
distance preferred by most directors. By 1910 he was subject matter in American films
using close-ups to reveal significant details of the scene or
of the acting and extreme long shots to achieve a sense of 22. The author suggests that Griffith’s film innovations
spectacle and distance. His appreciation of the camera’s had a direct effect on all of the following EXCEPT
(15) possibilities produced novel dramatic effects. By splitting
an event into (A) film editing
(B) camera work
(C) scene composing
(D) sound editing
(20) (E) directing
23. It can be inferred from the passage that before 1910

uctance of his producers, who the normal running time of a film was
feared that the public would not be able to follow a plot (A) 15 minutes or less
(25) that was made up of such juxtaposed images, Griffith (B) between 15 and 30 minutes
persisted, and experimented as well with other elements (C) between 30 and 45 minutes
of cinematic syntax that have become standard ever (D) between 45 minutes and 1 hour
since. These included the flashback, permitting broad (E) 1 hour or more
psychological and emotional exploration as well as
(30) narrative that were not chronological, and the crosscut 24. The author asserts that Griffith introduced all of the
between two parallel actions to heighten suspense and following into American cinema EXCEPT
excitement. In thus exploiting fully the possibilities of (A) consideration of social issues
editing, Griffith transposed devices of the Victoria novel (B) adaptations from Tennyson
to film and gave film mastery of time as well as space. (C) the flashback and other editing techniques
(35) Besides developing the cinema’s language, Griffith (D) photographic approaches inspired by Victorian
immensely broadened its range and treatment of subjects. painting
His early output was remarkably eclectic: it included (E) dramatic plots suggested by Victorian theater
not only the standard comedies, melodramas, Westerns,
and thrillers, but also such novelties as adaptations from
(40) Browning and Tennyson, and treatments of social issues.
As his successes mounted, his ambitions grew, and with
them the whole of American cinema. When he remade
Enoch Arden in 1911, he insisted that a subject of such
importance could not be treated in the then conventional
(45) length of one reel. Griffith’s introduction of the American
made multi reel picture began an immense revolution.
Two years later, Judith of Bethulia, an elaborate historic
philosophical spectacle, reached the unprecedented
length of four reels, or one hour’s running time. From
(50) our contemporary viewpoint, the pretensions of this film
may seem a trifle ludicrous, but at the time it provoked
endless debate and discussion and gave a new intellectual
respectability to the cinema.
18
25. The author suggests that Griffith’s contributions to 26. It can be inferred from the passage that Griffith
the cinema had which of the following results? would be most likely to agree with which of the
I. Literary works, especially Victorian novels, following statements?
became popular sources for film subjects. (A) The good director will attempt to explore new
II. Audience appreciation of other film directors’ ideas as quickly as possible.
experimentations with cinematic syntax was (B) The most important element contributing to a
increased. film’s success is the ability of the actors.
III. Many of the artistic limitations thought to be (C) The camera must be considered an integral and
inherent in filmmaking were shown to be really active element in the creation of a film.
nonexistent. (D) The cinema should emphasize serious and
(A) II only sober examinations of fundamental human
(B) III only problems.
(C) I and II only (E) The proper composition of scenes in a film
(D) II and III only is more important than the details of their
(E) I, II and III only editing.
27. The author’s attitude toward photography in the

cinema before Griffith can best be described as
(A) sympathetic
(B) nostalgic
(C) amused
(D) condescending
(E) hostile
19
Test 2.2 17) E

18) C
19) D
21) A
22) D
23) A
ANSWERS 20) A 24) E
25) B
26) C
27) D
3.1. -1st
(This passage is excerpted from an article that was found there. Unless smokers are consistently located
published in 1981) near more hospitable warm-water vents, chemosynthesis
can account for only a fraction of the vent faunas. It
The deep sea typically has a sparse fauna is conceivable, however, that these large, sedentary
dominated by tiny worms and crustaceans, with an (45) organisms do in fact feed on bacteria that grow in warm-
even sparser distribution of larger animals. However, water vents, rise in the vent water, and then rain in
Line near hydrothermal vents, areas of the ocean where peripheral areas to nourish animals living some distance
(5) warm water emerges from subterranean sources, live from the warm-water vents.
remarkable densities of huge clams, blind crabs, and fish. Nonetheless, advection is a more likely alternative
Most deep-sea faunas rely for food on particulate (50) food source. Research has demonstrated that advective
matter, ultimately derived from photosynthesis, falling flow, which originates near the surface of the ocean
from above. The food supplies necessary to sustain the where suspended particulate matter accumulates,
(10) large vent communities, however, must be many times transports some of that matter and water to the vents.
the ordinary fallout. The first reports describing vent Estimates suggest that for every cubic meter of vent
faunas proposed two possible sources of nutrition: (55) discharge, 350 milligrams of particulate organic material
bacterial chemosynthesis, production of food by would be advected into the vent area. Thus, for an
bacteria using energy derived from chemical changes, average-sized vent, advection could provide more than
(15) and advection, the drifting of food materials from 30 kilograms of potential food per day. In addition, it is:
surrounding regions. Later, evidence in support of the likely that small live animals in the advected water might
idea of intense local chemosynthesis was accumulated: (60) be killed or stunned by thermal and/or chemical shock,
hydrogen sulfide was found in vent water; many vent-site thereby contributing to the food supply of vents.
bacteria were found t
(20) 16. The passage provides information for answering
which of the following questions?
(A) What causes warm-water vents to form?
a were typical of vent outflow, (B) Do vent faunas consume more than do deep-sea
then food within the vent would dwarf any contribution faunas of similar size?
(25) from advection. Hence, the widely quoted conclusion (C) Do bacteria live in the vent water of smokers?
was reached that bacterial chemosynthesis provides (D) What role does hydrogen sulfide play in
the foundation for hydrothermal-vent food chains—an chemosynthesis?
exciting prospect because no other communities on (E) What accounts for the locations of deep-sea
Earth are independent of photosynthesis. smokers?
(30) There are, however, certain difficulties with this
interpretation. For example, some of the large sedentary
organisms associated with vents are also found at
ordinary deep-sea temperatures many meters from
the nearest hydrothermal sources. This suggests that
(35) bacterial chemosynthesis is not a sufficient source of
nutrition for these creatures. Another difficulty is that
similarly dense populations of large deep-sea animals
have been found in the proximity of “smokers”—vents
where water emerges at temperatures up to 350° C. No
(40) bacteria can survive such heat, and no bacteria were
22
17. The information in the passage suggests that the 20. Which of the following is information supplied
majority of deep-sea faunas that live in non vent in the passage that would support the statement
habitats have which of the following characteristics? that the food supplies necessary to sustain vent
(A) They do not normally feed on particles of food communities must be many times that of ordinary
in the water. fallout?
(B) They are smaller than many vent faunas. I. Large vent faunas move from vent to vent in
(C) They are predators. search of food.
(D) They derive nutrition from a chemosynthetic II. V
food source.
(E) They congregate around a single main food
source. eep-sea areas.
(A) I only
18. The primary purpose of the passage is to (B) III only
(A) describe a previously unknown natural (C) I and II only
phenomenon (D) II and III only
(B) reconstruct the evolution of a natural (E) I, II and III
phenomenon
(C) establish unequivocally the accuracy of a 21. The author refers to “smokers” (line 38) most
hypothesis probably in order to
(D) survey explanations for a natural phenomenon (A) show how thermal shock can provide food for
and determine which is best supported by some vent faunas by stunning small animals
evidence (B) prove that the habitat of most deep-sea animals
(E) entertain criticism of the author’s research and is limited to warm-water vents
provide an effective response (C) explain how bacteria carry out chemosynthesis
(D) demonstrate how advection compensates for
19. Which of the following does the author cite the lack of food sources on the seafloor
as a weakness in the argument that bacterial (E) present evidence that bacterial chemosynthesis
chemosynthesis provides the foundation for the may be an inadequate source of food for
food chains at d some vent faunas
22. Which of the following can be inferred from the

passage about the particulate matter that is canned
ain sufficient quantities down from the surface of the ocean?
of hydrogen sulfide. (A) It is the basis of bacterial chemosynthesis in the
(C) Bacteria cannot produce large quantities of vents.
food quickly enough. (B) It may provide an important source of nutrition
(D) Large concentrations of minerals are found in for vent faunas.
vent water. (C) It may cause the internal temperature of the
(E) Some bacteria found in the vents are incapable vents to change significantly.
of chemosynthesis. (D) It is transported as large aggregates of particles.
(E) It contains hydrogen sulfide.
23
3.1. -2nd
Throughout human history there have been many 25. According to the passage, the author believes that
stringent taboos concerning watching other people past attempts to explain some taboos concerning
eat or eating in the presence of others. There have eating are
Line been attempts to explain these taboos in terms of (A) unimaginative
(5) inappropriate social relationships either between those (B) implausible
who are involved and those who are not simultaneously (C) inelegant
involved in (D) incomplete
(E) unclear
(10) 26. In developing the main idea of the passage, the

author does which of the following?
recious and the on-lookers
so hungry, not to offer half of the little food one had (A) Downplays earlier attempts to explain the
was unthinkable, since every glance was a plea for life. origins of a social prohibition.
(15) Further, during those times, people existed in nuclear (B) Adapts a scientific theory and applies it to a
or extended family groups, and the sharing of food was spiritual relationship.
quite literally supporting one’s family or, by extension, (C) Simplifies a complex biological phenomenon by
preserving one’s self. explaining it in terms of social needs.
(D) Reorganizes a system designed to guide
23. If the argument in the passage is valid, taboos against personal behavior.
eating in the presence of others who are not also (E) Codifies earlier, unsystematized conjectures
eating would be LEAST likely in a society that about family life.
(A) had always had a plentiful supply of food
(B) emphasized the need to share worldly goods
(C) had a nomadic rather than an agricultural way
of life
(D) emphasized the value of privacy
(E) discouraged overindulgence
24. The author’s hypothesis concerning the origin

of taboos against watching other people eat
emphasizes the
(A) general palatability of food
(B) religious significance of food
(C) limited availability of food
(D) various sources of food
(E) nutritional value of food
24
Test 3.1 16) C

17) B
18) D
23) A
24) C
25) D
ANSWERS 19) A 26) A
20) B
21) E
22) B
3.2. -1st
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
26
27
3.2. -2nd
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
28
Test 3.2 17) B

18) E
19) C
24) C
25) A
26) A
ANSWERS 20) D 27) B
21) A
22) B
23) C
4.1. -1st
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
30
4.1. -2nd
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
32
33
Test 4.1 17) C

18) B
19) E
21) C
22) D
23) E
ANSWERS 20) D 24) A
25) B
26) D
27) E
4.2 -1st
35
4.2 -2nd
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
36
37
Test 4.2 17) D

18) E
19) C
21) D
22) D
23) A
ANSWERS 20) B 24) C
25) C
26) B
27) E
5.1 -1st
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
40
41
5.1 -2nd
42
Test 5.1 17) C

18) C
19) A
24) C
25) A
26) D
ANSWERS 20) C 27) A
21) E
22) C
23) A
5.2 -1st
44
5.2 -2nd
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
46
47
Test 5.2 17) B

18) E
19) D
21) D
22) B
23) C
ANSWERS 20) A 24) A
25) C
26) C
27) B
6.1 - 1st
49
6.1 - 2nd
50
51
Test 6.1 17) B

18) D
19) A
21) B
22) A
23) E
ANSWERS 20) C 24) C
25) A
26) B
27) E
6.2 - 1st
54
55
6.2 - 2nd
56
Test 6.2 17) E

18) B
19) E
25) E
26) A
27) E
ANSWERS 20) C
21) E
22) D
23) B
24) C
7.1 - 1st
58
7.1 - 2nd
60
61
Test 7.1 17) E

18) D
19) C
20) E
21) E
22) B
ANSWERS 23) D
24) A
25) E
26) A
27) A
7.2 - 1st
63
(55)
7.2 - 2nd
Line
(5)
(60)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
64
65
Test 7.2 17) A

18) E
19) C
20) C
21) D
22) D
ANSWERS 23) D
24) A
25) E
26) E
27) B
8.1 - 1st
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
67
8.1 - 2nd
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
68
69
Test 8.1 17) A

18) C
19) C
21) B
22) A
23) B
ANSWERS 20) C 24) C
25) E
26) A
27) E
8.2 - 1st
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
71
8.2 - 2nd
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
72
73
Test 8.2 17) C

18) B
19) A
21) D
22) C
23) C
ANSWERS 20) B 24) D
25) E
26) A
27) D
9.1 - 1st
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
75
9.1 - 2nd
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
76
77
Test 9.1 17) C

18) A
19) D
21) A
22) D
23) B
ANSWERS 20) E 24) E
25) A
26) A
27) B
9.2 - 1st
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
79
9.2 - 2nd
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
80
81
Test 9.2 17) C

18) D
19) E
21) D
22) B
23) A
ANSWERS 20) A 24) B
25) A
26) D
27) E
10.1 - 1st
The 1960’s witnessed two profound social 18. The author supports the claim that “King’s stance on
movements: the civil rights movement and the the Vietnam War cannot be explained in terms of
movement protesting the war in Vietnam. Although pacifism alone” (lines 10-12) by implying which of
Line they overlapped in time, they were largely distinct. For a the following?
(5) brief moment in 1967, however, it appeared that the two (A) There is little evidence that King was ever a
moveme student of pacifist doctrine.
(B) King, despite pacifist sympathies, was not
convinced that the policy of the federal
government in Vietnam was wrong.
(10) (C) King’s belief in nonviolence was formulated in
tnam War cannot be explained in terms terms of domestic policy rather than in terms
of pacifism alone. After all, he was something of a of international issues.
latecomer to the antiwar movement, even though by (D) Had King’s actions been based on pacifism
1965 he was convinced that the role of the United States alone, he would have joined the antiwar
(15) in the war was indefensible. Why then the two years that movement earlier than he actually did.
passed before he translated his private misgivings into (E)
public dissent? Perhaps he believed that he could not
criticize American foreign policy without endangering r need for support.
the support for civil rights that he had won from the
(20) federal government. 19. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage about the movement opposing the war in
17. According to the passage, the delay referred to in Vietnam?
lines 12-15 is perhaps attributable to which of the
following? (A) It preceded the civil rights movement.
(B) It began in 1965.
(A) King’s ambivalence concerning the role of the (C) It was supported by many who otherwise
United States in the war in Vietnam opposed public dissent.
(B) King’s attempts to consolidate support for his (D) It drew support from most civil rights leaders.
leadership within the civil rights movement (E) It was well underway by 1967.
(C) King’s desire to keep the leadership of the civil
rights movement distinct from that of the 20. Which of the following best describes the passage?
antiwar movement
(D) King’s desire to draw support for the civil rights (A) It discusses an apparent inconsistency and
movement from the leadership of the antiwar suggests a reason for it.
‘ movement (B) It outlines a sequence of historical events.
(E) King’s reluctance to jeopardize federal support (C) It shows why a commonly held view is
for the civil rights movement inaccurate.
(D) It evaluates an explanation and finally accepts
that explanation.
(E) It contrasts two views of an issue.
83
10.1 - 2nd
What causes a helix in nature to appear with either a 21. Which of the following would serve as an example
dextral (“right handed,” or clockwise) twist or a sinistral of “concomitant structural features” (line 18) that
(“left handed,” or counterclockwise) twist is one of the might disadvantage a snail of the rarer form?
Line most intriguing puzzles in the science of form. Most spiral- (A) A shell and body that are an exact mirror im
(5) shaped snail species are predominantly dextral. But at one
time, handedness (twist direction of the shell) was equally
distributed within some snail species that have become
predominantly dextral or, in a few species, predominantly (C) A chip or fracture in the shell caused by an
sinistral. What mechanisms control handedness and keep left object falling on it
(10) handedness rare? (D) A pattern on the shell that better camouflages it
It would seem unlikely that evolution should discriminate (E) A smaller shell opening that restricts mobility
against sinistral snails if sinistral and dextral snails are exact and i
mirror images, for any disadvantage that a sinistral twist in moner form
itself could confer on its posses
(15) 22. The second paragraph of the passage is primarily
concerned with offering possible reasons why
(A) it is unlikely that evolutionary mechanisms
ded snails cannot mate with could discriminate against sinistral snails
(20) each other, having incompatible twist directions. Presumably (B) sinistrality is relatively uncommon among snail
an individual of the rarer form would have relative difficulty species
in finding a mate of the same hand, thus keeping the rare form (C) dextral and sinistral populations of a snail
rare or creating geographically separated right and left handed species ten
populations.
(25) m combining dissymmetry, ly accounts for the predominance
anatomy, and chance does not provide an adequate explanation of dextrality across snail species
of why right handedness should have become predominant. (E) dextral snails breed more readily than sinistral
It does not explain, for example, why the infrequent unions snails, even within predominantly sinistral
between snails of opposing hands produce fewer offspring populations
(30) of the rarer than the commoner form in species where each
parent contributes equally to hande 23. In describing the “evolutionary mechanism” (line
determines handedness, a 25), the author mentions which of the following?
brood is not exclusively right or left handed when the offspring (A) The favorable conditions for nurturing new
would have the same genetic predisposition. In the European offspring
(35) pond snail Lymnaea peregra, a predominantly dextral species (B) The variable environmental conditions that
whose handedness is maternally determined, a brood might affect survival of adult snails
be expected to be exclusively right or left handed—and this (C) The availability of potential mates for breeding
often occurs. However, some broods possess a few snails of (D) The structur
the opposing hand, and in predom nd
(40) gly high. (E) The frequency of unions between snails of
Here, the evolutionary theory must defer to a theory different species
based on an explicit developmental mechanism that can favor
either right or left handedness. In the case of Lymnaea peregra,
studies indicate that a dextral gene is expressed during egg
(45) formation; i.e., before egg fertiliza
the egg that controls the
pattern of cell division and thus handedness. In experiments,
an injection of cytoplasm from dextral eggs changes the
pattern of sinistral eggs, but an injection from sinistral eggs
(50) does not influence dextral eggs. One explanation for the
differing effects is that all Lymnaea peregra eggs begin left
handed but most switch to being right handed. Thus, the path
to a solution to the puzzle of handedness in all snails appears to
be as twisted as the helix itself.
84
24. According to the passage, which of the following is 26. It can be inferred from the passage that a
true of Lymnaea peregral? predominantly sinistral snail species might stay
(A) Handedness within the species was at one time predominantly sinistral for each of the following
equally distributed between left and right. reasons EXCEPT for
(B) Under laboratory conditions, dextral eggs from (A) a developmental mechanism that affects the
Lymnaea peregra can be artificially induced to cell-
de
pecies
ation, exclusively sinistral or dextral (C) a relatively small number of snails of the same
(D) Handedness in Lymnaea peregra offspring is hand for dextral snails of the species to mate
determined by only one of the parents. with
(E) Geographic factors have played a larger role (D) anatomical incompatibility that prevents
than has genetics is the evolution of the mating between snails of opposing hands
species. within the species
(E) geographic separation of sinistral and dextral
25. The passage implies that in Lymnaea peregra, there populations
will generally be
(A) more offspring of the nondominant hand in 27. Which of the following accurately describes the
broods where handedness is determined after, relationship between the evolutionary and develop
rather than before, fertilization
(B) a sinistral ge
f the egg cell sion, each is based on different
(C) fewer sinistral offspring in dextral broods than assumptions.
dextral offspring in sinistral broods (B) They present contradictory explanations of the
(E) equal numbers of exclusively left and right same phenomenon.
handed broods (C) The second theory accounts for certain
(F) an increasing occurrence of left handedness in phenomena that the first cannot explain.
successive broods (D) The second th
cal and interchangeable in that

the second theory merely restates the first in
less technical terms.
85
Test 10.1 17) E

18) D
19) E
21) E
22) B
23) C
ANSWERS 20) A 24) D
25) C
26) B
27) C
10.2 - 1st
Recently some scientists have concluded that 19. The passage suggests that which of the following
meteorites found on Earth and long believed to have a is true concerning the probability that a rock, if
Martian origin might actually have been blasted free of ejected from Mars, will hit the Earth?
Mars’s gravity by the impact on Mars of other meteorites. (A) The probability is increased when particles are
This conclusion has led to another question: whether ejected from Mars in random directions.
meteorite impacts on Earth have similarly driven rocks (B) The probability is increased by the presence of
from this planet to Mars. large craters on the surface of Mars.
According to astronomer S.A. Phinney, kicking a (C)The probability is decreased when Mars’s orbit
rock hard enough to free it from Earth’s gravity would brings the planet close to Earth.
require a meteorite capable of making a crater more than (D) The probability is greater than, the probability
60 miles across. Moreover, even if Earth rocks were freed that a rock from Earth will hit Mars.
by meteorite impact, Mars’s orbit is much larger than (E) The probability is less than the probability that a
Earth’s, so Phinney estimates that the probability of these rock from Earth will escape Earth’s gravity.
rocks hitting Mars is about one-tenth as great as that of
Mars’s rocks hitting Earth. To demonstrate this estimate, 20. Which of the following, if true, would cast most
Phinney used a comp doubt on Phinney’s estimate of the probability of
Earth rocks hitting Mars?
ound that 17 of the 1,000
particles would hit Mars. (A) Rather
rcent of all particles ejected from Earth
17. The passage is primarily concerned with go in the same direction into space.
(B) Approximately 100 meteorites large enough to
(A) presenting an argument to support a particular make a noticeable crater hit the Earth each
hypothesis year.
(B) suggesting an answer to a theoretical question (C) No rocks of Earth origin have been detected on
(C) questioning the assumptions of a research Mars. ,
project (D) The velocity of rocks escaping from Earth’s
(D) criticizing experimental results gravity is lower than the velocity of
(E) explaining the origin of certain scientific data meteorites hitting the Earth. .
(E) No craters more than 60 miles across have been
18. According to the passage, which of the following found on Mars.
events may have initiated the process that led to the
presence on Earth of meteorites from Mars?
(A) A meteorite struck the Earth with tremendous
velocity.
(B) A meteorite collided with Mars.
(C) Approximately 1,000 rocks were ejected from
Mars.
(D) The orbits of Earth and Mars brought the
planets to their closest points.
(E) Rocks from a meteorite impact broke free of
Earth’s gravity.
87
10.2 - 2nd
A “scientistic” view of language was dominant 21. According to the passage, to reject rhetoric and still
among philosophers and linguists who affected to hope to persuade people is -
develop a scientific analysis of human thought and (A) an aim of most speakers and writers
Line behavior in the early part of this century. Under the (B) an indication either of dishonesty or of credulity
(5) force of this view, it was perhaps inevitable that the (C) a way of displaying distrust of the audience’s
art of rhetoric should pass from the status of being motives
regarded as of questionable worth (because although (D) a characteristic of most humanistic discourse
it might be both a source of pleasure and a means to (E) a way of avoiding excessively abstract reasoning
urge people to right action, it might also be a means to
(10) distort truth and a source of misguided action) to the 22. It can
status of being wholly condemned. If people are regarded eenth century rhetoric was regarded as
only as machines guided by logic, as they were by these
“scientistic” thinkers, rhetoric is likely to be held in low (A) the only necessary element of persuasive
regard; for the discourse
(15) (B) a dubious art in at least two ways
(C) an outmoded and tedious amplification of logic
estly conceived, always has a basis in (D) an open offense to the rational mind
reasoning. Logical argument is the plot, as it were, of (E) the most important of the humanistic studies
any speech or essay that is respectfully intended to
(20) persuade people. Yet it is a characterizing feature of 23. The passage suggests that the disparagement of
rhetoric that it goes beyond this and appeals to the rhetoric by some people can be traced to their
parts of our nature that are involved in feeling, desiring, (A) reaction against science
acting, and suffering. It recalls relevant instances of the (B) lack of training in logic
emotional reactions of people to circumstances—real (C) desire to persuade people as completely as
(25) or fictional—that are similar to our own circumstances. possible
Such is the purpose of both historical accounts and (D) misunderstanding of the use of the term
fables in persuasive discourse: they indicate literally or “scientistic”
symbolically how people may react emotionally, with (E) view of human motivation
hope or fear, to particular circumstances. A speech
(30) attempting to persuade people can achieve little unless 24. The passage suggests that a speech that attempts to
it takes into account the aspect of their being related to persuade people to act is likely to fail if it does NOT
such hopes and fears. (A) distort the truth a little to make it more
Rhetoric, then, is addressed to human beings living acceptable to the audience
at particular times and in particular places. From the (B) appeal to the self-interest as well as the
(35) point of view of rhetoric, we are not merely logical humanitarianism of the audience
thinking machines, creatures abstracted from time (C) address listeners’ emotions as well as their
and space. The study of rhetoric should therefore be intellects .
considered the most humanistic of the humanities, since (D) concede the logic of other points of view
rhetoric is not directed only to our rational selves. It (E) show how an immediately desirable action is
(40) takes into account what the “scientistic” view leaves out. consistent with timeless principles
If it is a weakness to harbor feelings, then rhetoric may
be thought of as dealing in weakness. But those who 25. The passage suggests that to consider people as
reject the idea of rhetoric because they believe it deals “thinking machines” (line 36) is to consider them as
in lies and who at the same time hope to move people to
(45) action, must either be liars themselves or be very naive; (A) beings separated from a historical context
pure logic has never been a motivating force unless it (B) replaceable parts of a larger social machine
has been subordinated to human purposes, feelings, and (C) more complex than other animals
desires, and thereby ceased to be pure logic. (D) liars rather than honest people
(E) infallible in their reasoning
88
26. Which of the following persuasive devices is NOT 27. Which of the following best states the author’s main
used in the passage? point about logical argument?
(A) A sample of an actual speech delivered by an (A) It is a sterile, abstract discipline, of little use in
orator real life.
(B) The contrast of (B) It is an essential element of persuasive
discourse, but only one such element.
seeks to explain logical (C) It is an important means of persuading people
argument to act against their desires.
(E) Evaluative or judgmental words (D) It is the lowest order of discourse because it is
the least imaginative.
(E) It is essential to persuasive discourse because it
deals with universal truths.
89
Test 10.2 17) B

18) B
19) D
21) B
22) B
23) E
ANSWERS 20) A 24) C
25) A
26) A
27) B
11.1 - 1st
(The article from which the passage was taken appeared 19. The author implies that a nearly circular orbit is
in 1982) unlikely for a satellite that
(A) circles one of the inner planets
Theorists are divided concerning the origin of the (B) is deficient in iron
Moon. Some hypothesize that the Moon was formed (C) is different from its planet geochemically
in the same w (D) was formed by a collision between two celestial
Line bodies
(5) (E) was formed out of the planet forming-materials
in the presolar nebula
20. Which of the following, if true, would be most likely

to make it difficult to verify the collision hypothesis
(10) in the manner suggested by the author?
hypothesis is the (A) The Moon’s core and mantlerock are almost
question of how a satellite formed in this way could have inactive geologically.
settled into the nearly circular orbit that the Moon has (B) The mantlerock of the Earth has changed in
today. Fortunately, the collision hypothesis is testable. composition since the formation of the
(15)
If it is true, the mantle rocks of the Moon and the Earth Moon, while the mantlerock of the Moon has
should be the same geochemically. remained chemically inert.
(C) Much of the Earth’s iron fell to the Earth’s core
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to long before the formation of the Moon, after
which the Earth’s mantlerock remained
(A) present two hypotheses concerning the origin unchanged.
of the Moon (D) Certain of the Earth’s elements, such as
(B) discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the platinum, gold, and iridium, followed iron to
collision hypothesis concerning the origin of the Earth’s core.
the Moon (E) The mantlerock of the Moon contains elements
(C) propose that hypotheses concerning the Moon’s such as platinum, gold, and iridium.
origin be tested
(D) argue that the Moon could not have been
formed out of the typical planet forming-
materials of the presolar nebula
(E) describe one reason why the Moon’s
geochemical makeup should resemble that of
the Earth
18. According to the passage, Mars and the Earth are

similar in which of the following ways?
I. Their satellites were formed by collisions with
other celestial bodies.
II. Their cores contain iron.
III. They were formed from the presolar nebula.
(A) III only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
91
11.1 - 2nd
Surprisingly enough, modern historians have rarely 21. The author is primarily concerned with
interested themselves in the history of the American (A) refuting a claim about the influence of Puritan
South in the period before the South began to become culture on the early American South
Line self-consciously and distinctively “Southern”—the decades (B) refuting a thesis about the distinctiveness of the
(5) after 1815. Consequently, the cultural history of Britain’s culture of the early American South
North American empire in the seventeenth and eighteenth (C) refuting the two premises that underlie Davis’
centuries has been written almost as if the Southern discussion of the culture of the American
colonies had never existed. The American culture that South in the period before 1815
emerged during the Colonial and Revolutionary eras has (D) challenging the hypothesis that early American
(10) been depicted as having been simply an extension of New culture was homogeneous in nature
England Puritan culture. However, Professor Davis has (E) challenging the contention that the American
recently argued that the South stood apart from the rest South made greater contributions to early
of American society during this early period, following its American culture than Puritan New England
own unique pattern of cultural development. The case for did
(15) Southern distinctiveness rests upon two related premises:
first, that the cultura 22. The passage implies that the attitudes toward Native
e impressive than the differences, Americans that prevailed in the Southern colonies
and second, that what made those colonies alike also made
them different from the other colonies. The first, for which (A) were in conflict with the cosmopolitan outlook
(20) Davis offers an enormous amount of evidence, can be of the South ,
accepted without major reservations; the second is far more (B) derived from Southerners’ strong interest in the
problematic. law
What makes the second premise problematic is the (C) were modeled after those that prevailed in the
use of the Puritan colonies as a basis for comparison. Qui North
(25) (D) differed from those that prevailed in the
ibed by historians to the Puritans in the formation of Puritan colonies
American culture. Yet Davis inadvertently adds weight (E) developed as a response to attitudes that
to such ascriptions by using the Puritans as the standard prevailed in Massachusetts and Connecticut
against which to assess the achievements and contributions
(30) of Southern colonials. Throughout, Davis focuses on 23. According to the author, the depiction of American
the important, and undeniable, differences between the culture during the Colonial and Revolutionary eras
Southern and Puritan colonies in motives for and patterns as an extension of New England Puritan culture
of early settlement, in attitudes toward nature and Native reflects the
Americans, and in the degree of receptivity to metropolitan (A) fact that historians have overestimated
(35) cultural influences. the importance of the Puritans in the
However, recent scholarship has strongly suggested development of American culture
that (B) fact that early American culture was deeply
influenced by the strong religious orientation
ious orientation and the communal impulse, were of the colonists
(40) not even typical of New England as a whole, but were (C) failure to recognize important and undeniable
largely confined to the two colonies of Massachusetts and cultural differences between New Hampshire
Connecticut. Thus, what in contrast to the Puritan colonies and Rhode Island on the one hand and the
appears to Davis to be peculiarly Southern—acquisitiveness, Southern colonies on the other
a strong interest in politics and the law, and a tendency to (D) extent to which Massachusetts and Connecticut
(45) cultivate metropolitan cultural models - was not only more served as cultural models for the other
typically English than the cultural patterns exhibited by American colonies.
Puritan Massachusetts and Connecticut, but also almost (E) extent to which colonial America resisted
certainly characteristic of most other early modern British assimilating cultural patterns that were
colonies from Barbados north to Rhode Island and New typically English
(50) Hampshire. Within the larger framework of American
colonial life, then, not the Southern but the Puritan colonies
appear to have been distinctive, and even they seem to have
been rapidly assimilating to the dominant cultural patterns
by the late Colonial period.
92
24. The author of the passage is in agreement with which 26. The passage suggests that by the late Colonial period
of the following elements of Davis’ book? the tendency to cultivate metropolitan cultural
I. Davis’ claim that acquisitiveness was a models was a cultural pattern that was
characteristic unique to the South during the (A) dying out as Puritan influence began to grow
Colonial period (B) self-conscious
at there were significant
differences between Puritan and Southern
culture during the Colonial period
III. Davis’ thesis that the Southern colonies shared a (E) beginning to spread to Rhode Island and New
common culture Hampshire
(A) I only
(B) II only 27. Which of the following statements could most
(C) III only logically follow the last sentence of the passage?
(D) I and II only (A) Thus, had more attention been paid to the
(E) II and III only evidence, Davis would not have been
tempted to argue that the culture of the South
25. It can be inferred from the passage that the author diverged greatly from Puritan culture in the
would find Davis’ second premise (lines 18-19) seventeenth century.
more plausible if it were true that (B) Thus, convergence, not divergence, seems to
(A) Puritan culture had displayed the tendency have characterized the cultural development
characteristic of the South to cultivate of the American colonies in the eighteenth
metropolitan cultural models century.
(B) Puritan culture had been dominant in all (C) Thus, without the cultural diversity represented
the Non-Southern colonies during the by the American South, the culture of
seventeenth and eighteenth centuries colonial America would certainly have been
(C) the communal impulse and a strong religious homogeneous in nature.
orientation had been more prevalent in the (D) Thus, the contribution of Southern colonials
South to American culture was certainly
(D) the various cultural patterns of the Southern overshadowed by that of the Puritans.
colonies had more closely resembled each (E) Thus, the culture of America during the
other Colonial period was far more sensitive
(E) the cultural patterns characteristic of most to outside influences than historians are
early modern British colonies had also been accustomed to acknowledge.
characteristic of the Puritan colonies
93
Test 11.1 17) A

18) D
19) D
21) B
22) D
23) A
ANSWERS 20) B 24) E
25) B
26) C
27) B
11.2 - 1st
For some time scientists have believed that cholesterol 17. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned
plays a major role in heart disease because people with with
familial hypercholesterolemia, a genetic defect, have (A) presenting a hypothesis and describing
Line six to eight times the normal level of cholesterol in compelling evidence in support of it
(5) their blood and they invariably develop heart disease. (B) raising a question and describing an important
These people lack cell-surface receptors for low-density discovery that led to an answer
lipoproteins (LDL’s), which are the fundamental carriers (C) showing that a certain genetically caused
of blood cholesterol to the body cells that use cholesterol. disease can be treated effectively with drugs
Without an adequate number of cell-surface receptors (D) explaining what causes the genetic mutation
(10) to remove LDL’s from the blood, the cholesterol carrying that leads to heart disease
LDL’s remain in the blood, increasing blood cholesterol (E) discussing the importance of research on
levels. Scientists also noticed that people with familial animals for the study of human disease
hypercholesterolemia appear to produce more LDL’s than
normal individuals. How, scientists wondered, could a 18. Which of the following drugs, if developed, would
(15) genetic mutati most likely be an example of the kind of drug
the blood also result in an increase in the mentioned in line 52?
synthesis of this cholesterol carrying protein?
Since scientists could not experiment on human body (A) A drug that stimulates the production of VLDL
tissue, their knowledge of familial hypercholesterolemia remnants
(20) was severely limited. However, a breakthrough came in (B) A drug that stimulates the production of LDL
the laboratories of Yoshio Watanabe of Kobe University rece
in Japan in 1980. Watanabe noticed that a male rabbit hat stimulates the production of an
in his colony had ten times the normal concentration enzyme needed for cholesterol production
of cholesterol in its blood. By appropriate breeding, (D) A drug that suppresses the production of body
(25) Watanabe obtained a strain of rabbits that had very cells that use cholesterol
high cholesterol levels. These rabbits spontaneously (E) A drug that prevents triglycerides from
developed heart disease. To his surprise, Watanabe attaching to VLDL’s
further found that the rabbits, like humans with familial
hypercholesterolemia, lacked LDL receptors. Thus, 19. The passage supplies information to answer which of
(30) scientists could study these Watanabe rabbits to gain a the following questions?
better understanding of familial hypercholesterolemia in (A) Which body cells are the primary users of
humans. cholesterol?
Prior to the breakthrough at Kobe University, it (B) How did scientists discover that LDL’s are
was known that LDL’s are secreted from the liver in the secreted from the liver in the form of a
(35) form of a precursor, called very low-density lipoproteins precursor?
(VLDL’s), which carry triglycerides as well as relatively (C) Where in the body are VLDL remnants
small amounts of cholesterol. The triglycerides are degraded?
removed from the VLDL’s by fatty and other tissues. (D) Which body tissues produce triglycerides?
What remains is a remnant particle that must be removed (E) What techniques are used to determine the
(40) from the blood. What scientists learned by studying presence or absence of cell-surface receptors?
the Watanabe rabbits is that the removal of the VLDL
remnant requires the LDL receptor. Normally, the
majority of the VLDL remnants go to the liver where they
bind to LDL receptors and are degraded. In the Watanabe
(45) rabbit, due to a lack of LDL receptors on liver cells, the
VLDL remnants remain in the blood and are eventually
converted to LDL’s. The LDL receptors thus have a dual
effect in controlling LDL levels. They are necessary to
prevent oversynthesis of LDL’s from VLDL remnants and
(50) they are necessary for the normal removal of LDL’s from
the blood. With this knowledge, scientists are now well on
the way toward developing drugs that dramatically lower
cholesterol levels in people afflicted with certain forms of
familial hypercholesterolemia.
96
20. According to the passage, by studying the Watanabe 22. The passage implies that if the Watanabe rabbits had
rabbits scientists learned that had as many LDL receptors on their livers as do
(A) VLDL remnants are removed from the blood by normal rabbits, the Watanabe rabbits would have
LDL receptors in the liver been
(B) LDL’s are secreted from the liver in the form of (A) less likely than normal rabbits to develop heart
precursors called VLDL’s disease
(C) VLDL remnant particles contain small amounts (B) less likely than normal rabbits to develop high
of cholesterol concentrations of cholesterol in their blood
(D) triglycerides are removed from VLDL’s by fatty (C) less useful than they actually were to scientists
tissues in the study of familial hypercholesterolemia
(E) LDL receptors remove LDL’s from the blood in humans
(D) unable to secrete VLDL’s from their livers
21. The development of drug treatments for some forms (E) immune to drugs that lower cholesterol levels
of familial hypercholesterolemia is regarded by the in people with certain forms of familial
author as hypercholesterolemia
(A) possible, but not very important
(B) interesting, but too costly to be practical 23. The passage implies that Watanabe rabbits differ from
(C) promising, but many years off normal rabbits in which of the following ways?
(D) extremely unlikely (A) Watanabe rabbits have more LDL receptors
(E) highly probable than do normal rabbits.
(B) The blood of Watanabe rabbits contains more
VLDL remnants than does the blood of
normal rabbits.
(C)Watanabe rabbits have fewer fatty tissues than
do norma
rmal rabbits.
(E) The blood of Watanabe rabbits contains fewer
LDL’s than does the blood of normal rabbits.
97
11.2 - 2nd
(The article from which the passage was taken appeared 25. The author suggests that Bearden should not be
in 1981) called a Black American artist because
(A) there are many collages by Bearden in which
When speaking of Romare Bearden, one is tempted the subject matter is not Black
to say, “A great Black American artist.” The subject matter (B) Bearden’s work reflects the Black American
of Bearden’s collages is certainly Black. Portrayals of the experience in a highly individual style
Line folk of Mecklenburg County, North Carolina, whom he (C) through the structure of Bearden’s art his Black
(5) remembers from early childhood, of the jazz musicians subjects come to represent all of humankind
and tenement roofs of his Harlem days, of Pittsburgh (D) Bearden’s true significance lies not so much in
steelworkers, and his reconstruction of classical Greek his own work as in his efforts to help other
myths in the guise of the ancient Black kingdom of minority artists
Benin, attest to this. In natural harmony with this choice (E) much of Bearden’s work uses the ancient Black
(10) of subject matter are the social sensibilities of the artist, kingdom of Benin for its setting
who remains active today with the Cinque Gallery in
Manhattan, which he helped found and which is devoted 26. Bearden’s social sensibilities and the subject matter of
to showing the work of minority artists. his collages are mentioned by the author in order to
Then why not call Bearden a Black American artist? explain
(15) Because ultimately this categorization is too narrow
“What stan (A) why one might be tempted to call Bearden a
do is amplify. If I were just creating a Black American artist
picture of a farm woman from back home, it would have (B) why Bearden cannot be readily categorized
meaning to her and people there. But art amplifies itself (C) why Bearden’s appeal is thought by many to be
to something universal.” ultimately universal
(20)
(D) how deeply an artist’s artistic creations are
24. According to the passage, all of the following are influenced by the artist’s social conscience
depicted in Bearden’s collages EXCEPT (E) what makes Bearden unique among
contemporary Black American artists
(A) workers in Pittsburgh’s steel mills
(B) scenes set in the ancient kingdom of Benin 27. The author of the passage is chiefly concerned with
(C) people Bearden knew as a child
(D) traditional representations of the classical (A) discussing Bearden’s philosophy of art
heroes of Greek mythology (B) assessing the significance of the ethnic element
(E) the jazz musicians of the Harlem Bearden used in Bearden’s work
to know C) acknowledging Bearden’s success in giving
artistic expression to the Black American
experience
(D) pointing out Bearden’s helpfulness to other
minority artists
(E) tracing Bearden’s progress toward artistic
maturity
98
Test 11.2 17) B

18) B
19) C
24) D
25) C
26) A
ANSWERS 20) A 27) B
21) E
22) C
23) B
12.1 - 1st
The more that is discovered about the intricate can be understood correctly even though a typographical
organization of the nervous system, the more it seems error has occurred. More precision could be gained,
remarkable that genes can successfully specify the however; if those 24 spaces were filled with Arabic
Line development of that system. Human genes contain too (50) numerals; then π could be expressed to 23 significant
(5) little information even to specify which hemisphere of digits, although any error would significantly change
the brain each of a human’s 1011 neurons should occupy, the meaning. There exists a trade-off; the more precisely
let alone the hundreds of connections that each neuron a system is specified, using a given limited amount of
makes. For such reasons, we can assume that there must information, the greater the danger of gross mistakes.
be an important random factor in neural development (55) The overall scheme by which genetic information is
(10) and in particular, that errors must and do occur in the rationed out in organisms, therefore, must involve a
development of all normal brains compromise between two conflicting priorities: precision
and the avoidance of gross mistakes.
sms. Even
when reared under the same conditions, isogenic 17. Which of the following best expresses the main idea
(15) organisms are rarely exact copies of one another, and of the passage?
their differences have revealed much about the random (A) Although studies of isogenic organisms
variations that result from an organism’s limited supply have shown that all organisms are subject
of genetic information. In isogenic Daphniae, for to developmental variations, there is still
example, even though the position, size, and branching scientific debate over the exact causes of these
(20) pattern of each optic neuron are remarkably constant, variations.
there is some variability in connectivity, and the number (B) Because of limitations on the amount of
of synapses varies greatly. This variability is probably information contained in the genes of
the result of random scatter beyond the resolution of organisms, developing nervous systems
genetic control and is best termed “imprecision,” since are subject to two basic kinds of error, the
(25) its converse, the degree of clustering about a mean, is likelihood of one of which is reduced only
conventionally called “precision.” when the likelihood of the other is increased.
Imprecision should be distinguished from (C) The complexity of an organism’s genetic
developmental mistakes: wrongly migrated neurons, information means that much of the unusual
incorrect connections, and the like. To use a computer variation that occurs among organisms
(30) analogy, minor rounding-off errors occur universally can best be explained as the result of
and are analogous to imprecision, but occasionally a developmental mistakes.
binary digit is incorrectly transmitted, perhaps ruining a (D) New findings about the nature of the genetic
calculation, and this incorrect transmission is analogous control of neural development support the
to a developmental mistake. Thus, imprecision is a form work of some scientists who argue that the
(35) of inaccuracy inherent within the limits of design, but computer is an extremely useful model for
mistakes are forms of gross fallibility. understanding the nervous system.
Both imprecision and gross fallibility can (E) The major discovery made by scientists
plausibly be blamed on the insufficiency of genetic studying the genetic control of neural
information, since either could be reduced by adding development is that both imprecision and
(40) more information. It is universally accepted among gross developmental error can be traced to
information theorists that codes and languages can be specific types of mutations in specific genes.
made mistake-resistant by incorporating redundancy.
However, since the amount of space available in any
information system is limited, increased redundancy
(45) results in decreased precision. For example, π when
written incorrectly in English, “three point one four two,”
100
18. According to the passage, one of the reasons it has 21. Which of the following best describes the
been assumed that there is an important random organization of the first paragraph?
element in human neural development is that (A) A specific case is presented, its details are
(A) genes cannot specify certain types of analyzed, and a conclusion is drawn from it
developmental processes as well as they can (B) A discovery is announced, its most significant
others application is discussed, and possibilities for
(B) the intricacy of the nervous system allows the future are suggested.
small developmental errors to occur without (C)A generalization is made, specific situations in
harmful effects which it is applicable are noted, and problems
(C) the amount of information contained in the with it are suggested.
genes is less than the amount necessary to (D) An observation is made, specifics are provided
specify the location of the neurons to support it, and a generalization is derived.
(D) the number of neurons in the human brain (E) A hypothesis is presented, its implications are
varies greatly from individual to individual clarified, and applications of it are discussed.
(E) it is theoretically impossible for an organism
to protect itself completely from gross 22. The author uses all of the following to clarify the
developmental mistakes distinction between imprecision and gross mistake
in neural development EXCEPT
19. The author suggests which of the following about the (A) classification of borderline phenomena
findings of information theorists? (B) a description of the relationship between the
(A) Their findings provocatively challenge the phenomena denoted by each term
standard explanation of redundancy in genes. (C) specific examples of the phenomena denoted by
(B) Their findings provide useful insights into each term
understanding the rationing of genetic (D) an explanation of at least one of the key terms
information. involved
(C) Their (E) analogies to other types of phenomena
mistakes can occur. 23. Which of the following can be inferred from the
(D) Their findings suggest that genes may be able to passage about the genetic information of Daphniae?
specify neural development more accurately I. There is probably some degree of redundancy
than had previously been thought. in the information controlling neural
(E) Their findings support the work of those who development.
use computer operations as models for II. Most of the information for neural development
understanding genetic control. stored in the genes is used to specify the
positions of the optic neurons.
20. According to the passage, of the following aspects III. There is sufficient information to preclude the
of the optic neurons of isogenic Daphniae, which occurrence of gross mistakes during neural
varies the most? development.
(A) Size
(B) Connectivity (A) I only
(C) Position (B) II only
(D) Branching pattern (C) III only
(E) Number of synapses (D) I and II only
(E) II and III only
101
12.1 - 2nd
In a recent study, David Cressy examines two central 26. According to the passage, Cressy has made which of
questions concerning English immigration to New the following claims about what motivated English
England in the 1630’s: what kinds of people immigrated immigrants to go to New England in the 1630’s?
Line and why? Using contemporary literary evidence, (A) They were motivated by religious
(5) shipping lists, and customs records, Cressy finds that considerations alone.
most adult immigrants were skilled in farming or crafts, (B) They were motivated by economic
were literate, and were organized in families. Each of considerations alone.
these characteristics sharply distinguishes the 21,000 (C)They were motivated by religious and economic
people who left for New England in the 1630’s from most considerations equally.
(10) of the approximately 377,000 English people who had (D) They were motivated more often by economic
immigrated to America than by religious considerations.
(E) They were motivated more often by religious
requently noted fact that than by economic considerations.
some of the immigrants of the 1630’s, most notably the
(15) organizers and clergy, advanced religious explanations 27. The passage suggests that the majority of those
for departure, but he finds that such explanations English people who had immigrated to America by
usually assumed primacy only in retrospect. When the late seventeenth century were
he moves beyond the principal actors, he finds that
religious explanations were less frequently offered and (A) clergy
(20) he concludes that most people immigrated because they (B) young children
were recruited by promises of material improvement. (C) organized in families
(D) skilled in crafts
24. The author is primarily concerned with (E) illiterate
(A) summarizing the findings of an investigation
(B) analyzing a method of argument
(C) evaluating a point of view
(D) hypothesizing about a set of circumstances
(E) establishing categories
25. According to the passage, Cressy would agree

with which of the following statements about the
organizers among the English immigrants to New
England in the 1630’s?.
I. Most of them were clergy.
II. Some of them offered a religious explanation for
their immigration.
III. They did not offer any reasons for their
immigration until some time after they had
immigrated.
IV. They were more likely than the average
immigrant to be motivated by material
considerations.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, III, and IV only
(E) II, III and IV only
102
Test 12.1 17) B

18) C
19) B
24) A
25) B
26) D
ANSWERS 20) E 27) E
21) D
22) A
23) A
[This passage was excerpted from an article published in
12.2 - 1st
17. Which of the following titles best summarizes the
1975.] content of the passage?
(A) How Theories of Literary Criticism Can Best Be
Is the Literary critic like the poet, responding Used
creatively, intuitively, subjectively to the written word as (B) Problems Confronting Women Who Are
the poet responds to human experience? Or is the critic Feminist Literary Critics
Line more like a scientist, following a series of demonstrable, (C)A Historical Overview of Feminist Literary
(5) verifiable steps, using an objective method of analysis? Criticism
For the woman who is a practitioner of feminist (D) A New Theory of Literary Criticism
literary criticism, the subjectivity versus objectivity, (E) Literary Criticism: Art or Science?
or critic-as-artist or scientist, debate has special
significance; for her, the question is not only academic, For the following question, consider each of the
(10) but political as well, and her definition will court special choices separately and select all that apply.
risks whichever side of the issue it favors. If she defines 18. It can
feminist criticism as objective and scientific—a valid,
verifiable, intellectual method that anyone, whether
man or woman, can perform —the definition not only can make a unique contribution to society.
precludes the critic-as-artist approach, but may also II. They must develop a new theory of the critical
(15)
impede accomplishment of the utilitarian political process.
objectives of those who seek to change the academic III. Their criticisms of literature should be entirely
establishment and its thinking, especially about sex roles. objective.
If she defines femini (A) I only
her work becomes vulnerable to (B) II only
(20)
the prejudices of stereotypic ideas about the ways in (C) I and III only
which women think, and will be dismissed by much of (D) II and III only
the academic establishment. Because of these prejudices, (E) I, II and III
women who use an intuitive approach in their criticism
may find themselves charged with inability to be 19. The author specifically mentions all of the following
(25)
analytical, to be objective, or to think critically. Whereas as difficulties that particularly affect women who
men may be free to claim the role of critic-as-artist, are theoreticians of feminist literary criticism
women run different professional risks when they choose EXCEPT the
intuition and private experience as critical method and (A) tendency of a predominantly male academic
(30) defense. establishment to form preconceptions about
These questions are political in the sense that the women
debate over them will inevitably be less an exploration of (B) limitations that are imposed when criticism is
abstract matters in a spirit of disinterested inquiry than defined as objective and scientific
an academic power struggle in which the careers and (C) likelihood that the work of a woman
(35) professional fortunes of many women scholars—only theoretician who cla
now entering the academic profession in substantial prejudice by some
numbers—will be at stake, and with them the chances for academics
a distinctive contribution to humanistic understanding, (D) inescapability of power struggles between
a contribution that might be an important influence women in the academic profession and the
(40) against sexism in our society. academic establishment
As long as the academic establishment continues to (E) tendency of members of the academic
regard objective analysis as “masculine” and an intuitive establishment to treat all forms of feminist
approach literary theory with hostility
(45) onstruct a theory of feminist criticism, she

would be well advised to place it within the framework
of a general theory of the critical process that is neither
purely objective nor purely intuitive. Her theory is then
more likely to be compared and contrasted with other
(50) theories of criticism with some degree of dispassionate
distance.
104
20. According to the author, the debate mentioned in the 23. It can be inferred that the author would define as
passage has special significance for the woman who “political” (line 31) questions that .
is a theoretician of feminist literary criticism for (A) are contested largely through contentions over
which of the following reasons? power
(A) There are large numbers of capable women (B) are primarily academic in nature and open to
working within the academic establishment. abstract analysis
(B) There are a few powerful feminist critics who (C) are not in themselves important
have been recognized by the academic (D) cannot be resolved without extensive debate
establishment. (E) will be debated by both men and women
(C) like other critics, most women who are literary
critics define criticism as either scientific or
artistic.
(D) Women who are literary critics face
professional r
rary critics are more likely

to participate in the debate than are men who
are literary critics.
21. Which of the following is presented by the author in

support of the suggestion that there is stereotypic
thinking among members of the academic
establishment?
(A) A distinctively feminist contribution to
humanistic understanding could work against
the influence of sexism among members of
the academic establishment.
(B) Women who define criticism as artistic may be
seen by the academic establishment as being
incapable of critical thinking.
(C) The debate over the role of the literary critic is
often seen as a political one.
(D) Women scholars are only now entering
academia in substantial numbers.
(E) The woman who is a critic is forced to construct
a theory of literary criticism.
22. Which of the following is most likely to be one of the

“utilitarian political objectives” mentioned by the
author (in line 16) ?
(A) To forge a new theory of literary criticism
(B) To pursue truth in a disinterested manner
(C) To demonstrate that women are interested in
literary criticism that can be viewed either
subjectively or objectively
(D) To convince the academic establishment to
revise the ways in which it assesses women
scholars’ professional qualities
(E) To dissuade women who are literary critics
from taking a subjective approach to literary
criticism
105
12.2 - 2nd
[This passage was excerpted from an article published in 26. According to the passage, Einstein posed objections
1979.] to the
(A) existence of hidden parameters in quantum
Quantum mechanics is a highly successful theory: theory
it supplies methods for accurately calculating the (B) probabilistic nature of quantum mechanics
results of diverse experiments, especially with minute (C) idea that quantum mechanics is incomplete
Line particles. The predictions of quantum mechanics, (D) results of experiments testing quantum theory
(5) however, give only the probability of an event, not a (E) importance accorded quantum mechanics in
deterministic statement of whether or not the event will physics
occur. Because of this probabilism, Einstein remained
strongly dissatisfied with the theory throughout his life, 27. The passage suggests that which of the following
though he did not maintain that quantum mechanics is would have resulted if the experiments mentioned
(10) wrong. Rather, he held that it is incomplete: in quantum in line 18-19 had not supported the predictions of
mechanics the motion of a particle must be described traditional quantum mechanics?
in terms of probabilities, he argued, only because some
parameters that (A) Einstein, had he been alive, would have revised
his approach to quantum mechanics.
(15) erministic trajectory could be defined. (B) Hidden-parameter theories would have been
Significantly, this hidden-parameter quantum theory considered inaccurate descriptions of real-
leads to experimental predictions different from those world phenomena.
of traditional quantum mechanics. Einstein’s ideas have (C) A deterministic description of the motion of a
been tested by experiments performed since his death, particle might still be considered possible.
(20) and as most of these experiments support traditional (D) Quantum mechanics would have ceased to
quantum mechanics, Einstein’s approach is almost attract the attention of physicists.
certainly erroneous. (E) Einstein, had he been alive, would have
abandoned attempts to specify the hidden
24. The author regards the idea that traditional quantum parameters that describe motion.
mechanics is incomplete with
(A) approval
(B) surprise
(C) indifference
(D) apprehension
(E) skepticism
25. It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s

conclusion that Einstein’s approach is “erroneous”
(line 22) might have to be modified because
(A) it is theoretically possible to generate plausible
theories with hidden parameters within them
(B) some experimental tests of Einstein’s theory do
not disconfirm the hidden-parameter theory
of quantum mechanics
(C) it is possible for a theory to have hidden
parameters and yet be probabilistic
(D) traditional quantum mechanics has not yet
been used to analyze all of the phenomena to
which it could be applied
(E) there are too many possible hidden parameters
to develop meaningful tests of hidden-
parameter theories
106
Test 12.2 17) B

18) A
19) E
24) E
25) B
26) B
ANSWERS 20) D 27) C
21) B
22) D
23) A
13.1 - 1st
Classical physics defines the vacuum as a state of 17. Which of the following titles best describes the
absence: a vacuum is said to exist in a region of space if passage as a whole?
there is nothing in it. In the quantum field theories that (A) The Vacuum: Its Fluctuations and Decay
describe the physics of elementary particles, the vacuum (B) The Vacuum: Its Creation and Instability
becomes somewhat more complicated. Even in empty (C) The Vacuum: A State of Absence
space, particles can appear spontaneously as a result of (D) Particles That Materialize in the Vacuum
fluctuations of the vacuum. For example, an electron (E) Classical Physics and the Vacuum
and a positron, or anti electron, can be created out of the
void. Particles created in this way have only a fleeting 18. According to the passage, the assumption that the
existence; they are annihilated almost as soon as they introduction of a real particle into a vacuum raises
appear, and their pr the total energy of that region of space has been cast
into doubt by which of the follow
define the vacuum as a space field experiments

that has no real particles in it. (C) Accidental observations made during other
One might expect that the vacuum would always be experiments
the state of lowest possible energy for a given region of (D) Discovery of several erroneous propositions in
space. If an area is initially empty and a real particle is accepted theories
put into it, the total energy, it seems, should be raised by (E) Predictions based on theoretical work
at least the energy equivalent of the mass of the added
particle. A surprising result of some recent theoretical 19. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists are
investigations is that this assumption is not invariably currently making efforts to observe which of the
true. There are conditions under which the introduction following events?
of a real particle of finite mass into an empty region (A) The decay of a vacuum in the presence of
of space can reduce the total energy. If the reduction virtual particles.
in energy is great enough, an electron and a positron (B) The decay of a vacuum next to a super heavy
will be spontaneously created. Under these conditions atomic nucleus
the electron and positron are not a result of vacuum (C) The creation of a super heavy atomic nucleus
fluctuations but are real particles, which exist indefinitely next to an intense electric field
and can be detected. In other words, under these (D) The creation of a virtual electron and a virtual
conditions the vacuum is an unstable state and can deca positron as a result of fluctuations of a
vacuum
icles are created. (E) The creation of a charged vacuum in which only
The essential condition for the decay of the vacuum real electrons can be created in the vacuum’s
is the presence of an intense electric field. As a result of region of space
the
ld can be said to acquire an electric charge, and
it can be called a charged Vacuum. The particles that
materialize in the space make the charge manifest. An
electric field of sufficient intensity to create a charged
vacuum is likely to be found in only one place: in the
immediate vicinity of a super heavy atomic nucleus, one
with about twice as many protons as the heaviest natural
nuclei known. A nucleus that large cannot be stable, but
it might be possible to assemble one next to a vacuum
for long enough to observe the decay of the vacuum.
Experiments attempting to achieve this are now under
way.
108
20. Physicists’ recent investigations of the decay of the 22. According to the passage, virtual particles different
vacuum, as described in the passage, most closely from real particles in which of the following ways?
resemble which of the following hypothetical events I. Virtual particles have extremely short lifetimes.
in other disciplines? II. Virtual particles are created in an intense electric
(A) On the basis of data gathered in a carefully field.
controlled laboratory experiment, a chemist III. Virtual particles cannot be detected directly.
predicts and then demonstrates the physical (A) I only
properties of a newly synthesized polymer. (B) II only
(B) On the basis of manipulations of (C) III only
macroeconomic theory, an economist (D) I and II only
predicts that, contrary to accepted economic (E) I and III only
theory, inflation and unemployment will both
decline under conditions of rapid economic 23. The author’s assertions concerning the conditions
growth. that lead to the decay of the vacuum would be most
(C) On the basis of a rereading of the texts of Jane weakened if which of the following occurred?
Austen’s novels, a literary critic suggests that, (A) Scientists created an electric field next to a
contrary to accepted literary interpretations, vacuum, but found that the electric field
Austen’s plots were actually metaphors for was
political events in early nineteenth-century
England. ts assembled a super heavy atomic
(D) On the basis of data gathered in carefully nucleus next to a vacuum, but found that no
planned observations of several species of virtual particles were created in the vacuum’s
birds, a biologist proposes a modification region of space.
in the accepted theory of interspecies (C) Scientists assembled a super heavy atomic
competition. nucleus next to a vacuum, but found that
(E) On the basis of a study of observations they could not then detect any real particles
incidentally recorded in ethnographers’ in the vacuum’s region of space.
descriptions of non-Western societies, an (D) Scientists introduced a virtual electron and a
anthropologist proposes a new theory of virtual positron into a vacuum’s region of
kinship relations. space, but found that the vacuum did not
then fluctuate.
21. According to the passage, the author considers the (E) Scientists introduced a real electron and a real
reduction of energy in an empty region of space to positron into a vacuum’s region of space,
which a real particle has been added to be but found that the total energy of the space
(A) a well-known process increased by the energy equivalent of the
(B) a frequent occurrence mass of the particles.
(C) a fleeting aberration
(D) an unimportant event
(E) an unexpected outcome
109
13.1 - 2nd
Simone de Beauvoir’s work greatly influenced 26. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
Betty Friedan’s—indeed, made it possible. Why, following is not a factor in the explanation of why
then, was it Friedan who became the prophet of The Feminine Mystique was received more positively
women’s emancipation in the United States? Political in the United States than was The Second Sex?
conditions, as well as a certain anti-intellectual bias, (A) By 1963 political conditions in the United States
prepared America had changed.
(B) Friedan’s book was less intellectual and abstract
than Beauvoir’s.
(C) Readers did not recognize the powerful
influence of Beauvoir’s book on Friedan’s
ideas.
(D) Friedan’s approach to the issue of women’s
emancipation was less radical than
Beauvoir’s.
(E) American readers were more willing to consider
the problem of the oppression of women in
e existence of women’s the sixties than they had been in the fifties.
oppression was too radical for the United States in
the fifties, and Beauvoir’s conclusion, that change in 27. According to the passage, Beauvoir’s book asserted
women’s economic condition, though insufficient by that the status of women
itself, “remains the basic factor” in improving women’s
situation, was particularly unacceptable. (A) is the outcome of political oppression
(B) is inherently tied to their economic condition
24. According to the passage, one difference between (C) can be best improved under a communist
The Feminine Mystique and The Second Sex is that government
Friedan’s book (D) is a theoretical, rather than a pragmatic, issue
(E) is a critical area of discussion in Marxist
(A) rejects the idea that women are oppressed economic theory
(B) provides a primarily theoretical analysis of
women’s lives
(C) does not reflect the political beliefs of its author
(D) suggests that women’s economic condition has
no impact on their status
(E) concentrates on the practical aspects of the
question of women’s emancipation
25. The author quotes from The Nation most probably in

order to
(A) modify an earlier assertion
(B) point out a possible exception to her argument
(C) illustrate her central point
(D) clarify the meaning of a term
(E) cite an expert opinion
110
Test 13.1 17) A

18) E
19) B
24) E
25) C
26) C
ANSWERS 20) B 27) B
21) E
22) E
23) C
13.2 - 1st
One of the questions of interest in the study of the 19. According to the passage, members of the Araneidae
evolution of spiders is whether the weaving of orb webs family can be distinguished from members of the
evolved only once or several times. About half the 35,000 Uloboridae family by all of the following EXCEPT
known kinds of spiders make webs; a third of the web (A) the presence of venom glands’
weavers make orb webs. Since most orb weavers belong (B) the type of web they spin
either to the Araneidae or the Uloboridae families, (C) the structure of their body hair
the origin of the orb web can be determined only by (D) the arrangement of their eyes ,
ascertaining whether th (E) their appearance
e families evolved from different 20. Which of the following statements, if true, most
ancestors, thereby contradicting Wiehle’s theory. This weakens Wiehle’s theory that complex behavior
theory postulates that the families must be related, based could evolve only once?
on, the assumption that complex behavior, such as web
building, could evolve only once. According to Kullman, (A) Horses, introduced to the New World by the
web structure is the only characteristic that suggests Spaniards, thrived under diverse climatic
a relationship between families. The families differ in conditions.
appearance, structure of body hair, and arrangement (B) Plants of the Palmaceae family, descendants
of eyes. Only Uloborids lack venom glands. Further of a common ancestor, evolved unique seed
identification and study of characteristic features will forms even though the plants occupy similar
undoubtedly answer the question of the evolution of the habitats throughout the world.
orb web. (C) All mammals are descended from a small,
Rodent like animal whose physical
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to characteristics in some form are found in all
its descendants.
(A) settle the question of whether, orb webs evolved (D) Plants in the Cactaceae and Euphorbiaceae
once or more than once families, although they often look alike
(B) describe scientific speculation concerning an and have developed similar mechanisms
issue related to the evolution of orb webs to meet the rigors of the desert, evolved
(C) analyze the differences between the independently.
characteristic features of spiders in the (E) The Cuban anole, which was recently
Araneidae and Uloboridae families introduced in the Florida wilds, is quickly
(D) question the methods used by earlier replacing the native Florida chameleon
investigators of the habits of spiders because the anole has no competitors.
(E) demonstrate that Araneidae spiders are not
related to Uloboridae spiders
18. It can be inferred from the passage that all orb-

weaving spiders belong to types of spiders that
(A) lack venom glands
(B) are included either in the Uloboridae or
Araneidae families
(C) share few characteristic features with other
spider types
(D) comprise less than a third of all known types of
spiders
(E) are more recently evolved than other types of
spiders
112
13.2 - 2nd
“Popular art” has a number of meanings, impossible 21. The author refers to Schubert and Brahms in order to
to define with any precision, which range from folklore suggest
to junk. The poles are clear enough, but the middle (A) that their achievements are no less substantial
tends to blur. The Hollywood Western of the 1930’s, for than those of Verdi
example, has elements of folklore, but is closer to junk (B) that their works are examples of great trash
than to high art or folk art. There can be great trash, (C) the extent to which Schubert and Brahms
just as there is bad high art. The musicals of George influenced the later compositions of Verdi
Gershwin are great popular art, never aspiring to high (D) a contrast between the conventions of
art. Schubert and Brahms, however, used elements of Nineteenth century opera and those of other
popular music—folk themes—in works clearly intended musical forms
as hi (E) that popular music could be employed in
compositions intended as high art
22. According to the passage, the immediacy of the

political message in Verdi’s operas stems from the
thout recognizing the essential trashiness (A) vitality and subtlety of the music
of the genre. (B) audience’s familiarity with earlier operas
As an example of such a transmutation, consider (C) portrayal of heightened emotional states
what Verdi made of the typical political elements of (D) individual talents of the singers
nineteenth century opera. Generally in the plots of these (E) verisimilitude of the characters
operas, a hero or heroine—usually portrayed only as
an individual, unfettered by class—is caught between 23. According to the passage, all of the following
the immoral corruption of the aristocracy and the characterize musical drama before Verdi EXCEPT
doctrinaire rigidity or secret greed of the leaders of the (A) arias tailored to a particular singer’s ability
proletariat. Verdi transforms this naive and unlikely (B) adaptation of music from other operas
formulation with music of extraordinary energy and (C) psychological inconsistency in the portrayal of
rhythmic vitality, music more subtle than it seems at characters
first hearing. There are scenes and arias that still sound (D) expression of emotional states in a series of
like calls to arms and were clearly understood as such dramatic situations
when they were first performed. Such pieces lend an (E) music used for the purpose of defining a
immediacy to the otherwise veiled political message of character
these operas and call up feelings beyond those of the
opera itself.
Or consider Verdi’s treatment of character. Before
Verdi, there were rarely any characters at all in musical
drama, only a series of situations which allowed the
singers to express a series of emotional states. Any
attempt to find coherent psychological portrayal in these
operas is misplaced ingenuity. The only coherence was
the singer’s vocal technique: when the cast changed, new
arias were almost
stency and integrity, even if, in many

cases, the consistency is that of pasteboard melodrama.
The integrity of the character is achieved through the
music: once he had become established, Verdi did not
rewrite his music for different singers or countenance
alterations or substitutions of somebody else’s arias in
one of his operas, as every eighteenth century composer
had done. When he revised an opera, it was only for
dramatic economy and effectiveness.
114
24. It can be inferred that the author regards Verdi’s 26. Which of the following best describes the relation
revisions to his operas with ship of the first paragraph of the passage to the
(A) regret that the original music and texts were passage as a whole?
altered (A) It provides a group of specific examples from
(B) concern that many of the revisions altered the which generalizations are drawn later in the
plots of the original work passage.
(C) approval for the intentions that motivated the’ (B) It leads to an assertion that is supported by
revisions examples later in the passage.
(D) puzzlement, since the revisions seem largely (C)It defines terms and relationships that are
insignificant challenged in an argument later in the
(E) enthusiasm, since the revisions were aimed at passage.
reducing the conventionality of the operas’ (D) It briefly compares and contrasts several
plots achievements that are examined in detail later
in the passage.
25. According to the passage, one of Verdi’s achievements (E) It explains a method of judging a work of art, a
within the framework of nineteenth century opera method that is used later in the passage.
and its conventions was to
(A) limit the extent to which singers influenced the 27. It can be inferred that the author regards the
musical composition and performance of his independence from social class of the heroes and
operas heroines of nineteenth-century opera as
(B) use his operas primarily as forums to protest (A) an idealized but fundamentally accurate
both the moral corruption and dogmatic portrayal of bourgeois life
rigidity of the political leaders of his time (B) a plot convention with no real connection to
(C) portray psychologically complex characters political reality
shaped by the political environment (C) a plot refinement unique to Verdi
surrounding them (D) a symbolic representation of the position of the
(D) incorporate elements of folklore into both the bourgeoisie relative to the aristocracy and the
music and plots of his operas . proletariat
(E) introduce political elements into an art form (E) a convention largely seen as irrelevant by
that had traditionally avoided political audiences
content
115
Test 13.2 17) B

18) D
19) B
21) E
22) A
23) E
ANSWERS 20) D 24) C
25) A
26) B
27) B
14.1 - 1st
Ragtime is a musical form that synthesizes folk 17. Which of the following best describes the main
melodies and musical techniques into a brief quadrille- purpose of the passage?
like structure, designed to be played—exactly as written— (A) To contrast ragtime music and jazz
Line on the piano. A strong analogy exists between European (B) To acknowledge and counter significant adverse
(5) composers like Ralph Vaughan Williams, Edvard Grieg, criticisms of ragtime music
and Anton Dvořák who combined folk tunes and their (C) To define ragtime music as an art form and
own original materials in larger compositions and describe its structural characteristics
the pioneer ragtime composers in the United States. (D) To review the history of ragtime music and
Composers like Scott Joplin and James Scott were in a analyze ragtime’s effect on listeners
(10) sense collectors or musicologists, collecting dance and (E) To explore the similarities between ragtime
folk music in Black communities and consciously shaping music and certain European musical
it into brief suites or anthologies called piano rags. compositions
It has sometimes been charged that ragtime is
mechanical. For instance, Wilfred Mellers comments, 18. According to the passage, each of the following is a
(15) “rags were transferred to the pianola roll and, even if not characteristic of ragtime compositions that follow
played by a machine, should be played like a machine, the classic ragtime formula EXCEPT
with meticulous precision.” However, there is no reason
to assume that ragtime is inherently mechanical simply (A) syncopation
because commercial manufacturers applied a mechanical (B) well-defined melodic figures
(20) recording method to ragtime, the only way to record (C) rising rhythmic-melodic intensity
pianos at that date. Ragtime’s is not a mechanical (D) full development of musical themes
precision, and it is not precision limited to the style of (E) a bass line distinct from the melodic line
performance. It arises from ragtime’s following a well-
defined form and obeying simple rules within that form.
(25) The classic formula for the piano rag disposes three
to five themes in sixteen-bar strains, often organized with
repeats. The rag opens with a bright, memorable strain or
theme, followed by a similar theme, leading to a trio of
marked lyrical character, with the structure concluded by
(30) a lyrical strain that parallels the rhythmic developments
of the earlier themes. The aim of the structure is to rise
from one theme to another in a stair-step manner, ending
on a note of trium
(35)
odic figures. Not concerned with

development of musical themes, the ragtime composer
instead sets a theme down intact, in finished form, and
(40) links it to various related themes. Tension in ragtime
compositions arises from a polarity between two basic
ingredients: a continuous bass— called by jazz musicians
a boom-chick bass—in the pianist’s left hand, and its
melodic, syncopated counterpart in the right hand.
(45) Ragtime remains distinct from jazz both as an
instrumental style and as a genre. Ragtime style stresses a
pattern of repeated rhythms, not the constant inventions
and variations of jazz. As a genre, ragtime requires strict
attention to structure, not inventiveness or virtuosity.
(50) It exists as a tradition, a set of conventions, a body of
written scores, separate from the individual players
associated with it. In this sense ragtime is more akin to
folk music of the nineteenth century than to jazz.
118
19. According to the passage, Ralph Vaughan Williams, 23. Which of the following is most nearly analogous
Anton Dvořák, and Scott Joplin are similar in that in source and artistic character to a ragtime
they all composition as described in the passage?
(A) conducted research into musicological history (A) Symphonic music derived from complex jazz
(B) wrote original compositions based on folk tunes motifs
(C) collected and recorded abbreviated piano suites (B) An experimental novel based on well-known
(D) created intricate sonata-like musical structures cartoon characters
(E) explored the relations between Black music and (C) A dramatic production in which actors invent
continental folk music scenes and improvise lines
(D) A ballet whose disciplined choreography is
20. The author rejects the argument that ragtime is a based on folk-dance steps
mechanical music because that argument (E) A painting whose abstract shapes evoke familiar
(A) overlooks the precision required of the ragtime objects in a natural landscape
player
(B) does not accurately describe the sound of
ragtime pianola music
(C) confuses the means of recording and the
essential character of the music
(D) exaggerates the influence of the performance
style of professional ragtime players on the
reputation of the genre
(E) improperly identifies commercial ragtime music
with the subtler classic ragtime style
21. It can be inferred that the author of the passage

believes that the most important feature of ragtime
music is its
(A) commercial success
(B) formal structure
(C) emotional range
(D) improvisational opportunities
(E) role as a forerunner of jazz
22. It can be inferred from the passage that the

essential nature of ragtime has been obscured by
commentaries based on
(A) the way ragtime music was first recorded
(B) interpretations of ragtime by jazz musicians
(C) the dance fashions that were contemporary
with ragtime
(D) early reviewers’ accounts of characteristic
Structure
(E) the musical sources used by Scott Joplin and
James Scott
119
14.1 - 2nd
Echolocating bats emit sounds in patterns— 26. The author presents the information concerning bat
characteristic of each species—that contain both sonar in a manner that could be best described as
Line frequency-modulated (FM) and constant-frequency (A) argumentative
(5) (CF) signals. The broadband FM signals and the (B) commendatory
narrowband CF signals travel out to a target, reflect (C) critical
from it, and return to the hunting bat. In this process (D) disbelieving
of transmission and reflection, the sounds are changed, (E) objective
and the changes in the echoes enable the bat to perceive
(10) features of the target. 27. Which of the following best describes the
The FM signals report information about target organization of the passage?
characteristics that modify the timing and the fine
frequency struc (A) A fact is stated, a process is outlined, and
specific details of the process are described.
(15) (B) A fact is stated, and examples suggesting that a
F signals portray only the target’s distinction needs correction are considered.
presence and, in the case of some bat species, its motion (C) A fact is stated, a theory is presented to explain
relative to the bat’s. Responding to changes in the CF that fact, and additional facts are introduced
echo’s frequency, bats of some species correct in flight for to validate the theory.
(20) the direction and velocity of their moving prey. (D) A fact is stated, and two theories are compared
in light of their explanations of this fact.
24. According to the passage, the information provided (E) A fact is stated, a process is described, and
to the bat by CF echoes differs from that provided examples of still another process are
by FM echoes in which of the following ways? illustrated in detail.
(A) Only CF echoes alert the bat to moving targets.
(B) Only CF echoes identify the range of widely
spaced targets.
(C) Only CF echoes report the target’s presence to
the bat.
(D) In some species, CF echoes enable the bat to
judge whether it is closing in on its target.
(E) In some species, CF echoes enable the bat to
discriminate the size of its target and the
direction in which the target is moving.
25. According to the passage, the configuration of

the target is reported to the echo locating bat by
changes in the
(A) echo spectrum of CF signals
(B) echo spectrum of FM signals
(C) direction and velocity of the FM echoes
(D) delay between transmission and reflection of
the CF signals
(E) relative frequencies of the FM and the CF
Echoes
120
Test 14.1 17) C

18) D
19) B
24) D
25) B
26) E
ANSWERS 20) C 27) A
21) B
22) A
23) D
14.2 - 1st
The social sciences are less likely than other 19. It can be inferred from the passage that, when
intellectual enterprises to get credit for their speaking of the “overutilization” (line 13) of the
accomplishments. Arguably, this is so because the social sciences, the author is referring to the
Line theories and conceptual constructs, of the social sciences (A) premature practical application of social science
(5) are especially accessible: human intelligence apprehends advances
truths about human affairs with particular facility. And (B) habitual reliance on the social sciences even
the discoveries of the social sciences, once isolated and where common sense would serve equally
labeled, are quickly absorbed into conventional wisdom, well
where upon they lose their distinctiveness as scientific (C) practice of bringing a greater variety of social
(10) advances. science disciplines to bear on a problem than
This underappreciation of the social sciences the nature of the problem warrants
contrasts oddly with what many see as their (D) use of social science constructs by people who
overutilization. Game theory is pressed into service in do not fully understand them
studies of shifting international alliances. Evaluation (E) tendency on the part of social scientists to recast
(15) research is called u everyday truths in social science jargon
20. The author confronts the claim that the social

l security. Yet this rush into sciences are being over utilized with
practical applications is itself quite understandable:
(20) public policy must continually be made, and (A) proof that overextensions of social science
policymakers rightly feel that even tentative findings and results are self-correcting
untested theories are better guides to decision making (B) evidence that some public policy is made
than no findings and no theories at all. without any recourse to social science
findings or theories
17. The author is primarily concerned with (C) a long list of social science applications that are
perfectly appropriate and extremely fruitful
(A) advocating a more modest view, and less wide (D) the argument that overutilization is by and
spread utilization, of the social sciences large the exception rather than the rule
(B) analyzing the mechanisms for translating (E) the observation that this practice represents
discoveries into applications in the social the lesser of two evils under existing
sciences circumstances
(C) dissolving the air of paradox inherent in human
beings studying themselves
(D) explaining a peculiar dilemma that the social
sciences are in
(E) maintaining a strict separation between pure
and applied social science
18. Which of the following is a social science discipline

that the author mentions as being possibly
overutilized?
(A) Conventional theories of social change
(B) Game theory
(C) Decision making theory
(D) Economic theories of international alliances
(E) Systems analysis
122
14.2 - 2nd
The term “Ice Age” may give a wrong impression. The 21. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned
epoch that geologists know as the Pleistocene and that with
spanned the 1.5 to 2.0 million years prior to the current (A) searching for an accurate method of dating the
Line geologic epoch was not one long continuous glaciations, but Pleistocene epoch
(5) a period of oscillating climate with ice advances punctuated (B) discussing problems involved in providing an
by times of interglacial climate not very different from accurate picture of the Pleistocene epoch
the climate experienced now. Ice sheets that derived from (C) declaring opposition to the use of the term “Ice
an ice cap centered on nor Age” for the Pleistocene epoch
(D) criticizing fanciful schemes about what
(10) ations affected most of the rest happened in the Pleistocene epoch
of the world; for example, in the deserts, periods of wetter (E) refuting ‘the idea that there is no way to tell if
conditions (pluvials) contrasted with drier, interpluvial we are now living in an Ice Age
periods. Although the time involved is so short, about 0.04
percent of the total age of the Earth, the amount of attention 22. The “wrong impression” (line 1) to which the author
(15) devoted to the Pleistocene has been incredibly large, refers is the idea that the
probably because of its immediacy, and because the epoch
largely coincides with the appearance on Earth of humans (A) climate of the Pleistocene epoch was not
and their immediate ancestors. very different from the climate we are now
There is no reliable way of dating much of the Ice Age. experiencing
Geological dates are usually obtained by using the rates of (B) climate of the Pleistocene epoch was composed
(20)
decay of various radioactive elements found in minerals. of periods of violent storms
Some of these rates are suitable for very old rocks but (C) Pleistocene epoch consisted of very wet, cold
involve increasing errors when used for young rocks; others periods mixed with very dry, hot periods
are suitable for very young rocks and errors increase rapidly (D) Pleistocene epoch comprised one period
in older rocks. Most of the Ice Age spans a period of time of continuous glaciations during which
(25)
for which no element has an appropriate decay rate. Northern Europe was covered with ice sheets
Nevertheless, researchers of the Pleistocene epoch have (E) Pleistocene epoch had no long periods during
developed all sorts of more or less fanciful model schemes which much of the Earth was covered by ice
of how they would have arranged the Ice Age had they been
(30) in charge of events. For example, an early classification of
Alpine glaciations suggested the existence there of four
glaciations named the Gunz, Mindel, Riss, and Würm.
This succession was based primarily on a series of deposits
and events not directly relat
(35) more usual modern method
of studying biological remains found in interglacial beds
themselves interstratified within glacial deposits. Yet this
succession was forced willy-nilly onto the glaciated parts
of Northern Europe, where there are partial successions
(40) of true glacial ground moraines and interglacial deposits,
with hopes of ultimately piecing them together to provide a
complete Pleistocene succession. Eradication of the Alpine
nomenclature is still proving a Herculean task.
There is no conclusive evidence about the relative
(45) length, complexity, and temperatures of the various glacial
and interglacial periods. We do not know whether we live in
a postglacial period or an interglacial period. The chill truth
seems to be that we are already past the optimum climate of
postglacial time. Studies of certain fossil distributions and
(50) of the pollen of certain temperate plants suggest decreases
of a degree or two in both summer and winter temperatures
and. therefore, that we may be in the declining climatic
phase leading to glaciations and extinction.
124
23. According to the passage, one of the reasons for the 26. The author refers to deserts primarily in order to
deficiencies of the “early classification of Alpine (A) illustrate the idea that an interglacial climate is
glaciations” (line 31-32) is that it was marked by oscillations of wet and dry periods
(A) derived from evidence that was only (B) illustrate the idea that what happened in the
tangentially related to times of actual deserts during the Ice Age had far-reaching
glaciations effects even on the ice sheets of Central and
(B) based primarily on fossil remains rather than on Northern Europe
actual living organisms (C) illustrate the idea that the effects of the Ice Age’s
(C) an abstract, imaginative scheme of how the climatic variations extended beyond the areas
period might have been structured of ice
(D) based on unmethodical examinations of (D) support the view that during the Ice Age sheets
randomly chosen glacial biological remains of ice covered some of the deserts of the
(E) derived from evidence that had been world
haphazardly gathered from glacial deposits (E) support the view that we are probably living in a
and inaccurately evaluated postglacial period
24. Which of the following does the passage imply about 27. The author would regard the idea that we are living in
the “early classification of Alpine glaciations” (lines an interglacial period as
31-32) ? (A) unimportant
(A) It should not have been applied as widely as it (B) unscientific
was. (C) self-evident
(B) It represents the best possible scientific practice, (D) plausible
given the tools available at the time. (E) absurd
(C) It was a valuable tool, in its time, for measuring
the length of the four periods of glaciations.
(D) It could be useful, but only as a general guide to
the events of the Pleistocene epoch.
(E) It does not shed any light on the methods
used at the time for investigating periods of
glaciations.
n accurate chronology of
events of the Pleistocene epoch would be a
(A) clearer idea of the origin of the Earth
(B) clearer picture of the Earth during the time that
humans developed
(C) clearer understanding of the reasons for the
existence of deserts
(D) more detailed understanding of how
radioactive dating of minerals works
(E) firmer understanding of how the northern polar
ice cap developed
125
Test 14.2 17) D

18) B
19) A
21) B
22) D
23) A
ANSWERS 20) E 24) A
25) B
26) C
27) D
15.1 - 1st
Eight percent of the Earth’s crust is aluminum, 18. The passage supplies information for answering all
and there are hundreds of aluminum-bearing minerals of the following questions regarding aluminous
and vast quantities of the rocks that contain them. The minerals EXCEPT:
best aluminum ore is bauxite, defined as aggregates (A) What percentage of the aluminum in the Earth’s
of aluminous minerals, more or less impure, in which crust is in the form of bauxite?
aluminum is present as hydrated oxides. Bauxite is (B) Are aluminum-bearing non bauxite minerals
the richest of all those aluminous rocks that occur in plentiful?
large quantities, and it yields alumina, the intermediate (C) Do the aluminous minerals found in bauxite
product required for the production of aluminum. contain hydrated oxides?
Alumina also occurs naturally as the mineral corundum, (D) Are aluminous hydrated oxides found in rocks?
but corundum is not found in large deposits of high (E) Do large quantities of bauxite exist?
purity, and therefore it
19. The author implies that corundum would be used to
produce aluminum if
refractory, resistant to analysis,
and extremely difficult to process. The aluminum (A) corundum could be found that is not
silicates are therefore generally unsuitable alternatives to contaminated by silicates
bauxite because considerably more energy is required to (B) the production of alumina could be eliminated
extract alumina from them. as an intermediate step in manufacturing
aluminum
17. The author implies that a mineral must either be or (C) many large deposits of very high quality
readily supply which of the following in order to be corundum were to be discovered
classified as aluminum ore? (D) new technologies were to make it possible to
convert corundum to a silicate
(A) An aggregate (E) manufacturers were to realize that the world’s
(B) Bauxite supply of bauxite is not unlimited
(C) Alumina
(D) Corundum
(E) An aluminum silicate
127
15.1 - 2nd
Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed 20. Which of the following best states the main point of
boundaries and focal points—periods, countries, dramatic the passage?
events, and great leaders. It also has had clear and firm (A)The approach of psycho historians to historical
Line notions of scholarly procedure: how one inquires into a study is currently in vogue even though it
(5) historical problem, how one presents and documents one’s lacks the rigor and verifiability of traditional
findings, what constitutes admissible and adequate proof. historical method.
Anyone who has followed recent historical literature (B) Traditional historians can benefit from studying
can testify to the revolution that is taking place, in the techniques and findings of psycho
historical studies. The currently fashionable subjects historians.
(10) come directly from the sociology catalog: childhood, (C) Areas of sociological study such as childhood
work, leisure. The new subjects are accompanied by new and work are of little interest to traditional
methods. Where history once was primarily narrative, historians.
it is now entirely analytic. The old que (D) The psychological assessment of an individual’s
behavior and attitudes is more informative
(15) than the details of his or her daily life.
estion “Why” is (E) History is composed of unique and non
psychoanalysis, and its use has given rise to psychohistory. repeating events that must be individually
Psychohistory does not merely use psychological analyzed on the basis of publicly verifiable
explanations in historical contexts. Historians have evidence.
(20) always used such explanations when they were
appropriate and when there was sufficient evidence for 21. It can be inferred from the passage that one way in
them. But this pragmatic use of psychology is not what which traditional history can be distinguished from
psychohistorians intend. They are committed, not just to psychohistory is that traditional history usually
psychology in general, but to Freudian psychoanalysis.
(25) This commitment precludes a commitment to history (A) views past events as complex and having their
as historians have always understood it. Psychohistory own individuality
derives its “facts” not from history, the detailed records of (B) relies on a single interpretation of human
events and their consequences, but from psychoanalysis behavior to explain historical events
of the individuals who made history, and deduces its (C) interprets historical events in such a way that
(30) theories not from this or that instance in their lives, but their specific nature is transcended
from a view of human nature that transcends history. (D) trurns to psychological explanations in
It denies the basic criterion of historical evidence: that historical contexts to account for events
evidence be publicly accessible to, and therefore assessable (E) relies strictly on data that are concrete and
by, all historians. And it violates the basic tenet of quantifiable
(35) historical method: that historians be alert to the negative
instances that would refute their theses. Psychohistorians, 22. It can be inferred from the passage that the methods
convinced of the absolute rightness of their own theories, used by psycho historians probably prevent them
are also convinced that theirs is the “deepest” explanation from
of any event, that other explanations fall short of the (A) presenting their material in chronological order
(40) truth. (B) producing a one-sided picture of an individual’s
Psychohistory is not content to violate the discipline personality and motivations
of history (in the sense of the proper mode of studying (C) uncovering alternative explanations that might
and writing about the past); it also violates the past itself. cause them to question their own conclusions
It denies to the past an integrity and will of its own, in (D) offering a consistent interpretation, of the
(45) which people acted out of a variety of motives and in impact of personality on historical events
which events had a multiplicity of causes and effects. (E) recognizing connections between a
It imposes upon the past the same determinism that it government’s political actions and the
imposes upon the present, thus robbing people and events aspirations of government leaders
of their individuality and of their complexity. Instead
(50) of respecting the particularity of the past, it assimilates
all events, past and present, into a single deterministic
schema that is presumed to be true at all times and in all
circumstances.
128
23. The passage supplies information for answering 26. The author of the passage puts the word “deepest”
which of the following questions? (line 38) in quotation marks most probably in
(A) What are some specific examples of the use of order to
psychohistory in historical interpretation? (A) signal her reservations about the accuracy of
(B) When were the conventions governing psychohistorians’ claims for their work
the practice of traditional history first (B) draw attention to a contradiction in the
established? psychohistorians’ method
(C) When do traditional historians consider (C) emphasize the major difference between the
psychological explanations of historical traditional historians’ method and that of
developments appropriate? psychohistorians
(D) What sort of historical figure is best suited for (D) disassociate her opinion of the psychohistorians
Psycho historical analysis? claims from her opinion of their method
(E) What is the basic criterion of historical evidence (E) question the usefulness of psychohistorians
required by traditional historians? insights into traditional historical scholarship
24. The author mentions which of the following as a 27. In presenting her analysis, the author does all of the
characteristic of the practice of psychohistorians? following EXCEPT:
(A) The lives of historical figures are presented in (A) Make general statements without reference to
episodic rather than narrative form. specific examples.
(B) Archives used by psycho historians to gather (B) Describe some of the criteria employed by
material are not accessible to other scholars. traditional historians.
(C) Past and current events are all placed within the (C) Question the adequacy of the psychohistorians
same deterministic schema. interpretation of events.
(D) Events in the adult life of a historical figure are (D) Point out inconsistencies in the
seen to be more consequential than are those psychohistorian’s application of their
in the childhood of the figure. methods.
(E) Analysis is focused on group behavior rather (E) Contrast the underlying assumptions of
than on particular events in an individual’s psychohistorians with those of traditional
life. historians.
25. The author of the passage suggests that

psychohistorians view history primarily as
(A) a report of events, causes, and effects that is
generally accepted by historians but which is,
for the most part, unverifiable
(B) an episodic account that lacks cohesion because
records of the role of childhood, work, and
leisure in the lives of historical figures are rare
(C) an uncharted sea of seemingly unexplainable
events that have meaning only when
examined as discrete units
(D) a record of the way in which a closed set of
immutable psychological law seems to have
shaped events
(E) a proof of the existence of intricate causal inter
relationships between past and present events
129
Test 15.1 17) C

18) A
19) C
20) A
21) A
22) C
ANSWERS 23) E
24) C
25) D
26) A
27) D
15.2 - 1st
Jean Wagner’s most enduring contribution to the 18. All of the following aspects of Afro-American
study of Afro-American poetry is his insistence that poetry are referred to in the passage as having been
it be analyzed in a religious, as well as secular, frame influenced by Wesleyan hymnals EXCEPT
of reference. The appropriateness of such an approach (A) subject matter
may seem self-evident for a tradition commencing with (B) word choice
spirituals and owing its early forms, rhythms, vocabulary, (C) rhythm
and evangelical fervor to Wesleyan hymnals. But before (D) structure
Wagner a secular outlook that analyzed Black poetry (E) tone
solely within the context of political and social protest
was dominant in the field. 19. It can be inferred from the passage that, before
It is Wagner Wagner, most students of Afro-American poetry
did which of the following?
s feelings are often applied to racial (A) Contributed appreciably to the ‘transfer of
issues and racial problems are often projected onto a political protest from Afro-American poetry
metaphysical plane. Wagner found this most eloquently to direct political action.
illustrated in the Black spiritual, where the desire for (B) Ignored at least some of the historical roots of
freedom in this world and the hope for salvation in the Afro-American poetry.
next are inextricably intertwined. (C) Analyzed fully the aspects of social protest to
be found in such traditional forms of Afro-
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to American poetry as the Black spiritual.
(D) Regarded as unimportant the development of
(A) contrast the theories of Jean Wagner with those fervent emotionalism in a portion of Afro-
of other contemporary critics American poetry.
(B) document the influence of Jean Wagner on the (E) Concentrated on the complex relations between
development of Afro-American poetry the technical elements in Afro-American
(C) explain the relevance of Jean Wagner’s work to poetry and its political content.
the study of Afro-American religion
(D) indicate the importance of Jean Wagner’s
analysis of Afro-American poetry
(E) present the contributions of Jean Wagner to the
study of Black spirituals
131
15.2 - 2nd
Two relatively recent independent developments 20. The primary purpose of the passage is to
stand behind the current major research effort on (A) expose the fragile nature of the foundations on
nitrogen fixation, the process by which bacteria which the high yields of modern agriculture
Line symbiotically render leguminous plants independent rest
(5) of nitrogen fertilizer. The one development has been (B) argue that genetic engineering promises to lead
the rapid, sustained increase in the price of nitrogen to even higher yields than are achievable with
fertilizer. The other development has been the rapid synthetic fertilizers
growth of knowledge of and technical sophistication in (C) argue that the capacity for nitrogen-fixing
genetic engineering. Fertilizer prices, largely tied to the symbioses is transferable to non leguminous
(10) price of natural gas, huge amounts of which go into the plants
manufacture of fertilizer, will continue to represent an (D) explain the reasons for and the objectives
enormous and escalating economic burden on modern of current research on nitrogen-fixing
agriculture, spurring the search for alternatives to symbioses
synthetic fertilizers. And genetic engineering is just the (E) describe the nature of the genes that regulate
(15) sort of fundamental breakthrough that opens up prospects the symbiosis between legumes and certain
of wholly novel alternatives. One such novel idea is that bacteria
of inserting into the chromosomes of plants discrete
genes that are not a part of the plants natural constitution: 21. According to the passage, there is currently no strain
specifically, the idea of inserting into non leguminous of Rhizobium that can enter into a symbiosis with
(20) plants the genes, if they can be identified and isolated, that
fit the leguminous plants to be hosts for nitrogen-fixing (A) alfalfa
bacteria. Hence, the intensified research on legumes. (B) clover
Nitrogen fixation is a process in which certain (C) maize
bacteria use atmospheric nitrogen gas, which green plants (D) peas
(25) cannot directly utilize, to produce ammonia, a nitrogen (E) soybeans
compound plants can use. It is one of nature’s great ironies
that the availability of nitrogen in the soil frequently sets 22. The passage implies that which of the following is
an upper limit on plant growth even though the plants’ true of the bacterial genus Rhizobium?
leaves are bathed in a sea of nitrogen gas. The leguminous (A) Rhizobium bacteria are found primarily in
(30) plants—among them crop plants such as soybeans, peas, nitrogen-depleted soils.
alfalfa, and clover—have solved the nitrogen supply (B) Some strains of Rhizobium are not capable of
problem by entering into a symbiotic relationship with entering into a symbiosis with any plant.
the bacterial ge (C) Newly bred varieties of legumes cannot be hosts
to any strain of Rhizobium.
(35) (D) Rhizobium bacteria cannot survive outside the
bitat and receives surplus ammonia in protected habitat provided by host plants.
exchange. Hence, legumes can thrive in nitrogen-depleted (E) Rhizobium bacteria produce some ammonia for
soil. their own purposes.
Unfortunately, most of the major food crops—
(40) including maize, wheat, rice, and potatoes—cannot. On 23. It can be inferred from the passage that which of
the contrary, many of the high-yielding hybrid varieties the following was the most influential factor in
of these food crops bred during the Green Revolution of bringing about intensified research on nitrogen
the 1960’s were selected specifically to give high yields in fixation?
response to generous applications of nitrogen fertilizer. (A) The high yields of the Green Revolution
(45) This poses an additional, formidable challenge to plant (B) The persistent upward surge in natural gas
geneticists: they must work on enhancing fixation within prices
the existing symbioses. Unless they succeed, the yield (C) The variety of Rhizobium strains
gains of the Green Revolution will be largely lost even if (D) The mechanization of modem agriculture
the genes in legumes that equip those plants to enter into a (E) The environmental ill effects of synthetic
(50) symbiosis with nitrogen fixers are identified and isolated, fertilizers
and even if the transfer of those gene complexes, once
they are found, becomes possible. The overall task looks
forbidding, but the stakes are too high not to undertake it
132
24. Which of the following situations is most closely 26. The author regards the research program under
analogous to the situation described by the author discussion as
as one of nature’s great ironies (lines 26-29) ? (A) original and extensive but ill-defined as to
(A) That of a farmer whose crops have failed method
because the normal midseason rains did not (B) necessary and ambitious but vulnerable to
materialize and no preparations for irrigation failure
had been made (C) cogent and worthwhile but severely
(B) That of a long-distance runner who loses a underfunded
marathon race because of a wrong turn that (D) prohibitively expensive but conceptually elegant
cost him twenty seconds (E) theoretically fascinating but practically useless
(C) That of shipwrecked sailors at sea in a lifeboat,
with one flask of drinking water to share 27. Most nearly parallel, in its fundamental approach,
among them to the research program described in the passage
(D) That of a motorist who runs out of gas a mere would be a program designed to
five miles from the nearest gas station (A) achieve greater frost resistance in frost-tender
(E) That of travelers who want to reach their food plants by means of selective breeding,
destination as fast and as cheaply as possible, thereby expanding those plants’ area of
but find that cost increases as travel speed cultivation
increases (B) achieve greater yields from food plants by
Inter planting crop plants that are mutually
25. According to the passage, the ultimate goal of the beneficial
current research on nitrogen fixation is to develop (C) find inexpensive and abundant natural
(A) strains of Rhizobium that can enter into substances that could, without reducing
symbioses with existing varieties of wheat, yields, be substituted for expensive synthetic
rice, and other nonlegumes fertilizers
(B) strains of Rhizobium that produce more (D) change the genetic makeup of food plants that
ammonia for leguminous host plants than do cannot live in water with high salinity, using
any of the strains presently known genes from plants adapted to salt water
(C) varieties of wheat, rice, and other nonlegumes (E) develop, through genetic engineering, a genetic
that yield as much as do existing varieties, but configuration for the major food plants that
require less nitrogen improves the storage characteristics of the
(D) varieties of wheat, rice, and other nonlegumes edible portion of the plants
that maintain an adequate symbiotic
relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria and
produce high yields
(E) high-yielding varieties of wheat, rice, and other
nonlegumes that are genetically equipped to
fix nitrogen from the air without the aid of
bacteria
133
Test 15.2 17) D

18) A
19) B
20) D
21) C
22) E
ANSWERS 23) B
24) C
25) D
26) B
27) D
16.1 - 1st
Whether the languages of the ancient American 18. According to the passage, some abstract universal
peoples were used for expressing abstract universal ideas can be expressed in Nahuatl by
concepts can be clearly answered in the case of Nahuatl. (A) taking away from a word any reference to
Nahuatl, like Greek and German, is a language that particular instances
allows the formation of extensive compounds. By the (B) removing a word from its associations with
combination of radicals or semantic elements, single other words
compound words can express complex conceptual (C) giving a word a new and opposite meaning
relations, often of an abstract universal character. (D) putting various meaningful elements together
The tlamatinime (“those in one word
(E) turning each word of a phrase into a poetic
also availed themselves of metaphor
other forms of expression with metaphorical meaning,
some probably original, some derived from Toltec 19. It can be inferred solely from the information in the
coinages. Of these forms the most characteristic in passage that
Nahuatl is the juxtaposition of two words that, because
they are synonyms, associated terms, or even contraries, (A) there are many languages that, like Greek or
complement each other to evoke one single idea. Used German, allow extensive compounding
as metaphor, the juxtaposed terms connote specific or (B) all abstract universal ideas are ideas of complex
essential traits of the being they refer to, introducing a relations
mode of poetry as an almost habitual form of expression. (C) some record or evidence of the thought of the
tlamatinime exists
17. A main purpose of the passage is to (D) metaphors are always used in Nahuatl to
express abstract conceptual relationships
(A) delineate the function of the tlamatinime in (E) the abstract terms of the Nahuatl language are
Nahuatl society habitually used in poetry
(B) explain the abstract philosophy of the Nahuatl
thinkers
(C) argue against a theory of poetic expression by
citing evidence about the Nahuatl
(D) explore the rich metaphorical heritage the
Nahuatl received from the Toltecs
(E) describe some conceptual and aesthetic
resources of the Nahuatl language
135
16.1 - 2nd
Many theories have been formulated to explain of daily phytoplankton production. Cladocerans had
the role of grazers such as zooplankton in controlling higher grazing rates than copepods, usually accounting
the amount of planktonic algae (phytoplankton) in for 80 percent of the community grazing rate. These
lakes. The first theories of such grazer control were rates varied seasonally, reaching the lowest point in
merely based on observations of negative correlations the winter and early spring. Haney’s thorough research
between algal and zooplankton numbers. A low provides convincing field evidence that grazers can exert
number of algal cells in the presence of a high number significant pressure on phytoplankton population.
of grazers suggested, but did not prove, that the
grazers had removed most of the algae. The converse 20. The author most likely mentions Hardy’s principle of
observation, of the absence of grazers in areas of high animal exclusion in order to
phytoplankton concentration, led Hardy to propose (A) give an example of one theory about the
his principle of animal exclusion, which hypothesized interaction of grazers and phytoplankton
that phytoplankton produced a repellent that (B) defend the first theory of algal defenses against
excluded grazers from regions of high phytoplankton grazing
concentration. This was the first suggestion of algal (C) support the contention that phytoplankton
defenses against grazing. numbers are controlled primarily by
Perhaps the fact that many of these first studies environmental factors
considered only algae of a size that could be collected in (D) demonstrate the superiority of laboratory
a net (net phytoplankton), a practice that overlooked the studies of zooplankton feeding rates to other
smaller phytoplankton (nannoplankton) that we now kinds of studies of such rates
know grazers are most likely to feed on, led to a de- (E) refute researchers who believed that low
emphasis of the role of gr numbers of phytoplankton indicated the
grazing effect of low numbers of zooplankton
21. It can be inferred from the passage that the “first

lling algal numbers. These theories’ of grazer control mentioned in line 4
environmental factors were amenable to field monitoring would have been more convincing if researchers
and to simulation in the laboratory. Grazing was believed had been able to
to have some effect on algal numbers, especially after
phytoplankton growth rates declined at the end of bloom (A) observe high phytoplankton numbers under
periods, but grazing was considered a minor component natural lake conditions
of models that predicted algal population dynamics. (B) discover negative correlations between algae
The potential magnitude of grazing pressure on and zooplankton numbers from their field
freshwater phytoplankton has only recently been research
determined empirically. Studies by Hargrave and Geen (C) understand the central importance of
estimated natural community grazing rates by measuring environmental factors in controlling the
feeding rates of individual zooplankton species in the growth rates of phytoplankton
laboratory and then computing community grazing (D) make verifiable correlations of cause and effect
rates for field conditions using the known population between zooplankton and phytoplankton
density of grazers. The high estimates of grazing pressure numbers
postulated by these researchers were not fully accepted, (E) invent laboratory techniques that would have
however, until the grazing rates of zooplankton were allowed them to bypass their field research
determined directly in the field, by means of new concerning grazer control
experimental techniques. Using a specially prepared
feeding chamber, Haney was able to record zooplankton
grazing rates in natural field conditions. In the periods of
peak zooplankton abundance, that is, in the late spring
and in the summer, Haney recorded maximum daily
community grazing rates, for nutrient-poor lakes and
bog lakes, respectively, of 6.6 percent and 114 percent
136
22. Which of the following, if true, would call into 26. According to the passage, Hargrave and Geen did
question Hardy’s principle of animal exclusion? which of the following in their experiments?
(A) Zooplankton are not the only organisms that (A) They compared the grazing rates of individual
are affected by phytoplankton repellents. zooplankton species in the laboratory with
(B) Zooplankton exclusion is unrelated to the natural grazing rates of these species.
phytoplankton population density. (B) They hypothesized about the population density
(C) Zooplankton population density is higher of grazers in natural habitats by using data
during some parts of the year than during concerning the population density of grazers
others. in the laboratory.
(D) Net phytoplankton are more likely to exclude (C) They estimated the community grazing rates of
zooplankton than are nanno plankton. zooplankton in the laboratory by using data
(E) Phytoplankton numbers can be strongly concerning the natural community grazing
affected by environmental factors. rates of zooplankton.
(D) They estimated the natural community
23. The author would be likely to agree with which of grazing rates of zooplankton by using data
the following statements regarding the pressure of concerning the known population density of
grazers on phytoplankton numbers? phytoplankton.
1. Grazing pressure can vary according to the (E) They estimated the natural community grazing
individual type of zooplankton. rates of zooplankton by using laboratory data
II. Grazing pressure can be lower in nutrient-poor concerning the grazing rates of individual
lakes than in bog lakes. zooplankton species.
III. Grazing tends to exert about the same pressure
as does temperature. 27. Which of the following is a true statement about the
(A) I only zooplankton numbers and zooplankton grazing
(B) III only rates observed in Haney’s experiments?
(C) I and II only (A) While zooplankton numbers began to decline
(D) II and III only in August, zooplankton grazing rates began
(E) I, II and III to increase.
(B) Although zooplankton numbers were high in
24. The passage supplies information to indicate that May, grazing rates did not become high until
Hargrave and Geen’s conclusion regarding the January.
grazing pressure exerted by zooplankton on (C) Both zooplankton numbers and grazing rates
phytoplankton numbers was most similar to the were higher in December than in November.
conclusion regarding grazing pressure reached by (D) Both zooplankton numbers and grazing rates
which of the following researchers? were lower in March than in June.
(A) Hardy (B) Lund (E) Both zooplankton numbers and grazing rates
(C) Round (D) Reynolds (E) Haney were highest in February.
25. It can be inferred from the passage that one way

in which many of the early researchers on grazer
control could have improved their data would have
been to
(A) emphasize the effects of temperature, rather
than of light, on phytoplankton
(B) disregard nannoplankton in their analysis of
phytoplankton numbers
(C) collect phytoplankton of all sizes before
analyzing the extent of phytoplankton
concentration
(D) recognize that phytoplankton other than net
phytoplankton could be collected in a net
(E) understand the crucial significance of net
phytoplankton in the diet of zooplankton
137
Test 16.1 17) E

18) D
19) C
20) A
21) D
22) B
ANSWERS 23) C
24) E
25) C
26) E
27) D
16.2 - 1st
Hydrogeology is a science dealing with the 18. It can be inferred that which of the following is most
properties, distribution, and circulation of water on the likely to be the subject of study by a geohydrologist?
surface of the land, in the soil and underlying rocks, and (A) Soft, porous rock being worn away by a
Line in the atmosphere. The hydrologic cycle, a major topic in waterfall
(5) this science, is the complete cycle of phenomena through (B) Water depositing minerals on the banks of a
which water passes, beginning as atmospheric water gorge through which the water runs
vapor, passing into liquid and solid form as precipitation, (C) The trapping of water in a sealed underground
thence along and into the ground surface, and finally rock cavern through the action of an
again retu earthquake
(10) (D) Water becoming unfit to drink through
the release of pollutants into it from a
manufacturing plant
(E) The changing course of a river channel as the
action of the water wears away the rocks past
(15) use of geologic changes that have which the river flows
isolated them underground. These systems are properly
termed geohydrologic but not hydrogeologic. Only when 19. The author refers to “many formations” (lines 13-14)
a system possesses natural or artificial boundaries that primarily in order to
associate the water within it with the hydrologic cycle
(20) may the entire system properly be termed hydrogeologic. (A) clarify a distinction
(B) introduce a subject
17. The author’s primary purpose is most probably to (C) draw an analogy
(D) emphasize a similarity
(A) present a hypothesis (E) resolve a conflict
(B) refute an argument
(C) correct a misconception
(D) predict an occurrence
(E) describe an enigma
139
16.2 - 2nd
The historian Frederick J. Turner wrote in the 1890’s (50) States who exhibited the greatest discontent were those
that the agrarian discontent that had been developing who had become most dependent on foreign markets
steadily in the United States since about 1870 had been for the sale of their products. Insofar as Americans had
Line precipitated by the closing of the internal frontier—that been deterred from taking up new land for farming, it
(5) is, the depletion of available new land needed for further was because market conditions had made this period a
expansion of the American farming system. Not only (55) perilous time in which to do so.
was Turner’s thesis influential at the time, it was later
adopted and elaborated by other scholars, such as John 20. The author is primarily concerned with
D. Hicks in The Populist Revolt (1931). Actually, however, (A) showing that a certain interpretation is
(10) new lands were taken up for farming in the United better supported by the evidence than is an
States throughout and beyond the nineteenth century. alternative explanation
In the 1890’s, when agrarian discontent had become (B) developing an alternative interpretation by
most acute, 1,100,000 new farms were settled, which was using sources of evidence that formerly had
500,000 more than had been settled during the previous been unavailable
(15) decade. After 1890, under the terms of the Homestead (C)questioning the accuracy of the evidence that
Act and its successors, more new land was taken up for most scholars have used to counter the
farming than had author’s own interpretation
(D) reviewing the evidence that formerly had been
thought to obscure a valid interpretation
(20) rming, but agricultural practices (E) presenting evidence in support of a
had become sufficiently advanced to make it possible controversial version of an earlier
to increase the profitability of farming by utilizing even interpretation
these relatively barren lands.
The emphasis given by both scholars and statesmen 21. According to the author, changes in the conditions of
(25) to the presumed disappearance of the American frontier international trade resulted in an
helped to obscure the great importance of changes in
the conditions and consequences of international trade (A) underestimation of the amount of new land
that occurred during the second half of the nineteenth that was being farmed in the United States
century. In 1869 the Suez Canal was opened and the (B) underutilization of relatively small but rich
(30) first transcontinental railroad in the United States was plots of land
completed. An extensive network of telegraph and (C) overexpansion of the world transportation
telephone communications was spun: Europe was network for shipping agricultural products
connected by submarine cable with the United States (D) extension of agrarian depressions beyond
in 1866 and with South America in 1874. By about national boundaries .
(35) 1870 improvements in agricultural technology made (E) emphasis on the importance of market forces
possible the full exploitation of areas that were most in determining the prices of agricultural
suitable for extensive farming on a, mechanized basis. products
Huge tracts of land were being settled and farmed in
Argentina, Australia, Canada, and in the American West,
(40) and these areas were joined with one another and with
the countries of Europe into an interdependent market
system. As a consequence, agrarian depressions no
longer were local or national in scope, and they struck
several nations whose internal frontiers had not vanished
(45) or were not about to vanish. Between the early 1870’s
and the 1890’s, the mounting agrarian discontent in
America paralleled the almost uninterrupted decline in
the prices of American agricultural products on foreign
markets. Those staple-growing farmers in the United
140
22. The author implies that the change in the state of 25. The author provides information concerning newly
the American farmer’s morale during the latter farmed lands in the United States (lines 8-23)
part of the nineteenth century was traceable to the as evidence in direct support of which of the
American farmer’s increasing perception that the following?
(A) costs of cultivating the land were prohibitive (A) A proposal by Frederick J. Turner that was later
within the United States disputed by John D. Hicks
(B) development of the first transcontinental (B) An elaboration by John D. Hicks of a thesis that
railroad in the United States occurred at the formerly had been questioned by Frederick J.
expense of the American farmer Turner
(C) American farming system was about to run out (C) The established view that was disputed by those
of the new farmland that was required for its scholars who adopted the thesis of Frederick
expansion J. Turner
(D) prices of American agricultural products were (D) The thesis that important changes occurred in
deteriorating especially rapidly on domestic the nature of international trade during the
markets second half of the nineteenth century
(E) proceeds from the sales of American (E) The view that the American frontier did not
agricultural products on foreign markets become closed during the nineteenth century
were ‘ unsatisfactory or soon thereafter
23. According to the passage, which of the following 26. The author implies that the cause of the agrarian
occurred prior to 1890? discontent was
(A) Frederick J. Turner’s thesis regarding the (A) masked by the vagueness of the official records
American frontier became influential. on newly settled farms
(B) The Homestead Act led to an increase in the (B) overshadowed by disputes on the reliability of
amount of newly farmed land in the United the existing historical evidence
States. (C) misidentified as a result of influential but
(C) The manufacturers of technologically advanced erroneous theorizing
agricultural machinery rapidly increased (D) overlooked because of a preoccupation with
their marketing efforts. market conditions
(D) Direct lines of communication were (E) undetected because visible indications of the
constructed between the United States and cause occurred so gradually and sporadically
South America.
(E) Technological advances made it fruitful to farm 27. The author’s argument implies that, compared to
extensively on a mechanized basis. the yearly price changes that actually occurred
on foreign agricultural markets during the 1880’s,
24. The author implies that, after certain territories and American farmers would have most preferred
countries had been joined into an interdependent yearly price changes that were
market system in the nineteenth century, agrarian (A) much smaller and in the same direction
depressions within that system (B) much smaller but in the opposite direction
(A) spread to several nations, excluding those in (C) slightly smaller and in the same direction
which the internal frontier remained open (D) similar in size but in the opposite direction
(B) manifested themselves in several nations, (E) slightly greater and in the same direction
including those in which new land . remained
available for farming
(C) slowed down the pace of new technological
developments in international
communications and transportation
(D) affected the local and national prices of the
nonagricultural products of several nations
(E) encouraged several nations to sell more of their
agricultural products on foreign markets
141
Test 16.2 17) C

18) C
19) A
20) A
21) D
22) E
ANSWERS 23) E
24) B
25) E
26) C
27) D
17.1 - 1st
Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving 19. It can be inferred from the passage that the matching
memories. Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms process in visual recognition is
an image in the brain’s memory system that constitutes (A) not a neural activity
an internal representation of the viewed object. When (B) not possible when an object is viewed for the
an object is encountered again, it is matched with very first time
its internal representation and thereby recognized. (C) not possible if a feature of a familiar object is
Controversy surrounds the question of whether changed in some way
recognition is a parallel, one-step process or a serial, (D) only possible when a retinal image is received
step-by-step one. Psychologists of the Gestalt school in the brain as a unitary whole
maintain that objects are recognized as wholes in a (E) now fully understood as a combination of the
parallel procedure: the internal representation is m serial and parallel processes
20. In terms of its tone and form, the passage can best be
characterized as
(A) a biased exposition
es more holistic and the recognition process (B) a speculative study
correspondingly more parallel, the weight of evidence (C) a dispassionate presentation
seems to support the serial hypothesis, at least for objects (D) an indignant denial
that are not notably simple and familiar. (E) a dogmatic explanation
17. The author is primarily concerned with

(A) explaining how the brain receives images
(B) synthesizing hypotheses of visual recognition
(C) examining the evidence supporting the serial-
recognition hypothesis
(D) discussing visual recognition and some
hypotheses proposed to explain it
(E) reporting on recent experiments dealing with
memory systems and their relationship to
neural activity
18. According to the passage, Gestalt psychologists make

which of the following suppositions about visual
recognition?
I. A retinal image is in exactly the same form as its
internal representation.
II. An object is recognized as a whole without any
need for analysis into component parts.
III. The matching of an object with its internal
representation occurs in only one step.
(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, III and III
143
17.1 - 2nd
In large part as a consequence of the feminist 21. The primary purpose of the passage is to
movement, historians have focused a great deal of (A) compare competing new approaches to
attention in recent years on determining more accurately understanding the role of women in ancient
the status of women in various periods. Although much societies
has been accomplished for the modern period, premodern (B) investigate the ramifications of Bachofen’s
cultures have proved more difficult: sources are restricted theory about the dominance of women in
in number, fragmentary, difficult to interpret, and often ancient societies
contradictory. Thus it is not particularly surprising that (C) explain the burgeoning interest among
some earlier scholarship concerning such cultures has so historians in determining the actual status of
far gone unchallenged. An example is Johann Bachofen’s women in various societies
1861 treatise on (D) analyze the nature of Amazonian society and
uncover similarities between it and the Greek
world
s of historical fact, Bachofen (E) criticize the value of ancient myths in
argued that women were dominant in many ancient determining the status of women in ancient
societies. His work was based on a comprehensive survey societies
of references in the ancient sources to Amazonian and
other societies with matrilineal customs—societies in 22. All of the following are stated by the author as
which descent and property rights are traced through the problems connected with the sources for knowledge
female line. Some support for his theory can be found in of premodern cultures EXCEPT
evidence such as that drawn from Herodotus, the Greek
“historian” of the fifth century B.C., who speaks of an (A) partial completeness
Amazonian society, the Sauromatae, where the women (B) restricted accessibility
hunted and fought in wars. A woman in this society was (C) difficulty of interpretation’
not allowed to marry until she had killed a person in battle. (D) limited quantity
Nonetheless, this assumption that the first recorders (E) tendency toward contradiction
of ancient myths have preserved facts is problematic. If
one begins by examining why ancients refer to Amazons, 23. Which of the following can be inferred from the
it becomes clear that ancient Greek descriptions of such passage about the myths recorded by the ancient
societies were meant not so much to represent observed Greeks?
historical fact—real Amazonian societies—but rather I. They sometimes included portrayals of women
to offer “moral lessons” on the supposed outcome of holding positions of power.
women’s rule in their own society. The Amazons were II. They sometimes contained elaborate
often characterized, for example, as the equivalents of explanations of inheritance customs.
giants and centaurs, enemies to be slain by Greek heroes. III. They comprise almost all of the material
Their customs were presented not as those of a respectable available to historians about ancient Greece.
society, but as the very antitheses of ordinary Greek (A) I only
practices. (B) III only
Thus, I would argue, the purpose of accounts of the (C) I and III only
Amazons for their male Greek recorders was didactic, (D) II and III only
to teach both male and female Greeks that all-female (E) I, II and III
groups, formed by withdrawal from traditional society, are
destructive and dangerous. Myths about the Amazons were
used as arguments for the male-dominated status quo,
in which groups composed exclusively of either sex were
not permitted to segregate themselves permanently from
society. Bachofen was thus misled in his reliance on myths
for information about the status of women. The sources
that will probably tell contemporary historians most about
women in the ancient world are such social documents as
gravestones, wills, and marriage contracts. Studies of such
documents have already begun to show how mistaken we
are when we try to derive our picture of the ancient world
exclusively from literary sources, especially myths.
144
24. Which of the following is presented in the passage as 26. The author suggests that the main reason for the
evidence supporting the author’s view of the ancient persisting influence of Bachofen’s work is that
Greeks’ descriptions of the Amazons? (A) feminists have shown little interest in ancient
(A) The requirement that Sauromatae women kill societies
in battle before marrying (B) Bachofen’s knowledge of Amazonian culture is
(B) The failure of historians to verify that women unparalleled
were ever governors of ancient societies (C) reliable information about the ancient world is
(C) The classing of Amazons with giants and difficult to acquire
centaurs (D) ancient societies show the best evidence of w
(D) The well-established unreliability of Herodotus
as a source of information about ancient
societies rn period
(E) The recent discovery of ancient societies with
matrilineal customs 27. The author’s attitude toward Bachofen’s treatise is best
described as one of
25. It can be inferred from the passage that the probable (A) qualified approval
reactions of many males in ancient Greece to the (B) profound ambivalence
idea of a society ruled by women could best be (C) studied neutrality
characterized as (D) pointed disagreement
(A) confused and dismayed (E) unmitigated hostility
(B) wary and hostile
(C) cynical and disinterested
(D) curious but fearful
(E) excited but anxious
145
Test 17.1 17) D

18) D
19) B
21) E
22) B
23) A
ANSWERS 20) C 24) C
25) B
26) C
27) D
17.2 - 1st
Initially the Vinaver theory that Malory’s eight 19. The author of the passage concedes which of the
romances, once thought to be fundamentally unified, following about the Vinaver theory?
were in fact eight independent works produced both a (A) It gives a clearer understanding of the unity of
sense of relief and an unpleasant shock. Vinaver’s theory Malory’s romances.
comfortably explained away the apparent contradictions (B) It demonstrates the irrationality of considering
of chronology and made each romance independently Malory’s romances to be unified.
satisfying. It was, however, disagreeable to find that (C) It establishes acceptable links between Malory’s
what had been thought of as one book was now eight romances and modern novels.
books. Part of this response was the natural reaction (D) It unifies earlier and later theories concerning
to the disturbance of set ideas. N the chronology of Malory’s romances.
(E) It makes valid and subtle comments about
Malory’s romances.
of independence, 20. It can be inferred from the passage that, in evaluating
but of rejecting its implications: that the romances may the Vinaver theory, some critics were
be taken in any or no particular order, that they have no
cumulative effect, and that they are as separate as the (A) frequently misled by the inconsistencies in
works of a modern novelist. Malory’s work
(B) initially biased by previous interpretations of
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to Malory’s work
(C) conceptually displeased by the general
(A) discuss the validity of a hypothesis interpretation that Vinaver rejected
(B) summarize a system of general principles (D) generally in agreement with Vinaver’s
(C) propose guidelines for future argument comparisons between Malory and modern
(D) stipulate conditions for acceptance of an novelists
interpretation (E) originally skeptical about Vinaver’s early
(E) deny accusations about an apparent conclusions with respect to modern novels
contradiction
18. It can be inferred from the passage that the author

believes which of the following about Malory’s
works?
I. There are meaningful links between and among
the romances.
II. The subtleties of the romances are obscured
when they are taken as one work.
III. Any contradictions in chronology among
the romances are less important than their
overall unity.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
147
17.2 - 2nd
We can distinguish three different realms of matter, radioactivity we find on Earth is the long-lived remnant
three levels on the quantum ladder. The first is the of the time when now-earthly matter was expelled into
atomic realm, which includes the world of atoms, their space by a major stellar explosion.
interactions, and the structures that are formed by The third rung of the quantum ladder is the
them, such as molecules, liquids and solids, and gases sub nuclear realm. Here we are dealing with energy
and plasmas. This realm includes all the phenomena exchanges of many billions of electron volts. We
of atomic physics, chemistry, and, in a certain sense, encounter excited nucleons, new types of particles such
biology. The energy exchanges taking place in this as mesons, heavy electrons, quarks, and gluons, and also
realm are of a relatively low order. If these exchanges antimatter in large quantities. The gluons are the quanta,
are below one electron volt, such as in the collisions or smallest units, of the force (the strong force) that
between molecules of the air in a room, then atoms and keeps the quarks together. As long as we are dealing with
molecules can be regarded as elementary particles. That the atomic or nuclear realm, these new types of particles
is, they have “conditional elementarily” because they do not occur and the nucleons remain inert. But at sub
keep their identity and do not nuclear energy levels, the nucleons and mesons appear
to be composed of quarks, so that the quarks and gluons
figure as elementary particles.
ter particles must be 21. The primary topic of the passage is which of the
considered as elementary. We find examples of structures following?
and processes of this first rung of the quantum ladder on (A) The interaction of the realms on the quantum
Earth, on planets, and on the surfaces of stars. ladder
The next rung is the nuclear realm. Here the (B) Atomic structures found on Earth, on other
energy exchanges are much higher, on the order of planets, and on the surfaces of stars
millions of electron volts. As long as we are dealing with (C) Levels of energy that are released in nuclear
phenomena in the atomic realm, such amounts of energy reactions on Earth and in stars
are unavailable, and most nuclei are inert: they do not (D) Particles and processes found in the atomic,
change. However, if one applies energies of millions of nuclear, and sub nuclear realms
electron volts, nuclear reactions, fission and fusion, and (E) New types of particles occurring in the atomic
the processes of radioactivity occur; our elementary realm
particles then are protons, neutrons, and electrons. In
addition, nuclear processes produce neutrinos, particles
that have no detectable mass or charge. In the universe,
energies at this level are available in the centers of stars
and in star explosions. Indeed, the energy radiated by
the stars is produced by nuclear reactions. The natural
148
22. According to the passage, radioactivity that occurs 25. According to the author, gluons are not
naturally on Earth is the result of (A) considered to be detectable
(A) the production of particles that have no (B) produced in nuclear reactions
detectable mass or electric charge (C) encountered in sub nuclear energy exchanges
(B) high energy exchanges on the nuclear level that (D) related to the strong force
occurred in an ancient explosion in a star (E) found to be conditionally elementary
(C) processes that occur in the center of the Sun,
which emits radiation to the Earth 26. At a higher energy level than the sub nuclear level
(D) phenomena in the atomic realm that cause described, if such a higher level exists, it can be
atoms and molecules to decompose into expected on the basis of the information in the
nuclei and electrons passage that there would probably be
(E) high-voltage discharges of electricity that took (A) excited nucleons
place in the atmosphere of the Earth shortly (B) elementary mesons
after the Earth was formed (C) a kind of particle without detectable mass or
charge
23. The author organizes the passage by (D) exchanges of energy on the order of millions of
(A) making distinctions between two groups of electron volts
particles, those that are elementary and those (E) another set of elementary particles
that are composite
(B) explaining three methods of transferring energy 27. The passage speaks of particles as having conditional
to atoms and to the smaller particles that elementarily if they
constitute atoms (A) remain unchanged at a given level of energy
(C) describing several levels of processes, increasing exchange
in energy, and corresponding sets of particles, (B) cannot be decomposed into smaller constituents
generally decreasing in size (C) are mathematically simpler than some other set
(D) putting forth an argument concerning energy of particles
levels and then conceding that several (D) release energy at a low level in collisions.
qualifications of that argument are necessary (E) belong to the nuclear level on the quantum
(E) making several successive refinements of a ladder
definition of elementarily on the basis of
several groups of experimental results
24. According to the passage, which of the following can

be found in the atomic realm?
(A) More than one level of energy exchange
(B) Exactly one elementary particle
(C) Exactly three kinds of atomic structures
(D) Three levels on the quantum ladder
(E) No particles smaller than atoms
149
Test 17.2 17) A

18) C
19) E
21) D
22) B
23) C
ANSWERS 20) B 24) A
25) B
26) E
27) A
18.1 - 1st
The evolution of intelligence among early large hungry lizard’s instinctive snap at a passing beetle. Using
mammals of the grasslands was due in great measure to past events as a framework, the large mammal predator
the interaction between two ecologically synchronized (50) is working out a relationship between movement
Line groups of these animals, the hunting carnivores and the and food, sensitive to possibilities in cold trails and
(5) herbivores that they hunted. The interaction resulting distant sounds—and yesterday’s unforgotten lessons.
from the differences between predator and prey led to The herbivore prey is of a different mind. Its mood of
a general improvement in brain functions; however, wariness rather than searching and its attitude of general
certain components of intelligence were improved far (55) expectancy instead of anticipating are silk-thin veils of
more than others. tranquility over an explosive endocrine system.
(10) The kind of intelligence favored by the interplay of
increasingly smarter catchers and increasingly keener 17. The author is primarily concerned with
escapers is defined by attention—that aspect of mind (A) disproving the view that herbivores are less
carrying consciousness forward from one moment intelligent than carnivores
to the next. It ranges from a passive, free-floating (B) describing a relationship between animals’
(15) awareness to a highly focused, active fixation. The range intelligence and their ecological roles
through these states is (C) establishing a direct link between early large
rging from sensory systems to mammals and their modern counterparts
integrating centers in the brain stem. From the more (D) analyzing the ecological basis for the
relaxed to the more vigorous levels, sensitivity to novelty dominance of some carnivores over other
(20) is increased. The organism is more awake, more vigilant; carnivores
this increased vigilance results in the apprehension of (E) demonstrating the importance of hormones in
ever more subtle signals as the organism becomes more mental activity
sensitive to its surroundings. The processes of arousal
and concentration give attention its direction. Arousal is 18. The author refers to a hungry lizard (line 48)
(25) at first general, with a flooding of impulses in the brain primarily in order to
stem, then gradually the activation is channeled. Thus
begins concentration, the holding of consistent images. (A) demonstrate the similarity between the hunting
One meaning of intelligence is the way in which these methods of mammals and those of non
images and other alertly searched information are used mammals
(30) in the con text of previous experience. Consciousness (B) broaden the application of his argument by
links past attention to the present and permits the including an insectivore as an example’
integration of details with perceived ends and purposes. (C) make a distinction between higher and lower
The elements of intelligence and consciousness levels of consciousness
come together marvelously to produce different styles (D) provide an additional illustration of the
(35) in predator and prey. Herbivores and carnivores brutality characteristic of predators
develop different kinds of attention related to escaping (E) offer an objection to suggestions that all animals
or chasing. Although in both kinds of animal, lack consciousness
arousal stimulates the production of adrenaline and
norepinephrine by the adrenal glands, the effect in
(40) herbivores is primarily fear, whereas in carnivores
the effect is primarily aggression. For both, arousal
attunes the animal to what is ahead. Perhaps it does
not experience forethought as we know it, but the
animal does experience something like it. The predator
(45) is searchingly aggressive, innerdirected, tuned by the
nervous system and the adrenal hormones, but aware
in a sense closer to human consciousness than, say, a
152
19. It can be inferred from the passage that in animals 22. The author provides information that would answer
less intelligent than the mammals discussed in the which of the following questions?
passage I. Why is an aroused herbivore usually fearful?
(A) past experience is less helpful in ensuring II. What are some of the degrees of attention in
survival large mammals?
(B) attention is more highly focused III. What occurs when the stimulus that causes
(C) muscular coordination is less highly developed arousal of a mammal is removed?
(D) there is less need for competition among (A) I only
species (B) III only
(E) environment is more important in establishing (C) I and II only
the proper ratio of prey to predator (D) II and III only
(E) I, III and III
20. The sensitivity described in lines 48-52 is most clearly
an example of 23. According to the passage, improvement in brain
(A) “free-floating awareness” (lines 14-15) function among early large mammals resulted
(B) “flooding of impulses in the brain stem” (line primarily from which of the following?
25) (A) Interplay of predator and prey
(C) “the holding of consistent images” (line 27) (B) Persistence of free-floating awareness in animals
(D) “integration of details with perceived ends and of the grasslands
purposes” (line 32) (C) Gradual dominance of Warm-blooded
(E) “silk-thin veils of tranquility” (lines 55-56) mammals over cold-blooded reptiles
(D) Interaction of early large mammals with less
21. The author’s attitude toward the mammals discussed intelligent species
in the passage is best described as (E) Improvement of the capacity for memory
(A) superior and condescending among herbivores and carnivores
(B) lighthearted and jocular
(C) apologetic and conciliatory 24. According to the passage, as the process of arousal
(D) wistful and tender in an organism continues, all of the following may
(E) respectful and admiring occur EXCEPT
(A) the production of adrenaline
(B) the production of norepinephrine
(C) a heightening of sensitivity to stimuli
(D) an increase in selectivity with respect to stimuli
(E) an expansion of the range of states mediated by
the brain stem
153
18.1 - 2nd
Tocqueville, apparently, was wrong. Jacksonian 26. The author’s attitude toward Pessen’s presentation of
America was not a fluid, egalitarian society where statistics can be best described as
individual wealth and poverty were ephemeral (A) disapproving
conditions. At least so argues E. Pessen in his (B) shocked
iconoclastic study of the very rich in the United States (C) suspicious
between 1825 and 1850. (D) amused
Pessen does present a quantity of examples, together (E) laudatory
with some refreshingly intelligible statistics, to establish
the existence of an inordinately wealthy class. Though 27. Which of the following best states the author’s main
active in commerce or the professions, most of the point?
wealthy were n
(A) Pessen’s study has overturned the previously
ncial panics that destroyed lesser ones. established view of the social and economic
Indeed, in several cities the wealthiest one percent structure of early nineteenth-century
constantly increased its share until by 1850 it owned half America.
of the community’s wealth. Although these observations (B) Tocqueville’s analysis of the United States in the
are true, Pessen overestimates their importance by Jacksonian era remains the definitive account
concluding from them that the undoubted progress of this period.
toward inequality in the late eighteenth century (C) Pessen’s study is valuable primarily because it
continued in the Jacksonian period and that the United shows the continuity of the social system in
States was a class-ridden, plutocratic society even before the United States throughout the nineteenth
industrialization. century.
(D) The social patterns and political power of
25. According to the passage, Pessen indicates that all of the extremely wealthy in the United States
the following were true of the very wealthy in the between 1825 and 1850 are well documented.
United States between 1825 and 1850 EXCEPT: (E) Pessen challenges a view of the social and
economic system in the United States from
(A) They formed a distinct upper class. 1825 to 1850, but he draws conclusions that
(B) Many of them were able to increase their are incorrect.
holdings.
(C) Some of them worked as professionals or in
business.
(D) Most of them accumulated their own fortunes.
(E) Many of them retained their wealth in spite of
financial upheavals.
154
Test 18.1 17) B

18) C
19) A
25) D
26) E
27) E
ANSWERS 20) D
21) E
22) C
23) A
24) E
18.2 - 1st
“I want to criticize the social system, and to show it Reader, “It is safe to say that not a single law has been
at work, at its most intense.” Virginia Woolf ’s provocative framed or one stone set upon another because of
statement about her intentions in writing Mrs. Dalloway (50) anything Chaucer said or wrote; and yet, as we read him,
Line has regularly been ignored by the critics, since it we are absorbing morality at every pore.” like Chaucer,
(5) highlights an aspect of her literary interests very different Woolf chose to understand as well as to judge, to know
from the traditional picture of the “poetic” novelist her society root and branch—a decision . crucial in order
concerned with examining states of reverie and vision to produce art rather than polemic.
and with following the intricate pathways of individual
consciousness. But Virginia Woolf was a realistic as well 17. Which of the following would be the most
(10) as a poetic novelist, a satirist and social critic as well as appropriate title for the passage?
a visionary: literary critics’ cavalier dismissal of Woolf ’s (A) Poetry and Satire as Influences on the Novels of
social vision will not withstand scrutiny. Virginia Woolf
In her novels, Woolf is deeply engaged by the (B) Virginia Woolf: Critic and Commentator on the
questions of how individuals are shaped (or deformed) Twentieth century Novel
(15) by their social environments, how historical forces (C) Trends in Contemporary Reform Movements
impinge on people’s lives, how class, wealth, and gender as a Key to Understanding Virginia Woolf ’s
help to determine people’s fates. Most of her novels are Novels
rooted in a realistically rendered social setting and in a (D) Society as Allegory for the Individual in the
precise historical time. Novels of Virginia Woolf
(20) Woolf ’s focus on society has not been generally (E) Virginia Woolf ’s Novels: Critical Reflections on
recognized because of her intense antipathy to the Individual and on Society
propaganda in art. The pictures of reformers in her
novels are usually satiric or sharply critical. Even when 18. In the first paragraph of the passage, the author’s
Woolf is fundamentally sympathetic to their causes, attitude toward the literary critics mentioned can
(25) she portrays people anxious to reform their society best be described as
and possessed of a message or program as arrogant or
dishonest, unaware of how (A) disparaging
ds. (Her Writer’s Diary (B) ironic
notes: “the only honest people are the artists,” whereas (C) facetious
(30) “these social reformers and philanthropists ... harbor ... (D) skeptical but resigned
discreditable desires under the disguise of loving their (E) disappointed but hopeful
kind ...”) Woolf detested what she called “preaching”
in fiction, too, and criticized novelist D. H. Lawrence 19. It can be inferred from the passage that Woolf chose
(among others) for working by this method. Chaucer as a literary model because she believed
(35) Woolf ’s own social criticism is expressed in that
the language of observation rather than in direct (A) Chaucer was the first English author to focus
commentary, since for her, fiction is a contemplative, on society as a whole as well as on individual
not an active art. She describes phenomena and provides characters
materials for a judgment about society and social (B) Chaucer was an honest and forthright author,
(40) issues; it is the reader’s work to put the observations whereas novelists like D. H. Lawrence did
together and understand the coherent point of view not sincerely wish to change society
behind them. As a moralist, Woolf works by indirection, (C) Chaucer was more concerned with
subtly undermining officially accepted mores, mocking, understanding his society than with calling
suggesting, calling into question, rather than asserting, its accepted mores into question
(45) advocating, bearing witness: hers is the satirist’s art. (D) Chaucer’s writing was greatly, if subtly, effective
Woolf ’s literary models were acute social observers in influencing the moral altitudes of his
like Chekhov and Chaucer. As she put it in The Common readers
(E) her own novels would be more widely read
if, like Chaucer, she did not overtly and
vehemently criticize contemporary society
156
20. It can be inferred from the passage that the most 22. The author implies that a major element of the
probable reason Woolf realistically described the satirist’s art is the satirist’s
social setting in the majority of her novels was that (A) consistent adherence to a position of lofty
she disdain when viewing the foibles of humanity
(A) was aware that contemporary literary critics (B) insistence on the helplessness of individuals
considered the novel to be the most realistic against the social forces that seek to
of literary genres determine an individual’s fate
(B) was interested in the effect of a person’s social (C) cynical disbelief that visionaries can either
milieu on his or her character and actions enlighten or improve their societies
(C) needed to be as attentive to detail as possible in (D) fundamental assumption that some ambiguity
her novels in order to support the arguments must remain in a work of art in order for it to
she advanced in them reflect society and social mores accurately
(D) wanted to show that a painstaking fidelity in (E) refusal to indulge in polemic when presenting
the representation of reality did not in any social mores to readers for their scrutiny
way hamper the artist
(E) wished to prevent critics from charging that 23. The passage supplies information for answering
her novels were written in an ambiguous and which of the following questions?
inexact style (A) Have literary critics ignored the social criticism
inherent in the works of Chekhov and
21. Which of the following phrases best expresses the Chaucer?
sense of the word “contemplative” as it is used in (B) Does the author believe that Woolf is solely an
line 37 of the passage? introspective and visionary novelist?
(A) Gradually elucidating the rational structures (C) What are the social causes with which Woolf
underlying accepted mores shows herself to be sympathetic in her
(B) Reflecting on issues in society without prejudice writings?
or emotional commitment (D) Was D. H. Lawrence as concerned as Woolf was
(C) Avoiding the aggressive assertion of the author’s with creating realistic settings for his novels?
perspective to the exclusion of the reader’s (E) Does Woolf attribute more power to social
judgment environment or to historical forces as shapers
(D) Conveying a broad view of society as a whole of a person’s life?
rather than focusing on an isolated individual
consciousness
(E) Appreciating the world as the artist sees it
rather than judging it in moral terms
157
18.2 - 2nd
It is a popular misconception that nuclear fusion 26. The passage provides information that would answer
power is free of radioactivity; in fact, the deuterium- which of the following questions?
tritium reaction that nuclear scientists are currently (A) What is likely to be the principal source of
exploring with such zeal produces both alpha particles deuterium for nuclear fusion power?
and neutrons. (The neutrons are used to produce tritium (B) How much incidental radiation is produced in
from a lithium blanket surrounding the reactor.) Anot the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction?
(C) Why are scientists exploring the deuterium-
tritium fusion reaction with such zeal?
(D) Why must the tritium for nuclear fusion be
, its limits are set by the amount of available synthesized from lithium?
lithium, which is about as plentiful as uranium in the (E) Why does the deuterium-tritium reaction yield
Earth’s crust. Research should certainly continue on both alpha particles and neutrons?
controlled nuclear fusion, but no energy program should
be premised on its existence until it has proven practical. 27. Which of the following statements concerning
For the immediate future, we must continue to use nuclear scientists is most directly suggested in the
hydroelectric power, nuclear fission, and fossil fuels to passage?
meet our energy needs. The energy sources already in
major use are in major use for good reason. (A) Nuclear scientists are not themselves aware of
all of the facts surrounding the deuterium-
24. The primary purpose of the passage is to tritium fusion reaction.
(B) Nuclear scientists exploring the deuterium-
(A) criticize scientists who believe that the tritium reaction have overlooked key facts
deuterium-tritium fusion reaction can be in their eagerness to prove nuclear fusion
made feasible as an energy source practical.
(B) admonish scientists who have failed to correctly (C) Nuclear scientists may have overestimated the
calculate the amount of lithium available for amount of lithium actually available in the
use in nuclear fusion reactors Earth’s crust.
(C) defend the continued short-term use of fossil (D) Nuclear scientists have not been entirely
fuels as a major energy source dispassionate in their investigation of the
(D) caution against uncritical embrace of nuclear deuterium-tritium reaction.
fusion power as a major energy source (E) Nuclear scientists have insufficiently
(E) correct the misconception that nuclear fusion investigated the lithium-to-tritium reaction
power is entirely free of radioactivity in nuclear fusion.
25. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
believes which of the following about the current
state of public awareness concerning nuclear fusion
power?
(A) The public has been deliberately misinformed
about the advantages and disadvantages of
nuclear fusion power.
(B) The public is unaware of the principal
advantage of nuclear fusion over nuclear
fission as an energy source.
(C) The public’s awareness of the scientific
facts concerning nuclear fusion power is
somewhat distorted and incomplete.
(D) The public is not interested in increasing
its awareness of the advantages and
disadvantages of nuclear fusion power.
(E) The public is aware of the disadvantages
of nuclear fusion power but not of its
advantages.
158
Test 18.2 17) E

18) A
19) D
24) D
25) C
26) A
ANSWERS 20) B 27) D
21) C
22) E
23) B
19.1 - 1st
Isadora Duncan’s masterly writings on the dance 19. According to the passage, Duncan intended to
reveal the depth of her determination to create a lyric develop an art form that would do all of the
form of the art which was free of characterization, following EXCEPT
Line storytelling, and the theatrical exhibition of skills. (A) avoid the use of standard ballet techniques
(5) She wished to discard the traditional methods and (B) revitalize an earlier established vocabulary
established vocabularies of (C) draw on internal sources of human
expressiveness
odily ornamentation and (D) create intended effects without the use of
strove to use only the natural movements of her body, acrobatic exaggeration
(10) undistorted by acrobatic exaggeration and stimulated (E) derive inspiration solely from inner feelings
only by internal compulsion. In her recitals Duncan
danced to the music of Beethoven, Wagner, and Gluck, 20. It can be inferred from the passage that which of
among others, but, contrary to popular belief, she made the following endeavors is LEAST compatible with
no attempt to visualize or to interpret the music; rather, Duncan’s ideals for the dance?
(15) she simply relied on it to provide the inspiration for
expressing inner feelings through movement. She did (A) Using music to stimulate the inspiration to
not regard this use of music as ideal, however, believing dance
that she would someday dispense with music entirely. (B) Attempting to free an art form of both
That day never came. characterization and storytelling
(C) Minimizing the theatrical exhibition of skills
17. The author is primarily concerned with Duncan’s (D) Being inspired to express inner feeling through
movement
(A) masterful lyricism as expressed in her writings (E) Creating a lyric art form by drawing on inner
on the dance personal resources
(B) concerted efforts to subdue the natural
movements of the dance
(C) belated recognition that she could not actually
fulfill all of her ideals for the dance
(D) basic standards for the dance form that she
wished to create and perform
(E) continuous responsiveness to a popular
misconception about the nature of her new
art form
18. The author implies that Duncan relied on music in

her recitals in order to
(A) interpret musical works solely by means of
natural body movements
(B) foster the illusion that music serves as an
inspiration for the dance
(C) inspire the expression of inner feeling when she
danced
(D) validate the public belief that music inspires the
expression of feeling through movement
(E) counter the public belief that she made no
attempt to visualize music
160
19.1 - 2nd
The recent, apparently successful, prediction by 21. The primary function of the passage as a whole is to
mathematical models of an appearance of El Niño, (A) introduce a new explanation of a physical
the warm ocean current that periodically develops phenomenon
Line along the Pacific coast of South America—has excited (B) explain the difference between two related
(5) researchers. Jacob Bjerknes pointed out over 20 years physical phenomena
ago bow winds might create either abnormally warm or (C) illustrate the limitations, of applying
abnormally cold water in the eastern equatorial Pacific. mathematics to complicated physical
Nonetheless, until the development of the models no one phenomena
could explain why conditions should regularly shift from (D) indicate the direction that research into a
(10) one to the other, as happens in the periodic oscillations particular physical phenomenon should take
between appearances of the warm El Niño and the cold (E) clarify the differences between an old
so-called anti-El Niño. The answer, at least if the current explanation of a physical phenomenon and a
model that links the behavior of the ocean to that of the new model of it.
atmosphere is correct, is to be found in the ocean.
(15) It has long been known that during an El Niño, 22. Which of the following best describes the
two conditions exist: (1) unusually warm water extends organization of the first paragraph?
along the eastern Pacific, principally along the coasts of
Ecuador and Peru, and (2) winds blow from the west (A) A theory is presented and criticized.
into the warmer air rising over the warm water in the (B) A model is described and evaluated.
(20) east. These winds tend to create a feedback mechanism (C) A result is reported and its importance
by driving the warmer surface water into a “pile” that explained.
blocks the normal upwelling of deeper, cold water warms (D) A phenomenon is noted and its significance
the eastern water, thus strengthening the wind still Debated.
more. The contribution of the model is to show that the (E) A hypothesis is introduced and contrary
(25) winds of an El Niño, which raise sea level in the east, evidence presented.
simultaneously send a signal to the west lowering sea
level. According to the model, that signal is generated as 23. According to the passage, which of the following
a negative Rossby wave, a wave of depressed, or negative, features is characteristic of an El Niño?
sea level, that moves westward parallel to the equator at (A) Cold coastal water near Peru
(30) 25 to 85 kilometers per day. Taking months to traverse (B) Winds blowing from the west
the Pacific, Rossby waves march to the western boundary (C) Random occurrence
of the Pacific basin, which is modeled as a smooth wall (D) Worldwide effects
but in reality consists of quite irregular island chains, (E) Short duration
such as the Philippines and Indonesia.
(35) When the waves meet the western boundary, they
are reflected, and the model predicts that Rossby waves
will be broken into numerous coastal Kelvin waves
carrying the same negative sea-level signal. These
eventually shoot toward the equator, and then head east
(40) ward along the equator propelled by the rotation of the
Earth at a speed of about 250 kilometers per day. When
enough Kelvin waves of sufficient amplitude arrive
from the western Pacific, their negative sea-level signal
overcomes the feedback mechanism tending to raise
(45) the sea level, and they begin to drive the system into the
opposite cold mode. This produces a gradual shift in
winds, one that will eventually send positive sea-level
Rossby waves westward, waves that will eventually return
as cold cycle-ending positive Kelvin waves, beginning
(50) another warming cycle.
162
24. According to the model presented in the passage, 26. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously
which of the following normally signals the undermine the validity of the model of El Niño that
disappearance of an El Niño? is presented in the passage?
(A) The arrival in the eastern Pacific of negative (A) During some years El Niño extends
sea-level Kelvin waves significantly farther along the coasts of
(B) A shift in the direction of the winds produced Ecuador and Peru than during other years.
by the start of an anti-El Niño elsewhere in (B) During periods of unusually cool temperatures
the Pacific along the eastern Pacific, an El Niño is much
(C) The reflection of Kelvin waves after they reach colder than normal.
the eastern boundary of the Pacific, along (C) The normal upwelling of cold water in the
Ecuador and Peru eastern Pacific depends much more on the
(D) An increase in the speed at which negative local characteristics of the ocean than on
Rossby waves cross the Pacific atmospheric conditions.
(E) The creation of a reservoir of colder, deep ocean (D) The variations in the time it takes Rossby waves
water trapped under the pile of warmer, to cross the Pacific depend on the power of
surface ocean water the winds that the waves encounter.
(E) The western boundary of the Pacific’ basin is so
25. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the irregular that it impedes most coastal Kelvin
following would result fairly immediately from the waves from heading eastward.
cessation of the winds of an El Niño?
I. Negative Rossby waves would cease to be 27. The passage best supports the conclusion that during
generated in the eastern Pacific. an anti-EI Nino the fastest-moving signal waves are
II. The sea level in the eastern Pacific would fall. (A) negative Rossby waves moving east along the
III. The surface water in the eastern Pacific would equator
again be cooled by being mixed with deep (B) positive Rossby waves moving west along the
water equator
(A) I only (C) negative Kelvin waves moving west along the
(B) II only equator
(C) I and II only (D) positive Kelvin waves moving west along the
(D) I and III only equator
(E) I, II and III (E) positive Kelvin waves moving east along the
equator
163
Test 19.1 17) D

18) C
19) B
21) A
22) C
23) B
ANSWERS 20) A 24) A
25) E
26) E
27) E
19.2 - 1st
Historians have only recently begun to note the heavy industrial sector.
increase in demand for luxury goods and services that That future exploration of these key questions is
took place in eighteenth-century England. McKendrick undoubtedly necessary should not, however, diminish
Line has explored the Wedgwood firm’s remarkable success (55) the force of the conclusion of recent studies: the
(5) in marketing luxury pottery; Plumb has written about insatiable demand in eighteenth-century England
the proliferation of provincial theaters, musical festivals, for frivolous as well as useful goods and services
and children’s toys and books. While the fact of this foreshadows our own world.
consumer revolution is hardly in doubt, three key
questions remain: Who were the consumers? What were 17. In the first paragraph, the author mentions
(10) their motives? And what were the effects of the new McKendrick and Plumb most probably in order to
demand for luxuries? (A) contrast their views on the subject of luxury
An answer to the first of these has been difficult consumerism in eighteenth-century England
to obtain. Although it has been possible to infer (B) indicate the inadequacy of historiographical
from the goods and services actually produced what approaches to eighteenth-century English
(15) manufacturers and servicing trades thought their history
customers wanted, only a study of relevant personal (C) give examples of historians who have helped to
documents written by actual consumers will provide establish the fact of growing consumerism in
a precise picture of who wanted what. We still need to eighteenth-century England
know how large this consumer market was and how far (D) support the contention that key questions about
(20) down the social scale the consumer demand for luxury eighteenth-century consumerism remain to
goods penetrated. With regard to this last question, we be answered
might note in passing that Thompson, while rightly (E) compare one historian’s interest in luxury goods
restoring laboring people to the stage of eighteenth- such as pottery to another historian’s interest
century English history, has probably exaggerated the in luxury services such as musical festivals
(25) opposition of these people to the inroads
ng people in 18. Which of the following items, if preserved from
eighteenth-century England readily shifted from home- eighteenth-century England, would provide an
brewed beer to standardized beer produced by huge, example of the kind of documents mentioned in
heavily capitalized urban breweries. lines 16-17?
(30) To answer the question of why consumers became so
eager to buy, some historians have pointed to the ability (A) A written agreement between a supplier of raw
of manufacturers to advertise in a relatively uncensored materials and a supplier of luxury goods
press. This, however, hardly seems a sufficient answer. (B) A diary that mentions luxury goods and
McKendrick favors a Veblen model of conspicuous services purchased by its author
(35) consumption stimulated by competition for status. The (C) A theater ticket stamped with the date and
“middling sort” bought goods and services because name of a particular play
they wanted to follow fashions set by the rich. Again, (D) A payroll record from a company that
we may wonder whether this explanation is sufficient. produced luxury goods such as pottery
Do not people enjoy buying things as a form of self- (E) A newspaper advertisement describing luxury
(40) gratification? If so, consumerism could be seen as a goods and services available at a seaside
product of the rise of new concepts of individualism resort
and materialism, but not necessarily of the frenzy for
conspicuous competition.
Finally, what were the consequences of this
(45) consumer demand for luxuries? McKendrick claims that
it goes a long way toward explaining the coming of the
Industrial Revolution. But does it? What, for example,
does the production of high-quality pottery and toys
have to do with the development of iron manufacture
(50) or textile mills? It is perfectly possible to have the
psychology and reality of a consumer society without a
166
19. According to the passage, Thompson attributes to 22. According to the passage, eighteenth-century
laboring people in eighteenth-century England England and the contemporary world of passage’s
which of the following attitudes toward capitalist readers are
consumerism? (A) dissimilar in the extent to which luxury
(A) Enthusiasm consumerism could be said to be widespread
(B) Curiosity among the social classes
(C) Ambivalence (B) dissimilar in their definitions of luxury goods
(D) Stubbornness and services
(E) Hostility (C) dissimilar in the extent to which luxury goods
could be said to be a stimulant of industrial
20. In the third paragraph, the author is primarily development
concerned with (D) similar in their strong demand for a variety of
(A) contrasting two theses and offering a goods and services
compromise (E) similar in the extent to which a middle class
(B) questioning two explanations and proposing a could be identified as imitating the habits of a
possible alternative to them wealthier class
(C) paraphrasing the work of two historians and
questioning their assumptions 23. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
(D) examining two theories and endorsing one over would most probably agree with which of the
the other following statements about the relationship
(E) raising several questions but implying that they between the Industrial Revolution and the demand
cannot be answered for luxury goods and services in eighteenth-century
England?
21. According to the passage, a Veblen model of (A) The growing demand for luxury goods and
conspicuous consumption has been used to services was a major factor in the coming of
(A) investigate the extent of the demand for luxury the Industrial Revolution.
goods among social classes in eighteenth- (B) The Industrial Revolution exploited the already
century England existing demand for luxury goods and
(B) classify the kinds of luxury goods desired by services.
eighteenth-century consumers (C) Although the demand for luxury goods may
(C) explain the motivation of eighteenth-century have helped bring about the Industrial
consumers to buy luxury goods Revolution, the demand for luxury services
(D) establish the extent to which the tastes of rich did not.
consumers were shaped by the middle classes (D) There is no reason to believe that the Industrial
in eighteenth-century England Revolution was directly driven by a growing
(E) compare luxury consumerism in eighteenth- demand for luxury goods and services.
century England with such consumerism in (E) The increasing demand for luxury goods and
the twentieth century services was a cultural phenomenon that has
been conclusively demonstrated to have been
separate from the coming of the Industrial
Revolution.
167
19.2 - 2nd
Researchers are finding that in many ways an 26. The passage supports which of the following
individual bacterium is more analogous to a component inferences about heterocysts?
cell of a multi cellular organism than it is to a free (A) Heterocysts do not produce oxygen.
Line living, autonomous organism. Anabaena, a freshwater (B) Nitrogen gas inactivates heterocysts.
(5) bacteria, is a case in point. Among photosynthetic (C) Chlorophyll increases the productivity of
bacteria, Anabaena is unusual: it is capable of both heterocysts.
photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation. Within a single (D) Heterocysts allow nitrogen fixation and photo
cell, these two biochemical processes are incompatible: synthesis to occur in the same cell.
oxygen, produced during photosynthesis, inactivates (E) Heterocysts are more important for Anabaena’s
(10) the nitrogenase required for nitrogen fixation. In functioning than are photosynthetic cells.
Anabaena communities, however, these processes can
coexist. When fixed nitrogen compounds are abundant, 27. The author uses the example of Anabaena to illustrate
Anabaena is strictly photosynthetic and its cells are all the
alike. When nitrogen levels are low, however, specialized
(15) cells called heterocysts are produced which lack ch (A) uniqueness of bacteria among unicellular
can organisms
fix nitrogen by converting nitrogen gas into a usable (B) inadequacy of an existing view of bacteria
form. Submicroscopic channels develop which connect (C) ability of unicellular organisms to engage in
the heterocyst cells with the photosynthetic ones photosynthesis
(20) and which are used for transferring cellular products (D) variability of a freshwater bacteria
between the two kinds of Anabaena cells. (E) difficulty of investigating even the simplest
unicellular organisms
24. According to the passage, which of the following
statements is true of bacteria that engage in
photosynthesis?
(A) They eventually become two autonomous cells.
(B) They cannot normally also engage in nitrogen
fixation.
(C) Oxygen normally inactivates them.
(D) Cellular products are constantly transferred
between such, bacteria.
(E) They normally lack chlorophyll.
25. It can be inferred from the passage that cell

differentiation with in Anabaena is regulated by the
(A) amount of oxygen Anabaena cells produce
(B) season of the year
(C) amount of fixed nitrogen compounds available
(D) number of microscopic channels uniting
Anabaena cells
(E) amount of chlorophyll in Anabaena cells
168
Test 19.2 17) C

18) B
19) E
24) B
25) C
26) A
ANSWERS 20) B 27) B
21) C
22) D
23) D
20.1 - 1st
A serious critic has to comprehend the particular 18. The author implies that it is insufficient to treat a
content, unique structure, and special meaning of a work of art solely historically because
work of art. And here she faces a dilemma. The critic (A) doing so would lead the critic into a dilemma
Line must recognize the artistic element of uniqueness that (B) doing so can blind the critic to some of the
(5) requires subjective reaction; yet she must not be unduly artwork’s unique qualities
prejudiced by such reactions. Her likes and dislikes are (C) doing so can insulate the critic from personally
less important than what the work itself communicates, held beliefs
and her preferences may blind her to certain qualities (D) subjective reactions can produce a biased
of the work and thereby prevent an adequate undergo; response
(10) standing of it. Hence, it is necessary that a critic develop (E) critics are not sufficiently familiar with art
a sensibility informed by familiarity with the history of history
ar
cient to treat the artwork solely historically, in relation 19. The passage suggests that the author would be
to a fixed set of ideas or values. The critic’s knowledge most likely to agree with which of the following
(15) and training are, rather, a preparation of the cognitive statements?
and emotional abilities needed for an adequate personal
response to an artwork’s own particular qualities. (A) Art speaks to the passions as well as to the
intellect
17. According to the author, a serious art critic may (B) Most works of art express unconscious wishes
avoid being prejudiced by her subjective reactions or desires.
if she (C) The best art is accessible to the greatest number
of people.
(A) treats an artwork in relation to a fixed set of (D) The art produced in the last few decades is of
ideas and values inferior quality.
(B) brings to her observation a knowledge of art (E) The meaning of art is a function of the social
history and aesthetic theory conditions in which it was produced.
(C) allows more time for the observation of each
artwork 20. The author’s argument is developed primarily by the
(D) takes into account the preferences of other art use of
critics
(E) limits herself to that art with which she has (A) an attack on sentimentality
adequate familiarity (B) an example of successful art criticism
(C) a critique of artists’ training
(D) a warning against extremes in art criticism
(E) an analogy between art criticism and art
production
170
20.1 - 2nd
Viruses, infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid 21. The primary purpose of, the passage is to
packaged in a protein coat (the capsid), are difficult to (A) discuss viral mechanisms and possible ways
resist. Unable to reproduce outside a living cell, viruses of circumventing certain kinds of those
Line reproduce only by subverting the genetic mechanisms of a mechanisms.
(5) host cell. In one kind of viral life cycle, the virus first binds (B) challenge recent research on how rhinoviruses
to the cell’s surface, then penetrates the cell and sheds its bind to receptors on the surfaces of cells.
capsid. The exposed viral nucleic acid produces new viruses (C) suggest future research on rhinoviral growth in
from the contents of the cell. Finally, the cell releases the chimpanzees.
viral progeny, and a new cell cycle of infection begins. The (D) defend a controversial research program
(10) human body responds to a viral infection by producing whose purpose is to discover the molecular
antibodies: complex, highly specific proteins that selectively structure of rhinovirus capsids.
bind to foreign molecules such as viruses. An antibody can (E) evaluate a dispute between advocates of two
either interfere with a virus’ ability to bind to a cell, or can theories about the rhinovirus life cycle.
prevent it from releasing its nucleic acid.
(15) Unfortunately, the common cold, 22. It can be inferred from the passage that the protein
antiviral defense. sequences of the capsid that vary most among
Humans have difficulty resisting colds because rhinoviruses strains of rhinovirus are those
are so diverse, including at least 100 strains. The strains
differ most in the molecular structure of the proteins in (A) at the base of the “canyon”
(20) their capsids. Since disease-fighting antibodies bind to (B) outside of the “canyon”
the capsid, an antibody developed to protect against one (C) responsible for producing nucleic acid
rhinovirus strain is useless against other strains. Different (D) responsible for preventing the formation of
antibodies must be produced for each strain. delta-receptors
A defense against rhinoviruses might nonetheless (E) preventing the capsid from releasing its nucleic
(25) succeed by exploiting hidden similarities among the acid
rhinovirus strains. For example, most rhinovirus strains
bind to the same kind of molecule (delta-receptors) on 23. It can be inferred from the passage that a cell lacking
a cell’s surface when they attack human cells. Colonno, delta-receptors will be
taking advantage of these common receptors, devised (A) unable to prevent the rhinoviral nucleic acid
(30) a strategy for blocking the attachment of rhinoviruses from shedding its capsid
to their appropriate receptors. Rather than fruitlessly (B) defenseless against most strains of rhinovirus
searching for an antibody that would bind to all (C) unable to release the viral progeny it develops
rhinoviruses, Colonno realized that an antibody binding after infection
to the common receptors of a human cell would prevent (D) protected from new infections by antibodies to
(35) rhinoviruses from initiating an infection. Because human the rhinovirus
cells normally do not develop antibodies to components (E) resistant to infection by most strains of
of their own cells, Colonno injected human cells into rhinovirus
mice, which did produce an antibody to the common
receptor. In isolated human cells, this antibody proved to 24. Which of the following research strategies for
(40) be extraordinarily effective at thwarting the rhinovirus. developing a defense against the common cold
Moreover, when the antibody was given to chimpanzees, would the author be likely to find most promising?
it inhibited rhinoviral growth, and in humans it lessened (A) Continuing to look for a general antirhinoviral
both the severity and duration of cold symptoms. antibody
Another possible defense against rhinoviruses was (B) Searching for common cell-surface receptors in
(45) proposed by Rossman, who described rhinoviruses humans and mice
detailed molecular structure. Rossman showed that protein (C)Continuing to look for similarities among the
sequences common to all rhinovirus strains lie at the various strains of rhinovirus
base of a deep “canyon” scoring each face of the capsid. (D) Discovering how the human body produces
The narrow opening of this canyon possibly prevents the antibodies in response to a rhinoviral
(50) relatively large antibody molecules from binding to the infection
common sequence, but smaller molecules might reach it. (E) Determining the detailed molecular structure of
Among these smaller, non antibody molecules, some might the nucleic acid of a rhinovirus
bind to the common sequence, lock the nucleic acid in its
coat, and thereby prevent the virus from reproducing.
172
25. It can be inferred from the passage that the purpose 27. According to the passage, in order for. a given
of Colonna’s experiments was to determine whether antibody, to bind to a given rhinoviral capsid,
(A) chimpanzees and humans can both be infected which of the following must be true?
by rhinoviruses (A) The capsid must have a deep “canyon” on each
(B) chimpanzees can produce antibodies to human of its faces.
cell-surface receptors (B) The antibody must be specific to the molecular
(C) a rhinovirus’ nucleic acid might be locked in its structure of the particular capsid.
protein coat (C) The capsid must separate from its nucleic acid
(D) binding antibodies to common receptors before binding to an antibody.
could produce a possible defense against (D) The antibody must bind to a particular cell-
rhinoviruses surface receptor before it can bind to a
(E) rhinoviruses are vulnerable to human rhinovirus.
antibodies (E) The antibody must first enter a cell containing
the particular rhinovirus.
26. According to the passage, Rossman’s research
suggests that
(A) a defense against rhinoviruses might exploit
structural similarities among the strains of
rhinovirus
(B) human cells normally do not develop antibodies
to components of their own cells
(C) the various strains of rhinovirus differ in their
ability to bind to the surface of a host cell
(D) rhinovirus versatility can work to the benefit of
researchers trying to find a useful antibody
(E) Colonno’s research findings are probably invalid
173
Test 20.1 17) B

18) B
19) A
21) A
22) B
23) E
ANSWERS 20) D 24) C
25) D
26) A
27) B
20.2 - 1st
Diamonds, an occasional 18. According to the passage, the age of silicate minerals
berlites have never been included in diamonds can be determined due to a
dated satisfactorily. However, some diamonds contain feature of the
Line minute inclusions of silicate minerals, commonly olivine, (A) trace elements in the diamond hosts
(5) pyroxene, and garnet. These minerals can be dated by (B) trace elements in the rock surrounding the
radioactive decay techniques because of the very small diamonds
quantities of radioactive trace elements they, in rum, (C) trace elements in the silicate minerals
contain. Usually, it is possible to conclude that the (D) silicate minerals’ crystal structure
inclusions are older than their diamond hosts, but with (E) host diamonds’ crystal structure
(10) little indication of the time interval involved. Sometimes,
however, the crystal form of the silicate inclusions is 19. The author states that which of the following
observed to resemble more closely the internal structure generally has a crystal structure similar to that of
of diamond than that of other silicate minerals, It is not diamond?
known how rare this resemblance is, or whether it is
most often seen in inclusions of silicates such as garnet, (A) Lamproite
(15)
whose crystallography is general (B) Kimberlite
, the resemblance is (C) Olivine
regarded as compelling evidence that the diamonds and (D) Pyroxene
inclusions are truly cogenetic. (E) Garnet
17. The author implies that silicate inclusions were most 20. The main purpose of the passage is to
often formed (A) explain why it has not been possible to
(A) with small diamonds inside of them determine the age of diamonds
(B) with trace elements derived from their host (B) explain how it might be possible to date some
minerals diamonds
(C) by the radioactive decay of rare igneous rocks (C) compare two alternative approaches to
(D) at an earlier period than were their host determining the age of diamonds
minerals (D) compare a method of dating diamonds with a
(E) from the crystallization of rare igneous material method used to date certain silicate minerals
(E) compare the age of diamonds with that of
certain silicate minerals contained within
them
175
20.2 - 2nd
Discussion of the assimilation of Puerto Ricans in the 21. The author’s main purpose is to
United States has focused on two factors: social standing (A) criticize the emphasis on social standing in
and the loss of national culture. In general, excessive stress discussions of the assimilation of Puerto
Line is placed on one factor or the other, depending on whether Ricans in the United States
(5) the commentator is North American or Puerto Rican. Many (B) support the thesis that assimilation has not been
North American social scientists, such as Oscar Handlin, a benign process for Puerto Ricans
Joseph Fitzpatrick, and Oscar Lewis, consider Puerto (C) defend a view of the assimilation of Puerto
Ricans as the most recent in a long line of ethnic entrants Ricans that emphasizes the preservation of
to occupy the lowest rung on the social ladder. Such a national culture
(10) “sociodemographic” approach tends to regard assimilation (D) indicate deficiencies in two schools of thought
as a benign process, taking for granted increased economic on the assimilation of Puerto Ricans in the
advantage and inevitable cultural integration, in a United States
supposedly egalitarian context. However, this approach (E) reject the attempt to formulate a general frame
fails to take into account the colonial nature of the work for discussion of the assimilation of
(15) Puerto Rican case, with this group, unlike their European Puerto Ricans in the United States
predecessors, coming from a nation politically subordinated
to the United States. Even the “radical” critiques of this 22. According to the passage, cultural accommodation is
mainstream research model, such as the critique developed promoted by
in Divided Society, attach the issue of ethnic assimilation
(20) too mechanically to factors of economic and social mobility (A) Eduardo Seda-Bonilla
and are thus unable to illuminate the cultural subordination (B) Manuel Maldonado-Denis
of Puerto Ricans as a colonial minority. (C) the author of Divided Society
In contrast, the “colonialist” approach of island-based (D) the majority of social scientists writing on
writers such as Eduardo Seda-Bonilla, Manuel Maldonado- immigration
(25) Denis, and Luis Nieves-Falcon tends to view assimilation (E) many supporters of Puerto Rico’s common
as the forced loss of national culture in an unequal contest wealth status
with imposed foreign values. There is, of course, a strong
tradition of cultural accommodation among other Puerto 23. It can be inferred from the passage that a writer
Rican thinkers. The writings of Eugenio Fernández such as Eugenio Fernández Méndez would most
(30) Méndez clearly exemplify this tradition, and many likely agree with which of the following statements
supporters of Puerto Rico’s commonwealth status share concerning members of minority ethnic groups?
the same universalizing orientation. But the Puerto Rican (A) It is necessary for the members of such groups
intellectuals who have written most about the assimilation to adapt to the culture of the majority.
process in the United States all advance cultural nationalist (B) The members of such groups generally
(35) views, advocating the preservation of minority cultural encounter a culture that is static and
distinctions and rejecting what they see as the subjugation undifferentiated.
of colonial national (C) Social mobility is the most important feature of
the experience of members of such groups.
inkers misdirect it, overlooking the (D) Social scientists should emphasize the cultural
(40) class relations at work in both Puerto Rican and North and political aspects of the experience of
American history. They pose the clash of national cultures members of such groups.
as an absolute polarity, with each culture understood as (E) The assimilation of members of such groups
static and undifferentiated. Yet both the Puerto Rican and requires the forced abandonment of then
North American traditions have been subject to constant authentic national roots.
(45) challenge from cultural forces within their own societies,
forces that may move toward each other in ways that cannot
be written off as mere “assimilation.” Consider, for example,
the indigenous and Afro Caribbean traditions in Puerto
Rican culture and how they influence and are influenced by
(50) other Caribbean cultures and Black cultures in the United
States. The elements of coercion and inequality, so central
to cultural contact according to the colonialist framework,
play no role in this kind of convergence of racially and
ethnically different elements of the same social class.
176
24. The author implies that the Puerto Rican writers who 26. The author regards the emphasis by island-based
have written most about assimilation do NOT do writers on the cultural and political dimensions of
which of the following? assimilation as
(A) Regard assimilation as benign. (A) ironic
(B) Resist cultural integration. (B) dangerous
(C) Describe in detail the process of assimilation. (C) fitting but misdirected
(D) Take into account the colonial nature of the (D) illuminating but easily misunderstood
Puerto Rican case. (E) peculiar but benign
(E) Criticize supporters of Puerto Rico’s common
wealth status. 27. The example discussed in lines 47-51 is intended by
the author to illustrate a
25. It can be inferred from the passage that the (A) strength of the sociodemographic approach
“colonialist” approach is so called because its (B) strength of the “colonialist” approach
practitioners (C) weakness of the sociodemographic approach
(A) support Puerto Rico’s commonwealth status (D) weakness of the “colonialist” approach
(B) have a strong tradition of cultural (E) weakness of the cultural-accommodationist
accommodation approach
(C) emphasize the class relations at work in both
Puerto Rican and North American history
(D) pose the clash of national cultures as an
absolute polarity in which each culture is
understood as static and undifferentiated
(E) regard the political relation of Puerto Rico to
the United States as a significant factor in the
experience of Puerto Ricans
177
Test 20.2 17) D

18) C
19) E
21) D
22) E
23) A
ANSWERS 20) B 24) A
25) E
26) C
27) D
21.1 - 1st
Geologists have long known that the Earth’s 18. According to the passage, it is believed that oceanic
mantle is heterogeneous, but its spatial arrangement islands are formed from
remains unresolved—is the mantle essentially layered (A) the same material as mantle xenoliths
Line or irregularly heterogeneous? The best evidence for (B) the same material as the midocean ridge system
(5) the layered mantle thesis is the well-established fact (C) volcanic rocks from the upper mantle
that volcanic rocks found on oceanic islands, islands (D) incompatible elements percolating up from the
believed to result from mantle plumes arising from the lower mantle
lower mantle, are composed of material fundamentally (E) mantle plumes arising from the lower mantle
different from that of the midocean ridge system, whose
(10) source, most geologists contend, is the upper mantle. 19. It can be inferred from the passage that the
Some geologists, however, on the basis of supporters of the “layered-mantle” theory believe
observations concerning mantle xenoliths, argue that the which of the following?
mantle is not layered, but that heterogeneity is created
by fluids rich in “incompatible elements” (elements I. The volcanic rocks on oceanic islands are
(15) tending toward liquid r composed of material derived from the lower
part of the mantle.
II. The materials of which volcanic rocks on oceanic
ginatively, that this islands and midocean ridges are composed
debate can be resolved through further study, and that are typical of the layers from which they are
(20) the underexplored midocean ridge system is the key. thought to originate.
III. The differences in composition between
17. Which of the following best expresses the main idea volcanic rocks on oceanic islands and the
of the passage? midocean ridges are a result of different
concentrations of incompatible elements.
(A) Current theories regarding the structure of (A) I only
the Earth’s mantle cannot account for new (B) III only
discoveries regarding the composition of (C) I and II only
mantle xenoliths. (D) II and III only
(B) There are conflicting hypotheses about the (E) I, II and III
heterogeneity of the Earth’s mantle because
few mantle elements have been thoroughly 20. The authors suggest that their proposal for
studied. determining the nature of the mantle’s
(C) Further research is needed to resolve the debate heterogeneity might be considered by many to be
among geologists over the composition of the
midocean ridge system. (A) pedestrian
(D) There is clear-cut disagreement within the (B) controversial
geological community over the structure of (C) unrealistic
the Earth’s mantle. (D) novel
(E) There has recently been a strong and exciting (E) paradoxical
challenge to geologists’ long-standing belief
in the heterogeneity of the Earth’s mantle.
179
21.1 - 2nd
Many literary detectives have pored over a great puzzle 21. The passage is primarily concerned with
concerning the writer Marcel Proust: what happened in 1909? (A) the role of involuntary memory in Proust’s
How did Contre Saint-Beuve, an essay attacking the methods writing
Line of the critic Saint-Beuve, turn into the start of the novel (B) evidence concerning the genesis of Proust’s
(5) Remembrance of Things Past? A recently published letter from novel Remembrance of Things Past
Proust to the editor Vallette confirms that Fallois, the editor (C) conflicting scholarly opinions about the value
of the 1954 edition of Contre Saint-Beuve, made an essentially of studying the drafts of Remembrance of
correct guess about the relationship of the essay to the novel. Things Past
Fallois proposed that Proust had tried to begin a hovel in (D) Proust’s correspondence and what it reveals
(10) 1908, abandoned it for what was to be a long demonstration about Remembrance of Things Past
of Saint-Bcuve’s blindness to the real nature of great writing, (E) the influence of Saint-Beuve’s criticism on
found the essay giving rise to personal memories and fictional Proust’s novel Remembrance of Things Past
developments, and allowed these to take over in a steadily
developing novel. 22. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the
(15) Draft passages in Proust’s 1909 notebooks indicate that following are literary detectives who have tried,
the transition from essay to novel began in Contre Saint- by means of either scholarship or criticism, to
Beuve, when Proust introduced several examples to show help solve the “great puzzle” mentioned in line 1
the powerful influence that involuntary memory exerts over EXCEPT
the creative imagination. In effect, in trying to demonstrate
(20) that the imagination is more profound and less submissive (A) Bardèche
to the intellect than Saint-Beuve assumed, Proust elicited (B) Bonnet
vital memories of his own and, finding subtle connections (C) Fallois
between them, began to amass the material for Remembrance. (D) Kolb
By August, Proust was writing to Vallette, informing him (E) Vallette
(25) of his intention to develop th
23. According to the passage, in drafts of Contre Saint-
emembrance of spontaneous and Beuve Proust set out to show that Saint-Beuve made
apparently random associations of Proust’s subconscious. As which of the following mistakes as a critic?
incidents and reflections occurred to Proust, he continually I. Saint-Beuve made no effort to study the
(30) inserted new passages altering and expanding his narrative. development of a novel through its drafts and
But he found it difficult to control the drift of his inspiration. revisions.
The very richness and complexity of the meaningful II. Saint-Beuve assigned too great a role in the
relationships that kept presenting and rearranging themselves creative process to a writer’s conscious
on all levels, from abstract intelligence to profound intellect.
(35) dreamy feelings, made it difficult for Proust to set them out III. Saint-Beuve concentrated too much on plots
coherently. The beginning of control came when he saw how and not enough on imagery and other
to connect the beginning and the end of his novel. elements of style.
Intrigued by Proust’s claim that he had “begun and (A) II only
finished” Remembrance at the same time, Henri Bonnet (B) III only
(40) discovered that parts of Remembrance’s last book were (C) I and II only
actually started in 1909. Already in that year, Proust had (D) I and III only
drafted descriptions of his novel’s characters in their old age (E) I, II and III only
that would appear in the final book of Remembrance, where
the permanence of art is set against the ravages of time. The
(45) letter to Vallette, drafts of the essay and novel, and Bonnet’s
researches establish in broad outline the process by which
Proust generated his novel out of the ruins of his essay. But
those of us who hoped, with Kolb, that Kolb’s newly published
complete edition of Proust’s correspondence for 1909 would
(50) document the process in greater detail are disappointed. For
until Proust was confident that he was at last in sight of a
viable structure for Remembrance, he told few correspondents
that he was producing anything more ambitious than Contre
Saint-Beuve.
180
24. Which of the following best states the author’s 26. The passage offers information to answer which of
attitude toward the information that scholars have the following question?
gathered about Proust’s writing in 1909? (A) Precisely when in 1909 did Proust decide to
(A) The author is disappointed that no new abandon Contre Saint-Beuve?
documents have come to light since Fallois’s (B) Precisely when in 1909 did Proust decide
speculations. to connect the beginning and the end of
(B) The author is dissatisfied because there are too Remembrance of Things Past?
many gaps and inconsistencies in the drafts. (C) What was the subject of the novel that Proust
(C) The author is confident that Fallois’s 1954 guess attempted in 1908?
has been proved largely correct, but regrets (D) What specific criticisms of Saint-Beuve appear,
that still more detailed documentation in fictional form, in Remembrance of Things
concerning Proust’s transition from the essay Past?
to the novel h (E) What is a theme concerning art that appears
in the final book of Remembrance of Things
Past?
esigning and writing the
novel was probably far more deliberate than 27. Which of the following best describes the
Fallois’s description of the process would relationship between Contre Saint-Beuve and
suggest. Remembrance of Things Past as it is explained in the
(E) The author is satisfied that the facts of Proust’s passage?
life in 1909 have been thoroughly established, (A) Immediately after abandoning Contre Saint-
but believes such documents as drafts and Beuve, at Vallette’s suggestion, Proust started
correspondence are only of limited value in a Remembrance as a fictional demonstration
critical assessment of Proust’s writing. that Saint-Beuve was wrong about the
imagination.
25. The author of the passage implies that which of the (B) Immediately after abandoning Contre Saint-
following would be the LEAST useful source of Beuve, at Vallette’s suggestion, Proust turned
information about Proust’s transition from working his attention to Remembrance, starting with
on Contre Saint-Beuve to having a viable structure incidents that had occurred to him while
for Remembrance of Things Past? planning the essay.
(A) Fallois’s comments in the 1954 edition of Contre (C) Despondent that he could not find a coherent
Saint-Beuve structure for Contre Saint-Beuve, an essay
(B) Proust’s 1909 notebooks, including the drafts of about the role of memory in fiction, Proust
Remembrance of Things Past began instead to write Remembrance, a novel
(C) Proust’s 1909 correspondence, excluding the devoted to important early memories.
letter to Vallette (D) While developing his argument about the
(D) Bardèche’s Marcel Proust, romancier imagination in Contre Saint-Beuve, Proust
(E) Bonnet’s researches concerning Proust’s drafts described and began to link together personal
of the final book of Remembrance of Things memories that became a foundation for
Past Remembrance.
(E) While developing his argument about memory
and imagination in Contre Saint-Beuve,
Proust created fictional characters to embody
the abstract themes in his essay.
181
Test 21.1 17) D

18) E
19) C
21) B
22) E
23) A
ANSWERS 20) A 24) C
25) C
26) E
27) D
21.2 - 1st
Traditional research has confronted only Mexican 19. According to the passage, a major difference between
and United States interpretations of Mexican-American the colonization policy of the United States and
culture. Now we must also examine the culture as we that of Mexico in Texas in the 1800’s was the
Line Mexican Americans have experienced it, passing from (A) degree to which policies were based on
(5) a sovereign people to compatriots with newly arriving tradition
settlers to, finally, a conquered people—a charter (B) form of economic interdependency between
minority on our own land. different cultural groups
When the Spanish first came to Mexico, they (C) number of people who came to settle new areas
intermarried with and absorbed the culture of the (D) treatment of the native inhabitants
(10) indigenous Indians. This policy of colonization through (E) relationship between the military and the
acculturation was continued when Mexico acquired settlers
Texas in the early 1800’s and brought the indigenous
Indians into Mexican life and government In the1820’s, 20. Which of the following statements most clearly
United States citizens migrated to Texas, attracted by contradicts the information in this passage?
(15) land suitab
ntial, their policy of acquiring land by (A) In the early 1800’s, the Spanish committed
subduing native populations began to dominate. The two more resources to settling California than to
ideologies clashed repeatedly, culminating in a military developing Texas.
conflicted that led to victory for the United States. Thus, (B) While Texas was under Mexican control, the
(20) suddenly deprived of our parent culture, we had to population of Texas quadrupled in spite of
evolve uniquely Mexican-American modes of thought the fact that Mexico discouraged immigration
and action in order to survive. from the United States.
(C) By the time Mexico acquired Texas, many
17. The author’s purpose in writing this passage is Indians had already married people of
primarily to Spanish heritage.
(D) Many Mexicans living in Texas returned to
(A) suggest the motives behind Mexican and Mexico after Texas was annexed by the
United States intervention in Texas United States.
(B) document certain early objectives of Mexican- (E) Most Indians living in Texas resisted Spanish
American society acculturation and were either killed or
(C) provide a historical perspective for a new enslaved.
analysis of Mexican-American culture
(D) appeal to both Mexican and United States
scholars to give greater consideration to
economic interpretations of history
(E) bring to light previously overlooked research on
Mexican Americans
18. The author most probably uses the phrase “charter

minority” (lines 6-7) to reinforce the idea that
Mexican Americans
(A) are a native rather than an immigrant group in
the United States
(B) played an active political role when Texas first
became part of the United States
(C) recognized very early in the nineteenth century
the need for official confirmation of their
rights of citizenship
(D) have been misunderstood by scholars trying to
interpret their culture
(E) identify more closely with their Indian heritage
than with their Spanish heritage
183
21.2 - 2nd
This passage was adapted from an article published in 1982. 21. Which of the following titles best summarizes the
passage
Until about five years ago, the very idea that peptide (A) Is Molecular Biology the Key to Understanding
hormones might be made anywhere in the brain besides the Intercellular Communication in the Brain?
hypothalamus was astounding. Peptide hormones, scientists (B) Molecular Biology: Can Researchers Exploit Its
Line thought, were made by endocrine glands and the hypothalamus Techniques to Synthesize Peptide Hormones?
(5) was thought to be the brains’ only endocrine gland. What is (C) The Advantages and Disadvantages of the
more, because peptide hormones cannot cross the blood-brain Immunological Approach to Detecting
barrier, researchers believed that they never got to any part of Peptide Hormones
the brain other than the hypothalamus, where they were simply (D) Peptide Hormones: How Scientists Are
produced and then released into the bloodstream. Attempting to Solve Problems of Their
(10) But these beliefs about peptide hormones were questioned Detection and to Understand Their Function
as laboratory after laboratory found that antiserums to peptide (E) Peptide Hormones: The Role Played by
hormones, when injected into the brain, bind in places other Messenger RNA’s in Their Detection
than the hypothalamus, indicating that either the hormones
or substances that cross-react with the antiserums are present. 22. The passage suggests that a substance detected in the
(15) The immunological method of detecting peptide hormones by brain by use of antiserums to peptide hormones
means of antiserums, however, is imprecise. Cross-reactions may
are possible and this method cannot determine whether the
substances detected by the a (A) have been stored in the brain for a long period
of time
tion in the body where the detected (B) play no role in the functioning of the brain
(20)
substances are actually produced. (C) have been produced in some part of the body
New techniques of molecular biology, however, provide a other than the brain
way to answer these questions. It is possible to make specific (D) have escaped detection by molecular methods
complementary DNA’s (cDNA’s) that can serve as molecular (E) play an important role in the functioning of the
probes to seek out the messenger RNA’s (mRNA’s) of the peptide hypothalamus
(25)
hormones. If brain cells are making the hormones, the cells
will contain these mRNA’s. If the products the brain cells make 23. According to the passage, confirmation of the belief
resemble the hormones but are not identical to them, then the that peptide hormones are made in the brain in
cDNA’s should still bind to these mRNA’s, but should not bind areas other than the hypothalamus would force
as tightly as they would to mRNA’s for the true hormones. The scientists to
(30)
cells containing these mRNA’s can then be isolated and their (A) reject the theory that peptide hormones are
mRNA’s decoded to determine just what their protein products made by endocrine glands
are and how closely the products resemble the true peptide (B) revise their beliefs about the ability of anti
hormones. serums to detect peptide hormones
(35) The molecular approach to detecting peptide hormones (C) invent techniques that would allow them to
using cDNA probes should also be much faster than the locate accurately brain cells that produce
immunological method because it can take years of tedious peptide hormones
purifications to isolate peptide hormones and then develop (D) search for techniques that would enable them
antiserums to them. Roberts, expressing the sentiment of many to distinguish peptide hormones from their
(40) researchers, states: “I was trained as an endocrinologist. But close relatives
it became clear to me that the field of endocrinology needed (E) develop a theory that explains the role played by
molecular biology input. The process of grinding out protein peptide hormones in the brain
purifications is just too slow.”
If, as the initial tests with cDNA probes suggest, peptide
(45) hormones really are made in the brain in areas other than
the hypothalamus, a theory must be developed that explains
their function in the brain. Some have suggested that the
hormones are all growth regulators, but Rosen’s work on rat
brains indicates that this cannot be true. A number of other
(50) researchers propose that they might be used for intercellular
communication in the brain.
184
24. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage 26. Which of the following is a way in which the
as a drawback of the immunological method of immunological method of detecting peptide
detecting peptide hormones? hormones differs from the molecular method?
(A) It cannot be used to detect the presence of (A) The immunological method uses substances
growth regulators in the brain. that react with products of hormone
(B) It cannot distinguish between the peptide producing cells, whereas the molecular
hormones and substances that are very method uses substances that react with a
similar to them. specific component of the cells themselves.
(C) It uses antiserums that are unable to cross the (B) The immunological method has produced
blood-brain barrier. results consistent with long-held beliefs about
(D) It involves a purification process that requires peptide hormones, whereas the molecular
extensive training in endocrinology method has produced results that upset these
(E) It involves injecting foreign substances directly beliefs.
into the bloodstream. (C) The immunological method requires a great
deal of expertise, whereas the molecular
25. The passage implies that, in doing research on rat method has been used’ successfully by non
brains, Rosen discovered that specialists.
(A) peptide hormones are used for intercellular (D) The immunological method can only be used
communication to test for the presence of peptide hormones
(B) complementary DNA’s do not bind to cells within the hypothalamus, whereas the
Producing peptide hormones molecular method can be used throughout
(C) products closely resembling peptide hormones the brain:
are not identical to peptide hormones (E) The immunological method uses probes that
(D) some peptide hormones do not function as can only bind with peptide hormones,
growth regulators whereas the molecular method uses probes
(E) antiserums cross-react with substances that are that bind with peptide hormones and
not peptide hormones substances similar to them.
27. The idea that the field of endocrinology can gain

from developments in molecular biology is
regarded by Roberts with
(A) incredulity
(B) derision
(C) indifference
(D) pride
(E) enthusiasm
185
Test 21.2 17) C

18) A
19) D
21) D
22) C
23) E
ANSWERS 20) E 24) B
25) D
26) A
27) E
22.1 - 1st
Our visual perception depends on the reception of (45) observer and observed. We can no longer make a sharp
energy reflecting or radiating from that which we wish to division between the two in an effort to observe nature
perceive. If our eyes could receive and measure infinitely objectively. Such an attempt at objectivity would distort
Line delicate sense-data, we could perceive the world with the crucial interrelationship of observer and observed
(5) infinite precision. The natural limits of our eyes have, as parts of a single whole. But, even for scientists, it is
of course, been extended by mechanical instruments; (50) only in the world of atoms that this new development
telescopes and microscopes, for example, expand our makes any appreciable difference in the explanation of
capabilities greatly. There is, however, an ultimate limit observations.
beyond which no instrument can take us; this limit is
(10) imposed by our inability to receive sense-data smaller 17. The primary purpose of the passage is to
than those conveyed by an individual quantum of (A) discuss a problem that hinders precise,
energy. Since, these quanta are believed to be indivisible perception of the world
packages of energy and so cannot be fur (B) point out the inadequacies of accepted units of
measurement
(15) (C) criticize attempts to distinguish between
on to a canvas. perceiving subjects and perceived objects
We might think that we could avoid this limitation (D) compare and contrast rival scientific
by using quanta with extremely long wavelengths; hypotheses about how the world should be
such quanta would be sufficiently sensitive to convey measured and observed
(20) extremely delicate sense-data. And these quanta would (E) suggest the limited function of sensory
be useful, as long as we only wanted to measure energy, observation
but a completely accurate perception of the world will
depend also on the exact measurement of the lengths 18. According to the passage, quanta with an extremely
and positions of what we wish to perceive. For this, long wavelength cannot be used to give complete
(25) quanta of extremely long wavelengths are useless. To information about the physical world because they
measure a length accurately to within a millionth of an
inch, we must have a measure graduated in millionths (A) exist independently of sense-data
of an inch; a yardstick graduated in inches is useless. (B) are graduated only in inches
Quanta with a wavelength of one inch would be, in a (C) have an insignificant amount of energy
(30) sense, measures that are graduated in inches. Quanta (D) cannot, with present-day instruments, be
of extremely long wavelength are useless in measuring isolated from quanta of shorter wavelength
anything except extremely large dimensions. (E) provide an insufficiently precise means of
Despite these difficulties, quanta have important measuring length and position
theoretical implications for physics. It used to be
(35) supposed that, in the observation of nature, the universe
could be divided into two distinct parts, a perceiving
subject and a perceived object. In physics, subject
and object were supposed to be entirely distinct, so
that a description of any part of the universe would
(40) be independent of the observer. The quantum theory,
however, suggests otherwise, for every observation
involves the passage of a complete quantum from
the object to the subject, and it now appears that this
passage constitutes an important coupling between
188
19. Which of the following describes a situation most 22. The author’s use of the phrase “in a sense” (in lines
analogous to the situation discussed in lines 8-12 29-30) implies which of the following?
bold form? (A) Quanta of extremely long wavelength are
(A) A mathematician can only solve problems essentially graduated in inches.
the solution of which can be deduced from (B) Quanta of one-inch wavelength are not
known axioms. precisely analogous to yardsticks graduated
(B) An animal can respond to no command that is in inches.
more complicated syntactically than any it (C) Quanta of extremely long wavelength, in at
has previously received. least one respect, resemble quanta of shorter
(C) A viewer who has not learned, or at least wavelength.
intuitively, the conventions of painting, (D) Quanta of one-inch wavelength and quanta of
cannot understand perspective in a drawing. extremely long wavelength do not differ only
(D) A sensitized film will record no detail on a scale in their wavelengths.
that is smaller than the grain of the film. (E) Quanta of one-inch wavelength must be
(E) A shadow cast on a screen by an opaque object measured by different standards than quanta
will have a sharp edge only if the light source of extremely long wavelength.
is small or very distant.
23. According to the passage, the quantum theory can be
20. The author uses the analogy of the child’s drawing (in distinguished from previous theories of physics by
lines 15-16) primarily in order to its
(A) illustrate the ultimate limitation in the precision (A) insistence on scrupulously precise
of sense-data conveyed by quanta mathematical formulations
(B) show the sense of helplessness scientists feel in (B) understanding of the inherent interrelationship
the face of significant observational problems of perceiver and perceived
(C) anticipate the objections of those scientists (C) recognition of the need for sophisticated
who believe that no instrumental aid to instruments of measurement
observation is entirely reliable (D) emphasis on small-scale rather than on large-
(D) exemplify the similarities between packages of scale phenomena
energy and varieties of color (E) regard for philosophical issues as well as for
(E) disparage those scientists who believe that strictly scientific ones
measurement by means of quanta offers an
accurate picture of the world
21. The author implies that making a sharp division

between subject and object in physics is
(A) possible in a measurement of an object’s length
and position, but not in a measurement of its
energy
(B) still theoretically possible in the small-scale
world of atoms and electrons
(C) possible in the case of observations involving
the passage of a complete quantum
(D) no longer an entirely accurate way to describe
observation of the universe
(E) a goal at which scientists still aim
189
22.1 - 2nd
Tillie Olsen’s fiction and essays have been widely 26 In the sentence “I do not… influence on it”, (in lines
and rightly acknowledged as major contributions to 9-12) the author does which of the following?
American literature. Her work has been particularly (A) Broadens an existing classification.
Line valued by contemporary feminists. Yet few of Olsen’s (B) Contradicts the passage’s central thesis.
(5) readers realize the extent to which her vision and choice (C) Qualifies a commonly accepted point of view.
of subject are rooted in an earlier literary heritage—the (D) Presents conflicting explanations for a
tradition of radical political thought, mostly socialist phenomenon.
and anarchist, of the 1910s and 1920’s, and the Old (E) Denies possible interpretations of an earlier
Left tradition of the 1930s. I do not mean that one can assertion.
(10) adequately explain the eloquence of her work in terms
of its political origins, or that left-wing politics were the 27. According to the author, Olsen’s work has been
single most important influence on it. My point is that
its central consciousness—its profound understanding of (A) rightly acknowledged for its contribution to
class and gender as shaping influences on people’s lives— political thought.
(15) owes much to that earlier literary heritage, a heritage (B) thought to represent the beginning of a new
that, in general, has not been sufficiently valued by most literary tradition.
contemporary litera (C) a needed impetus for social change.
(D) most clearly influenced by feminism.
(E) deservedly admired by readers.
en’s understanding of class and
gender is her greatest gift as a writer
(B) acknowledge Olsen’s importance as the leading
spokesperson for a radical literary heritage
(C) point out a literary heritage to which Olsen’s
work is related
(D) urge literary critics to investigate the origins of
a literary heritage
(E) suggest that Olsen’s work has been placed in a
literary heritage to which it does not belong
25. According to the author, which of the following is

true of the heritage mentioned in the passage?
(A) It emphasizes gender as the determinate
influence on people’s lives.
(B) It has been the most important influence on
Olsen’s work.
(C) It includes political traditions that span three
decades of the twentieth century.
(D) It explains the eloquence but not the subject
matter of Olsen’s work.
(E) It reflects primarily the development of socialist
political thought in the early twentieth
century.
190
Test 22.1 17) A

18) E
19) D
24) C
25) C
26) E
ANSWERS 20) A 27) E
21) D
22) B
23) B
22.2 - 1st
Currently, the paramount problem in the field of 19. The author’s primary purpose is to
biomaterials, the science of replacing diseased tissue (A) answer a theoretical question in the field of
with human-made implants, is control over the interface, biomaterials
Line or surface, between implanted biomaterials and living (B) discuss the current state of technology in the
(5) tissues. The physical properties of most tissues can be field of biomaterials
matched by careful selection of raw materials: metals, (C) resolve a research dispute in the field of
ceramics, or several varieties of polymer materials. biomaterials
Even the requirement that biomaterials processed from (D) predict an ethical crisis for biomaterials
these materials be nontoxic to host tissue can be met by researchers
(10) techniques derived from studying the reactions of tissue (E) suggest some practical benefits of biomaterial
cultures to biomaterials or from short-term implants. implants
But achieving nec
of which molecules control the

(15) bonding of cells to each other—an area that we have not
yet explored thoroughly. Although recent research has
allowed us to stabilize the tissue-biomaterial interface
by controlling either the chemical reactions or the
microstructure of the biomaterials, our fundamental
(20) understanding of how implant devices adhere to tissues
remains woefully incomplete.
17. According to the passage, the major problem

currently facing scientists in the field of
biomaterials is
(A) assessing and regulating the bonding between
host tissue and implants
(B) controlling the transfer of potentially toxic
materials across the interface of tissue and
implant
(C) discovering new materials from which to
construct implant devices
(D) deciding in what situations implants are needed
(E) determining the importance of short-term
implants to long-term stability of tissue-
implant interfaces
18. The passage suggests which of the following about

the recent research mentioned in lines 16-21 ?
(A) It has solved one set of problems but has
created another.
(B) It has concentrated on secondary concerns but
has ignored primary concerns.
(C) It has improved practical applications of
biomaterial technology without providing
a complete theoretical explanation of that
improvement.
(D) It has thoroughly investigated properties of
biomaterials but has paid little attention to
relevant characteristics of human tissue.
(E) It has provided considerable information on
short-term implant technology but little on
long-term implant technology.
192
22.2 - 2nd
Islamic law is a particularly instructive example of 20. The author’s purpose in comparing Islamic law to
“sacred law.” Islamic law is a phenomenon so different Jewish law and canon law is most probably to
from all other forms of law—not withstanding of course (A) contend that traditional legal subject matter
a considerable and inevitable number of coincidences does not play a large role in Islamic law
with one or the other of them as far as subject matter (B) support his argument that Islamic law is a
and positive enactments are concerned—that its study unique kind of legal phenomenon
is indispensable in order to appreciate adequately the (C) emphasize the variety of forms that can all be
full range of possible legal phenomena. Even the two considered sacred law
other representatives of sacred law that are historically (D) provide an example of how he believes
and geographically nearest to it, Jewish law and Roman comparative institutional study should be
Catholic canon law, are perceptibly different. undertaken
Both Jewish law and canon law are more uniform (E) argue that geographical and historical proximity
than Islamic law. Though historically there is a does not necessarily lead to parallel
discernible break between Jewish law of the sovereign institutional development
state of ancient Israel and of the Diaspora (the dispersion
of Jewish people after the conquest of Israel), the spirit 21. The passage provides information to answer which of
of the legal matter in later parts of the Old Testament the following questions?
is very close to that of the Talmud, one of the primary
codifications of Jewish law in the Diaspora. Islam, on the (A) Does Islamic law depend on sources other than
other hand, represented a radical breakaway from the Arab legal principles?
Arab paganism that preceded it, Islamic law is the result (B) What secular practices of Islamic states
of an examination, from a religious angle, of legal subject conflicted with Islamic law?
matter that was f (C) Are Jewish law and canon law the most typical
examples of sacred law?
gal elements taken over from the non- (D) Is Jewish law more uniform than canon law?
Arab peoples of the conquered territories. All this was (E) What characterized Arab law of the pre-Islamic
unified by being subjected to the same kind of religious era?
scrutiny, the impact of which varied greatly, being almost
nonexistent in some fields, and in others originating 22. According to the passage, which of the following
novel institutions. This central duality of legal subject statements about sacred law is correct?
matter and religious norm is additional to the variety of (A) The various systems of sacred law originated in
legal, ethical, and ritual rules that is typical of sacred law. a limited geographical area.
In its relation to the secular state, Islamic law (B) The various systems of sacred law have had
differed from both Jewish and canon law. Jewish law marked influence on one another.
was buttressed by the cohesion of the community, (C) Systems of sacred law usually rely on a wide
reinforced by pressure from outside: its rules are the variety of precedents.
direct expression of this feeling of cohesion, tending (D) Systems of sacred law generally contain
toward the accommodation of dissent. Canon and prescriptions governing diverse aspects of
Islamic law, on the contrary, were dominated by the human activity.
dualism of religion and state, where the state was not, in (E) Systems of sacred law function most effectively
contrast with Judaism, an alien power but the political in communities with relatively small
expression of the same religion. But the conflict between populations.
state and religion took different forms; in Christianity
it appeared as the struggle for political power on the
part of a tightly organized ecclesiastical hierarchy, and
canon law was one of its political weapons. Islamic law,
on the other hand, was never supported by an organized
institution; consequently, there never developed an
overt trial of strength. There merely existed discordance
between application of the sacred law and many of the
regulations framed by Islamic states; this antagonism
varied according to place and time.
194
23. It can be inferred from the passage that the 26. The passage suggests that canon law differs from
application of Islamic law in Islamic states has Islamic law in that only canon law
(A) systematically been opposed by groups who (A) contains prescriptions that non sacred legal
believe it is contrary to their interests systems might regard as properly legal
(B) suffered irreparably from the lack of firm (B) concerns itself with the duties of a person in
institutional backing regard to the community as a whole
(C) frequently been at odds with the legal activity of (C) was affected by the tension of the conflict
government institutions between religion and state
(D) remained unaffected by the political forces (D) developed in a political environment that did
operating alongside it not challenge its fundamental existence
(E) benefited from the fact that it never experienced (E) played a role in the direct confrontation
a direct confrontation with the state between institutions vying for power
24. Which of the following most accurately describes the 27. All the following statements about the development
organization of the passage? of Islamic law are implied in the passage EXCEPT:
(A) A universal principle is advanced and then (A) Pre-Islamic legal principles were incorporated
discussed in relation to a particular historical into Islamic law with widely differing degrees
phenomenon. of change.
(B) A methodological innovation is suggested and (B) Diverse legal elements were joined together
then examples of its through the application of a purely religious
criterion.
lude new data. (C) Although some of the sources of Islamic law
(D) A general opinion is expressed and then were pagan, its integrity as a sacred law was
supportive illustrations are advanced. not compromised by their incorporation.
(E) A controversial viewpoint is presented and then (D) There was a fundamental shared characteristic
both supportive evidence and contradictory in all pre-Islamic legal matter taken over by
evidence are cited. Islamic law.
(E) Although Islam emerged among the Arabs,
25. The passage implies that the relationship of Islamic, Islamic law was influenced by ethnically
Jewish, and canon law is correctly described by diverse elements.
which of the following statements?
I. Because each constitutes an example of sacred
law, they necessarily share some features.
II. They each developed in reaction to the
interference of secular political institutions.
III. The differences among them result partly from
their differing emphasis on purely ethical
rules
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, III and III
195
Test 22.2 17) A

18) C
19) B
20) B
21) A
22) D
ANSWERS 23) C
24) D
25) A
26) E
27) D
23.1 - 1st
A mysterious phenomenon is the ability of over- 19. In maintaining that migrating animals would need
water migrants to travel on course. Birds, bees, and “a fantastic map sense” (lines 14-15) to determine
other species can keep track of time without any sensory their geographic position by celestial navigation,
Line cues from the outside world, and such “biological the author intends to express
(5) clocks” clearly contribute to their “compass sense.” For (A) admiration for the ability of the migrants
example, they can use the position of the Sun or stars, (B) skepticism about celestial navigation as an
along with the time of day, to find north. But compass explanation
sense alone cannot explain how birds navigate the (C) certainty that the phenomenon of migration
ocean: after a flock traveling east is blown far south by a will remain mysterious
(10) storm, it will assume the proper northeasterly course to (D) interest in a new method of accounting for
compensate. Perhaps, some scientists thought, migrants over-water migration
determine the (E) surprise that animals apparently navigate in
much the same way that human beings do
(15) ers now know that some species 20. Of the following descriptions of migrating animals,
have a magnetic sense, which might allow migrants which most strongly suggests that the animals are
to determine their geographic location by detecting depending on magnetic cues to orient themselves?
variations in the strength of the Earth’s magnetic field.
(A) Pigeons can properly readjust their course
17. The main idea of the passage is that even when flying long distances through
exceedingly dense fogs.
(A) migration over land requires a simpler (B) Bison are able to reach their destination by
explanation than migration over water does passing through a landscape that has been
(B) the means by which animals migrate over water partially altered by a recent fire.
are complex and only partly understood (C) Elephants are able to find grounds that some
(C) the ability of migrant animals to keep track of members of the herd have never seen before.
time is related to their magnetic sense (D) Swallows arc able to return to a given spot at
(D) knowledge of geographic location is essential to the same time every year.
migrants with little or no compass sense (E) Monarch butterflies coming from different parts
(E) explanations of how animals migrate tend to of North America are able to arrive at the
replace, rather than build on, one another same location each winter.
18. It can be inferred from the passage that if the flock
of birds described in lines 7-11 were navigating by
compass sense alone, they would, after the storm fly
(A) east
(B) north
(C) northwest
(D) south
(E) southeast
197
23.1 - 2nd
Roger Rosenblatt’s book Black Fiction, in attempting fascinating and little-known works like James Weldon
to apply literary rather than sociopolitical criteria to its Johnson’s Autobiography of an Ex-Colored Man. Its
subject, successfully alters the approach taken by most argument is tightly constructed, and its forthright, lucid
previous studies. As Rosenblatt notes, criticism of Black style exemplifies levelheaded and penetrating criticism.
writing has often served as a pretext for expounding on
Black history. Addison Gayle’s recent work, for example, 21. The author of the passage objects to criticism of Black
judges the value of Black fiction by overtly political fiction like that by Addison Gayle because it
standards, rating each work according to the notions of (A) emphasizes purely literary aspects of such
Black identity which it propounds. fiction
Although fiction assuredly springs from political (B) misinterprets the ideological content of such
circumstances, its authors react to those circumstances fiction
in ways other than ideological, and talking about (C) misunderstands the notions of Black identity
novels and stories primarily as instruments of contained in such fiction
ideology circumvents much of the fictional enterprise. (D) substitutes political for literary criteria in
Rosenblatt’s literary analysis discloses affinities and evaluating such fiction
connections among works of Black (E) ignores the interplay between Black history and
ignored. Black identity displayed in such fiction
Writing acceptable criticism of Black fiction,
however, presupposes giving satisfactory answers to a 22. The author of the passage is primarily concerned
number of questions. First of all, is there a sufficient with
reason, other than the racial identity of the authors, to
group together works by Black authors? Second, how (A) evaluating the soundness of a work of criticism
does Black fiction make itself distinct from other modern (B) comparing various critical approaches to a
fiction with which it is largely contemporaneous? subject
Rosenblatt shows that Black fiction constitutes a distinct (C) discussing the limitations of a particular kind of
body of writing that has an identifiable, coherent literary criticism
tradition. Looking at novels written by Blacks over the (D) summarizing the major points made in a work
last eighty years, he discovers recurring concerns and of criticism
designs independent of chronology. These structures (E) explaining the theoretical background of a
are thematic, and they spring, not surprisingly, from the certain kind of criticism
central fact that the Black characters in these novels exist
in a predominantly White culture, whether they try to
conform to that culture or rebel against it.
Black Fiction does leave some aesthetic questions
open. Rosenblatt’s thematic analysis permits
considerable objectivity; he even explicitly states that
it is not his intention to judge the merit of the various
works— yet his reluctance seems misplaced, especially
since an attempt to appraise might have led to interesting
results. For instance, some of the novels appear to be
structurally diffuse. Is this a defect, or are the authors
working out of, or trying to forge, a different kind of
aesthetic? In addition, the style of some Black novels,
like Jean Toomer’s Cane, verges on expressionism or
surrealism; does this technique provide a counterpoint
to the prevalent theme that portrays the fate against
which Black heroes are pitted, a theme usually conveyed
by more naturalistic modes of expression?
In spite of such omissions, what Rosenblatt does
include in his discussion makes for an astute and
worthwhile study. Black Fiction surveys a wide variety
of novels, bringing to our attention in the process some
198
23. The author of the passage believes that Black Fiction 26. The author of the passage uses all of the following in
would have been improved had Rosenblatt the discussion of Rosenblatt’s book EXCEPT
(A) evaluated more carefully the ideological and (A) rhetorical questions
historical aspects of Black fiction (B) specific examples
(B) attempted to be more objective in his approach (C) comparison and contrast
to novels and stories by Black authors (D) definition of terms
(C) explored in greater detail the recurrent thematic (E) personal opinion
concerns of Black fiction throughout its
history 27. The author of the passage refers to James Weldon
(D) established a basis for placing Black fiction Johnson’s Autobiography of an Ex-Colored Man
within its own unique literary tradition most probably in order to
(E) assessed the relative literary merit of the novels (A) point out affinities between Rosenblatt’s
he analyzes thematically method of thematic analysis and earlier
criticism
24. The author’s discussion of Black Fiction can be best (B) clarify the point about expressionistic style
described as made earlier in the passage
(A) pedantic and contentious (C) qualify the assessment of Rosenblatt’s book
(B) critical but admiring made in the first paragraph of the passage
(C)ironic and deprecating (D) illustrate the affinities among Black novels
(D) argumentative but unfocused disclosed by Rosenblatt’s literary analysis
(E) stilted and insincere (E) give a specific example of one of the
accomplishments of Rosenblatt’s work
25. It can be inferred that the author of the passage
would be LEAST likely to approve of which of the
following?
(A) An analysis of the influence of political events
on the personal ideology of Black writers
(B) A critical study that applies sociopolitical
criteria to autobiographies by Black authors
(C) A literary study of Black poetry that appraises
the merits of poems according to the political
acceptability of their themes
(D) An examination of the growth of a distinct
Black literary tradition within the context of
Black history
(E) A literary study that attempts to isolate aesthetic
qualities unique to Black fiction
199
Test 23.1 17) B

18) A
19) B
21) D
22) A
23) E
ANSWERS 20) A 24) B
25) C
26) D
27) E
23.2 - 1st
The molecules of carbon dioxide in the Earth’s the atmosphere increases as the temperature rises.
atmosphere affect the heat balance of the Earth by Therefore, more infrared radiation would be absorbed
acting as a one-way screen. Although these molecules and reradiated back to the Earth’s surface. The resultant
allow radiation at visible wavelengths, where most of warming at the surface could be expected to melt snow
the energy of sunlight is concentrated, to pass through, and ice, reducing the Earth’s reflectivity. More solar
they absorb some of the longer-wavelength, infrared radiation would then be absorbed, leading to a further
emissions radiated from the Earth’s surface, radiation increase in temperature.
that would otherwise be transmitted back into space. For
the Earth to maintain a constant average temperature, 17. The primary purpose of the passage is to
such emissions from the planet must balance incoming (A) warn of the dangers of continued burning of
solar radiation. If there were no fossil fuels
(B) discuss the significance of increasing the
amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
lid mass of ice. (C) explain how a constant temperature is
Today, however, the potential problem is too much maintained on the Earth’s surface
carbon dioxide. The burning of fossil fuels and the (D) describe the ways in which various atmospheric
clearing of forests have increased atmospheric carbon and climatic conditions contribute to the
dioxide by about 15 percent in the last hundred Earth’s weather
years, and we continue to add carbon dioxide to the (E) demonstrate the usefulness of mathematical
atmosphere. Could the increase in carbon dioxide cause models in predicting long-range climatic
a global rise in average temperature, and could such change
a rise have serious consequences for human society?
Mathematical models that allow us to calculate the rise 18. According to the passage, the greatest part of the
in temperature as a function of the increase indicate that solar energy that reaches the Earth is
the answer is probably yes.
Under present conditions a temperature of -18°C (A) concentrated in the infrared spectrum
can be observed at an altitude of 5 to 6 kilometers above (B) concentrated at visible wavelengths
the Earth. Below this altitude (called the radiating level), (C) absorbed by carbon dioxide molecules
the temperature increases by about 6°C per kilometer (D) absorbed by atmospheric water vapor
approaching the Earth’s surface, where the average (E) reflected back to space by snow and ice
temperature is about 15°C. An increase in the amount
of carbon dioxide means that there are more molecules
of carbon dioxide to absorb infrared radiation. As the
capacity of the atmosphere to absorb infrared radiation
increases, the radiating level and the temperature of the
surface must rise.
One mathematical model predicts that doubling the
atmospheric carbon dioxide would raise the global mean
surface temperature by 2.5° C. This model assumes that
the atmosphere’s relative humidity remains constant
and the temperature decreases with altitude at a rate
of 6.5° C per kilometer. The assumption of constant
relative humidity is important, because water vapor in
the atmosphere is another efficient absorber of radiation
at infrared wavelengths. Because warm air can hold
more moisture than cool air, the relative humidity
will be constant only if the amount of water vapor in
202
19. According to the passage, atmospheric carbon 22. It can be inferred from the passage that the
dioxide performs all of the following functions construction of the mathematical model mentioned
EXCEPT in the passage involved the formulation of which of
(A) absorbing radiation at visible wavelengths the following?
(B) absorbing infrared radiation (A) An assumption that the amount of carbon
(C) absorbing outgoing radiation from the Earth dioxide added to the atmosphere would in
(D) helping to retain heat near the Earth’s surface reality steadily increase
(E) helping to maintain a constant average (B) An assumption that human activities are the
temperature on the Earth’s surface only agencies by which carbon dioxide is
added to the atmosphere
20. Which of the following best describes the author’s (C) Assumptions about the social and political
attitude toward the increasing amount of carbon consequences of any curtailment of the use of
dioxide in the atmosphere and its consequences? fossil fuels
(A) Incredulous (D) Assumptions about the physical conditions that
(B) Completely detached are likely to prevail during the period for
(C) interested but skeptical which the model was made
(D) Angry yet resigned (E) Assumptions about the differential behavior of
(E) Objective yet concerned carbon dioxide molecules at the various levels
of temperature calculated in the model
21. It can be concluded from information contained
in the passage that the average temperature at an 23. According to the passage, which of the following is
altitude of 1 kilometer above the Earth is about true of the last hundred years?
(A) 15°C (A) Fossil fuels were burned for the first time.
(B) 9°C (B) Greater amounts of land were cleared than at
(C) 2.5°C any time before.
(D) -12°C (C) The average temperature at the Earth’s surface
(E) -18°C has become 2°C cooler.
(D) The amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere has increased measurably.
(E) The amount of farmland worldwide has
doubled.
203
23.2 - 2nd
Some modem anthropologists hold that biological 26. Which of the following most probably provides an
evolution has shaped not only human morphology but appropriate analogy from human morphology for
also human behavior. The role those anthropologists the “details” versus “constraints” distinction made
ascribe to evolution is n in the passage in relation to human behavior?
(A) The ability of most people to see all the colors of
ng that “come naturally” in the visible spectrum as against most people’s
archetypal situations in any culture. Our , “frailties”— inability to name any but the primary colors
emotions and motives such as rage, fear, greed, gluttony, (B) The ability of even the least fortunate people to
joy, rust, love—may be a very mixed assortment, but show compassion as against people’s inability
they share at least one immediate quality: we are, as we to mask their feelings completely
say, “in the grip” of them. And thus they give us our (C) The ability of some people to dive to great
sense of constraints. depths as against most people’s inability to
Unhappily, some of those frailties—our need for swim long distances
ever-increasing security among them—are presently (D) The psychological profile of those people who
maladaptive. Yet beneath the overlay of cultural detail, are able to delay gratification as against
they, too, are said to be biological in direction, and people’s inability to control their lives
therefore as natural to us as are our appendixes. We completely
would need to comprehend thoroughly their adaptive (E) The greater lung capacity of mountain peoples
origins in order to understand how badly they guide us that helps them live in oxygen-poor air as
now. And we might then begin to resist their pressure. against people stability to fly without special
apparatus
24. The primary purpose of the passage is to present
(A) a position on the foundations of human 27. It can be inferred that in his discussion of
behavior and on what those foundations maladaptive frailties the author assumes that
imply (A) evolution does not favor the emergence of
(B) a theory outlining the parallel development of adaptive characteristics over the emergence
human morphology and of human behavior of maladaptive ones
(C) a diagnostic test for separating biologically (B) any structure or behavior not positively
determined behavior patterns from culture- adaptive is regarded as transitory in
specific detail evolutionary theory
(D) a practical method for resisting the pressures of (C) maladaptive characteristics, once fixed,
biologically determined drives make the emergence of other maladaptive
(E) an overview of those human emotions and characteristics more likely
motives that impose constraints on human (D) the designation of a characteristic as being
behavior maladaptive must always remain highly
tentative
25. The author implies that control to any extent over the (E) changes in the total human environment can
“frailties” that constrain our behavior is thought to outpace evolutionary change
presuppose
(A) that those frailties are recognized as currently
beneficial and adaptive
(B) that there is little or no overlay of cultural detail
that masks their true nature
(C) that there are cultures in which those frailties
do not ‘’come naturally” and from which such
control can be learned
(D) a full understanding of why those frailties
evolved and of how they function now
(E) a thorough grasp of the principle that cultural
detail in human behavior can differ arbitrarily
from society to society
204
Test 23.2 17) B

18) B
19) A
24) A
25) D
26) E
ANSWERS 20) E 27) E
21) B
22) D
23) D
24.1 - 1st
A Marxist sociologist has argued that racism stems 18. The author considers the Marxist sociologist’s thesis
from the class struggle that is unique to the capitalist about the origins of racial prejudice to be
system—that racial prejudice is generated by capitalists (A) unoriginal
as a means of controlling workers. His thesis works (B) unpersuasive
relatively well when applied to discrimination against (C) offensive
Blacks in the United State (D) obscure
(E) speculative
ccepted as a race in any given
region of ethnic competition,” can be interpreted as also 19. It can be inferred from the passage that the Marxist
including hostility toward such ethnic groups as the sociologist would argue that in a non capitalist
Chinese in California and the Jews in medieval Europe. society racial prejudice would be
However, since prejudice against these latter peoples was
not inspired by capitalists, he has to reason that such (A) pervasive
antagonisms were not really based on race. He disposes (B) tolerated
thusly (albeit unconvincingly) of both the intolerance (C) ignored
faced by Jews before the rise of capitalism and the early- (D) forbidden
twentieth century discrimination against Oriental people (E) nonexistent
in California, which, inconveniently was instigated by
workers. 20. According to the passage, the Marxist sociologist’s
chain of reasoning required him to assert that
17. The passage supplies information that would answer prejudice toward Oriental people in California was
which of the following questions? (A) directed primarily against the Chinese
(A) what accounts for the prejudice against the (B) similar in origin to prejudice against the Jews
Jews in medieval Europe? (C) understood by oriental people as ethnic
(B) what conditions caused the discrimination competition
against oriental people in California in the (D) provoked by workers
early twentieth century? (E) nonracial in character
(C) which group are not in ethnic competition with
each other in the United States?
(D) what explanation did the Marxist sociologist
give for the existence of racial prejudice?
(E) what evidence did the Marxist sociologist
provide to support his thesis?
206
By 1950, the results of attempts to relate brain homogeneous nerve-cell units conducting essentially
processes to mental experience appeared rather homogeneous impulses through homogeneous cerebral
discouraging. Such variations in size, shape, chemistry, tissue. To match the multiple dimensions of mental
Line conduction speed, excitation threshold, and the like (55) experience psychologists could only point to a limitless
(5) as had been demonstrated in nerve cells remained variation in the spatiotemporal patterning of nerve
negligible in significance for any possible correlation impulses.
with the manifold dimensions of mental experience.
Near the turn of the century, it had been suggested 21. The author suggests that, by 1950, attempts to
by Hearing that different modes of sensation, such correlate mental experience with brain processes
(10) as pain, taste, and color, might be correlated with the would probably have been viewed with
discharge of specific kinds of nervous energy. However, (A) indignation
subsequently developed methods of recording and (B) impatience
analyzing nerve potentials failed to reveal any such (C) pessimism
qualitative diversity. It was possible to demonstrate by (D) indifference
(15) other methods refined structural differences among (E) defiance
neuron types; however, proof was lacking that the
quality of the impulse or its conduction was influenced 22. The author mentions “common currency” in line 24
by these differences, which seemed instead to influence in primarily in order to emphasize the
the developmental patter
ance among nerve energies (A) lack of differentiation among nerve impulses in
(20)
was never rigidly disproved, the doctrine was generally human beings
abandoned in favor of the opposing view, namely, that (B) similarity of the sensations that all human
nerve impulses are essentially homogeneous in quality beings experience
and are transmitted as “common currency” throughout (C) similarities in the views of scientists who have
the nervous system. According to this theory, it is not the studied the human nervous system
(25)
quality of the sensory nerve impulses that determines (D) continuous passage of nerve impulses through
the diverse conscious sensations they produce, but the nervous system
rather the different areas of the brain into which they (E) recurrent questioning by scientists of an
discharge, and there is some evidence for this view. accepted explanation about the nervous
In one experiment, when an electric stimulus was system
(30)
applied to a given sensory field of the cerebral cortex
of a conscious human subject, it produced a sensation 23. The description in lines 30-36 of an experiment in
of the appropriate modality for that particular locus, which electric stimuli were applied to different
that is a visual sensation from the visual cortex, an sensory fields of the cerebral cortex tends to
auditory sensation from the auditory cortex, and so support the theory that
(35)
on. Other experiments revealed slight variations in the (A) the simple presence of different cortical areas
size, number, arrangement, and interconnection of the cannot account for the diversity of mental
nerve cells, but as far as psycho neural correlations were experience
concerned, the obvious similarities of these sensory (B) variation in spatiotemporal patterning of
(40) fields to each other seemed much more remarkable than nerve impulses correlates with variation in
any of the minute differences. subjective experience
However, cortical locus, in itself, turned out to have (C) nerve impulses are essentially homogeneous
little explanatory value. Studies showed that sensations as and are relatively unaffected as they travel
diverse as those of red, black, green, and white, or touch, through the nervous system
(45) cold, warmth, movement, pain, posture, and pressure (D) the mental experiences produced by sensory
apparently may arise through activation of the same nerve impulses are determined by the cortical
cortical areas. What seemed to remain was some kind of area activated
differential patterning effects in the brain excitation: it is (E) variation in neuron types affects the quality of
the difference in the central distribution of impulses that nerve impulses
(50) counts. In short, brain theory suggested a correlation
between mental experience and the activity of relatively
208
24. According to the passage, some evidence exists 26. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s
that the area of the cortex activated by a sensory opinion of the suggestion that different areas of the
stimulus determines which of the following? brain determine perceptions produced by sensory
I. The nature of the nerve impulse nerve impulses?
II. The modality of the sensory experience (A) It is a plausible explanation, but it has not been
III. Qualitative differences within a modality completely proved.
(A) II only (B) It is the best explanation of brain processes
(B) III only currently available.
(C) I and II only (C) It is disproved by the fact that the various areas
(D) II and III only of the brain are physiologically very similar.
(E) I, II and III (D) There is some evidence to support it, but it fails
to explain the diversity of mental experience.
25. The passage can most accurately be described as a (E) There is experimental evidence that confirms its
discussion concerning historical views of the correctness.
(A) anatomy of the brain
(B) manner in which nerve impulses are conducted 27. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
(C) significance of different cortical areas in mental following exhibit the LEAST qualitative variation?
experience (A) Nerve cells
(D) mechanics of sense perception (B) Nerve impulses
(E) physiological correlates of mental experience (C) Cortical areas
(D) Spatial patterns of nerve impulses
(E) Temporal patterns of nerve impulses
209
Test 24.1 17) D

18) B
19) E
21) C
22) A
23) D
ANSWERS 20) E 24) A
25) E
26) D
27) B
24.2 - 1st
The transfer of heat and water vapor from the 19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
ocean to the air above it depends on a disequilibrium regards current knowledge about heat and moisture
at the interface of the water and the air. Within about transfer from the ocean to air as
a millimeter of the water, air temperature is close to (A) revolutionary
that of the surface water, and the air is nearly saturated (B) inconsequential
with water vapor. But the differences, however small, (C) outdated
are crucial, and the disequilibrium is maintained by (D) derivative
air near the surfa (E) incomplete
“mixed by means of turbulence that 20. The passage suggests that if on a certain day the wind
depends on the wind for its energy. As wind speed were to decrease until there was no wind at all,
increases, so does turbulence, and thus the rate of heat which of the following would occur?
and moisture transfer. Detailed understanding of this
phenomenon awaits further study. An interacting—and (A) The air closest to the ocean surface would
complicating—phenomenon is wind-to-water transfer of become saturated with water vapor.
momentum that occurs when waves are formed. When (B) The air closest to the ocean surface would be
the wind makes waves, it transfers important amounts of warmer than the water.
energy—energy that is therefore not available to provide (C) The amount of moisture in the air closest to the
turbulence. ocean surface would decrease.
(D) The rate of heat and moisture transfer would
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to increase.
(E) The air closest to the Ocean would be at the
(A) resolve a controversy same temperature as air higher up.
(B) describe a phenomenon
(C) outline a theory
(D) confirm research findings
(E) classify various observations
18. According to the passage, wind over the ocean

generally does which of the following?
I. Causes relatively cool, dry air to come into
proximity with the ocean surface.
II. Maintains a steady rate of heat and moisture
transfer between the ocean and the air.
III. Causes frequent changes in the temperature of
the water at the ocean’s surface.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
211
24.2 - 2nd
Extraordinary creative activity has been 21. The author considers a new theory that coherently
characterized as revolutionary, flying in the face of what relates divers phenomena to one another to be the
is established and producing not what is acceptable (A) basis for reaffirming a well-established scientific
but what will become accepted. According to this formulation
formulation, highly creative activity transcends the (B) byproduct of an aesthetic experience
limits of an existing form and establishes a new principle (C) tool used by a scientist to discover a new
of organization. However, the idea that extraordinary particular
creativity transcends established limits is misleading (D) synthesis underlying a great work of art
when it is applied to the arts, even though it may be valid (E) result of highly creative scientific activity
for the sciences. Differences between highly creative art
and highly creative science arise in part from a difference 22. The author implies that Beethoven’s music was
in their goals. For the sciences, a new theory is the goal strikingly original because Beethoven
and end result of the creative act. Innovative science
produces new propositions in terms of which diverse (A) strove to outdo his predecessors by becoming
phenomena can be related to one another in more the first composer to exploit limit
coherent ways. Such phenomena as a brilliant diamond (B) fundamentally changed the musical forms of his
or a nesting bird are relegated to the role of data, serving predecessors by adopting a richly inventive
as the means for formulating or testing a new theory. strategy
The goal of highly creative art is very different: the (C) embellished and interwove the melodies of
phenomenon itself becomes the direct product of the several of the great composers who preceded
creative act. Shakespeare’s Hamlet is not a tract about him
the behavior of indecisive princes or the uses of political (D) manipulated the established conventions of
power: nor is Picasso’s painting Guernica primarily a musical composition in a highly innovative
prepositional statement about the Spanish Civil War or fashion
the evils of fascism. What highly creative artistic activity (E) attempted to create the illusion of having
produces is not a new generalization that transcends transcended the musical forms of his
established limits, but rather an aesthetic particular. predecessors
Aesthetic particulars produced by the highly creative
artist extend or exploit, in an innovative way, the limits 23. The passage states that the operas of the Florentine
of an existing form, rather than transcend that form. Camerata are
This is not to deny that a highly creative artist (A) unjustifiably ignored by musicologists
sometimes establishes a new principle of organization in (B) not generally considered to be of high aesthetic
the history of an artistic field; the composer Monteverdi, value even though they are important in the
who created music of the highest aesthetic value, comes history of music
to mind. More generally, however, whether or not a (C) among those works in which popular historical
composition establishes a new principle in the history of themes were portrayed in a musical
music has little bearing on its aesthetic worth. Because production
they embody a new principle of organization, some (D) often inappropriately cited as examples of
musical works, such as the operas of the Florentine musical works in which a new principle of
Camerata, are of sig organization was introduced
(E) minor exceptions to the well-established
sic. On the other hand, Mozart’s generalization that the aesthetic worth of a
The Marriage of Figaro is surely among the masterpieces composition determines its importance in the
of music even though its modest innovations are history of music
confined to extending existing means. It has been
said of Beethoven that he toppled the rules and freed
music from the stifling confines of convention. But a
close study of his compositions reveals that Beethoven
overturned no fundamental rules. Rather, he was an
incomparable strategist who exploited limits—the
rules, forms, and conventions that he inherited from
predecessors such as Haydn and Mozart, Handel and
Bach—in strikingly original ways.
212
24. The passage supplies information for answering all of 26. The author implies that an innovative scientific
the following questions EXCEPT: contribution is one that
(A) Has unusual creative activity been characterized (A) is cited with high frequency in the publications
as revolutionary? of other scientists
(B) Did Beethoven work within a musical tradition (B) is accepted immediately by the scientific
that also included Handel and Bach? community
(C) Is Mozart’s The Marriage of Figaro an example (C) does not relegate particulars to the role of data
of a creative work that transcended limits? (D) presents the discovery of a new scientific fact
(D) Who besides Monteverdi wrote music that (E) introduces a new valid generalization
the author would consider to embody new
principles of organization and to be of high 27. Which of the following statements would most
aesthetic value? logically conclude the last paragraph of the passage?
(E) Does anyone claim that the goal of (A) Unlike Beethoven, however, even the greatest
extraordinary creative activity in the arts of modern composers, such as Stravinsky, did
differs from that of extraordinary creative not transcend existing musical forms.
activity in the sciences? (B) In similar fashion, existing musical forms were
even further exploited by the next generation
25. The author regards the idea that all highly creative of great European composers.
artistic activity transcends limits with (C) Thus, many of the great composers displayed
(A) deep skepticism the same combination of talents exhibited by
(B) strong indignation marked indifference Monteverdi.
(D) moderate amusement (D) By contrast, the view that creativity in the
(E) sharp derision exploits but does not transcend limits is
supported in the field of literature.
(E) Actually, Beethoven’s most original works were
largely unappreciated at the time that they
were first performed.
213
Test 24.2 17) B

18) A
19) E
21) E
22) D
23) B
ANSWERS 20) A 24) D
25) A
26) E
27) B
25.1 - 1st
By the time the American colonists took up 19. According to the passage, the War of Independence
arms against Great Britain in order to secure their was embarrassing to some Americans for which of
independence, the institution of Black slavery was the following reasons?
deeply entrenched. But the contradiction inherent I. It involved a struggle for many of the same
in this situation was, for many, a source of constant liberties that Americans were denying to
embarrassment. “It always appeared a most iniquitous others.
scheme to me,” Abigail Adams wrote her husband in II. It involved a struggle for independence from the
1774, “to fight ourselves for what we are daily robbing very nation that had founded the colonies.
and plundering from those who have as good a right to III. It involved a struggle based on inconsistencies
freedom as we have.” in the participants conceptions of freedom.
Many Americans besides Abigail Adams were (A) I only
struck by the inconsistency of their stand during the (B) II only
War of Independence, and they were not averse to (C) I and II only
making moves to emancipate the slaves. Quakers and (D) I and III only
other religious groups organized antislavery societies, (E) I, II and III
while numerous individuals manumitted their slaves.
In fact, within several years of the end of the War of 20. Which of the following statements regarding
Independence, most of the Eastern states had made American society in the years immediately
provisions for the gradual emancipation of slaves. following the War of Independence is best
supported by the passage?
17. Which of the following best states the central idea of
the passage? (A) The unexpected successes of the antislavery
societies led to their gradual demise in the
(A) The War of Independence produced among Eastern states.
many Black Americans a heightened (B) Some of the newly independent American
consciousness of the inequities in American states had begun to make progress toward
society. abolishing slavery.
(B) The War of Independence strengthened the (C) Americans like Abigail Adams became
bonds of slavery of many Black Americans disillusioned with the slow progress of
while intensifying their desire to be free. emancipation and gradually abandoned the
(C) The War of Independence exposed to many cause.
Americans the contradiction of slavery in a (D) Emancipated slaves gradually were accepted
country seeking its freedom and resulted in in the Eastern states as equal members of
efforts to resolve that contradiction. American society.
(D) The War of Independence provoked strong (E) The abolition of slavery in many Eastern states
criticisms by many Americans of the was the result of close cooperation between
institution of slavery, but produced little religious groups and free Blacks.
substantive action against it.
(E) The War of Independence “renewed the efforts
of many American groups toward achieving
Black emancipation.
18. The passage contains information that would support

which of the following statements about the
colonies before the War of Independence?
(A) They contained organized antislavery societies.
(B) They allowed individuals to own slaves.
(C) They prohibited religious groups from political
action.
(D) They were inconsistent in their legal definitions
of slave status.
(E) They encouraged abolitionist societies to
expand their influence.
215
25.1 - 2nd
The evolution of sex ratios has produced, in most 21. The author suggests that the work of Fisher and
plants and animals with separate sexes, approximately Hamilton was similar in that both scientists
equal numbers of males and females. Why should this be (A) conducted their research at approximately the
so? Two main kinds of answers have been offered. One is same time
couched in terms of advantage to population. It is argued (B) sought to manipulate the sex ratios of some of
that the sex ratio will evolve so as to maximize the the animals they studied
number of meetings between individuals of the opposite (C) sought an explanation of why certain sex ratios
sex. This is essentially a “group selection” argument. The exist and remain stable
other, and in my view correct, type of answer was first (D) studied game theory, thereby providing
put forward by Fisher in 1930. This “genetic” argument important groundwork for the later
starts from the assumption that genes can influence the development of strategy theory
relative numbers of male and female offspring produced (E) studied reproduction in the same animal species
by an individual carrying the genes. That sex ratio will
be favored which maximizes the number of descendants 22. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
an individual will have and hence the number of considers Fisher’s work to be ‘
gene copies transmitted. Suppose that the population
consisted mostly of females: then an individual who (A) fallacious and unprofessional
produced sons only would have more grandchildren. (B) definitive and thorough
In contrast, if the population consisted mostly of (C) inaccurate but popular compared with
males, it would pay to have daughters. If, however, the Hamilton’s work
population consisted of equal numbers of males and (D) admirable, but not as up-to-date as Hamilton’s
females, sons and daughters would be equally valuable. work
Thus a one-to-one sex ratio is the only stable ratio; it (E) accurate, trivial compared with Hamilton’s work
is an “evolutionarily stable strategy.” Although Fisher
wrote before the mathematical theory of games had been 23. The passage contains information that would answer
developed, his theory incorporates the essential feature which of the following questions about wasps?
of a game— that the best strategy to adopt depends on I. How many eggs does the female wasp usually lay
what others are doing. in a single host larva?
Since Fisher’s time, it has been realized that genes II. Can some species of wasp determine sex ratios
can sometimes influence the chro among their offspring?
III. What is the approximate sex ratio among the
ion. If such a gene offspring of parasitic wasps?
occurs on a sex-determining (X or Y) chromosome, (A) I only
then highly aberrant sex ratios can occur. But more (B) II only
immediately relevant to game theory are the sex ratios (C) III only
in certain parasitic wasp species that have a large excess (D) I and II only
of females. In these species, fertilized eggs develop into (E) II and III only
females and unfertilized eggs into males. A female stores
sperm and can determine the sex of each egg she lays 24. It can be inferred that the author discusses the
by fertilizing it or leaving it unfertilized. By Fisher’s genetic theory in greater detail than the group
argument, it should still pay a female to produce equal selection theory primarily because he believes that
numbers of sons and daughters. Hamilton, noting that the genetic theory is more
the eggs develop within their host—the larva of another (A) complicated
insect—and that the newly emerged adult wasps mate (B) accurate
immediately and disperse, offered a remarkably cogent (C) popular
analysis. Since only one female usually lays eggs in (D) comprehensive
a given larva, it would pay her to produce one male (E) accessible
only, because this one male could fertilize all his sisters
on emergence. Like Fisher, Hamilton looked for an
evolutionarily stable strategy, but he went a step further
in recognizing that he was looking for a strategy.
216
25. According to the passage, successful game strategy 27. Which of the following is NOT true of the species of
depends on parasitic wasps discussed in the passage?
(A) the ability to adjust one’s behavior in light of the (A) Adult female wasps are capable of storing
behavior of others sperm.
(B) one’s awareness that there is safety in numbers (B) Female wasps lay their eggs in the larvae of
(C) the degree of stability one can create in one’s other insects.
immediate environment (C) The female wasp can be fertilized by a male that
(D) the accuracy with which one can predict future was hatched in the same larva as herself.
events (D) So few male wasps are produced that extinction
(E) the success one achieves in conserving and is almost certain.
storing one’s resources (E) Male wasps do not emerge from their hosts
until they reach sexual maturity.
26. It can be inferred from the passage that the
mathematical theory of games has been
(A) developed by scientists with an interest in
genetics
(B) adopted by Hamilton in his research
(C) helpful in explaining how genes can sometimes
influence gametes
(D) based on animal studies conducted prior to
1930
(E) useful in explaining some biological
phenomena
217
Test 25.1 17) C

18) B
19) A
21) C
22) D
23) B
ANSWERS 20) B 24) B
25) A
26) E
27) D
25.2 - 1st
Thomas Hardy’s impulses as a writer, all of which he 17. Which of the following is the most appropriate title
indulged in his novels, were numerous and divergent, for the passage, based on its content?
and they did not always work together in harmony. (A) Under the Greenwood Tree: Hardy’s Ambiguous
Line Hardy was to some degree interested in exploring Triumph
(5) his characters’ psychologies, though impelled less by (B) The Real and the Strange: The Novelist’s Shifting
curiosity than by sympathy. Occasionally he felt the Realms
impulse to comedy (in all its detached coldness) as well (C) Energy Versus Repose: The Role of Ordinary
as the impulse to farce, but he was more often inclined to People in Hardy’s Fiction
see tragedy and record it. He was also inclined to literary (D) Hardy’s Novelistic Impulses: The Problem of
(10) realism in the several senses of that phrase. He wanted to Control
describe ordinary human beings; he wanted to speculate (E) Divergent Impulses: The Issue of Unity in the
on their dilemmas rationally (and, unfortunately, even Novel
schematically); and he
18. The passage suggests that the author would be
(15) cend what he considered to most likely to agree with which of the following
be the banality of solely recording things exactly and statements about literary realism?
to express as well his awareness of the occult and the
strange. (A) Literary realism is most concerned with the
In his novels these various impulses were sacrificed exploration of the internal lives of ordinary
(20) to each other inevitably and often inevitably, because human beings.
Hardy did not care in the way that novelists such as (B) The term “literary realism” is susceptible to
Flaubert or James cared, and therefore took paths of more than a single definition.
least resistance. Thus, one impulse often surrendered to (C) Literary realism and an interest in psychology
a fresher one and, unfortunately, instead of exacting a are likely to be at odds in a novelist’s work.
(25) compromise, simply disappeared. A desire to throw over (D) “Literary realism” is the term most often used
reality a light that never was might give way abruptly by critics in describing the method of Hardy’s
to the desire on the part of what we might consider a novels.
novelist-scientist to record exactly and concretely the (E) A propensity toward literary realism is a less
structure and texture of a flower. In this instance, the interesting novelistic impulse than is an
(30) new impulse was at least an energetic one, and thus interest in the occult and the strange.
its indulgence did not result in a relaxed style. But on
other occasions Hardy abandoned a perilous, risky, and 19. The author of the passage considers a writer’s style to
highly energizing impulse in favor of what was for him be
the fatally relaxing impulse to classify and schematize (A) a reliable means by which to measure the
(35) abstractly. When a relaxing impulse was indulged, the writer’s literary merit
style—that sure index of an author’s literary worth—was (B) most apparent in those parts of the writer’s
certain to become verbose. Hardy’s weakness derived work that are not realistic.
from his apparent inability to control the comings (C) problematic when the writer attempts to follow
and goings of these divergent impulses and from his perilous or risky impulses
(40) unwillingness to cultivate and sustain the energetic and (D) shaped primarily by the writer’s desire to
risky ones. He submitted to first one and then another, classify and schematize
and the spirit blew where it listed; hence the unevenness (E) the most accurate index of the writer’s literary
of any one of his novels. His most controlled novel, reputation
Under the Greenwood Tree, prominently exhibits two
(45) different but reconcilable impulses—a desire to be a
realist-historian and a desire to be a psychologist of
love—but the slight interlockings of plot are not enough
to bind the two completely together. Thus even this book
splits into two disinter parts.
220
20. Which of the following words could best be 23. Which of the following statements about the use of
substituted for “relaxed” (line 31) without comedy in Hasdy’s novels is best supported by the
substantially changing the author’s meaning? passage?
(A) informal (A) Hardy’s use of comedy in his novels tended to
(B) confined weaken his literary style.
(C) risky (B) Hardy’s use of comedy in his novels was
(D) wordy inspired by his natural sympathy.
(E) metaphoric (C) Comedy appeared less frequently in Hardy’s
novels than did tragedy.
21. The passage supplies information to suggest that its (D) Comedy played an important role in Hardy’s
author would be most likely to agree with which novels though that comedy was usually in the
of the following statements about the novelists form of farce.
Flaubert and James? (E) Comedy played a secondary role in Hardy’s
(A) They indulged more impulses in their novels more controlled novels only.
than did Hardy in his novels.
(B) They have elicited a greater degree of favorable 24. The author implies which of the following about
response from most literary critics than has Under the Greenwood Tree in relation to Hardy’s
Hardy. other novel?
(C) In the writing of their novels, they often took (A) It is Hardy’s most thorough investigation of the
pains to effect a compromise among their psychology of love.
various novelistic impulses. (B) Although it is his most controlled novel, it does
(D) Regarding novelistic construction, they cared not exhibit any harsh or risky impulses
more about the opinions of other novelists (C) It, more than his other novels, reveals Hardy as
than about the opinions of ordinary readers. a realist interested in the history of ordinary
(E) They wrote novels in which the impulse toward human beings.
realism and the impulse away from realism (D) In it Hardy’s novelistic impulses are managed
were evident in equal measure. somewhat better than in his other novels.
(E) Its plot, like the plots of all of Hardy’s other
22. Which of the following statements best describes the novels, splits into two distinct parts.
organization of line 23-35 of the passage (“Thus …
abstractly”)?
(A) The author makes a disapproving observation
and then presents two cases, one of which
leads to a qualification of his disapproval and
the other of which does not.
(B) The author draws a conclusion from a previous
statement, explains his conclusion in detail,
and then gives a series of examples that have
the effect of resolving an inconsistency.
(C) The author concedes a point and then makes
a counterargument, using an extended
comparison and contrast that qualifies his
original concession.
(D) The author makes a judgment, points out
an exception to his judgment, and then
contradicts his original assertion.
(E) The author summarizes and explains an
argument and then advances a brief history
of opposing arguments.
221
25.2 - 2nd
Upwards of a billion stars in our galaxy have burnt 26. The passage suggests which of the following about
up their internal energy sources, and so can no longer the Sun?
produce the heat a star needs to oppose the inward force I. The Sun could evolve to a stage of collapse that is
of gravity. These stars, of more than a few solar masses, less dense than a singularity.
evolve, in general, much more r II. In the Sun, the inward force of gravity is
balanced by the generation of heat.
III. The Sun emits more observable light than does
n stars). Instead, the a white dwarf or a neutron star.
collapse continues until a singularity (an infinitely dense (A) I only
concentration of matter) is reached. (B) III only
It would be wonderful to observe a singularity (C) I and II only
and obtain direct evidence of the undoubtedly bizarre (D) II and III only
phenomena that occur near one. Unfortunately in most (E) I, II and III
cases a distant observer cannot see the singularity;
outgoing light rays are dragged back by gravity so 27. Which of the following sentences would most
forcefully that even if they could start out within a few probably follow the last sentence of the passage?
kilometers of the singularity, they would end up in the
singularity itself. (A) Thus, a physicist interested in studying
phenomena near singularities would
25. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to necessarily hope to find a singularity with a
measurable gravitational field.
(A) describe the formation and nature of (B) Accordingly, physicists to date have been unable
singularities to observe directly any singularity.
(B) explain why large numbers of stars become (C) It is specifically this startling phenomenon
singularities that has allowed us to codify the scant
(C) compare the characteristics of singularities with information currently available about
those of stars singularities.
(D) explain what happens during the stages of a (D) Moreover, the existence of this extra ordinary
singularity’s formation phenomenon is implied in the extensive
(E) imply that singularities could be more easily reports of several physicists.
studied if observers could get closer to them (E) Although unanticipated, phenomena such as
these are consistent with the structure of a
singularity.
222
Test 25.2 17) D

18) B
19) A
25) A
26) C
27) B
ANSWERS 20) D
21) C
22) A
23) C
24) D
26.1 - 1st
As Gilbert White, Darwin, and others observed long 17. The author of the passage is primarily concerned
ago, all species appear to have the innate capacity to increase with
their numbers from generation to generation. The task for (A) discussing tow categories of factors that control
Line ecologists is to untangle the environmental and biological population growth and assessing their relative
(5) factors that hold this intrinsic capacity for population growth importance
in check over the long run. The great variety of dynamic (B) describing how growth rates in natural
behaviors exhibited by different populations makes this task populations fluctuate over time and
more difficult: some populations remain roughly constant explaining why these changes occur
from year to year; others exhibit regular cycles of abundance (C) proposing a hypothesis concerning population
(10) and scarcity; still others vary wildly, with outbreaks and sizes and suggesting ways to test it
crashes that are in some cases plainly correlated with the (D) posing a fundamental question about
weather, and in other cases not. environmental factors in population growth
To impose some order on this kaleidoscope of patterns, and presenting some currently accepted
one school of thought proposes dividing populations into answers
(15) two groups. These ecologists posit that the relatively steady (E) refuting a commonly accepted theory about
populations have “density-dependent” growth parameters; population density and offering a new
that is, rates of birth, death, and migration which depend alternative
strongly on population density. The highly varying
populations have “density-independent” growth parameters, 18. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
(20) with vital rates buffeted by environmental events; these rates considers the dichotomy discussed in the second
fluctuate in a way that is wholly independent of population paragraph to be
density.
This dichotomy has its use, but it can cause problems (A) applicable only to erratically fluctuating
if taken too literally. For one thing, no population can be populations
(25) driven entirely by density-independent factors all the time. (B) useful, but only if this limitations are recognized
No matter how severely or unpre (C) dangerously misleading in most circumstances
around their long-term (D) a complete and sufficient way to account for
averages, if there were no density-independent effects, observed phenomena
the population would, in the long run, either increase of (E) conceptually valid, but too confusing to apply
(30) decrease without bound (barring a miracle by which gains on a practical basis
and losses canceled exactly). Put another way, it may be that
on average 99 percent of all deaths in a population arise 19. Which of the following statements can be inferred
from density-independent causes, and only one percent from the last paragraph?
from factors varying with density. The factors making up the (A) For irregularly fluctuation populations,
(35) one percent may seem unimportant, and their cause may be doubling the number of observations made
correspondingly hard to determine. Yet, whether recognized will probably result in the isolation of
or not, they will usually determine the long-term average density-independent effects.
population density. (B) Density-dependent effects on population
In order to understand the nature of the ecologist’s dynamics do not occur as frequently as do
(40) investigation, we may think of the density-dependent effects density-independent effects.
on growth parameters as the “signal” ecologists ate trying to (C) At present, ecologists do not understand any
isolate and interpret, one that tends to make the population of the underlying causes of the density-
increase from relatively low values or decrease from relatively dependent effects they observe in population
high ones, while the density-independent effects act to dynamics.
(45) produce “noise” in the population dynamics. For populations (D) Density-dependent effects on growth
that remain relatively constant, or that oscillate around parameters are thought to be caused by some
repeated cycles, the signal can be fairly easily characterized sort of biochemical “signaling” that ecologists
and its effects described, even though the causative biological hope eventually to understand.
mechanism may remain unknown. For irregularly fluctuation (E) It is sometimes possible to infer the existence
(50) populations, we are likely to have too few observations to have of a density-dependent factor controlling
any hope of extracting the signal form the over-whelming population growth without understanding its
noise. But it now seems clear that all populations are regulated causative mechanism.
by a mixture of density-independent and density-independent
effects in varying proportions.
224
20. According to the passage, which of the following is a 22. The discussion concerning population in lines 23-38
true statement about density-dependent factors in serves primarily to
population growth? (A) demonstrate the difficulties ecologists face in
(A) They ultimately account for long-term studying density-dependent factors limiting
population levels. population growth
(B) They have little to do with long-term population (B) advocate more rigorous study of density-
dynamics. dependent factor in population growth
(C) They are always more easily isolated and (C) prove that the death rates of any population are
described than those that are density- never entirely density-independent
independent. (D) give an example of how death rates function
(D) They include random environmental events. to limit population densities in typical
(E) They contradict current ecological assumptions populations
about population dynamic. (E) underline the importance of even small density-
dependent factors in regulating long-term
21. According to the passage, all of the following population densities
behaviors have been exhibited by different
populations EXCEPT 23. In the passage, the author does all of the following
(A) roughly constant population levels from year to EXCEPT
year (A) cite the views of other biologists
(B) regular cycles of increases and decreases in (B) define a basic problem that the passage
numbers addresses
(C) erratic increases in numbers correlated with the (C) present conceptual categories used by other
weather biologists
(D) unchecked increases in numbers over many (D) describe the results of a particular study
generations (E) draw a conclusion
(E) sudden declines in numbers from time to time
225
26.1 - 2nd
In Raisin in the Sun, Lorraine Hansberry does not 26. In which of the following does the author to the
reject integration or the economic and moral promise passage reinforce his criticism of responses such as
of the American dream; rather, she remains loyal to Isaacs’ to Raisin in the Sun?
Line this dream while looking, realistically, at its incomplete (A) The statement that Hansberry is “loyal” (line 3)
(5) realizati to the American dream
(B) The description of Hansberry’s concern for
Black Americans as ‘intense” (line 14)
nal” irony that Bigsby attributes to the (C) The assertion that Hansberry is concerned with
work. Indeed, a curiously persistent refusal to credit “human solidarity” (line 16)
(10) Hansberry with a capacity for intentional irony has led (D) The description of Du Bois’ ideal as “well-
some critics to interpret the play’s thematic conflicts considered” (line 17)
as mere confusion, contradiction, or eclecticism. (E) The description of Fanon’s internationalism as
Isaacs, for example, cannot easily reconcile Hansberry’s “ideal” (line 19)
intense concern for her race with her ideal of human
(15) reconciliation. But the play’s complex view of Black self- 27. The author of the passage would probably consider
esteem and human solidarity as compatible is no more which of the following judgments to be most
“contradictory” than Du Bois’ famous, well-considered similar to the reasoning of critics described in lines
ideal of ethnic self-awareness coexisting with human 9-12 ?
unity, or Fanon’s emphasis on an ideal internationalism
(20) that also accommodates national identities and roles. (A) The world is certainly flat; therefore, the person
proposing to sail around it is unquestionably
24. The author’s primary purpose in this passage is to foolhardy.
(B) Radioactivity cannot be directly perceived;
(A) explain some critics’ refusal to consider Raisin therefore, a scientist could not possibly
in the Sun a deliberately ironic play control it is a laboratory.
(B) suggest that ironic nuances ally Raisin in the (C) The painter of this picture could not intend it
Sun with Du Bois’ and Fanon’s writings to be funny; therefore, its humor must result
(C) analyze the fundamental dramatic conflicts in from a lack of skill.
Raisin in the Sun (D) Traditional social mores are beneficial to
(D) justify the inclusion of contradictory elements culture; therefore, anyone who deviates from
in Raisin in the Sun them acts destructively.
(E) affirm the thematic coherence underlying Raisin (E) Filmmakers who produce documentaries deal
in the Sun exclusively with facts; therefore, a filmmaker
who reinterprets particular events in
25. It can be inferred from the passage that the author misleading us.
believes which of the following about Hansberry’s
use of irony in Raisin in the Sun
(A) It derives from Hansberry’s eclectic approach to
dramatic structure.
(B) It is justified by Hansberry’s loyalty to a
favorable depiction of American life.
(C) It is influenced by the themes of works by Du
Bois and Fanon.
(D) It is more consistent with Hansberry’s concern
for Black Americans than with her ideal of
human reconciliation.
(E) It reflects Hansberry’s reservations about the
extent to which the American dream has
been realized.
226
Test 26.1 17) A

18) B
19) E
24) E
25) E
26) D
ANSWERS 20) A 27) C
21) D
22) E
23) D
26.2 - 1st
Some recent historians have argued that life in the eastern interests. Although undertones of class conflict
British colonies in America from approximately 1763 to (50) existed beneath such hostility, the opposition was,
1789 was marked by internal conflicts among colonists. primarily geographical. Sectional conflict— which also
Line Inheritors of some of the viewpoints of early twentieth existed between North and South — deserves further
(5) century Progressive historians such as Beard and Becker, investigation.
these recent historians have put forward arguments that In summary, historians must be careful about the
deserve evaluation. (55) kind of conflict they emphasize in eighteenth-century
The kind of conflict most emphasized by these America. Yet those who stress the achievement of a
historians is class conflict. Yet with the Revolutionary general consensus among the colonists cannot fully
(10) War dominating these years, how does one distinguish understand that consensus without understanding the
class conflict within that larger conflict? Certainly not conflicts that had to be overcome or repressed in order
by the side a person supported. Although many of to reach it.
these historians have accepted the earlier assumption
that Loyalists represented an upper class, new evidence 17. The author considers the contentions made by the
(15) indicates that Loyalists, like rebels, were drawn from all recent historians discussed in the passage to be
socioeconomic classes. (It is nonetheless probably true (A) potentially verifiable
that a larger percentage of the well-to-do joined the (B) partially justified
Loyalists than joined the rebels.) Looking at the rebel (C) logically contradictory
side, we find little evidence for the contention that lower- (D) ingenious but flawed
(20) class rebels were in conflict with upper-class rebels. (E) capricious and unsupported
Indeed, the war effort against Britain tended to suppress
class conflicts. Where it did not, the disputing rebels of 18. The author most likely refers to “’historians such as
one or another class usually became Loyalists. Loyalism Beard and Becker” (line 5) in order to
thus operated as a safety valve to remove socioeconomic
(25) discontent that existed among the rebels. Disputes (A) isolate the two historians whose work is
occurred, of course, among those who remained on most representative of the viewpoints of
the rebel side, but the extraordinary social mobility of Progressive historians
eighteenth-century American society (with the obvious (B) emphasize the need to find connections
exception of slaves) usually prevented such disputes between recent historical writing and the
(30) from hardening along class lines. Social structure was work of earlier historians
in fact so fluid—though recent statistics suggest a (C) make a case for the importance of the views
narrowing of economic opportunity as the latter half of of the Progressive historians concerning
the century progressed — that to talk about social classes eighteenth-century American life
at all requires the use of loose economic categories (D) suggest that Progressive historians were the first
(35) such as rich, poor, and middle class, or eighteenth- to discover the particular internal conflicts in
century designations like “the better sort.” Despite these eighteenth-century American life mentioned
vague categories, one should not claim unequivocally in the passage
that hostility between recognizable classes cannot be (E) point out historians whose views of history
legitimately observed. Outside of New York, however, anticipated some of the views of the recent
(40) there were very few instances of openly expressed class historians mentioned in the passage
antagonism.
Having said this, however, one must add that there
is much evidence to support the further claim of recent
historians that sectional conflicts were common between
(45) 1763 and 1789. The “Paxton Boys” incident and the
Regulator movement are representative examples of the
widespread, and justified, discontent of western settlers
against colonial or state governments dominated by
228
19. According to the passage, Loyalism during the 21. It can be inferred from the passage? that the author
American Revolutionary War served the function would be most likely to agree with which of the
of following statements regarding socioeconomic class
(A) eliminating the disputes that existed among and support for the rebel and Loyalist causes during
those colonists who supported the rebel cause the American Revolutionary War?
(B) drawing upper, as opposed to lower, (A) Identifying a person’s socioeconomic class is the
socioeconomic classes away from the rebel least accurate method of ascertaining which
cause side that person supported.
(C) tolerating the kinds of socioeconomic (B) Identifying a person as a member of the rebel or
discontent that were not allowed to exist on of the Loyalist side does not necessarily reveal
the rebel side that person’s particular socioeconomic class.
(D) channeling conflict that existed within a (C) Both the rebel and the Loyalist sides contained
socioeconomic class into the war effort mem
against the rebel cause
(E) absorbing members of socioeconomic groups conomic classes on the Loyalist side.
on the rebel side who felt themselves (D) Both the rebel and the Loyalist sides contained
in contention with members of other members of all socioeconomic classes,
socioeconomic groups although the Loyalist side was made up
primarily of members of the upper classes.
20. The passage suggests that the author would be likely (E) Both the rebel and the Loyalist sides contained
to agree with which of the following statements members of all socioeconomic classes,
about the social structure of eighteenth-century although many upper-class rebels eventually
American society? joined the loyalists.
I. It allowed greater economic opportunity than it
did social mobility 22. The author suggests which of the following about the
II. It permitted greater economic opportunity prior representativeness of colonial or state governments
to 1750 than after 1750. in America from 1763 to 1789 ?
III. It did not contain rigidly defined socioeconomic (A) The governments inadequately represented the
divisions. interests of people in western regions.
IV. It prevented economic disputes from arising (B) The governments more often represented class
among members of the society. interests than sectional interests.
(C) The governments were less representative than
(A) I and IV only they had been before 1763.
(B) II and III only (D) The governments were dominated by the
(C) III and IV only interests of people of an upper socioeconomic
(D) I, II, and III only class.
(E) I, II, III, and IV (E) The governments of the northern colonies were
less representative than were the governments
of the southern colonies.
23. According to the passage, which of the following is a

true statement about sectional conflicts in America
between 1763 and 1789?
(A) These conflicts were instigated by eastern
interests against western settlers.
(B) These conflicts were the most serious kind of
conflict in America.
(C) The conflicts eventually led to openly expressed
class antagonism.
(D) These conflicts contained an element of class
hostility.
(E) These conflicts were motivated by class
conflicts.
229
26.2 - 2nd
Since 1953, many experimental attempts to 26. It can be inferred from the passage that “some
synthesize the chemical constituents of life under scientists” assume which of the following
“primitive Earth conditions” have been performed, concerning “larger, more complex molecules” (line
Line but none of these experiments has produced anything 20) ?
(5) approaching the complexity of the simplest organism. (A) The earliest atmosphere was formed primarily
They have demonstrated, however, that a variety of of these molecules.
the complex molecules currently making up living (B) Chemical processes involving these molecules
organisms could have been present in the early ocean proceeded much more slowly under primitive
and atmosphere, with only one limitation: such Earth conditions.
(10) molecules are synthesized far less readily when oxygen- (C) The presence of these molecules would
containing compounds domin necessarily precede the existence of simple
organisms.
(D) Experimental techniques will never be
onia. sufficiently sophisticated to produce in the
(15) From these studies, scientists have concluded that laboratory simple organisms from these
the surface of the primitive Earth was covered with chemical constituents.
oceans containing the molecules fundamental to life. (E) Explanations could easily be developed to
Although, at present, scientists cannot explain how explain how simple molecules combined to
these relatively small molecules combined to produce form these more complex ones.
(20) larger, more complex molecules, some scientists have
precipitously ventured hypotheses that attempt to 27. The author’s reaction to the attempts that have been
explain the development, from these larger molecules, of made to explain the development of the first self-
the earliest self-duplicating organisms. duplicating organisms can best be described as
24. According to the passage, which of the following one of
can be inferred about the process by which the (A) enthusiasm
chemical constituents of life were synthesized under (B) expectation
primitive Earth conditions? (C) dismay
(D) skepticism
(A) The synthesis is unlikely to occur under current (E) antipathy
atmospheric conditions.
(B) The synthesis is common in modern
laboratories.
(C) The synthesis occurs more readily in the
atmosphere than in the ocean.
(D) The synthesis easily produces the most complex
organic molecules.
(E) The synthesis is accelerated by the presence of
oxygen-containing compounds.
25. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) point out that theories about how life developed
on Earth have changed little since 1953
(B) warn of increasing levels of hydrogen, methane,
and ammonia in the Earth’s atmosphere
(C) describe the development since 1953 of some
scientists’ understanding of how life began on
Earth
D demonstrate that the synthesis of life in the
laboratory is too difficult for modern
technology
(E) describe how primitive atmospheric conditions
produced the complex molecules of living
organisms
230
Test 26.2 17) B

18) E
19) E
24) A
25) C
26) C
ANSWERS 20) B 27) D
21) B
22) A
23) D
Many critics of Emily Brontë’s novel Wuthering
27.1 - 1st
19. The author of the passage would be most likely to
Heights see its second part as a counterpoint that agree that an interpretation of a novel should
comments on, if it does not reverse, the first part, where (A) not try to unite heterogeneous elements in the
Line a “romantic” reading receives more confirmation. novel
(5) Seeing the t (B) not be inflexible in-its treatment of the elements
in the novel
s and time shifts. Granted that the (C) not argue that the complex use of narrators
presence of these elements need not argue an authorial or of time shifts indicates a sophisticated
awareness of novelistic construction comparable to structure
(10) that of Henry James, their presence does encourage (D) concentrate on those recalcitrant elements of
attempts to unify the novel’s heterogeneous parts. the novel that are outside the novel’s main
However, any interpretation that seeks to unify all of structure
the novel’s diverse elements is bound to be somewhat (E). primarily consider those elements of novelistic
unconvincing. This is not because such an interpretation construction of which the author of the novel
(15) necessarily stiffens into a thesis (although rigidity in any was aware
interpretation of this or of any novel is always a danger),
but because Wuthering Heights has recalcitrant elements 20. The author of the passage suggests which of the
of undeniable power that, ultimately, resist inclusion following about Hamlet?
in an all-encompassing interpretation. In this respect,
Wuthering Heights shares a feature of Hamlet. I. Hamlet has usually attracted critical
interpretations that tend to stiffen into theses.
17. According to the passage, which of the following is II. Hamlet has elements that are not amenable to an
a true statement about the first and second parts of all-encompassing critical interpretation.
Wuthering Heights? III. Hamlet is less open to an all-encompassing
critical interpretation than is Wuthering
(A) The second part has received more attention Heights.
from critics. IV. Hamlet has not received a critical interpretation
(B) The second pan has little relation to the first that has been widely accepted by readers.
part. (A) I only
(C) The second part annuls the force of the first (B) II only
part. (C) I and IV
(D The second part provides less substantiation for (D) III and IV only
a “romantic” reading. (E) I, II, and III only
(E) The second part is better because it is more
realistic.
18. Which of the following inferences about Henry

James’s awareness of novelistic construction is best
supported by the passage?
(A) James, more than any other novelist, was aware
of the difficulties of novelistic construction.
(B) James was very aware of the details of novelistic
construction.
(C) James’s awareness of novelistic construction
derived from his reading of Brontë.
(D) James’s awareness of novelistic construction has
led most commentators to see unity in his
individual novels.
(E) James’s awareness of novelistic construction
precluded him from violating the unity of his
novels.
232
27.1 - 2nd
The determination of the sources of copper ore 21. The primary purpose of the passage is to
used in the manufacture of copper and bronze artifacts (A) discuss the techniques of analyzing lead isotope
of Bronze Age civilizations would add greatly to our composition
Line knowledge of cultural contacts and trade in that era. (B) propose a way to determine the origin of the
(5) Researchers have analyzed artifacts and ores for their copper in certain artifacts
concentrations of elements, but for a variety of reasons, (C) resolve a dispute concerning the analysis of
these studies have generally failed to provide evidence of copper ore
the sources of the copper used in the objects. Elemental (D) describe the deficiencies of a currently used
composition can vary within the same copper-ore method of chemical analysis of certain metals
(10) lode, usually because of varying admixtures of other (E) offer an interpretation of the archaeological
elements, especially iron, lead, zinc, and arsenic. And high record of the Bronze Age
concentrations of cobalt or zinc, noticed in some artifacts,
appear in a variety of coppe 22. The author first mentions the addition of flux during
smelting (lines 18-21) in order to
(15)
ts evaporate during smelting (A) give a reason for the failure of elemental
and roasting; different temperatures and processes composition studies to determine ore sources
produce different degrees of loss. Finally, flux, which (B) illustrate differences between various Bronze
is sometimes added during smelting to remove waste Age civilizations
(20) material from the ore, could add quantities of elements to (C) show the need for using high smelting
the final product. temperatures
An elemental property that is unchanged through (D) illustrate the uniformity of lead isotope
these chemical processes is the isotopic composition of composition
each metallic element in the ore. Isotopic composition, (E) explain the success of copper isotope
(25) the percentages of the different isotopes of an element in composition analysis
a given sample of the element, is therefore particularly
suitable as an indicator of the sources of the ore. Of 23. The author suggests which of the following about a
course, for this purpose it is necessary to find an element Bronze Age artifact containing high concentrations
whose isotopic composition is more or less constant of cobalt or zinc?
(30) throughout a given ore body, but varies from one copper (A) It could not be reliably tested for its elemental
ore body to another or, at least, from one geographic composition.
region to another. (B) It could not be reliably tested for its copper
The ideal choice, when isotopic composition is used isotope composition.
to investigate the source of copper ore, would seem to be (C) It could not be reliably tested for its lead isotope
(35) copper itself. It has been shown that small but measurable composition.
variations occur naturally in the isotopic composition of (D) It could have been manufactured from ore from
copper. However, the variations are large enough only in any one of a variety of sources.
rare ores; between samples of the common ore minerals of (E) It could have been produced by the addition
copper, isotopic variations greater than the measurement of other metals during the processing of the
(40) error have not been found. An alternative choice is lead, copper ore.
which occurs in most copper and bronze artifacts of the
Bronze Age in amounts consistent with the lead being
derived from the copper ores and possibly from the fluxes.
The isotopic composition of lead often varies from one
(45) source of common copper ore to another, with variations
exceeding the measurement error; and preliminary
studies indicate virtually uniform isotopic composition
of the lead from a single copper-ore source. While some
of the lead found in an artifact may have been introduced
(50) from flux or when other metals were added to the copper
ore, lead so added in Bronze Age processing would usually
have the same isotopic composition as the lead in the
copper ore. Lead isotope studies may thus prove useful for
interpreting the archaeological record of the Bronze Age.
234
24. According to the passage, possible sources of the lead 26. The author makes which of the following statements
found in a copper or bronze artifact include which about lead isotope composition?
of the following? (A) It often varies from one copper-ore source to
I. The copper ore used to manufacture the artifact another.
II. Flux added during processing of the copper ore (B) It sometimes varies over short distances in a
III. Other metal added during processing of the single copper-ore, source
copper ore (C) It can vary during the testing of artifacts,
(A) I only producing a measurement error.
(B) II only (D) It frequently changes during smelting and
(C) III only roasting.
(D) II and III only (E) It may change when artifacts are buried for
(E) I. II, and III thousands of years.
25. The author rejects copper as the “ideal choice” 27. It can be inferred from the passage that the use of
mentioned in line 33 because flux in processing copper ore can alter the lead
(A) the concentration of copper in Bronze Age isotope composition of the resulting metal EXCEPT
artifacts varies when
(B) elements other than copper may be introduced (A) there is a smaller concentration of lead in the
during smelting flux than in the copper ore
(C) the isotopic composition of copper changes (B) the concentration of lead in the flux is
during smelting equivalent to that of the lead in the ore
(D) among common copper ores, differences in (C) some of the lead in the flux evaporates during
copper isotope composition are too small processing
(E) within a single source of copper ore, copper (D) any lead in the flux has the same isotopic
isotope composition can vary substantially composition as the lead in the ore
(E) other metals are added during processing
235
Test 27.1 17) D

18) B
19) B
21) B
22) A
23) D
ANSWERS 20) B 24) E
25) D
26) A
27) D
27.2 - 1st
Since the Hawaiian Islands have never been 19. It can be inferred from information in the passage
connected to other land masses, the great variety of that the existence in alpine regions of Hawaii of a
plants in Hawaii must be a result of the long-distance plant species that also grows in the southwestern
Line dispersal of seeds, a process that requires both a method United States would justify which of the following
(5) of transport and an equivalence between the ecology of conclusions?
the source area and that of the recipient area. (A) The ecology of the southwestern United States
There is some dispute about the method of transport is similar in important respects to the ecology
involved. Some biologists argue that, ocean and air of alpine regions of Hawaii.
currents are responsible (B) There are ocean currents that flow from the
(10) southwestern United States to Hawaii.
(C) The plant species discovered in Hawaii must
have traveled from the southwestern United
chment of the seeds to States only very recently.
feathers, or internally, by the swallowing of fruit and (D) The plant species discovered in Hawaii reached
(15) subsequent excretion of the seeds. While it is likely there by attaching to the feathers of birds
that fewer varieties of plant seeds have reached Hawaii migrating from the southwestern United
externally than internally, more varieties are known to be States.
adapted to external than to internal transport. (E) The plant species discovered in Hawaii is
especially well adapted to transport over long
17. The author of the passage is primarily concerned distances.
with
(A) discussing different approaches biologists 20. The passage supplies information for answering
have taken to testing theories about the which of the following questions?
distribution of plants in Hawaii (A) Why does successful long-distance dispersal of
(B) discussing different theories about the transport plant seeds require an equivalence between
of plant-seeds to Hawaii the-ecology of the source area and that of the
(C) discussing the extent to which air currents are recipient area?
responsible for the dispersal of plant seeds to (B) Why are more varieties of plant seeds adapted
Hawaii to external rather than to internal bird
(D) resolving a dispute about the adaptability of transport?
plant seeds to bird transport (C) What varieties of plant seeds are birds that fly
(E) resolving a dispute about the ability of birds to long distances most likely to swallow?
carry plant seeds long distances (D) What is a reason for accepting the long-
distance dispersal of plant seeds as an
18. The author mentions the results of flotation explanation for the origin of Hawaiian flora?
experiments on plant seeds (lines 10-12) most (E) What evidence do biologists cite to argue that
probably in order to ocean and air currents are responsible for the
(A) support the claim that the distribution of plants transport of plant seeds to Hawaii?
in Hawaii is the result of the long-distance
dispersal of seeds
(B) lend credibility to the thesis that air currents
provide a method of transport for plant seeds
to Hawaii
(C) suggest that the long-distance dispersal of seeds
is a process that requires long periods of time
(D) challenge the claim that ocean currents are
responsible for the transport of plant seeds to
Hawaii
(E) refute the claim that Hawaiian flora evolved
independently from flora in other parts of the
world
237
27.2 - 2nd
A long-held view of the history of the English colonies 21. The passage can best be described as a
that became the United States has been that England’s (A) survey of the inadequacies of a conventional
policy toward these colonies before 1763 was dictated by viewpoint
Line commercial interests and that a change to a more imperial (B) reconciliation of opposing points of view
(5) policy, dominated by expansionist militarist objectives, (C) summary and evaluation of a recent study
generated the tensions that ultimately led to the American (D) defense of a new thesis from anticipated
Revolution. In a recent study, Stephen Saunders Webb has objections
presented a formidable challenge to this view: According (E) review of the subtle distinctions between
to Webb, England already had a military imperial policy apparently similar views
(10) for more than a
22. The passage suggests that the view referred to in lines
1-7 argued that
ding centralized executive power over (A) the colonial governors were sympathetic to the
England’s possessions through the use of what Webb calls demands of the common people
(15)
“garrison government.” Garrison government allowed (B) Charles II was a pivotal figure in the shift of
the colonists a legislative assembly, but real authority, in English monarchs toward a more imperial
Webb’s view; belonged to the colonial governor, who was policy in their governorship of the American
appointed by the king and supported by the “garrison,” colonies
that is, by the local contingent of English troops under the (C) the American Revolution was generated largely
(20)
colonial governor’s command. out of a conflict between the colonial upper
According to Webb, the purpose of garrison classes and an alliance of merchants and
government was to provide military support for a royal small farmers
policy designed to limit the power of the upper classes (D) the military did not play a major role as an
in the American colonies. Webb argues that the colonial instrument of colonial policy until 1763
(25)
legislative assemblies represented the interests not of (E) the colonial legislative assemblies in the
the common people but of the colonial upper classes, a colonies had little influence over the colonial
coalition of merchants and nobility who favored self-rule governors
and sought to elevate legislative authority at the expense
of the executive. It was, according to Webb, the colonial 23. It can be inferred from the passage that Webb would
(30)
governors who favored the small farmer, opposed the be most likely to agree with which of the following
plantation system, and tried through taxation to break up statements regarding garrison government?
large holdings of land. Backed by the military presence of (A) Garrison government gave legislative
the garrison, these governors tried to prevent the gentry assemblies in the colonies relatively little
(35) and merchants, allied in the colonial assemblies, from authority, compared to the authority that it
transforming colonial America into a capitalistic oligarchy. gave the colonial governors.
Webb s study illuminates the political alignments (B) Garrison government proved relatively
that existed in the colonies in the century prior to the ineffective until it was used by Charles II to
American Revolution, but his view of the crown’s use of the curb the power of colonial legislatures.
(40) military as an instrument of colonial policy is not entirely (C) Garrison government became a less viable
convincing. England during the seventeenth century colonial policy as the English Parliament
was not noted for its military achievements. Cromwell began to exert tighter legislative control over
did mount England’s most ambitious overseas military the English military.
expedition in more than a century, but it proved to be an (D) Oliver Cromwell was the first English ruler to
(45) utter failure. Under Charles II, the English army was too make use of garrison government on a large
small to be a major instrument of government. Not until scale.
the war with France in 1697 did William III persuade (E) The creation of a professional standing army in
Parliament to create a professional standing army, and England in 1697 actually weakened garrison
Parliament’s price for doing so was to keep the army under government by diverting troops from the
(50) tight legislative control. While it may be true that the garrisons stationed in the American colonies.
crown attempted to curtail the power of the colonial upper
classes, it is hard to imagine how the English army during
the seventeenth century could have provided significant
military support for such a policy.
238
24. According to the passage, Webb views Charles II 26. According to Webb’s view of colonial history, which
as the “proper successor” (line 12) of the Tudor of the following was (were) true of the merchants
monarchs and Cromwell because Charles II and nobility mentioned in line 28 ?
(A) used colonial tax revenues to fund overseas I. They were opposed to policies formulated by
military expeditions Charles II that would have transformed the
(B) used the military to extend executive power colonies into capitalistic oligarchies.
over the English colonies II. They were opposed to attempts by the English
(C) wished to transform the American colonies into crown to limit the power of the legislative
capitalistic oligarchies assemblies.
(D) resisted the English Parliament’s efforts to exert III. They were united with small farmers in their
control over the military opposition to the stationing of English troops
(E) allowed the American colonists to use in the colonies.
legislative assemblies as a forum for resolving (A) I only
grievances against the crown (B) II only
(C) I and II only
25. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously (D) II and III only
weaken the author’s assertion in lines 50-54? (E) I, II, and III
(A) Because they were poorly administered,
Cromwell’s overseas military expeditions 27. The author suggests that if William III had wanted to
were doomed to failure. make use of the standing army mentioned in line 48
(B) Because it relied primarily on the symbolic to administer garrison government in the American
presence of the military, garrison government colonies, he would have had to
could be effectively administered with a (A) make peace with France
relatively small number of troops. (B) abolish the colonial legislative assemblies
(C) Until early in the seventeenth century, no (C) seek approval from the English Parliament
professional standing army in Europe had (D) appoint colonial governors who were more
performed effectively in overseas military sympathetic to royal policy
expeditions. (E) raise additional revenues by increasing taxation
(D) Many of the colonial governors appointed by of large landholdings in the colonies
the crown were also commissioned army
officers.
(E) Many of the English troops stationed in the
American colonies were veterans of other
overseas military expeditions.
239
Test 27.2 17) B

18) D
19) A
21) C
22) D
23) A
ANSWERS 20) D 24) B
25) B
26) B
27) C

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Test 1.1 17) C

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Test 1.2 17) A

Test 2.1 17) B

23. It can be inferred from the passage that before 1910

27. The author’s attitude toward photography in the

Test 2.2 17) E

22. Which of the following can be inferred from the

(10) 26. In developing the main idea of the passage, the

24. The author’s hypothesis concerning the origin

Test 3.1 16) C

Test 3.2 17) B

Test 4.1 17) C

Test 4.2 17) D

Test 5.1 17) C

Test 5.2 17) B

Test 6.1 17) B

Test 6.2 17) E

Test 7.1 17) E

Test 7.2 17) A

Test 8.1 17) A

Test 8.2 17) C

Test 9.1 17) C

Test 9.2 17) C

cal and interchangeable in that

Test 10.1 17) E

Test 10.2 17) B

20. Which of the following, if true, would be most likely

18. According to the passage, Mars and the Earth are

Test 11.1 17) A

Test 11.2 17) B

25. According to the passage, Cressy would agree

Test 12.1 17) B

(45) onstruct a theory of feminist criticism, she

rary critics are more likely

21. Which of the following is presented by the author in

22. Which of the following is most likely to be one of the

25. It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s

Test 12.2 17) B

define the vacuum as a space field experiments

25. The author quotes from The Nation most probably in

Test 13.1 17) A

18. It can be inferred from the passage that all orb-

22. According to the passage, the immediacy of the

stency and integrity, even if, in many

Test 13.2 17) B

odic figures. Not concerned with

21. It can be inferred that the author of the passage

22. It can be inferred from the passage that the

25. According to the passage, the configuration of

Test 14.1 17) C

20. The author confronts the claim that the social

18. Which of the following is a social science discipline

Test 14.2 17) D

25. The author of the passage suggests that

Test 15.1 17) C

Test 15.2 17) D

21. It can be inferred from the passage that the “first

25. It can be inferred from the passage that one way

Test 16.1 17) E