Multiple Choice Questions (The Answers Are Provided After The Last Question.)

Chapter 1
Multiple Choice Questions

(The answers are provided after the last question.)
1. Mrs. Smith is writing her daily observations of a student and writes,
without interpretation, that the student is not completing the class work and
is constantly speaking out of turn. Which of the following objectives does she
appear to be using? a. prediction b. description
c. explanation
d. exploration
2. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by
teachers, counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have
and to specifically help them solve local problems? a. action research b. basic
research c. predictive research d. orientational research
3. How much confidence should you place in a single research study? a. you
should completely trust a single research study. b. you should trust research
findings after different researchers have found the same findings c. neither a
nor b d. both a and b
4. The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is
built from which type of research? a. basic research b. action research c.
evaluation research d. orientational research
5. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion
from a set of premises? a. rationalism b. deductive reasoning c. inductive
reasoning d. probabilistic
6. The idea that when selecting between two different theories with equal
explanatory value, one should select the theory that is the most simple,
concise, and succinct is known as ____________. a. criterion of falsifiability
b. critical theory c. guide of simplicity
d. rule of parsimony
7. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the
"same variables but different people" is which of the following? a. exploration
b. hypothesis c. replication d. empiricism
8. ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience. a.
rationalism b. deductive reasoning c. logic d. empiricism
9. According to your text, what are the five key objectives of science? a.
prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation, description b. influence,
prediction, questions, exploration, answers c. exploration, description,
explanation, prediction, influence d. questions, answers, prediction,
explanation, summary
10. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to
influence how well children learn spelling words. In this case, the main
purpose of the study was:
a. Explanation
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction
11. There is a set of churches in the U.S. where part of the service involves
snake handling. The researcher wants to find out why the people attending
these churches do this and how they feel and think about it. In this case, the
primary purpose of the study is:
a. Exploration
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction
12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good theory or
explanation?
a. It is parsimonious
b. It is testable
c. It is general enough to apply to more than one place, situation, or person
d. All of the above are characteristics of good theories
13. Which of the following is not a basic assumption of science?
a. Science cannot provide answers to all questions
b. It is possible to distinguish between more and less plausible claims
c. Researchers should follow certain agreed upon norms and practices
d. Science is best at solving value conflicts, such as whether abortion is
immoral
14. What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help
a researcher advance an ideological or political position?
a. Evaluation research
b. Basic research
c. Action research
d. Orientational research
15. Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2)
patterns, 3) theory?
a. Inductive
b. Deductive
c. Imductive
d. Top down
16. Rene Descartes is associated with which of the following approached to
knowledge generation?
a. Empiricism
b. Rationalism
c. Expert opinion
d. None of the above
17. Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
18. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to
research?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
d. Pattern method
19. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from
theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
d. Pattern method
20. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and
theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
d. Pattern method
21. Which of the following statements is true of a theory?
a. it most simply means “explanation”
b. it answers the “how” and “why” questions
c. it can be a well developed explanatory system
d. all of the above are correct
Answers:
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. a
5. b
6. d
7. c
8. d
9. c
10. a
11. a
12. d
13. d
14. d
15. a
16. b
17. a
18. b
19. a
20. b
21. d
Chapter 2
1. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality?
a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
d. none of the above
2. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its
findings?
a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
3. Which of the following best describes quantitative research? a. the
collection of nonnumerical data b. an attempt to confirm the researcher’s
hypotheses c. research that is exploratory
d. research that attempts to generate a new theory
4. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories
is called ___. a. a constant b. a variable c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship
5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called
a(n): a. categorical variable b. dependent variable c. independent variable d.
intervening variable
6. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research
except: a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data b. it can
produce important knowledge about cause and effect c. it uses the deductive
scientific method d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or
environment
7. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following
characteristics except: a. it is typically used when a great deal is already
known about the topic of interest b. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical
data such as words and pictures
c. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in
the world d. it uses the inductive scientific method
8. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the
existence of cause-and-effect relationships? a. nonexperimental Research b.
experimental Research
9. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research? a.
extraneous variables are never present b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists d. manipulation of the independent
variable
10. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the
researcher cannot manipulate the independent variable. a. basic research b.
quantitative research c. experimental research d. causal-comparative and
correlational research
11. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. resistance to manipulation
b. manipulation of the independent variable
c. the use of open-ended questions
d. focuses only on local problems
12.. A positive correlation is present when _______. a. two variables move in
opposite directions. b. two variables move in the same direction. c. one
variable goes up and one goes down d. several variables never change.
13. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one
phase and the quantitative paradigm for another phase is known as ______. a.
action research b. basic research c. quantitative research d. mixed method
research e. mixed model research
14. Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative
research within a stage or across two of the stages in the research process is
known as ______. a. action research b. basic research c. quantitative research
d. mixed method research e. mixed model research
15.. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as
_____? a. experimental research b. historical research c. replication d. archival
research
16. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent
variable. a. causal-comparative research b. experimental research c.
ethnography d. correlational research
17.. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables? a.
age, temperature, income, height b. grade point average, anxiety level,
reading performance c. gender, religion, ethnic group d. both a and b
18.. What is the opposite of a variable? a. a constant b. an extraneous
variable c. a dependent variable
d. a data set
19. Which of the following is the type of nonexperimental research in which
the primary independent variable of interest is categorical? a. causal-
comparative research b. experimental research c. qualitative research d.
mixed research
20. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable? a.
age b. annual income c. grade point average d. religion
21. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________. a.
variable b. method c. constant d. control group
22. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship
between two variables, it is very important to avoid _______. a. checking the
strength of relationship b. jumping to the conclusion of causality c. checking
the direction of the relationship
d. expressing a relationship with a correlation coefficient
23. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded
elementary schools. She develops a model that posits parent involvement as
an important variable. She believes that parent involvement has an impact
on children by increasing their motivation to do school work. Thus, in her
model, greater parent involvement leads to higher student motivation, which
in turn creates higher student achievement. Student motivation is what kind
of variable in this study?
a. Manipulated variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Confounding variable
d. Mediating or intervening variable
24. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following
research methods?
a. Experimental
b. Causal-comparative
c. Correlational
d. Ethnography
25. Which correlation is the strongest?
a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. -1.00
26. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated
Answers:
1. c
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. c
6. d
7. a
8. b
9. d
10. d
11. b
12. b
13. d
14. e
15. b
16. b
17. d
18. a
19. a
20. d
21. c
22. b
23. d
24. a
25. d
26. a
Chapter 3
1. A good qualitative problem statement:
a. Defines the independent and dependent variables
b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to
find
2. The “tool” function of theory is to:
a. Summarize existing knowledge
b. Summarize existing hypotheses
c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
d. Suggest new theories
3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:
a. Identify the design of the study
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d. Describe the study
4. Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular activities on
cognitive development of school age children” not a good statement of a
quantitative research question?
a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and
cognitive
development
b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in
extracurricular activities
to conduct the study
c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different
extracurricular
activities
d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an
understanding of the
variables being investigated
5. A qualitative research question:
a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b. Is generally an open-ended question
c. both a and b are correct
6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in
the flowchart of the development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question,
hypothesis
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question,
hypothesis
c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question,
hypothesis
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research
purpose
7. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because
information obtained via the internet ranges from very poor to very good.
a. True
b. False
8. One step that is not included in planning a research study is:
a. Identifying a researchable problem
b. A review of current research
c. Statement of the research question
d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research
e. Developing a research plan
9. Sources of researchable problems can include:
a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above
10. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new
research questions is that:
a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research
questions
b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer
11. Which of the following is a function of theory?
a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory
12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows
the researcher to do which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of
interest
d. All of the above
13. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data
collection is not recommended by grounded theorists.
a. True
b. False
14. What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched?
a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction
b. Description of educational practices
c. Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in
schools
d. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use
15. Which of the following is not a database containing information to be
used during the literature review?
a. ERIC
b. PsychINFO
c. SocioFILE
d. all of the above are potentially useful data bases
16. Computer database searches can be done:
a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive
b. At the library
c. Online
d. All of the above
17. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:
a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
b. Skills required of the researcher
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above
18. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research
study” generally ______.
a. Is made prior to the literature review
b. Is made after the literature review
c. Will help guide the research process
d. All of the above
e. b and c
19. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement “well stated” or
“poorly stated”? “The focus of the present study was to explore distressing and
nurturing encounters of patients with caregivers and to ascertain the meanings
that are engendered by such encounters. The study was conducted on one of the
surgical units and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed community
hospital.”
a. It is a well stated
b. It is poorly stated
20. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?
a. “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on
academic performance?”
b. “What effect does playing high school football have on students’ overall
grade point average during the football season?”
21. A statement of the quantitative research question should:
a. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the
researcher will
address
b. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods,
measures, and
materials
c. Specify the variables of interest
d. All of the above
22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the
research plan?
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion
23. Research hypotheses are ______.
a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. b and c
24. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.
a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed
25. A research plan _____.
a. Should be detailed
b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study
d. All of the above
26. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies
a. The research participants
b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest
c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
d. The planned research procedures
e. a, c and d
27. The Introduction section of the research plan
a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative
research, it includes
the research hypothesis
d. All of the above
28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research
ideas?
a. Everyday life
b. Practical issues
c. Past research
d. Theory
e. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas
Answers:
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. d
5. c
6. a
7. a
8. d
9. d
10. b
11. d
12. d
13. a
14. c
15. d
16. d
17. d
18. e
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. b
23. d
24. b
25. d
26. e
27. d
28. e
Chapter 4
1. Ethics is the set of principles and guidelines that help us to uphold the
things we value.
a. True
b. False
2. Which of the following is necessary in obtaining informed consent?
a. A description of the statistical analyses that will be carried out
b. A description of the purpose of the research
c. A description of the reliability and validity of test instruments
d. A list of publications that the researcher has had in the last ten years
3. Which of the following need(s) to be obtained when doing research with
children?
a. Informed consent from the parent or guardian
b. Assent from the child if he or she is capable
c. Informed consent from the child
d. Both a and b
4. Which of the following is true about the use of deception in research?
a. It should never be used
b. It can be used anytime
c. If there is deception in a study, the participants may need to be debriefed
d. The use of deception must be outweighed by other benefits of the study
e. Both c and d are true
5. Which of the following generally cannot be done in qualitative studies
conducted in the field?
a. Getting informed consent
b. Keeping participants from physical harm
c. Maintaining consent forms
d. Having full anonymity rather than just confidentiality
6. What is the primary approach that is used by the IRB to assess the ethical
acceptability of a research study?
a. Utilitarianism
b. Deontology
c. Ethical skepticism
d. Comparativeism
7. Which of the following approaches says that ethical issues should be
judged on the basis of some universal code? a. Deontological b. Ethical
skepticism c. Utilitarianism
8 Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting research
with humans? a. Getting informed consent of the participant b. Telling
participants they must continue until the study has been completed c.
Keeping participants’ identity anonymous
d. Telling participants they are free to withdraw at any time
9. Which of the three ethics approaches says research ethics should be a
matter of the individual's conscience? a. Deontological approach b. Ethical
skepticism c. Utilitarianism
d. Ontological skepticism
10. ________ means that the participant's identity, although known to the
researcher, is not revealed to anyone outside of the researcher and his or her
staff. a. Anonymity b. Confidentiality
11. Which of the following is not true? a. Misrepresenting and creating
fraudulent data is dishonest b. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detect c.
Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detect
d. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem
12. Ideally, the research participant's identity is not known to the researcher.
This is called: a. Anonymity b. Confidentiality c. Deception d. Desensitizing
13. Which of the following approaches taken by people to resolve ethical
issues is the primary approach used by the federal government and most
professional organizations? a. Deontological approach b. Ethical skepticism c.
Utilitarianism d. None of the above
14. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one but
researcher and staff? a. Confidentiality b. Anonymity c. Ethics d. Discretion
15. Research participants must give what before they can participate in a
study? a. Guidelines b. A commitment
c. Informed consent d. Private information
16. There are three basic approaches that people tend to adopt when
considering ethical issues in research. Which one of the following is not one
of the approaches? a. Ethical skepticism b. Deontology c. Ontology d.
Utilitarianism 17. Identify the term that refers to a poststudy interview in
which all aspects of the study are revealed, reasons for the use of deception
are given, and the participants’ questions are answered? a. Desensitizing b.
Debriefing c. Dehoaxing d. Deploying
18. A set of principles to guide and assist researchers in deciding which goals
are most important and in reconciling conflicting values when conducting
research is called ____. a. Research ethics b. Deontological approach c.
Utilitarianism d. None of the above
19. IRB is an acronym for which of the following? a. Internal Review Board b.
Institutional Rating Board c. Institutional Review Board d. Internal Request
Board
20. When it is necessary to engage in a good amount of deception to conduct
a scientifically valid study, what procedure(s) should a researcher consider
following? a. Debriefing b. Dehoaxing c. Desensitizing d. All of the above
should be considered
21. The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal
or publication refers to which of the following professional issues:
a. Partial publication
b. Duplicate publication
c. Deception
d. Full publication
22. Concerning "authorship" in educational research, intellectual ownership is
predominantly a function of:
a. Effort expended
b. Creative contribution
c. Professional position
d. Level of higher education
23. Which term refers to publishing several articles from the data collected in
one large study?
a. Duplicate publication b. Partial publication c. Triplicate publication d. None
of these
24. Which of the following is a right of each participant according to the
AERA? a. Deception
b. Utilitarianism
c. Freedom to withdraw d. Participants have no rights
Answers:
1. a
2. b
3. d
4. e
5. d
6. a
7. a
8. b
9. b
10. b
11. b
12. a
13. c
14. a
15. c
16. c
17. b
18. a
19. c
20. d
21. b
22. b
23. b
24. c
Chapter 5
1. Which of the following is not an assumption underlying testing and
measurement?
a. Various approaches to measuring aspects of the same thing can be useful
b. Error is rarely present in the measurement process
c. Present-day behavior predicts future behavior
d. Testing and assessment benefit society
2. Systematic error is associated with:
a. Reliability
b. Validity
3. Which of the following is a type of criterion–related validity evidence?
a. Concurrent evidence
b. Predictive evidence
c. Internal consistency
d. Both a and b are correct answers
4. If a test measures a single construct then:
a. The items should correlate with the total score
b. The items should not correlate with the total score
c. The test should not correlate with other measures of the same construct
d. There must be a reliable alternative form.
5. Professor X develops a test of emotional intelligence. Which of the
following represent convergent and discriminant evidence?
a. The test correlates highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is
uncorrelated with self-efficacy
b. The test correlates with highly with another test of emotional intelligence
and is
highly correlated with self-efficacy
c. The test does not correlate with another test of emotional intelligence, but
does
correlate with self-efficacy
d. The test does not correlate with other tests of emotional intelligence nor
with self-
efficacy
6. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or characteristics. a.
True b. False
7. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c.
Interval
d. Ratio
8. ______ tests focus on information acquired through the informal learning
that goes on in life. a. Personality b. Achievement c. Aptitude d. Intelligence
9. Let’s say that a test accurately indicates participants’ scores on a future
criterion (e.g., the PSAT is used to indicate high-school GPA scores). This test
would clearly have which of the following?
a. Face validity
b. Concurrent validity
c. Predictive validity
d. Content validity
10. If a baseball coach calculates batting averages, what scale would be
used?
a. Interval scale
b. Ratio scale
c. Nominal scale
d. Ordinal scale
11. According to the text, most of the outcome/dependent variable
characteristics and attributes measured in educational research probably
exist at the ______________ level of measurement.
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
12. Which of the following is most clearly an example of a psychological trait?
a. Anxiety enduring for months or years
b. Anxiety over just seeing a spider
c. Shyness when meeting a stranger for the first time
d. Depression caused by the loss of a ball game
13. All of the following are examples of Intelligence Tests except _________:
a. Wechsler Scales
b. Stanford-Binet
c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI)
d. Slosson
14. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?
a. Consistency or stability
b. Appropriateness of interpretations on the basis of test scores
c. Ways in which people are the same
d. A rank order of participants on some characteristic
15. An ordinal scale is: a. The simplest form of measurement b. A rank-order
scale of measurement c. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent
numbers d. A scale with an absolute zero point
e. A categorical scale
16. Which of the following is not a type of reliability? a. Test-retest b. Split-
half c. Content
d. Internal consistency 17. Which of the following statements accurately
describes test-retest reliability?
a. Measure of consistency of test scores over time
b. Measure of consistency of scores obtained from two equivalent halves of
the same test
c. Measure of consistency with which a test measures a single construct or
concept
d. Measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers, judges, or
raters
18. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency of test
scores over time? a. Equivalent forms reliability b. Split-half reliability c. Test-
retest reliability d. Inter-scorer reliability 19. Identify the following term that
most closely refers to a judgement of the extent to which scores from a test
can be used to infer, or predict, the examinees' performance in some activity:
a. Content reliability b. Face validity c. Criterion-related validity d. Inference
validity
20. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens’ four levels of
measurement? a. Ordinal, nominal, ratio, interval b. Nominal, ordinal,
interval, ratio c. Interval, nominal, ordinal, ratio d. Ratio, interval, nominal,
ordinal 21. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences
based test scores? a. Validation b. Validity c. Reliability
d. Prediction
22. When evaluating tests and assessments, “reliability” refers to asking
ourselves which of the following questions?
a. Does it measure what it is supposed to measure?
b. Are there ways to avoid subjective judgments when measuring something?
c. Does it give consistent results?
d. Does it measure multiple constructs?
23. Validity of a test designed to measure a construct such as self-esteem is
best described by which of the following?
a. Scores from the test correlate highly with most intelligence tests
b. Scores from the test correlate highly with most tests of different constructs
c. Scores from the test are not correlated with anything
d. Scores from the test have a relatively strong and positive correlation with
other tests of the
same construct (i.e., with other measures of self-esteem) but much lower
correlations
with tests of different constructs
24. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of individuals'
scores on two equivalent forms of a test designed to measure the same
characteristic?
a. Split-half
b. Test-retest
c. Split-forms
d. Equivalent forms
25. Achievement tests are designed to measure the degree of learning that
has taken place after a person has been exposed to a specific learning
experience.
a. True
b. False
26. _________ refers to how well the particular sample of behaviors used to
measure a characteristic reflects the entire domain of behaviors that
constitutes that characteristic. a. Construct validity evidence b. Criterion-
related validity evidence c. Content validity evidence d. Face validity
evidence
Answers:
1. b
2. b
3. d
4. a
5. a
6. a
7. a
8. c
9. c
10. b
11. b
12. a
13. c
14. a
15. b
16. c
17. a
18. c
19. c
20. b
21. a
22. c
23. d
24. d
25. a
26. c
Chapter 6
1. According to your text, how many points should a rating scale have?
a. Five
b. Four
c. Ten
d. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points
2. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question
“What is your current age?”
1-5
5-10
10-20
20-30
30-40
a. The categories are not mutually exclusive
b. The categories are not exhaustive
c. Both a and b are problems
d. There is no problem with the above set of response categories
3. You should mix methods in a way that provides complementary strengths
and nonoverlapping weaknesses. This is known as the fundamental principle
of mixed research.
a. True
b. False
4. According to the text, questionnaires can address events and
characteristics taking place when?
a. In the past (retrospective questions)
b. In the present (current time questions)
c. In the future (prospective questions)
d. All of the above
5. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?
a. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructs
b. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs
c. Avoid double-barreled questions
d. All of the above
e. Only b and c
6. Which of these is not a method of data collection. a. Questionnaires b.
Interviews c. Experiments
d. Observations
7. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following? a. Official
documents b. Personal documents
c. Archived research data
d. All of the above
8. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending
on their response is called a ____________.
a. Response set
b. Probe
c. Semantic differential
d. Contingency question
9. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally
collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose?
a. Primary data
b. Secondary data
c. Experimental data
d. Field notes
10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect
data. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the
researcher’s predetermined response categories
b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own
words
c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own
words
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the
participants’ own words
11. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.
a. Confirmatory data
b. Qualitative data
c. Predictive data
12. Which of the following is true concerning observation?
a. It takes less time than self-report approaches
b. It costs less money than self-report approaches
c. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they
do
d. All of the above
13. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes; it is also
called ___________ observation.
a. Structured
b. Naturalistic
c. Complete
d. Probed
14. As discussed in chapter 6, when constructing a questionnaire it is
important to do each of the following except ______.
a. Use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Use natural language
c. Understand your research participants
d. Pilot your test questionnaire
15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):
a. Interview protocol
b. Event sampling
c. Summated rating scale
d. Ranking
16. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data
collection that are used by educational researchers?
a. Observation
b. Interviews
c. Questionnaires
d. Checklists
17. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance
but the sequence and wording can be modified during the interview is called:
a. The interview guide approach
b. The informal conversational interview
c. A closed quantitative interview
d. The standardized open-ended interview
18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Focus groups
e. All of the above are methods of data collection
19. A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that way?” is
known as a:
a. Probe
b. Filter question
c. Response
d. Pilot
20. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
a. Standardized tests
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Observations
21. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the
group that is being studied. This researcher may be which of the following?
a. A complete participant
b. An observer-as-participant
c. A participant-as-observer
22. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection? a.
Questionnaires b. Focus groups c. Correlational method d. Secondary data
23. Which type of interview allows the questions to emerge from the
immediate context or course of things? a. Interview guide approach b.
Informal conversational interview c. Closed quantitative interview d.
Standardized open-ended interview
24. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do you
mean?, Why do you feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:
a. Contingency questions
b. Probes
c. Protocols
d. Response categories
25. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 15 principles to which you
should adhere. Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Avoid double-barreled questions
c. Avoid double negatives
d. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct
Answers:
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. d
5. d
6. c
7. d
8. d
9. b
10. c
11. b
12. c
13. b
14. a
15. c
16. d
17. a
18. e
19. a
20. b
21. a
22. c
23. b
24. b
25. d
Chapter 7
1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being
selected, this is called:
a. A nonrandom sampling method
b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample
d. An Equal probability selection method
2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?
a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate
b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from
within
each ethnic group at random.
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random
number
table to pick cases from the table.
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the
school.
3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?
a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population
proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting
large enough
subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
4. Which of the following statements are true?
a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data
analysis, the larger
the sample needed
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data
analysis, the larger
the sample needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval
5. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to
include in the original sampling?
a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1
b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size
c. Proportion likely to respond/population size
d. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond
6. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability
selection method (i.e., EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has
an equal chance of being selected?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Proportional stratified sampling
d. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique
e. All of the above are EPSEM
7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?
a. Snowball sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling
8. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the
population from which a sample has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
d. A small cluster sample
9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in
quantitative research?
b. Systematic sampling
c. Quota sampling
10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
a. Cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Proportional stratified sampling
11. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?
a. Every year
b. Every five years
c. Every ten years
d. Twice a year
12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in
the sampling method called ______.
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Convenience sampling
13. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher
determining the appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as
important, and then taking convenience samples from those groups?
a. Proportional stratified sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. One-stage cluster sampling
d. Two-stage cluster sampling
14. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting
cases that disconfirm the researcher's expectations and generalizations is
referred to as _______________.
a. Extreme case sampling
b. Typical-case sampling
c. Critical-case sampling
d. Negative-case sampling
15. Using Figure 6.6 (pg. 178), how many participants will you need for a
research study with a population of 120,000?
a. 242
b. 331 c. 377
d. 384
16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the
researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research
participants? a. Snowball
b. Convenience c. Purposive
d. Quota
17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique
discussed in your chapter?
a. Simple random sampling b. Proportional stratified sampling c. Cluster
random sampling d. Systematic sampling
18. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided
them by gender, and then took a random sample of the males and a random
sampling of the females, the variable on which we would divide the
population is called the _____. a. Independent variable b. Dependent variable
c. Stratification variable d. Sampling variable
19. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a
characteristic of the population is called which of the following? a. A datum b.
A statistic
c. A parameter d. A population
20. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected
for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is
selected is called _________. a. Sampling without replacement b. Sampling
with replacement c. Simple random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?
a. Cluster sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling
22. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size
because of its efficiency?
a. One stage cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Two stage cluster sampling
d. Quota sampling
23. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.
a. Cluster sampling
b. One-stage sampling
c. Two-stage sampling
d. Probability proportional to size or PPS
24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.
a. Sampling
b. Census
c. Survey research
25. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample
when the population size is of what size?
a. 500 or less
b. 100 or less
c. 1000 or less
d. you should always use a sample
26. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling
technique?
a. Purposive
b. Quota
c. Convenience
d. Cluster
27. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a
group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about
the larger population?
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Random sampling
28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according
to certain rules.
a. Sample
b. Population
c. Statistic
d. Element
29. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a
number between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are
the steps for which form of sampling?
a. Simple Random Sampling
b. Stratified Random Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Cluster sampling
30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience
sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your
research study is called _____.
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Snowball sampling
Answers:
1. d
2. c
3. b
4. b
5. d
6. e
7. e
8. c
9. d
10. a
11. c
12. d
13. b
14. d
15. d
16. a
17. b
18. c
19. c
20. b
21. a
22. b
23. d
24. a
25. b
26. d
27. d
28. a
29. c
30. c
Chapter 8
1. When a extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent
variable and influences the dependent variable, it is called:
a. Another dependent variable
b. A confounding variable
c. A moderating variable
d. An unreliable variable
2. Which of the following statements is true?
a. A statistical relationship is sufficient evidence to infer causality
b. Temporal order of the cause and effect is not important in inferring
causality
c. A statistical relation of X and Y is insufficient evidence for inferring
causality
d. Temporal order of cause and effect variables and statistical relation are all
that are
needed to infer causality
3. A school district examines a program that uses mentors to help very poor
readers improve their reading performance. The children in the program are
at the 4th percentile at pretest. At posttest they are around the 20th percentile.
While it is possible that the program made the difference, another reason for
the change in scores could be:
a. History
b. Regression artifact
c. Multiple-treatment interference
d. Differential selection
4. A group of researchers do a study where children from particular
classrooms are assigned to treatment or control conditions. After the study,
the researcher finds out that the students in the control group are higher
achievers than those in the experimental group. He found no treatment
effect. The failure to find an effect may be due to:
a. A treatment effect
b. A testing effect
c. A differential selection effect
d. A maturation effect
5. A researcher examines a program looking at the effects of mentoring on
poor readers' reading achievement. He looks at two different schools. One
serves as the control and the other the experimental group. Both schools had
reading achievement that was around the 50th percentile. During the time
that the mentoring program is in place in the experimental group, a
statewide reading initiative is started in randomly selected schools. The
experimental, but not the control school is involved in the initiative. At the
end of the year, the experimental group does better than the control. From
the information presented above, a likely threat to the internal validity of the
study is:
a. Selection by mortality interaction
b. Mortality
c. Selection-history effect
d. Selection-maturation effect
6. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the
relationship between two variables is causal?
a. Internal validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
d. Statistical conclusion validity
7. Which type of validity refers to the ability to infer that the independent and
dependent variables are related ant that the measured strength of the
relationship is accurate?
a. Internal validity
d. Statistical conclusion validity
8. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent
variable and also influences the dependent variable is known as a
_______________.
a Confounding variable b. Third variable c. Second variable d. Both a and b
are correct
9. The use of multiple observers to allow cross-checking of observations to
make sure that the investigators agree with what took place is known as
_______.
a. Interpretive validity
b. Researcher bias
c. Multiple operationalism
d. Investigator triangulation
10. _____________ is the lowest inference descriptor of all because it uses the
participant’s own words.
a. Participant feedback
b. A verbatim
c. Data triangulation
d. Investigator triangulation
11. ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within
individuals over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue.
a. Instrumentation
b. History
c. Maturation
d. Testing
12. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study
can be generalized across time?
a. Ecological validity
b. External validity
c. Internal validity
d. Temporal validity
13. Which of the following best describes interpretive validity?
a. Factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcher
b. Accurately portraying the meanings given by the participants to what is
being studied
c. Degree to which a theoretical explanation fits the data
d. Ability to generalize the study results across settings
14. Which of the following terms is a strategy where the researcher actively
engages in critical self-reflection about his or her potential biases and
predispositions.
a. Experimenter effect
b. Reactivity
c. Investigator triangulation
d. Reflexivity
15. Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for inferring
causality?
a. Evidence that the independent and dependent variables are related
b. Evidence that the relationship between the variables being investigated is
not due to a
confounding extraneous variable
c. Evidence that changes in variable A occur before changes in variable B
d. The temporal ordering of the variables being investigated does not matter
because a
relationship is all that is really needed
16. The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is
one strategy that is used to promote qualitative research validity. Which of
the following terms describes this strategy?
a. Data matching
b. Pattern matching
c. Data triangulation
d. Data feedback
17. What may happen when different comparison groups experience a
different history event?
a. History effect
b. Selection-history effect
c. Selection effect
d. Group effect
18. What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable?
a. Last variable
b. First variable
c. Third variable
d. Fourth variable
19. Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over
time in the way in which the dependent variable is assessed?
a. Instrumentation
b. Maturation
c. Testing
d. Selection
20. Which of the following terms describes the ability to generalize from the
sample of individuals on which a study was conducted to the larger target
population of individuals and across different subpopulations within the larger
target population?
a. External validity
d. Temporal validity
21. Which of the following is not a strategy used to promote qualitative
research validity?
a. Peer review
b. Theory triangulation
c. Extended fieldwork
d. Random assignment
22. The use of several measures of a construct is called:
a. Multiple operationalism
b. Multiple construct measurement
c. Operationalism
d. Methods triangulation
23. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that
affects their performance on the dependent variable is called ________.
a. Instrumentation
b. Maturation
c. Regression
d. None of above
24. Attrition generally occurs in research where ____.
a. You do demographic research
b. The study fails
c. Some participants do not complete the study
d. The study is very brief
25. Differential attrition occurs when the people dropping out from one group
are different from the others in their group or from the people in the
comparison group.
a. True
b. False
26. Internal validity refers to which of the following?
a. The ability to infer that a casual relationship exists between 2 variables b.
The extent to which study results can be generalized to and across
populations of persons,
settings, and times
c. The use of effective measurement instruments in the study
d. The ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the
study
27. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses
multiple research methods to study a phenomenon? a. Data triangulation b.
Methods triangulation c. Theory triangulation d. Member checking
28. Which type of validity refers to the factual accuracy of an account as
reported by the researcher?
a. Ecological validity
b. Temporal validity
c. Descriptive validity
29. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity?
a. Maturation
b. Instrumentation
c. Temporal change
d. History
30. This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a
study across settings.
a. Temporal validity
b. Internal validity
d. External validity
31. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design?
a. History
b. Testing
c. Sampling error
d. Differential selection
32. Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is participating in
a study is known as ______.
a. Operationalism
b. Reactivity
c. Temporal validity
d. Mortality
33. The idea that the more times a research finding is shown with different
sets of people, the more confidence we can place in the finding and in
generalizing beyond the original participants is known as ___________. a.
Naturalistic generalization b. Methods generalization c. Data triangulation d.
Replication logic
Answers:
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. c
6. a
7. d
8. d
9. d
10. b
11. c
12. d
13. b
14. d
15. d
16. c
17. b
18. c
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. a
23. b
24. c
25. a
26. a
27. b
28. c
29. c
30. c
31. c
32. b
33. d
Chapter 9
1. Analysis of covariance is:
a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific
variables
b. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
c. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
d. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous
variables
2. To determine whether noise affects the ability to solve math problems, a
researcher has one group solve math problems in a quiet room and another
group solve math problems in a noisy room. The group solving problems in
the noisy room completes 15 problems in one hour and the group solving
problems in the quiet room completes 22 problems in one hour. In this
experiment, the independent variable is ____________ and the dependent
variable is _____________.
a. The number of problems solves; the difficulty of the problems
b. The number of problems solved; the noise level in the room
c. The noise level in the room; the number of problems solved
d. The noise level in the room; the difficulty of the problems
3. The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for
which of the following threats to internal validity:
a. History
b. Differential selection
c. Additive and interactive effects
d. Differential attrition
4. When all participants receive all treatment conditions, the study is
susceptible to:
a. Order effects
b. Carryover effects
c. Analysis of covariance
d. a and b
5. A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later
school performance. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status
(SES) is a potential extraneous variable in her study, she picks children to
study who are only from low SES homes. The control technique she used in
this study was:
a. Matching
b. Random assignment
c. Holding the extraneous variable constant
d. Statistically controlling the extraneous variable
6. Which of the following terms best describes an interaction effect?
a. The effect of one independent variable (on a DV) depends on the level of
another independent
variable
b. Eliminating any differential influence of extraneous variables
c. Sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment
conditions are
administered
d. The effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable
7. Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used
to statistically equate groups on a pretest or some other variable?
a. Experimental control
b. Differential influence
c. Matching
d. Analysis of covariance
8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?
a. Presence technique b. Amount technique c. Type technique
d. Random technique
9. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to
determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the
treatment variable is introduced into the research setting.
a. One-group pretest-posttest design
b. Pretest-posttest control group design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. Both b and c
10. Counterbalancing is _________.
a. Usually based on random selection of participants
b. Only used when one pretest variable needs to be controlled
c. Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*
d. All of the above
11. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the
_____.
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Participant group
d. Independent group
12. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher
controls for both known and unknown variables?
a. Building the extraneous variable into the design
b. Matching
c. Random assignment
d. Analysis of covariance
13. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is
the ________.
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Treatment group
d. Independent group
14. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables
can be controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?
a. Random assignment
b. Matching
c. Counterbalancing
15. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants
to groups in an experimental study?
a. Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)
b. Even versus odd numbers
c. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program
d. Let the researcher decide which group will be the best
16. Which term is not a related to counterbalancing?
a. Carryover effect
b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects
d. Matching
17. A cell is a combination of two or more ____ in a factorial design.
a. Research designs
b. Research measurements
c. Dependent variables
d. Independent variables
18. Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for
rival hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment?
a. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
b. Posttest-only control-group design
c. Pretest-posttest control-group design
d. Both b and c are excellent designs
19. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type on the
independent variable that is presented to the different comparison groups is
known as _____. a. Amount technique b. Absence technique c. Type technique
d. Presence technique
20. Which of the following terms is a sequencing effect that occurs from the
order in which the treatment conditions are administered?
a. Carry-over effect b. Order effect c. Sequencing effects d. None of the
above
21. When manipulating the independent variable in an educational
experiment, which of the following describes this method?
a. An independent variable is manipulated using the presence or absence
technique
b. The researchers varies the amount of the independent variable that is
administered
c. The researcher varies the type of the independent variable
d. All of the above are possible
22. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes
precedence over all other methods?
a. Matching individual participants
b. Holding extraneous variables
c. Building the extraneous variable into the research design
d. Counterbalancing
e. Randomly assign research participants to the groups
23. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and
identify the effect produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable
d. Confounding variable
24. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all
experimental treatment conditions.
a. Factorial design
b. Repeated measures design
c. Replicated design
d. Pretest-posttest control-group design
25. A factorial design is one in which ____.
a. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the
dependent variable
b. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine
their independent
and interactive effects on the dependent variable
c. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to
determine their independent
and interactive effects on the dependent variable
d. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects
26. The design in which one group of research participants is administered a
treatment and is then compared, on the dependent variable, with another
group of research participants who did not receive the experimental
treatment is ____.
a. One-group posttest-only design
b. One-group pretest-posttest design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. time series design
27. _____ refers to the influence of a single independent variable.
a. Interaction effect
b. Reactive effect
c. Main effect
d. Proactive effect
28. A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment
condition is influenced by participation in a prior treatment condition is
known as ____.
a. Counterbalancing effect b. Carryover effect c. Treatment effect d. Order
effect
29. Which of the following is possible in a factorial design with two
independent variables?
a. There is only one main effect present b. There are two main effects
present
c. There are two main effects and an interaction effect present
d. All of the above are possible
30. Which of the following is a factorial design where different participants
are randomly assigned to the levels of one independent variable but
participants take all levels on another independent variable?
a. One-group pretest-posttest
b. Pretest-posttest control-group design
c. Factorial design
d. Factorial design based on a mixed model
Answers:
1. a
2. c
3. a
4. d
5. c
6. a
7. d
8. d
9. b
10. c
11. a
12. c
13. b
14. a
15. c
16. d
17. d
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. d
22. e
23. c
24. b
25. c
26. c
27. c
28. b
29. d
30. d
Chapter 10
1. A researcher does a study examining the effects of a preschool program.
He uses a nonequivalent comparison group design. He finds that the
cognitive growth of his experimental group is greater than that of his control.
Unfortunately, he later finds that in general children who live in the area
where he drew his experimental group tend to grow faster cognitively than
children who were from the area where he drew his control group. When he
discovered this problem, he discovered what threat to the internal validity of
his study?
a. Selection-maturation effect
b. History effect
c. Selection-instrumentation effect
d. Testing effect
2. For a treatment to be deemed effective when used in the context of an A-
B-A single case design, what has to occur?
a. Behavior should change as the treatment is implemented
b. Behavior should return to baseline levels when the treatment is removed
c. When the treatment is removed, behavior should stay at the level that was
created by the
treatment rather than revert back to the baseline
d. Both a and b
3. In a changing-criterion design, changes in criterion are best done:
a. As soon as the prior criterion is met
b. When the previous criterion is met and the behavior has stabilized
c. Regardless of the previous criteria
d. After a fixed number of trials
4. The non-equivalent comparison group design is a quasi-experimental
design in which, for reasons of practicality, we cannot insure that the control
and experimental groups are equivalent to each other when the experiment
begins. The major interpretational difficulty imposed by this design is:
a. Measuring whether the two groups are different from each other on the
posttest
b. Deciding how much each group has gained
c. Determining when enough data points are collected
d. Being sure that any differences between groups at the end of the
experiment are
due to the independent variable’s influence and not due to preexisting group
differences
5. A treatment effect is demonstrated in the regression discontinuity design
by:
a. A discontinuity in the regression line
b. A significant difference in the pretest and posttest scores
d. The demonstration of an interaction
6. Which of the following is a primary threat to the interrupted time-series
design? a. History effect b. Selection-history
c. Selection-maturation
d. All of the above 7. A design consisting of an experimental and a control
group but participants are not randomly assigned to the groups is which of
the following? a. Interrupted time-series design b. Nonequivalent comparison-
group design c. Single case design
d. A-B-A-B design
8. A form of the nonequivalent comparison-group design is recommended
when ____.
a. It is not possible to control for a basic history effect
b. It is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups
c. It is not possible to identify two groups
d. All of the above
9. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design
is the _____ effect.
a. Selection-maturation effect
c. Selection-regression
d. All of the above are threats
10. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design
is the _____ effect.
a. Maturation effect
c. Failure to revert to baseline
d. All of the above
11. How many variables should be changed at a time when conducting a
single-case design?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
12. In quasi-experimental research designs, causal interpretations can be
made _______.
a. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be plausible
b. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be implausible
c. Only when the participants have been randomly selected
d. Only when there is a single participant in the experiment
13. In single-case research, “baseline” refers to ________.
a. The beginning point of the treatment condition
b. The end point of the treatment condition
c. The rate of response established prior to the experimental intervention
d. The time during which a treatment condition is administered
14. Which type of design can be used when the goal is to create a step-by-
step increase (or decrease) in the amount, accuracy, or frequency of some
behavior over a period of time?
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
b. A-B-A-B
c. Changing-criterion design
d. A-B design
15. Which of the following occurs in a comparison group design when one of
the two groups of participants grows or naturally develops faster than the
other group?
a. Main effect
b. Sequencing effect
c. Order effect
d. Selection-maturation effect
16. An observation of a dependent variable response prior to any attempt to
change this response is known as the ___________.
a. Flat line
b. Baseline
c. Variance
d. Reverse
17. The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the _________
design.
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group
b. Interrupted time-series
c. Changing-criterion
d. Regression discontinuity
18. A baseline _____________.
a. Is used as the standard against which change induced by the treatment is
assessed
b. Is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural state
c. Is first obtained prior to the administration of a treatment
d. All of the above are true
19. A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is
compared to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called
what?
a. A-B-A design
b. Single-case design
c. Multiple-baseline
d. Changing-criterion
20. In a single-case design, you hope that the behavior of the participants
prior to the administration of a treatment condition is ________.
a. Not highly variable
b. Highly variable
c. Moving at a steep rate of change
21. The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating that the
dependent variable response reverts back to the baseline when the
treatment is withdrawn.
a. Changing-criterion design
b. A-B
c. A-B-A design
d. Interrupted time-series design
22. Which design would use analysis of covariance during data analysis?
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
b. Interrupted time-series design
c. Changing criterion design
d. A-B-A-B design
23. The interrupted time-series design can also be viewed as a(n):
a. A-B design
b. A-B-A design
c. A-B-A-B design
d. Control-group design
24. Why is it important to change one variable at a time in single case
designs? a. Changing one variable allows isolation of the cause of the change
b. Changing more than one variable at a time confounds those independent
variables c. Both a and b are true d. None of the above
25. What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design?
a. Both designs end on the treatment condition
b. Neither design ends on a treatment condition c. Baseline conditions are
only established in the A-B-A-B design d. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of
the treatment condition during the last phase
26. Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design?
a. Baseline measurement
b. Introduction of treatment
c. Introduction of a second treatment
d. Removal of treatment
27. Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the
selection-maturation effect in the nonequivalent comparison-group design by
matching experimental and control participants on important variables.
a. True
b. False
28. Group comparison designs are always superior to single-case designs.
a. True
b. False
Answers:
1. a
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. a
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. d
10. b
11. d
12. b
13. c
14. c
15. d
16. b
17. a
18. d
19. a
20. a
21. c
22. a
23. a
24. c
25. d
26. c
27. a
28. b
Chapter 11
1. The number of police officers and the number of crimes are positively
related. This relationship is:
a. A causal relationship
b. A direct relationship
c. A probabilistic causal relation
d. A spurious relationship
2. A research studies the relation between early reading and later school
achievement. She decides that a potentially extraneous variable in the
relationship is IQ. In developing her groups for her study, she pairs each child
who was an early reader with a child of the same IQ level who was not an
early reader. The control technique she used was:
a. Holding the extraneous variable constant
b. Statistical control
c. Matching
d. Random assignment
3. Partial correlation analysis involves:
a. Examining the relationship between two or more variables controlling for
additional
variables statistically
b. Including only one group in a correlational analysis
c. Matching participants on potential confounding variables
d. Limiting the sample to individuals at a constant level of an extraneous
variable
4. The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see
what types of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. They
randomly sample students from the program and have them fill out
questionnaires with items asking about the types of jobs they have had. They
also are asked to describe the roles they play in their current positions. This
project is best described as having what kind of objective:
a. Descriptive
b. Predictive
c. Explanatory
5. When research is done to test hypotheses and theories about how and why
phenomena operate as they do, then the primary purpose of such research
is:
a. Descriptive
b. Predictive
c. Explanatory
6. The variable the researcher matches to eliminate it as an alternative
explanation is called a(n) _________ variable.
a. Matching
b. Independent
c. Dependent
d. Partial
7. Which of the following is not a longitudinal design?
a. Panel
b. Cross-sectional
c. Trend
d. Both a and c are longitudinal designs
8. The positive correlation between teachers’ salaries and the price of liquor
is _________.
a. Spurious
b. Due to a third-variable
c. Nonspurious
d. Both a and b
9. Which of the following is considered a special case of the general linear
model?
a. A variable
b. Partial correlation
d. Both b and c
10. When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves
backwards, it is called ________.
a. Predictive research
b. Retrospective research
c. Exploratory research
d. Descriptive research
11. The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for
identifying rival explanations.
a. True
b. False
12. GLM refers to which of the following?
a. General Logit Model
b. General Limited Model
c. General Lab Model
d. General Linear Model
13. The post hoc fallacy is ____.
a. Making the argument that because A preceded B, A must have caused B
b. Making the argument that because A preceded B, A and B must be

correlated
c. Making the argument that because A preceded B, they cannot be

correlated
14. Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research?

a. Determine research problem and hypotheses
b. Analyze data
c. Interpret results
d. All are steps
15. If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.

a. The observed result is probably not due to chance
b. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chance
c. The observed result is probably a chance result
d. The null hypothesis of “no relationship” is probably true
16. Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for causation?
a. The relationship condition
b. The temporal antecedence condition
c. The lack of alternative explanation condition
d. All of the above
17. Which of the following independent variables cannot be manipulated in a
research study?
a. Gender
b. Ethnicity
c. Intelligence and other traits
d. None of ht above can be manipulated in a research study
18. __________ is a form of explanatory research in which the researcher
develops a theoretical model and empirically tests the model to determine
how well the model fits the data.
a. Causal modeling
b. Predictive research
c. Descriptive research
d. Exploratory research
19. Nonexperimental research in which the primary independent variable of
interest is categorical is sometimes called_____________.
a. Causal-comparative research
b. Correlational research
20. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is
causal?
a. Causal-comparative
b. Correlational
c. Experimental
d. Historical
21. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is
causal?
a. Causal-comparative
b. Correlational
c. One CANNOT say without additional information (i.e., it could be either
depending
on how well the researcher established the three necessary conditions for
cause
and effect)
22. _______ is the most commonly used technique for controlling for
extraneous variables in nonexperimental research.
a. Matching
b. Holding extraneous variables constant
c. Statistical control
d. Static control
23. It is best to use the method of working multiple hypotheses when _____. a.
You are finished with your research b. You are planning your research study
c. You are hoping to publish your already obtained research results d. None of
the above 24. Matching can be done when your independent variable is
categorical or quantitative. a. True b. False
25. If a correlation coefficient is .96, we would probably be able to say that
the relationship is ____.
a. Weak
b. Strong
c. Statistically significant
d. b is true and c is probably true
26. What happens in a completely spurious relationship once the researcher
controls for a confounding third-variable?
a The relationship between the original variables will get stronger
b. The relationship between the original variables will remain unchanged
c. The correlation coefficient will get closer to 1.0
d. The relationship between the original variables will get weaker or, if the
original relationship
is fully spurious, it will disappear (i.e., the original relationship will become
zero as
measured by a correlation coefficient)
27. Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is almost
always problematic in nonexperimental research?
a. Condition 1: Variable A and Variable B must be related (the relationship
condition).
b. Condition 2: Proper time order must be established (the temporal
antecedence condition).
c. Condition 3: The relationship between variable A and Variable B must not
be due to some
confounding extraneous variable"
d. Nonexperimental research is always weak on all three of the conditions
28. Which of the following is NOT a form of longitudinal research?
a. Trend study
b. Panel study
c. Cross-sectional study
29. Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient grounds
for concluding that the relationship is a causal relationship.
a. True
b. False
30. This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals over an
extended period of time.
a. Trend study
b. Panel study
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
31. This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain
how and why a phenomenon operates as it does.
a. Descriptive research
b. Predictive research
c. Explanatory research
32. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of
_________ relationship present between two variables.
a. Curvilinear
b. Nonlinear
c. Linear and quadratic
d. Linear
Answers:
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. a
5. c
6. a
7. d
8. d
9. d
10. b
11. a
12. d
13. a
14. d
15. a
16. d
17. d
18. a
19. a
20. c
21. c
22. c
23. b
24. a
25. d
26. d
27. c
28. c
29. a
30. b
31. c
32. d
Chapter 12
1. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Generalization to the population
b. Random sampling
c. Unique case orientation
d. Standardized tests and measures
2. Phenomenology has its disciplinary origins in:
a. Philosophy
b. Anthropology
c. Sociology
d. Many disciplines
3. The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is:
a. Open, axial, and selective coding
b. Holistic description and search for cultural themes
c. Cross-case analysis
d. Identifying essences of a phenomenon
4. The term used to describe suspending preconceptions and learned feelings
about a phenomenon is called:
a. Axial coding
b. Design flexibility
c. Bracketing
d. Ethnography
5. A researcher studies how students who flunk out of high school
experienced high
school. She found that it was common for such students to report that they
felt like they had little control of their destiny. Her report that this lack of
control was an invariant part of the students’ experiences suggests that lack
of control is _______ of the “flunking out” experience.
a. A narrative
b. A grounded theory
c. An essence
d. A probabilistic cause
6. The specific cultural conventions or statements that people who share a
culture hold to be true or false are called ______.
a. Shared attitudes
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms
7. The written and unwritten rules that specify appropriate group behavior
are called _____.
a. Shared attitudes
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms
8. Which of the following is not an advantage of studying multiple cases?
a. Multiple cases can be compared for similarities and differences
b. Multiple cases can more effectively test a theory than a single case
c. Generalizations about population are usually better when based on
multiple cases.
d. Cost is lower and depth of analysis is easier when you study multiple cases
in a
single research study
9. _____ are the standards of a culture about what is good or bad or desirable
or undesirable.
a. Shared attitudes
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms
10. _________ is the study of human consciousness and individuals’
experience of some phenomenon.
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Case study research
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?

a. Design flexibility b. Inductive analysis c. Context sensitivity d. All of the
above
12. ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based on
data systematically gathered and analyzed.
a. Theory confirmation
b. Grounded theory
c. Theory deduction
d. All of the above
13. The final stage in grounded theory data analysis is called ___________.
a. Axial coding
b. Theoretical saturation
c. Constant comparative method
d. Selective coding
14. Which major characteristic of qualitative research refers to studying real
world situations as they unfold naturally?
a. Holistic perspective
b. Naturalistic inquiry
c. Dynamic systems
d. Inductive analysis
15. In which qualitative research approach is the primary goal to gain access
to individuals’ inner worlds of experience?
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Case study
16. The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of
people is called ____.
a. Phenomenology
b. Grounded theory
c. Ethnography
d. Case study
17. The grounded theorist is finished analyzing data when theoretical
saturation occurs.
a. True
b. False
18. In which of the following case study designs does the researcher focus
her primary interest on understanding something more general than the
particular case?
a. Intrinsic case study
b. Instrumental case study
c. Collective case study
d. It could be b or c
19. Which of the following phrases best describes "ethnocentrism"?
a. Special words or terms used by the people in a group
b. An external, social scientific view of reality
c. The study of the cultural past of a group of people
d. Judging people from a different culture according to the standards of your
own culture
20. Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of qualitative
research?
a. Design flexibility
b. Dynamic systems
c. Naturalistic inquiry
d. Deductive design
21. Which of the following involves the studying of multiple cases in one
research study?
a. Intrinsic case study
b. Single case study
c. Instrumental case study
d. Collective case study
22. Which of the following does not apply to qualitative research?
a. Data are often words and pictures
b. Uses the inductive scientific method
c. Ends with a statistical report
d. Involves direct and personal contact with participants
23. The difference between ethnographic research and other types of
qualitative research is that ethnographers specifically use the concept of
“culture” to help understand the results.
a. True
b. False
24. What term refers to the insider's perspective?
A. Ethnocentrism
B. Emic perspective
C. Etic perspective
D. Holism
25. In data analysis of the grounded theory approach, the step which focuses
on the main idea, developing the story line, and finalizing the theory is called
________.
a. Open coding
b. Axial coding
c. Selective coding
d. Theoretical saturation
26. Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to qualitative
research.
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
c. Case study
d. Grounded theory
e. Nonexperimental
27. In "phenomenology," a well written report will be highly descriptive of the
participants’ experiences and will often elicit in the reader a feeling that they
feel as though they are experiencing the phenomenon themselves. This
experience is called _____.
a. A phenomenal experience
b. A vicarious experience
c. A significant experience
d. A dream
28. You want to study a Native American group in New Mexico for a six month
period to learn all you can about them so you can write a book about that
particular tribe. You want the book to be accurate and authentic as well as
informative and inspiring. What type of research will you likely be conducting
when you get to New Mexico?
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
c. Grounded theory
d. Collective case study
29. The emic perspective refers to an external, social scientific view of
reality.
a. True
b. False
30. _________ is used to describe cultural scenes or the cultural characteristics
of a group of people.
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Instrumental case study
31. Terms such as “geeks,” “book worms,” “preps,” are known as _____
terms.
a. Emic
b. Etic
32. When a researcher identifies so completely with the group being studied
that he or she can no longer remain objective you have what is called
_________.
a. Culture shock
b. Going native
c. Regression
d. Cultural relativism
Answers:
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. c
6. b
7. d
8. d
9. c
10. a
11. d
12. b
13. d
14. b
15. a
16. c
17. a
18. d
19. d
20. d
21. d
22. c
23. a
24. b
25. c
26. e
27. b
28. a
29. b
30. b
31. a
32. b
Chapter 13
1. A researcher was interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s
failed. She interviews several teachers who used the new math during the
1960s. These teachers are considered:
a. Primary sources
b. Secondary Sources
c. External critics
d. Internal critics
2. The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is
referred to as:
a. Sourcing
b. Internal criticism
c. Secondary criticism
d. External criticism
3. A researcher studying the history of medical education finds a manuscript
that purports to be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes
to three other experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is
authentic or not. His authentification of the object is referred to as:
a. Positive criticism
c. Secondary criticism
d. External criticism
4. A historical researcher studying the implementation of the “new math”
during the 1960s uses as a source a text written on the subject by a critic
who was a mathematics teacher during that time period. As she examines
the document, she discovers that the data that the individual based his or her
conclusions on was falsified. Hence, the conclusions drawn were erroneous.
Her analysis of the document to check its accuracy is referred to as:
a. Positive criticism
c. External criticism
d. Secondary criticism
5. A researcher is interested in studying approaches to teaching writing in
schools during the 1800s. She discovers a grammar book, but there is no
author or copyright date in the book. She examines the typeface in the book
as well as the writing style. After investigating further, she finds a reference
to the book from a teacher’s diary from the 1800s. The diary also mentions
an author’s name. After further searching around she is able to identify the
author of the book. The investigator was engaged in what process?
a. Sourcing
b. Positive criticism
c. Presentism
d. Axial coding
6. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons?
a. To identify the relationship that the past has to the present
b. To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities
c. To enhance understanding of the culture in which we live
d. To uncover the unknown
e. All of the above
7. Historical research is interpretative.
a. True
b. False
8. The following is a step in the process of historical research?
a. Preparing a report or narrative exposition
b. Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or
question
c. Data synthesis
d. Data collection and/or literature review
e. All of the above
9. Oral histories can be based on ______.
a. Interviews with people
b. Stories and tales
c. Songs
d. All of the above
10. In historical research, a primary source _________.
a. Consists of first hand accounts by witnesses to events
b. Can consist of sources that include original maps, diaries, transcripts of the
minutes of a
meeting, and photographs
c. Both a and b
11. In historical research secondary sources are _________.
a. Generally considered more useful that primary sources
b. Generally considered less useful than primary sources
12. In evaluating historical research sources, external criticism ________.
a. Can involve the use of carbon dating and handwriting experts
b. Helps determine the validity, trustworthiness or authenticity of a source
c. Can involve use of historical linguists’ knowledgeable with the writing style
of the period
d. All of the above
13. Contextualization refers to the process of identifying when and where an
event took place.
a. True
b. False
14. The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information
contained in the sources collected is known as ______.
a. External criticism
c. Vagueness
d. Presentism
15. Presentism in historical sources ________.
a. Is the presence of the author in a historical source
b. Is a first-hand accounts of events
c. Is the assumption that the present-day connotations of terms also existed
in the past
d. Is the assumption that the past influences the present
16. “Comparing document to each other to determine whether they provide
the same information or reach the same conclusion” is known as ________.
a. Contextualization
b. Sourcing
c. Corroboration
d. Negative criticism
17. The “identification of when and where an event took place” is known as
_____.
a. Contextualization
b. Sourcing
c. Corroboration
d. Negative criticism
18. Three heuristics suggested by Wineburg (1991) for evaluating documents
are:
a. Corroboration, sourcing, and contextualization
b. Sourcing, internal criticism, and external criticism
c. Corroboration, internal criticism and external criticism
d. Contextualization, corroboration and presentism
19. In historical research, data synthesis usually does not include ______.
a. Defining and interpreting key words, phrases and terms
b. Chronologically ordering events
c. Differentiating between how people should behave and how they did
behave
d. Inferring causation based on simple correlation
e. Maintaining a distinction between intent and consequences
20. When writing their narratives, many historical researchers prefer to use
_____.
a. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (1994)
b. The Chicago Manual of Style
c. The Historical Manual of Style
d. The Historian’s Manual of Style
Answers:
1. a
2. d
3. d
4. b
5. a
6. e
7. a
8. e
9. d
10. c
11. b
12. d
13. a
14. b
15. c
16. c
17. a
18. a
19. d
20. b
Chapter 14
1. According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative
and qualitative techniques are mixed in a single study is specifically called:
a. Mixed research
b. Mixed method research
c. Mixed model research
d. Multimethod research
2. According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative
and qualitative approaches are mixed within or across the stages of the
research process is specifically called:
a. Mixed research
3. According to the typology used in your text, research in which a
quantitative phase and a qualitative phase are included in the overall
research study is specifically called:
a. Mixed research
4. The use of a qualitative research objective, collection of qualitative data,
and performance of quantitative analysis is an example of:
a. Mixed method research
b. Within-stage mixed model research
c. Across-stage mixed model research
d. Monomethod research
5. The use of a quantitative research objective, collection of quantitative
data, and the use of quantitative data analysis is known as:
a. Mixed method research
b. Within-stage mixed model research
c. Across-stage mixed model research
d. Monomethod research
6. Mixed researchers typically use the pragmatist philosophy.
a. True
b. False
7. The pragmatist philosophy is most closely associated with which of the
following positions?
a. The incompatibility thesis
b. The compatibility thesis
8. Which of the following is a weakness of quantitative research?
a. Provides precise, numerical data
b. The researcher’s categories that are used might not reflect local
constituencies’
understandings
c. Testing hypotheses that are constructed before the data are collected
d. Can study a large number of people
9. Which of the following is a weakness of qualitative research?
a. The results are more easily influenced by the researcher’s personal
idiosyncrasies
b. Data are based on the participant’s own categories of meaning
c. Can determine idiographic causation
d. Useful for describing complex phenomena
10. Which of the following is a weakness of mixed research?
a. Words, pictures, and narrative can be used to add meaning to numbers
b. Researchers can generate and test a grounded theory
c. Numbers can be used to add precision to words, pictures, and narrative
d. It is more time consuming and expensive
11. If you develop and use a questionnaire that includes closed-ended and
open-ended items then you have done which type of research?
a. Within-stage mixed model research
b. Across-stage mixed model research
12. Here is a mixed design using notation: “QUAL-->quan” What type of
mixed research is this?
a. Mixed model
b. Mixed method
13. Here is a mixed design using notation: QUAL + QUAN. What does this
mean?
a. Qualitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a quantitative
phase
b. Quantitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a qualitative
phase
c. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status but the qualitative
phase occurs
before the quantitative phase
d. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status and they are done
concurrently
14. What would this mixed method design be called: Qual-->QUAN
a. Dominant-status sequential design
b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design
d. Equal-status concurrent design
15. What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL-->QUAN
16. What would this mixed method design be called: Qual + QUAN
17. What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL + QUAN
18. Which of the following cannot be a purpose or rationale for a mixed
research design?
a. Triangulation
b. Complementarity
c. Development
d. Initiation
e. Expansion
f. All of the above can be purposes
19. Which of the following mixed research rationales seeks elaboration,
enhancement, illustration, clarification of the results from one method with
the results from the other method?
a. Triangulation
b. Complementarity
c. Development
d. All of the above
20. What two questions must be answered in order to select one of the
specific mixed method designs provided in the textbook?
a. Is the qualitative or quantitative paradigm going to be given priority, or will
they be
given equal status in your study?
b. Should the qualitative and quantitative components be carried out
concurrently or
sequentially
c. Should the study be theory driven or data driven?
d. a and c
e. a and b
21. A researcher wants to understand why people are willing to handle
snakes as a part of their church activities in several rural churches in
Tennessee, Alabama, and Georgia. He makes qualitative observations at
several churches but also hands out fairly lengthy
instruments that quantitatively measure several constructs (IQ, religiousity,
self-esteem, and a political attitudes). He keeps the qualitative and
quantitative data separate during analysis. He does some mixing during the
discussion of his report about the qualitative and quantitative insights are
related. Which design is this?
Answers:
1. a
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. d
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. a
10. d
11. a
12. b
13. d
14. a
15. b
16. c
17. d
18. f
19. b
20. e
21. d
Chapter 15
1. What is the median of the following set of scores?
18, 6, 12, 10, 14 ?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 18
d. 12
2. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard
deviation of the mean in a normal distribution?
a. 34%
b. 95%
c. 99%
d. 68%
3. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is
a. The standard deviation
b. The difference between a score and the mean

c. The range
d. The mean
4. Let's suppose we are predicting score on a training posttest from number

of years
of education and the score on an aptitude test given before training. Here is
the regression
equation Y = 25 + .5X1 +10X2,
where X1 = years of education and X2 = aptitude test score.
What is the
predicted score for someone with 10 years of education and a aptitude test
score of 5?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 35
d. 80
5. The standard deviation is:
a. The square root of the variance
b. A measure of variability
c. An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from the mean
d. All of the above
6. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.
a. True
b. False
7. A set of data organized in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns)
format is known as a “data set.”
a. True
b. False
8. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____.
a. Line graph
b. Bar graph
c. Scatterplot
d. Vertical graph
9. The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific
set of data.
a. Inferential statistics
b. Descriptive statistics
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
10. The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the ____.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range
11. As a general rule, the _______ is the best measure of central tendency
because it is more precise.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range
12. Focusing on describing or explaining data versus going beyond
immediate data and making inferences is the difference between _______.
a. Central tendency and common tendency
b. Mutually exclusive and mutually exhaustive properties
c. Descriptive and inferential
d. Positive skew and negative skew
13. Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of
variability?
a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical
analysis
b. They are the most simple to calculate with large data sets
c. They provide nominally scaled data
14. ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values
of a dependent variable based on the values of one or more independent
variables.
a. Regression analysis
b. Regression coefficient
c. Regression equation
d. Regression line
15. The ______ is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic
average.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. All of the above
16. ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship
between two quantitative variables.
a. Bar graphs
b. Pie graphs
c. Line graphs
d. Scatterplots
17. The _______ is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data
are severely skewed.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range
18. Which of the following is the formula for range?
a. H + L
b. L x H
c. L - H
d. H – L
19. Which is a raw score that has been transformed into standard deviation
units?
a. z score
b. SDU score
c. t score
d. e score
20. Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?
a. Median
b. Variance
c. Standard deviation
d. Range
21. Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency?
a. Mode
b. Range
c. Median
d. Mean
22. What is the median of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?
a. 7.5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 4
23. What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?
a. 7.5
b. 400,005.2
c. 7
d. 4
24. Which of the following is interpreted as the percentage of scores in a
reference group that falls below a particular raw score?
a. Standard scores
b. Percentile rank
c. Reference group
25. The median is ______.
a. The middle point
b. The highest number
c. The average
d. Affected by extreme scores
26. Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of
scores?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range
27. If a test was generally very easy, except for a few students who had very
low scores, then the distribution of scores would be _____.
a. Positively skewed
b. Negatively skewed
c. Not skewed at all
d. Normal
28. How many dependent variables are used in multiple regression?
a. One
b. One or more
c. Two or more
d. Two
29. Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle
point in a set of numbers arranged in order of magnitude?
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Mean
d. Variance
30. If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is __________.
a. Negatively skewed
b. Positively skewed
c. Symmetrically skewed
d. Symmetrical
31. In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?
a. Mutually exclusive
b. Exhaustive
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
32. When a set of numbers is heterogeneous, you can place more trust in the
measure of central tendency as representing the typical person or unit.
a. True
b. False
33. Non-overlapping categories or intervals are known as ______.
a. Inclusive
b. Exhaustive
c. Mutually exclusive
d. Mutually exclusive and exhaustive
34. To interpret the relationship between two categorical variables, a

contingency table should be constructed with either column or row
percentages, and ----.
a. If the percentages are calculated down the columns, then comparisons
should be made across
the rows
b. If the percentages are calculated across the rows, comparisons should be
made down the
columns
c. Both a and b are correct
d. Neither a nor b is correct
Answers:
1. d
2. d
3. a
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. a
8. b
9. b
10. c
11. a
12. c
13. a
14. a
15. a
16. d
17. b
18. d
19. a
20. a
21. b
22. c
23. b
24. b
25. a
26. a
27. b
28. a
29. b
30, a
31. c
32. b
33. c
34. c
Chapter 16
1. Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?
a. SD
b. σ
c. r
d. 0
2. If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated the
mean for each of the samples, and constructed a line graph (showing the
shape of the distribution) based on all of those means, what would you have?
a. A population distribution
b. A sample distribution
c. A sampling distribution
d. A parameter distribution
3. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?
a. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in
the long run
b. You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population
parameter
c. You can be “5% confident” that your interval will not include the population
parameter
d. All of the above statements are true
4. What would happen (other things equal) to a confidence interval if you
calculated a 99 percent confidence interval rather than a 95 percent
confidence interval?
a. It will be narrower
b. It will not change
c. The sample size will increase
d. It will become wider
5. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?
a. The coin is not fair
b. There is a correlation in the population
c. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
d. The defendant is guilty
6. The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how
many group means?
a. Three or more
b. Two or more
7. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?
a. Sampling error
b. Sample error
c. Standard error
d. Simple error
8. Hypothesis testing and estimation are the two key branches of the field of
inferential statistics?
a. True
b. False
9. A ______ is a subset of a _________.
a. Sample, population
b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter
d. Parameter, statistic
10. A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a
numerical characteristic of a population.
a. Sample, population
b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter
d. Parameter, statistic
11. A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following?
a. Sample means
b. Sample correlations
c. Sample proportions
d. All of the above
12. As a general rule, researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence
intervals.
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 50%
13. Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting
when he or she is engaging in hypothesis testing?
a. The alternative hypothesis
b. The null hypothesis
c. Both the alternative and null hypothesis
d. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis
14. When p<.05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed
relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis
(assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True
b. False
15. When p>05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed
relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis
(assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True
b. False
16. _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence
interval.
a. Confidence intervals
b. Confidence limits
c. Levels of confidence
d. Margin of error
17. _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null
hypothesis is actually false.
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Type III error
d. Type IV error
18. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.

a. Repeated sampling
b. Small sample
c. Large sample
d. Large population
19. The car will probably cost about 16,000 dollars; this number sounds more
like a(n):
a. Point estimate
b. Interval estimate
20. Identify which of the following steps would not be included in hypothesis
testing.
a. State the null and alternative hypotheses
b. Set the significance level before the research study
c. Eliminate all outliers
d. Obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSS
e. Compare the probability value to the significance level and make the
statistical decision
21. A ________ is a range of numbers inferred from the sample that has a
certain probability of including the population parameter over the long run.
a. Hypothesis
b. Lower limit
c. Confidence interval
d. Probability limit
22. ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.
a. Standard error
b. Sample standard deviation
c. Replication error
d. Meta error
23. An effect size indicator is a statistical measure of the strength of a
relationship.
a. True
b. False
24. Which of the following can be viewed as an effect size indicator?
a. r-squared
b. r
c. Eta-squared
d. Omega-squared
e. All of the above
25. When the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, a ____ error occurs.
a. Type I
b. Type A
c. Type II
d. Type B
26. A post hoc test is ___.
a. A test to compare two or more means in one overall test
b. A test to determine regression to the mean
c. A follow-up test to the analysis of variance when there are three or more
groups
d. A follow-up test to the independent t-test
27. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical
conclusions about populations based on sample data is referred to as
___________.
a. Descriptive statistics
b. Inferential statistics
c. Sample statistics
d. Population statistics
28. A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as
_____.
a. One-way analysis of variance
b. Post hoc test
c. t-test for correlation coefficients
d. Simple regression
29. A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is
statistically significant is called the ___________.
a. One-way analysis of variance
b. t-test for independent samples
c. Chi-square test for contingency tables
d. t-test for correlation coefficients
30. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null
hypothesis is called the:
a. Significance level
b. Alpha level
c. Probability value
d. Both a and b are correct
31. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the widest (i.e., the least
precise) for a particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases?
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 90%
32. As sample size goes up, what tends to happen to 95% confidence
intervals?
a. They become more precise
b. They become more narrow
c. They become wider
d. Both a and b
33. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Type A error
d. Type B error
34. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of
hypothesis testing?
a. When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejected
b. When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
c. When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejected
d. When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejected
e. Both b and c are true
35. What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation?
a. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of the population
parameter?
b. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of normal distribution?
c. Is the value of my sample statistic unlikely enough for me to reject the null
hypothesis?
d. There is no key question in statistical estimation
36. Assuming innocence until “proven” guilty, a Type I error occurs when an
innocent person is found guilty.
a. True
b. False
37. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding
population parameter.
a. Standard error
b. Sampling error
c. Difference error
38. The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting
hypothesis testing?
a. Null
b. Alternative
c. It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis
39. A Type I error is also known as a ______.
a. False positive
b. False negative
c. Double negative
d. Positive negative
40. A Type II error is also known as a ______.
a. False positive
b. False negative
c. Double negative
d. Positive negative
41. If a finding is statistically significant one must also interpret the data,
calculate an effect size indicator, and make an assessment of practical
significance.
a. True
b. False
42. The p-value used in statistical significance testing should be used to
assess how strong a relationship is. For example, if relationship A has a
p=.04 and relationship B has a p=.03 then you can conclude that relationship
B is stronger than relationship A.
a. True
b. False
Answers:
1. b
2. c
3. d
4. d
5. c
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. a
10. c
11. d
12. b
13. a
14. a
15. b
16. b
17. b
18. c
19. a
20. c
21. c
22. a
23. a
24. e
25. a
26. c
27. b
28. a
29. d
30. d
31. a
32. d
33. b
34. e
35. a
36. a
37. b
38. a
39. a
40. b
41. a
42. b
Chapter 17
1. A researcher does a study of students' phenomenological feelings about
problem solving. One of her categories of codes involves positive affect. Two
subcategories of that category of positive affect are smiles when solves the
problem, and shouts hooray when finished. The relation between these
subcategories and the overall category of positive affect is:
a. Spatial
b. Sequence
c. Strict inclusion
d. Function
2. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation, "X

is a place in Y; X is part of Y" in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is
labeled:
a. Spatial
b. Rationale
c. Means-end
d. Strict inclusion
3. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation X is
a kind of Y in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled:
a. Spatial
b. Rationale
c. Means-end
d. Strict inclusion
4. A researcher is doing a study of peer groups in middle school. She
interviews 5 girls and 5 boys. She is doing a grounded theory study; hence,
she decides to generate her codes as she scans through her transcriptions of
her data. These codes are labeled:
a. A priori codes
b. Post hoc codes
c. Inductive codes
d. Master list codes
5. Sarah is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents

interact in Head Start Centers. As she examines her data (videotapes and
transcripts), she jots down notes concerning the interactions, generating
hypotheses, suggesting relationships among categories of information she is
examining and so on. This process of jotting notes as she examines the data
is called:
a. Memoing
b. Transcription
c. Facesheet coding
d. Drawing diagrams
6. Qualitative data analysis is still a relatively new and rapidly developing
branch of research methodology.
a. True
b. False
7. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words,
or category names is known as _______.
a. Concurring
b. Coding
c. Coloring
d. Segmenting
8. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single
research study called?
a. Interim analysis
b. Inter analysis
c. Inter-item analysis
d. Constant analysis
9. What is the recording of reflective notes about what you are learning from
your data during data analysis called?
a. Coding
b. Segmenting
c. Memoing
d. Reflecting
10. Which of the following is one of Spradley’s types of relationships?
a. Strict inclusion
b. Sequence
c. Cause-effect
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following is not one of Spradley’s types of relationships?
a. Strict inclusion
b. Sequence
c. Cause-effect
d. Correlational
12. Codes that apply to a complete document or case are called ________.
a. Cover codes
b. False sheet codes
c. Factual codes
d. Facesheet codes
13. A classification system generally used in the social sciences that breaks
something down into different types or levels is called a ________.
a. Diagram
b. Flow chart
c. Hierarchical category system
d. Category
14. When you have high consistency among different coders about the
appropriate codes for a set of data, you have ____.
a. High intercoder reliability
b. High intracoder reliability
15. Codes developed before examining the current data being coded are
called ______.
a. Co-occuring codes
b. Inductive codes
c. A priori codes
d. Facesheet codes
16. The process of quantifying data is referred to as _________.
a. Typology
b. Diagramming
c. Enumeration
d. Coding
17. Which of the following refers to the cyclical process of collecting and
analyzing data during a single research study?
a. Memoing
b. Segmenting
c. Coding
d. Interim analysis
18. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that
they _______.
a. Can reduce time required to analyze data (i.e., after the data are
transcribed)
b. Help in storing and organizing data
c. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time
constraints
d. All of the above
19. _________ are codes that are developed during the process of coding.
a. Inductive codes
b. A priori codes
c. Co-occurring codes
d. Facesheet codes
20. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations.
a. True
b. False
21. __________ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data.
a. Categories
b. Units
c. Individuals
22. When a segment of textual data has overlapping codes, this is called a(n)
__________.
a. Inductive code
b. Co-occurring codes
c. Priori code
d. Facesheet code
23. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written
interviews or field notes into typed text.
a. Segmenting
b. Coding
c. Transcription
d. Memoing
24. Network diagrams show only direct links between variables or events
over time.
a. True
b. False
25. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that
are unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large
pool of data.
a. True
b. False
Answers:
1. c
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. a
6. a
7. b
8. a
9. c
10. d
11. d
12. d
13. c
14. a
15. c
16. c
17. d
18. d
19. a
20. a
21. a
22. b
23. c
24. b
25. a
Chapter 18
1. When a citation includes more than ____ authors, only the surname of the
first author is cited followed by et al.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
2. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report
you should
a. State the first and last name of the author
b. Use the author, date citation method
c. Use an asterisk and a footnote
d. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis
3. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report?
a. IQ
b. sec. for second
c. yr. for year
d. mo. for month
4. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or
sparingly.
a. Italics
b. Abbreviations
c. Headings
d. Both a and b
5. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a
research report of you study for a conference or for publication is
a. Whether the study is free from flaws
b. Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or
publication
c. Whether others would be interested in the work
d. All of the above
6. Which of the following is not true about the use of language in research
reports?
a. You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from bias.
b. You should avoid labeling people whenever possible
c. You should avoid using the term “subjects” whenever possible
d. All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines
7. Regarding disabilities, writers should “avoid equating people with their
disabilities” such as in mentally retarded people.
a. True
b. False
8. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports.
a. True
b. False
9. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability?
a. A stroke victim
b. A person who has had a stroke
10. You should try to use italics frequently when writing a report.
a. True
b. False
11. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly.
a. True
b. False
12. Use words for numbers that begin a sentence and for numbers that are
below ten.
a. True
b. False
13. You should double space all material in the manuscript.
a. True
b. False
14. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research
report?
a. Results
b. Abstract
c. Method
d. Footnotes
15. The Introduction section should not be labeled.
a. True
b. False
16. The abstract should be about how many words?
a. 50
b. 75
c. 120
d. 300
17. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript.
a. True
b. False
18. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Results
d. Discussion
19. Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and
participants did during the research study?
a. Introduction
b. Abstract
c. Procedure
d. Design
20. References should be single spaced.
a. True
b. False
21. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section.
a. True
b. False
22. When writing the qualitative results section, an overriding concern should
be to provide sufficient and convincing evidence to back up your assertions.
a. True
b. False
23. When writing the qualitative results section, you will need to find an
appropriate balance between description and interpretation.
a. True
b. False
24. Diagrams, matrices, tables, and figures should never be used in
qualitative research reports.
a. True
b. False
25. Your textbook authors argued that in qualitative research it is important
to fit the research findings back into the relevant research literature even if
the study is exploratory.
a. True
b. False
Answers:
1. d
2. b
3. a
4. d
5. d
6. d
7. a
8. a
9. b
10. b
11. a
12. a
13. a
14. d
15. a
16. c
17. b
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. b
22. a
23. a
24. b
25. a

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Chapter 1

Multiple Choice Questions

d. Level of higher education

a. Usually based on random selection of participants

b. Only used when one pretest variable needs to be controlled

c. Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*

d. All of the above

a. Not highly variable

c. Moving at a steep rate of change

d. None of the above

a. Making the argument that because A preceded B, A must have caused B

b. Making the argument that because A preceded B, A and B must be

c. Making the argument that because A preceded B, they cannot be

d. None of the above

14. Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research?

d. All are steps

15. If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.

d. Case study research

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?

d. Instrumental case study

a. The standard deviation

b. The difference between a score and the mean

4. Let's suppose we are predicting score on a training posttest from number

d. Mutually exclusive and exhaustive

34. To interpret the relationship between two categorical variables, a

c. Type III error

18. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.

2. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation, "X

b. Post hoc codes

d. Master list codes

5. Sarah is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents

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