Karnataka 2004 PG entrance Exam with answers

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1-All of the following are chromosomal breakage syndrome except:
a-Fanconi’s anaemia b-Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c-Bloom syndrome d-Ataxia telengiectasia
Ans-B

2- All of the following are morphologic feature of apoptosis except:

a-Cell shrinkage b-Chromatin condensation
c-Inflammation d-Apoptotic bodies
Ans-C

3-“Macropolycyte “ in peripheral smear is a feature of:

a-Hereditary spherocytosis b-Iron deficiency anaemia
c-Sickle ceel anaemia d-Megaloblastic anaemia
Ans-D

4-Most common second malignancy in patients with FAMILIAL Retinoblastoma is:

a-Teretoma b-Medullary carcinoma
c-Osteosarcoma d-Malignant melanoma
Ans-C

5-Polyp in Peutz Jeghers syndrome are:

a-Adenomatous polyps b-Hyperplastic polyps
c-Hamartomous polyps d-Pseudopolyps
Ans-C

6-Histologic hallmark of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is:

a-Crescent in most of the glomeruli
b-Loss of foot process of epithelial cells
c-Subendothelial dence deposites
d-Diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary wall
Ans-A

7-All of the following are true for complete mole except:

a-Diffuse circumferential trophoblastic proliferation
b-Hydropic swelling of villi
c-No fetal parts seen
d-Triploid karyotype
Ans-D

8-Histologic hallmark of paget disease of nipple is:

a-Comedo necrosis
b-Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells
c-Atypical lobular hyperplasia
d-Desmoplasia
Ans-B

9-In early gastric carcinoma malignancy is confined to:

a-Mucosa
b-Mucosa and submucosa
c-Gastric wall without lymphnode metaasis
d-Gastric glands
Ans-B

10-Which hepatitis virus is notorious for causing a chronic hepatitis evolving cirrhosis?
a-Hepatitis C virus b-Hepatitis B virus
c-Hepatitis E virus d-Cytomegalo virus
Ans-A

11-Example of type IV hypersensitivity:

a-Coagulase test b-Mantoux test
c-Schick test d-Elek’s test
Ans-B

12-Recommended vaccines for rabies:

a-DPT b-MMR
c-BCG d-HDCV Ans-D
13-Pigment producing colonies are seen in:
a-Pseudomonas b-Atypical mycobacteria
c-Serratia marcescens d-All of the above
Ans-D

14-Flurescent microscopy is used to diagnose:

a-Mycobacterium tubeculosis b-Staphylococcus aureus
c-Streptococcus capsulatum d-Klebsilla aerogenes
Ans-A

15-Germ tube test is diagnosis for:

a-Candida albicans b-Cryptococcus neoformans
c-Histoplasma capsulatum d-Coccidiodomycosis
Ans-A

16-pH of sabouraud’s dextrose agar is adjusted to:

a-4-6 b-1-2
c-6-8 d-8-10
Ans-A

17-Painless hematuria is seen in:

a-Schistostoma hematobium b-Schistostoma mansoni
c-Schistostoma japonicum d-Paragonium westermani
Ans-A

18-Babesoisis is transmitted by:

a-Tick b-Mites
c-flea d-Mosquito
Ans-A

19-Dengue fever is transmitted by:

a-Tiger mosquito b-Jackal mosquito
c-Wolf mosquito d-Lion mosquito
Ans-A

20-Complication in Malaria are commonly seen with:

a-Plasmodium ovale b-Plasmodium vivax
c-Plasmodium falciparum d-Plasmodium malariae
Ans-C

21-Type III category of basal FRACTURE of skull are:

a-Those that run in the coronal plane from lateral end of one petrous through sella turcica to lateralend of
contralateral petrous ridge
b-Run from side to side in the coronal plane but do not pass through the sella turcica
c-Run from front to the contralateral back passing through the sella turcica
d-Run from front to back involving all cranial fossae & sella turcica .
Ans-B

22-The various component of a will to be valid are:

a-A knowledge of the property to be disposed of
b-A legatee can attest a will
c-Presence of delusion not affecting in any way the disposal of the property or the person affected by the will

d-It should be made during lucid interval

Ans-?

23-Reasons for marked variation in the shape of exit wounds of rifled weapons:
a-Deformation of bullet during its passage through body and thereby presenting an irregular wound
b-Absence of tumbling of the bullet in the body & hence it may not be able to exit with nose end first
c-Intact bullet in the body after striking bone
d-At times , both entry and exit wounds are of the same as in the assassination of kennedy , President of
USA
Ans-A

24-“Dry Submarine “ in custodia torture injuries refer to:

a-Falanga beating on soles of feet
b-Tying of a plastic bag ocer the ears
c-Immersing head in contaminated water
d-Suspending the accused by ankles
Ans-B

25-“CAFÉ coronary “ refer to death in intoxication person during meals due to :

a-Suffocation b-Natural cardiac death
c-Choking d-Smothening
Ans-C

26-The single test that confirms the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is:
a-Coombs test b-Reticulocyte count
c-Peripheral smear d-Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Ans-A

27-The advantage of breast feeding to the mother includes:

a-Decrease postpartum bleeding b-Prevention of breast cancer
c-Spacing of pregnancies d-All of the above
Ans-D

28-All these condition can produce metabolic acidosis except:

a-Diabetic ketoacidosis b-Salicylate poisoning
c-Gastroenteritis with dehydration d-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Ans-D

29-All these condition are autosomal dominant disorders except:

a-Marfan’s syndrome b-Hunter syndrome
c-Osteogenesis imperfecta d-Achondroplasia
Ans-B
30-All these conditions can produce first day jaundice in newborn except:
a-RH incompatibility b-TORCH infection
c-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d-G6PD deficiency
Ans-C

31-Infantile hemiplegia can occur due to cerebrovascular accidents resulting in:

a-Thrombosis b-Embolism
c-Staphylococci d-All of the above
Ans-D

32-Common cause for epiglottitis in children is due to :

a-Hemiphilus influenza b-Pneumococci
c-Staphylococci d-Strepyococci
Ans-A

33-The cause for anoixic spells in children include all except:

a-Tranposition of great vessels b-Tricuspid artresia
c-total anomalous muscular venous return d-Coarctation of aorta
Ans-D

34-Gower sign is classical of one of the following condition:

a-Congenital myopathy b-Werdnig-Hoffman disease
c-Duchenne muscular muscular dystrophy d-Guillain-Barre syndrome
Ans-C

35-All these condition are SEX chromosome disorder except:

a-Turner syndrome b-Kline filter syndrome
c-Super female d-Down’s syndrome
Ans-D

36-Thought disorder is seen in:

a-Obsessive compulsive disorder b-Anxiety neurosis
c-Schizophrenia d-Psychopathic personality
Ans-A,C

37-Repetative hand washing is symptom of;

a-Posy-traumatic stress disorder b-Depression
c-Anorexia nervosa d-Obsessive compulsive disorder
Ans-D

38-Clozapine is a:
a-Atypical anti-psychotic drug b-Anti-anxiety drug
c-Used in dementia d-Also known as disulfiram
Ans-A

39-Flouxetine is a :
a-Anti- psychotic drug b-Used in opiate poisoning
c-Tricyclic antidepressant d-Selective sacrotin reuptake inhibitor
Ans-D
40-Fluctuating level of consciousness is seen in:
a-Hysteria b-Delirium
c-Dementia d-Mania
Ans-B

41-After oral ingection of 8- methyoxypsoralen , how long an interval should be allowed before UVA
radiation is given in PUVA treatment?
a-1 hr b-2 hr
c-3 hr d-4hr
Ans-B

42-Which positive test does not necessarily indicate HIV infection in a newborn?
a-ELISA for HIV IgG antibody b-p24 antigen
c-Virus culture d-ELISA for HIV IgA antibody
Ans-A

43-Each of the following ia caused by a pathogen of a Borrelia species , except:

a-Erythema chronicum migrans b-Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicvans
c-Epidemic relapsing fever d-Rat bite fever
Ans-D

44-Which of the following may occur either as a result of an elevated antrogen level or an exaggerated
clinical response of tissues to androgen?
a-Acne b-Hirsutism
c-Alopecia d-All of these
Ans-D

45-Which of the following is found least frequently in patients with TEN (Toxic Epidrmal Necrilysis)?
a-Anamia (erythrocytic) b-Lymphopenia
c-Neutropenia d-Eosinophilia
Ans-D

46-The target material used in X –ray tube:

a-Tin b-Tungsten
c-Platinum d-Copper
Ans-B

47-The following are radiological features of sigmoid vovulus except:

a-Inverted U shaped bowel loop b-liver overlap sign
c-Bird of prey sign d-Cupola sign
Ans-D

48-Medical sonography employs ultrasound frequency between:

a-1-2 MHz b-Less than 1 MHz
c-100 Hz d-Greter than 100 MHz
Ans-A

49-Colour Doppler study can evaluate the follwing except:

a-Direction of blood flow b-Velocity of blood flow
c-Impedence index d-Intravascular pressure
Ans-D
50-The Radionuclide used in assessing the renal morphology:
a-Thallium-201 b-99mTc-DMSA
c-99mT-DTPA d-99mTc-MAG
Ans-B

51-In Ranson’s criteria to predict severity of acute pancreatitis:

a-A serum amylase that is 4 times normal is significant
b-Serum amylase level is not a a criteria
c-Rising serum amylase level are important
d-Serum amylase equals urine amylase
Ans-B

52-Non-propulsive peristalsis is feature of:

a-Paralytic ileus b-Impacted faeces
c-Mesenteric vascular occlusion d-Incarceration
Ans-C

53-The operative wound after surgery for gangrenous , perforated appendicitis is best managed by:
a-Primary suture b-Delayed primary closure
c-Healing by secondry intention d-Antibiotic lavage
Ans-B

54-A thrombosed external haemorrhoid ( or perianal haematoma ) is:

a-Painless, with gradual onset b-The 5 days , painful , self curing lesion
c-Part of internal haemorrhoids d-A sentinel pile
Ans-B

55-The ratio of males to female in the incidence of strangulated inguinal hernia in infancy is :
a-5:1 b-1:2
c-2:1 d-1:5
Ans-D

56-Treatment of intracapsular FRACTURE in a man aged 60 years:

a-Dynamic hip screw fixation b-Total hip replacement
c-Hemiarthroplasty d-Austin Moore pinning
Ans-C

57-Barlows test is done to diagnose:

a-C.D.H. b-Cruciate ligament tear
c-Shoulder dislocation d-Ankle joint instability
Ans-A

58-Osteochondritis of lunate bone is known as:

a-Perthes disease b-Osgood schlatters disease
c-Kohler’s disease d-Kienbock’s disease
Ans-D

59-Spine ventosa is caused by:

a-Leprosy b-Defect in the spine
c-Tuberculosis d-Gout
Ans-C

60-Calcification of inter vertebral disc is a feature of:

a-Ankylosing spondilitis b-Hyper parathyroidis
c-Charcot’s disease d-Alkaptonuria
Ans-D

61-Tom Smith’s arthritis of hip joint is due to:

a-C.D.H. b-Post polio
c-Pyogenic infection d-Cerebral palsy
Ans-C

62-Osteosarcoma arises from:

a-Epiphysis b-Diaphysis
c-Metaphysis d-Bone marrow
Ans-C

63-Reversal of albumin-globulin ratio is seen in:

a-Osteochondroma b-Multiple myeloma
c-Osteoclastoma d-Osteoid osteoma
Ans-B

64-Treatment of bone cyct;

a-Amputation b-Bone grafting
c-Chemotheraphy d-Disarticulation
Ans-B

65-Osteochondroma is also known :

a-Exostosis b-Gaint cell tumour
c-Ivary osteoma d-Osteoblastoma
Ans-A

66-Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in the following condition:

a-Acidosis b-Increase 2-3 DPG level
c-Hyperthermia d-All the above
Ans-D

67-Following are the effects of thiopentose sodium anaethesis except:

a-Respiratory depression b-Reduced cardiac output
c-Good uterine relaxation d-Low intraocular tension
Ans-C

68-Contra indication for nasotracheal intubation:

a-Basal skull fractures b-Neonates
c-Difficult intubation d-Prolong intubation
Ans-A

69-Blood collected from acid citrate dextrose can be stored for:

a-28 days b-21 days
c-14 days d-7 days
Ans-B

70-Advantages of regional analgesia blockade are all these except:

a-A reduced need for opioids
b-Early resumption for normal activity and ambulation
c-A quick awakening from general anaesthesis
d-Increase of the stress response
Ans-D

71-Corneal manifestation of Wilson’s disease is :

a-Fleischer Ring b-Arcus Juvenilis
c-Keyser Fleischer Ring d-Band Keratopathy
Ans-C

72-Diabetic retinopathy causes :

a-Traction Retinal Detachment b-Neovascular glaucoma
c-Vitreos haemorrhage d-All of the above
Ans-D

73-Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis is caused by:

a-Contact Lens wear b-Ocular Prosthesis
c-Protruding corneal sutures d-All of the above
Ans-D

74-Ethambutol toxicity leads to :

a-Steven Johnson syndrome
b-Pupillary dilatation
c-Visual loss with colour vision defects
d-Bull’s eye retinopathy
Ans-C

75- Field defect seen in papilledema

a-Seidel’s scotoma
b-Constriction of peripheral fields
c-Centro-caecal scotoma
d-None of the above.
Ans-

76- Dysphagia for fluids but not to solids is seen in :

a-Stricture
b-Achalasia
c-Carcinoma oesophagus
d-Reflux oesopagitis
Ans-B

77-Epistaxia in elderly person is common in:

a-Foreign body b-Allergic rhinitis
c-Hypertension d-Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Ans-C

78-Cerebello pontine angle tumour is most commonly:

a-Acoustic neuroma b-Cholesteatoma
c-Meningioma d-All of the above
Ans-A

79-Gradenigo’s syndrome does not consist of:

a-Abduscent nerve palsy b-Palatal palsy
c-Aural discha d-Retro orbital pain
Ans-B

80-Early symptoms of carcinoma larynx:

a-Dysphagia b-Cough
c-Haemoptysis d-Hoarseness of voice
Ans-D

81-Physiologically, oxytocin is characterized by all except:

a-Circulates entirely in free forem
b-Plasma half life 5-7 minutes
c-Level increase during labor
d-Released in pulsatile fashion
Ans-C

82-Studies have indicated the most important of the components of the Bishop score to be that related to:
a-Dilatation b-Effacement
c-Station d-Consistency
Ans-A

Karnataka 2004 PREPG with answers

83-The factor that is likely to influence the rate of relapce and prognosis in patients with ovarian cancer is:
a-Tumor grade b-Tumor stage
c-Intraoperative Rupture of tumor d-Presence of dence adhesion
Ans-C

84-Most common symptom associatd with uterine myomas:

a-Menorrhagia b-Metrorrhagia
c-Pressure d-Urinary frequency
Ans-A

85-How much is the risk of ovarian cancer increased above normal in a women with nonautosomal dominant
genotype with one first degree related with ovarian cancer:
a-2-3 times b-5 times
c-10 times d-20 times
Ans-A

86-What is the most common method for detecting early stage ovarian cancer?
a-Evaluaation of vague gastrointestinal symtomss
b-Palpation of an asymptomatic mass during routine pelvic examination
c-Screening CA 125
d-Screening vaginal ultrasound
Ans-B

87-Which ultrasound finding with an adnexal mass is most suspicious for malignancy?
a-8 cm in diameter b-Several internal excrescences
c-Cyctic with two thin septations d-Freee pelvic fluid
Ans-B

88-The most common major complication with Laparoscopic hysterectomy is:

a-Urinary tract injury b-Bowel injury
c-Uncontrolled bleeding d-Pulmonary embolus
Ans-A

89-The patient with pre-eclampsia diagnosed remote from term, which of the following is NOT necessarily
an indication for expeditious delivery:
a-Blood Pressure 170/115 on medication
b-Proteinuria 5g per 24 hours
c-Platelet count 80,000/ul
d-Serum transaminase levels three times normal
Ans-B

90-Independent risk factors for pre-eclampsia include all except:

a-hyper homocycteinemia b-Race
c-Number of partners d-Family history
Ans-B

91-Pregnancy- associated risk factor for pre-eclampsia include all except:

a-Rh Incompatibility b-Multiple pregnancy
c-Fetal structural abnormalities d-trisomy 13
Ans-A

92-The severity of pelvic pain in patients with endometriosis correlated best with:
a-Number of implants b-Depth of invasion of lesions
c-Type of lesions d-stage of disease
Ans-B

93-accepted indication for Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) in endometriosis patients include all
of the following except:
a-Advanced disease b-At least one year of infertility
c-Multifactorial infertility d-Advanced disease
Ans-B

94-The data are most convincing for which theory as the pathogenesis of endometriosis in the peritoneal
cavity:
a-Coelomic metaplasia b-Induction
c-Embryonic rests d-Lymphatic & vascular metastasis
Ans-C

95-Endometroisis has been found in all of the following location except:

a-spleen b-Central Nervous system
b-Exatremities d-Pancreas
Ans-A

96-controlled ovarian hyperstimulation as a treatment for infertility is most useful in which patient:
a-Women with premature ovarian failure
b-Women undergoing cancer therapy
c-Couples undergoing artificial insemination
Ans-C
97-The formation of primordial follicle in human fetus is completed by:
a-4 weeks b-8 weeks
c-13 weeks d-18 weeks
Ans-D

98-During pregnancy there is an increased respiratory sensitivity to Carbon dioxide due to higher circulating
level of:
a-Progesterone b-Estrogen
c-Estriol d-Prolactin
Ans-A

99-An effective and safe treatment for recurrent lag cramps in the second half of pregnancy is:
a-Vitamin C b-Vitamin D
c-Acetaminophen d-Calcium 1 gm. Twice daily for 2 weeks
Ans-D

100-The Ureter:
a-Crosses superior to the uterine artery in the Broad ligament
b-Derives its sympathetic nerve supply from the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerve roots
c-Is widest at the pelvic ureteric junction
d-Derives its blood supply entirely from the renal and superior vesical arteries
Ans-B

101-Who said these words: “To study phenomenon of disease without books is to sail an uncharted sea,
while to study without patients is not to go to sea at all”
a-Hamilton Bailey b-Sir Robert Hutchison
c-Sir William Osler d-J.B.Murphy
Ans-C

102-T1 & T2 images are a feature of which diagnostic test?

a-Ultrasound b-C. T. scan
c-Duplex scan d-MRI scan
Ans-d

103-Who said: “SKIN is the best dressing?

a-Joseph Lister b-John Hunter
c-James Paget d-McNeill Love
Ans-A

104-How do you get an ideal scar?

a-Achieve quite, secondry healing b-Ensure tight closure of the SKIN
c-Give antibiotics d-Minimize tension
Ans-D

105-Hypokalemic alkalosis is commonly seen in surgical wards in:

a-Excessive absorption of alkali b-Excessive vomiting in pyloric stenosis
c-Eessive steroid use d-Diarrhoea with dehydration
Ans-B

106-5% dextrose in normal saline is :

a-Hypotonic b-Isotonic
c-Hypertonic d-A blood substitute
Ans-B

107-Infection with Hepatitis B virus is associated with the appearance in the blood of all of the following
except:
a-Hepatitis B antibody b-Hepatitis B surface antigen
c-The Dane particle d-DNA polymerase activity
Ans-A

108-Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at a microscopic level is called:

a-Hyperplasia b-Metaplaisa
c-Dyplasia d-Carcinoma in sutu
Ans-C

109-The best guide to adequate tissue perfusion in the fluid management of a patient with burns, is to
ensure a minimum hourly urine output of:
a-10-30 ml b-30-50 ml
c-50-70 ml d-70-100 ml
Ans-B

110-Example of indirect traumatic gangrene are all except:

a-Use of local anaesthetic with adrenaline and tourniquet for digits
b-Pressure of fractured bone on main artery to a limb
c-Thrombosis of large artery following injury
d-That resulting from crush or pressure injury
Ans-A

111-Axillary vein thrombosis is NOT a complication of :

a-Throracic outlet syndrome b-Simple mastectomy
c-Excessive upper limb exercise d-Strap-hangers
Ans-B

112-The four points of probe placement in Focuced Abdominal Sonogram for Trauma (FAST) in blunt
thoraco-abdominal trauma are:
a-Epigastrium , R hypochondrium , (L) Lower chest, hypogastrium
b-Epigastrium, R & (L) Hypochondria R Iiiac fossa
c-Epigastrium, r 7 (L) Lumbar regions, hypogastrium
d-Hypogastrium, r& (L) Lumbar region,R lower chest
Ans-A

113-In the acronym “SWELLING” used for the history and examination of a lumb or swelling , the letter ‘N’
stands for:
a-Nodes b-Noise (Thrill/bruit)
c-Numbness d-Neurological effects
Ans-B

114-A position Froment’s sign is associated with palsy of which nerve?

a-Median b-Axillary
c-Radial d-Ulnar
Ans-D

115-Acute bactorial sailadenitis is managed by:

a-Immediate sialography
b-Fluid intake restriction
c-Cuture of the FNAC from the involved gland
d-Use of broad spectrum antibiotics
Ans-D

116-A branchial cyst develops from the vestigial remnants of the :

a-2nd branchial cleft b-3rd branchial cleft
c-1st branchial cleft d-4th branchial cleft
Ans-A

117-About follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland:

a-FNAC is diagnostic
b-Lymph node metasteses are common
c-Distant metastases are more common
d-Local recurrence rates are low
Ans-C

118-Poland’s syndrome of the congenital absence of the sternal head of the pestoralis major muscle is
associated with:
a-Mastalgia b-Amazia
c-Polymazia d-Gynecomazia
Ans-B

119-Chest drain insretion is safest when perfomed:

a-In the apex of the chest for pneumothorax
b-In the base of the chest for haemothorax
c-In the ‘triangle of safety’ on the antero-lateral chest wall
d-With the smallest bore chest tube available
Ans-C

120-Disparity of the bowel ends during end to end anastamosis is corrected by:
a-Cheatle’s manoeuvre b-Connell suture
c-Lembert suture d-Czerny technique
Ans-A

121-Odynophagia is :
a-Throat pain b-Pain on swallowing
c-Heartburn d-Painless dysphagia
ans-B

122-For inoperable gastric neoplasms involving the cardia, the best palliation is by:
a-Intubation b-Exclusion
c-Pre-sternal bypass d-Gastroenterostomy
Ans-A

123-Vascular inflow occlusion of the liver is by:

a-Clambing the hepatic artery b-Occluding the portal vein
c-Clambing the hepatic veins d-The pringle manoeuvre
Ans-D

124-Splenic abscess is best treated by:

a-Open splenectomy
b-Laparoscopic splectomy
c-Percutaneous drainage under image guidance
d-Antibiotic only
Ans-C
125-“Limey bile” is :
a-Present in the CBD
b-Thin and clear
c-Like toothpaste emulsion in the gall bladder
d-Bacterial rich
Ans-C

126-Myelin around central nervous axons is laid down by:

a-Microglia b-Schwann cells
c-Oligodendrocytes d-Protoplasmic astrocytes
Ans-C

127-Posterior belly of digastric is supplied by:

a-Facial nerve b-Mandibular nerve
c-Spinal accessory nerve d-Ansa cervicalis
Ans-A

128-The paranasal air sinuses opening into the middle meatus include all except:
a-Frontal sinus b-Maxillary sinus
c-Posterior ethmoidal sinus d-Anterior ethmoidal sinus
Ans-C

129-The following are the branches of the internal iliac artery except:
a-Ovarian artery b-Uterine artery
c-Superior vesical artery d-Obturator artery
Ans-A

130-Which one of the followinf is attached to the lingual of the mandible?

a-Stylomandiblar ligament
b-Sphenomandibular ligament
c-Pterygomandibular raphe
d-Middle constrictor of pharynx
Ans-B

131-The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli is
greatest on:
a-The lips b-The palm of the hand
c-The back of scapula d-The dorsum of the hand
Ans-C

132-The visceral pain:

a-Shows relatively rapid adaption
b-Mediated by ‘B’ fibre in the dorsal root of spinal nerve
c-Can sometimes be relieved by applying an irritant to the SKIN
d-Most closely resemble fast pain produced by naxious stimulation of the SKIN
Ans-C

133-The fourth heart sound is caused by:

a-Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices
b-Vibration of the ventricular wall during systole
c-Ventricualr filling
d-Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices
Ans-C

Karnataka 2004 PG paper

134-Lymphocytes:
a-All originate from bone marrow after birth
b-Are unaffected by harmone
c-Converted to monocytes in response to antigens
d-Are part of body’s defence against cancer
Ans-D

135-Which of the follwing has the highest pH?

a-Gastric juice b-Bile in the gallbladder
c-Pancreatic juice d-Saliva
Ans-C

136-The concentration of sphingomyelins are increased in:

a-Gauche’s disease b-Fabry’s disease
c-Febrile disease d-Niemann-Pck disease
Ans-D

137-Salivary amylase is activated by:

a-Na+ b-K+
c-HCO3- d-Cl-
Ans-D

138-Glucose increase plasma insuline by a process that invoves:

a-GLVT1 b-GLVT2
c-GLVT3 d-SGLT1
Ans-B

139-In the body, metabolism of 10 gms. of protein would produce approximately:

a-1 K calorie b-41 K calories
c-410 K calories d-41 calories
Ans-B

140-Refsum’s disease is a rere neurological disorser caused by:

a-Accumulation of glutamic acid
b-Accumulation of glycine
c-Accumulation of phytanic acid
d-Accumulation of phnylalanine
And-C

141-The term physical half life is applicable to:

a-Repository preparations b-Prodrugs
c-Radioactive isotopes d-Alkylating agents
Ans-C

142-The antiretroviral drug which is also effective in chronic active hepatitia-B infection is:
a-Zidovudine b-Nelfinavir
c-Efavirenz d-Procarbazine
Ans-D

143-The drug of choice ofr chronic myeloid leukaemia is:

a-Chlorambucil b-Busulfan
c-Vincristine d-Procarbazine
Ans-B

144-Which of the follwing antipileptic drug does not produce Hepatic Micromosomal enzyme induction?
a-Phenobarbitone b-Carbamazepine
c-phenytoin d-Sodium valproate
Ans-D

145-The antithyroid drug preferred for use during pregnancy and lactation is:
a-Propylthiouracil b-Methimazole
c-Carbimazole d-Radioactive iodine
Ans-A

146-The antibiotic known to cause “Red Man’s “ syndrome is:

a-clindamycin b-Cefadroxil
c-Vancomycin d-Azithromycin
Ans-C

147-The local anaethetic known to cause Methaemoglobinaemia as adverse effect is :

a-Lidocaine b-Bupivacaine
c-Tetracaine d-Prilocaine
Ans-D

148-Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants undergoes Hoffmann elimination?

a-Pancuronium b-Rocuronium
c-Atracurium d-Succinyl choline
Ans-C

149-Which of the follwing antitubercular drugs does not cause hepatotoxicity?

a-Isoniazid b-Ethambutol
c-Pyrazinamide d-rifampicin
Ans-B

150-The betablocker having intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is:

a-Propronolol b-Atenolol
c-Sotalol d-Pindolol
Ans-D

151-Myasthenia gravis may be associated with

a-Thymoma b- Systematic LUPUS erythematosus
c-Hyperthyroidism d-All of the above
Ans-D

152-Example of PRION disease include:

a-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b-Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
c-Alzheimer’s disease d-None of the above
Ans-A
153-The treatment of Herpes simplex viral encephalitis should include:
a-Zidovudine b-Acyclovir
c-Didanosine d-Symptomatic treatment only
Ans-B

154-The drug found to be beneficial in amytrophic lateral sclerosis is:

a-Riluzole b-Methylprednisolone
c-Hydroxyurea d-None of the above
Ans-A

155-The drug of choice for a patient with a combination of primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures and
absence seizures is:
a-Ethosuximide b-Carbamazepine
c-Valproic acid d-Phenytoin sodium
Ans-C

156-Complication of Paget’s disease include:

a-High output cardiac failure b-Osteogenic sarcoma
c-Pathologic fractures d-All of the above
Ans-D

157-Causes of Rickets include:

a-Dietary phosphate deficiency
b-Distal renal tubular acidosis
c-Small intestinal disease with malabsoption
d-All of the above
Ans-D

158-Causes of hypercalcemia include:

a-Hyperthyroidism b-Hypothyroidism
c-Hypoparathyroidism d-None of the above
Ans-A

159-Drugs useful in the treatment of acute gouty arthritis include:

a-Allopurinol b-Colchicine
c-Probenicid d-Sulfinpyrazone
Ans-B

160-Drugs considered safe in patients with acute intermittent porphyria include:

a-Phenobarbitone b-Valproic acid
c-Carbamazepine d-Narcotic analgesics
Ans-D

161-The level of LDL cholestrol at which therapy should be intiated in a aotient without coronary artery
disease and no risk factor is:
a-100 mg/ dL b-130 mg/ dL
c-160 mg/ dL d-190 mg / dL
Ans-C, D

162-The most common karyotypic abnormality associated with Turner syndrome is :

a-45, X b-46, XY
c-47, XXY d-45, Y
Ans-A

163-Insulin resistance is defined as a daily requirement of insulin greater than:

a-100 units b-150 units
c-200 units d-250 units
Ans-C

164-The treatment of choice for hypertension in a patient with phaeochromocytoma:

a-Alpha adrenergic blocking agents
b-Beta adrenergic blocking agents
c-Calcium channel blockers
d-Angiotensin receptor blockers
Ans-A

165-Nelson’s syndrome is a complication of:

a-Unilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome
b-Bilateral adrenalectomy for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
c-Excision of a pituitary tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperlasia
d-Excision of a hypothalamic tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
Ans-B

166-The electrolyte abnormality typical seen in primary aldosteronism is:

a-Hypokalemia b-Hyperkalemia
c-Hyponatremia d-Hypernatremia
Ans-A

167-The feature of subacute thyroiditis include:

a-Elevated T3 & T4 levels b-Depressed TSH levels
c-Depressed RAIU d-All of the above
Ans-D

168-SIADH typical causes:

a-Hypernatremia and a urinary osmolality300 mmol/Kg
c-Hyponatremia & a urinary osmollity300 mmol/Kg
Ans-D

169- The most common manifestations in Takayasu’s arteritis are related to

occlusion of:
a-Abdominal aorta b-Renal arteries
c-Subclavian arteries d-Pulmonary arteries
Ans-C

170-Nucleoside analogues used in the treatment of HIV infection include:

a-Indinavir b-Nevirapine
c-Didanosine d-Efavirenz
Ans-C

171-Drugs used in the treatment of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia include:

a-Trimethoprin-sulfamethoxazole b-Dapsone
c-Clindamycin d-All of the above
Ans-D
172-Drugs useful in the treatment of chronic hepatitis C include:
a-Glucocorticoids b-Interferon alpha
c-hydroxyurea d-None of the above
Ans-B

173-Finding suggestive of an obstructive jaundice on a liver function test is a marked elevation of:
a-Unconjugated bilirubin b-Conjugated bilirubin
c-Alkaline phosphatase d-AST and ALT
Ans-C

174-An abnormal D-xylase test is suggestive of:

a-Pancreatic insufficiency
b-Hepatic insufficiency
c-A mucosal abnormality of proximal small intestine
d-Colonic disease
Ans-C

175-In a patient with hypoxemia the finding suggestive of hypoventilation on an arterial blood gas analysis
is:
a-Elevated PaCO2 b-Decreased PaCO2
c-Elavated pH d-None of t he above
Ans-A

176-PQLI stands for:

a-Physical quality of life index
b-Physical quantity of life index
c-Physiological quality of life index
d-Psychological quality of life index
Ans-A

177-Mean, Medium and Mode are:

a-Measure of dispersion
b-Measure association between two variables
c-Test of significance
d-Measure of central tendency
Ans-D

178-Incidence rate refers to:

a-Only old cases b-Both old and new cases
c-Only new cases d-None of the above
Ans-C

179-Generation time in epidemiology id defined as:

a-The interval between marriage and the birth of first child
b-The interval of time between the receipt of infection by host and maximal infectivity of the host
c-The interval of time between primary case and secondry cases
d-Interval of time between invasion by infection agent and appearance of first sign or symprom of the
disease/ in question
Ans-B

180-In the demographic cycle, India is in the :

a-High stationary stage b-Early expanding stage
c-Late expanding stage d-Low stationary stage
Ans-C

181-The overall prevalence of tuberculosis infection in India as per 4th round of longitudinal survey was:
a-20% b-30%
c-40% d-50%
Ans-B

182-Pulse polio immunization is administration of OPV to:

a-All children between 0-5 years of age on a single day, irrespective of their previous immunization status
b-Children in the age group of 0-1 year only who have not been immunized earlier
c-Children in the age group of 12-24 months only,as the booster dose
d-All children between 0-5 years of sge, whenever there is an outbreak of poliomyelitis
Ans-A

183-In high risk areas the radial treatment for plasmodium vivax infection sfter microscopic confermation is
administration of tablets primaquine in the daily dosage of:
a-0.25 mg/Kg body weight b-0.50 mg/Kg body weight
c-0.75 mg/Kg body weight c-1.00 mg/Kg body weight
Ans-A

184-Couple protection rate in India is:

a-30.8 % b-46.2%
b-62.4% d-85.7%
Ans-B

185-By international agreement , low birth weight has been defined as a birth weight when measured within
the first hour of life is:
a-Less than 2000 grams b-Less than 2500 grams
c-Less than 2800 grams d-Less than 3000 grams
Ans-B

186-For an adult Indian male the daily requirement of protein is expressed as:
a-0.5 gms/ Kg body weight b-0.75 gms/Kg body weight
c-1.0 gms/ Kg body weight d-1.50 gms/Kg body weight
Ans-C

187-Lathyrism is due to consumption of :

a-Red gram dhal b-Contaminated ground nuts
c-Bengal gram dhal d-Khesari dhal
Ans-D

188-Temporary hardness of water is due to presence of :

a-Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
b-Chlorides of calcium and magnesium
c-Nitrates of calcium and magnesium
d-Oxides of calcium and magnesium
Ans-A

189-Kata thermometer measures:

a-Air temperature only
b-Air temperature and humidity
c-Air temperature humidity & air movement
d-None of the above
Ans-C

190-The optimum floor space recommended per adult person in a dwelling place is:
a-50-100 sq. ft. b-101-150 sq.ft.
c-151-200 sq.ft. d-201-250 sq. ft.
Ans-A

191-An upper limit of noise which people can tolerate without sub damage to their hearing is:
a-45 db b-65 db
c- 85 db d- 105 db
Ans-C

192-The permissible dose of amn made radiation should not exceed:

a-3 rads per year b-5 rads per year
c-8 rads per year d-10 rads per year
Ans-B

193-The mean radient temperature is measured by:

a-Dry bulb thermometer
b-Wet bulb thermometer
c-six’s maximum and minimum thermometer
Ans-D

194-Following latrines are suitable for camps and temporary use except:
a-Shollow trench latrine b- Pit latrine
c-Borehole latrine d-Septic tank
Ans-D

195-Sand fly transmit the following disease except:

a-Relapsing fever b-Kala azar
c-Sand- fly fever d-Oraya fever
Ans-A

196-The following drugs cause methemoglobinemia:

a-Aniline b-Dapsone
c-Nitrates d-All of the above
Ans-D

197-The following drugs are useful in the treatment of isonized poisoning:

a-Pyridoxine b-Diazepam
c-Bicarbonate d-All of the above
Ans-D

198-Gastric lavage is contraindicated in the following :

a-Barbiturate poisoning b-Kerosene poisoning
c-Paracetamol poisoning d-None of the above
Ans-B

199-The following is not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:

a-Lateral rectus palsy b-Paralysis of conjugate dominant
c-Pupilary dilation d-Nystagmus
Ans-C

200-The inheritance in Dechenne muscular dystrophy is:

a-X- linked recessive b-Autosomal dominant
c-Autosomal recessive d-Polygenic
Ans-A"