Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
Mohamed Bashir
Preface
This book has been produced to meet the Learning Objectives for the EASA ATPL written
examinations. The most effective method of passing the EASA written tests has been proven to be
a complete understanding of the material, backed up by questioning in each subject. This course as
provided by Gulf Coast Training solutions does just that, and has shown examination pass rates
exceeding the national average.
6.Flight Planning and Monitoring (033) 13. VFR & IFR Communications (090)
7.Human Performance & Limitations (040) 14. Reference Manual CAP 696 / 697 / 698
While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy of the content of this book, neither Gulf Coast Training
Solutions nor their training partners are liable for any discrepancies that may be found. Any reference within the text of
this manual to JAR FCL or JAR-OPS may be considered to be EASA Part FCL or EU-OPS respectively.
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Chapter List
Airlaw
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Chapter 1
Definitions
These are the abbreviations and definitions from ICAO Annex 2 that you must become familiar with
and be able to recall and decode during examination.
Abbreviations
ABM Abeam
ABN Aerodrome beacon
ACAS Airborne collision avoidance system
ACFT Aircraft
ACT Active
AD Aerodrome
ADDN Additional
AFIS Aerodrome flight information service
AFM Aircraft flight manual
AGL Above ground level
AIP Aeronautical Information Publication
ALT Altitude
ALTN Alternate
AMSL Above mean sea level
APCH Approach
APT Airport
ARR Arrival
ASDA Accelerate-Stop Distance Avialable
ATA Actual time of arrival
ATC Air traffic control
ATIS Automatic terminal information service
ATO Actual time overhead
ATS Air traffic services
AWY Airway
BRG Bearing
C of A Certificate of Airworthiness
CAA Civil Aviation Authority
CAS Controlled Airspace
CO Communications
CRM Crew resource management
CTR Control zone
CWY Clearway
D/F Direction finding
DA Decision altitude
DEG Degrees
DEP Departure
DES Descent
DEST Destination
DEV Deviation
DH Decision height
DIST Distance
DME Distance measuring equipment
DR Dead reckoning
NAV Navigation
NDB Non-directional beacon
NGT Night
NOTAM Notice to airmen
O/R On request
OCA Oceanic Control Area
OCA(H) Obstacle clearance altitude (height)
SFC Surface
SID Standard instrument departure
SIGMET Significant Meteorological Warning
SIM Simulator
SPECI Special Met Report
SS Sunset
SSR Secondary surveillance radar
STAR Standard Instrument Arrival
STD Standard
STN Station
STNR Stationary
SVFR Special VFR
SWY Stop way
T/O Take-off
TA Transition altitude
TAF Terminal Area Forecast
TCA Terminal Control Area
TCAS Traffic collision avoidance system
TDP Take-off decision point
THR Threshold
TL Transition level
TOC Top of climb
TODA Take-off Distance Available
TORA Take off run available
TWR Tower
TWY Taxiway
U/S Unserviceable
UIR Upper Information Region
UTC Coordinated universal time
VRB Variable
VV Vertical visibility
WC Wind component
WCA Wind correction angle
WEF With Effect From
WPT Way point
WS Wind shear
WX Weather
Definitions
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). A publication issued by or with the authority of a State
and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
Aeronautical mobile service. A mobile service between aeronautical stations and aircraft stations,
or between aircraft stations, in which survival craft stations may participate. Emergency position-
indicating radio beacon stations may also participate in this service on designated distress and
emergency frequencies.
Aeronautical station. A land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an
aeronautical station may be located, for example, on board ship or on a platform at sea.
Aeronautical telecommunication service. A telecommunication service provided for any
aeronautical purpose.
Aeronautical telecommunication station. A station in the aeronautical telecommunication service.
Aeroplane. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed under given conditions of flight.
Aeroplane reference field length. The minimum field length required for take-off at maximum
certificated take-off mass, sea level, standard atmospheric conditions, still air and zero runway slope,
as shown in the appropriate aeroplane flight manual prescribed by the certificating authority or
equivalent data from the aeroplane manufacturer. Field length means balance field length for
aeroplanes, if applicable, or take-off distance in other cases.
AIP Amendment. Permanent changes to the information contained in the AIP.
AIP Supplement. Temporary changes to the information contained in the AIP which are published by
means of special pages.
AIRAC. An acronym (Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control) signifying a system aimed at
advance notification based on common effective dates, or circumstances that necessitate changes in
operating practices.
Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS). An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance
radar (SSR) transponder signals which operates independently of ground-based equipment to
provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders.
Aircraft. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other
than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface.
Aircraft address. A unique combination of 24 bits available for assignment to an aircraft for the
purpose of air-ground communications, navigation and surveillance.
Aircraft – category. Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics, e.g
aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon.
Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation. A type of aircraft, which the State of Registry has
determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a minimum crew of one
pilot.
Aircraft equipment. Articles, other than stores and spare parts of a removable nature, for use on
board an aircraft during flight, including first-aid and survival equipment.
Aircraft identification. A group of letters, figures or a combination thereof which is either identical
to, or the coded equivalent of, the aircraft call sign to be used in air-ground communications, and
which is used to identify the aircraft in ground-ground air traffic services communications.
Aircraft observation. The evaluation of one or more meteorological elements made from an aircraft
in flight.
Aircraft proximity. A situation in which, in the opinion of a pilot or air traffic services personnel, the
distance between aircraft as well as their relative positions and speed have been such that the safety
of the aircraft involved may have been compromised. Aircraft proximity is classified as follows:
a. Risk of collision. The risk classification of an aircraft proximity in which serious risk of collision has
existed
b. Safety not assured. The risk classification of an aircraft proximity in which
the safety of the aircraft may have been compromised
c. No risk of collision. The risk classification of an aircraft proximity in which no risk of collision has
existed
d. Risk not determined. The risk classification of an aircraft proximity in which insufficient
information was available to determine the risk involved, or inconclusive or conflicting evidence
precluded such determination
Aircraft stand. A designated area on an apron intended to be used for parking an aircraft.
Aircraft – type of. All aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto except
those modifications that result in a change in handling or flight characteristics.
Air-ground communication. Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on
the surface of the earth.
Air-ground control radio station. An aeronautical telecommunication station having primary
responsibility for handling communications pertaining to the operation and control of aircraft in a
given area.
Airline. As provided in Article 96 of the Convention, any air transport enterprise offering or
operating a scheduled international air service.
Airline and operators’ documents. Air waybills/consignment notes, passenger tickets and boarding
passes, bank and agent settlement plan documents, excess baggage tickets, miscellaneous charges
orders (MCO), damage and irregularity reports, baggage and cargo labels, timetables, and weight
and balance documents, for use by airlines and operators.
AIRMET information. Information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the
safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for
low-level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof.
AIRPROX information. The code word used in an air traffic incident report to designate aircraft
proximity.
Air-report. A report from an aircraft in flight prepared in conformity with requirements for position,
and operational and/or meteorological reporting.
Air side. The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof, access
to which is controlled.
Air-taxiing. Movement of a helicopter/VTOL above the surface of an aerodrome, normally in ground
effect and at a ground speed normally less than 20 kt (37 km/h). Note: The actual height may vary,
and some helicopters may require air-taxiing above 25 ft (8 m) AGL to reduce ground effect
turbulence or provide clearance for cargo sling loads.
Air-to-ground communication. One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the
surface of the earth.
Air traffic. All aircraft in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome.
Air traffic advisory service. A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so
far as practical, between aircraft that are operating on IFR flight plans.
Air traffic control clearance. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by
an air traffic control unit.
Air traffic control instruction. Directives issued by air traffic control for the purpose of requiring a
pilot to take a specific action.
Air traffic control service. A service provided for the purpose of:
a. preventing collisions between aircraft, and on the maneuvering area between aircraft and
obstructions.
b. expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Air traffic control unit. A generic term meaning variously, area control center, approach control
office or aerodrome control tower.
Air traffic service. A generic term meaning variously, flight information service, alerting service, air
traffic advisory service, air traffic control service (area control service, approach control service or
aerodrome control service).
Air traffic services airspaces. Airspaces of defined dimensions, alphabetically designated, within
which specific types of flights may operate and for which air traffic services and rules of operation
are specified. Note: ATS airspaces are classified as Class A to G.
Air traffic services reporting office. A unit established for the purpose of receiving reports
concerning air traffic services and flight plans submitted before departure. Note: An air traffic
services reporting office may be established as a separate unit or combined with an existing unit,
such as another air traffic services unit, or a unit of the aeronautical information service.
Air traffic services unit. A generic term meaning variously, air traffic control unit, flight information
centre or air traffic services reporting office.
Airway. A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor.
ALERFA. The code word used to designate an alert phase.
Alerting service. A service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of
search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required.
Alert phase. A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
Allocation, allocate. Distribution of frequencies, SSR Codes, etc. to a State, unit or service.
Distribution of 24-bit aircraft addresses to a State or common mark registering authority.
Alphanumeric characters (alphanumerics). A collective term for letters and figures (digits).
Alternate aerodrome. An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either
impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing. Alternative
aerodromes include the following:
a. Take-off alternate - an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should this become
necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure
b. En-route alternate - an aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after experiencing
an abnormal or emergency condition while en route
c. Destination alternate - an alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed should it become
impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing Note: The aerodrome from
which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight.
Altitude. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from
the mean sea level (MSL).
Approach control office. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled flights
arriving at, or departing from, one or more aerodromes.
Approach control service. Air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights.
Approach funnel. A specified airspace around a nominal approach path within which an aircraft
approaching to land is considered to be making a normal approach.
Approach sequence. The order in which two or more aircraft are cleared to approach to land at the
aerodrome.
Appropriate ATS authority. The relevant authority designated by the State responsible for providing
air traffic services in the airspace concerned.
Appropriate authority.
a. Regarding flight over the high seas, the relevant authority is the State of Registry
b. Regarding flight other than over the high seas, the relevant authority is the State having
sovereignty over the territory being overflown
Apron. A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of
loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance.
Apron management service. A service provided to regulate the activities and the movement of
aircraft and vehicles on an apron.
Area control center. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled flights in
control areas under its jurisdiction.
Area control service. Air traffic control service for controlled flights in control areas.
Area navigation (RNAV). A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired
flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limit of the
capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.
Area navigation route. An ATS route established for the use of aircraft capable of employing area
navigation.
Arrival routes. Routes identified in an instrument approach procedure by which aircraft may
proceed from the en-route phase of flight to an initial approach fix.
ASHTAM. A special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format change in activity of a
volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to aircraft operations.
Assignment, assign. Distribution of frequencies to stations. Distribution of SSR Codes or 24-bit
aircraft addresses to aircraft.
ATIS. The symbol used to designate automatic terminal information service.
ATS route. A specified route designed for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision
of air traffic services. Note: The term "ATS route" is used to mean variously, airway, advisory route,
controlled or uncontrolled route, arrival or departure route, etc.
Automatic terminal information services (ATIS). The automatic provision of current, routine
information to arriving and departing aircraft throughout 24 hours or a specified portion thereof.
a. Data link-automatic terminal information service (D-ATIS) The provision of ATIS via data link
b. Voice-automatic terminal information service (Voice-ATIS) The provision of ATIS by means of
continuous and repetitive voice broadcasts
Baggage. Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the
operator.
Barrette. Three or more aeronautical ground lights closely spaced in a traverse line so that from a
distance they appear as a short bar of light.
Base turn. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the
outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not
reciprocal. Note: Base turns may be designated as being made either in level flight or while
descending, according to the circumstances of each individual procedure.
Blind transmission. A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-
way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to
receive the transmission.
Broadcast. A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific
station or stations.
Capacitor discharge light. A lamp in which high-intensity flashes of extremely short duration are
produced by the discharge of electricity at high voltage through a gas enclosed in a tube.
Cargo. Any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores and accompanied or mishandled
baggage.
Certify as airworthy (to). To certify that an aircraft or parts thereof comply with current
airworthiness requirements after maintenance has been performed on the aircraft or parts thereof.
Change-over-point. The point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATS route segment defined by
reference to very high frequency omnidirectional radio ranges (VOR) is expected to transfer its
primary navigational reference from the facility behind the aircraft to the next facility ahead of the
aircraft.
Circling approach. An extension of an instrument approach procedure that provides for visual
circling of the aerodrome prior to landing.
Clearance limit. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
Clearway. A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriate
authority selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its
initial climb to a specified height.
Cloud Ceiling. The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below
6,000 m (20,000 ft) covering more than half the sky. Code (SSR Code). The number assigned to a
particular multiple pulse reply signal transmitted by a transponder in Mode A or Mode C.
Common mark. A mark assigned by the International Civil Aviation Organization to the common
mark registering authority registering aircraft of an international operating agency on other than a
national basis. Note: All aircraft of an international operating agency which are registered on
other than a national basis will bear the same common mark.
Common mark registering authority. The authority maintaining the non-national register or, where
appropriate, the part thereof, in which aircraft of an international operating agency are registered.
Configuration (as applied to the aeroplane). A particular combination of the positions of the
moveable elements, such as wing flaps, landing gear, etc., which affect the aerodynamic
characteristics of the aeroplane.
Control area. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
Controlled aerodrome. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome
traffic. Note: The term “controlled aerodrome” indicates that air traffic control service is provided to
aerodrome traffic but does not necessarily imply that a control zone exists.
Controlled airspace. An airspace of dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to
IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. Note: Controlled airspace
is a generic term which covers ATS airspace Classes A, B, C, D and E.
Controlled flight. Any flight that is subject to an air traffic control clearance.
Controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC). A means of communication between controller
and pilot, using data link for ATC communications.
Control zone. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified
upper limit.
Co-pilot. A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-in command but
excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction.
Crew member. A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during flight.
Critical power-unit(s). The power-unit(s) failure of which gives the most adverse effect on the
aircraft characteristics relative to the case under consideration.
Cruise climb. An aeroplane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the aeroplane
mass decreases.
Cruising level. A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.
Current flight plan. The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent
clearances.
Danger area. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of
aircraft may exist at specified times.
Data link communications. The form of communication intended for the exchange of messages via a
data link.
Dead reckoning (DR) navigation. The estimating or determining of position by advancing an earlier
known position by the application of direction, time and speed data.
Decision altitude (DA) or decision height (DH). A specified altitude of height (A/H) in the precision
approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue
the approach has not been established.
Notes:
1. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean seal level (MSL) and decision height (DH) is
referenced to the threshold elevation.
2. The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which
should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft
position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path.
Declared distances.
a. Take-off run available (TORA) - the length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground
run of an aeroplane taking off
b. Take-off distance available (TODA) - the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway, if provided
c. Accelerate stop distance available (ASDA) - the length of the take-off run available plus the length
of any stopway, if provided
d. Landing distance available (LDA) - the length of runway that is declared available and suitable for
the ground run of an aeroplane landing
Elevation. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth,
measured from mean sea level.
Emergency phase. A generic term meaning, as the case may be, uncertainty phase, alert phase and
distress phase.
Estimated elapsed time. The estimated time required to proceed from one significant point to
another.
Estimated off-block time. The estimated time at which the aircraft will commence movement
associated with departure.
Estimated time of arrival. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive
over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an
instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no navigation aid is associated with the
aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome. For VFR flights, the time at
which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome.
Expected approach time. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay,
will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing. Note: The actual time of leaving
the holding point will depend upon the approach clearance.
Filed flight plan. The flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or a designated representative,
without any subsequent changes.
Final approach. That part of a instrument approach procedure which commences at the specified
final approach fix or point, or where such a fix or point is not specified,
a. at the end of the last procedure turn, base turn or inbound turn of a racetrack procedure, if
specified, or
b. at the point of interception of the last track specified in the approach procedure, and ends at a
point in the vicinity of an aerodrome from which:
• a landing can be made, or
• a missed approach procedure is initiated
Final approach segment. That segment of an instrument approach procedure in which alignment
and descent for landing are accomplished.
Fixed light. A light having constant luminous intensity when observed from a fixed point.
Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the operation of an
aircraft during flight time.
Flight information center. A unit established to provide flight information service and alerting
service.
Flight information region. An airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information service
and alerting service are provided.
Flight information service. A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information
useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
Flight level. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure, which is related to a specific pressure
datum, 1013.2 hectopascals (hPa) and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure
intervals. Note: A pressure type altimeter calibrated in accordance with the Standard Atmosphere:
a. when set to a QNH altimeter setting, will indicate altitude
b. when set to a QFE altimeter setting, will indicate height above the QFE reference datum
c. when set to a pressure of 1013.2 hectopascals (hPa) may be used to indicate flight levels
Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight
or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
Flight procedures trainer. See Synthetic flight trainer.
Flight recorder. Any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of complementing
accident/incident investigation.
Flight simulator. See Synthetic flight trainer.
Flight status. An indication of whether a given aircraft requires special handling by air traffic services
units or not.
Flight time. The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the
purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.
Notes:
1. Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term “block to block” time or “chock to chock”
time in general usage which is measured from the time an aircraft moves from the loading point
until it stops at the unloading point.
2. Whenever helicopter rotors are engaged, the time will be included in the flight time.
Flight visibility. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
Flow control. Measures designed to adjust the flow of traffic into a given airspace, along a given
route, or bound for a given aerodrome, so as to ensure the most effective utilization of the airspace.
Forecast. A statement of expected meteorological conditions for a specified time or period, and for a
specified area or portion of airspace.
Frangible object. An object of low mass designed to break, distort or yield on impact so as to
present the minimum hazard to aircraft.
Ground effect. A condition of improved performance (lift) due to the interference of the surface
with the airflow pattern of the rotor system when a helicopter or other VTOL aircraft is operating
near the ground. Note: Rotor efficiency is increased by ground effect to a height of about one rotor
diameter for most helicopters.
Ground equipment. Articles of a specialized nature for use in the maintenance, repair and servicing
of an aircraft on the ground, including testing equipment and cargo/passenger handling equipment.
Ground-to-air communication. One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of
the earth to aircraft.
Ground visibility. The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer.
a. Non-precision approach runway - an instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid
providing at least directional guidance adequate for a straight-in approach
b. Precision approach runway, category I - an instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS and
visual aids intended for operations with a decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and either a
visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual range not less than 550m
c. Precision approach runway, category II - an instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS and
visual aids intended for operations with a decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft) but not lower
than 30 m (100 ft) and a runway visual range not less than 350 m
d. Precision approach runway, category III - an instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS to and
along the surface of the runway and:
a intended for operations with a decision height lower than 30 m (100 ft), or no decision height and
a runway visual range not less than 200 m
b intended for operations with a decision height lower than 15 m (50 ft), or no decision height and a
runway visual range less than 200 m but not less than 50 m
c intended for operations with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations
Instrument time. Instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package. A package which consists of the following elements:
a. AIP, including amendment service
b. supplements to the AIP
c. NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletins (PIB)
d. AIC
e. checklists and summaries
Intermediate approach segment. That segment of an instrument approach procedure between
either the intermediate approach fix and the final approach fix or point, or between the end of a
reversal, racetrack or dead reckoning track procedure and the final approach fix or point, as
appropriate.
International airport. Any airport designated by the Contracting State in whose territory it is
situated as an airport of entry and departure for international air traffic, where the formalities
incident to customs, immigration, public health, animal and plant quarantine and similar procedures
are carried out.
International NOTAM office. An office designated by a State for the exchange of NOTAM
internationally.
Investigation. A process conducted for the purpose of accident prevention which includes the
gathering and analysis of information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of
causes and, when appropriate, the making of safety recommendations.
Landing area. That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft.
Landing direction indicator. A device to indicate visually the direction currently designated for
landing and for take-off.
Landing surface. That part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome authority has
declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft landing in a particular direction.
Level. A generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning variously,
height, altitude or flight level.
Licensing Authority. The Authority designated by a Contracting State as responsible for the licensing
of personnel.
Location indicator. A four-letter code group formulated in accordance with rules prescribed by ICAO
and assigned to the location of an aeronautical fixed station.
Maintenance. Tasks required to ensure the continued airworthiness of an aircraft including any one
or combination of overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement, modification or defect rectification.
Maneuvering area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of
aircraft, excluding aprons.
Marker. An object displayed above ground level in order to indicate an obstacle or delineate a
boundary.
Marking. A symbol or group of symbols displayed on the surface of the movement area in order to
convey aeronautical information.
Maximum mass. Maximum certificated take-off mass.
Medical Assessment. The evidence issued by a Contracting State that the licence holder meets
specific requirements of medical fitness. It is issued following an evaluation by the Licensing
Authority of the report submitted by the designated medical examiner who conducted the
examination of the applicant for the licence.
Meteorological information. Meteorological report, analysis, forecast, and any other statement
relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions.
Meteorological office. An office designated to provide meteorological service for international air
navigation.
Meteorological report. A statement of observed meteorological conditions related to a specified
time and location.
Minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H). A specified altitude or height in a non-precision
approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without the required visual
reference.
Minimum fuel. The term use to describe a situation in which an aircraft’s fuel supply has reached a
state where little or no delay can be accepted.
Minimum sector altitude. The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum
clearance of 300 m (1,000 ft) above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle
of 46 km (25 NM) radius centered on a radio aid to navigation.
Missed approach point (MAPt). That point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which
the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum
obstacle clearance is not infringed.
Missed approach procedure. The procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be continued.
Mode (SSR Mode). The conventional identifier related to specific functions of the interrogation
signals transmitted by an SSR interrogator. There are four modes specified in Annex 10: A, C, S and
itermode.
Movement area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of
aircraft, consisting of the maneuvering area and the apron(s).
Near-parallel runways. Non-intersecting runways whose extended center lines have an angle of
convergence/divergence of 15° or less.
Night. The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil
twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may be prescribed by the appropriate
authority. Note: Morning/Evening Civil twilight begins/ends when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6°
below the horizon.
Non-instrument runways. A runway intended for the operation of aircraft using visual approach
procedures.
Non-radar separation. The separation used when aircraft position information is derived from
sources other than radar.
Normal operating zone (NOZ). Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS
localiser course and/or MLS final approach track. Only the inner half of the normal operating zone is
taken into account in independent parallel approaches.
NOTAM. A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the
establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the
timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
Obstacle. All fixed (whether temporary or permanent) and mobile objects, or parts thereof, that are
located on an area intended for the surface movement of aircraft or that extend above a defined
surface intended to protect aircraft in flight.
Obstacle assessment surface (OAS). A defined surface intended for the purpose of determining
those obstacles to be considered in the calculation of obstacle clearance altitude/height for a
specific ILS facility and procedure.
Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height (OCH). The lowest altitude or the
lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as
applicable, used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
Obstacle free zone (OFZ). The airspace above the inner approach surface, inner transitional
surfaces, and balked landing surface and that portion of the strip bounded by these surfaces, which
is not penetrated by any fixed obstacle other than a low mass and frangible mounted one required
for air navigation purposes.
Operational control. The exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion or
termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and efficiency of
the flight.
Operator. A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraft
operation.
Pilot (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time.
Pilot-in-command. The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight
time.
Power-unit. A system of one or more engines and ancillary parts which are together necessary to
provide thrust, independently of the continued operation of any other power-unit(s), but not
including short period thrust-producing devices.
Precision approach procedure. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path
information provided by ILS or PAR.
Precision approach radar (PAR). Primary radar equipment used to determine the position of an
aircraft during final approach, in terms of lateral and vertical deviations relative to a nominal
approach path, and in range relative to touchdown. Note: Precision approach radars are designated
to enable pilots of aircraft to be given guidance by radio communication during the final stages of
the approach to land.
Precision approach runway. See Instrument runway.
Pre-flight information bulletin (PIB). A presentation of current NOTAM information of operational
significance, prepared prior to flight.
Preliminary report. The communication used for the prompt dissemination of data obtained during
the early stages of the investigation.
Pressure-altitude. An atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude, which corresponds to
that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere.
Primary area. A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full
obstacle clearance is provided. (See also Secondary area).
Primary radar. A radar system, which uses reflected radio signals.
Primary runway(s). Runway(s) used in preference to others whenever conditions permit.
Primary surveillance radar (PSR). A surveillance radar system, which uses reflected radio signals.
Problematic use of substances. The use of one or more psychoactive substances by aviation
personnel in a way that:
a. constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare of others, and/or
b. causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or disorder
Procedure turn. A maneuver in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a
turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of
the designated track.
Notes:
1. Procedure turns are designated "left" or "right" according to the direction of the initial turn.
2. Procedure turns may be designated as being made either in level flight or while descending,
according to the circumstances of each individual procedure.
PSR blip. The visual indication, in non-symbolic form, on a radar display of the position of an aircraft
obtained by primary radar.
Prohibited area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a
State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
Psychoactive substances. Alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics, cocaine, other
psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, whereas coffee and tobacco are excluded.
Racetrack procedure. A procedure designed to enable the aircraft to reduce altitude during the
initial approach segment and/or establish the aircraft inbound when the entry into a reversal
procedure is not practical.
Radar. A radio detection device which provides information on range, azimuth and/or elevation of
objects.
Radar approach. An approach in which the final approach phase is executed under the direction of a
radar controller.
Radar clutter. The visual indication on a radar display of unwanted signals.
Radar contact. The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen and
identified on a radar display.
Radar control. Term used to indicate that radar-derived information is employed directly in the
provision of air traffic control service.
Radar controller. A qualified air traffic controller holding a radar rating appropriate to the functions
to which he is assigned.
Radar display. An electronic display of radar-derived information depicting the position and
movement of aircraft.
Radar identification. The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is
seen on a radar display and positively identified by the air traffic controller.
Radar map. Information superimposed on a radar display to provide ready indication of selected
features.
Radar monitoring. The use of radar for the purpose of providing aircraft with information and advice
relative to significant deviations from nominal flight path, including deviations from the terms of
their air traffic control clearances.
Radar position indication (RPI). The visual indication, in non-symbolic and/or symbolic form, on a
radar display of the position of an aircraft obtained by primary and/or secondary surveillance radar.
Radar position symbol (RPS). The visual indication, in symbolic form, on a radar display, of the
position of an aircraft obtained after automatic processing of positional data derived from primary
radar and/or secondary surveillance radar.
Radar separation. The separation used when aircraft position information is derived from radar
sources.
Radar service. Term used to indicate a service provided directly by means of radar.
Radar track position. An extrapolation of aircraft position by the computer based upon radar
information and used by the computer for tracking purposes. Note: In some cases, information
other than radar-derived information is used to assist the tracking purposes.
Radar unit. That element of an air traffic services unit which uses radar equipment to provide one or
more services.
Radar vectoring. Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings,
based on the use of radar.
Radio direction-finding station. A radio station intended to determine only the direction of other
stations by means of transmissions from the latter.
Radiotelephony. A form of radio communication primarily intended for the exchange of information
in the form of speech.
Rating. An authorization entered on or associated with a licence and forming part thereof, stating
special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such licence.
Rendering (a licence) valid. The action taken by a Contracting State, as an alternative to issuing its
own licence, in accepting a licence issued by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own
licence.
Repetitive flight plan (RPL). A flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring, regularly
operated individual flights with identical basic features, submitted by an operator for retention and
repetitive use by ATS units.
Reporting point. A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft can
be reported.
Required navigation performance (RNP). A statement of the navigation performance necessary for
operation within a defined airspace.
Rescue co-ordination center. A unit responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and
rescue service and for co-ordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations within a search
and rescue region.
Rescue unit. A unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipment suitable for the
expeditious conduct of search and rescue.
Restricted area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a
State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions.
Reversal procedure. A procedure designed to enable aircraft to reverse direction during the initial
approach segment of an instrument approach procedure. The sequence may include procedure
turns or base turns.
RNP type. A containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended position
within which flights would be for at least 95% of the total flying time. e.g. RNP 4 represents a
navigation accuracy of plus or minus 4 nm (7.4 km) on a 95% containment basis.
Road. An established surface route on the movement area meant for the exclusive use of vehicles.
Road-holding position. A designated position at which vehicles may be required to hold.
Runway. A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of
aircraft.
Runway end safety area (RESA). An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and
adjacent to the end of the strip, primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane
undershooting or overrunning the runway.
Runway guard lights. A light system intended to caution pilots or vehicle drivers that they are about
to enter an active runway.
Runway holding position. A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation
surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and
hold, unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower.
Runway strip. A defined area including the runway and stopway, if provided, intended:
a. to reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway, and
b. to protect aircraft flying over it during take-off or landing operations
Runway Visual Range (RVR). The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the center line of a
runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying it
center line.
Safety-sensitive personnel. Persons who might endanger aviation safety if they perform their duties
and functions improperly including, but not limited to, crew members, aircraft maintenance
personnel and air traffic controllers.
Screening. The application of technical or other means which are intended to detect weapons,
explosives or other dangerous devices which may be used to commit an act of unlawful
interference.
Secondary area. A defined area on each side of the primary area located along the nominal flight
rack in which decreasing obstacle clearance is provided. (See also Primary area).
Secondary radar. A radar system wherein a radio signal transmitted from the radar station initiates
the transmission of a radio signal from another station.
Secondary surveillance radar (SSR). A surveillance radar system which uses transmitters/receivers
(interrogators) and transponders.
Security. A combination of measures and human and material sources intended to safeguard
international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference.
Security Control. A means by which the introduction of weapons, explosives or articles likely to be
utilized to commit an act of unlawful interference can be prevented.
Security Program. Measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of
unlawful interference.
Segregated parallel operations. Simultaneous operations on parallel or near parallel instrument
runways in which one runway is used exclusively for approaches and the other runway is used
exclusively for departures.
b. A flight procedures trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck environment, and which
simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc.
aircraft systems, and the performance and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class
c. A basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with appropriate instruments, and which
simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions
Taxi-holding position. A designated position at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles may be required to
hold in order to provide adequate clearance from a runway.
Taxiing. Movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power, excluding
take-off and landing.
Taxiway. A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to
provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, including:
a. Aircraft stand taxi lane - a portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide
access to aircraft stands only
b. Apron taxiway - a portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a
through taxi route across the apron
c. Rapid exit taxiway - a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow
landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways and thereby
minimizing runway occupancy times.
Taxiway intersection. A junction of two or more taxiways
Taxiway strip. An area including a taxiway intended to protect an aircraft operating on the taxiway
and to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft accidentally running off the taxiway.
Terminal control area. A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the
vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.
Threshold. The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing.
Total estimated elapsed time. For IFR flights, the estimated time required from take-off to arrive
over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an
instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no navigation aid is associated with the
destination aerodrome, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. For VFR flights, the estimated
time required from take-off to arrive over the destination aerodrome.
Touchdown. The point where the nominal glide path intercepts the runway. Note: “Touchdown” as
defined above is only a datum and is not necessarily the actual point at which the aircraft will touch
the runway.
Touchdown zone. The portion of a runway, beyond the threshold, where it is intended landing
aeroplanes first contacts the runway.
Track. The projection on the earth's surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of which path at
any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or grid).
Traffic avoidance advice. Advice provided by an air traffic services unit specifying maneuvers to
assist a pilot to avoid a collision.
Traffic information. Information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other known
or observed air traffic, which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight, and to
help the pilot avoid a collision.
Transfer of control point. A defined point located along the flight path of an aircraft, at which the
responsibility for providing air traffic control service to the aircraft is transferred from one control
unit or control position to the next.
Transferring unit. Air traffic control unit in the process of transferring the responsibility for providing
air traffic control service to an aircraft to the next air traffic control unit along the route of flight.
Transition altitude. The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by
reference to altitudes.
Transition layer. The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.
Transition level. The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
Type Certificate. A document issued by a Contracting State to define the design of an aircraft type
and to certify that this design meets the appropriate airworthiness requirements of that State.
Uncertainty phase. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
occupants.
Chapter 2
Chicago Convention
It is hardly a coincidence that the call for an International meeting on the future of civil aviation
went out shortly after the Normandy invasion in 1944 – peace was on the horizon, or so it seemed.
Amazingly, 52 nations and their delegates made it to Chicago to lay the foundations of the industry
as we see it today. The document signed on 7th December 1944 by the 52 states required the
implementation of rules and laws that would organize, regulate and coordinate international travel.
At the same time as creating a framework of regulations, the Convention authorised the formation
of an international organisation to “develop the principles and techniques of international air
navigation and to foster the planning and development of international air transport”. The
organisation formed became known as the International Civil Aviation Organisation – ICAO.
Fig. 2-1
Regional Offices
Despite its global remit, ICAO addresses aviation requirements in regional terms, recognising nine
geographical regions. Within these regions there are seven regional offices which address the issues
of Contracting States within the respective regions.
Article 1 - Sovereignty
The contracting States recognize that every State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the
airspace above its territory.
Article 2 – Territory
For the purposes of this Convention the territory of a State shall be deemed to be the land areas and
territorial waters adjacent thereto under the sovereignty, suzerainty, protection or mandate of such
State.
(a) This Convention shall be applicable only to civil aircraft, and shall not be applicable to
state aircraft.
(b) Aircraft used in military, customs and police services shall be deemed to be state aircraft.
(c) No state aircraft of a contracting State shall fly over the territory of another State or land
thereon without authorization by special agreement or otherwise, and in accordance with
the terms thereof.
(d) The contracting States undertake, when issuing regulations for their state aircraft, that
they will have due regard for the safety of navigation of civil aircraft.
Each contracting State agrees not to use civil aviation for any purpose inconsistent with the aims of
this Convention.
Each contracting State agrees that all aircraft of the other contracting States, being aircraft not
engaged in scheduled international air services shall have the right, subject to the observance of the
terms of this Convention, to make flights into or in transit non-stop across its territory and to make
stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission, and subject to
the right of the State flown over to require landing.
Each contracting State nevertheless reserves the right, for reasons of safety of flight, to require
aircraft desiring to proceed over regions which are inaccessible or without adequate air navigation
facilities to follow prescribed routes, or to obtain special permission for such flights. Such aircraft, if
engaged in the carriage of passengers, cargo, or mail for remuneration or hire on other than
scheduled international air services, shall also, subject to the provisions of Article 7, have the
privilege of taking on or discharging passengers, cargo, or mail, subject to the right of any State
where such embarkation or discharge takes place to impose such regulations, conditions or
limitations as it may consider desirable.
No scheduled international air service may be operated over or into the territory of a contracting
State, except with the special permission or other authorization of that State, and in accordance
with the terms of such permission or authorization.
Article 7 – Cabotage
Each contracting State shall have the right to refuse permission to the aircraft of other contracting
States to take on in its territory passengers, mail and cargo carried for remuneration or hire and
destined for another point within its territory.
Each contracting State undertakes not to enter into any arrangements which specifically grant any
such privilege on an exclusive basis to any other State or an airline of any other State, and not to
obtain any such exclusive privilege from any other State.
No aircraft capable of being flown without a pilot shall be flown without a pilot over the territory of
a contracting State without special authorization by that State and in accordance with the terms of
such authorization. Each contracting State undertakes to insure that the flight of such aircraft
without a pilot in regions open to civil aircraft shall be so controlled as to obviate danger to civil
aircraft.
(a) Each contracting State may, for reasons of military necessity or public safety, restrict or
prohibit uniformly the aircraft of other States from flying over certain areas of its territory,
provided that no distinction in this respect is made between the aircraft of the State whose
territory is involved, engaged in international scheduled airline services, and the aircraft of
the other contracting States likewise engaged. Such prohibited areas shall be of reasonable
extent and location so as not to interfere unnecessarily with air navigation.
Descriptions of such prohibited areas in the territory of a contracting State, as well as any
subsequent alterations therein, shall be communicated as soon as possible to the other
contracting States and to the International Civil Aviation Organization.
(b) Each contracting State reserves also the right, in exceptional circumstances or during a
period of emergency, or in the interest of public safety, and with immediate effect,
temporarily to restrict or prohibit flying over the whole or any part of its territory, on
condition that such restriction or prohibition shall be applicable without distinction of
nationality to aircraft of all other States.
(c) Each contracting State, under such regulations as it may prescribe, may require any
aircraft entering the areas contemplated in sub-paragraphs (a) or (b) above to effect a
landing as soon as practicable thereafter at some designated airport within its territory.
Except in a case where, under the terms of this Convention or a special authorization, aircraft are
permitted to cross the territory of a contracting State without landing, every aircraft which enters
the territory of a contracting State shall, if the regulations of that State so require, land at an airport
designated by that State for the purpose of customs and other examination. On departure from the
territory of a contracting State, such aircraft shall depart from a similarly designated customs
airport. Particulars of all designated customs airports shall be published by the State and
transmitted to the International Civil Aviation Organization established under Part II of this
Convention for communication to all other contracting States.
Subject to the provisions of this Convention, the laws and regulations of a contracting State relating
to the admission to or departure from its territory of aircraft engaged in international air navigation,
or to the operation and navigation of such aircraft while within its territory, shall be applied to the
aircraft of all contracting States without distinction as to nationality, and shall be complied with by
such aircraft upon entering or departing from or while within the territory of that State.
Each contracting State undertakes to adopt measures to insure that every aircraft flying over or
manoeuvring within its territory and that every aircraft carrying its nationality mark, wherever such
aircraft may be, shall comply with the rules and regulations relating to the flight and manoeuvre of
aircraft there in force. Each contracting State undertakes to keep its own regulations in these
respects uniform, to the greatest possible extent, with those established from time to time under
this Convention. Over the high seas, the rules in force shall be those established under this
Convention.
Each contracting State undertakes to insure the prosecution of all persons violating the regulations
applicable.
The laws and regulations of a contracting State as to the admission to or departure from its territory
of passengers, crew or cargo of aircraft, such as regulations relating to entry, clearance, immigration,
passports, customs, and quarantine shall be complied with by or on behalf of such passengers, crew
or cargo upon entrance into or departure from, or while within the territory of that State.
Each contracting State agrees to take effective measures to prevent the spread by means of air
navigation of cholera, typhus (epidemic), smallpox, yellow fever, plague, and such other
communicable diseases as the contracting States shall from time to time decide to designate, and to
that end contracting States will keep in close consultation with the agencies concerned with
international regulations relating to sanitary measures applicable to aircraft. Such consultation shall
be without prejudice to the application of any existing international convention on this subject to
which the contracting States may be parties.
Every airport in a contracting State which is open to public use by its national aircraft shall likewise,
subject to the provisions of Article 68, be open under uniform conditions to the aircraft of all the
other contracting States.
The like uniform conditions shall apply to the use, by aircraft of every contracting State, of all air
navigation facilities, including radio and meteorological services, which may be provided for public
use for the safety and expedition of air navigation. Any charges that may be imposed or permitted to
be imposed by a contracting State for the use of such airports and air navigation facilities by the
aircraft of any other contracting State shall not be higher than:
• As to aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services, than those that would be
paid by its national aircraft of the same class engaged in similar operations, and
• As to aircraft engaged in scheduled international air services, than those that would be paid
by its national aircraft engaged in similar international air services.
All such charges shall be published and communicated to the International Civil Aviation
Organization: provided that, upon representation by an interested contracting State, the charges
imposed for the use of airports and other facilities shall be subject to review by the Council, which
shall report and make recommendations thereon for the consideration of the State or States
concerned. No fees, dues or other charges shall be imposed by any contracting State in respect
solely of the right of transit over or entry into or exit from its territory of any aircraft of a contracting
State or persons or property thereon.
The appropriate authorities of each of the contracting States shall have the right, without
unreasonable delay, to search aircraft of the other contracting States on landing or departure, and to
inspect the certificates and other documents prescribed by this Convention.
Aircraft have the nationality of the State in which they are registered.
An aircraft cannot be validly registered in more than one State, but its registration may be changed
from one State to another.
The registration or transfer of registration of aircraft in any contracting State shall be made in
accordance with its law and regulations.
Every aircraft engaged in international air navigation shall bear its appropriate nationality and
registration marks
Each contracting State undertakes to supply to any other contracting State or to the International
Civil Aviation Organization, on demand, information concerning the registration and ownership of
any particular aircraft registered in that State. In addition, each contracting State shall furnish
reports to the International Civil Aviation Organization, under such regulations as the latter may
prescribe, giving such pertinent data as can be made available concerning the ownership and control
of aircraft registered in that State and habitually engaged in international air navigation. The data
thus obtained by the International Civil Aviation Organization shall be made available by it on
request to the other contracting States.
Each contracting State agrees to adopt all practicable measures, through the issuance of special
regulations or otherwise, to facilitate and expedite navigation by aircraft between the territories of
contracting States, and to prevent unnecessary delays to aircraft, crews, passengers and cargo,
especially in the administration of the laws relating to immigration, quarantine, customs and
clearance.
Each contracting State undertakes, so far as it may find practicable, to establish customs and
immigration procedures affecting international air navigation in accordance with the practices which
may be established or recommended from time to time, pursuant to this Convention.
(a) Aircraft on a flight to, from, or across the territory of another contracting State shall be
admitted temporarily free of duty, subject to the customs regulations of the State. Fuel,
lubricating oils, spare parts, regular equipment and aircraft stores on board an aircraft of a
contracting State, on arrival in the territory of another contracting State and retained on
board on leaving the territory of that State shall be exempt from customs duty, inspection
fees or similar national or local duties and charges. This exemption shall not apply to any
quantities or articles unloaded, except in accordance with the customs regulations of the
State, which may require that they shall be kept under customs supervision.
(b) Spare parts and equipment imported into the territory of a contracting State for
incorporation in or use on an aircraft of another contracting State engaged in international
air navigation shall be admitted free of customs duty, subject to compliance with the
regulations of the State concerned, which may provide that the articles shall be kept under
customs supervision and control.
Each contracting State undertakes to provide such measures of assistance to aircraft in distress in its
territory as it may find practicable, and to permit, subject to control by its own authorities, the
owners of the aircraft or authorities of the State in which the aircraft is registered to provide such
measures of assistance as may be necessitated by the circumstances. Each contracting State, when
undertaking search for missing aircraft, will collaborate in coordinated measures which may be
recommended from time to time pursuant to this Convention.
In the event of an accident to an aircraft of a contracting State occurring in the territory of another
contracting State, and involving death or serious injury, or indicating serious technical defect in the
aircraft or air navigation facilities, the State in which the accident occurs will institute an inquiry into
the circumstances of the accident, in accordance, so far as its laws permit, with the procedure which
may be recommended by the International Civil Aviation Organization.
The State in which the aircraft is registered shall be given the opportunity to appoint observers to be
present at the inquiry and the State holding the inquiry shall communicate the report and findings in
the matter to that State.
(a) While engaged in international air navigation, any authorized entry of aircraft of a
contracting State into the territory of another contracting State or authorized transit across
the territory of such State with or without landings shall not entail any seizure or detention
of the aircraft or any claim against the owner or operator thereof or any other interference
therewith by or on behalf of such State or any person therein, on the ground that the
construction, mechanism, parts, accessories or operation of the aircraft is an infringement of
any patent, design, or model duly granted or registered in the State whose territory is
entered by the aircraft, it being agreed that no deposit of security in connection with the
foregoing exemption from seizure or detention of the aircraft shall in any case be required in
the State entered by such aircraft.
(b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this Article shall also be applicable to the storage of
spare parts and spare equipment for the aircraft and the right to use and install the same in
the repair of an aircraft of a contracting State in the territory of any other contracting State,
provided that any patented part or equipment so stored shall not be sold or distributed
internally in or exported commercially from the contracting State entered by the aircraft.
(c) The benefits of this Article shall apply only to such States, parties to this Convention, as
either (1) are parties to the International Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property
and to any amendments thereof; or
(2) have enacted patent laws which recognize and give adequate protection to inventions
made by the nationals of the other States parties to this Convention.
(a) Provide, in its territory, airports, radio services, meteorological services and other air
navigation facilities to facilitate international air navigation, in accordance with the standards
and practices recommended or established from time to time, pursuant to this Convention;
(b) Adopt and put into operation the appropriate standard systems of communications
procedure, codes, markings, signals, lighting and other operational practices and rules which
may be recommended or established from time to time, pursuant to this Convention;
(c) Collaborate in international measures to secure the publication of aeronautical maps and
charts in accordance with standards which may be recommended or established from time to
time, pursuant to this Convention.
Every aircraft of a contracting State, engaged in international navigation, shall carry the following
documents in conformity with the conditions prescribed in this Convention:
(a) Aircraft of each contracting State may, in or over the territory of other contracting States,
carry radio transmitting apparatus only if a license to install and operate such apparatus has
been issued by the appropriate authorities of the State in which the aircraft is registered. The
use of radio transmitting apparatus in the territory of the contracting State whose territory is
flown over shall be in accordance with the regulations prescribed by that State.
(b) Radio transmitting apparatus may be used only by members of the flight crew who are
provided with a special license for the purpose, issued by the appropriate authorities of the
State in which the aircraft is registered.
(a) The pilot of every aircraft and the other members of the operating crew of every aircraft
engaged in international navigation shall be provided with certificates of competency and
licenses issued or rendered valid by the State in which the aircraft is registered.
(b) Each contracting State reserves the right to refuse to recognize, for the purpose of flight
above its own territory, certificates of competency and licenses granted to any of its
nationals by another contracting State.
Certificates of airworthiness and certificates of competency and licenses issued or rendered valid by
the contracting State in which the aircraft is registered, shall be recognized as valid by the other
contracting States, provided that the requirements under which such certificates or licenses were
issued or rendered valid are equal to or above the minimum standards which may be established
from time to time pursuant to this Convention.
There shall be maintained in respect of every aircraft engaged in international navigation a journey
log book in which shall be entered particulars of the aircraft, its crew and of each journey, in such
form as may be prescribed from time to time pursuant to this Convention.
(a) No munitions of war or implements of war may be carried in or above the territory of a
State in aircraft engaged in international navigation, except by permission of such State. Each
State shall determine by regulations what constitutes munitions of war or implements of war
for the purposes of this Article, giving due consideration, for the purposes of uniformity, to
such recommendations as the International Civil Aviation Organization may from time to
time make.
(b) Each contracting State reserves the right, for reasons of public order and safety, to
regulate or prohibit the carriage in or above its territory of articles other than those
enumerated in paragraph (a): provided that no distinction is made in this respect between its
national aircraft engaged in international navigation and the aircraft of the other States so
engaged; and provided further that no restriction shall be imposed which may interfere with
the carriage and use on aircraft of apparatus necessary for the operation or navigation of the
aircraft or the safety of the personnel or passengers.
Each contracting State may prohibit or regulate the use of photographic apparatus in aircraft over its
territory.
Each contracting State undertakes to collaborate in securing the highest practicable degree of
uniformity in regulations, standards, procedures, and organization in relation to aircraft, personnel,
airways and auxiliary services in all matters in which such uniformity will facilitate and improve air
navigation.
To this end the International Civil Aviation Organization shall adopt and amend from time to time, as
may be necessary, international standards and recommended practices and procedures dealing
with:
(a) Communications systems and air navigation aids, including ground marking;
(b) Characteristics of airports and landing areas;
(c) Rules of the air and air traffic control practices;
(d) Licensing of operating and mechanical personnel;
(e) Airworthiness of aircraft;
(f) Registration and identification of aircraft;
(g) Collection and exchange of meteorological information;
(h) Log books;
(i) Aeronautical maps and charts;
(j) Customs and immigration procedures;
(k) Aircraft in distress and investigation of accidents; and such other matters concerned with
the safety, regularity, and efficiency of air navigation as may from time to time appear
appropriate.
Any State which finds it impracticable to comply in all respects with any such international standard
or procedure, or to bring its own regulations or practices into full accord with any international
standard or procedure after amendment of the latter, or which deems it necessary to adopt
regulations or practices differing in any particular respect from those established by an international
standard, shall give immediate notification to the International Civil Aviation Organization of the
differences between its own practice and that established by the international standard. In the case
of amendments to international standards, any State which does not make the appropriate
amendments to its own regulations or practices shall give notice to the Council within sixty days of
the adoption of the amendment to the international standard, or indicate the action which it
proposes to take. In any such case, the Council shall make immediate notification to all other states
of the difference which exists between one or more features of an international standard and the
corresponding national practice of that State.
(a) Any aircraft or part thereof with respect to which there exists an international standard of
airworthiness or performance, and which failed in any respect to satisfy that standard at the
time of its certification, shall have endorsed on or attached to its airworthiness certificate a
complete enumeration of the details in respect of which it so failed.
(b) Any person holding a license who does not satisfy in full the conditions laid down in the
international standard relating to the class of license or certificate which he holds shall have
endorsed on or attached to his license a complete enumeration of the particulars in which he
does not satisfy such conditions.
The provisions of this Chapter shall not apply to aircraft and aircraft equipment of types of which the
prototype is submitted to the appropriate national authorities for certification prior to a date three
years after the date of adoption of an international standard of airworthiness for such equipment.
The provisions of this Chapter shall not apply to personnel whose licences are originally issued prior
to a date one year after initial adoption of an international standard of qualification for such
personnel; but they shall in any case apply to all personnel whose licenses remain valid five years
after the date of adoption of such standard.
Article 44 – Objectives
The aims and objectives of the Organization are to develop the principles and techniques of
international air navigation and to foster the planning and development of international air
transport so as to:
(a) Insure the safe and orderly growth of international civil aviation throughout the world;
(b) Encourage the arts of aircraft design and operation for peaceful purposes;
(c) Encourage the development of airways, airports, and air navigation facilities for
international civil aviation;
(d) Meet the needs of the peoples of the world for safe, regular, efficient and economical air
transport;
(e) Prevent economic waste caused by unreasonable competition;
(f) Insure that the rights of contracting States are fully respected and that every contracting
State has a fair opportunity to operate international airlines;
(g) Avoid discrimination between contracting States;
(h) Promote safety of flight in international air navigation;
(i) Promote generally the development of all aspects of international civil aeronautics.
The Organization shall enjoy in the territory of each contracting State such legal capacity as may be
necessary for the performance of its functions. Full juridical personality shall be granted wherever
compatible with the constitution and laws of the State concerned.
The Assembly shall meet not less than once every three years and shall be convened by the Council
at a suitable time and place. An extraordinary meeting of the Assembly may be held at any time
upon the call of the Council or at the request of not less than 1/5th of the total number of
Contracting States.
All Contracting States shall have an equal right to be represented at the meetings of the Assembly
and each Contracting State shall be entitled to one vote.
Delegates representing Contracting States may be assisted by technical advisers who may participate
in the meetings but shall have no vote.
A majority of the Contracting States is required to constitute a quorum for the meetings of the
Assembly. Unless otherwise provided in this Convention, decisions of the Assembly shall be taken by
a majority of the votes cast.
• Consider proposals for the modification or amendment of the provisions of this Convention
and, if it approves of the proposals, recommend them to the Contracting States in
accordance with the provisions of Chapter XXI
• Deal with any matter within the sphere of action of the Organization not specifically assigned
to the Council
In electing the members of the Council, the Assembly shall give adequate representation to:
The Council shall elect its president for a term of 3 years. He may be re-elected. He shall have no
vote. The Council shall elect from its members one or more vice presidents who shall retain their
right to vote when serving as acting president. The president need not be selected from among the
representatives of the members of the Council but, if a representative is elected, his seat shall be
deemed vacant and it shall be filled by the State that he represented. The duties of the president
shall be to:
• The Council
• The Air Transport Committee
• The Air Navigation Commission
• Serve as representative of the Council
• Carry out on behalf of the Council the functions which the Council assigns to him
• Where appropriate and as experience may show to be desirable, create subordinate air
transport commissions on a regional or other basis and define groups of States or airlines
with or through which it may deal to facilitate the carrying out of the aims of this Convention
• Delegate to the Air Navigation Commission duties additional to those in the Convention and
revoke or modify such delegations of authority at any time conduct research into all aspects
of air transport and air navigation which are of international importance, communicate the
results of its research to the Contracting States, and facilitate the exchange of information
between Contracting States on air transport and air navigation matters.
Study any matters affecting the organization and operation of international air transport,
including the international ownership and operation of international air services on trunk routes,
and submit to the Assembly plans in relation thereto Investigate, at the request of any
Contracting State, any situation which may appear to present avoidable obstacles to the
development of international air navigation; and after such investigation, issue such reports as
may appear to be desirable
• Consider, and recommend to the Council for adoption, modifications of the Annexes to this
Convention;
• Establish technical sub-commissions on which any contracting State may be represented, if it
so desires;
• Advise the Council concerning the collection and communication to the contracting States of
all information which it considers necessary and useful for the advancement of air
navigation.
The Organization may, with respect to air matters within its competence directly affecting world
security, by vote of the Assembly enter into appropriate arrangements with any general organization
set up by the nations of the world to preserve peace.
The Council, on behalf of the Organization, may enter into agreements with other international
bodies for the maintenance of common services and for common arrangements concerning
personnel and, with the approval of the Assembly, may enter into such other arrangements as may
facilitate the work of the Organization.
Each contracting State may, subject to the provisions of this Convention, designate the route to be
followed within its territory by any international air service and the airports which any such service
may use.
If the Council is of the opinion that the airports or other air navigation facilities, including radio and
meteorological services, of a contracting State are not reasonably adequate for the safe, regular,
efficient, and economical operation of international air services, present or contemplated, the
Council shall consult with the State directly concerned, and other States affected, with a view to
finding means by which the situation may be remedied, and may make recommendations for that
purpose. No contracting State shall be guilty of an infraction of this Convention if it fails to carry out
these recommendations.
Nothing in this Convention shall prevent two or more contracting States from constituting joint air
transport operating organizations or international operating agencies and from pooling their air
services on any routes or in any regions, but such organizations or agencies and such pooled services
shall be subject to all the provisions of this Convention, including those relating to the registration of
agreements with the Council. The Council shall determine in what manner the provisions of this
Convention relating to nationality of aircraft shall apply to aircraft operated by international
operating agencies.
A State may participate in joint operating organizations or in pooling arrangements, either through
its government or through an airline company or companies designated by its government. The
companies may, at the sole discretion of the State concerned, be state-owned or partly state owned
or privately owned.
Each contracting State undertakes, immediately upon the coming into force of this Convention, to
give notice of denunciation of the Convention relating to the Regulation of Aerial Navigation signed
at Paris on October 13, 1919 or the Convention on Commercial Aviation signed at Habana on
February 20, 1928, if it is a party to either. As between contracting States, this Convention
supersedes the Conventions of Paris and Havana previously referred to.
Article 82
If an airline of any contracting State has entered into any such inconsistent obligations, the State of
which it is a national shall use its best efforts to secure their termination forthwith and shall in any
event cause them to be terminated as soon as such action can lawfully be taken after the coming
into force of this Convention.
In case of war, the provisions of this Convention shall not affect the freedom of action of any of the
contracting States affected, whether as belligerents or as neutrals. The same principle shall apply in
the case of any contracting State which declares a state of national emergency and notifies the fact
to the Council
• First Freedom – is the right to fly over a foreign country without landing there. The overflown
country must be notified in advance and permission must be granted.
• Second Freedom – is the right to refuel or carry out maintenance in a foreign country on the
way to another country but no commercial service is allowed.
• Third Freedom – is the right to carry passengers and cargo from state of registration to
another contracting state.
• Fourth Freedom– is the right to carry passengers and cargo from contracting state to the
state of registration.
• Fifth Freedom – is the right to carry passengers and cargo between to foreign countries, as
long as the flight originates or ends in the state of registration.
It must be noted that these rights – where they are granted – only apply to non-scheduled
operations, not regular daily scheduled flights. The latter usually require bi-lateral agreements to
allow commercial operations on a regular basis.
With deregulation in Europe at the end of the 90’s, any EU scheduled airline can now operate
between any 2 airports within any EU state, and between any 2 EU states in addition to the state of
registration.
The Warsaw Convention limited the liability of the carrier in the event of loss of life or an injury to a
passenger, delays and loss of luggage to maximum 100 000 USD per person. There is an exception to
this limit in the case of gross negligence.
Tickets
For each flight a passenger should be issued a ticket (which may be electronic), containing:
• place of origin and destination
• date and place of issue
• carrier information
• additional stopping places
• information about the rules and liability established by Warsaw Convention
In the case of loss, irregularity or absence of a ticket the validity of the contract of carriage is not
being affected. If a carrier accepts on board a passenger, luggage or a cargo to whom a ticket was
not issued, the contract of carriage is not valid and the carrier is not protected by the limits of
liability agreed in Warsaw Convention.
Any luggage except small personal items that passenger takes on board must be issued a ticket,
which is printed in two copies, one for the passenger and one for the carrier.
Tokyo Convention
During the Tokyo Convention in 1963 participating states addressed their concerns in relation to
flight safety and agreed to certain rules and procedures regarding pilot jurisdiction and national
jurisdiction in case of an offence committed on board the aircraft.
Pilot Jurisdiction
Pilot in command responsibility is to ensure safety of the aircraft, equipment and people on board. If
an offence takes place on board the aircraft he/she may take appropriate measures, including
restrain, removal of a passenger, refusal of entry the aircraft or handing a person over to authorities.
If necessary other crew and passengers may assist pilot in command in handling this task.
National Jurisdiction
According to agreements of Tokyo Convention the State of Registry of the aircraft is responsible
for exercising jurisdiction over unlawful acts and offences committed on board the aircraft.
In certain cases other contracting states may interfere and assist an aircraft in flight in order to
exercise legal control over unlawful acts and offences committed on board the aircraft.
• an act of violence on board the aircraft that endangers passengers, equipment and safety of
the aircraft
• destruction of an aircraft in service or causing damage which renders it incapable of flight or
might endanger aircraft's safety in flight
• placing a device on board the aircraft that is likely to destroy, damage or render aircraft unfit
to fly
• destruction or damaging any aircraft's navigation facility or interference with it's correct
operation
• transmittance of information known to be false or interference with aircraft communication
that might endanger aircraft in flight
The Montreal Convention provisions were extended by a protocol that included unlawful acts
committed at aerodromes serving an international civil aviation. These offences are:
• an intentional use of any device, substance or weapon to which will cause or is likely to
cause a serious injury or death of a person
• destroy or seriously damage the facilities of an airport
• destroy or damage aircraft not in service at the airport
• disrupt the services at an airport
• advising the European Union and member states and drafting safety legislation
• implementing and monitoring safety rules across Member States, including inspections
• type-certification of aircraft, engines and parts as well as the approval of organizations
• designing, manufacturing and maintaining aeronautical products
• analysis and research to improve aviation safety
EASA is not an ICAO member state but works very closely with the FAA and ICAO to harmonise
standards and safety issues. It has assumed responsibility for a range of activities within Europe
such as Certification (CS 23 and CS 25), Operations (EU-OPS), and Licensing.
The JAA is controlled by a committee that works under the authority of the Plenary Conference of
the ECAC and reports to the JAA Board of Directors General. The JAA board is responsible for
reviewing the general policies and long term objectives of JAA.
Most of the JAA functions have now been taken over by EASA.
Eurocontrol
Founded in 1963 and consisting first of six countries, today Eurocontrol is an international
organization with 39 members and is responsible for coordinating and planning air traffic control
through the whole Europe. Also since 1988 it provides The Centralized Flow Management Unit
(CFMU) for European airspace.
Eurocontrol is responsible for operations in the upper airspace and it operates from two centres –
Maastricht and Vienna. It also has training facility in Luxembourg and an experimental research
centre in Bretigny, France. The Single European Sky (SES) policy of Eurocontrol is covered under
regulation EC 550/2004. It is designed to create a European Airspace conceived and managed as a
single continuum (the Single European Sky - SES) to optimise the safety and efficiency of the
European Air Traffic Management Network (EATMN).
EC Regulation 261/2004
This regulation established common rules on compensation and assistance to passengers in the
event of denied boarding, flight cancellations, or long delays of flights. It sets out the entitlements
of air passengers when a flight they intend to travel on is delayed or cancelled, or when they are
denied boarding to such a flight due to overbooking or when the airline is unable to accommodate
them in the class they booked.
The regulation applies to any passenger departing from an airport located in a Member State to
which the treaty applies.
Chapter 3
Airworthiness
Certificate of Airworthiness
ICAO Annex 8 lays down the airworthiness requirements which Contracting States should meet and
applies to:
The Certificate of Airworthiness shall be issued by the Contracting State that approves the aircraft or
by its authorized representatives on the basis of evidence that the aircraft complies with the
appropriate airworthiness requirements.
There shall be:
• An approved design to show that the aircraft complies with the airworthiness requirements.
• Records kept to establish the identification of the aircraft with its approved design
• An inspection of the aircraft during the course of construction to determine that it conforms
to the approved design.
• An inspection of the aircraft to establish that its construction and assembly are satisfactory
• Flight tests as deemed necessary to show compliance with the airworthiness requirements
Contracting States can withhold a C of A if the aircraft is known, or suspected, to have dangerous
features not specifically covered by the airworthiness requirements.
The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft shall be determined by the State of Registry in relation to
the requirements in force for that aircraft. The State of Registry shall also develop or adopt
requirements to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft throughout its life.
A State of Registry can validate the Certificate of Airworthiness issued by another state, as an
alternative to issuing its own certificate. This validation shall not extend beyond the period of
validation of the original Certificate of Airworthiness.
Damage to Aircraft
When an aircraft has sustained damage the State of Registry shall judge whether the damage is such
that the aircraft is no longer airworthy. If the damage is sustained or ascertained when the aircraft is
in another Contracting State, the authorities of that State have the right to prevent the aircraft from
flying on the condition that they inform the State of Registry immediately.
Each aircraft shall be provided with a flight manual, or other documents, stating the approved
limitations within which the aircraft is considered airworthy.
Chapter 4
Aircraft Registration
Certificate of Registration ...................................................................................... 4
Aircraft Classification ............................................................................................. 5
The nationality marks are selected from the series of nationality symbols included in the radio call
signs allocated to the state of registry by the International Telecommunication Union. If the aircraft
is owned by an international operator and it has to be registered in more then one state, an ICAO
assigns it a common mark, instead of nationality mark.
The nationality or common mark shall precede the registration mark. When the first mark of
registration is a letter, it has to be preceded by a hyphen:
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers, or a combination of letters and numbers and shall
be assigned by the state of registry. When letters are used for the registration mark, combination
shall not be used which might be confused with:
The five letter combinations used in the International Code of Signals
The three letter combinations beginning with Q used in the Q code
The distress signal SOS or other similar urgent signals, eg XXX, PAN and TTT
The nationality or common mark and registration mark shall be painted on the aircraft or shall be
affixed by any other means ensuring a similar degree of permanence. The marks must be kept clean
and visible at all times.
Wings
On heavier-than-air aircraft the marks shall appear once on the lower surface of the wing
and shall be at least 50 cm in normally viewed vertical size.
On heavier-than-air aircraft the marks shall appear on each side of the fuselage between the wings
and the tail surface. When located on a single vertical tail surface they shall appear on both sides
and shall be at least 30 cm in normally viewed vertical size.
The letters shall be in capital letters in Roman characters without ornamentation. Numbers shall be
Arabic numbers without ornamentation.
If a heavier-than-air aircraft cannot comply with the above then the marks shall appear in a manner
such that the aircraft can be identified readily.
Certificate of Registration
The certificate of registration shall be carried in the aircraft at all times.
The certificate of registration, in wording and arrangement, shall be a replica of the form shown
below.
State or
Common Mark Registering Authority
Ministry
Department or Service
Certifcate of Registration
1. Nationality or Common Mark 2. Manufacture and 3. Aircraft Serial No
and Registration Mark Manufacturer’s Designation of
Aircraft
Aircraft Classification
Fig. 4-2
Chapter 5
Personnel Licensing
JAR-FCL 1 is the European interpretation of Annex 1, and any difference in SARPs between JAR-FCL
and the Annex will be filed as a difference in the ICAO Annex.
JAR FCL 1 has 2 Sections; Section 1 details the Regulations, and Section 2 details the Acceptable
Means of Compliance (AMC) to meet the regulation together with Interpretive/Explanatory Material
(IEM). In general terms, the AMC and IEM spell how orgasnisations are expected to deliver their
training
• Instrument ground time - time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated
instrument flight in synthetic training devices (STDs).
• Multi-crew co-operation - the functioning of the flight crew as a team of co-operating
members led by the pilot-in-command.
• Multi-pilot aeroplanes - aeroplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at
least two pilots.
• Night - the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning
civil twilight, or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the
appropriate Authority.
• Other training devices - training aids other than flight simulators, flight training devices or
flight and navigation procedures trainers which provide means for training where a complete
flight deck environment is not necessary.
• Private pilot – a pilot who holds a licence which prohibits the piloting of aircraft in operations
for which remuneration is given.
• Professional pilot - a pilot who holds a licence which permits the piloting of aircraft in
operations for which remuneration is given.
• Proficiency checks - demonstrations of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such
oral examination as the examiner may require.
• Rating - an entry in a licence stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to
that licence.
• Renewal (of e.g. a rating or approval) - the administrative action taken after a rating or
approval has lapsed that renews the privileges of the rating or approval for a further
specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements.
• Revalidation (of e.g. a rating or approval) - the administrative action taken within the period
of validity of a rating or approval that allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges
of a rating or approval for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of
specified requirements.
• Single-pilot aeroplanes - aeroplanes certificated for operation by one pilot.
• Skill tests - skill tests are demonstrations of skill for licence or rating issue, including such oral
examination as the examiner may require.
• Solo flight time - flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft.
• Touring Motor Glider (TMG) – a motor glider having a certificate of airworthiness issued or
accepted by a JAA Member State having an integrally mounted, non-retractable engine and a
non-retractable propeller. It shall be capable of taking off and climbing under its own power
according to its flight manual.
• Type (of aircraft) - all aircraft of the same basic design, including all modifications except
those modifications which result in a change of handling, flight characteristics or flight crew
complement.
Applicability
General
(1) The requirements set out in JAR–FCL shall apply to all arrangements made for training, testing
and applications for the issue of licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates received
by the Authority after 1 July 1999.
(2) Whenever licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates are mentioned in JAR–FCL,
these are meant to be licences, ratings, authorisations, approvals or certificates issued in accordance
with JAR–FCL. In all other cases these documents are specified as e.g. ICAO or national licences.
(3) All synthetic training devices mentioned in JAR–FCL substituting an aircraft for training purposes
are to be device qualified and user approved by the Authority for the exercises to be conducted.
(4) Whenever a reference is made to aeroplanes this does not include microlights as defined
nationally, unless otherwise specified.
(1) A person shall not act as a flight crew member of a civil aeroplane registered in a JAA
Member State unless that person holds a valid licence and rating complying with the
requirements of JAR–FCL and appropriate to the duties being performed, or an authorisation
as set out in JAR–FCL 1.085 and/or 1.230. The licence shall have been issued by:
(i) a JAA Member State; or
(ii) another ICAO Contracting State and rendered valid in accordance with JAR–FCL 1.015(b)
or (c).
(2) Pilots holding national motor gliders licences/ratings/authorisations are also permitted to
operate touring motor gliders under national regulations.
(3) Pilots holding a restricted national private pilot’s licence are permitted under national
regulations to operate aeroplanes registered in the State of licence issue within that State’s
airspace.
Exercise of Privileges
The holder of a licence or rating shall not exercise privileges other than those granted by that licence
or rating.
Appeals ,Enforcement
(1) A JAA Member State may at any time in accordance with its national procedures act on
appeals, limit privileges, or suspend or revoke any licence, rating, authorisation, approval or
certificate it has issued in accordance with the requirements of JAR–FCL if it is established
that an applicant or a licence holder has not met, or no longer meets, the requirements of
JAR–FCL or relevant national law of the State of licence issue.
(2) If a JAA Member State establishes that an applicant or licence holder of a JAR–FCL licence
issued by another JAA Member State has not met, or no longer meets, the requirements of
JAR–FCL or relevant national law of the State in which an aircraft is being flown, the JAA
Member State shall inform the State of licence issue and the Licensing Division of the JAA
Headquarters. In accordance with its national law, a JAA Member State may direct that in the
interest of safety an applicant or licence holder it has duly reported to the State of licence
issue and the JAA for the above reason may not pilot aircraft registered in that State or pilot
any aircraft in that State’s airspace.
(a) A licence holder shall not exercise the privileges granted by any licence or rating issued by
a JAA Member State unless the holder maintains competency by meeting the relevant
requirements of JAR–FCL.
(b) The validity of the licence is determined by the validity of the ratings contained therein
and the medical certificate.
(c) The licence will be issued for a maximum period of 5 years. Within this period of 5 years
the licence will be re-issued by the Authority:
• Valid ratings will be transferred to the new licence document by the Authority.
• The licence holder shall apply to the Authority for the re-issue of the licence.
• The application shall include the necessary documentation.
Medical Fitness
Fitness
The holder of a medical certificate shall be mentally and physically fit to exercise safely the privileges
of the applicable licence.
In order to apply for or to exercise the privileges of a licence, the applicant or the holder shall hold a
medical certificate issued in accordance with the provisions of JAR–FCL Part 3 (Medical) and
appropriate to the privileges of the licence.
Aeromedical Disposition
After completion of the examination the applicant shall be advised whether fit, unfit or referred to
the Authority. The authorised medical examiner (AME) shall inform the applicant of any condition(s)
(medical, operational or otherwise) that may restrict flying training and/or the privileges of any
licence issued. In the event that a restricted medical certificate is issued which limits the holder to
exercise pilot-in-command privileges only when a safety pilot is carried, the Authority will give
advisory information for use by the safety pilot in determining the function and responsibilities (see
IEM FCL 1.035).
Licence holders or student pilots shall not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or
authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might
render them unable to safely exercise those privileges and they shall without undue delay seek the
advice of the Authority or AME when becoming aware of:
Every holder of a medical certificate issued in accordance with JAR–FCL Part 3 (Medical) who is
aware of:
(a) any significant personal injury involving incapacity to function as a member of a flight
crew; or
(b) any illness involving incapacity to function as a member of a flight crew throughout a
period of 21 days or more; or
(c) being pregnant,
shall inform the Authority in writing of such injury or pregnancy, and as soon as the period of
21 days has elapsed in the case of illness. The medical certificate shall be deemed to be suspended
upon the occurrence of such injury or the elapse of such period of illness or the confirmation of the
pregnancy, and:
(1) in the case of injury or illness the suspension shall be lifted upon the holder being
medically examined under arrangements made by the Authority and being pronounced fit to
function as a member of the flight crew, or upon the Authority exempting, subject to such
conditions as it thinks fit, the holder from the requirement of a medical examination; and
(2) in the case of pregnancy, the suspension may be lifted by the Authority for such period
and subject to such conditions as it thinks fit and shall cease upon the holder being medically
examined under arrangements made by the Authority after the pregnancy has ended and
being pronounced fit to resume her functions as a member of the flight crew.
Age 60–64.
The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years shall not act as a pilot of an
aeroplane engaged in commercial air transport operations except:
(1) as a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that,
(2) such holder is the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained age 60.
Age 65.
The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an
aeroplane engaged in commercial air transport operations.
(a) An applicant shall demonstrate the satisfactory completion of all requirements for licence
issue to the Authority of the State under whose Authority the training and testing for the
licence were carried out. Following licence issue, this State shall thereafter be referred to as
the ‘State of licence issue’ (see JAR–FCL 1.010(c)).
(b) Further ratings may be obtained under JAR–FCL requirements in any JAA Member State
and will be entered into the licence by the State of licence issue.
(c) For administrative convenience, e.g. revalidation, the licence holder may subsequently
transfer a licence issued by the State of licence issue to another JAA Member State, provided
that employment or normal residency is established in that State (see JAR–FCL 1.070). That
State would thereafter become the State of licence issue and would assume the
responsibility for licence issue referred to in (a) above. An applicant shall hold only one JAR–
FCL licence (aeroplane) at any time.
Normal Residency
Normal residency means the place where a person usually lives for at least 185 days in each
calendar year because of personal and occupational ties or, in the case of a person with no
occupational ties, because of personal ties which show close links between that person and the
place where she or he is living.
The flight crew licence issued by a JAA Member State in accordance with JAR–FCL will conform to
the following specifications.
Content
The item number shown will always be printed in association with the item heading. A standard JAA
licence format is shown in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.075. Items I to XI are the ‘permanent’ items and
items XII to XIV are the ‘variable’ items which may appear on a separate or detachable part of the
main form. Any separate or detachable part shall be clearly identifiable as part of the licence.
Permanent Items
Variable Items
(XII) Ratings – class, type, instructor, etc., with dates of expiry. Radio telephony (R/T)
privileges may appear on the licence form or on a separate certificate.
(XIII) Remarks – i.e. special endorsements relating to limitations and endorsements for
privileges.
(XIV) Any other details required by the Authority.
Language
Licences shall be written in the national language and in English and such other languages as the
Authority deems appropriate.
Medical Fitness
An applicant for a CPL(A) shall hold a valid Class 1 medical certificate. In order to exercise the
privileges of the CPL(A) a valid Class 1 medical certificate shall be held.
(a) Privileges. Subject to any other conditions specified in JARs, the privileges of the holder of
a CPL(A) are to:
(1) exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(A);
(2) act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot of any aeroplane engaged in operations other than
commercial air transportation;
(3) act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation of any single-pilot aeroplane.
(4) act as co-pilot in commercial air transportation.
(b) Conditions. An applicant for a CPL(A) who has complied with the conditions specified in
JAR–FCL 1.140, 1.145 and 1.155 through 1.170 shall have fulfilled the requirements for the
issue of at least a CPL(A) containing the class/type rating for the aeroplane used on the skill
test and, if an instrument rating course and test are included, the instrument rating.
(3) 10 hours of instrument instruction time, of which not more than 5 hours is to be
instrument ground time; and
(4) 5 hours of night flight time, as set out in JAR–FCL 1.165(b)
(d) Simulated flight time. The Authority will determine whether experience as a pilot under
instruction in an FNPT or in an flight simulator is acceptable as part of the total flight time
required (see Appendix 1 JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a) (1) through (4)).
Theoretical Knowledge
(a) Course. An applicant for a CPL(A) shall have received theoretical knowledge instruction at
an approved flying training organisation (FTO), or from an approved organisation specialising
in theoretical knowledge instruction, on an approved course. The course should be combined
with a flying training course as set out in JAR–FCL 1.165.
(b) Examination. An applicant for a CPL(A) shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A) and shall meet the
requirements set out in JAR–FCL Subpart J.
(c) An applicant who has undertaken an integrated flying training course shall demonstrate at
least the level of knowledge required by that course, as set out in the relevant Appendix 1 to
JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a) (1) through (3).
Flight Instruction
(a) Course. An applicant for a CPL(A) shall have completed an approved course of integrated
or modular flying training on aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or
accepted by a JAA Member State at an approved flying training organisation. The course
should be combined with a theoretical knowledge training course. For details of the
approved courses see as follows:
(1) ATP(A) integrated course – Appendix 1 JAR–FCL 1.160 and 1.165(a)(1) and AMC FCL 1.160
& 1.165(a)(1);
(2) CPL(A)/IR integrated course – Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 and 1.165(a)(2) and AMC FCL
1.160 & 1.165(a)(2);
(3) CPL(A) integrated course – Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(3) and AMC FCL 1.160
& 1.165(a)(3); and
(4) CPL(A) modular course – Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(4) and AMC FCL 1.160 &
1.165(a)(4).
(b) Night training. The applicant shall have completed at least 5 hours flight time in
aeroplanes at night comprising at least 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour
of cross-country navigation, and 5 solo take-offs and 5 full-stop landings.
Skill
An applicant for a CPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command of an
aeroplane the procedures and manoeuvres described in Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR–FCL 1.170 with a
degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a CPL(A).
An applicant who has undertaken an integrated flying training course shall demonstrate the level of
skill required by that course, as set out in the relevant Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.160 & 1.165(a)(1)
through (3) and AMC FCL 1.160 & 1.165(1), (2) and (3).
Medical Fitness
An applicant for or the holder of an ATPL(A) shall hold a valid Class 1 medical certificate. In order to
exercise the privileges of the ATPL(A) a valid Class 1 medical certificate shall be held.
(a) Privileges. Subject to any other conditions specified in JARs, the privileges of the holder of
an ATPL(A) are to:
(1) exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(A), a CPL(A) and an IR(A); and
(2) act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot in aeroplanes engaged in air transportation.
(b) Conditions. An applicant for an ATPL(A) who has complied with the conditions specified in
JAR–FCL 1.265, 1.270 and 1.280 through 1.295 shall have fulfilled the requirements for the
issue of an ATPL(A) containing a type rating for the aeroplane type used on the skill test.
JAR–FCL 1.280 Experience and crediting
(a) An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes at least 1,500
hours of flight time of which a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in a flight
simulator, including at least:
(1) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with the
JAR/FAR–25 Transport category or the JAR/FAR–23 Commuter category, or equivalent code;
(2) 250 hours either as pilot-in-command or at least 100 hours as pilot-in-command and 150
hours as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and
functions of a pilot-in-command provided that the method of supervision is acceptable to
the Authority;
(3) 200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as pilot-in-
command or as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the
duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that the method of supervision is
acceptable to the Authority;
(4) 75 hours of instrument time of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground
time; and
(5) 100 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.
(b) (1) Holders of a pilot licence or equivalent document for other categories of aircraft will
be credited with flight time in such other categories of aircraft as set out in JAR–FCL 1.155
except flight time in helicopters which will be credited up to 50% of all the flight time
requirements of sub-paragraph (a).
(2) Holders of a flight engineer licence will be credited with 50% of the flight engineer time
up to a maximum credit of 250 hours. This 250 hours may be credited against the 1500 hours
requirement of sub-paragraph (a), and the 500 hours requirement of sub-paragraph (a)(1),
provided that the total credit given against any of these sub-paragraphs does not exceed
250 hours.
(c) The experience required shall be completed before the skill test given in JAR–FCL 1.295 is
taken.
Theoretical Knowledge
(a) Course. An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have received theoretical knowledge instruction
on an approved course at an approved flying training organisation (FTO), or at an
organisation specialising in theoretical knowledge instruction. An applicant who has not
received the theoretical knowledge instruction during an integrated course of training shall
take the course set out in Appendix 1 to JAR– FCL 1.285.
(b) Examination. An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(A) and in accordance with the
requirements in JAR–FCL Subpart J.
Flight Instruction
An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall be the holder of a CPL(A) issued or rendered valid under JAR–FCL, a
multi-engine instrument rating and have received instruction in multi-crew co-operation as required
by JAR–FCL 1.261(d) (see AMC FCL 1.261(d)).
JAR–FCL 1.295 Skill
(a) An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-
command in an aeroplane type certificated for a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR (see
AMCFCL 1.220 part B), the procedures and manoeuvres described in Appendices 1 and 2 to
JAR–FCL 1.240 with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the
holder of an ATPL(A).
(b) The ATPL(A) skill test may serve at the same time as a skill test for the issue of the licence
and a proficiency check for the revalidation of the type rating for the aeroplane used in the
test and may be combined with the skill test for the issue of a multi-pilot type rating.
The holder of a pilot licence shall not act in any capacity as a pilot of an aeroplane under Instrument
Flight Rules (IFR), except as a pilot undergoing skill testing or dual training, unless the holder has an
instrument rating (IR) appropriate to the category of aircraft issued in accordance with JAR–FCL. In
States where flight in VMC at night under VFR is not permitted, holders of a PPL or a CPL shall in
order to operate in VMC at night under IFR in that State hold at least a night qualification as set out
in JAR–FCL 1.125(c).
(a) Privileges
(1) Subject to the rating limitations imposed by use of a co-pilot during the skill test set out in
Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR–FCL 1.210, and any other conditions specified in JARs, the
privileges of a holder of a multi-engine IR(A) are to pilot multi-engine and single-engine
aeroplanes under IFR with a minimum decision height of 200 feet (60 m). Decision heights
lower than 200 feet (60 m) may be authorised by the Authority after further training and
testing in accordance with JAR–OPS, AMC FCL 1.250(2) paragraph 6 and with Appendix 2 to
JAR–FCL 1.240, section 6.
(2) Subject to the skill test conditions set out in Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR–FCL 1.210, and
any other conditions specified in JARs, the privileges of a holder of a single-engine IR(A) shall
be to pilot single-engine aeroplanes under IFR with a minimum decision height of 200 feet
(60 m).
(b) Conditions. An applicant who has complied with the conditions specified in JARs-FCL
1.185 through 1.210 shall have fulfilled the requirements for the issue of an IR(A).
JAR–FCL 1.185 Validity, revalidation and renewal
(a) An IR(A) is valid for one year. If an IR(A) for a multi-engine aeroplane is to be revalidated
the holder shall complete the requirements of JAR–FCL 1.245(b), which may be conducted in
a flight simulator. If an IR(A) for single-engine aeroplanes is to be revalidated the holder shall
complete, as a proficiency check, the skill test set out in Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR–FCL
1.210, which may be conducted in a flight simulator, or a FNPT II as set out in paragraph 14 to
Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.210.
(b) If the IR(A) rating is valid for use in single-pilot aeroplanes, the revalidation shall be
completed on either multi-pilot aeroplanes or single-pilot aeroplanes. If the IR(A) is restricted
for use in multi-pilot operations only, the revalidation shall be completed in multi-pilot
operations.
(c) If the rating is to be renewed, the holder shall meet the requirements above and any
additional requirements as determined by the Authority.
Theoretical Knowledge
(a) An applicant for an IR(A) shall have received theoretical knowledge instruction on an
approved course at an approved flying training organisation, or at an organisation approved
to conduct courses of theoretical knowledge instruction as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL
1.055 relevant to theoretical knowledge instruction only. The course should, wherever
possible, be combined with a flying training course.
(b) An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted
to the holder of an IR(A) and shall meet the requirements set out in JAR–FCL Subpart J.
An applicant for an IR(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to use the English language as set out in
Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.200.
Flight Instruction
An applicant for an IR(A) shall have participated in a course of integrated flying training which
includes training for the IR(A) (see JAR–FCL 1.165) or shall have completed an approved modular
flying training course as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.205. If the applicant is the holder of an
IR(H) the total amount of flight instruction required by Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.205 may be reduced
to 10 hours on single-engine or multi-engine aeroplanes, as applicable.
Skill
(a) General. An applicant for an IR(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform the
procedures and manoeuvres as set out in Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR–FCL 1.210 with a degree
of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an IR(A).
(b) Multi-engine aeroplanes. For a multi-engine aeroplane instrument rating the test shall be
taken in a multi-engine aeroplane.
An applicant wishing to obtain a type/class rating for the aeroplane used in the skill test shall
also meet the requirements of JAR–FCL 1.262.
(c) Single-engine aeroplanes. For a single-engine aeroplane instrument rating the test shall
be taken in a single-engine aeroplane. A multi-engine centreline thrust aeroplane shall be
considered a single-engine aeroplane for the purposes of a single-engine aeroplane IR.
(a) A person shall not carry out the flight instruction required for the issue of any pilot licence
or rating unless that person has:
(1) a pilot licence containing an instructor rating; or
(2) a specific authorisation granted by a JAA State in cases where:
(i) new aeroplanes are introduced; or
(ii) vintage aeroplanes or aeroplanes of special manufacture are registered, for which no
person has an instructor rating; or
(iii) training is conducted outside JAA Member States (see AMC FCL 1.300 (to be developed)).
(b) A person shall not carry out synthetic flight instruction unless holding a FI(A), TRI(A),
IRI(A) rating or SFI authorisation.
Instructor Ratings-General
(a) Pre-requisites. All instructors shall hold at least the licence, rating and qualification for
which instruction is being given (unless specified otherwise) and shall be entitled to act as
pilot-in-command of the aircraft during such training.
(b) Multiple roles. Provided that they meet the qualification and experience requirements set
out in this Subpart for each role undertaken, instructors are not confined to a single role as
flight instructors (FIs), type rating instructors (TRIs), class rating instructors (CRIs) or
instrument rating instructors (IRIs).
(c) Credit towards further ratings. Applicants for further instructor ratings may be credited
with the teaching and learning skills already demonstrated for the instructor rating held.
Minium Age
Restricted Privileges
(a) Restricted period. Until the holder of a FI(A) rating has completed at least 100 hours flight
instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights, the privileges of
the rating are restricted. The restrictions will be removed from the rating when the above
requirements have been met and on the recommendation of the supervising FI(A).
(b) Restrictions. The privileges are restricted to carrying out under the supervision of a FI(A)
approved for this purpose:
(1) flight instruction for the issue of the PPL(A) – or those parts of integrated courses at
PPL(A) level – and class and type ratings for single-engine aeroplanes, excluding approval of
first solo flights by day or by night and first solo navigation flights by day or by night; and
(2) night flying instruction.
The privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating (for restrictions see JAR–FCL 1.325) are to
conduct flight instruction for:
(a) the issue of the PPL(A) and class and type ratings for single-engine aeroplanes, provided
that for type ratings the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in
the preceding 12 months;
(b) the issue of a CPL(A), provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight
time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;
(c) night flying;
(d) the issue of an instrument rating, provided that the instructor has:
(1) at least 200 hours flight time in accordance with instrument flight rules, of which up to 50
hours may be instrument ground time in a flight simulator; and
(2) completed as a student an approved course comprising at least 5 hours of flight
instruction in an aeroplane, flight simulator or FNPT II (see AMC FCL 1.395) and has passed
the appropriate skill test as set out in Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345;
(e) the issue of a single-pilot multi-engine type or class rating, provided that the instructor
meets the requirements of JAR–FCL 1.380(a);
(f) the issue of a FI(A) rating, provided that the instructor:
(1) has completed at least 500 hours of instruction in aeroplanes; and
(2) has demonstrated to a FI(A) examiner the ability to instruct a FI(A) during a skill test
conducted in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.330 & 1.345; and
(3) is authorised by the Authority for this purpose.
Medical Requirements
Aeromedical Section (AMS)
(a) Establishment. Each JAA Member State will include within its Authority one or more
physicians experienced in the practice of aviation medicine. Such physicians shall either form
part of the Authority, or be duly empowered to act on behalf of the Authority. In either case
they shall be known as the Aeromedical Section (AMS).
(b) Medical Confidentiality. Medical Confidentiality shall be respected at all times. The
Authority will ensure that all oral or written reports and electronically stored information on
medical matters of licence holders/applicants are made available to an AMS, in order to be
used by the Authority for completion of a medical assessment. The applicant or his physician
shall have access to all such documentation in accordance with national law.
Aeromedical centres (AMCs) will be designated and authorised, or reauthorised, at the discretion of
the Authority for a period not exceeding 3 years. An AMC shall be:
(a) within the national boundaries of the Member State and attached to or in liaison with a
designated hospital or a medical institute;
(b) engaged in clinical aviation medicine and related activities;
(c) headed by an Authorised Medical Examiner (AME), responsible for coordinating
assessment results and signing reports and certificates, and shall have on staff physicians
with advanced training and experience in aviation medicine;
(d) equipped with medico-technical facilities for extensive aeromedical examinations.
The Authority will determine the number of AMCs it requires.
(a) Designation. The Authority will designate and authorise Medical Examiners (AMEs),
within its national boundaries, qualified and licensed in the practice of medicine. Physicians
resident in non-JAA States wishing to become AMEs for the purpose of JAR–FCL may apply to
the Authority of a JAA Member State. Such AMEs shall be restricted to carrying out standard
periodic revalidation/renewal assessments and shall report to and be supervised by the
Authority of that State.
(b) Number and location of examiners. The Authority will determine the number and location
of examiners it requires, taking account of the number and geographic distribution of its pilot
population.
(c) Access to documentation. An AME, responsible for coordinating assessment results and
signing reports, shall be allowed access to any prior aeromedical documentation held by the
AMS and related to such examinations as that AME is to carry out.
(d) Training. AMEs shall be qualified and licensed in the practice of medicine and shall have
received training in aviation medicine. They should acquire practical knowledge and
experience of the conditions in which the holders of licences and ratings carry out their
duties.
(1) Basic training in Aviation Medicine (see AMC FCL 3.090)
(i) Basic training for physicians responsible for the medical selection and surveillance of Class
2 flying personnel shall consist of a minimum of 60-hours of lectures including practical work
(examination techniques).
(ii) A final examination shall conclude the basic training course. A certificate will be awarded
to the successful candidate.
(iii) Possession of a certificate of basic training in Aviation Medicine constitutes no legal right
to be approved as an AME for Class 2 examinations by an AMS.
(2) Advanced training in Aviation Medicine
(i) Advanced training in Aviation Medicine for physicians responsible for the medical
examination and assessment and surveillance of Class 1 flying personnel should consist of a
minimum of 120-hours of lectures (60 additional hours to basic training) and practical work,
training attachments and visits to Aeromedical Centres, Clinics, Research, ATC, Simulator,
Airport and industrial facilities.
Training attachments and visits may be spread over three years. Basic training in Aviation Medicine
shall be a compulsory entry requirement (see AMC FCL 3.090).
(ii) A final examination shall conclude this advanced training course in Aviation Medicine and
a certificate shall be awarded to the successful candidate.
(iii) Possession of a certificate of Advanced Training in Aviation Medicine constitutes no legal
right to be approved as an AME for Class 1 or Class 2 examinations by an AMS.
(3) Refresher Training in Aviation Medicine. During the period of authorisation an AME is
required to attend a minimum of 20 hours approved refresher training. A minimum of 6
hours must be under the direct supervision of the AMS. Scientific meetings, congresses and
flight deck experience may be approved by the AMS for this purpose, for a specified number
of hours (see AMC FCL 3.090).
(e) Authorisation. An AME will be authorised for a period not exceeding three years.
Authorisation to perform medical examinations may be for Class 1 or Class 2 or both at the
discretion of the Authority. To maintain proficiency and retain authorisation an AME should
complete at least ten aeromedical examinations each year. For re-authorisation the AME
shall have completed an adequate number of aeromedical examinations to the satisfaction of
the AMS and shall also have undertaken relevant training during the period of authorisation
(see AMC FCL 3.090). Authorisation is invalid after the AME reaches 70 years of age.
(f) Transitional Arrangements. Authorised Medical Examiners (AMEs) appointed prior to
1 July 1999 will be required to attend training in the requirements and documentation of
JAR–FCL Part 3 (Medical) but may continue at the discretion of the Authority to exercise the
privileges of their authorisation without completion of JAR–FCL 3.090(d)(1) & (2).
Aeromedical Examinations
(a) For Class 1 medical certificates. Initial examinations for a Class 1 medical certificate shall
be carried out at an AMC. Revalidation and renewal examinations may be delegated to an
AME.
(b) For Class 2 medical certificates. Initial, revalidation and renewal examinations for a Class 2
medical certificate shall be carried out by an AMC or an AME.
(c) Report of aeromedical examination. The applicant shall complete the appropriate
application form as described in IEM FCL 3.095(c). On completing a medical examination the
AME shall submit without delay a signed full report to the AMS in the case of all Class 1 and 2
examinations. In the case of a constituted group of physicians performing aeromedical
examinations, the head of the group shall be designated and authorised in accordance with
JAR–FCL 3.090(a) and be responsible for co-ordinating the result of the assessment and
signing the report.
(d) Periodic Requirements. For a summary of special investigations required at initial, routine
revalidation or renewal, and extended revalidation and renewal examination see IEM FCL
3.095(a) & (b).
(f) Additional examination. Where the Authority has reasonable doubt about the continuing
fitness of the holder of a medical certificate, the AMS may require the holder to submit to
further examination, investigation or tests. The reports shall be forwarded to the AMS.
See further Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 3.105.
Authority to Act as a Flight Crewmember A person shall not act as a flight crewmember of
an aircraft unless a valid licence is held. The licence must have been issued by the State of Registry
of that aircraft or by any other contracting state and rendered valid by the State of Registry.
Medical Fitness An applicant for a licence must hold a Medical Assessment applicable for the
type of licence being applied for. Flight crewmembers shall not exercise the privileges of their licence
unless their Medical Assessment is in date. Each contracting state designates medical examiners that
are authorized to issue the Medical Assessment. For an Airline Transport Licence the validity of the
Medical Assessment is 12 months. This reduces to 6 months after the licence holder passes their
40th birthday.
Validity of Licence The licence holder must maintain competency, recent experience
requirements and a valid Medical assessment for a licence to remain valid.
Licences Issued by Non-JAA States A licence issued by non-JAA State may be rendered valid at the
discretion of the Authority of a JAA Member State for use on aircraft registered in that JAA Member
State.
Validation of a professional pilot’s licence shall not exceed one year from the date of validation,
provided that the basic licence remains valid. Any further validation for use on aircraft registered in
any JAA Member State is subject to agreement by the JAA Member States and to any conditions
seen fit within the JAA. The user of a licence validated by a JAA Member State shall comply with the
requirements stated in JAR-FCL.
Validity of Licences and Ratings A licence holder shall not exercise the privileges granted by any
licence or rating issued by a JAA Member State unless the holder maintains competency by meeting
the relevant requirements of JAR-FCL.
The validity of the licence is determined by the validity of the ratings contained therein and the
medical certificate. The licence will be issued for a maximum period of 5 years. Within this period of
5 years the licence will be re-issued by the authority if:
• After initial issue or renewal of a rating
• When the licence is full
• For any administrative reason
• At the discretion of the authority when a rating is revalidated
The licence holder must apply for the re-issue of the licence; this application must include all
necessary documentation.
Recent Experience - A pilot shall not operate an aeroplane carrying passengers as the pilot in
command or co-pilot unless he has carried out:
• At least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in the same type/class or flight
simulator in the preceding 90 days, and
• If the flight is at night, and the holder does not hold a valid Instrument rating one of
the take-offs and one of the landings must be carried out at night.
• Credited in full with all solo, dual instruction or pilot in command (PIC) flight
time towards the total flight time required for the licence or rating
• An ATPL/CPL graduate of an integrated CPL/ATPL course is entitled to be
credited with up to 50 hours student pilot in command (SPIC) instrument time
towards the pilot in command time required for the issue of the ATPL, CPL and
a multi engine type or class rating
Co-Pilot
• Credited in full with all co-pilot time towards the total flight time required for
a higher grade of pilot licence
• The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the
supervision of the PIC the functions and duties of a PIC shall be entitled to be
creditied in full with this flight time required for a higher grade of licence. The
method of supervision must be approved by the authority.
State of Licence Issue - An applicant shall demonstrate the satisfactory completion of all
requirements for licence issue to the authority of the State under whose authority the training and
testing for the licence were carried out. Following licence issue, this State shall thereafter be
referred to as the “State of licence issue”.
Further ratings may be obtained under JAR-FCL requirements in any JAA Member State and will be
entered into the licence by the State of Licence issue
• If the holder of a licence carries out a number of flights on the same day returning
to the same place of departure, and the interval between the flights does not
exceed 30 minutes, this series of flights can be counted as one flight
• All flight time as co-pilot on an aeroplane where more than one pilot is required
Instruction Time
• Where the method of supervision is approved by the authority a co-pilot may log
all PICUS time as long as the PIC did not intervene in the interest of safety
Licence Privileges
PPL(A)
Minimum Age 17
Experience and Crediting An applicant must have completed 45 hours flight time as a pilot
of aeroplanes. Five hours may have been completed in an FNPT or a flight simulator.
Where an applicant is the holder of one of the following licences then 10% of their total
flight time up to a maximum of 10 hours may be credited towards the issue of the PPL(A):
• Helicopter
• Microlight helicopters
• Gyroplanes
• Microlights with fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces
ATPL(A) Experience An applicant for an ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes at
least 1500 hours of flight time. A maximum of 100 hours flight simulator time may be included in
this figure. Specific qualifications required within the 1500 hours flight time are:
For ATPL:
• Helicopter flight time will be credited up to 50% of the flight time requirements
• Flight engineers will be credited with up to 50% of the flight time to a maximum of 250
hours flight engineer time
CPL(A) Experience
IR (A)
Medical Fitness An applicant shall be medically fit
Experience The pilot must hold a PPL(A) with a night qualification or a CPL(A) and have
completed at least 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC.in aeroplanes or helicopters of
which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Instructor Ratings An instructor rating is valid for 3 years. To be allowed to begin an FI(A) course
the pilot must have 200 hours of flight time of which 100 hours must be PIC if the pilot is the holder
of an ATPL(A) or CPL(A). 150 hours PIC if the holder of a PPL(A) and be the holder of the knowledge
requirements for CPL(A).
• Completed at least 30 hours on single engine piston aeroplanes of which 5 hours shall
have been completed during the 6 months preceding the pre-flight entry flight test
• Received at least 10 hours instrument instruction of which not mmore than 5 hours may
be instrument ground time in an FNPT or flight simulator
• Completed at least 20 hours of cross country as PIC including a flight totaling not less
than 300 nm in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes must
have been made
• Passed a pre-flight entry test
Class Ratings Class ratings are established for single pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating as
follows:
Type Ratings Other than those aeroplanes included in the class ratings above the following
aeroplanes require type ratings:
Type ratings and multi-engine class ratings for aeroplanes are valid for one year from the date of
issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the validity period.
Single Pilot Multi Engine Type and Class Rating The pilot shall have completed at least 70 hours
as PIC of aeroplanes.
Proficiency Checks The operator must ensure that each flight crewmember undergoes the
following checks and recurrent training:
Operator Proficiency Check Each flight crew member must undergo an Operator Proficiency Check
to demonstrate their competence in carrying out normal, abnormal and emergency procedures. The
check is carried out under IFR conditions as part of a normal flight crew complement.
The validity of an Operator Proficiency Check is 6 calendar months. If the check is issued within the
final 3 calendar months of validity of a previous Operator Proficiency Check then the period of
validity extends from the date of issue until 6 calendar months from the expiry date of that previous
Operator Proficiency Check.
Line CheckEach flight crewmember must undergo a Line Check to demonstrate their competence in
carrying out normal line operations.
The period of validity is 12 calendar months. If the check is issued within the final 3 calendar months
of validity of a previous Line Check then the period of validity extends from the date of issue until 12
calendar months from the expiry date of that previous Line Check.
Emergency and Safety Equipment Training and Checking - Each flight crew member must
undergo training and checking on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment
carried.
The period of validity is 12 calendar months. If the check is issued within the final 3 calendar months
of validity of a previous Emergency and Safety Check then the period of validity extends from the
date of issue until 12 calendar months from the expiry date of that previous Emergency and Safety
Check
CRM Each flight crewmember has to undergo recurrent CRM training. JAA OPS covers validity and
recurrent training periods required.
Ground and Refresher Training Each flight crewmember must undergo Ground and Refresher
Training.
The period of validity is 12 calendar months. If the training is conducted within 3 calendar months
prior to the expiry of the 12 calendar months period, the next Ground and Refresher Training must
be completed within 12 calendar months of the expiry date of the previous ground and refresher
training.
Aeroplane/Flight Simulator Training Each flight crewmember must undergo Aeroplane/Flight
Simulator Training at least every 12 calendar months.
If the check is issued within the final 3 calendar months of validity of previous Aeroplane/Flight
Simulator Training then the period of validity extends from the date of issue until 12 calendar
months from the expiry date of that previous Aeroplane/Flight Simulator Training.
Chapter 6
Rules of Air
The rules of the air shall apply to aircraft bearing the nationality and registration marks of a
Contracting State, wherever they may be. An aircraft must follow the rules of the air of the state
being over flown. These rules also apply to Oceanic Regions that are covered by Regional Air
Navigation Agreements.
The operation of an aircraft in flight or on the movement area shall be in accordance with the
General Rules, which are listed later. In flight operation must also be flown under:
The PIC, whether at the controls or not, shall be responsible for the operation of the aircraft in
accordance with the rules of the air. The PIC may depart from the rules of the air in the interests of
safety.
Pre-Flight Action
The PIC of an aircraft must pre-brief himself with all available information appropriate to the flight.
Flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome, and all IFR flights shall include:
• A meteorological brief
• A consideration of the fuel requirements
• Alternative actions if the flight cannot be completed as planned
The PIC of an aircraft shall have final authority over the aircraft while in command
No person shall pilot an aircraft, or act as flight crew while under the influence of intoxicating liquor,
or any narcotic or drug, by reason of which that person’s capacity to act is impaired.
General Rules
Protection of Persons and Property- Negligent or Reckless Operation of Aircraft.
An aircraft shall not be operated in a negligent or reckless manner so as to endanger life or property
of others.
Minimum Heights
No aircraft is to be flown over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open
air assembly of persons, unless at a height that will permit, in the event of an emergency, a landing
to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Exceptions to this rule are:
Note: Minimum heights for VFR and IFR flights will be discussed in the later sections.
Flight Level
For flights above the lowest useable flight level or where applicable, above the Transition Altitude.
Altitude
For flights below the lowest usable flight level or where applicable, at or below the Transition
Altitude.
Fig. 6-1
Aircraft Restrictions
None of the following can be carried out from an aircraft in flight except when prescribed by the
appropriate authority, and as indicated by relevant information, advice and/or clearance from the
appropriate ATSU
• Dropping or Spraying
• Towing
• Parachute Descents
• Acrobatic Flight
Formation Flights
The previous conditions assume that the following rules are observed:
• The formation operates as a single aircraft with regard to navigation and position reporting
• Separation between aircraft in flight shall be the responsibility of the flight leader and the
PICs of the other aircraft
• A distance not exceeding 1 km lateral and longitudinal and 30 m vertical from the flight
leader shall be maintained
Aircraft shall not be flown in Prohibited or Restricted Areas except in accordance with the conditions
of the restrictions, or by the permission of the state, over whose territories the areas are
established.
Avoidance of Collisions
It is important that vigilance for the purpose of detecting potential collisions is not relaxed on board
an aircraft in flight, regardless of the type of flight or the class of airspace in which the aircraft is
operating, and while operating on the movement area of an aerodrome.
Proximity
An aircraft shall not be operated in close proximity to other aircraft so as to create a collision hazard.
Right of Way
The aircraft that has the right of way (give way to the right rule) shall maintain its heading and
speed. Nothing in these rules shall relieve the PIC of an aircraft from the responsibility of taking such
action, including collision avoidance manoeuvres based on resolution advisories provided by ACAS
equipment.
Any aircraft that is obliged to keep out of the way of another aircraft shall avoid passing over, under
or in front of that aircraft, unless it is well clear and takes into account the effect of wake turbulence.
Approaching Head On
When two aircraft approach head on, or approximately so, and there is a danger of collision, then
both shall alter heading to the right.
Fig. 6-2
Converging
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft that has the other on
its right shall give way.
Fig. 6-3
• Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons
• Airships shall give way to gliders and balloons
• Gliders shall give way to balloons
• Power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft or
objects
Overtaking
An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches from the rear on a line forming an angle of less
than 70º.
Note: The overtaking aircraft is in a position that it is unable to see either the aircraft’s left (red light)
or right (green light) navigation lights.
An aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way and the overtaking aircraft, whether climbing,
descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of the way by altering its heading to the right. No
change in the relative positions of the two aircraft absolves the overtaking aircraft from this
obligation until it is entirely past and clear.
Fig. 6-4
Landing
An aircraft in flight, or operating on the ground, shall give way to aircraft landing or in the final
stages of an approach to land.
When two or more heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome to land, aircraft at the
higher level shall give way to aircraft at the lower level. No aircraft shall take advantage of this rule
by cutting in front of another aircraft that is on its final approach.
Emergency Landing
An aircraft that is aware that another aircraft is compelled to land shall give way to that aircraft.
Taking Off
An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to aircraft taking-off or
about to take-off.
When there is a danger of collision between two aircraft taxiing on the movement area of an
aerodrome the following rules apply:
• Where two aircraft are approaching head-on, or approximately so, each shall stop or where
practicable alter its course to the right so as to keep well clear
• When two aircraft are on a converging course, the one that has the other on its right shall
give way
• An aircraft which is being overtaken by another aircraft shall have the right of way. The
overtaking aircraft shall keep well clear of the other aircraft.
An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area shall stop and hold at all taxi-holding positions unless
authorized by the aerodrome control tower. This includes lighted stop bars; when the lights are
switched off then an aircraft may proceed.
From sunset to sunrise, or during any other period prescribed by the appropriate authority:
• All aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome shall display navigation lights intended to
indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer. Other lights shall not be displayed if
they are likely to be mistaken for these lights
• Unless stationary, and otherwise adequately illuminated, all aircraft on the movement area
of an aerodrome shall display lights intended to indicate the extremities of their structure
Note: If suitably located on the aircraft the navigation lights may meet these requirements.
• All aircraft operating on the movement area of an aerodrome shall display lights intended to
attract attention to the aircraft, and
• All aircraft operating on the movement area of an aerodrome whose engines are running
shall display lights which indicate that fact
Note: Red anti-collision lights may meet the requirements of the two paragraphs above provided
that they do not subject observers to harmful dazzle.
All aircraft operating on the movement area of an aerodrome that are fitted with anti-collision lights,
or lights that show that the engines are running, shall display these lights at all times on the
movement area.
Pilots shall be permitted to switch off, or reduce the intensity of, any flashing lights if they do, or are
likely to:
An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within an ATZ:
Note: When the height of the transition altitude is lower than 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, FL 100
should be used in lieu of 10 000 ft.
a) flight visibilities reduced to not less than 1 500 may be permitted for flights operating:
1) at speeds that, in the prevailing visibility, will give adequate opportunity to observe other
traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision; or
2) in circumstances in which the probability of encounters with other traffic would normally
be low, e.g. in areas of low volume traffic and for aerial work at low levels.
b) HELICOPTERS may be permitted to operate in less than 1 500 m flight visibility, if maneuvered at
a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid
collision.
*** The VMC minima in Class A airspace are included for guidance to pilots and do not imply
acceptance of VFR flights in Class A airspace.
Fig. 6-5
Fig. 6-6
VFR flights between sunset and sunrise, or such other periods between sunset and sunrise as are
prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, can operated in accordance with the conditions set out
by that authority.
Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights are not operated:
• Above FL 200
• At transonic and supersonic speeds
Except when necessary for take-off and landing, or where permission has been granted from the
appropriate authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown:
• Over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of
persons at a height less than 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of
600 m from the aircraft
• Elsewhere, other than specified in the paragraph above, at a height less than 150 m (500 ft)
above the ground or water
Except where indicated in ATC clearances or specified by the appropriate ATS authority:
VFR flights in level cruising flight when operated above 900 m (3000 ft) from the ground or water, or
A higher datum as specified by the appropriate ATS authority are conducted at a flight level
appropriate to track as specified in the table of cruising levels to be found after the notes on IFR.
VFR flights shall comply with the provisions laid out in ATC clearances:
A VFR flight operating within ATS routes, or areas specified by the appropriate ATS authority, shall
maintain a continuous listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency. The aircraft must report
its position as necessary to, the ATS unit providing the FIS.
An aircraft operated in accordance with VFR which wishes to change its flight to IFR, shall:
• If a flight plan was submitted, communicate the necessary changes to be effected to its
current flight plan, or
• When so required submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATS unit and obtain a clearance
prior to proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace
Provision of SVFR
Where a pilot cannot, or has good reason not to, comply with IFR in a CTR he/she may request a
special VFR (SVFR) clearance to:
Procedure
The clearance given permits flight in meteorological conditions less than VMC providing the pilot
remains clear of cloud and in sight of the ground, and can navigate the aircraft by visual means.
In class A airspace, it also allows operations without complying with IFR rules. A pilot must request
SVFR. It has to be requested by a pilot. SVFR is only applicable to CTRs.
The limit of the clearance is to or from the CTR boundary and does not extend beyond the CTR.
In busy areas SVFR traffic corridors are established as standard SVFR routes beginning at specified
points and terminating at the aerodrome served by the route.
Take-off Conditions
According to ICAO a SVFR flight may take off from an aerodrome providing the ground visibility is not
less than 1500 m. JAR OPS requires a ground visibility of not less than 3000 m.
Both references require a minimum flight visibility of 1500 m to continue a SVFR flight.
Flight Plans
A Flight Plan is the means by which the captain notifies Air Traffic Services of the intention to fly and
follow a route. Under certain circumstances it is optional to file, under others it is mandatory.
• For any flight where an air traffic control service will be provided
• Any IFR flight within advisory airspace
• Any flight in areas or along routes which are designated by ATS to assist in the provision of
flight information, alerting and search and rescue services
• Any flight in areas or along routes which are designated by ATS to facilitate cooperation with
military units or ATS in adjacent States
• Any flight across international borders
Many pilots choose to file a flight plan for VFR flights not in receipt of a control service. This
guarantees that ATS know all about you, your aircraft, and your intentions, which will be extremely
useful in the event of an emergency.
Flight plans are normally filed before flight – at least 60 minutes unless local procedures dictate
otherwise. They can be filed in the air, and should then be filed at least 10 minutes before reaching
airspace for which the clearance is required. With timing being of such importance both in filing and
reporting in flight, a time check with ATC should be obtained before flight.
The flight plan itself will contain details of aircraft identification, type and equipment (particularly
Radio and navigation), Point of Departure and off block time, cruising Speed, level and route,
destination and elapsed time, and nominated alternate. On the basis of information supplied, ATS
will coordinate your requirements with other traffic and issue a clearance which will either approve
all or only some of the details requested – for instance you may not get the level requested, or there
may be a delay to departure.
Any change to a flight plan before flight needs to be communicated to ATS; for mandatory
submission, any change must be reported as soon as practicable whilst for non-mandatory plans
only significant changes need be reported.
In flight, the flight plan should be followed as filed but there is scope to make intended changes to
level, route and destination. If there are any inadvertent deviations to the cleared plan, action must
be taken as follows:
As one of the reasons for filing a flight plan is to provide emergency support should the need arise, it
is vitally important that when you complete your flight safely you ensure that air traffic is aware and
your flight plan is closed. This can be as simple as advising ATS on arrival over the radio, where no
ATS is provided on arrival, use the quickest means practical after landing to advise the nearest ATS
unit. If communication on landing at destination will be difficult, advise the ATS unit serving the
airport of destination immediately prior to landing.
Aircraft Equipment
All aircraft have to be equipped with suitable instruments and navigation equipment appropriate to
the route to be flown.
Minimum Levels
Except when necessary for take-off and landing, or except when specifically authorized by the
appropriate authority, an IFR flight is flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude
established by the state whose territory is being over flown. If no minimum altitude has been
established IFR flight shall be flown:
Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600 m (2000 ft) above the
highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft, or at a level which is at
least 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
Note: The estimated position of the aircraft will take account of the navigational accuracy which can
be achieved on the relevant route segment, having regard to the navigational facilities available on
the ground and in the aircraft.
An aircraft wishing to change from IFR to VFR flight shall, if a flight plan was submitted, notify the
appropriate ATS unit that the IFR flight is cancelled and communicate the changes to be made to the
current flight plan. ATC will concur with this request but may observe that weather is less than VMC
if that is the case.
When an aircraft operating under IFR is flown in, or encounters, VMC it shall not cancel its IFR flight
unless it is anticipated, and intended, that the flight will be continued for a reasonable period of
time in uninterrupted VMC.
IFR flights shall comply with the provisions of the rules laid out in ATC clearances.
An IFR flight operating in cruising flight shall be flown at a cruising level, or if authorized to employ
cruise climb techniques, between two levels or above a level, selected from the table of cruising
levels found after this section. The correlation to track does not apply when indicated in ATC
clearances or specified in the appropriate ATS authority AIP.
An IFR flight operating in level cruising flight outside controlled airspace is flown at a cruising level
appropriate to track as specified in the table of cruising levels found after this section.
Note: The provision does not preclude the use of cruise climbing techniques by aircraft in supersonic
flight
Communication
All IFR flights operating outside controlled airspace but within or into areas, or along routes
designated by the appropriate ATS authority shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate
radio frequency. Two-way communications must be established with the ATS unit providing the FIS.
Position Reports
All IFR flights operating outside controlled airspace and required by the appropriate ATS authority
to:
• Submit a flight plan
• Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency
• Establish two way communication with the appropriate ATS authority
• Shall report their position as for controlled flight
Note: Aircraft electing to use the air traffic advisory service while operating IFR are expected to
comply with the provisions for ATC clearances, except that the flight plan and changes thereto are
not subject to clearances.
Two way communication will be maintained with the unit providing the air traffic advisory service.
Cruising Levels
Semi Circular Rule
The cruising flight levels are based on reference to the magnetic track flown.
The basic rule is that vertical separation between VFR and IFR FLs below FL290 is 1000 ft. FLs. Above
FL290, the separation is increased to 2000 ft to allow for the inaccuracies in barometric altimeters at
altitudes where the barometric lapse rate is high.
Fig. 6-7
Fig. 6-8
Except when on the basis of regional air navigation agreements, a modified table of cruising levels
based on a nominal vertical separation minimum of 300 m (1000 ft) is prescribed for use under
specified conditions, by aircraft operating above FL 410 within designated portions of the airspace,
Magnetic track, or Polar areas at a latitude higher than 70º.
Within such extensions to those areas as may be prescribed by the appropriate ATS authorities, grid
tracks as determined by a network of lines parallel to the Greenwich Meridian superimposed as a
polar stereographic chart in which the direction towards the North Pole is employed as Grid North.
Except where on the basis of regional air navigation agreements, from 090º to 269º and from 270º
to 089º is prescribed to accommodate predominant traffic directions and appropriate transition
procedures to be associated therewith are specified.
The desired cruising levels for turbo-jet aircraft are adjacent to the tropopause (typically FL350 –
370).
These levels can quickly become occupied and congestion arises. To prevent this situation, a system
of reduced vertical separation is applied with1000 ft separation between FLs is maintained up to
FL410. This doubles the available FLs between FL290 and FL410.
This standard is known as Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM). Where RVSM is applied, VFR
flight is not permitted above FL285.
Fig. 6-9
Signals
When observing or receiving any of the signals shown, aircraft shall take the actions required by the
signal. The signals are used for the purposes indicated. No other signals that are likely to be
confused with the authorised signals shall be used.
Distress Signals
The following signals used separately, or together, mean that grave and imminent danger threatens
and immediate assistance is required:
Urgency Signals
When used separately, or together, the following signals mean that an aircraft wishes to give notice
of difficulties that compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance:
The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft has a very urgent
message to transmit concerning safety:
Series of Red flashes Aerodrome unsafe, do not Taxi clear of landing area
land in use
Acknowledgement by an Aircraft
When in Flight
During the hours of daylight by moving the aircraft’s ailerons or rudder and during the hours of
darkness by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching
on and off its navigation lights twice.
A horizontal red square with yellow diagonals when displayed in a signal area indicates that landings
are prohibited and that prohibition is likely to be prolonged.
Fig. 6-10
A horizontal red square with one yellow diagonal when displayed in a signal area indicates that
owing to the bad state of the manoeuvring area, or for any other reason, special precautions must
be observed in approaching to land or in landing.
Fig. 6-11
A horizontal white dumbbell when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to
land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.
Fig. 6-12
The same dumbbell but with a black bar indicates that aircraft are required to land and take-off on
runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways.
Fig. 6-13
A red letter L displayed on the dumb-bell signifies that light aircraft are permitted to take-off and
land either on a runway or designated area.
Fig. 6-14
A cross of a single contrasting colour, yellow or white, displayed horizontally on runways or taxiways
indicate an area unfit for the movement of aircraft.
A horizontal white or orange landing T indicates the direction to be used by aircraft for landing and
take-off.
Fig. 6-17
Two digits displayed vertically at or near to the aerodrome control tower indicate the direction for
take-off. These units are expressed in units of 10º to the nearest 10º of the magnetic compass.
Fig. 6-18
Direction of traffic
A right hand arrow of conspicuous colour (usually red and yellow) indicates that turns are to be
made to the right before landing and after take-off.
Fig. 6-19
Air Traffic Services Reporting Office
The letter C vertically in black against a yellow background indicates the location of the ATS
reporting office.
Fig. 6-20
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that gliders are using the
aerodrome.
Fig. 6-21
Two dashed yellow lines followed by two solid yellow lines indicate the holding point closest to the
runway. During hours where ATC is not operating this is the closest point an aircraft or vehicle can
approach the runway in order to give way to taking off or landing aircraft.
Fig. 6-22
A yellow ladder marking across the taxiway indicates holding point other than closest to the runway.
When ATC is not operating it can be ignored.
Fig. 6-23
Signal Mast
Fig. 6-24
Boundary Markers
White and orange stripped markers indicate the boundary of the manoeuvring area where these are
not clear.
Fig. 6-25
Marshalling Signals
These signals are designed for use by the signalman or marshaller (you may see both terms used in
the book, signalman is used in accordance with ICAO), with hands illuminated as necessary to
facilitate observation by the pilot, and facing the aircraft in a position:
The aircraft engines are numbered for the signalman facing the aircraft, from right to left (The port
outer is Number 1 engine).
Move Ahead
Arms a little aside, palms facing backward and
repeatedly moved upward-backward from
shoulder height.
Stop
Arms repeatedly crossed above the head (the
rapidity of the arm movement should be related to
the urgency of the stop ie the faster the
movement the quicker the stop).
Table 6-3
Description Visual Signal
Start Engine(s)
Left hand overhead with appropriate number of
fingers extended, to indicate the number of the
engine to be started, and circular motion of right
hand at head level.
Chocks Inserted
Arms down, palms facing inwards, move arms
from extended position inwards.
Chocks Removed
Arms down, palms facing outwards, move arms
outwards.
Cut Engines
Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand
Slow Down
Arms down with palms toward ground
Release Brakes
Raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front
of body, then extend fingers.
Engage Brakes
Raise arm, and hand with fingers extended,
horizontally in front of the body, then extend the
fingers.
Engine start
Left hand up with 2 fingers extended to indicate
engine number, right hand doing a circular motion.
Table 6-4
These signals are designed for use by a pilot in the cockpit with hands plainly visible to the
signalman, and illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the signalman.
Fig. 6-26
In Flight Contingencies
Fuel Dumping Procedures
Fuel dumping is normally associated with an emergency scenario requiring the aircraft to land as
light as possible – or in some cases – to reach an acceptable landing weight following an emergency
on departure. When time allows, fuel dumping should be conducted away from congested areas
and thunderstorm’s and above 6000’ to allow the fuel to vaporise before making contact with the
surface.
Strayed Aircraft
An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost.
Unidentified Aircraft
An aircraft which has been observed or reported to be operating in a given area but whose identity
has not been established.
As soon as an ATS unit becomes aware of a strayed aircraft it shall take all necessary steps to assist
the aircraft and safeguard its flight. If the aircraft’s position is not known, the ATS unit shall attempt
to establish two way communication with the aircraft, unless such communication already exists,
then:
• Advise the aircraft of its position and corrective action to be taken, and
• Provide as necessary, other ATS units and appropriate military units with relevant
information concerning the strayed aircraft and any advice given to that aircraft
As soon as an ATS unit becomes aware of an unidentified aircraft in its area, it shall endeavour to
establish the identity of the aircraft whenever this is necessary for the provision of ATS services or
required by the appropriate military authorities in accordance with locally agreed procedures.
To this end, the ATS unit shall take such of the following steps as are appropriate in the
circumstances:
The ATS unit shall, as necessary, inform the appropriate military unit as soon as the identity of the
aircraft has been established.
Interception Manoeuvres
A standard method should be established for the manoeuvring of aircraft intercepting a civil aircraft
in order to avoid any hazard for the intercepted aircraft. This method must take into account:
Collision hazard
Phase I
The intercepting aircraft should approach from the stern. The element leader, or single intercepting
aircraft, should normally take up position on the left side, slightly above and ahead of the
intercepted aircraft. This position should be within the field of view of the pilot of the intercepted
aircraft; the intercepting aircraft should not be closer than 300 m. All other participating aircraft
should remain well clear. Once speed and position have been established, the aircraft can then
proceed with Phase II.
Phase II
The intercepting aircraft should gently close with the intercepted aircraft. This must be no closer
than absolutely necessary. Caution should be used to avoid startling the flight crew or passengers.
Upon completion of identification, the intercepting aircraft should withdraw using the procedures
outlined in Phase III.
Phase III
The element leader, or the single intercepting aircraft, should break gently away from the
intercepted aircraft in a shallow dive. Other aircraft must remain well clear and rejoin their leader.
If, following the visual identification manoeuvres in Phases I and II, it is considered necessary to
intervene in the navigation of the intercepted aircraft the element leader, or single intercepting
aircraft, should take up position on the left side, slightly above and ahead of the intercepted aircraft.
This is to enable the pilot of the intercepted aircraft to see the visual signals.
The pilot of the intercepting aircraft must be satisfied that the PlC of the intercepted aircraft is
aware of the interception and acknowledges the signals given. If repeated attempts to attract the
attention of the PlC of the intercepted aircraft are unsuccessful, then as a last resort other methods
such as using reheat/afterburner may be used, provided that no hazard is created.
Meteorological conditions may make it necessary for the intercepting aircraft to position on the right
of the intercepted aircraft. In this case the pilot of the intercepting aircraft must ensure that he is in
the view of the PIC of the intercepted aircraft at all times.
Guidance Of An intercepted Aircraft Navigational guidance, and related information, should be given
to an intercepted aircraft by radio, whenever radio contact can be established. Where navigational
guidance is given, care must be taken that the aircraft is not led into conditions where the visibility is
below that required to maintain VMC. The manoeuvres demanded of the intercepted aircraft must
not add to already existing hazards in the event that the operating efficiency of the aircraft is
impaired.
Where an intercepted aircraft is required to land in the territory overflown, care must also be taken
that:
• The designated aerodrome is suitable for the safe landing of the aircraft type concerned.
Especially if the aerodrome is not normally used for civil operations.
• The surrounding terrain is suitable for circling, approach and missed approach manoeuvres
• The intercepted aircraft has sufficient fuel remaining to reach the aerodrome
• If the intercepted aircraft is a civil transport aircraft, the designated runway has a length of at
least 2500 m and a bearing strength sufficient to support the aircraft, and
• The designated aerodrome, if possible, is described in detail in the relevant AIP
Where a civil aircraft is landing at an unfamiliar aerodrome, sufficient time must be allowed for
landing. The PlC of the civil aircraft is the only person who can judge whether the landing can be
made safety. All information necessary to facilitate a safe approach and landing should be given by
R/T.
In accordance with Article 3(d) of the Chicago Convention the Contracting States of ICAO:
“When issuing regulations for their state aircraft, they will have due regard for the safety of
navigation of civil aircraft”.
As interceptions of civil aircraft are potentially hazardous, the ICAO Council has formulated special
recommendations. The uniform application of these procedures is essential in the interest of safety
of civil aircraft.
All possible efforts must be made by intercept control units to secure identification of any aircraft.
Advice and instructions should be issued through the appropriate ATS units. To ensure rapid and
reliable exchange of communications, links between intercept control units and ATS units must be
established.
Clear and unambiguous instructions be issued to intercept control units and to PlC of intercepting
aircraft. These instructions must cover:
• Intercept manoeuvres
• Guidance of intercepted aircraft
• Action by intercepted aircraft
• Air-to-air visual signals
• Radio Communication with intercepted aircraft
• The need to refrain from resorting to the use of weapons
Intercept control units and intercepting aircraft be provided with the means to communicate with
civil aircraft on 121.500 MHz.
SSR facilities are made available so that intercept control units can identify civil aircraft in areas
where they might be otherwise intercepted. Facilities must be able to recognise Mode A codes,
including immediate recognition of Mode A codes 7500, 7600 and 7700.
All areas where flight is prohibited, or not permitted without special authorization, to civil aircraft
must be clearly promulgated in the AlP. The risk of interception in the event of penetration of such
areas must also be stated. When areas are promulgated close to ATS routes, states should take into
account:
• The availability and accuracy of the navigation systems to be used by civil aircraft, and
• The ability of civil aircraft to remain clear of the promulgated areas, and
• The establishment of additional navigational aids must be considered where necessary to
ensure that civil aircraft are able to circumnavigate prohibited, restricted or danger areas.
To eliminate, or reduce, the hazards inherent in interceptions, all possible efforts should be made to
ensure co-ordinated actions by the pilots and ground units concerned. Contracting States must
ensure that:
All pilots of civil aircraft are made fully aware of the actions to be taken by them and the visual
signals to be used.
If an ATS unit learns that an aircraft is being intercepted in its area of responsibility, it shall take any
of the following steps as are appropriate in the circumstances:
• Attempt to establish two way communication with the intercepted aircraft on any available
frequency, including the emergency frequency 121.500 MHz, unless such communication
already exists
• Inform the pilot of the intercepted aircraft of the interception
• Establish contact with the intercept control unit maintaining two way communication with
the intercepting aircraft and provide it with available information concerning the aircraft
• Relay messages between the intercepting aircraft or the intercept control unit and the
intercepted aircraft, as necessary
• In close co-ordination with the intercept control unit take all necessary steps to ensure the
safety of the intercepted aircraft
• Inform ATS units and adjacent FIRs if it appears that the aircraft has strayed
As soon as an ATS unit learns that an aircraft is being intercepted outside its area of responsibility, it
shall take such of the following steps as are appropriate in the circumstances:
Inform the ATS unit serving the airspace in which the interception is taking place, providing this unit
with available information that will assist in identifying the aircraft and requesting it to take action.
Relay messages between the intercepted aircraft and the appropriate ATS unit, the intercept control
or the intercepting aircraft
• Follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft, interpreting and responding to
visual signals.
• Notify, if possible, the appropriate ATS unit
• Attempt to establish communications with the intercepting aircraft, or with the appropriate
intercept control unit on, 121.500 MHz giving the identity of the intercepting aircraft and the
nature of the flight. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on
243.00 MHz
• If equipped with SSR transponder, select Mode A 7700, unless otherwise instructed by the
appropriate ATS unit
If any instructions received by radio from any source conflicts with those given by the intercepting
aircraft by radio, the intercepted aircraft shall request immediate clarification. Whilst clarification is
sought, the intercepted aircraft must continue to comply with the radio signals given by the
intercepting aircraft.
Both intercepting and intercepted aircraft must adhere strictly to the following signals. All signals
must be given as per the tables below. The intercepting aircraft must pay particular attention to any
signals given by the intercepted aircraft that indicate it is in a state of distress.
Table 6-5
Table 6-7
Table 6-8
Radio Communication between the Intercept Control Unit or the Intercepting Aircraft and the
Intercepted Aircraft.
When an intercept is being made the intercept control unit or the intercepting aircraft should
attempt to establish communications with the intercepted aircraft on 121.500 MHz. Failing this, an
attempt to establish communications with the intercepted aircraft on other frequencies that may
have been used with an ATS unit should be tried.
If radio contact is made during interception but communication in a common language is not
possible. Instructions can be issued and acknowledgements made using the table below:
Phrases for use by INTERCEPTING Aircraft Phrases for use by INTERCEPTED Aircraft
Phrase Pronunciatio Meaning Phrase Pronunciation Meaning
n
CALL SIGN KOL SA-IN What is CALL SIGN KOL SA-IN My call sign is
your call
sign?
FOLLOW FOL-LO Follow me WILCO VILL-CO Understood, will
comply
DESCEND DEE-SEND Descend for CAN NOT KANN-NOTT Unable to comply
landing
YOU LAND YOU-LAND Land at this REPEAT REE-PEET Repeat your
aerodrome instruction
PROCEED PRO-SEED You may AM LOST AM LOSST Position unknown
proceed
MAYDAY MAYDAY I am in distress
HIJACK HI-JACK I have been hijacked
LAND LAAND I request to land at
(Place (Place name)
name)
DESCEND DEE-SEND I require descent
Table 6-9
Chapter 7
General Criteria...................................................................................................... 4
The Instrument Departure Procedure .................................................................... 4
Obstacle Clearance ................................................................................................ 5
Standard Instrument Departures ........................................................................... 7
Aircraft Category .................................................................................................... 9
Omni-Directional Departures ............................................................................... 11
Sector Departures ................................................................................................ 12
Published Information ......................................................................................... 13
The Procedures for Air Navigation Services ICAO Doc 8168 - Aircraft Operations (PANS-OPS)
consists of two volumes:
• This volume describes the operational procedures recommended for the guidance of flight
operations personnel. It also outlines the various parameters on which the criteria in Volume
II are based so as to illustrate the need for operational personnel including flight crew to
adhere strictly to the published procedures in order to achieve and maintain an acceptable
level of safety in operations
• This volume is intended for the guidance of procedure specialists and describes the essential
areas and obstacle clearance requirements for the achievement of safe, regular instrument
flight operations. It provides the basic guidelines to States, and those operators and
organizations producing instrument flight charts that will result in uniform practices at all
aerodromes where instrument flight procedures are carried out.
The division of the PANS-OPS into the two volumes was the result of extensive amendments to the
obstacle clearance criteria and the construction of approach to land procedures. Both volumes
present coverage of operational practices that are beyond the scope of SARPs but with respect to
which a measure of international uniformity is desirable.
General Criteria
The criteria in this part are designed to provide flight crews and other flight operations personnel
with an appreciation, from the operational point of view, of the parameters and criteria used in the
design of instrument departure procedures which include but are not limited to standard instrument
departure routes and associated procedures.
These procedures assume that all engines are operating. In order to ensure acceptable clearance
above obstacles during the departure phase, instrument departure procedures maybe published as:
In the event that an aircraft cannot follow the published procedure following engine failure, it is the
responsibility of the operator to design and seek approval for a contingency procedure.
All these factors in turn influence the type and siting of navigation aids
At many aerodromes, a prescribed departure route is not required for ATC purposes. However, there
may be obstacles in the vicinity of the aerodrome that will have to be considered in determining
whether restrictions to departures are to be prescribed. In these cases, departure procedures may
be:
The use of automatic take-off thrust control systems (ATTCS) and noise abatement procedures will
need to be taken into consideration by the pilot and the operator.
• Where no suitable navigation aid is available the criteria for omni-directional departures is
applied.
• Where obstacles cannot be cleared by the appropriate margin when the aeroplane is flown
on instruments, aerodrome operating minima are established to permit visual flight clear of
obstacles.
Note: Wherever possible a straight departure will be specified which is aligned with the runway
centre line.
When a departure route requires a turn of more than 15º to avoid an obstacle, a turning departure
is constructed. Wherever limiting speeds or flight speeds are promulgated, they must be complied
with to remain within the appropriate areas. If an aeroplane operation requires a higher speed, then
an alternative departure procedure must be requested.
A departure procedure will be established for each runway where instrument departures are
expected to be used. This will define a departure procedure for the various categories of aircraft
based on all-engines PDG of 3.3% or an increased PDG if required to achieve minimum obstacle
clearance (see below).
• Pilots will not compensate for wind effects when being radar vectored
• Pilots will compensate for known or estimated wind effect when flying departure routes
which are expressed as track to be made good
Obstacle Clearance
Obstacle clearance is a primary safety consideration in the development of instrument departure
procedures. The criteria used and the detailed method of calculation are covered in the PANS-OPS
Volume II. The protected areas and obstacle clearance applicable to individual types of departure
are specified later in this document.
Unless otherwise promulgated a PDG of 3.3% is assumed. The PDG is made up of:
• 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification surfaces or the gradient based on the most critical
obstacle penetrating these surfaces, whichever is the higher gradient, and 0.8% increasing
obstacle clearance
Fig. 7-1
Gradients published will be specified to an altitude/height after which the minimum gradient of
3.3% is used. The final PDG continues until obstacle clearance is ensured for the next phase of flight.
At this point the departure procedure ends and is marked by a significant point.
The minimum obstacle clearance equals zero at the DER and increases by 0.8% of the horizontal
distance in the direction of flight assuming a maximum turn of 15º.
In the turn initiation area and turn area a minimum obstacle clearance of 90 m (295 ft) is provided.
Where mountainous terrain exists, consideration is given by the procedure designer to increasing
the minimum obstacle clearance.
Whenever a suitably located DME exists, additional specific height/distance information intended
for obstacle avoidance may be published. RNAV way-point or other suitable fixes may be used to
provide a means of monitoring climb performance.
There are two basic types of departure route, straight and turning. Departure routes are based on
track guidance acquired within:
The design of instrument departure routes and the associated obstacle clearance criteria are based
on the definition of tracks to be followed by the aeroplane. When flying the published track, the
pilot is expected to correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
Fig. 7-2
Aircraft Category
If a turn is required during a procedure, the aircraft speed must be taken into account so that the
aircraft remains in the protected zone during the turn. The following table defines the maximum
speeds for the different categories of aircraft:
Table 7-2
Fig. 7-3
Fig. 7-4
A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within 15º of the runway centre
line. Track guidance may be provided by a suitably located facility (VOR or NDB) or by RNAV.
Where obstacles exist affecting the departure route, PDGs greater than 3.3% are promulgated to an
altitude/height after which the 3.3% gradient is considered to prevail. Gradients to a height of 60 m
(200 ft) or less, caused by close-in obstacles, are not specified.
Fig. 7-5
When a turning departure requires a turn of more than 15º, a turning area is constructed.
Straight flight is assumed until reaching an altitude/height of at least 120 m (394 ft) above the
elevation of the DER.
Where the location and/or height of obstacles precludes the construction of turning departures
which satisfy the minimum turn height criteria, departure procedures should be developed on a
local basis in consultation with the operators concerned.
Contingency Procedures
Omni-Directional Departures
Where no track guidance is provided in the design, the departure criteria are developed by using the
omni-directional method.
The departure procedure commences at the DER, which is the end of the area declared suitable for
take-off. The end of the runway or clearway as appropriate. Since the point of lift-off will vary, the
departure is constructed on the assumption that a turn at 120 m (394 ft) above the elevation of the
aerodrome will not be initiated sooner than 600 m from the beginning of the runway.
Unless otherwise specified, departure procedures are developed on the assumption of a 3.3% PDG
and a straight climb on the extended runway centre line until reaching 120 m (394 ft) above the
aerodrome elevation.
The omni-directional departure procedure is designed using any one of a combination of the
following:
• Standard Case
• Where no obstacles penetrate the 2.5% OIS and 90 m (295 ft) of obstacle prevails, a 3.3%
climb to 120 m (394 ft) will satisfy the obstacle clearance requirements.
Fig. 7-6
Where obstacle(s) preclude omni-directional turns at 120 m (394 ft), the procedure will specify a
3.3% climb to an altitude/height where omni-directional turns can be made (Area 2)
Where obstacle(s) exist, the procedure may define a minimum gradient of more than 3.3% to a
specified altitude/height before turns are permitted (Area 3)
Sector Departures
Where obstacle(s) exist, the procedure may identify sector(s) for which either a minimum gradient
or a minimum turn altitude/height is specified
“Climb straight ahead to ... altitude/height ... before commencing a turn to ... west/the sector 180º -
360º”
Where obstacles do not permit the development of omni-directional procedures, it is necessary to:
• Fly a departure route, or ensure that the ceiling and visibility will permit obstacles to be
avoided by visual means.
Published Information
The information listed will be published for operational reasons.
• The position and height of close-in obstacles penetrating the OIS. A note is included on the
SID chart whenever close-in obstacles exist which were not considered for the published PDG
• The highest obstacle in the departure area, and any significant obstacle outside the area
which dictates the design of the procedure
• The altitude/height at which a gradient in excess of 3.3% is no longer used. A note is included
whenever the published PDG is based only on airspace restriction
• All navigation facilities, fixes or way points, radials and DME distances depicting route
segments are clearly indicated on the SID chart
Departure routes are labeled as RNAV only when that is the primary means of navigation utilized.
(The principles governing RNAV departure procedures based on VOR/DME are the same as those for
Arrival procedures covered comprehensively in Chapter 9).
For omni-directional departures, the restrictions will be expressed as sectors in which minimum
gradients and/or minimum altitudes are specified to enable an aeroplane to safely over fly
obstacles.
The published minimum gradient will be the highest in any sector that may be expected to be over
flown. The altitude to which the minimum gradient is specified will permit the aircraft to continue at
the 3.3% minimum gradient through:
• That sector
• A succeeding sector
• To an altitude authorized for another phase of flight eg en-route, holding or approach
• A fix may also be designated to mark the point at which a gradient in excess of 3.3% is no
longer required.
Chapter 8
Approach Procedures
General Criteria
The specifications in this volume are designed to provide flight crew and other flight operations
personnel with:
• An appreciation from the operational point of view, of the parameters and criteria used in
the standardized development of precision and non-precision instrument approach
procedures, and
• The procedures to be followed and the limitations to be observed in order to achieve an
acceptable level of safety in the conduct of instrument approach procedures
• The arrival
• The initial approach
• The intermediate approach
• The final approach
• The missed approach
The approach segments begin and end at designated fixes. Under certain circumstances certain
parts of the segments may begin at specified points where no fixes are available, ie. The final
approach segment of a precision approach may originate at the point of intersection of the
designated intermediate flight altitude with the nominal glide path.
Wherever possible a straight-in approach will be specified which is aligned with the runway centre
line. In the case of non-precision approaches a straight-in approach is considered acceptable if the
angle between the final approach track and the runway centre line is 30º or less.
In those cases where terrain or other constraints cause the final approach track alignment or
descent gradient to fall outside the criteria for a straight-in approach a circling approach will be
specified. The final approach track of a circling approach procedure is in most cases aligned to pass
over a portion of the usable landing surface of the aerodrome.
Except when being Radar vectored, pilots are expected to make due allowance for wind (ie applying
drift to maintain published track) when carrying out an instrument approach.
Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome and provide at least 300 m (984 ft)
obstacle clearance within a circle radius 46 km (25 nm) centred on the homing facility associated
with the approach procedure for that aerodrome. The sector may be divided into segments based
on the magnetic track of the aircraft with different MSAs in each segment as below for Madrid.
Fig. 8-1
Categories of Aircraft
Aircraft performance has a direct effect on the airspace and visibility needed to perform the various
manoeuvres associated with the conduct of instrument approach procedures. The most significant
performance factor is aircraft speed. Accordingly, five categories of typical aircraft have been
established. Each category is based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum
certificated landing mass. This provides a standardized basis for relating aircraft manoeuvrability to
specific instrument approach procedures.
This specified range of handling speeds for each category of aircraft is assumed for use in calculating
airspace and obstacle clearance requirements for each procedure.
The instrument approach chart will specify the individual categories of aircraft for which the
procedure is approved. Normally, procedures will be designed to provide protected airspace and
obstacle clearance for aircraft up to and including Category D. Where airspace requirements are
critical, procedures may be restricted to lower speed categories.
Alternatively, the procedure may specify a maximum lAS for a particular segment without reference
to aircraft category. It is essential that pilots comply with the procedures and information depicted
on instrument flight charts and the appropriate flight parameters if the aircraft is to remain in the
areas developed for obstacle clearance procedures.
Obstacle Clearance
Obstacle clearance is a primary safety consideration in the development of instrument approach
procedures. The criteria used and the detailed method of calculation is covered in PANS-OPS,
Volume II. The obstacle clearance applied in the development of each instrument approach
procedure is considered to be the minimum required for an acceptable level of safety in operations.
The protected areas and obstacle clearance applicable to individual types of approaches are
specified later.
For each individual approach procedure an obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is calculated
for a procedure and published on the instrument approach chart. In the case of precision approach
and circling approach procedures an OCA/H is specified for each category of aircraft. OCA/H is:
Fig. 8-2
The lowest altitude (OCA) or alternatively the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant
runway threshold (OCH), at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with
the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria
The lowest altitude (OCA) or alternatively the lowest height above the aerodrome elevation or the
elevation of the relevant runway threshold, if the threshold elevation is more than 2 m (7 ft) below
the aerodrome elevation (OCH), below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the
appropriate obstacle clearance criteria
Fig. 8-3
Fig. 8-4
Minima are developed by adding the effect of a number of operational factors to OCA/H to produce:
The general operational factors to be considered are specified in Annex 6. The relationship of OCA/H
to operating minima (landing) is shown in the following 3 diagrams.
Where track guidance is provided in the design of an instrument approach procedure each of the
five segments of the approach comprises of a specified volume of airspace. The vertical cross section
of which is an area located symmetrically about the centre line of each segment. The vertical cross
section is broken down into primary and secondary areas as shown in the diagram below.
Fig. 8-5
At any point the width of the primary area is equal to ½ of the total width. The width of each
secondary area is equal to ¼ of the total width. Where no track guidance is provided during a turn
specified by the procedure, the total width of the area is considered as a primary area.
MOC is provided for the whole width of the primary area. For the secondary area, MOC is provided
at the inner edges gradually reducing to zero at the outer edge.
Because all navigational facilities have accuracy limitations, the geographic point that is identified is
not precise, but may be anywhere within an area called the fix tolerance area which surrounds its
plotted point of intersection. The diagram below illustrates the intersection of two radials or tracks
from different navigation facilities.
Fig. 8-6
By the same token, a direct route between two navigation aids will require due allowance for the
fact that even if the aircraft is flown and the aid transmits to within the angular tolerances, the
horizontal displacement from the centre line will increase as distance from the facility increases. This
will generate a spray of airspace which needs to be surveyed for obstacle clearance. The same
concept also allows for the horizontal tolerances to be reduced the closer the route gets to the
Approach Aid.
Accuracy of Fixes
Fixes and points used in designing approach procedures include, but are not limited to:
VOR: 5.2º (this value includes a flight technical tolerance of’ ± 2.5º)
ILS: Localizer ± 2.4º (this value includes a flight technical tolerance of ± 2º)
VOR : ± 4.5º when used in an approach procedure to establish a step down fix where less than 300
m (984 ft) of obstacle clearance prevails, accuracy is considered to be ± 7.80º
NDB : ± 6.2º when used in an approach procedure to establish a step down fix where less than 300
m (984 ft) of obstacle clearance prevails, accuracy is considered to be ± 10.3º
Surveillance Radar
Radar fix accuracy is based on:
Fix tolerance is ± 0.46 km (± 0.25 nm) + 1.25% of the distance to the antenna
VOR
VOR Fix tolerance overhead a VOR is based upon a cone of confusion 50º from the vertical, or less if
determined by flight test. Entry into the cone is assumed to be within an accuracy from the
prescribed track so as to keep the lateral deviation abeam the VOR.
For a cone angle of 50º:
NDB
Fix tolerance overhead an NDB is based upon an inverted cone of ambiguity extending at an angle of
40º either side of the facility. Entry into the cone is assumed to be achieved within an accuracy of ±
15º from the prescribed track. Tracking through the cone is assumed to be within an accuracy of ±
50º
Tolerances are used to narrow and widen instrument approach areas as the aircraft flies to and from
a facility respectively. The area is of a standard width of 3.7 km (2 nm) for VOR and 4.6 km (2.5 nm)
for NDB at the facility.
The diagram above shows the final approach segment (contained between FAF and MAPt). The
optimum and maximum distances for locating the FAF relative to the threshold are 9 km (5 nm) and
19 km (10 nm) respectively.
Descent Gradient
In designing instrument approach procedures adequate space is allowed for descent from the facility
crossing altitude/height to the runway threshold for straight-in approach or to OCA/H for circling
approaches.
Establishing a maximum allowable descent gradient for each segment of the procedure provides
adequate space for descent. The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed
5% (50 m/km, approx 300 ft/nm) which is equivalent to a 3º glidepath. Where a steeper descent
gradient is necessary, the maximum permissible is 6.5% (65 m/km, approximately 400 ft/nm) which
is equivalent to a 3.8º glidepath. In the case of a precision approach the operationally preferred
glidepath angle is 3º. An ILS glidepath in excess of 3º is used only where alternate means of
satisfying obstacle clearance requirements are impractical.
In certain cases the maximum descent gradient of 6.5% (65 m/km) results in descent rates that
exceed the recommended rates of descent for some aircraft. Pilots should consider carefully the
descent rate required for non-precision final approach segments before starting the approach.
When necessary or where an operational advantage is obtained, arrival routes from the en-route
phase to a fix or facility used in the procedure are published.
When arrival routes are published, the width of the associated area decreases from the “en-route”
value to the “initial approach” value with a convergence angle of 30º each side of the axis. This
convergence begins at:
• 46km (25 nm) before the IAF if the length of the arrival route is greater than or equal to 46
km (25 nm)
• It begins at the starting point of the arrival route if the length is less than 46 km (25 nm)
The arrival route normally ends at the initial approach fix. Omni-directional or sector arrivals can be
provided taking into account MSA.
When terminal radar is employed the aircraft is vectored to a fix, or onto the intermediate or final
approach track, at a point where the pilot may continue the approach.
Fig. 8-7
Initial Approach Segment
The initial approach segment commences at the IAF and ends at the IF. In the initial approach, the
aircraft has departed the en-route structure and is manoeuvring to enter the intermediate approach
segment. Aircraft speed and configuration will depend on the distance from the aerodrome, and
descent required. The initial approach segment provides at least 300 m (984 ft) of obstacle clearance
in the primary area.
Track guidance is provided along the initial approach segment to the IF, with a maximum angle of
interception of 90º for a precision approach and 120º for a non-precision approach. If there is no
track guidance to IF, a DR segment may be specified, for which the interception angle to the
intermediate segment track must be no greater than 45º and the length of DR track no more than 10
NM. Where no suitable lAF or IF is available a racetrack or holding pattern is required.
Fig. 8-8
IAF to IF (precision approach)
Fig. 8-9
IAF to IF (non-precision approach)
Fig. 8-10
IAF to IF (DR segment)
This is the segment during which the aircraft speed and configuration is adjusted to prepare the
aircraft for final approach. The descent gradient is kept as shallow as possible. During the
intermediate approach the obstacle clearance requirement reduces from 300 m (984 ft) to 150 m
(492 ft) in the primary area, reducing to zero at the outer edge of the secondary area.
Where a FAF is available, the intermediate approach segment begins when the aircraft is on the
inbound track of the procedure turn, base turn or final inbound leg of the racetrack procedure.
Note: Where no FAF is specified, the inbound track is the final approach segment
This is the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made. Final approach may be
made to a runway for a straight in landing or to an aerodrome for a visual manoeuvre.
This segment begins at the FAF and ends at the MAPt. The FAF is sited on the final approach track at
a distance that permits selection of final approach configuration, and descent from intermediate
approach altitude/height to the MDA/H applicable either for a straight in approach or for a visual
circling. The optimum and maximum distances for locating the FAF relative to the threshold are 9 km
(5 nm) and 19 km (10 nm) respectively.
The FAF is crossed at, or above, the specified altitude/height and descent is then initiated. The
descent gradient is published, and where range information is available, descent profile information
is provided.
A step-down fix may be incorporated in some non-precision approach procedures, in which case two
OCA/H values will be published:
Normally only one step-down fix is specified, but in the case of a VOR/DME procedure several DME
fixes may be depicted, each with its associated minimum crossing attitude.
Where a step-down procedure using a suitably located DME is published, the pilot shall not
commence descent until established on the specified track. Once established on track, the pilot
commences descent maintaining the aeroplane on or above the published DME distance/height
requirements.
When an aerodrome is served by a single facility located on or near the aerodrome, and no other
facility is suitably situated to form a FAF, a procedure may be designed where the facility is both the
IAF and the MAPt.
These procedures will indicate a minimum altitude/height for a reversal procedure or racetrack, and
an OCA/H for final approach. In the absence of a FAF, descent to MDA/H is made once the aircraft is
established inbound on the final approach track.
In procedures of this type, the final approach track cannot normally be aligned on the runway centre
line. Whether OCA/H for straight in approach limits are published or not depends on the angular
difference between the track and the runway.
Normally, glide path interception occurs at heights from 300 m (984 ft) to 900 m (2955 ft) above
runway elevation. On a 3º glide path interception occurs between 6 km (3 nm) and 19 km (10 nm)
from the threshold.
The width of the ILS final approach area is much narrower than those of a non-precision approach.
Descent on the glide path must never be initiated until the aircraft is established on the localizer.
The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centre
line more than half a scale deflection after being established on track. Thereafter the aircraft should
adhere to the on-course, on-glide path position since more than half course sector deflection or
more than half course fly up deflection combined with other allowable system tolerances could
place the aircraft in the vicinity of the edge or bottom of the protected airspace where loss of
protection from obstacles can occur.
The intermediate approach track or radar vector has been designed to place the aircraft on the
localizer at an altitude/height that is below the nominal glide path.
The final approach area contains a fix or facility that permits verification of the glide path/altimeter
relationship. The outer marker is normally used for this purpose. Prior to crossing the fix, descent
may be made on the glide path to the published fix crossing altitude/height. Descent below the fix
crossing altitude/height should not be made prior to crossing the fix.
In the event of loss of glide path guidance during the approach, the procedure becomes a non-
precision approach. The OCA/H published for the glide path inoperative case will apply.
Determination of DA or DH-ILS
As well as the physical characteristics of the ILS installation, the procedures specialist’s consideration
is given to obstacles in the approach areas for the calculation of the OCA/H for a procedure. The
calculated OCA/H is the height of the highest approach obstacle or equivalent missed approach
obstacle, plus an aircraft category related allowance. In assessing these obstacles the operational
variables of the:
• Aircraft category
• Approach coupling
• Category of operation
• Missed approach climb performance
The OCA or OCH values are listed on the instrument approach chart for those categories of aircraft
for which the procedure is designed. The values are based on the following standard conditions:
Additional factors are considered by the operator to arrive at the DA/H value. These additional
factors applied to the OCA/H result in the DA/H value that is calculated by the pilot.
Since the OCA/H might be based on an obstacle in the missed approach area and since advantage
may be taken of the variable missed approach climb performances, operators must consider:
• Weight
• Altitude
• Temperature limitations
• Wind velocity
Unless otherwise noted on the instrument approach chart the nominal missed approach climb
gradient is 2.5%.
The allowance for vertical displacement during initiation of a missed approach takes into account
the type of altimeter used and the height loss due to aircraft characteristics. It should be recognized
that no allowance is included for any abnormal meteorological conditions eg windshear or
turbulence.
• PAR 200 ft
• ILS 200 ft
• MLS 200 ft
In addition to the above a Pressure Error Correction (PEC) for the aircraft in approach configuration
is applied. The PEC is found in the aircraft/operator’s manual. If no PEC is specified then a PEC of +
50 ft should be used.
If a precision approach, add PEC, when calculating MDA/MDH for a non-precision approach, PEC
need not be considered.
Missed Approach
During the missed approach phase of the instrument approach procedure the pilot is faced with the
demanding task of changing the aircraft configuration, attitude and altitude. For this reason the
design of the missed approach is kept as simple as possible and consists of three phases:
• Initial
• Intermediate
• Final
Fig. 8-11
A missed approach procedure is designed to provide protection from obstacles throughout the
missed approach manoeuvre. Established for each instrument approach procedure, it specifies a
point where the missed approach begins and a point or an altitude/height where it ends. The missed
approach is assumed to be initiated not lower than DA/H in the precision approach or at a specified
point in non-precision approach procedures not lower than the MDA/H.
• The point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA/H, or
• A navigational facility
• A fix
• A specified distance from the FAF
When a navigational facility or a fix defines the MAPt, the distance from the FAF to the MAPt is
normally published, and may be used for timing to the MAPt. In all cases where timing is not
authorised the procedure is annotated “timing not authorized for defining the MAPt”
When reaching the MAPt, if the required visual reference is not established, then a missed approach
is initiated immediately to ensure obstacle clearance. Only one missed approach procedure is
published for each approach procedure.
Pilots are expected to fly the missed approach procedure as published. In the event that a missed
approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPt, the pilot will normally proceed to the MAPt and
then follow the missed approach procedure in order to remain within the protected airspace.
However, this does not preclude crossing the MAPt at a height greater than that published.
Procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of 2.5%.
A gradient of 2% may be used in the procedure construction if the necessary survey and
safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority
Gradients of 3, 4 or 5% may be used for aircraft whose climb performance permits an operational
advantage to be thus obtained
If a gradient other than a 2.5% gradient is used this is indicated on the instrument approach chart. In
addition to the OCA/H for the specific gradient used the OCA/H applicable to the nominal gradient
will also be shown.
A missed approach procedure which is based on the nominal climb gradient of 2.5% cannot be used
by all aeroplanes when operating at or near maximum certificated gross mass and engine out
conditions. The operation of these aeroplanes needs special consideration at aerodromes where
there are critical obstacles on the missed approach area. These obstacles may result in a special
procedure being established with a possible increase in the DA/H or MDA/H.
Initial Phase
The initial phase begins at the MAPt and ends at the point where the climb is established. The pilot
establishes the climb and changes in aircraft configuration. Guidance equipment is not normally fully
utilized during these manoeuvres and therefore no turns are specified in this phase.
Intermediate Phase
The intermediate phase is the phase within which the climb is continued, normally straight ahead. It
extends to the first point where 50 m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
The intermediate missed approach track may be changed by a maximum of 15º from that of the
initial missed approach phase. During this phase, it is assumed that the aircraft will begin track
corrections.
Final Phase
The final phase begins at the point where 50 m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is first obtained and can
be maintained. It extends to the point where:
Turns in a missed approach procedure are only prescribed where terrain and other factors make a
turn necessary. When turns greater than 15º are required in a missed approach procedure, they are
not allowed until at least 50 m (164 ft) of vertical clearance above obstacles has been ensured. If a
turn from the final approach track is made, a specially constructed turning missed approach area is
specified. The turning point is specified in one of two ways:
• At a designated facility or fix The turn is made upon arrival overhead the facility or fix, or
• At a designated altitude The turn is made upon reaching the designated altitude unless an
additional fix or distance is specified to limit early turns
The protected airspace for turns is based upon aeroplane speed. Where operationally required to
avoid obstacles, the lAS as slow as for the intermediate missed approach may be used provided the
approach chart is annotated.
eg “Missed approach turn limited to .... kt lAS maximum”
In addition, where an obstacle is located early in the missed approach procedure, the instrument
approach chart will be annotated
eg “Missed approach turn as soon as operationally practicable to heading”
The dimensions of the turning missed approach area will be affected by the following:
The turning missed approach area is based on the following assumed conditions:
As with any turning manoeuvre, speed is a controlling factor in determining the aircraft track during
the turn. The outer boundary of the turning area is based on the highest speed of category for which
the procedure is authorized.
The inner boundary caters for the slowest aircraft, which is expected to have an IAS of at least 185
km/h (100 kt) prior to reaching the turning point.
Turning Point
Chapter 9
Visual manoeuvring (circling) is the term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing
an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not
suitably located for a straight in approach.
• Aircraft category
• Speed for each category
• Wind speed, 46 km/h (25 kt) throughout the turn
• Bank angle, 20º average or 3º per second, whichever requires less bank
Obstacle Clearance
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the OCA/H is determined for each
category of aircraft.
When additional margin is added to the OCA/H for operational considerations an MDA/H is
specified. Descent below MDA/H should not be made until:
A circling approach is a visual flight manoeuvre. Each circling situation is different because of
variables such as:
• Runway layout
• Final approach track
• Wind velocity, and
• Meteorological conditions
There is no single procedure that caters for conducting a circling approach in every situation. After
initial visual contact, the basic assumption is that the runway environment , runway threshold,
approach lighting aids, and other markings identifiable with the runway should be kept in sight while
at MDA/H for circling.
Fig. 9-1
Published Information
The VM(C) OCA for the aerodrome is published on the chart for the instrument part of the approach.
The fixed margin is added to OCA for each category of aircraft.
Fig. 9-2
RNAV approach procedures based on VOR/DME are assumed to be based on one reference facility
composed of a VOR and co-located DME.
Aircraft equipped with RNAV systems which have been approved by the State of the Operator for an
appropriate level of RNAV operations may use these systems to carry out VOR/DME RNAV
approaches may be carried out, providing that before conducting any flight it is ensured that:
A disadvantage of this system is that the waypoint and, in some cases, data contained in the
navigational database have been calculated and promulgated by States and inserted by the operator
or crew. However, the computer cannot identify data input errors.
Furthermore, while the computer is designed so that the calculation errors are minimal and do not
affect the accuracy of the output significantly, the actual computed position will contain any errors
introduced into the navigational data base.
The aid used in the construction of the procedure is the reference VOR/DME indicated on the
approach plate. The passage of the stipulated fixes shall be verified by means of the reference
facility.
The pilot shall not commence a VOR/DME RNAV approach if either the VOR or DME component of
the reference facility is unserviceable.
The factors on which the navigational accuracy of the VOR/DME RNAV depends are:
Fixes used in the procedure are indicated as waypoints. These waypoints are referred to by alpha-
numeric indicators and their positions are specified in latitude and longitude (degrees, minutes and
seconds with an accuracy to the nearest second of arc or equivalent) A radial and DME distance (to
an accuracy of 0.18 km (0.1 nm)) from the reference facility are also provided.
The final approach segment is generally aligned with the runway. When the procedure requires a
track reversal, a racetrack pattern may be established. A runway threshold waypoint is provided.
The VOR/DME RNAV approach procedure is a non-precision approach. The minimum obstacle
clearance in the primary area of the final approach segment is 75 m (246 ft).
When FMS/RNAV equipment is available, it may be used when flying a conventional non-precision
approach procedure defined by the PANS-OPS, provided:
• The procedure is monitored using the basic display normally associated with the procedure,
and
• The tolerances for flight using raw data on the basic display are complied with
• Lead radials are for use by non-RNAV equipped aircraft and are not intended to restrict the
use of turn anticipation by the FMS.
Track Reversals
There are few different track reversal methods:
• Procedure turns
• Base turn
• Racetrack
At a defined point the aircraft is turned 45° and then flown straight and level. At this point the
timing starts for 1 min (A and B category aircraft) or 1 min 15 sec (C, D or E category aircraft) After
time elapses aircraft is turned in the opposite direction 180°. All turns are made at rate 1 (3°/sec) or
25° bank angle whichever is less. This gives an interception angle inbound of 45° (the optimum
converging angle).
Fig. 9-3
This procedure is used where airspace is limited. The aircraft is turned 80° and then it immediately
turn 260° in the opposite direction. The turns are made at rate 1 or 25° bank angle whichever is less.
In still air, at the completion of the turn the aircraft will be tracking inbound on the reciprocal of the
outbound track.
Fig. 9-4
Procedure Turn
This procedure is used when accurate track guidance is available other than the ILS localiser, for
instance VOR. From overhead the fix the aircraft is established on a defined track which diverges
from the reciprocal of the desired inbound track.
At a point defined by time, DME distance or interception of information from another aid, the
aircraft will intercept the desired truck inbound by establishing in a turn at rate 1 or 25° bank angle.
Fig. 9-5
Racetrack
This procedure is used mostly when the aircraft is required to enter holding pattern prior to
commencing instrument procedure, or if other course reversal procedure is not available. From
overhead the fix the aircraft is turned 180° and flown on the outbound course to a certain point
determined by time, distance or another fix, and then is turned 180° to intercept the inbound
course.
Fig. 9-6
Chapter 10
Holding Procedures
Standard Pattern
A holding pattern normally flown in a right hand pattern with a right turn at the holding point. A left
hand pattern and the associated joining procedures are a mirror image of a right hand pattern.
Note: Deviations from the in-flight procedures incur the risk of excursions beyond the perimeters of
holding areas established in accordance with the procedures detailed below:
Fig. 10-1
All turns are to be made at a bank angle of 25º or at a rate of 3º (rate 1) per second, whichever is the
lesser.
All procedures depict tracks and pilots should attempt to maintain the track by making allowance for
known wind by applying corrections both to heading and timing during entry and while flying in the
holding pattern.
Outbound timing begins over or abeam the fix whichever occurs later. If the abeam position cannot
be determined, the timing is started when the turn into the outbound leg is completed.
If the outbound leg length is based upon a DME distance the outbound leg terminates as soon as the
limiting DME distance is attained.
In the case of holding away from the station where the distance from the holding fix to the
VOR/DME station is short a limiting radial may be specified. If the limiting radial is encountered first,
this radial should be followed until a turn inbound is initiated or at latest where the limiting DME
distance is reached.
If for any reason a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for
any particular holding pattern, ATC should be advised as early as possible.
Aircraft equipped with RNAV systems which have been approved by the State of the Operator for
the appropriate level of RNAV operations may use these systems to carry out VOR/DME RNAV
holding, provided that before conducting any flight:
Conventional holding patterns may be flown with the assistance of a RNAV system. In this case the
RNAV system has no other function than to provide guidance for the autopilot or flight director. The
pilot remains responsible for ensuring that the aircraft complies with the speed, bank angle, timing
and distance assumptions.
Some RNAV systems can fly non-RNAV holding patterns without strict compliance with the PANS-
OPS, Volume H assumptions. Before these systems are used operationally, they must have
demonstrated to the satisfaction of the appropriate authority, that their commands will contain the
aircraft within the basic holding area defined by PANS-OPS. The pilot shall verify overflight of the
stipulated fixes by means of the reference facility.
RNAV holding may be conducted in a specifically designed holding pattern. These patterns utilize the
criteria and flight procedures assumptions of conventional holding with orientations that may be
referenced either by an overhead position or by radial and distance from a VOR/DME facility. These
holding patterns assume:
• That automatic radio navigation updating is utilized so that all authorized aircraft during the
entry manoeuvre achieve the navigation tolerance assumed by the procedure designer and
while in the holding pattern.
• That the pilot is provided with tracking information in a suitable form such as HSI and/or EFIS
presentation or cross track data, and
• That the pilot confirms the holding way-points by cross-reference to the published VOR/DME
fixes
RNAV holding procedures may be constructed using one or two way-points. Area holding may also
be provided. Area holding is specified by an area holding way-point and an associated radius. The
value of this radius is always such that the pilot may select any inbound track to the fix and join and
follow a standard left or right holding pattern based on the fix and selected track. Alternatively any
other pattern may be flown which will remain within the specified area.
Holding Speeds
Up to 4250 m (14 000 ft) 425 km/h (230 kt)2 520 km/h (280 kt)3
inclusive 315 km/h (170 kt)4 315 km/h (170 kt)4
Above 4250 m (14 000 ft) to 445 km/h (240 kt)5 520 km/h (280 kt)
6100m (20 000 ft) inclusive or 0.8 M whichever is less3
Above 6100 m (20 000 ft) to 490 km/h (265 kt)5 520 km/h (280 kt)
10 350 m (34 000 ft) or 0.8 M whichever is less3
inclusive
The levels tabulated represent altitudes or corresponding flight levels depending upon the
altimeter setting in use
When the holding procedure is followed by the initial segment of an instrument approach
procedure promulgated at a speed higher than 425 km/h, (230 kt), the holding should also be
promulgated at this higher speed wherever possible
The speed of 520 km/h, (280 kt) (0.8M) reserved for turbulence conditions shall be used for
holding only after prior clearance with ATC, unless the relevant publications indicate that the
holding area can accommodate aircraft flight at these high holding speeds
For holdings limited to CAT A and B aircraft only
Wherever possible, 520 Km/h (280 kt) should be used for holding procedures associated with
airway route structures
Table 10-1
The entry into the holding pattern is according to heading in relation to the three entry sectors
shown below recognizing a zone of flexibility of 5º either side of the sector boundaries.
For holding on a VOR intersection, the entry track is limited to the radials forming the intersection.
For holding on a VOR/DME fix, the entry track is limited to either the VOR radial, DME arc, or
alternatively along the entry radial to a VOR/DME fix at the end of the outbound leg as published.
Fig. 10-2
Fig. 10-3
Fig. 10-4
Having reached the fix the aircraft enters the holding pattern in accordance with either Sector One,
or Sector Three, entry procedures.
In the first case, arrival at the entry point is generally effected using:
• The VOR radial for the inbound leg
• The DME arc defining the holding fix
In the second case, arrival at the entry point is generally effected using the VOR radial passing
through the fix at the end of the outbound leg.
It is also possible to make use of guidance from another radio facility eg NDB, in which case,
protection of the entry should be the subject of a special study based on general criteria.
The radius of a DME arc used as guidance for arrival at a VOR/DME holding should not be less than
18.5 km (10 nm).
Arrival on the VOR radial for the inbound leg, on the same heading as the inbound track the arrival
path (or last segment) is aligned with the inbound track and follows the same heading. The entry
consists of the holding pattern A. Arrival on the VOR radial for the inbound leg, on a heading
reciprocal to the inbound track. On arrival over the holding fix, the aircraft turns onto the holding
side on a track making an angle of 30° with the reciprocal of the inbound track, until reaching the
DME outbound limiting distance, at which point it turns to intercept the inbound track. In the case
of a VOR/DME holding entry away from the facility with a limiting radial, if the aircraft encounters
the radial ahead of the DME distance, it must turn and follow it until reaching the DME outbound
limiting distance, at which point it turns to join the inbound track.
Arrival on the DME arc defining the holding fix, from the non-holding side- On arrival over the
holding fix, the aircraft turns and follows a track parallel to and on the same heading as the
outbound track, until reaching the DME outbound limiting distance, at which point it turns to
intercept the inbound track.
Arrival on the DME arc defining the holding fix, from the holding side- An arrival track leading to this
type of entry should not be specified if possible, particularly in the case of a VOR/DME holding
procedure away from the facility. If an appropriate DME distance is chosen, this type of arrival can
actually be replaced by one on a DME arc terminating in the extension of the inbound track.
However, space problems may preclude this solution. Criteria are therefore provided for an arrival
on the DME arc defining the holding fix, coming from the holding side:
On arrival over the holding fix, the aircraft turns and follows a track parallel and reciprocal to the
inbound track, until reaching the DME limiting outbound distance, at which point it turns to
intercept the inbound track.
Where the entry point is the fix at the end of the outbound leg, arrival (or last segment) is effected
along the VOR radial passing through the outbound fix. On arrival over the fix at the end of the
outbound leg, the aircraft turns and follows the holding pattern.
Time/Distance Outbound
The still air time for outbound entry heading should not exceed:
Note: Future RNAV systems able to enter into a one way-point RNAV holding without overflying the
holding point may use specific holding patterns based on this assumption. They may also use
conventional or RNAV holding described above.
Sectors for entry into an RNAV two way-point holding procedure are separated by the line which
passes through the two way points. Entries from either sector shall be made through the associated
way-point. After passing the way-point, the aircraft shall turn to follow the procedure.
For area holding, any entry procedure that is contained within the given area is permissible.
Having entered the holding pattern, on the second and subsequent arrivals over the fix the aircraft is
turned to fly an outbound track which will most appropriately position the aircraft for the turn onto
the inbound track.
Continue outbound:
• For 1 minute if at or below 4250 m (14 000 ft), or
• 1½ minutes if above 4250 m (14 000 ft), where timing is specified, or
• Until the appropriate limiting DME distance is attained, where the distance is specified, then
• Turn so to realign the aircraft on the inbound track.
When clearance is received specifying the time of departure from the holding point, the pilot should
adjust the pattern within the limits of the established holding procedure in order to leave the
holding point at the time specified.
When RNAV equipment is used for non-RNAV holding procedures, the pilot shall verify positional
accuracy at the holding fix on each passage of the fix.
To ensure that aircraft remain in the protected holding areas, pilots use established error check
procedures to reduce operating errors, data errors or equipment malfunction.
Pilots ensure that speeds used to fly the RNAV holding procedures comply with those in the table
shown earlier.
Obstacle Clearance
Holding Area
The holding area includes:
Buffer Area
• The Buffer Area is the area extending 9.3 km (5 nm) beyond the boundary of the holding
area where the height and nature of obstacles are taken into consideration when
determining the minimum holding level usable in the holding pattern associated with the
holding area.
The minimum holding altitude to be published shall be rounded up to the nearest 50 m or 100 ft as
appropriate.
Over high terrain or in mountainous areas obstacle clearance up to a total of 600 m (1969 ft) is
provided to negate the possible effects of turbulence, down draughts and other meteorological
phenomena on the performance of altimeters.
Fig. 10-5
Fig. 10-6
Chapter 11
The procedures listed below describe the method intended for use in providing adequate vertical
separation between aircraft and adequate terrain clearance during all phases of flight. The method
is based on the following principles:
• During flight, when at or below a fixed altitude called the transition altitude, an aircraft is
flown at altitudes determined from an altimeter set to sea level pressure (QNH) and its
vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude. (QNH) This pressure is normally measured
in Air Traffic Control Tower, and the reading will always be rounded down to the next lowest
whole number)
• During flight above the transition altitude an aircraft is flown along surfaces of constant
atmospheric pressure based on an altimeter setting of 1013.2 hPa and throughout this phase
of a flight the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed in terms of flight levels. Where no
transition altitude has been established for the area, aircraft in the en-route phase shall be
flown at a flight level
The change in reference from altitude to flight levels, and vice versa, is made:
The adequacy of terrain clearance during any phase of flight may be maintained in any of several
ways, depending upon the facilities available in a particular area, the recommended methods in
order of preference being:
• The use of current QNH reports from an adequate network of QNH reporting stations
• The use of such QNH reports as are available combined with other meteorological
information such as forecast lowest mean sea level pressure for the route or portions of
route, and where relevant current information is not available, the use of values of the
lowest altitudes of flight levels, derived from climatological data
During the approach to land, terrain clearance may be determined by using the QNH altimeter
setting (giving altitude) or, under specified circumstances, a QFE setting (QFE is Aerodrome pressure
which when set will read height above the QFE datum).
The method provides sufficient flexibility to permit variation in detailed procedures that may be
required to account for local conditions without deviating from the basic procedures.
Transition Altitude
A transition altitude is normally specified for each aerodrome by the State in which the aerodrome is
located.
Where two or more closely spaced aerodromes are located so as to require co-ordinated
procedures, a common transition altitude is to be established. This common transition altitude is the
highest of the transition altitudes that would result for the aerodromes if separately considered.
The height above the aerodrome of the transition altitude is as low as possible but normally not less
than 900 m (3000 ft). The calculated height of the transition altitude is rounded up to the next full
300 m (1000 ft). A transition altitude may be established for a specified area when determined on
the basis of regional air agreements. Transition altitudes are published in aeronautical information
publications and shown on the appropriate charts.
Transition Level
States shall make provision for the determination of the transition level to be used at any one time
at each of their aerodromes.
Where two or more closely spaced aerodromes use co-ordinated procedures, a common transition
altitude and a common transition level are used.
Note: The transition level is normally passed to aircraft in the approach and landing clearances
Transition Layer
If the Transition Altitude is 3000ft when the QNH is 1000 hPa, the Transition Level will be FL 35; (at 3000’ the
altimeter will read 3390’ when referenced to 1013, and thus the first available Flight Level above 3390 is FL
35) There will thus be a layer between the two of 110’ which is called the Transition Layer.
The vertical position of an aircraft when it is at or below the transition altitude shall be expressed in
terms of altitude. Whereas such position at or above the transition level shall be expressed in terms
of flight levels. While passing through the transition layer, vertical position shall be expressed in
terms of:
A QNH altimeter setting shall be made available to aircraft in taxi clearances prior to take-off. The
vertical positioning of aircraft during climb shall be by reference to altitudes until reaching the
transition altitude above which vertical positioning shall be by reference to flight levels.
The key factor when cruising en-route is to ensure the aircraft is positioned at or above the
established minimum flight altitude. – The lowest useable Flight Level is that level which
corresponds to or is immediately above the minimum. When an aircraft is below the minimum
useable flight level vertical position will be referred to as altitude, and when above the minimum
useable flight level vertical position will be referred to as Flight Level.
Terrain Clearance
QNH altimeter setting reports should be provided from sufficient locations to permit determination
of terrain clearance with an acceptable degree of accuracy. For those areas in which adequate QNH
altimeter setting reports cannot be provided, the appropriate authorities shall make available in the
most usable form the information required to determine the lowest flight level which will ensure
adequate terrain clearance. Appropriate services have available for flight planning purposes and for
transmission to aircraft in flight, on request, the information required to determine the lowest flight
level which will ensure adequate terrain clearance for routes or segments of routes on which this
information is required.
The QNH altimeter setting is made available to aircraft in approach clearances and in clearances to
enter the traffic circuit. A QFE altimeter setting, clearly identified as such, should be made available
in approach and landing clearances, on request or on a regular basis in accordance with local
arrangements. QFE for a non-precision approach (eg NDB) will be referenced to the aerodrome
elevation unless the landing threshold is 2m (7 ft) or more below, in which case QFE will be
referenced to the landing threshold.
The vertical positioning of aircraft during approach is controlled by reference to flight levels until
reaching the transition level below which vertical positioning shall be by reference to altitudes.
(Transition Level should be included in the Approach clearance when so prescribed by the
appropriate authority or when requested by the pilot).
Note: This does not preclude a pilot using a QFE setting for terrain clearance purposes during the
final approach to the runway
After approach clearance has been issued and the descent to land is commenced the vertical
positioning of an aircraft above the transition level may be by reference to altitude (QNH) provided
that level flight above the transition altitude is not indicated or anticipated.
• In terms of flight levels if the flight is to be conducted at or above the transition level or the
lowest usable flight level, whichever is applicable, and
• In terms of altitudes, if the flight is to be conducted at or below the transition altitude
• Should ensure adequate terrain clearance at all points along the route to be flown
• Should satisfy ATC requirements, and
• Should be compatible with the application of the cruising levels
The following test should be carried out in an aircraft by flight crew members prior to
commencement of a flight. Flight crew should be advised of the purpose of the test and the manner
in which it should be carried out and should be given specific instructions on the action to be taken
in accordance with the results of the test.
QNH-Setting/QFE Setting
A serviceable altimeter will indicate the elevation of the point selected, plus the height of the
altimeter above this point, within a tolerance of:
Prior to taking-off one altimeter shall be set to the latest QNH for the aerodrome. During climb to
and while at the transition altitude, references to the vertical position of the aircraft shall be
expressed in terms of altitudes.
When passing the transition altitude the reference for vertical position of the aircraft is changed
from altitude (QNH) to flight level.
At or below the transition altitude, an aircraft shall be flown at altitudes and references to the
vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in terms of altitude.
At or above transition level, or the lowest usable flight level, whichever is applicable, an aircraft shall
be flown at flight levels and references to the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in
terms of flight levels.
Terrain Clearance
Where adequate QNH altimeter setting reports are available, the latest and most appropriate
reports are used for assessing terrain clearance. Where the adequacy of terrain clearance cannot be
assessed with an adequate degree of accuracy by means of the QNH reports available or forecast
lowest msl pressure, other information must be obtained for checking the adequacy of terrain
clearance.
Prior to commencing the initial approach to an aerodrome, the transition level shall be obtained.
Prior to descending below the transition level, the latest QNH altimeter setting for the aerodrome
shall be obtained.
On descending below the transition level the reference for vertical position is changed from flight
level to altitude and thereafter the vertical position of the aircraft is expressed in terms of altitude.
The reference for vertical position may be changed from flight level to altitude above the transition
level, when cleared to do so by the appropriate ATS unit after approach clearance has been issued
and the descent to land is commenced provided that level flight above the transition altitude is not
indicated or anticipated.
When an aircraft which has been given a clearance as number one to land is completing its approach
using QFE, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in terms of height above the
aerodrome datum used in establishing obstacle clearance height (OCH) during that portion of its
flight for which the QFE may be used.
Chapter 12
Introduction ........................................................................................................... 3
Simultaneous Parallel Instrument Approaches....................................................... 3
Semi-Mixed and Mixed Operations ........................................................................ 8
Normal Operating Zone (NOZ) ............................................................................... 9
No Transgression Zone (NTZ) ............................................................................... 10
Runway Lateral Spacing ....................................................................................... 10
Vectoring to the ILS Localizer Course or MLS Final Approach Track ...................... 13
Track Divergence .................................................................................................. 14
Introduction
Simultaneous operations on parallel or near parallel instrument runways in IMC are essential in
order to increase capacity at busy aerodromes. An aerodrome already having dual parallel precision
approach (ILS and/or MLS) runways can increase capacity if these runways are safely operated
simultaneously and independently under IMC. However various factors, such as:
It may negate the advantages to be gained from simultaneous operations. There can be a variety of
modes of operation associated with the use of parallel or near parallel instrument runways.
However for an aircraft to be cleared to conduct a parallel approach, the aircraft must be fitted with
either ILS or MLS equipment.
• Mode 1
• Independent Parallel Approaches
Approaches which are made to parallel runways where radar separation minima between aircraft
using adjacent ILS and/or MLS are not prescribed.
Fig.12-1
Fig. 12-2
Mode 2
Dependent parallel approaches
Approaches made to parallel runways where radar separation between aircraft using adjacent ILS is
applied.
Approaches which are made to parallel runways where radar separation minima between aircraft
using adjacent ILS and/or MLS are prescribed.
Fig. 12-3
Mode 3
Simultaneous Instrument Departures
Simultaneous departures for aircraft departing in the same direction from parallel runways
Note: When the minimum distance between two parallel runway centre lines is lower than the
specified value dictated by wake turbulence considerations, the parallel runways are considered as a
single runway in regard to separation between departing aircraft. A simultaneous dependent parallel
departure mode of operation is therefore not used.
Fig. 12-4
Mode 4
Segregated Parallel Operations
One runway is used for approaches, one runway is used for departures.
Fig. 12-5
Scenario 1
• One runway is used exclusively for departures, while
• The other runway accepts a mixture of approaches and departures, or
Scenario 2
• One runway is used exclusively for approaches, while
• The other runway accepts a mixture of approaches and departures
• There may also be mixed operations
Scenario 3
• Simultaneous parallel approaches, with
• Departures interspersed on both runways.
Semi-mixed or mixed operations may be related to the four basic modes as follows:
Table 12-1
Fig. 12-6
In the context of independent parallel approaches, a corridor of air space of defined dimensions
located centrally between the two extended runway centre lines, where a penetration by an aircraft
requires a controller intervention to manoeuvre any threatened aircraft on the adjacent approach
Fig. 12-7
Fig. 12-8
• Code 3 or 4 – A = 210m
• Code 3 – A = 150 m
• Code 1 – A = 120 m
Fig. 12-9
Fig. 12-10
C may be increased by 30 meters for every 150 meters that the threshold of the arrival is staggered
away from the arriving aircraft.
All approaches regardless of weather conditions are radar monitored. Control instructions and
information necessary to ensure separation between aircraft and to ensure aircraft do not enter the
NTZ are issued. The ATC procedure will be to vector arriving aircraft to one or the other of the
parallel ILS localizer courses and/or the MLS final approach tracks. When cleared for an ILS or MLS
approach, a procedure turn is not permitted.
When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector is
such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an
angle not greater than 30º and to provide at least 2 km (1 nm) straight and level flight prior to ILS
localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept. This vector enables the aircraft to be
established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for at least 3.7 km
(2.0 nm) prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.
Each pair of parallel approaches will have a “high side” and a “low side’ for vectoring, to provide
vertical separation until aircraft are established inbound on their respective parallel ILS localizer
course and/or MLS final approach track. The low side altitude will normally be such that the aircraft
will be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track well before ILS glidepath or
specified MLS elevation angle interception. The high side altitude will be 300 m (1000 ft) above the
low side.
When assigning the final heading to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,
the aircraft shall be advised of:
• Its position relative to a fix on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track
• The altitude to be maintained until established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track to the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle intercept point, and
• If required, clearance for the appropriate ILS or MLS approach
The main objective is that both aircraft be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track before the 300 m (1000 ft) vertical separation is reduced.
If an aircraft is observed to overshoot the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track during turn
to final, the aircraft will be instructed to return immediately to the correct track. Pilots are not
required to acknowledge these transmissions or subsequent instructions while on final approach
unless requested to do so.
Once the 300 m (1000 ft) vertical separation is reduced, the radar controller monitoring the
approach will issue control instructions if the aircraft deviates substantially from the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track. If the aircraft fails to take corrective action and penetrates the
NTZ, the aircraft on the adjacent ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track will be issued
appropriate control instructions
Track Divergence
Simultaneous parallel operations require diverging tracks for missed approach procedures and
departures. When turns are prescribed to establish divergence, pilots shall commence the turns as
soon as practicable.
Chapter 13
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder at all
times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is inside or outside airspace where SSR is used
for ATS purposes.
• Operate the transponder and select Mode A codes as individually directed by the ATC unit
with which contact is being made
• Operate the transponder on Mode A codes as prescribed on the basis of regional air
navigation agreements
• In the absence of any ATC directions or regional air navigation agreements, operate the
transponder on Mode A Code 2000
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot shall continuously operate this
mode unless otherwise directed by ATC. When requested by ATC to specify the capability of the
transponder carried aboard the aircraft pilots indicates this by using the characters used in item 10
of the flight plan
Use of Mode
Whenever Mode C is operated pilots shall, state their level to the nearest full 30 m or 100 ft as
indicated on the pilot’s altimeter. The tolerance value used to determine that Mode C derived level
information displayed to the controller is accurate is ± 300 ft.
Pilots of aircraft equipped with Mode (S) having an aircraft identification feature shall set the aircraft
identification in the transponder. This setting shall correspond to the aircraft identification specified
in item 7 of the ICAO flight plan, or, if no flight plan has been filed, the aircraft registration.
Emergency Procedures
The pilot of an aircraft encountering a state of emergency shall set the transponder to Mode A Code
7700 except when directed by ATC to operate the transponder on a specified code. In the latter case
the pilot maintains the specified code unless otherwise advised by ATC. A pilot may select Mode A
Code 7700 whenever there is a specific reason to believe that this would be the best course of
action
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code
7600.
Note: A controller observing a response on the communications failure code will ascertain the
extent of the failure by instructing the pilot to “Squawk IDENT” to change code. Where it is
determined that the aircraft receiver is functioning, further control of the aircraft will be continued
using code changes or IDENT transmissions to acknowledge receipt of clearances issued. Different
procedures may be applied to Mode S equipped aircraft in areas of Mode S coverage.
Unlawful Interference
With Aircraft in Flight, should an aircraft in flight be subjected to unlawful interference, the PIC shall
endeavour to set the transponder to Mode A Code 7500 unless circumstances warrant the use of
Mode A 7700. A pilot having selected Mode A Code 7500 and subsequently requested to confirm
this code by ATC shall, according to circumstances, either confirm this or not reply at all.
In the case of a transponder that has failed and cannot be restored before departure, pilots shall:
• Inform ATS as soon as possible, preferably before submission of a flight plan
• Insert in item 10 of the ICAO flight plan form under SSR the character N for complete
unserviceability of the transponder or, in the case of partial transponder failure, the
character corresponding to the remaining transponder capability
• Comply with any published procedures for seeking exemption from the requirements for
carriage of a functioning SSR transponder
• If so required by the appropriate ATS authority, plan to proceed, as directly as possible, to the
nearest suitable aerodrome where repair can be effected.
• Active search
• Visual acquisition of conflicting traffic
• The avoidance of potential collisions
Pilots use the indications generated by ACAS remembering that due regard to safety must be
recognised:
Pilots shall not manoeuvre their aircraft in response to Traffic Advisories, only in the event of a
Resolution Advisory to alter the flight path. The search for the conflicting traffic shall include a visual
scan of the airspace into which other ACAS aircraft might manoeuvre. Only in the event of a
Resolution Advisory will pilots alter the aircraft flight path. The alteration of the flight path shall be
limited to the minimum extent necessary to comply with the Resolution Advisories.
The only time a RA should be disregarded is with stall warning, wind shear, and ground proximity
warning system alerts. In the event of conflicting information, the RA is the best information the
pilot has to hand and must be exceedingly confident to ignore it.
The alteration of the flight path shall be limited to the minimum extent necessary to comply with
the Resolution Advisories.
Pilots who deviate from ATC instruction or clearance in response to a Resolution Advisory shall
promptly return to the terms of that instruction or clearance when the conflict is resolved and shall
notify the appropriate ATC unit as soon as practicable, of the deviation, including its direction and
when the deviation has ended.
Phraseology
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall read back the mode and code to
be set.
Chapter 14
Airspace
Classes of Airspace
When it has been determined that ATS will be provided in a particular portion of airspace or at a
particular aerodrome, the airspace is designated according to the services to be provided. The
designation (classes) of airspace is as follows:
CLASS A
• All operations must be conducted under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Special visual flight
rules (SVFR).
• All aircraft are subject to ATC clearance. All flights are separated from each other by ATC.
• Aircraft flying in Class A airspace are required to be IFR-equipped and have DME if flying
above FL240.
• This airspace is managed by Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCCs)
CLASS B
• Surrounds major hub airports with heavy traffic operations. This airspace is layered, generally
in the form of an upside-down wedding cake, so that it surrounds all aircraft approaching or
departing from the airport up to 10,000 feet MSL.
• Operations may be conducted under IFR, SVFR, or Visual flight rules (VFR)
• All aircraft are required to receive an ATC clearance prior to entering Class B airspace. All
flights are separated from each other by ATC
• Required on board equipment includes one VOR navigation unit
• This airspace is managed by the approach/departure control facility linked to the airport with
which the airspace is conjoined
Class B airspace is the most congested and the biggest airspace. You have to have certain
specifications to be able to fly in class B airspace. These are:
• you must have a 2 way radio, to be able to have constant communication with ATC so you can
stay updated with incoming aircraft and such.
• you must have a mode C transponder(a mode C transponder is required in class A,B, and C
airspace). This allows the ATC to see your current altitude. Class B airspace has been known
as a sort of an upside down cake like airspace because of its shape (a circle).
CLASS C
CLASS D
CLASS E
CLASS F
• Operations may be conducted under IFR or VFR.
• ATC separation will be provided, so far as practical, to aircraft operating under IFR. Traffic
Information may be given as far as is practical in respect of other flights.
CLASS G
• Operations may be conducted under IFR or VFR. ATC separation is not provided.
• Traffic Information may be given as far as is practical in respect of other flights.
Note: Classes A–E are referred to as controlled airspace. Classes F and G are uncontrolled airspace.
Radio Subject to
Type of Separation Speed
Class Service provided communication an ATC
flight provided limitation
Requirement clearance
Air traffic control Not Continous two-
A IFR only All aircraft Yes
service applicable way
Air traffic control Not Continous two-
IFR All aircraft Yes
service applicable way
B
Air traffic control Not Continous two-
VFR All aircraft Yes
service applicable way
IFR from IFR
Air traffic control Not Continous two-
IFR IFR from Yes
service applicable way
VFR
(1) Air traffic
control service for
250kt IAS
C seperation from
below
VFR from IFR: (2) VFR/VFR Continous two-
VFR 3050m Yes
IFR traffic information way
(10000ft)
(and traffic
AMSL
avoidance on
request)
Air traffic control
service including 250kt IAS
traffic information below
Continous two-
IFR IFR from IFR about VFR flights 3050m Yes
way
(and traffic (10000ft)
avoidance advice AMSL
D
on request)
IFR/VFR and 250kt IAS
VFR/VFR traffic below
Continous two-
VFR Nil informaion (and 3050m Yes
way
traffic avoidance (10000ft)
advice on request) AMSL
Air traffic control 250kt IAS
service and, as far below
Continous two-
IFR IFR from IFR as practical, traffic 3050m Yes
way
information about (10000ft)
VFR flights AMSL
E
250kt IAS
below
Traffic information
VFR Nil 3050m No No
as far as practical
(10000ft)
AMSL
Table 14-1
NB: The request for an ATC clearance is embedded in a filed flight plan. Should the clearance
received be unsatisfactory, then advise ATC and request an amendment – which may or may not be
granted due to traffic considerations.
It's a distance in nautical miles from the intended position within which flights would be for at least
95% of the total flying time, or, within which 95% of flights will be contained.
An ACC provides Area Control within an FIR or within a CTA serving many busy aerodromes.
FIRs are designated to cover the whole of the air route structure within geographical limits. An FIR
includes all airspace within its lateral limits, except any upper airspace designated as an Upper
Information Region (UIR).
Fig. 14-1
Control Area
A control area (CTA) is a volume of controlled airspace that exists in the vicinity of an airport. It has a
specified lower level and a specified upper level. It usually is situated on top of a control zone and
provides protection to aircraft climbing out from the airport by joining the low-level control zone to
the nearest airways.
Fig. 14-2
The lower limit of a CTA is not less than 200 m (700 ft) above msl or the ground (whichever is higher.
When the vertical limit of a CTA is above 900 m (3000 ft) msl it should coincide with a VFR cruising
level.
• air traffic control service will not be provided above such upper limit
• the control area is situated below an upper control area, in which case the upper limit shall
coincide with the lower limit of the upper control area
Airways
Airways are control areas in the form of a corridor linking other CTAs. The base of an airway is
defined to include the lowest cruising level above the highest terrain within a defined distance of
the airway centreline. In normal terrain the base would be 1000 ft above the highest terrain or in
mountainous areas, 2000 ft above.
Control Zones
Control Zones are the airspace, outside of CTAs, used for IFR flights arriving at and departing from
aerodromes. The lateral limit of a CTR should extend at least 9.3 km (5 nm) from the centre of the
aerodrome in the direction(s) from which approaches may be made. The upper limit of a CTR may
be higher than the lower limit of an overlying CTA. Where there is no overlying CTA, the upper limit
of the CTR is defined.
Controlled Aerodromes
Those aerodromes where it is determined that air traffic control service will be provided to
aerodrome traffic.
Chapter 15
Introduction
The Chapters that follow are based on the material contained within the ICAO Procedures for Air
Navigation Services – Air Traffic Management or PANS-ATM (DOC 4444). Whilst mainly directed to
Air Traffic Controllers, pilots should have a working knowledge of the contents to provide an
understanding of ATM objectives and procedures.
PANS documents are not Annexes, neither do they contain SARPS. The latter are adopted by ICAO,
the former are approved and recommended. However, PANS specify in greater detail the actual
procedures to be applied by ATS units in providing the various air traffic services to air traffic.
Flight Information Service - To provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient
conduct of flight. ICAO permits the use of radar in the provision of this service.
Alerting Service - To notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid, and assist
such organizations as required.
The Air Traffic Control Service is further sub-divided into three parts:
Area Control Service - The provision of ATC service for controlled flights, except those parts of such
flights as described below.
Approach Control Service - The provision of ATC service for those parts of controlled flights
associated with arrival and departure.
Aerodrome Control Service - The provision of ATC service for aerodrome traffic, except for those
parts of flights described above.
Note: The task of providing specified services on the apron may be assigned to an aerodrome
control tower or to a separate unit
• Be provided with information on the intended movement of each aircraft and with current
information on the actual progress of each aircraft
• Determine from the information received, the relative positions of known aircraft to each
other
• Issue clearances and information for the purpose of preventing collision between aircraft
under its control and of expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of traffic
• Whenever an aircraft might otherwise conflict with traffic operated under the control of such
other units
• Before transferring control of an aircraft to such other units
Information on aircraft movements, together with a record of ATC clearances issued to aircraft is
displayed so as to permit an efficient flow of air traffic with adequate separation between aircraft.
Except that, when requested and if detailed by the appropriate ATS authority for the first three cases
above, a flight may be cleared without separation being provided for a specific portion of the flight
conducted in VMC.
• Vertical separation, obtained by assigning different levels selected from an appropriate table
of cruising levels (See Chapter on VFR & IFR) except that the correlation of levels to track as
prescribed shall not apply whenever otherwise indicated in appropriate aeronautical
information publications or air traffic control clearances
• Horizontal separation, obtained by providing Longitudinal separation by maintaining an
interval between aircraft operating along the same converging or reciprocal tracks, expressed
in time or distance, or
Composite Separation
Consisting of a combination of vertical and one of the other forms of separation. The minima used
for each of these may be lower than, but not less than ½ of, those used for each of the combined
elements when applied individually. Composite separation shall only be applied on the basis of
regional air navigation agreements
Separation Minima
The separation minima are selected from those prescribed by the provisions of the PANS-RAC and
regional supplementary procedures as applicable under the prevailing circumstances except that,
where types of aids are used or circumstances prevail which are not covered by current ICAO
provisions, other separation minima shall be established as necessary by:
• The appropriate ATS authority, following consultation with operators, for routes or portions
of routes contained within the sovereign airspace of a State
• Regional air navigation agreement for routes or portions of routes contained within airspace
over the high seas or over areas of undetermined sovereignty
The selection of separation minima are made in consultation between the appropriate ATS
authorities responsible for the provision of ATS in neighbouring airspace when:
• Traffic will pass from one FIR into another FIR of neighbouring airspace
• Routes are closer to the common boundary of the neighbouring airspace than the separation
minima applicable in the circumstances
Details of the selected separation minima and their areas of application shall be notified:
The responsibility for the control of an aircraft is transferred between ATCUs as follows:
Between a Unit Providing Area Control Service and a Unit Providing Approach Control Service:
• The responsibility for the control of an aircraft shall be transferred from a unit providing area
control service to a unit providing approach control service, and vice versa, at a point or time
agreed between the two units
Arriving Aircraft
The responsibility for the control of an aircraft approaching to land is transferred from the unit
providing approach control service to the unit providing aerodrome control service, when the
aircraft:
Departing Aircraft
The responsibility for control of a departing aircraft is transferred from the unit providing aerodrome
control service to the unit providing Approach Control service:
• Immediately before the aircraft enters the runway in use for take-off
• Immediately after the aircraft is airborne, if local procedures render such action preferable
Co-Ordination of Clearances
An ATC clearance is to be co-ordinated between ATC units to cover the entire route of an aircraft or a
specified portion of a route as follows. An aircraft is normally cleared for the entire route to the
aerodrome of first intended landing:
• When it has been possible, prior to departure, to co-ordinate the clearance between all the
units under whose control the aircraft will come
• When there is reasonable assurance that prior co-ordination will be effected between those
units under whose control the aircraft will subsequently come
When co-ordination has not been achieved or is not anticipated, the aircraft is cleared only to a
point where co-ordination is reasonably certain. Prior to reaching such a point, or at that point, the
aircraft receives a further clearance, with holding instructions being issued as appropriate.
When an aircraft intends to depart from an aerodrome within a CTA to enter another CTA within a
period of 30 minutes, or another specific period of time as has been agreed between the area
control centres concerned, co-ordination with the subsequent area control centre is obtained prior
to the issue of the departure clearance. When an aircraft intends to leave a CTA for a flight outside
CAS, and will subsequently re-enter the same or another CTA, a clearance from the point of
departure to the aerodrome of first intended landing may be issued. This clearance or revision
applies to those portions of the flight conducted within controlled airspace.
When it becomes apparent to an ATCU that traffic additional to that already accepted cannot be
accommodated within a given period of time at a particular location or in a particular area, or can
only be accommodated at a given rate, that unit will advise other ATCUs and operators known or
believed to be concerned and PICs of aircraft destined to that location or area that additional flights
are likely to be subjected to excessive delay, or, if applicable, that specified restrictions are to be
applied to any additional traffic for a specified period of time for the purpose of avoiding excessive
delay to aircraft in flight.
• Persons and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall be restricted
to the essential minimum and particular regard shall be given to the requirements to protect
the ILS/MLS sensitive areas when Category II or III precision instrument operations are in
progress
• The minimum separation between vehicles and taxiing aircraft shall be as prescribed by the
appropriate ATS authority taking into account the aids available
• When mixed ILS and MLS Category II and III precision instrument operations are taking place
to the same runway continuously, the more restrictive ILS or MLS critical sensitive areas shall
be protected.
Emergency vehicles proceeding to the assistance of an aircraft in distress are afforded priority over
all other surface movement traffic.
Vehicles on the manoeuvring area are required to comply with the following rules:
• Vehicles and vehicles towing aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are landing, taking-off or
taxiing
• Vehicles shall give way to other vehicles towing aircraft
• Vehicles shall give way to other vehicles in accordance with local instructions
• Not withstanding the above, vehicles and vehicles towing aircraft shall comply with
instructions issued by the aerodrome control tower
Where ATS units provide both FIS and air traffic control service, the provision of air traffic control
service has precedence over the provision of FIS whenever the provision of air traffic control service
so requires.
FIS provided to flights includes, in addition to the information already outlined, the provision of
information concerning:
FIS provided to VFR flights includes all the information in the paragraph starting with SIGMET plus
the provision of available information concerning traffic and weather conditions along the route that
are likely to make operation under VFR impracticable
The meteorological and operational information concerning navigation aids and aerodromes
included in the FIS is provided in an operationally integrated form.
Information Broadcasts
When a Regional Air Navigation Agreement determines that a requirement for a broadcast exists
then the following formats are followed:
ATIS
ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) broadcasts are provided at aerodromes where there
is a requirement to reduce the communication load on the ATS VHF air-ground communication
channels. When provided they comprise of:
A discrete VHF frequency is used for ATIS broadcasts. If a discrete frequency is not available, the
transmission may be made on the voice channel of the most appropriate terminal navigation aid,
preferably a VOR, provided the range and readability are adequate and the identification of the
navigation aid is sequenced with the broadcast so that the latter is not obliterated.
The information contained in the current broadcast shall immediately be made known to the ATS
unit concerned with the provision of information relating to:
• Approach
• Landing and take-off
Whenever those units have not prepared the message, Individual ATIS messages shall be identified
by a designator in the form of a letter of the ICAO spelling alphabet. Designators assigned to
consecutive ATIS messages shall be in alphabetical order.
Aircraft shall acknowledge receipt of the broadcast information upon establishing communication
with the ATS unit providing approach control service as appropriate.
The appropriate ATS unit shall, when replying to the message above or, in the case of arriving
aircraft, at such other time as may be prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, provide the
aircraft with the current altimeter setting.
When rapidly changing meteorological conditions make it inadvisable to include a weather report in
the ATIS broadcast, the ATIS message indicates that the relevant weather information will be given
on initial contact with the appropriate ATS unit.
Information contained in a current ATIS broadcast, the receipt of which has been acknowledged by
the aircraft concerned, need not be included in a transmission to the aircraft, with the exception of
the altimeter setting. If an aircraft acknowledges receipt of an ATIS broadcast that is no longer
current, any element of information that needs updating shall be transmitted to the aircraft without
delay.
Principles Governing the Identification of RNP Types and the Identification of ATS Routes other than
Standard Departure and Arrival Routes.
The purpose of a system of route designators and required navigation performance (RNP) types
applicable to specified ATS route segments, routes or area is to allow both pilot and ATS, taking into
account automation requirements:
• To make unambiguous reference to any ATS route without the need to resort to the use of
geographical co-ordinates or other means in order to describe it
• To relate an ATS route to a specific vertical structure of the airspace, as applicable
• To indicate a required level of navigation performance accuracy, when operating along an ATS
route or within a specified area
• To indicate that a route is used primarily or exclusively by certain types of aircraft
Notes: Prior to the global introduction of RNP, all references to RNP also apply to RNAV routes where
navigation performance accuracy requirements have been specified.
For flight planning purposes, a prescribed RNP type is not considered an integral part of the ATS
route designator
• Permit the identification of any ATS route in a simple and unique manner
• Avoid redundancy
• Be usable by both ground and airborne automation systems
• Permit brevity in operational use
• Provide sufficient possibility of extension to cater for any future requirements without the
need for fundamental changes
Controlled, advisory and uncontrolled ATS routes, with the exception of standard arrival and
departure routes, shall be identified as follows:
Composition of Designation
The ATS route designator consists of a basic designator supplemented, if necessary, by:
• One prefix
• One additional letter
The basic designator consists of one letter followed by a number from 1 to 999.
Selection of the letter shall be made from:
• A, B, G, R for routes which form part of the regional networks of ATS routes and are not area
navigation routes
• L, M, N, P for area navigation routes which form part of the regional networks of ATS routes
• H, J, V, W for routes which do not form part of the regional networks of ATS routes and are
not area navigation routes
• Q, I, Y, Z for area navigation routes which do not form part of the regional networks of ATS
routes
Where applicable, one supplementary letter is added as a prefix to the basic designator to designate
the following:
When prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority or on the basis of regional air navigation
agreement, a supplementary letter may be added after the basic designator of the ATS route in
question in order to indicate the type of service provided or the turn performance required on the
route in question in accordance with the following:
• For RNP 1 routes at and above FL 200, the letter Y to indicate that all turns on the route
between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc
between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 22.5 nm
• eg A123Y
• For RNP 1 routes at or below FL 190, the letter Z to indicate that all turns on the route
between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc
between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 nm
• eg G246Z
• The letter D to indicate that on the route an advisory service only is provided
• The letter F to indicate that on the route an FIS is provided
• The same basic designator shall be assigned to a main trunk route throughout its entire
length, irrespective of TMAs, States or regions traversed
• Where two or more trunk routes have a common segment, the segment in question shall be
assigned each of the designators of the routes concerned, except where this would present
difficulties in the provision of ATS, in which case, by common agreement, one designator only
shall be assigned
• A basic designator assigned to one route shall not be assigned to any other route
• States requirements for designators shall be notified to the regional offices of ICAO for co-
ordination
In voice communications, the basic letter of a designator shall be spoken in accordance with the
ICAO spelling alphabet.
Where the prefixes K, U or S are used, they are, in voice communications, spoken as follows:
K -Kopter
U -Upper
S -Supersonic
The word Kopter is pronounced as in the word helicopter and the words upper and supersonic as
normal in the English language.
Where the letters D, F, Y or Z are used, then the flight crew are not required to use them in voice
communications
On routes defined by a designated point, a position report is made when over, or as soon as possible
after passing, a compulsory reporting point. Additional reports over any other points may be
requested by the appropriate ATS unit or requested for ATS purposes.
On routes not defined by designated significant points, position reports are made as soon as
possible after the first 30 minutes of flight and at 60 minute intervals thereafter. Additional reports
at shorter intervals of time can be requested by the appropriate ATS. Flights may be exempted from
the requirement to make position reports at a designated compulsory reporting point or interval.
Any position reports required are made to the ATS unit serving the airspace in which the aircraft is
operating.
• Aircraft identification
• Position
• Time
• Flight level or altitude
• Next position and time over
• Ensuing significant point
The last three elements may be omitted when regional air navigation agreements are in force.
When ever changing to a new frequency at other than a Reporting Point, Flight Level or Altitude
must be reported with the initial call. Altitude reports can be omitted with ATC agreement when
SSR Mode C is used. When assigned a speed to maintain Indicated Air Speed is to be included in
the Position Report.
Position reports are made automatically to the ATSU serving the airspace in which the aircraft is
operating. The requirements for the transmission and contents of ADS reports are established by the
controlling ATC unit on the basis of current operational conditions, and communicated to the aircraft
and acknowledged through an ADS agreement.
An ATIR should be submitted for incidents specifically related to the provision of ATS involving such
occurrences as aircraft proximity (AIRPROX) or other serious difficulty resulting in a hazard to
aircraft. Procedures are established for the reporting of AIRPROX incidents and their investigation to
promote the safety of aircraft. The degree of risk involved in an AIRPROX should be determined in
the incident investigation and classified as:
• Risk of collision
• Safety not assured
• No risk of collision
• Risk not determined
Provision in Regard to Aircraft Equipped with Airborne Collision Avoidance Systems (ACAS)
The procedures to be applied for the provision of ATS to aircraft equipped with ACAS are identical to
those applicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft. In particular:
When a pilot reports a manoeuvre because of an ACAS resolution advisory, the controller will not
attempt to modify the aircraft flight path until the pilot reports that the aircraft is returning to the
current ATC instruction or clearance. Traffic information is provided during the manoeuvre.
General Provisions
Vertical or horizontal separation is provided between:
For the first 3 cases above, during the hours of daylight, flights can be cleared to climb or descend
subject to maintaining their own separation and remaining in VMC.
No clearance is given that would reduce the spacing between two aircraft to less than the separation
minimum applicable in the circumstances.
Greater separations than the specified minima are applied whenever wake turbulence or other
exceptional circumstances such as unlawful interference call for extra provisions.
Where the separation or minimum used to separate two aircraft cannot be maintained, action is
taken to ensure that another minimum exists or is established prior to the time when the previously
used separation would be insufficient.
Departing Aircraft
Area control centres forward clearances to approach control offices or aerodrome control towers
with the least possible delay after the receipt of a request made by these units, or prior to such a
request if practicable.
Clearances contain positive and concise data and shall, as far as practicable, be phrased in a
standard manner. Clearances contain the items specified below:
• Aircraft identification
• Clearance limit
• Route of flight
• Level(s) of flight for the entire route or part thereof and changes of levels if required
• Any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as SSR transponder
operation, approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of
the clearance
The importance of clearance content is reinforced by the requirement to read it back to confirm its
accuracy. The items which must always be read back are:
• ATC route clearance
• Runway Clearances and instructions to
o Enter
o Land on
o Take off from
o Hold short of
o Cross
o Taxi
o Backtrack
• Runway in use
• Altimeter settings
• SSR codes
• Level, heading, and speed instructions
Note: If the clearance for the levels covers only part of the route, it is important for the ATCU to
specify a point to which the part of the clearance regarding levels applies. If the pilot considers a
clearance or part of a clearance unsuitable an amendment can be requested, though not
guaranteed.
Any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as SSR transponder operation,
approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance
Doc 4444 states that ATC service do not include the prevention of collision with terrain. The actual
statement reads: “The procedures described in the document (Doc 4444), with the exception of
Radar Vectoring, do not relieve the pilot of his/her responsibility for ensuring that any clearance
issued by ATCUs are safe in this respect.”
A clearance does not absolve a pilot from maintaining rules and regulations whilst flying under the
control of an ATC unit.
A clearance limit is specified by using the name of the appropriate reporting point, or aerodrome, or
CAS boundary. When prior co-ordination has been effected with units under whose control the
aircraft will subsequently come under or if there is reasonable time prior to the assumption of
control, the clearance limit is the destination aerodrome or, if not practicable, an appropriate
intermediate point, and co-ordination shall be expedited so that a clearance to the destination may
be issued as soon as possible.
If an aircraft has been cleared to an intermediate point in an adjacent CTA, the appropriate area
control centre will then be responsible for issuing, as soon as practicable, an amended clearance for
flight to the limit of that CTA.
When the destination aerodrome is outside a CTA, the area control centre responsible for the last
CTA through which an aircraft will issue the appropriate clearance for the flight to the limit of that
CTA.
Route of Flight
The route of flight is detailed in each clearance when deemed necessary. The phrases used and
meanings are:
• Cleared via flight plan route May be used to describe any route or portion of a route,
provided the route or portion of route is identical to that filed in the flight plan and sufficient
routing details are given to definitely establish the aircraft on its route
• Cleared via (designation) departure or Cleared via (designation) arrival May be used when
standard departure or arrival routes have been established by the appropriate ATS authority
and published in Aeronautical Information Publication
Note: The provision of vertical or horizontal separation by an ATCU is not applicable in respect of any
specified portion of a flight cleared subject to maintaining own separation and remaining in VMC. It
is for the flight so cleared to ensure, for the duration of the clearance, that it is not operated in such
proximity to other flights as to create a collision hazard.
A VFR flight must remain in VMC at all times. Accordingly, the issuance of a clearance to a VFR flight
to fly subject to maintaining own separation and remaining in VMC has no other object than to
signify that, for the duration of the clearance, the provision of separation by ATC is not entailed
When requested by an aircraft and provided it is authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, an
area control centre may clear a controlled flight to operate in VMC during the hours of daylight. The
aircraft may fly the route subject to maintaining its own separation and remaining in VMC.
• The clearance shall be for a specified portion of the flight during climb or descent and
subject to further restrictions as and when prescribed on the basis of regional air navigation
agreements
• If there is a possibility that flight under VMC may become impracticable an IFR flight shall be
provided with alternative instructions to be complied with in the event that flight in VMC
cannot be maintained for the term of the clearance
• The pilot of an IFR flight, on observing that conditions are deteriorating and considering that
operation in VMC will become impossible, shall inform ATC before entering IMC and shall
proceed in accordance with the alternative instructions given
This indicates that if the aircraft is not airborne by the time stated a fresh clearance will be required
• ATC is unable to clear the flight at the planned level, an alternative is usually offered at this
stage
Note: The time of expiry of the clearance indicates the time after which the clearance will be
automatically cancelled if the flight has not been started.
Such information is disseminated generally so that operators can see that any disruption is incurred
equitably. In practice, predictable delays are handled by delaying the take-off of an aeroplane such
that the delay is absorbed on the ground rather than in the terminal phase of a flight. Clearly, this
has economic, environmental and safety advantages and is the most obvious practical advantage of
ATFM.
Note: This information will inevitably relate to controlled flights cleared subject to maintaining own
separation and remaining in VMC
When issuing a clearance covering a requested change in flight plan (route or cruising level) the
exact nature of the change is included in the clearance. If a level change is involved and more than
one level is contained in the flight plan, all such levels shall be included in the clearance.
When traffic conditions do not permit clearance of a requested change in a flight plan, the words
“unable to clear” are used. In these circumstances, an alternative flight plan should be offered.
When an alternative flight plan is offered, the complete clearance, as amended, or that part of the
clearance containing the alternative has to be included.
The various circumstances surrounding each emergency situation preclude the establishment of
exact detailed procedures to be followed. The procedures outlined are intended as a general guide
to ATS personnel. ATCUs shall maintain full and complete co-ordination, and personnel use their best
judgement in handling emergency situations
Priority
Emergency Descent
Upon receipt of advice that an aircraft is making an emergency descent through other traffic, all
possible action is taken to immediately safeguard all aircraft concerned. When deemed necessary,
ATCUs immediately broadcast by means of the appropriate radio aids. If this is not possible the
appropriate communications stations immediately broadcast an emergency message.
It is expected that aircraft receiving such a broadcast will clear the specified areas and stand by on
the appropriate radio frequency for further clearances from the ATCU.
• As soon as it is known that two-way communications has failed, action is taken to ascertain
whether the aircraft is able to receive transmissions from the ATCU by requesting it to
execute a specified manoeuvre which can be observed by radar or to transmit, if possible a
specified signal in order to indicate acknowledgement. ATC will attempt to pass appropriate
information on all logical frequencies together with 121.5 mHz
• If the aircraft fails to indicate that it is able to receive and acknowledge transmissions,
separation shall be maintained between the aircraft having the communication failure and
other aircraft, based on the assumption that the aircraft will:
If in VMC:
If in IMC or when weather conditions are such that it does not appear feasible to complete the flight
in accordance with the above:
• Proceed according to the current flight plan to the appropriate designated navigation aid
serving the destination aerodrome and, when required to ensure compliance with the
paragraph below, hold over this aid until commencement of descent
• Commence descent from the navigation aid specified above as close as possible to, the EAT
last received and acknowledged. If no EAT has been received and acknowledged, at, or as
close as possible to the ETA resulting from the current flight plan
• Complete a normal instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated
navigation aid, and
• Land, if possible, within 30 minutes after the ETA specified above or the last acknowledged
EAT, whichever is later
Action taken to ensure suitable separation ceases to be based on the above when It is determined
that the aircraft is following a procedure differing from that expected. Through the use of electronic
or other aids, ATCUs determine that action differing from that required may be taken without
impairing safety, or positive information is received that the aircraft has landed.
The objective of the air traffic advisory service is to make information on collision hazards more
effective than it would be in the mere provision of FIS. It may be provided to aircraft conducting IFR
flights in advisory airspace or on advisory routes (Class F airspace in the UK). Such areas or routes
will be specified by the State concerned.
Air traffic advisory service should only be implemented where the air traffic services are inadequate
for the provision of air traffic control and the limited advice on collision hazards otherwise provided
by FIS will not meet the requirement. Where air traffic advisory service is implemented, this should
be considered normally as a temporary measure only until such time as it can be replaced by air
traffic control service.
Air traffic advisory service does not afford the same degree of safety and cannot assume the same
responsibilities as air traffic control service in respect of the avoidance of collisions, since
information regarding the disposition of traffic in the area concerned available to the unit providing
air traffic advisory service may be incomplete. To make this quite clear, air traffic advisory service
does not deliver clearances but only advisory information and it uses the words “advise” or
“suggest” when a course of action is proposed to an aircraft.
IFR flights electing to use the air traffic advisory service when operating within Class F airspace are
expected to comply with the same procedures as those applying to controlled flights except that:
• The flight plan and any changes are not subjected to a clearance, since the unit furnishing air
traffic advisory service will only provide advice on the presence of essential traffic or
suggestions as to a possible course of action
• It is for the aircraft to decide whether or not it will comply with the advice or suggestion
received and to inform the unit providing air traffic advisory service without delay, of its
decision
• Air-ground contacts shall be made with the ATS unit designated to provide air traffic advisory
service within the advisory airspace or portion thereof
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flights within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic
advisory service, shall submit a flight plan, and notify changes to the unit providing the service.
IFR flights planning to cross an advisory route should do so as nearly as possible at an angle of 90º to
the direction of the route and at a level, appropriate to its track, selected from the tables of cruising
• Advise the aircraft to depart at the time specified and to cruise at the levels indicated in the
flight plan if it does not foresee any conflict with other known traffic
• Suggest to aircraft a course of action by which a potential hazard maybe avoided, giving
priority to an aircraft already in advisory airspace over other aircraft desiring to enter such
advisory airspace
• Pass to aircraft traffic information comprising the same information as that prescribed for
area control service
The criteria used above should be at least those laid down for aircraft operating in CAS and should
take into account the limitations inherent in the provision of air traffic control advisory service,
navigation facilities and air-ground communications prevailing in the region.
Alerting Service
When required by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of alerting and SAR
services, an aircraft, prior to and when operating within or into designated areas or along
designated routes, shall comply with the provisions detailed in Annex 2 concerning the submission,
completion, changing and closing of a flight plan.
In addition to the above, aircraft equipped with suitable two-way radio communications shall report
during the period 20 to 40 minutes following the time of last contact, whatever the purpose of such
contact, merely to indicate that the flight is progressing according to plan, such report to comprise
of:
The “operations normal” message shall be transmitted air-ground to an appropriate ATS unit
(normally to the aeronautical telecommunication station serving the FIR in which the aircraft is
flying)
Where no report from an aircraft has been received within a reasonable period of time (which may
be a specified interval prescribed on the basis of regional air navigation agreements) after a
scheduled or expected reporting time, the ATS unit shall, within the stipulated period of 30 minutes,
endeavour to obtain such report in order to be in a position to apply the provisions relevant to the
“INCERFA phase” should circumstances warrant such action.
When alerting service is required in respect of a flight operated through more than one FIR or CTA,
and when the position of the aircraft is in doubt, responsibility for co-ordinating such service shall
rest with the ATS unit of the FIR or CTA; Within which the aircraft was flying at the time of last air-
ground contact that the aircraft was about to enter when last air-ground contact was established at
or close to the boundary of 2 FIRs or CTAs.
Within which the aircraft’s intermediate stop or final destination is located, If the aircraft was not
equipped with suitable two-way radio communication equipment, or was not under obligation to
transmit reports.
AIREP
Where required operational and meteorological information can be transmitted in the form of an air-report
(AIREP). AIREPs consist of routine and special reports. A routine report has three sections:
Section 1 is mandatory and section 2 is transmitted when requested by the operator or considered necessary
by the pilot. Section 3 is transmitted when the aircraft has been requested to make routine met reports at
specific en route points.
AIREP SPECIAL
Special air-reports are reported by all aircraft which encounter any of the following hazards:
Severe turbulence;
• Severe icing;
• Severe mountain wave;
• Thunderstorms without hail that are obscured, embedded, widespread or in line-squalls;
• Volcanic ash cloud.
• Heavy dust or sand storms;
AIRPROX reports may be originated by either the pilot AIRPROX(P), or by a controller, AJRPROX(C). From a
pilot the initial report is filed by RTF and the report completed on the ground.
Chapter 16
Separation
Vertical Separation Application .............................................................................. 3
Assignment of Cruising Levels ................................................................................ 3
Lateral Separation .................................................................................................. 4
Aircraft Climbing or Descending ........................................................................... 11
Aircraft at the Same Cruising Level ...................................................................... 16
Longitudinal Separation Minima based on Distance using RNAV ......................... 20
Aircraft at the Same Cruising Level ...................................................................... 21
Reduction in Separation Minima .......................................................................... 23
As one of the stated objectives in the provision of an Air Traffic Service is the prevention of collision,
keeping aircraft well separated will go a long way to achieving that objective. The separation
standards are set out in PANS- ATM Doc 4444. In general terms, vertical or horizontal separation
must be provided as follows:
• Within designated airspace, subject to regional air navigation agreement, a nominal 300 m
(1000 ft) below FL 410 or a higher level where so prescribed for use under special conditions,
and a nominal 600 m (2000 ft) at or above this level
• Within other airspace, a nominal 300 m (1000 ft) below FL 290 and a nominal 600 m (2000
ft) at or above this level.
Except where authorized by the appropriate authority, cruising levels below a minimum flight
altitude established by a State shall not be assigned. Area control centres shall determine the lowest
usable flight level or levels for the whole or parts of the CTA for which they are responsible
If it is necessary to adjust the cruising level of an aircraft operating along an established ATS route
extending partly within and partly outside CAS and where cruising levels are not identical,
adjustment shall, whenever possible, be effected within CAS and over a radio navigation aid.
When an aircraft has been cleared into a CTA at a cruising level which is below the established
minimum cruising level for a subsequent portion of a route, action is initiated by the area control
centre to ensure a revised clearance to the aircraft is given even though the pilot has not requested
the change.
Where necessary, an aircraft may be cleared to change cruising level at a specified time, place or
rate.
Cruising levels of aircraft flying to the same destination are assigned so that they are correct for the
approach sequence at the destination.
An aircraft at a cruising level normally has priority over other aircraft that request that cruising level.
When two or more aircraft are at the same cruising level, the lead aircraft shall normally have
priority.
An aircraft may be assigned a level previously occupied by another aircraft once the latter has
reported that it is vacating. However, if severe turbulence is known to exist the clearance is delayed
until the aircraft vacating the level has reported at another level separated by the required
minimum.
The cruising levels, or, in the case of a cruise climb, the range of levels, assigned to a controlled flight
is selected from those allocated to IFR flights. Except where published by the appropriate authority.
Pilots in direct communication with each other may be cleared to maintain a specified vertical
separation between their aircraft during ascent or descent.
Lateral Separation
Lateral separation is applied so that the distance between aircraft that are to be laterally separated
is never less than an established distance taking into account navigational inaccuracies plus a
specified buffer. This buffer is determined by the appropriate authority and is included in the lateral
separation minima.
The means by which lateral separation may be achieved include the following:
Geographical Separation
• The aircraft reports over a different geographical location determined visually or by
reference to a navigation aid.
Fig. 16-1
Track Separation between Aircraft using the Same Navigation Aid or Method
Aircraft fly on specified tracks which are separated by a minimum amount appropriate to the
navigation aid or method employed:
VOR
• At least 15° and at a distance of 28 km (15 nm) or more from the facility
Fig. 16-2
NDB
• At least 30° and at a distance of 28 km (15 nm) or more from the facility
Fig. 16-3
Fig. 16-4
When aircraft are operating on tracks which are separated by considerably more than these minima,
States may reduce the distance at which the lateral separation is achieved.
Track Separation between Aircraft Transitioning Into Airspace over the High Seas
Aircraft fly on specific tracks which are separated by at least 15° and at a distance of 28 km (15 nm)
or more from the same VOR providing that:
• The aircraft tracks continue to diverge by at least 15° until the appropriate lateral separation
minimum is established in airspace over the high seas, and
• It is possible to ensure, by means approved by the appropriate ATS authority, that the aircraft
have the navigation capability necessary to ensure accurate track guidance
• The navigational accuracy for the various navigation aids and RNAV equipment are
established by the appropriate ATS authority
Longitudinal Separation
Longitudinal separation is applied so that the spacing between the estimated positions of the
aircraft being separated is never less than the prescribed minimum. Longitudinal separation
between aircraft following the same or diverging tracks may be maintained by the application of the
Mach No technique.
Fig. 16-5
Fig. 16-6
5 minutes in the following cases, providing that in each case the lead aircraft is maintaining a TAS of
37 km/h (20 kt) or more faster than the aircraft following:
Fig. 16-7
3 minutes in the cases listed below provided that in each case the lead aircraft is maintaining a TAS
of 74 km/h (40 kt) or more faster than the aircraft following.
Fig. 16-8
Fig. 16-9
Fig. 16-10
Fig. 16-11
Fig. 16-12
10 minutes at the time the level is crossed, provided that separation is authorized only where
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed.
Fig. 16-13
or when descending
Fig. 16-14
5 minutes at the time the level is crossed, provided that the level change is commenced within 10
minutes of the time the second aircraft has reported over an exact reporting point.
Fig. 16-15
Fig. 16-16
Fig. 16-17
Traffic on Reciprocal Tracks
Where lateral separation is not provided, vertical separation is provided for at least 10 minutes prior
to and after the time the aircraft are estimated to pass, or are estimated to have passed. If it has
been determined that the aircraft have passed each other, this minimum need not apply.
Fig. 16-18
Separation shall be established by maintaining not less than the specified distance(s) between
aircraft positions as reported by reference to DME in conjunction with other appropriate navigation
aids. Direct controller-pilot communications shall be maintained while such separation is used.
Fig. 16-19
• The lead aircraft maintains a TAS of 37 km/h (20 kt) or more faster than the aircraft following
• Each aircraft utilizes "on-track" DME stations
• Separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings from the aircraft at intervals
as necessary to ensure that the minimum established and will not be infringed
Fig. 16-20
Fig. 16-21
Fig. 16-22
Fig. 16-23
Or when descending
Fig. 16-24
Aircraft utilizing on-track DME may be cleared to climb or descend to or through the levels occupied
by other aircraft utilizing on-track DME provided that it is positively established that the aircraft have
passed each other and are at least 10 nm apart or any other value as prescribed by the appropriate
ATS authority.
RNAV distance based separation may be applied between RNAV equipped aircraft when operating
on designated RNAV routes or on ATS routes defined by VOR.
At 150 km (80 nm) RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on same direction tracks
in lieu of a 10 minute longitudinal separation minimum. When applying this separation minimum
between aircraft on same direction track, the Mach number technique (MNT) shall be applied. Lead
aircraft maintain a Mach number equal to or greater than that maintained by the following aircraft.
Turbo-jet aircraft adhere to the Mach number approved by ATC and request ATC approval before
making any changes. If it is essential to make an immediate temporary change in the Mach number
eg. due to turbulence, ATC have to be notified as soon as possible that a change has been made.
If it is not feasible, due to aircraft performance to maintain the last assigned Mach number during
en-route climbs and descents, pilots of the aircraft concerned advise ATC at the time of the climb or
descent request.
RNAV distance based separation minima shall not be applied after ATC has received pilot advice
indicating navigation equipment deterioration or failure.
Fig. 16-25
A 150 km (80 nm) RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used provided:
• Each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" way point, and
• Separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous RNAV distance readings from the aircraft at
frequent intervals to ensure that the minimum will not be infringed
A 150 km (80 nm) RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is
crossed, provided:
• Each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" way point
• One aircraft maintains a level while vertical separation does not exist
• Separation is established by obtaining simultaneous RNAV distance readings from the aircraft
Fig. 16-26
Fig. 16-27
Aircraft utilizing RNAV may be cleared to climb or descend to or through the levels occupied by
other aircraft utilizing RNAV provided that it has been positively established by simultaneous RNAV
distance readings to or from the same "on-track" way-point that the aircraft have passed each other
by at least 150 km (80 nm)
Fig. 16-28
• When special electronic or other aids enable the PIC of an aircraft to determine accurately
the aircraft's position and when adequate communication facilities exists for that position to
be transmitted without delay to the appropriate ATCU, or
• When, in association with rapid and reliable communication facilities, radar derived
information of an aircraft's position is available to the appropriate ATCU, or
• When special electronic or other aids enable the air traffic controller to predict rapidly and
accurately the flight paths of aircraft and adequate facilities exist to verify frequently the
actual aircraft positions with the predicted positions, or
• When RNAV equipped aircraft operate within the coverage of electronic aids that provide the
necessary updates to maintain navigation accuracy
Chapter 17
Aircraft Control
Introduction ............................................................................................................. 3
Identification of Aircraft ........................................................................................... 3
Position Information ................................................................................................ 5
Radar Vectoring ....................................................................................................... 6
Use of Radar in the Air Traffic Control Service.......................................................... 7
Radar Separation Minima ........................................................................................ 8
Emergencies, Hazards, and Equipment Failures ....................................................... 9
Surveillance Radar Approach ................................................................................... 10
Aerodrome Control Service ...................................................................................... 12
Traffic and Taxi Circuits ............................................................................................ 13
Selection of Runway in use ...................................................................................... 15
Control of Traffic in the Traffic Circuit....................................................................... 19
Control of Arriving Aircraft ....................................................................................... 21
Authorisation of Special VFR Flights ......................................................................... 23
Approach Control Service ........................................................................................ 23
Arriving Aircraft ....................................................................................................... 25
Approach Sequence ................................................................................................. 27
Information for Arriving Aircraft .............................................................................. 29
Air Traffic Services Units .......................................................................................... 31
Alerting Service ........................................................................................................ 31
Introduction
The use of radar in ATS shall be limited to specified areas of radar cover and shall be subject to such
other limitations as specified by the appropriate ATS authority. Adequate information on the
operating methods used shall be published in AlPs, as well as operating practices and/or equipment
limitations having direct effects on the operation of ATS.
Primary surveillance radar (PSR) and secondary surveillance radar (SSR) may be used either alone or
in combination provided:
PSR systems alone should be used in circumstances where SSR alone would not meet the ATS
requirements.
SSR systems, especially those with monopulse technique or Mode S capability, may be used alone,
including in the provision of separation between aircraft, provided:
The minimum radar derived information available for display to the controller shall include:
Identification of Aircraft
Establishment of Radar Identification
Before providing a radar service to an aircraft, radar identification shall be established and the pilot
informed. Thereafter, radar identification shall be maintained until termination of the radar service.
If radar identification is subsequently lost, the pilot shall be informed accordingly and, when
applicable appropriate instructions issued.
Where SSR is used, aircraft may be identified by one or more of the following procedures:
When a discrete code has been assigned to an aircraft, a check shall be made at the earliest
opportunity to ensure that the code set by the pilot is identical to that assigned for the flight. Only
after this check has been made shall the discrete code be used as a basis for identification.
Where SSR Is Not Used Or Available, Radar Identification Shall Be Established By At Least One Of The
Following Methods:
• By correlating a particular radar position indication with an aircraft reporting its position
over, or as bearing and distance from a point displayed on the radar map, and by confirming
that the track of the particular radar position is consistent with the aircraft path or reported
heading
• By correlating an observed radar position indication with an aircraft which is known to have
just departed, provided that the identification is established within 2 km (1 nm) from the end
of the runway used. Particular care should be taken to avoid confusion with aircraft holding
over or overflying the aerodrome, or with aircraft departing from or making a missed
approach over adjacent runways
• By transfer of radar identification
• By ascertaining aircraft heading, if circumstances require, and following a period of track
observation:
1. Instructing the pilot to execute one or more changes of heading of 30° or more and
correlating the movements of one particular radar position indication with the
aircraft’s acknowledged execution of the instructions given, or
• Verify that the movements of not more than one radar position indication corresponds with
those of the aircraft, and
• Ensure that the manoeuvre(s) will not carry the aircraft outside the coverage of the radar
display
Use may be made of direction finding bearings to assist in radar identification of an aircraft. This
method shall not be used as the sole means of establishing radar identification, unless so prescribed
by the ATS authority for particular cases under specified conditions
Position Information
An aircraft provided with radar service should be informed of its position in the following
circumstances, when identified:
• Based upon the pilots report of the aircraft position or within 1 nm of the runway upon
departure and the observation is consistent with the aircraft’s time of departure, or
• By use of assigned discrete SSR codes or Mode S and the location of the observed radar
position indication is consistent with the current flight plan of the aircraft, or
• By transfer of radar identification
• When the pilot requests this information
• When a pilot estimate differs significantly from the radar controller’s estimate based on
radar observation
• When the pilot is instructed to resume own navigation after radar vectoring if the current
instructions had diverted the aircraft from a previously assigned route
• Immediately before termination of radar service, if the aircraft is observed to deviate from its
intended route
Where practicable, position information shall relate to positions or routes pertinent to the
navigation of the aircraft concerned and displayed on the radar map.
The pilot may omit position reports at compulsory reporting points when specified by the ATS unit
concerned, this includes points at which air-reports are required for meteorological purposes. Pilots
shall resume position reporting:
• When instructed
• When advised that radar service is terminated
• That radar identification is lost
Radar Vectoring
According to IACO Doc 4444 the aim of radar vectoring is to resolve any potential traffic conflicts,
establish an expeditious and efficient approach sequence, and to assist pilots in their navigation.
Radar vectoring shall be achieved by issuing the pilot specific headings which enable the aircraft to
maintain the desired track. When vectoring an aircraft, a radar controller should comply with the
following:
• Whenever practicable, the aircraft should be vectored along routes or tracks on which the
pilot can monitor the aircraft position with reference to pilot interpreted navigation aids
• When an aircraft is given a vector diverting it from a previously assigned route, the pilot
should be informed, unless it is self-evident, what the vector is to accomplish and, when
possible, the limit of the vector should be specified
Except when transfer of radar control is to be affected aircraft shall not be vectored:
Controlled flights should not be vectored into uncontrolled airspace except in:
When an aircraft has reported unreliable directional instruments, the pilot should be requested,
prior to the issuance of manoeuvring instructions, to make turns at an agreed rate and to carry out
the instruction immediately upon receipt.
When vectoring an IFR flight, the radar controller shall issue clearances such that the required
obstacle clearance will exist at all times until the aircraft reaches the point where the pilot will
resume own navigation.
Whenever possible, minimum vectoring altitudes should be sufficiently high to minimize activation
of GPWS. States shall encourage operators to report incidents involving the activation of aircraft
GPWS so that their locations can be identified and altitude, routing and/or aircraft operating
procedures can be altered to prevent recurrences.
In terminating radar vectoring of an aircraft, the radar controller shall instruct the pilot to resume
own navigation, giving the pilot the aircraft’s position and appropriate instructions, as necessary.
Information that an aircraft appears likely to penetrate an area of adverse weather should be issued
in sufficient time to permit the pilot to decide on an appropriate course of action, including that of
requesting advice on how best to circumnavigate the adverse weather, if so desired.
In vectoring an aircraft for circumnavigating any area of adverse weather, the radar controller should
ascertain that the aircraft can be returned to its intended or assigned flight path within the available
radar coverage, and, if this does not appear possible, inform the pilot of the circumstances.
• Provide radar services as necessary in order to improve airspace utilization, reduce delays,
provide for direct routings and more optimum flight profiles, as well as to enhance safety
• Provide radar vectoring to departing aircraft for the purpose of facilitating an expeditious
and efficient departure flow and expediting climb to cruising level
• Provide radar vectoring to aircraft for the purpose of resolving potential conflicts
• Provide radar vectoring to arriving aircraft for the purpose of establishing an expeditious and
efficient approach sequence
• Provide radar vectoring to assist pilots in their navigation
• Provide separation and maintain normal traffic flow when an aircraft experiences
communication failure within the area of radar coverage
• Maintain monitoring of air traffic
When applicable, maintain a watch on the progress of air traffic, in order to provide a non-radar
controller with:
• Improved position information regarding aircraft under control
• Supplementary information regarding other traffic, and
• Information regarding any significant deviations, by aircraft from the terms of their
respective ATC clearances, including their cleared routes as well as levels when appropriate
Appropriate arrangements shall be made in any ATCU using radar to ensure the co-ordination of
traffic under radar control with traffic under non-radar control. This includes the provision of
adequate separation between the radar controlled aircraft and all other controlled aircraft. To this
end, close liaison shall be maintained at all times between radar controllers and non-radar
controllers
The radar separation may, if prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, be reduced, but not below:
• The average runway occupancy time of landing aircraft is proven, by statistical means such as
data collection and statistical analysis and methods based on a theoretical model, not to
exceed 50 seconds
• Braking action is reported as good and runway occupancy times are not adversely affected by
runway contaminants such as slush, snow or ice
• A radar system with appropriate azimuth and range resolution and an update rate of 5
seconds or less is used in combination with suitable radar displays, and
• The aerodrome controller is able to observe visually or by means of surface movement radar
(SMR) or a surface movement guidance and control system (SMCGS), the runway in use and
associated exit and entry taxiways
• The wake turbulence radar separation minima prescribed, or as may be prescribed by the
appropriate ATS authority do not apply
• Aircraft approach speeds are closely monitored by the controller and when necessary
adjusted so as to ensure that separation is not reduced below the minimum
• Aircraft operators and pilots have been made fully aware of the need to exit the runway in an
expeditious manner whenever the reduced separation minimum on final approach is applied
• Procedures concerning the application of the reduced minimum are published in
Aeronautical Information Publication
The radar separation minima to be applied shall be prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority
according to the capability of the particular radar system or sensor to accurately identify the aircraft
position in relation to the centre of an RPS, PSR blip or SSR response and taking into account factors
which may affect the accuracy of the radar derived information, such as aircraft range from the
radar site.
The following wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied to aircraft in the approach
and departure phases of flight:
Table 17-1
• An aircraft is operating directly behind another aircraft at the same altitude or less than 300
m (1000 ft), or
• Both aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, or
• An aircraft is crossing behind another aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1000
ft)
If the pilot of an aircraft encountering a state of emergency has previously been directed by ATC to
operate the transponder on a specific code, then that code will normally be maintained unless in
special circumstances, the pilot has decided or has been advised otherwise.
Where ATC has not requested a code to be set, the pilot will set the transponder to Mode A 7700.
If ATC suffer a total radar failure, but air-ground communications are still possible, the radar
controller shall:
Plot the positions of all aircraft already identified and in conjunction with the non-radar controller
take the necessary action to establish non-radar separation
And when relevant, Request that the appropriate non-radar controller take control of the aircraft
Instruct aircraft to communicate with the appropriate controller
Where there is a complete failure of ground radio equipment, the radar controller reverts to the
procedures for a total radar failure unless he is unable to provide the radar service using other
appropriate communications systems.
When total radar failure procedures are not appropriate the controller shall:
• Without delay inform all adjacent control positions or ATC units of the failure
• Inform the control positions or ATC units of the current traffic situation
• Request the assistance of the above units in establishing communications with aircraft so
that radar or non-radar separation can be achieved
• Instruct all adjacent positions or ATC units to hold all controlled flights outside the area of
responsibility until normal services can be resumed
When conducting a SRA the radar controller must comply with the following:
• At or before the commencement of the final approach the aircraft shall be informed of the
point at where the SRA will be terminated
• The aircraft shall be informed when the aircraft is approaching the point at where the
descent should begin
• Before reaching the computed descent point the aircraft shall be informed of the OCA/H and
instructed to descend and check the appropriate minima
• Distance to touchdown is normally passed at every 2 km (1 nm) with the pre-computed level
the aircraft should be passing
• The approach shall be terminated at a distance of 4 km (2nm) from touchdown
• Before the aircraft enters an area of continuous radar clutter
• When the pilot reports that a visual approach can be completed
Where the appropriate ATS determines that the radar accuracy is good enough, the SRA can be
continued to:
• The threshold
• To a point less than 4 km from touchdown
Speed Control
Radar controllers may request aircraft to adjust their speed in order to facilitate radar control.
Aircraft may be requested to maintain:
• Maximum speed
• Minimum speed
• Minimum clean speed
• Minimum approach speed
• A specific speed
Only minor speed adjustments of not more than 40 km/h (20 knots) should be requested of aircraft
established on an intermediate or final approach. No speed control should be applied after 8 km (4
nm) from the threshold on the final approach.
Aerodrome control towers issue information and clearances to aircraft under their control in order
to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome
with the object of preventing collisions between:
Aerodrome control towers are also responsible for alerting the safety services and will immediately
report any failure or irregularity of operation in any apparatus, light or other device established at an
aerodrome for the guidance of aerodrome traffic and PICs of aircraft.
Aircraft which:
• Fail to report after having been handed over to an aerodrome control tower
• Having once reported, cease radio contact
• In either case fail to land 5 minutes after the expected landing time are reported to the area
control centre or flight information centre
Any or all VFR operations on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome may be suspended by any of the
following units, persons or authorities whenever safety requires such action:
• The area control centre within whose CTA the aerodrome is located
• The aerodrome controller on duty
• The appropriate ATS authority
All such suspensions of VFR operations are accomplished through or notified to the aerodrome
control tower.
The following procedures are observed by the aerodrome control tower whenever VFR operations
are suspended:
• The holding of all departures other than those which file an IFR flight plan and obtain
approval from the area control centre
• The recall of all local flights operating under VFR or obtain approval for special VFR
operations
• The notification of the area control centre of the action taken
• The notification of all operators, or their designated representatives, of the reason for taking
such action if necessary or requested
The following positions of aircraft in the traffic and taxi circuits are the positions where the aircraft
normally receive aerodrome control tower clearances, whether these are given by light signals or
radio. Aircraft should be watched closely as they approach these positions so that proper clearances
may be issued without delay.
Where practicable, all clearances are issued without waiting for the aircraft to initiate the call.
Fig. 17-1
Position 1
Aircraft initiates call to taxi for departing flight, runway in use information and taxi clearances given.
Position 2
If there is conflicting traffic, the departing aircraft will be held at this point. Motors of the aircraft
will normally be run-up here
Position 3
Position 4
Position 5
Position 6
Normally, an aircraft will land and take-off into wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or air
traffic conditions determine that a different direction is preferable. In selecting the runway in use
the unit providing aerodrome control service takes into consideration, besides surface wind speed
and direction, other relevant factors such as:
If the runway in use is not considered suitable for the operation involved the PIC may request
permission to use another runway, but might be faced with a delay if this request is fitted in around
other traffic.
When so requested by the pilot prior to engine start, an expected take-off time will be given, unless
engine start time procedures are employed.
Prior to taxiing for take-off, aircraft are advised of the following information, in the order listed, with
the exception of those elements that it is known the aircraft has already received:
• Any significant changes in the surface wind direction and speed, the air temperature, and the
visibility or RVR value(s) given
• Significant meteorological conditions in the take-off and climb out area, except when it is
known that the information has already been received by the aircraft
Prior to entering the traffic circuit an aircraft is provided with the following elements of information,
in the order listed, with the exception of those elements that it is known the aircraft has already
received:
When operating under VMC, it is the responsibility of the PIC of an aircraft to avoid collision with
other aircraft. However, due to the restricted space on and around manoeuvring areas, it is often
essential that traffic information be issued to aid the PIC of an aircraft to avoid collision. Essential
local traffic is considered to consist of any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the manoeuvring
area or traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome, which may constitute a hazard to the
aircraft concerned. Information on essential local traffic is issued either directly or through the unit
providing approach control service when, in the judgement of the aerodrome controller the
information is necessary in the interests of safety, or when requested by aircraft.
Aerodrome controllers shall, whenever practicable, advise aircraft of the expected occurrence of
hazards caused by wake turbulence.
In issuing clearances or instructions, air traffic controllers should take into account the hazards
caused by jet blast and propeller slipstream to taxiing aircraft, to aircraft taking-off or landing,
particularly when intersecting runways are being used, and to vehicles and personnel operating on
the aerodrome.
The essential information on aerodrome conditions includes information relating to the following:
An aircraft landing or in the final stages of an approach to land normally has priority over an aircraft
intending to depart. Departures are normally cleared in the order in which they are ready for take-
off, except that deviations may be made from this order of priority to facilitate the maximum
number of departures with the least average delay.
When taxiing, a pilot’s vision is limited. It is important therefore for aerodrome control units to issue
concise instructions and adequate information to the pilot to assist him in determining the correct
taxi routes and to avoid collision with other aircraft or objects
For the purpose of expediting air traffic, aircraft may be permitted to taxi on the runway in use,
provided no delay or risk to other aircraft will result. Aircraft will not be held closer than at a taxi
holding position for the runway in use.
Aircraft are not permitted to hold on the approach end of the runway in use whenever another
aircraft is landing or, until the landing aircraft has passed the point of intended holding. Whenever
an aircraft is asked to report “Runway Vacated” pilots must appreciate the precise meaning of such a
call. In reduced visibility conditions, the tower may not be able to see aircraft as they exit the
runway and rely on pilots making the Runway Vacated Call when the entire aircraft is beyond the
holding point and the ILS protected zone.
An aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference or which for other reasons
needs isolation from normal aerodrome activities shall be cleared to the designated isolated parking
position. Where such an isolated parking position has not been designated, or if the designated
position is not available, the aircraft shall be cleared to a position within the area or areas selected
by prior agreement with the aerodrome authority. The taxi clearance shall specify the taxi route to
be followed to the parking position. This route shall be selected with a view to minimizing any
security risks to the public, other aircraft and installations at the aerodrome.
The movement of pedestrians or vehicles on the manoeuvring area are subject to authorization by
the aerodrome control tower. Persons, including drivers of all vehicles, are required to obtain
authorization from the aerodrome control tower before entry to the manoeuvring area. Entry to a
runway, runway strip or change in the operation authorized are subject to a further specific
authorization by the aerodrome control tower.
At controlled aerodromes all vehicles employed on the manoeuvring area must be capable of
maintaining two-way radio communication with the aerodrome control tower, except when the
vehicle is only occasionally used on the aerodrome and is:
Table 17-2
In emergency conditions, or if the signals are not observed, the signals given underneath are used
for runways or taxiways equipped with a lighting system and have the meaning indicated.
Table 17-3
When employed in accordance with a plan pre-arranged with the aerodrome control tower,
construction and maintenance personnel should not normally be required to be capable of
maintaining two-way radio communication with the aerodrome control tower.
When an aircraft is landing or taking-off, vehicles are not to be permitted to hold closer to the
runway in use than:
Sufficient separation is effected between aircraft in flight in the traffic circuit to allow the spacing of
arriving and departing aircraft.
The clearance to enter the traffic circuit is issued to an aircraft whenever it is desired that the
aircraft approach the landing area in accordance with current traffic circuits and traffic conditions
are such that a clearance authorizing the actual landing is not feasible. In connection with the
clearance to enter the traffic circuit, information is given concerning the landing direction or runway
in use so that the PlC of an aircraft may intelligently plan his entry into the traffic circuit. If an aircraft
enters an aerodrome traffic circuit without proper authorization, it shall be permitted to land if its
actions indicate that it so desires. If circumstances warrant, a controller may ask aircraft, with which
he is in contact, to give way so as to remove, as soon as possible, any hazard introduced by the
unauthorized operation. In no case shall permission to land be withheld indefinitely.
Special authorization for use of the manoeuvring area may be given to:
• An aircraft which anticipates being compelled to land because of factors affecting the safe
operation of the aircraft
• Hospital aircraft or aircraft carrying any sick or seriously injured persons requiring urgent
medical attention
The appropriate ATS authority may prescribe lower minima, after consultation with the operators,
and taking into account such factors as:
• Runway length
• Aerodrome layout
• The types of aircraft involved
Take-off clearance may be issued to an aircraft when there is reasonable assurance that the
separation prescribed will exist when the aircraft commences its take-off. When an air traffic control
clearance from an area control centre is required prior to take-off, the take-off clearance is not
issued until the area control centre clearance has been transmitted to and acknowledged by the
aircraft concerned. The area control centre shall forward clearance to the aerodrome control tower
with the least possible delay after receipt of a request made by the tower, or prior to such a request
if practicable. The take-off clearance is issued when the aircraft is ready for take-off and at or
approaching the runway in use, and the traffic situation permits
In the interest of expediting traffic, a clearance for immediate take-off may be issued to an aircraft
before it enters the runway. On acceptance of such a clearance the aircraft shall taxi onto the
runway and take-off in one continuous movement.
Lower minima than those prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, after consultation with the
operators, may be used after considering such factors as:
• Runway length
• Aerodrome layout
• Type of aircraft involved
• Between sunset and sunrise, or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be
prescribed
• When braking action may be adversely affected by runway contaminants
• In weather conditions preventing the pilot from making an early assessment of traffic
conditions on the runway
An aircraft may be cleared to land when there is reasonable assurance that the separation will exist
when the aircraft crosses the runway threshold, providing that a clearance to land is not issued until
a preceding landing aircraft has crossed the runway threshold.
Wake Turbulence Categorization of Aircraft Wake turbulence separation minima is based on the
grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass
as follows:
Weight
• HEAVY (H) All aircraft types of 136 000 kg or more
• MEDIUM (M) Aircraft types less than 136 000 kg but more than 7000 kg
• LIGHT (L) Aircraft types of 7000 kg or less
Arriving Aircraft
For timed approaches, the following minima are applied to aircraft landing:
A separation minimum of 2 minutes is applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY
aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and MEDIUM aircraft when operating on a runway with a
displaced landing threshold when:
• A departing LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft follows a HEAVY aircraft arrival and a departing LIGHT
aircraft follows a MEDIUM aircraft arrival, or
• An arriving LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft follows a HEAVY aircraft departure and an arriving
LIGHT aircraft follows a MEDIUM aircraft departure if the projected flight paths are expected
to cross
Opposite Direction
A separation of 2 minutes shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY
aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a
low missed approach and the lighter aircraft is:
Separation shall be effected between all FIR and special VFR flights in accordance with the
separation minima and, when so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, between all special
VFR flights in accordance with separation minima prescribed by that authority.
When the ground visibility is not less than 1500 m special VFR flights may be authorized to enter a
CTR for the purpose of landing or to take-off and depart directly from the CTR. Within Class E
airspace, special VFR flights may take place whether or not the aircraft is equipped with a
functioning radio receiver. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a CTR
when the ground visibility is not less than 1500 m, provided that:
• The aircraft is equipped with a functioning radio receiver and the pilot has agreed to guard
the appropriate communication frequency, or
• Within Class E airspace, if the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver,
adequate arrangements have been made for the termination of the flight
Departing Aircraft
General Procedures for Departing Aircraft
ATC clearances specify:
Note: To ensure an orderly flow of air traffic, ATCUs should attempt to permit aircraft departing on
long distance flights to proceed on heading with as few turns or other manoeuvres as possible, and
to climb to cruising level without restrictions.
Departing aircraft may be expedited by suggesting a take-off direction that is not into wind. It is the
responsibility of the PIC of an aircraft to decide between making such a take-off or waiting for
normal take-off in a preferred direction.
If departures are delayed to avoid excessive holding at destination, delayed flights shall normally be
cleared in an order based on their ETD, except that deviations from this may be made to facilitate
the maximum number of departures with the least average delay. ATCUs should advise aircraft
operators or their designated representatives when anticipated delays due to traffic conditions are
likely to be substantial and in any event when they are expected to exceed 30 minutes.
Clearances For Departing Aircraft To Climb Maintaining Own Separation While In VMC
When requested by the aircraft and if prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority a departing
aircraft may be cleared to climb, subject to maintaining own separation and remaining in VMC until
a specified time or to a specified location if reports indicate that this is possible.
Information regarding significant changes in the meteorological conditions in the take-off or climb
out area, obtained by the unit providing approach control service after a departing aircraft has
established communication with that unit, are transmitted to the aircraft without delay, except
when it is known that the aircraft has already received the information.
Information regarding changes in the operational status of visual and non-visual aids essential for
take-off and climb are transmitted without delay to a departing aircraft, except when it is known
that the aircraft has already received the information. Information regarding essential local traffic
known to the controller is transmitted to departing aircraft without delay.
Note: Essential local traffic in this context consists of any aircraft vehicle or personnel on or near the
runway to be used or traffic in the take-off and climb-out area, which may constitute a collision
hazard to the departing aircraft
Arriving Aircraft
General Procedures for Arriving Aircraft
When it becomes evident that delays in holding will be encountered by arriving aircraft, the
operator or a designated representative is notified and kept informed of any changes in the
expected delays, in order that diversionary action can be planned as far in advance as possible.
Arriving aircraft may be required to report when:
An IFR flight is not be cleared for an initial approach below the appropriate minimum altitude as
specified by the State concerned nor to descend below that altitude unless:
• The pilot has reported passing an appropriate point defined by a radio aid
• The pilot reports that the aerodrome is and can be maintained in sight
• The aircraft is conducting a visual approach
• The aircraft’s position has been positively determined by the use of radar
When requested by the aircraft and if so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority an arriving
aircraft may be cleared to descend subject to maintaining its own separation and remaining in VMC
if reports indicate that this is possible.
Visual Approach
An IFR flight may be cleared to execute a visual approach provided that the pilot can maintain visual
reference to the terrain and:
• The reported ceiling is at or above the approved initial approach level for the aircraft so
cleared, or
• The pilot reports at the initial approach level or at any time during the approach that the
meteorological conditions are such that a visual approach and landing can be completed
Separation is to be provided between an aircraft cleared to execute a visual approach and other
arriving and departing aircraft.
For successive visual approaches, radar or non-radar separation is to be maintained until the pilot of
a following aircraft reports having the preceding aircraft in sight. The aircraft is instructed to follow
and maintain separation from the preceding aircraft. Transfer of communications are made at a
point or time that clearance to land or alternative instructions can be issued to the aircraft in a
timely manner.
Instrument Approach
If a PIC reports or it is clearly apparent to the ATC unit that they are not familiar with an instrument
approach procedure then they will be given the following details
If the aircraft is to be cleared for a straight-in approach then only the last item need be specified.
The missed approach procedure will be specified when deemed necessary. If visual reference to
terrain is established before completion of the approach procedure, the entire procedure must be
continued unless the pilot requests and is cleared for a visual approach. A particular approach
procedure may be specified to expedite traffic. The omission of a specified approach procedure will
indicate that any authorized approach may be used at the discretion of the pilot.
Holding
Holding and holding pattern entry has to be accomplished in accordance with procedures
established by the appropriate ATS authority and published in Aeronautical Information
Publications. If entry and holding procedures have not been published or if the procedures are not
known to the PIC of an aircraft, the appropriate ATCU will describe the procedures to be followed.
Aircraft must be held at a designated holding point. The required minimum vertical, lateral or
longitudinal separation from other aircraft, according to the system in use at that holding point, will
be provided. When aircraft are being held in flight, the appropriate vertical separation minima shall
continue to be provided between holding aircraft and en-route aircraft while such aircraft are within
5 minutes flying time of the holding area, unless the correct lateral separation exists.
Levels at holding points are assigned in a manner that facilitates the clearance of each aircraft to
approach in its proper priority. Normally, the first aircraft to arrive over a holding point should be at
the lowest level, with following aircraft at successively higher levels. Aircraft particularly sensitive to
high fuel consumption at low levels, such as supersonic aircraft, are permitted to hold at higher
levels than their order in the approach sequence indicates, without losing their order in the
sequence.
This is allowed whenever the availability of discrete descent paths and/or radar makes it possible to
clear the aircraft for descent through the levels occupied by other aircraft.
If a PIC of an aircraft advises of an inability to comply with the approach control holding or
communication procedures, the alternative procedure(s) requested by the PIC should be approved if
known traffic conditions permit.
Approach Sequence
The approach sequence is established in a manner that will facilitate arrival of the maximum
number of aircraft with the least average delay.
• An aircraft which anticipates being compelled to land because of factors affecting the safe
operation of the aircraft
• Hospital aircraft or aircraft carrying any sick or seriously injured person requiring urgent
medical attention
Succeeding aircraft are cleared for approach when the preceding aircraft:
• Has reported that it is able to complete its approach without encountering IMC
• Is in communication with and sighted by the aerodrome control tower and reasonable
assurance exists that a normal landing can be accomplished
If the pilot of an aircraft in an approach sequence has indicated an intention to hold for weather
improvement, or for other reasons, such action shall be approved. When other holding aircraft
indicate their intention to continue the approach to land and if alternative procedures involving, for
instance, the use of radar are not available, the pilot desiring to hold will be cleared to an adjacent
fix for holding awaiting weather change or re-routing. Alternatively, the aircraft should be given a
clearance to place it at the top of the approach sequence so that other holding aircraft may be
permitted to land.
Co-ordination is affected with the area control centre, when required, to avoid conflict with the
traffic under the jurisdiction of this centre. The aircraft operator, or a designated representative,
shall be advised of the action taken immediately after the clearance is issued, if practicable.
When establishing the approach sequence an aircraft which has been authorized to absorb a
specified period of notified terminal delay, by cruising at a reduced speed en-route, should be
credited with the time absorbed en route.
Subject to approval by the appropriate ATS authority, the following procedure should be utilized
when necessary to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft:
• A suitable point on the approach path, which shall be capable of being accurately
determined by the pilot, shall be specified, to serve as a check point in timing successive
approaches
• Aircraft shall be given a time at which to pass the specified point inbound, this time shall be
determined with the aim of achieving the desired interval between successive landings on
the runway while respecting the applicable separation minima at all times, including the
periods of runway occupancy
The time at which aircraft should pass the specified point is determined by the unit providing
approach control service and notified to the aircraft sufficiently in advance to permit the pilot to
arrange the flight path accordingly. Each aircraft in the approach sequence is cleared to pass the
specified point inbound at the notified time after the preceding aircraft has reported passing the
point inbound.
An EAT is determined for an arriving aircraft that will be subjected to a delay, and is transmitted to
the aircraft as soon as practicable and preferably not later than at the commencement of its initial
descent from cruising level. In the case of aircraft particularly sensitive to high fuel consumption at
low levels, an EAT should, whenever possible, be transmitted to the aircraft early enough before its
intended descent time to enable the pilot to choose the method of absorbing the delay and to
request a change in the flight plan if the choice is to reduce speed en-route. A revised EAT is
transmitted to the aircraft without delay whenever it differs from that previously transmitted by 5
minutes or more, or any lesser period of time as has been established by the appropriate ATS
authority, or agreed between the ATS units concerned.
An EAT is transmitted to the aircraft by the most expeditious means whenever it is anticipated that
the aircraft will be required to hold for 30 minutes or more.
The holding point to which an EAT relates, together with the EAT, are given to a pilot whenever
circumstances are such that the reasons are not clear.
• Runway in use
• Current meteorological information (wind velocity being passed by the Tower in ⁰M)
• Current runway surface conditions, in case of precipitants or other temporary hazards
• Changes in the operational status of visual and non-visual aids essential for approach and
landing
It should be recognized that the aircraft prior to departure or during en-route flight may not have
received information published by NOTAM or disseminated by other means. If it becomes apparent
that flight crew are not familiar with the instrument approach procedure being carried out, the
initial approach level, the point at which the base turn or procedure turn will be started (in minutes
from the appropriate reporting point, the level at which the procedure turn shall be carried out and
the final approach track shall be specified by ATC; only the last mentioned need be specified if the
aircraft is cleared for a straight in approach.
If the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, the significant changes are:
Changes in observed RVR value(s), in accordance with the reported scale in use, or changes in the
visibility representative of the direction of approach and landing
The objective of the air traffic advisory service is to make information on collision hazards more
effective than it would be in the mere provision of FIS. It may be provided to aircraft conducting IFR
flights in advisory airspace or on advisory routes (Class F airspace in the UK). Such areas or routes
will be specified by the State concerned.
Air traffic advisory service should only be implemented where the air traffic services are inadequate
for the provision of air traffic control and the limited advice on collision hazards otherwise provided
by FIS will not meet the requirement. Where air traffic advisory service is implemented, this should
be considered normally as a temporary measure only until such time as it can be replaced by air
traffic control service.
Air traffic advisory service does not afford the same degree of safety and cannot assume the same
responsibilities as air traffic control service in respect of the avoidance of collisions, since
information regarding the disposition of traffic in the area concerned available to the unit providing
air traffic advisory service may be incomplete. To make this quite clear, air traffic advisory service
does not deliver clearances but only advisory information and it uses the words “advise” or
“suggest” when a course of action is proposed to an aircraft.
IFR flights electing to use the air traffic advisory service when operating within Class F airspace are
expected to comply with the same procedures as those applying to controlled flights except that:
• The flight plan and any changes are not subjected to a clearance, since the unit furnishing air
traffic advisory service will only provide advice on the presence of essential traffic or
suggestions as to a possible course of action
• It is for the aircraft to decide whether or not it will comply with the advice or suggestion
received and to inform the unit providing air traffic advisory service without delay, of its
decision
• Air-ground contacts shall be made with the ATS unit designated to provide air traffic advisory
service within the advisory airspace or portion thereof
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flights within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic
advisory service, shall submit a flight plan, and notify changes to the unit providing the service.
IFR flights planning to cross an advisory route should do so as nearly as possible at an angle of 90º to
the direction of the route and at a level, appropriate to its track, selected from the tables of cruising
levels for use by IFR flights outside controlled airspace.
• Advise the aircraft to depart at the time specified and to cruise at the levels indicated in the
flight plan if it does not foresee any conflict with other known traffic
• Suggest to aircraft a course of action by which a potential hazard may be avoided, giving
priority to an aircraft already in advisory airspace over other aircraft desiring to enter such
advisory airspace
• Pass to aircraft traffic information comprising the same information as that prescribed for
area control service
The criteria used above should be at least those laid down for aircraft operating in CAS and should
take into account the limitations inherent in the provision of air traffic control advisory service,
navigation facilities and air-ground communications prevailing in the region.
Alerting Service
When required by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of alerting and SAR
services, an aircraft, prior to and when operating within or into designated areas or along
designated routes, shall comply with the provisions detailed in Annex 2 concerning the submission,
completion, changing and closing of a flight plan.
In addition to the above, aircraft equipped with suitable two-way radio communications shall report
during the period 20 to 40 minutes following the time of last contact, whatever the purpose of such
contact, merely to indicate that the flight is progressing according to plan, such report to comprise
of:
The “operations normal” message shall be transmitted air-ground to an appropriate ATS unit
(normally to the aeronautical telecommunication station serving the FIR in which the aircraft is
flying)
Where no report from an aircraft has been received within a reasonable period of time (which may
be a specified interval prescribed on the basis of regional air navigation agreements) after a
scheduled or expected reporting time, the ATS unit shall, within the stipulated period of 30 minutes,
endeavour to obtain such report in order to be in a position to apply the provisions relevant to the
“INCERFA phase” should circumstances warrant such action. A pilot in these circumstances can
expect ATC to attempt to make contact on the last frequency on which communication was effected
and 121.5 MHz.
When alerting service is required in respect of a flight operated through more than one FIR or CTA,
and when the position of the aircraft is in doubt, responsibility for co-ordinating such service shall
rest with the ATS unit of the FIR or CTA:
• Within which the aircraft was flying at the time of last air-ground contact
• That the aircraft was about to enter when last air-ground contact was established at or close
to the boundary of 2 FIRs or CTAs
• If the aircraft was not equipped with suitable two-way radio communication equipment
• Was not under obligation to transmit reports
Chapter 18
Introduction
The object of the aeronautical information service is to ensure the flow of information necessary for
the safety, regularity and efficiency of international air navigation. Corrupt or erroneous
aeronautical information can potentially affect the safety of air navigation. The role and importance
of aeronautical information/data changed significantly with the implementation of:
To satisfy the uniformity and consistency in the provision of aeronautical information that is required
for operational use states shall, as far as possible, avoid Standards and procedures other than those
established for international use.
Each State remains responsible for any information published. Aeronautical information published
on behalf of the state shall clearly indicate that it is published under the authority of that state. Each
Contracting State is responsible for ensuring that the aeronautical information published is accurate,
on time and of the required quality expected by ICAO.
Where a 24-hour service is not provided the service has to be available during the whole period an
aircraft is in flight in the area of responsibility plus a period of a least two hours before and after
such period. The service has to be available at any other time as may be requested by an
appropriate ground organization.
The aeronautical information service shall obtain information for it to provide pre-flight information
service and to meet the need for in-flight information.
An aeronautical information service shall ensure that aeronautical information is in a form suitable
for the requirements of:
• Flight operations personnel including flight crews, flight planning and flight simulator
• The ATS unit responsible for FIS and the services responsible for pre-flight information
Each State shall designate the office to which all elements of the Integrated Aeronautical
Information Package originated by other States shall be addressed. Such an office shall be qualified
to deal with requests for information by other States.
States shall, wherever practicable, establish direct contact between aeronautical information
services in order to facilitate the international exchange of aeronautical information.
General Specifications
Each element of the Integrated Aeronautical Information Package for international distribution
should include an English text for those parts expressed in plain language
Place names shall be spelt in conformity with local usage, translated where necessary into the Latin
alphabet.
As of 1 January 1984, published geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude shall be
expressed in terms of the World Geodetic System - 1984 (WGS -84). ( WGS-84 l takes account of the
fact that the earth is not a perfect sphere, as represented on the globe and on conventional charts,
but an oblate spheroid. The associated coordinate system makes allowances for the differences
between the sphere and oblate spheroid, and uses gravitational computations to determine sea
level datum).
ICAO abbreviations shall be used by the aeronautical information services whenever they are
appropriate and their use will facilitate distribution of information
Each prohibited, restricted or danger area established by a state shall, upon initial establishment be
given an identification and full details shall be promulgated.
The identification assigned is used to identify the area in all subsequent notifications pertaining to
that area. The identification is composed of a group as follows:
• Nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, which has
established the airspace (EG is used for the UK)
A letter:
• P=Prohibited area
• R=Restricted area
• D=Danger area
The AIP is the means by which States collate and publish information about its own territory to
provide pre-flight and in-flight information.
An AIP consists of three parts relating to the following subjects:
AlP Amendments
AlP Supplements
Temporary changes of long duration (three months) and information of short duration which
contains extensive text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. AIP supplement pages are
coloured in order to be conspicuous, preferably in yellow.
NOTAM
A NOTAM is originated and issued whenever the information to be distributed is of:
Note: Information of short duration containing extensive text and/or graphics is published as an AIP
Supplement
A NOTAM is originated and issued whenever the following information is of direct operational
significance:
Release into the atmosphere of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals following a nuclear or
chemical incident:
• The location
• Date and time of the incident
• The flight levels and routes or portions thereof which could be affected
• The direction of movement
• Establishment of operations of humanitarian relief missions, such as those undertaken under
the auspices of UN, together with procedures and/or limitations which affect air navigation
When an AIP Amendment or an AlP Supplement is published in accordance with AIRAC procedures
NOTAM shall be originated giving a brief description of the contents, the effective date and the
reference number to the amendment or supplement. This NOTAM shall come into force on the same
effective date as the amendment or supplement.
Distribution of a Notam
A NOTAM is distributed to addressees to whom the information is of direct operational significance,
and who would not otherwise have at least seven days prior notification.
• Issued over the AFTN at intervals of not more than one month
• The checklist shall refer to the latest AIP Amendments, AIP Supplements and at least the
internationally distributed AICs
• The checklist must have the same distribution as the actual message series to which they
refer
All temporary NOTAMs must include an expiry date. If the expiry is estimated then a ten figure group
is suffixed with “EST”. There is no ICAO recommendation when a NOTAM issued with an estimated
expiry time should be replaced.
Snowtam
Information concerning snow, ice and standing water on aerodrome pavements is reported by
SNOWTAM.
Fig. 18-1
Ashtam
An ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity
is expected, or is, of operational significance. Information is passed using a volcano level of alert
colour code given in the table below.
• FIR
• CTA
• CTR
• Advisory areas
• ATS routes
• Permanent danger, prohibited and restricted areas
• Permanent areas, routes or portions of routes where the possibility of interception exists
• Positions, frequencies, call signs, known irregularities and maintenance periods, of radio
navigation aids and communication facilities
• Holding and approach procedures, arrival and departure procedures, noise abatement
procedures and any other permanent ATS procedures
• Meteorological facilities, including broadcasts, and procedures
• Runways and aprons
• Position, height and lighting of navigational obstacles
• Taxiways and aprons
• Hours of service
• Aerodrome
• Facilities and services
• Temporary danger, prohibited and restricted areas and navigational hazards, military
exercises and mass movements of aircraft
• Temporary areas or routes or portions thereof where the possibility of interception exists
The system is based on the establishment of a series of common effective dates at intervals of 28
days. The AIS unit distributes AIRAC information at least 42 days in advance of the effective date
with the objective of reaching recipients at least 28 days in advance of the effective date. The
information notified is not changed for at least another 28 days after the effective date, unless the
change is of a temporary nature and would not persist for the full period.
Whenever major changes are planned and where additional notice is desirable and practicable, a
publication date of at least 56 days in advance of the effective date should be used
• A long term forecast of any major change in legislation, regulations, procedures or facilities
• Information of a purely explanatory or advisory nature liable to affect flight safety
• Information or notification of an explanatory or advisory nature concerning technical,
legislative or purely administrative matters
AIC’s are issued under 5 headings, and in the days when they were printed and distributed by mail
the colour of the paper on which they were printed identified the broad heading to which the AIC
referred. In the UK IAIP the colours are coded as follows:
When referencing AICs in electronic form, you will still see them referred to by colour, albeit the
background will be white!
At an aerodrome used for international air operations, aeronautical information essential for:
Note: shall be made available to flight operations personnel responsible for pre-flight information.
Aeronautical information provided for pre-flight planning purposes shall include relevant:
All NOTAM information is available to pilots in the form of pre-flight information bulletins (PIB).
States shall ensure that arrangements are made for all aerodromes to receive information
concerning the state and operation of the navigation facilities to be used by flight crew. All such
information is made available to the AIS for dissemination.
GEN 1 – National Regulations and Requirements. Designated authorities, Entry, transit and
departure of aircraft, Entry, transit and departure of cargo, Aircraft instruments, equipment and
flight documents, Summary of national regulations and international agreements/conventions,
Differences from ICAO SARPs
GEN 2 – Tables and Codes. Measuring system, aircraft markings, holidays, Abbreviations used in AIS
publications, Chart symbols, Location indicators, List of radio navigation aids, Conversion tables,
Sunrise/sunset tables
GEN 3 – Services. Aeronautical information services, Aeronautical charts, Air traffic services,
Meteorological services, SAR
ENR 1 – General Rules and Procedures. General rules, VFR, IFR, ATS airspace classification, Holding,
approach and departure procedures, Radar services and procedures, Altimeter setting procedures,
Regional supplementary procedures, Air traffic flow management, Flight planning, Addressing of
flight plan messages, Interception of civil aircraft, Unlawful interference, Air traffic incidents
ENR 2 – Air Traffic Services Airspace. FIR, UIR, TMA, Other regulated airspace,
ENR 3 – ATS Routes. Lower ATS routes, Upper ATS routes, Area navigation routes, Helicopter routes,
Other routes, En-route holding
ENR 4 - Radio Navigation Aids/Systems. Radio navigation aids – en-route, Special navigation systems,
Name code designators for specific points, Aeronautical ground lights – en-route,
ENR 5 – Navigation Warnings. Prohibited, restricted and danger areas, Military exercise and training
areas, Other activities of a dangerous nature, Air navigation obstacles – en-route, Aerial sporting and
recreational activities, Bird migration and areas with sensitive fauna,
The requirement is for charts related to an aerodrome to be included in the following order:
• Aerodrome/heliport chart
• Aircraft parking/docking chart
• Aerodrome ground movement chart
Chapter 19
Aerodromes
Introduction ........................................................................................................... 3
Aerodrome Reference Code ................................................................................... 3
Aerodrome Data .................................................................................................... 4
Declared Distances................................................................................................. 6
Condition of the Movement Area and Related Facilities ........................................ 8
Water on a Runway................................................................................................ 9
Snow, Slush or Ice on a Runway ............................................................................. 9
Physical Characteristics ........................................................................................ 10
Clearway .............................................................................................................. 12
Stopways.............................................................................................................. 12
Taxiway Curves..................................................................................................... 13
Holding Bays, Taxi Holding Positions and Road Holding Positions ........................ 14
Introduction
This Annex contains SARPs that detail:
• The physical characteristics and obstacle limitation surfaces to be provided for at aerodromes
• Certain facilities and technical services normally provided at an aerodrome
It is not intended that these specifications limit or regulate the operation of an aircraft.
• The code number for element 1 shall be determined by selecting the code number
corresponding to the highest value for the aeroplane reference field lengths of the
aeroplanes for which the runway is intended
• The code number for element 2 shall be determined by selecting the code letter which
corresponds to the greatest wing span, or the greatest outer main gear wheel span,
whichever gives the more demanding code letter of the aeroplanes for which the facility is
intended
For convenience the code letters and numbers are not used in the text of these notes. The data
within the table is given instead.
Aerodrome Data
Aeronautical Data
Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude shall be determined and reported in
terms of the World Geodetic System - 1984 (WGS-84)
An aerodrome reference point is established for an aerodrome. The aerodrome reference point shall
be located near the initial or planned centre of the aerodrome. The position is measured and
reported to the aeronautical information services in degrees, minutes and seconds.
The aerodrome elevation is measured to the accuracy of ½ m or foot. For an aerodrome used by
international civil aviation:
Note: The aerodrome reference temperature should be the monthly mean of the daily maximum
temperatures for the hottest month of the year. This temperature should be averaged over a period
of years
The following data shall be measured or described as appropriate, for each facility provided at an
aerodrome:
• Runway
True bearing to one-hundredth of a degree, designation number, length, width, displaced threshold
location to the nearest metre or foot, slope, surface type, type of runway and, for a precision
approach runway Category I, the existence of an obstacle free zone when provided.
• Taxiway
Designation, width, surface type.
• Apron
Surface type, aircraft stands
• ATC
The boundaries of the Air Traffic Control Service
• Clearway
Length to the nearest metre or foot, ground profile
Visual aids for approach procedures, marking and lighting of runways, taxiways and aprons, other
visual guidance and control aids on taxiways and aprons, including taxi-holding positions and stop
bars, and location and type of visual docking guidance systems.
• Check Points
The location and radio frequency of any VOR aerodrome check point.
• Taxi Routes
The location and designation of standard taxi routes
• ILS/MLS
Distances to the nearest metre or foot of localizer and glidepath elements comprising an ILS or
azimuth and elevation antenna of MLS in relation to the associated runway extremities
The following geographical co-ordinates are measured and reported in degrees, minutes, seconds
and hundredths of seconds:
The top elevation, rounded up to the nearest metre or foot, type, marking and lighting (if any) of the
significant obstacles shall be reported to the aeronautical information services authority.
One or more pre-flight altimeter check locations shall be established for an aerodrome. A pre-flight
check location should be located on an apron.
Note: Locating a pre-flight altimeter check location on an apron enables an altimeter check to be
made prior to obtaining taxi clearance and eliminates the need for stopping for that purpose after
leaving the apron
Note: Normally an entire apron can serve as a satisfactory altimeter check location
The elevation of a pre-flight altimeter check location is given as the average elevation, rounded to
the nearest metre or foot, of the area on which it is located. The elevation of any portion of a pre-
flight altimeter check location shall be within 3 m (10 ft) of the average for that location.
Declared Distances
In accordance with ICAO Annex 14, the following distances shall be calculated to the nearest metre
or foot for a runway intended for use by international commercial air transport
The length of runway declared by the State to be available and suitable for the ground run of an
aeroplane taking off. This is usually the physical length of the runway
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway, if provided
The length of runway that is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane
landing.
Where a runway has a displaced threshold, then the distance the threshold is displaced will reduce
the LDA. A displaced threshold affects only the LDA for approaches made to that threshold, all
declared distances for operations in the reciprocal direction are unaffected.
Where a runway is not provided with a stopway or clearway, and the threshold is located at the
extremity of the runway, the four declared distances should normally be equal to the length of the
runway.
Fig. 19-1
• The movement area and the operational status of related facilities shall be provided to the
appropriate aeronautical information service units
• Similar information of operational significance to the ATS units
Both shall be provided to the appropriate aeronautical information service units. This is to enable
the above units to provide the necessary information required by arriving and departing aircraft. The
information shall be kept up to date and changes in conditions reported without delay.
The condition of the movement area and operational status of related facilities shall be monitored
and reports on matters of operational significance or affecting aircraft performance in respect of:
Pavement Strength
Where runways are to be used by aircraft with a MTWA in excess of 5,700 kg the runway load
bearing capability must be reported. In such cases, load bearing - strength - will be in the form of a
Pavement Classification Number (PCN) which is compared to the Aircraft Classification Number
(ACN) which is a calculated value of how much force is transferred to the runway or taxiways
through the aircraft tyre footprint. As long as the ACN is equal to or less than the PCN, unlimited
operations can be undertaken at that aerodrome.
For aerodromes with operations involving aircraft with an apron mass equal to or less than 5,700 kg
pavement capability is given in terms of maximum mass or maximum tyre pressure rather than PCN.
Water on a Runway
Whenever water is present on a runway, a description of the runway surface conditions on the
centre half of the width of the runway, including the possible assessment of water depth where
applicable should be made using the following terms:
Information that a runway may be slippery when wet shall be made available. A runway shall be
determined as being slippery when wet when the measurements specified by a continuous friction
measuring device are below the minimum friction level specified by the State.
• Verify the friction characteristics of new or re-surfaced paved runways when wet
• Assess periodically the slipperiness of paved runways when wet
• Determine the effect on friction when drainage characteristics are poor
• Determine the friction of paved runways that become slippery under unusual conditions
The table below, with associated descriptive terms, was developed from friction data collected in
compacted snow and ice and should not be taken as absolute values applicable in all conditions. If
the surface is affected by snow or ice and the braking action is reported as “good”, pilots should not
expect to find conditions as good as on a clean dry runway (where the available friction may well be
greater than that needed in any case). The value “good” is a comparative value and is intended to
mean that aeroplanes should not experience directional control or braking difficulties especially
when landing,
Surface friction information should be provided for each 1/3 of the runway, These measurements
are made along two lines parallel to the runway. Each line being approximately 3 m from the centre
line or at a distance at which most operations take place.
Whenever dry snow, wet snow or slush is present on a runway, an assessment of mean depth over
each 1/3 of the runway should be made to an accuracy of:
Physical Characteristics
Runway Strip
A defined area including the runway and stopway, if provided, intended:
A strip should extend before the threshold and beyond the end of the runway or stopway for a
distance of at least:
• 60m where the aeroplane reference field length is greater than 800 m
• 60m where the aeroplane reference field length is less than 800 m and the runway is an
instrument one, and
• 30 m where the aeroplane reference field length is less than 800 m and the runway is a non-
instrument one
A strip including a precision approach runway shall, wherever practicable, extend laterally to a
distance of at least:
• 150 m where the aeroplane reference field length is greater than 1200 m
• 75 m where the aeroplane reference field length is less than 1200 m
On each side of the centre line of the runway and its extended centre line throughout the length of
the strip.
An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip
primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or over-running the
aerodrome
Dimensions of RESA
A RESA should extend from the end of a runway strip for as great a distance as practicable, but at
least 90 m
The width of a runway and safety area should be at least twice that of the associated runway
Clearway
A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriate authority,
selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial
climb to a specified height
Length of Clearways
The length of a clearway should not exceed half the length of the TORA
Width of Clearways
A clearway should extend laterally to a distance of at least 75 m on each side of the extended centre
line of the runway
Stopways
A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of TORA prepared as a suitable area in which an
aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off
Width of a Stopway
A stopway shall have the same width as the runway with which it is associated.
A radio altimeter operating area should extend before the threshold for a distance of at least 300 m
A radio altimeter operating area should extend laterally, on each side of the extended centre line of
the runway, to a distance of 60 m, except that when special circumstances so warrant, the distance
may be reduced to no less than 30 m when an aeronautical study indicates that such reduction
would not affect the safety of operations of aircraft.
Taxiway Curves
The design of a taxiway should be such that, when the cockpit of the aeroplane for which the
taxiway is intended remains over the taxiway centre line markings, the clearance distance between
the outer main wheel of the aeroplane and the edge of the taxiway should be not less than that
given in the table below.
B 2.25 m
D 4.5 m
E 4.5 m
F 4.5 m
Table 19-4
Fig. 19-2
A taxi holding position shall be established on a taxiway if its location or alignment is such that a
taxiing aircraft or vehicle can infringe an obstacle limitation surface or interfere with the operation
of radio navigation aids. A road holding position shall be established at an intersection of a road with
a runway.
The wind direction indicator should be in the form of a truncated cone made of fabric. It should be
constructed so that it gives a clear direction of the surface wind and a general indication of wind
speed. The colour should be selected so as to make the wind direction indicator clearly visible and
understandable from a height of at least 300 m. Where practicable, a single colour, preferably white
or orange should be used Where two colours are used they should be arranged in five alternative
bands, the first and last bands being the darker colour
Provision should be made for illuminating at least one wind indicator at an aerodrome intended for
use at night
Where provided, a landing direction indicator shall be located in a conspicuous place on the
aerodrome. The landing direction indicator should be in the form of a “T”
The colour of the landing “T” is either white or orange. Where required for use at night, the landing
“T” is illuminated or outlined by white lights.
Signalling Lamp
A signalling lamp shall be provided at a controlled aerodrome in the aerodrome control tower and
should be capable of producing red, green and white signals. it should also be capable of:
The signal area should be located so as to be visible from all angles of azimuth above an angle of 10º
above the horizontal when viewed from a height of 300 m.
The signal area shall be an even horizontal surface at least 9 m square. It should be surrounded by a
white border not less than 0.3 m wide.
Chapter 20
Aerodrome Markings
Surface Marking ..................................................................................................... 3
Runway Designator ................................................................................................ 3
Runway Centre Line Marking ................................................................................. 4
Threshold Markings ............................................................................................... 4
Displaced Threshold Marking................................................................................. 5
Aiming Point Marking ............................................................................................ 6
Touchdown Zone Marking...................................................................................... 7
Taxiway .................................................................................................................. 9
VOR Aerodrome check-point Markings ................................................................ 11
Aircraft Stand Markings ....................................................................................... 12
Signs .................................................................................................................... 13
Information Signs ................................................................................................. 17
Markers ............................................................................................................... 20
Surface Marking
Surface marking is provided to aid movement and control of aircraft and vehicles on an aerodrome.
They consist of a symbol or group of symbols displayed on the surface of the movement area in
order to convey aeronautical instructions. For surface markings to be effective they must be visible,
clearly identifiable and the meaning should not be ambiguous.
At an intersection of two (or more) runways the markings of the more important runway, except for
the runway side stripe marking, shall be displayed. The markings of the other runway(s) shall be
interrupted. The runway side stripe marking of the more important runway may be either continued
across the intersection or interrupted.
The order of importance of runways for the display of runway markings should be as follows:
At an intersection of a runway and taxiway the markings of the runway shall be displayed and the
markings of the taxiway interrupted, except that runway side stripe markings may be interrupted.
Colour
Runway markings shall be white. Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings shall be yellow.
Apron safety lines shall be of a conspicuous colour that contrasts with that used for aircraft stand
markings.
Unpaved Taxiways
An unpaved taxiway should be provided with the markings prescribed for paved taxiways.
Runway Designator
A runway designation marking shall be provided at the thresholds of a paved runway. A runway
designation marking shall consist of a two-digit number and on parallel runways shall be
supplemented with a letter. The two-digit number shall be the whole number nearest the one-tenth
of the magnetic north when viewed from the direction of approach. Where there are four or more
parallel runways:
• One set of adjacent runways shall be numbered to the nearest 1/10 magnetic azimuth
• The other set of adjacent runways numbered to the next nearest 1/10 of the magnetic
azimuth
When the above rule gives a single digit number, then it shall be led by a zero.
Threshold Markings
A threshold marking shall be provided at the threshold of:
A threshold marking should be provided at the thresholds of an unpaved runway. The stripes of the
threshold marking shall commence 6 m from the runway edge.
A runway threshold marking shall consist of a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions
disposed symmetrically about the centre line. The number of stripes shall be in accordance with the
runway width as follows:
Where a runway is permanently displaced, arrows shall be provided on the portion of runway before
the displaced threshold as shown in the following images.
When a runway threshold is temporarily displaced from the normal position it shall be marked as
shown in the diagram above. All markings before the displaced threshold shall be obscured except
the runway centre line marking, which shall be converted to arrows.
The aiming point marking shall commence no closer to the threshold than the distance indicated in
the table below. Except that on a runway equipped with a visual approach slope indicator system,
the beginning of the marking shall be coincident with the visual approach slope origin.
Where a touchdown zone marking is provided, the lateral spacing shall be the same as that of the
aiming point marking.
A touchdown zone marking should be provided in the touchdown zone of a paved non-precision
approach or non-instrument runway where the runway is greater than 1200 m length
A touchdown zone marking shall consist of pairs of rectangular markings as shown in the diagram
below. These markings shall be symmetrically disposed about the runway centre line with the
number of such pairs related to the landing distance available.
Where the marking is to be displayed at both the approach directions of a runway, the distance
between the thresholds as follows:
Spacing of Markings
The pairs of markings shall be provided at longitudinal spacing of 150 m beginning from the
threshold, except that pairs of touchdown zone markings coincident with or located within 50 m of
an aiming point marking shall be deleted from the pattern.
Fig. 20-5
Fig. 20-6
A runway side stripe marking shall be provided between the runway edges and the shoulders of the
surrounding terrain.
A runway side stripe marking should be provided on a precision approach runway irrespective of the
contrast between the runway edges and the shoulders of the surrounding terrain
Taxiway
Taxiway Centre Line Marking
Taxiway centre line markings shall be provided where the runway length is 1200 m or greater. These
markings provide guidance from the runway centre line to the point on the apron where aircraft
stand markings commence.
Taxiway centre line markings shall be provided on a paved runway when the runway is part of a
standard taxi route and:
At the intersection of a taxiway with a runway where the taxiway serves as an exit from the runway,
the taxiway centre line marking should be curved into the runway centre line marking as shown in
the previous diagram. The taxiway centre line marking should be extended parallel to the runway
centre line marking for at least 60 m.
A runway holding position marking is placed at runway holding position. The holding point itself is
indicated by the mandatory sign(s) at the side of the taxiway. There are two types of runway holding
marking: pattern A and pattern B. The holding point closest to the runway is always pattern A. A
second holding point further from the runway is marked with pattern B. Other holding points further
from the runway are additional pattern B type.
Fig. 20-7
Pattern A
Fig. 20-8
Pattern B
A taxiway intersection marking, also known as an Intermediate Holding Position, should be displayed
at an intersection of two paved taxiways where it is desired to designate a specific holding position.
A taxiway intersection marking shall consist of a single broken line as shown.
Fig. 20-9
The check-point sign shall consist of black letters and numerals on a yellow background.
A VOR aerodrome check-point marking should preferably be white in colour but should differ from
the colour used for taxiway markings.
The inscriptions on a VOR check-point sign should be in accordance with one of the following
alternatives:
DME
The distance in nautical miles to a DME co-located with the VOR concerned
Note: A check-point can only be used operationally when checks show it to be consistently within 2º
of the stated bearing
Aircraft stand markings should be located so as to give safe clearance when the nose wheel follows
the stand markings.
• Stand identification
• Lead in line
• Turn bar
• Turning line
• Alignment bar
• Stop line and lead out line
Note: As are required by the parking configuration and to complement other parking aids.
Aircraft stand identification (letter and/or number) should be included in the lead in line a short
distance after the beginning of the lead in line. The height of the identification should be adequate
to be readable from the cockpit of aircraft using the stand.
Where it is intended that an aircraft proceed in one direction only, arrows pointing in the direction
to be followed should be added as part of the lead in and lead out lines
Apron safety lines shall be located so as to define the areas intended for use by ground vehicles and
other aircraft servicing equipment. This is to ensure safe separation from aircraft.
Apron safety lines should include elements such as wing tip clearance and service road boundary
lines
A road holding position marking shall be located at all road entrances to a runway.
Signs
Signs shall be provided to convey:
• A mandatory instruction
• Information on a specific location
• To provide other information on surface movement guidance
• Frangible
• Near a runway or taxiway they must be sufficiently low to preserve clearance for engines and
propellers
A mandatory instruction sign shall be provided to identify a location beyond which an aircraft taxiing
or vehicle shall not proceed unless authorized by the aerodrome control tower. Mandatory signs the
only ones on the movement area utilizing red - shall include:
A runway designation sign at a taxiway/runway intersection shall be located at least on the left side
of a taxiway facing the direction of approach to the runway. Where practicable a runway designation
sign shall be located on each side of the taxiway.
A NO ENTRY sign shall be located at the beginning of the area to which entrance is prohibited on the
left side of the taxiway. Where practicable, a NO ENTRY sign shall be located on each side of the
taxiway.
A Category I, II or III holding position sign shall be located on either side of the holding position
marking facing the direction of the approach to the critical area.
A taxi-holding position sign shall be located at least on the left side of the taxi holding position facing
the approach to the obstacle limitation surface or ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area, as appropriate.
Where practicable, a holding position sign shall be located on each side of the taxi-holding position.
Fig. 20-10
Fig. 20-11
Fig. 20-12
Information Signs
An information sign shall be provided where there is an operational need to identify by a sign, a
specific location, or routing (direction or destination) information. Information signs shall include:
• Direction signs
• Location signs
• Destination signs
• Runway exit signs
• Runway vacated signs
A runway exit sign shall be provided where there is an operational need to identify a runway exit.
A runway vacated sign shall be provided where the exit taxiway is not provided with taxiway centre
line lights and there is a need to indicate to a pilot leaving a runway;
The perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area, or
The lower edge of the inner transitional surface whichever is farther from the runway centre line.
A combined location and direction sign shall be provided when it is intended to indicate routing
information prior to a taxiway intersection.
A direction sign shall be provided in conjunction with a runway designation sign except at a
runway/runway intersection. Location signs shall be provided in conjunction with a direction sign.
Where study shows that the location sign is not needed then they may be omitted.
An information sign other than a location sign shall consist of an inscription in black on a yellow
background. A location sign shall consist of an inscription in yellow on a black background. If the sign
is stand-alone then it shall have a yellow border.
A- The inscription on a runway vacated sign shall depict the pattern of a taxi holding position
marking as shown
G- The inscription on a runway exit sign shall consist of the designator of the exit taxiway and an
arrow indicating the direction to follow
APRON- The inscription on a destination sign shall comprise of a message identifying the destination
plus an arrow indicating the direction to proceed as shown
B C- The inscription on a direction sign shall comprise of a message identifying the taxi-way plus
an arrow or arrows appropriately orientated
A- The inscription on a location sign shall comprise the designation of the location taxiway, runway
or other pavement the aircraft is on or is entering and shall not contain arrows
• All direction signs related to left turns shall be placed on the left side of the location sign and
all turns to the right on the right side. Where the junction consists of one intersecting
taxiway, the location sign may be alternatively placed on the left side
• The direction signs shall be placed such that the direction of the arrows departs increasingly
from the vertical with increasing deviation from the corresponding taxiway
• An appropriate direction sign shall be placed next to the location sign where the direction of
the location taxiway changes significantly beyond the intersection, and
• Adjacent direction signs shall be delineated by a vertical black line as shown
When designating a taxiway, the use of the letters I, O or X and the use of words such as inner and
outer should be avoided wherever possible to avoid confusion with the numeral 1, 0 and closed
markings.
These signs are located at the side of the runway to indicate the distance remaining to the end of
the runway. They are usually in whole 1000s of feet and the sign has white numbers on a black
background.
Apron Signs
Signs on aprons conveying information to pilots (stand numbers etc.) consist of white characters on
a blue background.
A road holding position sign shall be located 1.5 m from the edge of the road at the holding position.
A road holding position sign shall consist of an inscription in white on a red background. The
inscription shall be in the national language, be in conformity with the local traffic regulations and
include the following:
• A requirement to stop
Where appropriate:
• A requirement to obtain ATC clearance
• A location designator
Fig. 20-13
Markers
Markers shall be frangible. Those located near a runway or taxiway shall be sufficiently low to
preserve clearance for propellers and engines.
Markers should be provided when the extent of an unpaved runway is not clearly indicated.
Where runway lights are provided the markers should be incorporated in the light fixtures.
Where there are no lights, markers of flat rectangular or conical shape should be placed so as to
identify the runway clearly.
The stopway edge markers shall be sufficiently different from any runway edge markers used to
ensure that the two types of markers cannot be confused.
A taxiway edge marker shall be reflective blue and be frangible. Their height shall be sufficiently low
to ensure clearance for propellers and engines.
A taxiway centre line marker shall be reflective green. The markers shall be so designed and fitted as
to withstand being run over by the wheels of an aircraft without damage either to the aircraft or to
the markers themselves.
Boundary Markers
Boundary markers shall be provided at an aerodrome where the landing area has no runway.
The markers should be coloured to contrast with the background against which they will be seen. A
single colour, orange or red or two contrasting colours, orange and white or red and white should be
used.
Chapter 21
Aerodrome Lighting
Lights which may endanger the Safety of Aircraft .................................................. 3
Emergency Lighting ................................................................................................ 4
Approach Lighting Systems .................................................................................... 5
Runway and Taxiway Lighting ............................................................................... 12
Visual Approach Slope Indicator Systems ............................................................. 17
TVASIS and AT-VASIS ............................................................................................ 17
PAPI and APAPI..................................................................................................... 20
Obstacle protection surface ................................................................................. 22
Circling Guidance Lights ....................................................................................... 23
Runway Lead in Lighting Systems ......................................................................... 24
A non-aeronautical ground light which might prevent, or cause confusion in, the clear interpretation
of aeronautical ground lights should be extinguished or screened. Attention should be directed to a
non-aeronautical ground light visible from the air within the following areas:
Instrument Runway:
• 1800 m or greater in length - Within the areas before the threshold and beyond the end of
the runway extending at least 4500 m in length from the threshold and runway end and 750
m either side of the extended run way centre line in width
• 800 m up to but not including 1800 m - Within the areas before the threshold and beyond
the end of the runway extending at least 3000 m in length from the threshold and runway
end and 750 m either side of the extended runway centre line in width
• Less than 800 m - Within the approach area
Non-Instrument Runway
Elevated approach lights and their supporting structures shall be frangible except that in the
approach lighting system beyond 300 m from the threshold:
• Where the height of the supporting structure exceeds 12 m, the frangibility requirement
shall apply to the top 12 m only
• Where a supporting structure is surrounded by non-frangible objects, only that part of the
structure that extends above the surrounding objects shall be frangible
When an approach light fixture or supporting structure is not sufficiently conspicuous, it shall be
suitably marked.
Elevated Lights
Elevated runway, stopway and taxiway lights shall be frangible. Their height shall be sufficiently low
to ensure clearance for propellers and for the engine pods of jet aircraft.
Surface Lights
Light fixtures inset in the surface of runways, stopways, taxiways and aprons shall be so designed
and lifted as to withstand being run over by the wheels of an aircraft without damage either to the
aircraft or to the lights themselves.
The intensity of runway lights shall be adequate for the minimum conditions of visibility and
ambient light in which the runway is intended, and compatible with that of the nearest section of
the approach lighting system provided.
Where a high intensity lighting system is provided, a suitable intensity control shall be incorporated
to allow for adjustment of the light. Separate intensity controls or other suitable methods shall be
provided to ensure that the following systems, when installed, can be operated at compatible
intensities:
Aeronautical ground lights shall be made available to aircraft continuously during the hours of
darkness, whenever required by ATC, and when weather conditions require.
Emergency Lighting
At an aerodrome provided with runway lighting and without a secondary power supply, sufficient
emergency lights should be conveniently available for installation on at least the primary runway in
the event of failure of the normal lighting system.
Aeronautical Beacons
Aerodrome Beacon
An aerodrome beacon shall be provided at an aerodrome intended for use at night if one or more of
the following conditions exist:
Where used, the coloured flashes emitted by a land aerodrome are green.
Identification Beacon
An identification beacon shall be provided at an aerodrome that is intended for use at night and
cannot be easily identified from the air by other means. At a land aerodrome the identification
beacon shall show flashing green characters. The identification characters shall be transmitted in the
International Morse Code.
Non-Instrument Runway
Fig. 21-1
Where physically practicable a simple approach lighting system as shown below should be provided.
Where practicable a simple approach lighting system shall be provided to serve a non-precision
approach runway, except when the runway is used only in conditions of good visibility or sufficient
guidance is given by other aids.
Where possible a precision approach category I lighting system shall be provided to serve a precision
approach runway category I.
A precision category II and III lighting system as shown shall be provided to serve a precision
approach runway category II or Ill.
• A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway extending over a distance of not
less than 420 m from the threshold, with
• A row of lights forming a crossbar 18 m or 30m in length at a distance of 300m from the
threshold
The system shall lie as near as practicable in the horizontal plane passing through the threshold,
provided that:
• No object other than an ILS or MLS azimuth antenna shall protrude through the plane of the
approach lights within a distance of 60 m from the centre line of the system
• No light other than a light located within the central part of a crossbar or a centre line
barrette shall be screened from an approaching aircraft
Any ILS or MLS azimuth antenna protruding through the plane of the lights shall be treated as an
obstacle and marked and lighted accordingly.
The lights of a simple approach system shall be fixed lights and the colour of the lights shall be such
as to ensure that the system is readily distinguishable from other aeronautical ground lights. Each
centre line light shall consist of:
• A single source
• A barrette at least 3 m in length
Fig. 21-2
Fig. 21-3
• A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway extending over a distance of 900 m
from the runway threshold, with
• A row of lights forming a crossbar 30 m in length at a distance of 300 m from the runway
threshold
The system shall lie as near as practicable in the horizontal plane passing through the threshold,
provided that:
• No object other than an ILS or MLS azimuth antenna shall protrude through the plane of the
approach lights within a distance of 60 m from the centre line of the system
• No light other than a light located within the central part of a crossbar or a centre line
barrette (not their extremities) shall be screened from an approaching aircraft
Any ILS or MLS azimuth antenna protruding through the plane of the lights shall be treated as an
obstacle and marked and lighted accordingly.
The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach category I lighting system shall be fixed
lights showing variable white. Each centre line light shall consist of either:
• A single light source in the innermost 300 m of the centre line, two light sources in the
central 300 m of the centre line and three light sources in the outer 300 m of the centre line
to provide distance information, or
• A barrette at least 4 m in length
If the centre line consists of single, double and triple lights, additional crossbars of light shall be
provided at 150 m, 300 m, 450 m, 600 m, and 750 m from the threshold.
• A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway extending over a distance of 900 m
from the runway threshold
• In addition the system shall have two side rows of lights extending 270 m from the threshold
• Two crossbars, one at 150 m and one at 300 m from the threshold
The system shall lie as near as practicable in the horizontal plane passing through the threshold,
provided that:
• No object other than an ILS or MLS azimuth antenna shall protrude through the plane of the
approach lights within a distance of 60 m from the centre line of the system
• No light other than a light located within the central part of a crossbar or a centre line
barrette (not their extremities) shall be screened from an approaching aircraft
Any ILS or MLS azimuth antenna protruding through the plane of the lights shall be treated as an
obstacle and marked and lighted accordingly.
The centre line of a precision approach category II and III lighting system:
For the first 300 m from the threshold shall consist of barrettes showing variable white (if the
threshold is displaced 300 in or more, the centre line may consist of single light sources showing
variable white). The barrettes shall be at least 4 m in length
Beyond 300 m from the threshold each centre line shall consist of either:
Fig. 21-4
Fig. 21-5
Touchdown zone lights shall be provided in the touchdown zone of a precision approach runway
category II or III in order to provide textural cues in the touchdown area. They should extend from
the threshold for a longitudinal distance of 900 m, except that, on runways less than 1800 m long,
the distance shall be shortened so that it does not extend beyond the mid-point of the runway. The
lights shall be fixed unidirectional lights showing variable white.
A runway lead-in lighting system should be provided where it is desirable to provide visual guidance
along a specific approach path, for reasons such as avoiding hazardous terrain or for the purpose of
noise abatement. The lights should consist of groups of lights positioned so as to define the desired
approach path and so that one group may be sighted from the preceding group.
Each group of lights should consist of at least three flashing lights in a linear or cluster configuration.
Steady burning lights may augment the system where such lights would assist in identifying the
system. The flashing lights should be white, and the steady burning lights gaseous discharge lights.
Where practicable, the flashing lights in each group should flash in sequence towards the runway.
The lights should be located symmetrically about the runway centre line, in line with the threshold
and approximately 10 m outside each line of runway edge lights. The lights, which should be flashing
white, should be visible only in the direction of the approach to the runway.
Runway edge lights shall be provided for a runway intended for use at night or for a precision
approach runway intended for use by day or night. The lights are normally located along the edges
of the area declared for use as the runway.
Where a paved surface is wider than the declared runway width, the lights may be located at the
edge of the pavement and the declared width delineated by white edge markings. Runway edge
lights shall be fixed lights showing white, except in the following instances:
a) Caution zone lighting On a precision approach runway without centre-line lighting, yellow
edge lights are installed on the upwind 600 m or one third of the lighted runway length
available, whichever is the less. The 'yellow caution zone’ so formed gives visual warning of
approaching the runway end
b) Pre-threshold lighting Where a landing threshold is displaced, but the pre-threshold area is
available for the take-off run, the lights between the beginning of the runway pavement and
the displaced threshold show red in the approach direction. Where a starter extension,
narrower than its associated runway is provided, blue edge lighting is normally used to mark
the edges. Where a stopway is provided at the end of a runway, red edge and end lights
showing red in the direction of the runway delineate the declared stopway
Runway threshold lights shall be provided for a runway equipped with runway edge lights except on
a non-instrument or non-precision approach runway where the threshold is displaced and wing bars
lights are provided. When a threshold is at the extremity of a runway, the threshold lights shall be
placed in a row at right angles to the runway axis as near to the extremity of the runway as possible
and, in any case, not more than 3 m outside the extremity. Runway threshold and wing bar lights
shall be fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
Runway end lights shall be provided for a runway equipped with runway edge lights. The lights shall
be fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of approach to the runway.
Runway centre line lights shall be provided on a precision approach runway category II and III and on
a runway intended to be used for take-off with an operating minimum below an RVR of the order of
400 m. The lights shall be located along the centre line of the runway. Runway centre line lights shall
be fixed lights showing variable white from the threshold to the point 900 m from the runway end,
then alternating red and white from 900 m to 300 m from the runway end and red for the final 300
m to the runway end.
Taxiway centre line lights shall be provided on an exit taxiway, taxiway, de/antiicing facility and apron
intended for use in runway visual range conditions less than 350 m in such a manner as to provide
continuous guidance between the runway centre line and aircraft stands. Taxiway centre line lights
on other than an exit taxiway and on a runway forming part of a standard taxi-route shall be fixed
lights showing green, such that the light is visible only from aeroplanes on or in the vicinity of the
taxiway.
Where part of a taxiway lies within the ILS/MLS sensitive area or it is sufficiently close to a runway so
that aircraft using it present an obstruction to aircraft landing or taking-off, that part of the taxiway
will be identified by alternate green and yellow centre-line lights. Pilots should avoid stopping their
aircraft in such areas.
Taxiway edge lights shall be provided at the edges of a holding bay, de/anti-icing facility, apron, etc.
intended for use at night, and on a taxiway not provided with taxiway centre line lights and intended
for use at night, except that taxiway edge lights need not be provided where, considering the nature
of the operations, adequate guidance can be achieved by surface illumination or other means.
Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed lights showing blue to provide guidance to a pilot taxiing in either
direction.
Stop bars
The provision of stop bars requires their control either manually or automatically by air traffic
services. A stop bar shall be provided at every taxiway-holding position serving a runway when it is
intended that the runway will be used in RVR conditions of less than 350 m. Stop bars shall be
located across the taxiway at the point where it is desired that traffic should stop. The lights are
unidirectional and shall show red in the direction of approach to the runway. Pilots must not taxi
aircraft across a lighted stop bar.
Intermediate holding position lights should be provided at an intermediate holding position where
there is no need for stop-go signals as provided by a stop bar. The lights shall consist of three
unidirectional lights showing yellow in the direction of approach to the intermediate holding
position.
On runways intended for use in low visibility operations and where the traffic density is heavy,
runway guard lights shall be provided at each runway/taxiway intersection where enhanced
conspicuity is needed. The lights shall consist of a pair of flashing yellow lights located on each side
of the taxiway or unidirectional yellow lights spaced at intervals across the taxiway aligned so as to
be visible to the pilot of an aeroplane taxiing to the holding position.
A road holding position light shall be provided at each road-holding position serving a runway when
it is intended that the runway will be used in RVR conditions less than a value of 350 m. The light
shall consist of a controllable red (stop)/green (go) traffic light or a flashing red light.
Fig. 21-6
• The runway is used by turbojet or other aeroplanes with similar approach guidance
requirements
• The pilot of any type of aeroplane may have difficulty in judging the approach due to
• Inadequate visual guidance such as is experienced during an approach over water or
featureless terrain by day or in the absence of sufficient extraneous lights in the approach
area by night
• Misleading information such as is produced by deceptive surrounding terrain or runway
slopes
• The presence of objects in the approach area may involve serious hazard if an aeroplane
descends below the normal approach path, particularly if there are no non-visual or other
visual aids to give warning of such objects
• Physical conditions at either end of the runway present a serious hazard in the event of an
aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway, and
• Terrain or prevalent meteorological conditions are such that the aeroplane may be subjected
to unusual turbulence during approach
The standard visual approach slope indicator systems shall consist of the following:
PAPI, T-VASIS or AT-VASIS shall be provided where the runway is 1200 m or greater. PAPI or APAPI
shall be provided when:
Where a runway threshold is temporarily displaced from the normal position a PAPI should be
provided where the runway length is greater than 1200 m, otherwise APAPI may be fitted
The AT-VASIS shall consist of ten light units arranged on one side of the runway in the form of a
single wing bar of four units with a bisecting line of six lights.
TVASIS
The light units shall be constructed and arranged in such a manner that the pilot of an aeroplane
during an approach will:
Above the approach slope - The wing bars are white and one two or three fly-down lights. The more
fly down lights being visible, the higher the pilot is above the approach slope.
When below the approach slope- The wing bars and one, two or three fly-up lights are white. The
more fly-up lights being visible the lower the pilot is.
Well below the approach- The wing bars and the three fly-up lights are red.
When on or above the approach slope, no light shall be visible from the fly-up light units; when on
or below the approach slope, no light shall be visible from the fly-down lights.
The siting of the T-VASIS will provide for a 3º slope at a nominal eye height over the threshold of 15
m. The elevation setting of the top of the red light beams of the wing bar and fly-up lights shall be
such that during an approach, the pilot of an aeroplane to whom the wing bar and three fly-up lights
are visible would clear all objects in the approach area by a safe margin if any such lights did not
appear red.
VASIS
The basic principle of the VASI is that of color differentiation between red and white. Each light unit
projects a beam of light, a white segment in the upper part of the beam and a red segment in the
lower part of the beam. The lights are arranged so the pilot sees the combination of lights shown in
the next diagram to indicate below, on, or above the glidepath.
Fig. 21-7
A tri-colored VASI is a single light that appears amber above the glide slope, green on the glide slope
and red below it. It has fallen out of widespread use, partly because pilots who are unfamiliar with
them have been known to misinterpret the lights and "correct" in the wrong direction. These errors
are increased due to a major design shortcoming of the tri-colored VASI. While on approach, the
colour amber (above slope) can be seen at a very thin angle of approach between green (on slope)
and red (below slope) due to the mixing of red and green which gives an amber colour. Pilots not
familiar with this may see the amber light and think they are above glide slope and then descend
rather than make the proper correction and ascending back to glide slope.
PAPI
The wing bar of a PAPI shall be constructed and arranged in such a manner that a pilot making an
approach will:
When on or close to the approach slope - See the two units nearest the runway as red and the two
units farthest from the runway as white.
When above the approach slope - See the one unit nearest the runway as red and the three units
farthest from the runway as white, and when further above the approach slope see all units as
white.
When below the approach slope - See the three units nearest the runway as red and the unit
farthest from the runway as white, and when further below the approach slope see all units as red.
Fig. 21-8
APAPI
The wing bar of an APAPI shall be constructed and arranged in such a manner that a pilot making an
approach will:
When on or close to the approach slope - See the unit nearer the runway as red and the unit
further away as white.
When the runway is equipped with an ILS or MLS the siting and elevation of the lights shall be such
that the visual approach slope conforms as closely as possible with the glide path of the ILS and the
minimum glidepath of the MLS, as appropriate.
The angle of elevation settings of the light units in a PAPI wing bar shall be such that, during an
approach, the pilot of an aeroplane observing a signal of one white and three reds will clear all
objects in the approach area by a safe margin.
In an APAPI wing bar shall be such that, during an approach, the pilot of an aeroplane observing the
lowest on slope signal (one white, one red) will clear all objects in the approach area by a safe
margin
An obstacle protection surface shall be established when it is intended to provide a visual approach
slope indicator system. Existing objects above an obstacle protection surface shall be removed
except when:
New objects or extensions of existing objects shall not be permitted above an obstacle protection
surface except when the new object or extension would be shielded by an existing immovable
object.
Where an existing object extending above an obstacle protection surface could adversely affect the
safety of operations of aeroplanes one or more of the following measures shall be taken:
The number and location of circling guidance lights should be adequate to enable a pilot as
appropriate to:
• Join the downwind leg or align and adjust the aircraft’s track to the runway at a required
distance from it and to distinguish the threshold in passing, and
• Keep in sight the runway threshold and/or other features which will make it possible to judge
the turn on to base leg and final approach, taking into account the guidance provided by
other visual aids
• Lights indicating the extended centre line of the runway and/or parts of any approach
lighting system
• Lights indicating the position of the runway threshold
• Lights indicating the direction or location of the runway or a combination of such lights as is
appropriate to the runway under consideration
Circling guidance lights should be fixed or flashing lights of an intensity and beam spread adequate
for the conditions of visibility and ambient light in which it is intended to make visual approaches.
• Flashing lights should be white lights
• Steady lights either white or gaseous discharge lights
A runway lead-in lighting system should consist of groups of lights positioned so as to define the
desired approach path and so that one group may be sighted from the preceding group. The interval
between adjacent groups should not exceed approximately 1600 in
Where practicable, the flashing lights in each group should flash in sequence towards the runway.
Chapter 22
The marking and/or lighting of obstacles is intended to reduce hazards to aircraft by indicating the
presence of obstacles. It does not necessarily reduce operating limitations that may be imposed by
an obstacle
A fixed obstacle that extends above an approach or transitional surface within 3000 m of the inner
edge of the approach surface shall be marked and, if the runway is used at night, lit, except that:
• Such marking and lighting may be omitted when the obstacle is shielded by another fixed
obstacle
• The marking may be omitted when the obstacle is lit by high intensity obstacle lights by day
• The lighting may be omitted where the obstacle is a lighthouse and an aeronautical study
indicates the lighthouse light to be sufficient
A fixed obstacle that extends above a take-off climb surface within 3000 m of the inner edge should
be marked and if the runway is used at night, lit, except that:
• Such marking and lighting may be omitted when the obstacle is shielded by another fixed
obstacle
• The marking may be omitted when the obstacle is lit by high intensity obstacle lights by day
• The lighting may be omitted where the obstacle is a lighthouse and an aeronautical study
indicates the lighthouse light to be sufficient
A fixed obstacle above a horizontal surface should be marked and, if the aerodrome is used at night,
lit except that,
The marking and lighting may be omitted when:
A fixed obstacle that extends above an obstacle protection surface shall be marked, and if the
runway is used at night, lit. Vehicles and other mobile objects, excluding aircraft, on the movement
area of an aerodrome are obstacles and shall be marked and, if the vehicles and aerodrome are used
at night or in conditions of low visibility, lit. Aircraft servicing equipment and vehicles used only on
aprons may be exempt.
Elevated aeronautical ground lights within the movement area shall be marked so as to be
conspicuous by day.
Overhead wires, cables etc, crossing a river, valley or highway should be marked and their
supporting towers marked and lit if an aeronautical study indicates that the wires or cables could
constitute a hazard to aircraft, except that the marking of the supporting towers may be omitted
when they are lit by high intensity obstacle lights by day
Marking of Objects
All fixed objects to be marked shall:
• Whenever practicable be coloured
• If colouring is not practicable then markers or flags shall be displayed on or above them,
except that
• Objects that are sufficiently conspicuous by their shape, size or colour need not otherwise be
marked
• All mobile objects to be marked shall be coloured or display flags.
The colours of the pattern should contrast each other and with the background against which they
will be seen.
• In clear weather from a distance of at least 1000 m for an object viewed from the air
• 300 m for an object to be viewed from the ground
In all directions in which an aircraft is likely to approach the object. The shape of markers shall be
distinctive to the extent necessary to ensure that:
• They are not mistaken for markers employed to convey other information
• They shall be such that the hazard presented by the object they mark is not increased
Flags used to mark objects shall be displayed around, on top or around the highest edge of, the
object. When flags are used to mark extensive objects or groups of closely spaced objects, they shall
be displayed at least every 15 m. Flags shall not increase the hazard presented by the object they
mark.
Flags should be orange in colour or a combination of two triangular sections, one orange or red the
other white, except that where such colours merge with the background, other conspicuous colours
should be used.
Flags used to mark mobile objects shall consist of a chequered pattern of orange or red and white
squares.
Lighting of Objects
The presence of objects that must be lit shall be indicated by low, medium or high intensity obstacle
lights, or a combination of such lights.
High intensity obstacle lights are intended for day and night use. Care is needed to ensure that these
lights do not create excessive dazzle.
Medium intensity obstacle lights should be used, either alone or in combination with low intensity
obstacle lights, where the object is an extensive one or its height above the surrounding round is
greater than 45 m
High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate an obstacle if its height above the level of
the surrounding ground exceeds 150 m and an aeronautical study indicates such lights to be
essential for the recognition of the object by day
High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of a tower supporting
overhead wires, cables etc
One or more obstacle lights shall be located as close as practicable to the top of the object. The top
lights shall be arranged to indicate the points or edges of the object highest in relation to the
obstacle limitation surface.
In the case of a guyed tower or antenna where it is not possible to locate a high intensity obstacle
light on the top, such a light shall be located at the highest practicable point and a medium intensity
obstacle light, showing white, mounted at the top.
In the case of an extensive object or of a group of closely spaced objects, top lights shall be
displayed at least on the points or edges of the objects highest in relation to the obstacle limitation
surface. This is to indicate the general definition and the extent of the objects. If two or more edges
are the same height, the edge nearest the landing area shall be marked. Where low intensity lights
are used, they shall be spaced at longitudinal intervals not exceeding 45 m. Where medium intensity
lights are used, they shall be spaced at longitudinal intervals not less exceeding 90 m.
Where an object is indicated by low or medium intensity obstacle lights, and the top of the object is
more than 45 m above the level of the surrounding ground or the elevation of tops of nearby
buildings, additional lights shall be provided at intermediate levels. These additional lights shall be
spaced as equally as practicable, between the top lights and ground level or the level of tops of
nearby buildings as appropriate, with the spacing not exceeding 45 m.
Where high intensity obstacle lights are used on a tower they shall be spaced at uniform intervals
not exceeding 105 m between the ground level and the top lights.
Where high intensity obstacle lights indicate the presence of a tower supporting overhead wires,
cables etc they shall be located at three levels:
The number and arrangements of obstacle lights is such that they can be seen from any azimuth.
Medium intensity obstacle lights shall be flashing red lights, except that when used in conjunction
with high intensity obstacle lights they shall be flashing white lights
On a Runway
A closed marking shall be placed at each end of the runway, or portion, declared closed.
Additional markings shall be placed at intervals of no more than 300 m. On a taxiway a closed
marking shall be placed at least at each end of the taxiway closed,
The marking shall be white when displayed on a runway and yellow when displayed on a taxiway. All
normal runway and taxiway markings shall be obliterated, Lighting on a closed runway or taxiway
shall not be operated, except as required for maintenance purposes.
In addition to closed markings, when the runway or taxiway closed is intercepted by a usable runway
or taxiway which is used at night, unserviceability lights shall be placed across the entrance to the
closed area,
Shoulders for taxiways, holding bays and aprons and other non-load bearing surfaces which cannot
be readily distinguished from load bearing surfaces and which, if used by aircraft, might result in
damage to the aircraft, shall have the boundary between such areas and the load bearing surface
marked by a taxi side stripe marking.
Pre-Threshold Area
When the surface before a threshold is paved and exceeds 60 m in length and is not suitable for
normal use by aircraft the entire length before the threshold should be marked with a chevron
marking
A chevron marking should be of a conspicuous colour and contrast with the colour used for runway
markings; preferably yellow.
Unserviceable Areas
Unserviceability markers shall be displayed wherever any portion of a taxiway, apron or holding bay
is unfit for the movement of aircraft but it is still possible for aircraft to bypass the area safely. On a
movement area used at night, unserviceability lights shall be used.
The markers shall consist of conspicuous standing devices such as flags, cones or marker boards.
Lights are red.
The principal objective of a rescue and fire fighting service is to save lives, For this reason, the
provision of means of dealing with an aircraft accident or incident occurring at, or in the immediate
vicinity of, an aerodrome assumes primary importance because it is within this area that there are
the greatest opportunities of saving lives. This must assume at all times the possibility of, and the
need for, extinguishing a fire which may occur either immediately following an aircraft accident or
incident or at any time during rescue operations.
The most important factors bearing on effective rescue in a survivable aircraft accident are:
If after selecting the category appropriate to the aeroplane’s overall length, the aeroplanes fuselage
width is greater than the maximum given in the Aerodrome Category table within this annex, then
the category is increased by one.
There are 10 aerodrome categories. The level of protection shall be appropriate to the aerodrome
category, except that, where the number of movements of the aeroplanes in the highest category
normally using the aerodrome is less than 700 in the busiest consecutive 3 months, the level of
protection provided shall be:
Up to 31 December 1999 not less than 2 categories below the determined category, and From 1
January 1999 not less than one category below the determined category
Response Time
The operational objective of the rescue and fire fighting service should be to achieve response times
of 2 minutes, and not exceeding 3 minutes, to the end of each runway.
This includes any other part of the movement area, in optimum conditions of visibility and surface
conditions.
Response time is considered to be the time between the initial call to the rescue and fire fighting
service and the time the first responding vehicle is in a position to apply foam at a rate of at least
50% of the discharge rate specified.
Emergency access roads should be provided on an aerodrome where terrain conditions permit their
construction, so as to facilitate achieving minimum response times. Particular attention should be
given to the provision of ready access to approach areas up to 1000 m from the threshold or at least
within the aerodrome boundary. Where a fence is provided, the need for convenient access to
outside areas should be taken into account
All rescue and fire fighting vehicles should normally be housed in a fire station. Satellite fire stations
should be provided whenever the response time cannot be achieved from a single fire station
• Regulate movement with the objective of preventing collisions between aircraft and
obstacles
• Regulate entry of aircraft into, and co-ordinate exit of aircraft from, the apron with the
aerodrome tower, and
• Ensure safe and expeditious movement of vehicles and appropriate regulation of other
activities
An apron management service shall be provided with R/T facilities. Where low visibility procedures
are in effect, persons and vehicles operating on an apron shall be restricted to the essential
minimum.
An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency shall be given priority over all other surface
movement traffic,
• An emergency vehicle
• An aircraft taxiing, about to taxi or being pushed or towed
• Other vehicles in accordance with local regulations
An aircraft stand shall be visually monitored to ensure that the recommended clearances are
provided to an aircraft using the stand.
When aircraft refueling operations take place while passengers are embarking, on board or
disembarking, ground equipment shall be positioned so as to allow:
• The use of a sufficient number of exits for easy and quick evacuation
• A ready escape route from each of the exits to be used in an emergency
Chapter 23
Facilitation
Introduction ........................................................................................................... 3
Entry and Departure of Aircraft.............................................................................. 3
Description, Purpose, and use of Aircraft Documents ............................................ 3
Outbound Procedures............................................................................................ 4
Inbound Procedures............................................................................................... 4
Entry and Departure of Persons and their Baggage................................................ 4
Entry Requirements and Procedures ...................................................................... 5
Public Health Requirements................................................................................... 5
Clearance Procedures ............................................................................................ 5
Crew and Other Operators Personnel .................................................................... 6
Departure Requirements and Procedures .............................................................. 7
Inadmissible Persons.............................................................................................. 7
Introduction
The SARPs on Facilitation are the outcome of Article 37 of the Convention, which provides, that the
ICAO shall adopt and amend as necessary, international SARPS dealing with:
This policy is strengthened by Article 22 of the Convention, which expresses the obligation accepted
by each Contracting State.
“To adopt all practicable measures, through the issuance of special regulations or otherwise, to
facilitate and expedite navigation between the territories of Contracting States, and to prevent
unnecessary delays to aircraft, crews, passengers and cargo, especially in the laws relating to
immigration, quarantine, customs and clearance”.
Article 23 of the Convention further strengthens this policy, by expressing the undertaking of each
Contracting State:
“So far as it may find practicable to establish customs and immigration procedures affecting
international air navigation in accordance with the practices which may be established or
recommended from time to time pursuant to this Convention”.
A Contracting State which continues to require the presentation of the General Declaration shall
accept it when signed by either the authorized agent or the PlC. When necessary, the health section
can be signed by a crew member when the General Declaration itself has been signed by a non-crew
member Where Contracting States require the presentation on entry and departure of aircraft of
information relating to crew members, such information shall be limited to the number of crew on
board.
Where the General Declaration continues to be required, this information shall be provided in the
column headed “Total number of crew”.
Contracting States shall not normally require the presentation of a Passenger Manifest, but when
this type of information is required it can be provided in an alternative and acceptable manner; such
as a computer printout.
Contracting States shall not require the presentation of a written declaration of stores remaining on
board aircraft. In respect of stores laden on or unladen from an aircraft, Contracting States which
continue to require the presentation of a written declaration shall limit the information required to
an absolute minimum.
Outbound Procedures
Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or the PlC to deliver to the public
authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than:
Inbound Procedures
Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or the PlC to deliver to the public
authorities concerned, on arrival of the aircraft, more than:
Contracting States shall not require from visitors by air any other document of identity other than a
valid passport.
Visas
In cases where a Contracting State continues to require entrance visas from visitors, it shall adopt
the practice of issuing such visas without charge through reciprocal or other acceptable
arrangements.
Additional Documentation
A Contracting State which continues to require supplementary information from visitors travelling by
air, shall use Embarkation/Disembarkation Cards.
Medical examination of persons arriving by air should normally be limited to those disembarking
and coming within the incubation period of the disease concerned from an area infected with one of
three quarantinable diseases:
• Plague
• Cholera
• Yellow Fever
Clearance Procedures
Except in special circumstances, Contracting States shall not require that identity documents be
collected from passengers or crew before they arrive at the passport control points. After individual
presentation by passengers and crew of the identity documents, except in special individual
circumstances, they shall be handed back immediately.
Contracting States shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew.
Unaccompanied baggage shall be inspected on a sampling or selective basis.
Contracting states shall provide facilities which will enable crew members of airlines who are not
required to be licensed to obtain a crew member’s certificates containing the requirements set out
in Annex 7.
and departs on the same aircraft or on his next regular scheduled flight, each Contracting State shall
accept such licence for temporary admission to the State and shall not require a passport or visa,
Provided that the licence contains the specifications laid out in Annex 1 and:
• A certification that the holder may at all times re-enter the State of Issuance of the licence
upon production of the licence
• A photograph of the holder
• The place and date of birth of the holder
Note: The licence is recognized as a satisfactory identity document even if the holder is not a
national of the State of Registry of the aircraft on which he serves.
Each Contracting State shall extend privileges of temporary admission to those flight crew members
on aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services, subject to the requirement that such
flight crew members must depart on the aircraft on its first flight out of the territory of the state.
Crew members shall be extended the same temporary admission rights as flight crew members.
When it is necessary for an airline crew member, in the exercise of his duties, to travel to another
state as a passenger by any means of transportation in order to join an aircraft, Each Contracting
State shall accept from that crew member, in lieu of passport and visa for temporary admission
either a licence or crew member’s certificate. Where required, a document from the crew member’s
employer certifying the purpose of the journey may be required.
Non-scheduled services have the same rights as scheduled services subject to:
Contracting States shall not require inspection of baggage of passengers departing from their
territory, except for aviation security measures, or in special circumstances.
Inadmissible Persons
Each Contracting State shall ensure that a person found inadmissible is transferred back into the
custody of the operator who shall be responsible for the prompt removal to:
The public authorities shall without delay inform the operator when a person is found inadmissible
and consult the operator regarding the possibilities of departure
Contracting States shall accept for examination a person being returned from his point of
disembarkation after having been found inadmissible if this person stayed in their territory before
embarkation. This does not include a person in direct transit. Contracting States shall not return
such a person to the country where he was earlier found to be inadmissible.
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State
shall terminate from the moment that person has been definitely admitted into that state.
Operators shall take precautions at the point of embarkation to ensure that passengers are in
possession of any control documents prescribed by the Contracting State.
Deportees
Each Contracting State shall ensure that operators are informed when persons are obliged to travel
because they have been formally ordered by the public authorities to be removed from that State.
Chapter 24
Alerting Service
Application
Flight information centres or area control centres shall serve as the central point for collecting all
information relevant to a state of emergency of an aircraft operating within the FIR or CTA
concerned and for forwarding such information to the appropriate Rescue Co-ordination Centre
(RCC).
In the event of a state of emergency arising to an aircraft while it is under the control of an
aerodrome control tower or approach control office, such unit shall notify immediately the flight
information centre or area control centre responsible which shall in turn notify the RCC. Notification
of the area control centre, flight information centre or RCC shall not be required when the nature of
the emergency is one that can be dealt with by the service concerned.
Whenever the urgency of the situation so requires, the aerodrome control tower or approach
control office responsible shall first alert and take other necessary steps to set in motion all
appropriate local rescue and emergency organizations which can give the immediate assistance
required.
Whenever an emergency is declared, an Emergency Phase is created which breaks down into more
detailed phases as described below.
Without prejudice to any other circumstances that may render such notification advisable, ATS units
shall notify RCCs immediately an aircraft is considered to be in a state of emergency in accordance
with the following phases.
No communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the
time a communication should have been received, or from the time an unsuccessful attempt to
establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is earlier, or when an aircraft
fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the ETA last notified to or estimated by ATS units, whichever is
the latter.
Note: Except when no doubt exists as to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.
Following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft
or inquiries to other relevant sources have failed to reveal any news of the aircraft, or when
An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5 minutes of the established time of
landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft, or when
Information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been
impaired but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely
Except when evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the safety of the aircraft and its
occupants, or when
An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
Following the alert phase further unsuccessful attempts to establish communication with the aircraft
and more widespread unsuccessful inquiries point to the probability that the aircraft is in distress.
The fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach
safety, or when Information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft
has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely.
Information is received or it is reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make or has made a
forced landing ,Except when there is reasonable certainty that the aircraft and its occupants are not
threatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance.
The notification shall contain such of the following information as is available in the order listed:
• Any useful additional information, especially on the development of the state of emergency
through subsequent phases
• Information that the emergency situation no longer exists
When it has been established by an ATS unit that an aircraft is in a state of emergency, other aircraft
known to be in the vicinity of the aircraft involved shall be informed of the nature of the emergency
as soon as practicable
When an ATS unit knows or believes that an aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference, no
reference shall be made in ATS air-ground communications to the nature of the emergency unless it
has been referred to in communications from the aircraft involved and it is certain that such
reference will not aggravate the situation.
Oceans or areas of undetermined sovereignty, where SAR services have to be established shall be
determined on the basis of regional air navigation agreements. A Contracting State having accepted
the responsibility to provide an SAR service in such areas shall arrange for the service to be
established and provided in accordance with the Annex.
Note: The phrase “regional air navigation agreements” refers to the agreements approved by the
Council of ICAO normally on the advice of Regional Air Navigation Meetings.
In providing assistance to aircraft in distress and to survivors of aircraft accidents, Contracting States
shall do so regardless of the nationality of such aircraft or survivors.
Contracting States shall publish the SAR regions within which they will provide SAR service. Such
regions shall not overlap. Boundaries of SAR regions should be, in so far as practicable, be coincident
with the boundaries of corresponding FIR.
Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre (RCC) in each SAR region. Contracting
States should establish rescue sub-centres whenever this would improve the efficiency of SAR
services.
In areas where public telecommunications would not permit persons observing an aircraft in
emergency to notify the RCC concerned directly and promptly. Contracting States should designate
suitable units of public or private services as alerting posts.
Each RCC shall have means of rapid and reliable communication with:
The means of communication provided should be supplemented as and where necessary, by other
means of visual or audio communication.
Rescue units shall be provided with facilities and equipment for locating promptly, and for providing
adequate assistance at, the scene of an accident.
Contracting States should in so far as is practicable, develop common SAR procedures to facilitate
co-ordination of SAR operations with those of neighbouring states.
Subject to conditions, a Contracting State shall permit immediate entry into its territory of rescue
units of other states for the purpose of searching for the site of aircraft accidents and rescuing
survivors of such accidents.
The authorities of a Contracting State which wishes its rescue units to enter the territory of another
Contracting State for SAR purposes shall transmit a request to the RCC of the state concerned or to
such other authority as has been designated by that state.
• Request from other RCCs such assistance, including aircraft, vessels, personnel or equipment,
as may be needed
• Grant any necessary permission for the entry of such aircraft vessels, personnel or
equipment into its territory
• Make the necessary arrangements with the appropriate customs, immigration or other
authorities with a view to expediting such entry
Each Contracting State should authorize its RCC to provide, when requested assistance to other
RCCs, including assistance in the form of aircraft, vessels, personnel or equipment
Contracting States shall arrange for all aircraft, vessels and local services and facilities which do not
form part of the SAR organization to co-operate fully with the latter in SAR and to extend any
possible assistance to the survivors of aircraft accidents.
Contracting States shall designate a SAR point of contact for the receipt of COSPAS-SARSAT distress
data.
RCCs shall, immediately upon receipt of information concerning aircraft in emergency, evaluate such
information and determine the extent of operation required.
When information concerning aircraft in emergency is received from other sources than ATS units,
the RCC shall determine to which emergency phase the situation corresponds and shall apply the
procedures applicable to that phase.
Alert Phase
Upon the occurrence of an alert phase the RCC shall immediately alert appropriate SAR services
units and rescue units and initiate any necessary action.
Distress Phase
When an aircraft is believed to be in distress, or when a distress phase exists, the RCC shall:
• Initiate action by appropriate SAR services units and rescue units in accordance with the
detailed plan of operation
• Ascertain the position of the aircraft, estimate the degree of uncertainty of this position, and,
on the basis of this information and the circumstances, determine the extent of the area to
be searched
• Notify the operator, where possible, and keep him informed of developments
• Notify adjacent RCCs, the help of which seems likely to be required, or which may be
concerned in the operation
• Notify the associated ATS unit, when the information on the emergency has been received
from another source
• Request at an early stage such aircraft, vessels, coastal stations, or other services not
specifically included in SAR services or rescue units as are in a position to do so
• Maintain a listening watch for transmission from the aircraft in distress or from an
emergency locator transmitter
Note: The frequencies used by emergency locator beacons are 121.500 MHz and 406 MHz.
• Assist the aircraft in distress as far as practicable
The order in which the above actions are described shall be followed unless circumstances dictate
otherwise.
• Keep in sight the craft in distress until such time as his presence is no longer necessary
• If his position is not known with certainty, take such action as will facilitate the determination
of it
Report to the RCC or ATS unit as much of the following information as possible:
• Type of craft in distress, its identification and condition
Its position expressed in:
• Geographical co-ordinates
• a distance and true bearing from a distinctive landmark
• From a radio navigation aid
• Time of observation expressed in hours and minutes UTC
• Number of persons observed
• Whether persons have been seen to abandon the craft in distress
• Number of persons observed to be afloat
• Apparent physical condition of survivors
If the first aircraft to reach the scene of an accident is not a SAR aircraft it shall take charge of on-
scene activities of all other aircraft subsequently arriving until the first SAR aircraft reaches the
scene of the accident. If, in the meantime, such aircraft is unable to establish communication with
the appropriate RCC or ATS unit, it shall, by mutual agreement, hand over to an aircraft capable of
establishing and maintaining such communications until the arrival of the first SAR aircraft
When it is necessary for an aircraft to direct a surface craft to the place where an aircraft or surface
craft in distress, the aircraft shall do so by transmitting its precise instructions by any means at its
disposal. If no radio communications can be established the aircraft shall use the appropriate signal
at the end of this section.
When it is necessary for an aircraft to convey information to survivors or surface rescue units, and
two-way communication is not available, it shall, if practicable, drop communication equipment that
would enable direct contact to be established, or convey the information by dropping a message.
When a ground signal has been displayed, the aircraft shall indicate whether the signal has been
understood or not by use of the appropriate signal given at the end of this section.
Upon observing any of the signals given below, aircraft shall take such action as may be required by
the interpretation of the signal given.
The following manoeuvres performed in sequence by an aircraft mean that the aircraft wishes to
direct a surface craft towards an aircraft or a surface craft in distress:
Note: Due to high noise level on board surface craft, the latter two signals may be less effective than
the visual signal and are as such regarded as an alternative means of attracting attention
Heading in the direction in which the surface craft is to be directed. Repetition of the above
manoeuvres has the same meaning.
Note: The following replies may be made by surface craft to the above signal
• The hoisting of the “Code Pennant” (vertical red and white stripes) close up (meaning
understood)
• The flashing of a succession of “Ts” by signal lamp in morse
• The changing of heading to follow the aircraft
• The hoisting of the international flag “N” (a blue and white chequered square)
• The flashing of a succession of “N’s” in the morse code
The following manoeuvre by an aircraft means that the assistance of the surface craft to which the
signal is directed is no longer required
Crossing the wake of the surface craft close astern at a low altitude and:
• Rocking the wings
• Opening and closing the throttle
• Changing the propeller pitch
CODE
NO. MESSAGE SYMBOL
1 REQUIRE ASSISTANCE
3 NO OR NEGATIVE
4 YES OR AFFIRMATIVE
CODE
NO. MESSAGE SYMBOL
1 OPERATION COMPLETED
Fig. 24-1
Symbols shall be at least 2.5 metres long and shall be made as conspicuous as possible.
Air-To-Ground Signals
The following signals by aircraft mean that the ground signals have been understood,
During the hours of daylight by rocking the aircraft’s wings
During the hours of darkness by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or,
if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights
Lack of the above signals indicates that the ground signal is not understood.
Where supplies of a mixed nature are dropped in one container or package, the colour code should
be used in combination.
Chapter 25
Security
Introduction ........................................................................................................... 3
Organisation .......................................................................................................... 3
Preventative Security Measures ............................................................................. 4
Operational Aspects of an Act of Unlawful Interference ........................................ 6
Reports .................................................................................................................. 6
Annexes and Documents Relating to Aviation Security .......................................... 6
Aeroplane Search Procedure Checklist................................................................... 8
Control Of Taxiing Aircraft ...................................................................................... 9
Introduction
Each Contracting State shall specify to ICAO the appropriate authority designated to develop,
implement and maintain a national civil aviation security program
The aim of aviation security shall be to safeguard international civil aviation operations against acts
of unlawful interference.
Safety of passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public shall be the primary objective
of each Contracting State in all matters related to the safeguarding against acts of unlawful
interference with international civil aviation.
Each Contracting State shall establish an organization, develop plans and implement procedures,
which together provide a standardized level of security for the operation of international flights in
normal operating conditions and which are capable of rapid expansion to meet any increased
security risk.
Organisation
National Organisation
International Co-Operation
Each Contracting State shall co-operate with other states in order to adapt their respective national
civil aviation security programmes as necessary.
• Make available to other states on request, a written version of the appropriate parts of its
national civil aviation security programme
• Include in its bilateral agreements on air transport, a clause related to aviation security
• Shall ensure that requests from other states for special security measures in respect of a
specific flight or specified flights by operators, as far as may be practicable, are met
Contracting States shall, as necessary, co-operate with each other in the development and exchange
of information concerning training programmes.
Each Contracting State shall establish measures to prevent weapons, explosives or any other
dangerous devices which may be used to commit an act of unlawful interference, the carriage or
bearing of which is not authorized, from being introduced, by any means whatsoever, on board an
aircraft engaged in international civil aviation.
Note: In applying the above Standard special attention must be paid to the threat posed by
explosive devices concealed in, or using electric, electronic or battery-operated items carried as
hand baggage and/or in checked baggage.
Contracting States should ensure that the carriage of weapons on board aircraft, by law
enforcement officers and other authorized persons acting in the performance of their duties
requires special authorization in accordance with the laws of the state involved
Contracting States should ensure that the carriage of weapons in other cases is allowed only when
an authorized and duly qualified person has determined that they are not loaded, if applicable, and
then only if stowed in a place inaccessible to any person during flight time.
Contracting States should ensure that the PIC is notified as to the number of armed persons and
their seat locations
Each Contracting State shall ensure that pre-flight checks of originating aircraft assigned to
international flights include measures to discover suspicious objects or anomalies that could conceal
weapons, explosives or any other dangerous devices.
Each Contracting State shall ensure that adequate measures are taken to control transfer and transit
passengers and their cabin baggage to prevent unauthorized articles from being taken on board
aircraft engaged in international civil aviation operations.
Each Contracting State shall ensure that there is no possibility of mixing or contact between
passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the
security screening at airports have been passed. If mixing or contact does take place, the passengers
concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re-screened before boarding an aircraft.
Each Contracting State shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator and the PIC are
informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or
administrative proceedings, in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.
Each Contracting State should require operators providing service from that state, to include in their
security programmes, measures and procedures to ensure safety on board their aircraft when
passengers are to be carried who are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial
or administrative proceedings.
Each Contracting State shall establish measures to ensure that operators when providing services
from that State do not transport the baggage of passengers who are not on board the aircraft unless
the baggage separated from passengers is subjected to other security control measures.
Each Contracting State shall establish procedures and identification systems to prevent unauthorized
access by persons or vehicles to:
Each Contracting State responsible for providing ATS for an aircraft which is subject to unlawful
interference shall collect all pertinent information on the flight of that aircraft and transmit that
information to all other states responsible for the ATS units concerned.
Each Contracting State shall provide such assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful
interference, including:
Each Contracting State shall take measures, as it may find practicable, to ensure that an aircraft
subjected to an act of unlawful seizure which has landed in its territory is detained on the ground
unless its departure is necessitated by the overriding duty to protect human life.
Reports
A Contracting State in which an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful interference has landed shall
notify by the quickest means the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the
landing. Other relevant information shall be transmitted to:
ICAO Annex 2
Any aircraft that is being subjected to unlawful interference shall endeavour to:
• Notify the appropriate ATS unit of this fact
• Inform the ATS of any significant circumstances
• Notify any deviation from the current flight plan necessitated by the above
This is to ensure that the ATS unit gives priority to the aircraft and minimizes any risk of conflict with
other aircraft.
The following procedures are intended as guidance for use by aircraft when unlawful interference
occurs and the aircraft is unable to notify an ATS unit of this fact.
The PlC should attempt to continue flying on the assigned track and at the assigned cruising level,
until an ATS can be notified, or, the aircraft is within radar coverage.
Where the aircraft must depart from its assigned track or level without being able to make radio
contact with ATS, the PlC should, whenever possible:
• Attempt to broadcast warnings on the VHF emergency frequency and any other appropriate
frequencies, unless circumstances dictate otherwise
• Other equipment such as on board transponders, data links etc should also be used,
conditions permitting
• Proceed in accordance with the applicable special procedures for in-flight contingencies,
where such procedures have been established and promulgated
If there is no applicable regional procedure, proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels
normally used for IFR flight:
Annex 6
In all aeroplanes the flight crew compartment door should be capable of being locked from within
the compartment.
Training Programmes
An operator shall establish and maintain a training programme that enables crew members to act in
the most appropriate manner to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference.
An operator shall also establish and maintain a training programme to acquaint appropriate
employees with preventative measures and techniques in relation to:
• Passengers
• Baggage
• Cargo
• Mail
• Equipment
• Stores
• Supplies intended for carriage on an aeroplane
So that they contribute to the prevention of acts of sabotage or other forms of unlawful
interference.
ICAO Annex 14
An isolated aircraft parking position shall be designated or the aerodrome control tower shall be
advised of an area or areas suitable for the parking of an aircraft which is known or believed to be
the subject of unlawful interference, or which for other reasons needs isolation from normal
aerodrome activities.
The isolated aircraft parking position should be located at the maximum distance practicable and in
any case never less than 100 m from other parking positions, buildings or public areas. Care should
be taken to ensure that the position is not located over underground utilities such as gas and
aviation fuel and, to the extent feasible, electrical or communication cables
Document 4444
• A position within the area or areas selected by prior agreement with the aerodrome
authority
• The taxi clearance shall specify the taxi route to be followed to the parking position
• The route shall be selected with a view to minimizing any security risks to the public, other
aircraft and installations at the aerodrome
Chapter 26
Definitions
Accident
An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any
person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have
disembarked, in which:
A person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of Being in the aircraft or Direct contact with any
part of the aircraft, including parts which have become detached from the aircraft, or Direct
exposure to jet blast
Except when the injuries are from:
• Natural causes
• Self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons
• When the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas normally available to the
passengers and crew, or
except for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to the engine, its cowlings or
accessories; or for damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, fairings, small
dents or puncture holes in the aircraft skin, or The aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible
An injury resulting in death within 30 days of the date of the accident is classed as a fatal injury by
ICAO
An aircraft is considered to be missing when the official search has been terminated and the
wreckage has not been located
Serious Incident
Serious Injury
• Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date
the injury was received
• Results in a fracture of any bone (Not simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose)
• Involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage
• Involves injury to any internal organ
• Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body
surface
• Involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation
Applicability
Unless otherwise stated, the specifications of Annex 13 apply to activities following accidents and
incidents wherever they occurred.
General
• Photographic evidence
• Other means of evidence which might be removed, effaced, lost or destroyed
Protection of flight recorder evidence requires that the recovery and handling of the recorder and its
recordings be assigned only to qualified personnel
If a request is received from the State of Registry, or the State of the Operator, that the aircraft, its
contents, and any other evidence remain undisturbed pending inspection by an accredited
representative of the requesting state, the State of Occurrence shall take all necessary steps to
comply with this. Providing that:
• The aircraft may be moved to the extent necessary to extricate persons, animals and
valuables
• To prevent destruction by fire or other causes
• To eliminate any danger or obstruction to air navigation, to transport or to the public
If a request is made that the aircraft remain undisturbed pending investigation by an accredited
representative of the requesting state then the State of Occurrence shall take all reasonable steps to
comply. This must be in accord with the proper conduct of the investigation and does not result in
undue delay in returning the aircraft into service where this is practicable.
Notification
Accidents or Serious Incidents In The Territory Of A Contracting State To Aircraft Of Another
Contracting State
Forwarding
The State of Occurrence shall forward a notification of an accident or serious incident with a
minimum of delay and by the most suitable and quickest means to:
Note: Telephone, facsimile or the AFTN will in most cases constitute “the most suitable and quickest
means.
Upon receipt of the notification the State of Registry and the State of the Operator shall, as soon as
possible, provide the State of Occurrence with any relevant information regarding the aircraft and
flight crew involved.
Investigation
Responsibility for Instituting And Conducting The Investigation
State Of Occurrence
The State of Occurrence shall institute an investigation into the circumstances of the accident. Such
State shall also be responsible for the conduct of the investigation. It may delegate the whole or any
part of the investigation to the State of Registry or the State of the Operator. In this case the State of
Occurrence shall use every means to facilitate the investigation.
Rights
The State of Registry and the State of the Operator shall be entitled to appoint an accredited
representative to participate in the investigation.
When neither the State of Registry, nor the State of the Operator, appoint an accredited
representative, the Slate conducting the investigation should invite the operator to participate,
subject to the procedures of the State conducting the investigation
Obligations
When the State conducting an investigation of an accident to an aircraft of a maximum mass of over
2250 kg specifically requests participation by the State of Design and the State of Manufacture, the
latter shall each appoint an accredited representative.
Reporting
Final Report
The Final Report of the investigation of an accident shall be sent with a minimum of delay to:
EU Council Directive 94/56 dated 21 November 1004 (Accident Investigation) and 2003/42 dated 13
June 2003 (Civil Aviation Events Notification) were established to increase aviation safety by learning
from accidents and incidents
94/56 established Aviation Accident Safety Investigation Independent bodies (AIBs) at national level
and mandates that EU states must investigate accidents and serious incidents which occur in Europe
and to any EU registered aeroplane worldwide. (at variance with the ICAO requirement which allows
the State of Occurrence to conduct an investigation)
2003/42 introduced occurrence reporting by individual aviation professionals, in all cases where
safety concerns might emerge – and encouraged State to develop a confidential voluntary reporting
system. The directive also initiated the development of software tools which could allow Aviation
Authorities and Agencies to share common information in order to undertake their respective
studies and analysis