Chapter 1--The Role of Business Research Key

1. Business research can be directed toward an element of an organization's internal operations.

TRUE
2. Researchers in different functional areas of a business differ in the respect that they typically
use different research methods.

FALSE

3. Business research is basically about conducting surveys.

FALSE

4. The term "research" means "to search again."

TRUE

5. A business researcher needs to be subjective in order to provide accurate information.

FALSE

6. Business research is restricted to for-profit organizations.

FALSE
7. Conducting research to determine why consumers visit Starbucks is an example of basic
business research.

FALSE
8. The procedures and techniques used by applied researchers and basic researchers
differ substantially.

FALSE
9. The scientific method used by researchers is essentially the same process in social sciences, such
as business, as it is in "hard" sciences, such as biology or physics.

TRUE
10. When ideas can be stated in researchable terms, we reach the hypothesis stage of the
scientific method.

TRUE

1
11. Research plays a more prominent role in product-oriented companies than in customer-
oriented companies.

FALSE

12. Developing and implementing a business strategy involves six stages.

FALSE

13. Performance-monitoring research is primary used to evaluate employees.

FALSE

14. Research should be conducted regardless of how long it will take to perform.

FALSE

15. Communication technologies have impacted business research greatly.

TRUE

16. Which of the following is FALSE regarding business research?

A. Business research covers a wide range of phenomena.

B. Business research is not considered rigorous enough to apply the scientific method.
C. The purpose of business research is to provide knowledge to managers.
D. Business research can be directed toward an element of an organization's internal operations.
17. is the application of the scientific method in searching for the truth about
business phenomena.

A. Management
B. Business
C. Business Research
D. Science
18. Pamela is testing the hypothesis that employees will be more productive working in offices
painted with muted colors rather than bold colors. Pamela is conducting .

A. qualitative research
B. essential research
C. scientific deduction
D. business research
19. All of the following are important aspects of the business research process EXCEPT .

A. gathering information
B. idea and theory development
C. analyzing data
D. making results publicly available
20. Which of the following are the two types of business research based on the specificity of
its purpose?

A. basic and applied

B. scientific and non-scientific
C. cross-sectional and qualitative
D. quantitative and secondary

21. is conducted to address a specific business decision for a specific firm or organization.

A. Basic business research

B. Qualitative business research
C. Quantitative business research
D. Applied business research
22. Campbell's Soup is considering launching a new gumbo product and is testing different recipes with
consumers before full commercialization. What type of research is Campbell's using to determine
which soup consumers will like the best?

A. secondary research
B. basic research
C. applied research
D. test research
23. Which type of research tries to verify a theory or to learn more about a business concept and is
not intended to solve a particular business problem?

A. performance-monitoring research
B. basic research
C. total quality management
D. the scientific method
24. A business professor is examining the relationship between age and ethical business behavior. The
research is not being conducted for any specific business or even industry, but rather it is intended
to better understand and predict this behavior across all aspects of business. This professor is
conducting which type of business research?

A. basic business research

B. formal business research
C. applied business research
D. abstract business research
25. Which of the following refers to the way researchers go about using knowledge and evidence to
reach objective conclusions about the real world?

A. qualitative method
B. quantitative method
C. scientific method
D. primary method

26. All of the following are business orientations EXCEPT .

A. management-oriented
B. product-oriented
C. production-oriented
D. marketing-oriented

27. A production-oriented firm focuses its research on .

A. customers
B. technicians and experts in the field
C. competitive forces outside of the organization
D. line employees, engineers, accountants, and other efficiency experts
28. Wal-Mart is the low-cost leader in retail. This company achieves this success by prioritizing
efficiency in its distribution process. Which business orientation is Wal-Mart exhibiting when it
prioritizes efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain process (i.e., getting products into
the stores) in making decisions?

A. production-orientated
B. product-oriented
C. marketing-oriented
D. technically-oriented
29. A firm focusing more on how to provide value to customers than on the physical product
or production process is embracing which business orientation?

A. marketing orientation
B. quality orientation
C. external orientation
D. value orientation

30. Which of the following is the first step in developing a business strategy?

A. analyzing firm performance

B. identifying problems or opportunities
C. selecting and implementing a course of action
D. diagnosing and assessing problems or opportunities
31. Which of the following is the LAST step in developing and implementing a business strategy?

A. analyzing firm performance

B. evaluating the course of action
C. identifying problems or opportunities
D. diagnosing and assessing problems or opportunities
32. is the formal, objective measurement and appraisal of the extent a given activity, project,
or program has achieved its objectives or whether continuing programs are presently performing
as projected.

A. Monitoring research
B. Performance research
C. Comprehensive research
D. Evaluation research
33. The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) requested research to determine if the financing option the
company implemented for a new capital investment initiative achieved the objective of reducing
the company's tax liability. Which type of research is appropriate for evaluating this course of
action?

A. basic research
B. post-hoc research
C. evaluation research
D. financial research
34. When Target stores monitors the sales activities of its retail stores in order to detect any indication
of dollar sales changes, this is an example of which type of research?

A. relationship marketing research

B. total quality management research
C. basic research
D. performance-monitoring research
35. All of the following are factors considered when deciding whether or not research is needed EXCEPT
.

A. nature of the decision

B. availability of data
C. managerial experience
D. benefits versus costs
36. When a manager decides not to do research because a decision needs to be made before the results
of the study can be analyzed, this is an example of which aspect in the determination of the need for
marketing research?

A. nature of the decision

B. time constraints
C. availability of the data
D. cost considerations
37. In general, the important a decision is strategically to the organization, the likely that
research will be undertaken.

A. less; more
B. more; more
C. more; less
D. none of these choices
38. When a manager is trying to decide whether a new product launch decision should be postponed until
some additional research can be conducted, which of the following questions should this manager
ask himself or herself?

A. Is the proposed research expenditure the best use of the available funds?
B. Will the information gained by business research improve the quality of the business
decision enough to warrant the expenditure?
C. Will the payoff from the research be worth the dollar expenditures for research?
D. all of these choices
39. When conducting research internationally, it is important to research results, which means the
researcher verifies that the empirical findings from one culture also exist and behave similarly in
another culture.

A. cross-validate
B. simulate
C. integrate
D. cross-analyze
40. Consumer research conducted in the United States indicates that many consumers consider the
country of origin when purchasing products, and consumers tend to prefer products that are made in
the U.S.A. To determine if consumers in other countries are partial to their own country's products,
what must be done before the empirical findings from the research conducted among U.S.
consumers also exist and behave similarly in another culture?

A. reliability assessment
B. cultural cross-validation
C. benefit/cost analysis
D. cultural-monitoring research
41. The application of the scientific method in searching for truth about business phenomena is known as
.

business research
42. The two types of business research based on the specificity of its purpose are called basic and
research.

applied
43. Researchers conducting research to address a specific business decision for their business
are conducting research.

applied
44. Research that attempts to verify a theory but which is not intended to solve any specific
business problem is known as research.

basic
45. The way researchers go about using knowledge and evidence to reach objective conclusions about
the real world is known as the method.

scientific
46. When a company focuses all of its efforts aimed at consumers based on its technical superiority
in product design and features, this company is said to be - oriented.

product
47. A orientation focuses more on how the firm provides value to customers than on the physical
product.

marketing

48. The first stage in the development and implementation of a business strategy is .

identifying problems or opportunities

49. The formal, objective measurement and appraisal of the extent a given activity, project, or program
has achieved its objectives is known research.
as

evaluation
50. A company that routinely assesses employee satisfaction to provide feedback for evaluation and
control of the human relations function of the company is using research.

performance-monitoring
51. When empirical evidence from two different cultures suggests that people in one culture act in ways
that are similar to people in a different culture, we say that this fact the hypothesis that the two
cultures are similar to one another.

cross-validates
52. Explain how business research contributes to business success.

Competitive businesses need information to make informed decisions addressing key issues faced.
Research can provide that information. Without it, business decisions involving both tactics and
strategies are made in the dark.

53. Describe basic and applied business research and design an example of each.

Applied business research is conducted to address a specific decision for a specific firm or
organization. It is relatively specific, and an example is Wendy's fast food restaurant trying to
determine if its new veggie burger will be successful or a company's human resource manager
researching which insurance benefits will attract the best employment candidates.

Basic business research is conducted without a specific decision in mind, and it usually does not
address the needs of a specific organization. It attempts to expand the limits of knowledge in
general, and as such is not aimed at solving a particular pragmatic problem. For example, a
researcher might study the effects of CEO age on initial public offering (IPO) valuation.

54. Discuss how business researchers apply the scientific method when conducting research.

The scientific method is the way researchers go about using knowledge and evidence to reach
objective conclusions about the real world. In the scientific method, there are multiple routes to
developing ideas, such as through prior knowledge or observation. When the ideas can be stated in
researchable terms, we reach the hypothesis stage. The next step involves testing the hypothesis
against empirical evidence (facts from observation or experimentation). The results either support a
hypothesis or do not support a hypothesis. From these results, new knowledge is acquired.

55. Explain the differences among a product-oriented firm, a production-oriented firm, and
a marketing-oriented firm and the role business research plays in each.

A product-oriented firm prioritizes decision making in a way that emphasizes technical superiority
in the product. A production-oriented firm prioritizes efficiency and effectiveness of the production
processes in making decisions. In both of these orientations, research may take a backseat. In
contrast, research is a primary tool enabling implementation of a marketing orientation. A
marketing-oriented focuses more on how the firm provides value to customers than on the physical
product or production process. With a marketing-oriented organization the majority of research
focuses on the customer.
56. Discuss how businesses analyze strategic performance and the role performance-monitoring
research performs in this function.

Performance-monitoring research refers to research that regularly, sometimes routinely, provides

feedback for evaluation and control of business activities. Most firms continuously monitor
wholesale and retail activity to ensure early detection of sales declines and other anomalies.
Customer surveys may be conducted to monitor quality management.

57. Discuss the factors that influence whether or not business research is needed.

The determination of the need for business research centers on:

(1) Time constraints - systematic research takes time, and sometimes the urgency of a
situation precludes the use of research.
(2) Availability of data - when managers lack adequate information, data need to be collected
from an appropriate source in a timely fashion.
(3) Nature of the decision - in general, the more strategically or tactically important the decision,
the more likely it is that research will be conducted.
(4) Benefits versus costs - when deciding whether to make a decision without research or to
postpone the decision in order to conduct research requires examining whether the payoff or rate
of return will be worth the investment, whether the information gained by research will improve
the quality of the decision enough to warrant the expenditure, and whether the proposed research
expenditure is the best us of the available funds.

58. Explain why business research, like all business activity, continues to change.

Changes in communication technologies and the trend toward an ever more global marketplace have
played a large role in many of these changes. With respect to communication technologies, virtually
everyone is "connected" today and the speed with which information can be exchanged has increased
tremendously. Changes in computer technology have also made for easier data collection and data
analysis. Time and geography no longer pose major obstacles. The internationalization of research
places greater demands on researchers and heightens the need for research tools that allow us to
cross-validate research results, which means that the empirical findings from one culture also exist
and behave similarly in another culture

9
 Chapter 3--Theory Building Key
1. A theory is an abstract, untestable explanation of some events.

FALSE

2. Knowledge and confirmation are the two purposes of theory.

FALSE

3. Theories allow researchers to build on previous knowledge.

TRUE

4. A concept is a generalized idea about a class of objects, attributes, or occurrences.

TRUE

5. Risk aversion is an example of a construct.

TRUE
6. The hierarchy of theory organizes concepts in sequence from the most concrete and individual to
the most general.

FALSE

7. As concepts become more abstract, the easier it is to measure them.

FALSE
8. The empirical level of the ladder of abstraction is the level of knowledge that is verifiable
by experience or observation.

TRUE
9. The basic or scientific business researcher operates at two levels: on the abstract level of
concepts (and hypotheses) and on the empirical level of variables ( and propositions).

FALSE

10. The term inherent construct refers to a concept that is not directly observable or measurable.

FALSE

1
11. In its simplest form, a research hypothesis is a "guess" about the outcome of a research study.

TRUE

12. Empirical testing means that something has been examined against reality using data.

TRUE

13. A concept is a formal statement explaining some outcome.

FALSE

14. Statistics can be used to prove that a research hypothesis is true.

FALSE
15. The process of identifying the actual measurement scales to asses the variables of interest is known
as operationalizing.

TRUE

16. In most scientific situations there is typically only one theory to explain certain phenomena.

FALSE

17. Theories are derived from deductive reasoning and selective reasoning.

FALSE

18. Deductive reasoning derives a conclusion about a general knowledge based on specific instances.

FALSE
19. The scientific method is a set of prescribed procedures for establishing and connecting theoretical
statements about events, for analyzing empirical evidence, and for predicting events yet
unknown.

TRUE

20. The first step in the scientific method is to formulate concepts and propositions.

FALSE
21. A formal, logical explanation of some events that includes descriptions of how things relate
to one another is called a(n) .

A. hypothesis
B. theory
C. causal statement
D. empirical study
22. Psychologists explain that humans' better recall of information that is presented visually compared to
information presented verbally is due to the fact that the information is stored both visually and
verbally. Because it is stored using this dual-coding process, it is easier to retrieve from memory.
This formal logical explanation of this phenomenon is an example of a(n) .

A. theory
B. construct
C. operationalization
D. abstraction

23. What are the two goals of theory?

A. speculating and confirming

B. understanding and predicting
C. deducting and inducting
D. abstracting and concretizing

24. A(n) is a generalized idea about a class of objects that has been given a name.

A. variable
B. theory
C. node
D. construct

25. Which of the following is considered the basic unit for theory development?

A. concept
B. proposition
C. hypothesis
D. variable
26. Self-efficacy, which is a generalized idea about how humans perceive their own abilities,
is an example of a(n) .

A. hypothesis
B. proposition
C. concept
D. abstraction
27. The organization of concepts in sequence from the most concrete and individual to the most
general is called the .

A. conceptual hierarchy
B. ladder of abstraction
C. conceptual progression
D. operationalization of constructs
28. In theory development, which of the following is the level of knowledge expressing a concept
that exists only as an idea or a quality apart from an object?

A. empirical level
B. primary level
C. conceptual level
D. abstract level

29. At what level do we "experience" reality?

A. empirical level
B. abstract level
C. primary level
D. secondary level
30. A concept that is not directly observable or measurable but can be estimated through proxy
measures is called a(n) .

A. indirect construct
B. secondary construct
C. higher order construct
D. latent construct
31. Empathy is a concept that is not directly observable or measurable but is measured through other
measures, such as an individual's thoughts and behaviors toward others. This is an example of a(n)
.

A. latent construct
B. empirical construct
C. secondary construct
D. higher order construct
32. Which of the following is a statement explaining the logical linkage among certain concepts
by asserting a universal connection between concepts?

A. hypothesis
B. proposition
C. construct
D. theory
33. "Employees dressed professionally will perform better than those dressed casually" is an
example of a .

A. theory
B. proposition
C. hypothesis
D. variation
34. Which of the following means that something has been examined against reality using data?

A. causality
B. manipulation
C. empirical testing
D. spurious association
35. When a researcher collects data to test the hypothesis that consumers will be more satisfied if
a business offers compensation after the consumer complains, we say that testing is being
conducted.

A. validation
B. confirmation
C. observational
D. empirical

36. Anything that may assume different numerical values is considered a(n) .

A. variable
B. construct
C. item
D. data point

37. Which of the following is an empirical assessment of a concept?

A. hypothesis
B. variable
C. construct
D. item
38. When the data from an empirical study are consistent with a research hypothesis, we say
that the hypothesis is .

A. confirmed
B. conclusive
C. supported
D. true
39. The process of identifying the actual measurement scales to assess the variables of interest is called
.

A. operationalizing
B. synthesizing
C. verifying
D. conceptualizing
40. is the logical process of deriving a conclusion about a specific instance based on a known
general premise or something known to be true.

A. Deductive reasoning
B. Inductive reasoning
C. Latent reasoning
D. Abstract reasoning
41. The logical process of establishing a general proposition on the basis of observation of
particular facts is known as .

A. deductive reasoning
B. generalized reasoning
C. inductive reasoning
D. conceptual reasoning
42. If all the trees a person has seen in his life have been green and therefore he concludes that all
trees are green, which type of reasoning is he using?

A. deductive reasoning
B. inductive reasoning
C. generalized reasoning
D. conceptual reasoning
43. A researcher is testing the hypothesis stating a positive relationship between business owners' level
of risk tolerance and the insurance coverage for the business. To test this, the researcher uses a set of
prescribed procedures for establishing and connecting theoretical statements about these two
constructs, for analyzing empirical evidence gathered through surveys, and for predicting future
behavior. This researcher is following the .

A. hypothetical method
B. scientific method
C. deductive method
D. inductive method

44. Which of the following is a step involved in the application of the scientific method?

A. statement of hypotheses
B. formulation of concepts and propositions
C. analysis and evaluation of data
D. all of these choices

45. What is the LAST step in the application of the scientific method?

A. assessment of relevant existing knowledge of a phenomenon

B. proposal of an explanation of the phenomenon and statement of new problems raised by
the research
C. design of research to test the hypothesis
D. acquisition of meaningful empirical data
46. A formal, logical explanation of some events that includes predictions of how things relate
to one another is known as a(n) .

theory

47. The two purpose of theory are understanding and .

predicting

48. are the building blocks of theory.

Concepts
49. The organization of concepts in sequence from the most concrete and individual to the most
general is called the .

ladder of abstraction
50. In theory development, the level of knowledge expressing a concept that exists only as an idea or
a quality apart from an object is the level.

abstract
51. A concept that is not directly observable or measurable, but can be estimated through a
proxy measure is known as a(n) construct.

latent
52. Statements explaining the logical linkage among certain concepts by asserting a universal
connection between concepts are called .

propositions

53. A(n) is a formal statement explaining some outcome and is testable.

hypothesis

54. involves applying statistics to data to test hypotheses.

Empirical testing

55. When the data are inconsistent with a hypothesis, we say the hypothesis is ,

not supported
56. If it is hypothesized that higher levels of compensation will positively influence workers' intention to
stay with a company, level of compensation measured in dollars and intentions to stay using a scale
are examples of .

variables
57. A researcher is using income, education, and zip code as an indication of social class. This
process of identifying the actual measurement scales to assess social class is called .

operationalizing

58. Going from the general to the specific is done in reasoning.

deductive

59. reasoning establishes a general proposition on the basis of observation of particular facts.

Inductive
60. A set of prescribed procedures for establishing and connecting theoretical statements about
events, for analyzing empirical evidence, and for predicting events yet unknown is called the
.

scientific method

61. What is a theory and a hypothesis, and what role do they play in marketing research?

A theory is a formal, logical explanation of some events that includes predictions of how things
relate to one another. The two purposes of theory are understanding and predicting. Accomplishing
the first goal allows the theorist to gain an understanding of the relationship among various
phenomena. Thus a theory enables us to predict the behavior or characteristics of one phenomenon
from the knowledge of another phenomenon.

A hypothesis is a formal statement explaining some outcome. Hypotheses must be testable and
should be written as propositions. We often apply statistics to data to empirically test hypotheses.
When the data are consistent with a hypothesis, we say the hypothesis is supported. When the data
are inconsistent with the hypothesis, we say the hypothesis is not supported. Because our results are
based on statistics, there is always the possibility that our conclusion is wrong, so from an absolute
perspective, statistics cannot prove a hypothesis is true.

62. Explain the difference between aconcept and a variable and give an example of each.

A concept (or construct) is a generalized idea about a class of objects, attributes, occurrences, or
processes that has been given a name. Supervisory behavior or risk aversion are examples of
concepts. A variable is anything that may assume different numerical values and is the empirical
assessment of a concept. For example, supervisory behavior may be assessed through variables such
as amount of time spent training employees, number of employees supervised, and degree to which
employees are involved in decision-making.
63. How does a hypothesis differ from a proposition? Give an example of each.

Propositions are statements explaining the logical linkage among certain concepts by asserting a
universal connection between concepts. An example of a proposition might be: Changes in tax law
will influence individuals' charitable giving. A hypothesis is a formal statement of an unproven
proposition that is empirically testable. An example of a hypothesis might be: Tax laws limiting the
deductibility of charitable contributions will decrease charitable giving.

64. Discuss the types of reasoning researchers use to build theories.

At the abstract, conceptual level, a theory may be developed with deductive reasoning by going from
a general statement to a specific assertion. Deductive reasoning is the logical process of deriving a
conclusion about a specific instance, based on a known general premise or something known to be
true. At the empirical level, a theory may be developed with inductive reasoning, which is the
logical process of establishing a general proposition on the basis of observation of particular facts.

65. List the steps a researcher will likely follow when applying the scientific method to develop and
test theories

1. Assessment of relevant existing knowledge of a phenomenon

2. Formulation of concepts and propositions
3. Statement of hypotheses
4. Design of research to test the hypotheses
5. Acquisition of meaningful empirical data
6. Analysis and evaluation of data
7. Proposal of an explanation of the phenomenon and statement of new problems raised by
the research

9
 Chapter 4--The Business Research Process Key
1. A business opportunity is a situation that makes some potential competitive advantage possible.

TRUE

2. Negative consumer attitudes is an example of a symptom.

TRUE
3. Uncertainty in decision making means that the nature of the problem itself is unclear and is the
most difficult decision situation.

FALSE

4. The three types of marketing research are exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

TRUE
5. The purpose of exploratory research is to provide conclusive evidence for a particular
business action.

FALSE

6. Descriptive studies are conducted with a considerable understanding of the situation being studied.

TRUE

7. Descriptive research often helps describe market segments.

TRUE

8. Correlation is sufficient evidence to determine causality in experiments.

FALSE
9. Direct association means any covariation between a cause and an effect is true and not simply due
to some other variable.

FALSE

10. Absolute causality means the cause is necessary and sufficient to bring about the effect.

TRUE

1
11. When a researcher varies price levels and examines the impact on sales, he is conducting
an experiment.

TRUE

12. Test-marketing studies are a form of experimental research.

TRUE

13. Exploratory research is typically conducted in the early stages of decision-making.

TRUE

14. The first stage in the research process is to define the research objectives.

TRUE
15. Forward linkage means the researcher must follow the stages in the research process in
sequential order.

FALSE

16. Deliverables is the term used when describing the expected outcomes of basic research.

FALSE
17. A directed search of published works, including periodicals and books, that discusses theory
and presents empirical results that are relevant to the topic at hand is called a literature review.

TRUE

18. Pilot studies are a formal research method that produce precise results.

FALSE
19. One of the major advantages of observation studies is that they record actual behavior rather
than relying on reports of behavior from respondents.

TRUE

20. There is always one best research design for a business research study.

FALSE

21. Researchers shouldn't draw conclusions from a sample.

TRUE
22. Unobtrusive methods of data gathering are those in which the subjects do not have to be disturbed
for data to be collected.

TRUE

23. Coding is the application of reasoning to understand the data that have been gathered.

FALSE

24. Management is most interested in detailed reporting of the research design and statistical findings.

FALSE
25. A research project refers to numerous related studies that come together to address issues about
a single company.

FALSE
26. Which of the following represents a situation that makes some potential competitive
advantage possible for a business?

A. business threat
B. forward linkage
C. symptom
D. business opportunity
27. Janna discovers a market segment that is underserved by competitors' products. For
Janna's company, this segment represents a .

A. business threat
B. business opportunity
C. backward linkage
D. test market
28. Observable cues that serve as a signal of a problem because they are caused by that
problem are called .

A. symptoms
B. leading indicators
C. forward linkages
D. descriptors

29. Over the past five years, home values have been decreasing. This is an example of a(n) .

A. symptom
B. ambiguous situation
C. descriptive hypothesis
D. causal inference
30. is the process of developing and deciding among alternative ways of resolving a problem or
choosing from among alternative opportunities.

A. Business
B. Business research
C. Decision making
D. Verification
31. Which of the following means that the decision maker has all information needed to make an
optimal decision?

A. certainty
B. ambiguity
C. concomitant variation
D. non-spurious association
32. In which situation do symptoms exist, but are subtle and few, making problem
identification difficult?

A. problem-focused decision making and conditions of high ambiguity

B. problem-focused decision making and conditions of low ambiguity
C. opportunity-oriented research and conditions of high ambiguity
D. opportunity-oriented research and conditions of low ambiguity

33. All of the following are types of business research EXCEPT .

A. exploratory
B. selective
C. descriptive
D. causal
34. research aims to clarify ambiguous situations or discover ideas that may amount to true
business opportunities.

A. Exploratory
B. Preliminary
C. Clarifying
D. Descriptive
35. Companies, such as Kraft and Procter & Gamble, conduct research to clarify ambiguous situations
or discover ideas that may be potential business opportunities. What type of business research is
this?

A. inferential
B. causal
C. descriptive
D. exploratory
36. What type of research is being conducted to answer the question: "What is the average age of our
employees?"

A. exploratory research
B. focus group research
C. descriptive research
D. causal research

37. Which type of business research addresses who, what, when, where, why, and how questions?

A. causal research
B. exploratory research
C. descriptive research
D. proscriptive research
38. Which of the following seeks to diagnose reasons for business outcomes and focuses specifically on
the beliefs and feelings respondents have about and toward specific issues?

A. causal research
B. diagnostic analysis
C. concomitant research
D. test-market

39. Which type of research allows decision makers to make causal inferences?

A. exploratory research
B. descriptive research
C. causal research
D. all of these choices
40. Which type of research is being conducted when a researcher conducts an experiment to answer
the question, "Will shareholders respond favorably if we increase executive pay?"

A. causal research
B. exploratory research
C. pilot study research
D. descriptive research

41. A conclusion that when one thing happens, another specific thing will follow is known as a .

A. diagnostic analysis
B. manipulation
C. causal inference
D. deliverable
42. Which of the following should a researcher do in order to infer causality?

A. recognize the presence of alternative plausible explanations for the results

B. establish a sequence of events
C. measure the concomitant variation between the cause and the effect
D. all of these choices

43. Which aspect of causality deals with the time order of events?

A. concomitant variation
B. temporal sequence
C. nonspurious association
D. parallel sequencing
44. Jackie has noticed that when the temperature rises, sales at her clothing boutique also rise. This
is an example of .

A. concomitant variation
B. nonspurious variation
C. linear variation
D. absolute variation
45. Which type of association is said to occur when any covariation between a cause and effect is
indeed due to the cause and not simply due to some other variable?

A. nonspurious association
B. spurious association
C. concomitant association
D. temporal association

46. All of the following are degrees of causality EXCEPT .

A. contributory causality
B. conditional causality
C. absolute causality
D. non-spurious causality

47. Which degree of causality means that the cause is necessary and sufficient to bring about the effect?

A. first-degree causality
B. absolute causality
C. conditional causality
D. contributory causality
48. Which of the following is the weakest form of causality but is still a useful concept?

A. absolute causality
B. contributory causality
C. conditional causality
D. secondary causality
49. Which of the following is a carefully controlled study in which the researcher manipulates a
proposed cause and observes any corresponding change in the proposed effect?

A. survey
B. unobtrusive observation
C. diagnostic analysis
D. experiment
50. The Food and Drug Administration is targeting salt in processed foods as a health hazard, and some
experts believe the agency will require food manufacturers to limit the amount of salt in processed
foods. However, the reduction will occur in phases, with salt content being reduced in steps so that
consumers will be weaned off of salt gradually. Carefully controlled research studies are underway
in which the salt levels are varied and consumers' reactions to the taste are measured. This research
is an example of a(n) .

A. exploratory study
B. descriptive study
C. experiment
D. diagnostic analysis
51. The proposed cause which the researcher controls by manipulating its value in an
experiment is referred to as a(n) .

A. experimental variable
B. dependent variable
C. endogenous variable
D. concomitant variable

52. means that the researcher alters the level of the experimental variable in specific increments.

A. Causality
B. Testing
C. Analyzing
D. Manipulation

53. Which of the following is the first stage of the business research process?

A. planning a research design

B. defining the research objectives
C. analyzing the data
D. planning a sample
54. All of the following are stages in the research process EXCEPT .

A. analyzing data
B. formulating conclusions and preparing a report
C. demonstrating causality
D. planning a sample
55. The idea that the objectives of a research study will determine the composition of the sample
to be used in the study is an example of .

A. backward linkage
B. concomitant variation
C. forward linkage
D. program strategy

56. The goals that researchers intend to achieve by conducting research as referred to as .

A. results
B. causal inferences
C. research outcomes
D. research objectives

57. In research conducted for a specific client, research objectives are often referred to as .

A. deliverables
B. take-aways
C. conclusions
D. action items
58. What type of research is being conducted to answer the question: "Would this target market be
interested in this type of new product?"

A. causal research
B. exploratory research
C. situation analysis research
D. descriptive research

59. All of the following are examples of exploratory research techniques EXCEPT .

A. previous research
B. pilot studies
C. case studies
D. experimentation
60. Before designing a research study on employees' susceptibility to interpersonal influence when faced
with an ethical dilemma, Cindy is searching for other studies that have addressed similar issues. This
search is called a(n) .

A. pilot study
B. experiment
C. preliminary analysis
D. literature review
61. The Small Business Development Center is conducting an email survey with 25 of its client small
businesses to examine the use of mobile marketing applications. This is a precursor to a larger study
in which the questionnaire will be sent nationwide to more than 1,000 similar small businesses. This
initial small-scale project is known as a .

A. testing study
B. pilot study
C. preliminary study
D. test market
62. Which of the following refers to a small-scale study in which the results are only preliminary
and intended only to assist in design of a subsequent study?

A. pretest
B. focus group
C. primary test
D. preliminary study
63. Carol was invited to participate in a research study along with ten other employees to discuss their
experiences using the company intranet. The group was asked to discuss their experiences and were
encouraged to feed on each other's comments. What is this type of study called?

A. multivariate research
B. literature review
C. pretest
D. focus group interview
64. The is a master plan that specifies the methods and procedures for collecting and analyzing the
needed information.

A. research design
B. research objective
C. research program
D. sample plan
65. The most common way to generate primary data in business research is by means of .

A. experimentation
B. surveys
C. observation
D. focus groups
66. Which of the following is a research technique in which a sample is interviewed in some form or
the behavior of respondents is observed and described in some way?

A. experiment
B. observation study
C. survey
D. personal interview

67. Which of the following is a method of data collection that is used in surveys?

A. telephone
B. mail
C. the Internet
D. all of these choices

68. All of the following are examples of an observation study EXCEPT .

A. a mystery shopper pretending to be a customer in a McDonald's outlet

B. a cable laid across the street that records the number of cars that pass a certain intersection
C. determining how long employees spend taking breaks to smoke cigarettes
D. a consumer responding to a questionnaire about advertising
69. An employee who pretends to be a customer in order to observe the sales behavior of a
clerk at a cosmetics counter in a department store is called a(n) .

A. secondary data researcher

B. mystery shopper
C. pilot researcher
D. undercover researcher
70. Which of the following involves any procedure that draws conclusions based on measurements of
a portion of the entire population?

A. sampling
B. theorizing
C. segmenting
D. causal inference
71. When drivers are unaware that a machine is recording how many cars pass a certain intersection
that is being considered for a site for a new Wendy's franchise, this is an example of a(n) .

A. obtrusive method
B. unobtrusive method
C. experiment
D. exploratory research study
72. A researcher has completed the fieldwork of collecting data, and now he is checking the data
collection forms for omissions, legibility, and consistency in classification. What is this researcher
doing?

A. analyzing the data

B. editing the data
C. coding the data
D. reporting the results
73. The rules for interpreting, categorizing, recording, and transferring the data to the data storage
media are called .

A. edits
B. hypotheses
C. theories
D. codes

74. Which of the following determines the appropriate analytical technique for data analysis?

A. management's information requirements

B. characteristics of the research design
C. nature of the data gathered
D. all of these choices
75. When the researcher has only one or a small number of research objectives that can be
addressed in a single study, that study is referred to as a .

A. research project
B. research program
C. research assessment
D. research snapshot
76. When a researcher conducts numerous related studies that come together to address multiple,
related research objectives, we refer to this as a research .

A. agenda
B. project
C. program
D. conglomeration
77. Managers at Procter & Gamble view business research at a strategic planning level, particularly for
product-related decisions. Therefore, the company conducts numerous related studies that come
together to help in their product planning decisions. This is referred to as a .

A. research project
B. research program
C. research philosophy
D. research integration
78. are observable cues that serve as a signal of a problem because they are caused by that
problem.

Symptoms

79. research aims to clarify ambiguous situations.

Exploratory
80. A research design that is intended to describe important characteristics of a population (e.g.
age, gender, income) is called research.

descriptive
81. Research that is conducted to identify cause-and-effect relationships between variables is called
research.

causal
82. association means any covariation between a cause and an effect is true and not simply due to some
other variable.

Nonspurious

83. causality means that the cause is necessary and sufficient to bring about the effect.

Absolute
84. A carefully controlled study in which the researcher manipulates a proposed cause and
observes any corresponding change in the proposed effect is called a(n) .

experiment

85. The last stage of the business research process is .

formulating the conclusions and preparing the report

86. The idea that later stages of the research process influence earlier stages of the research
process is referred to as .

backward linkage

87. The goals to be achieved by conducting research are referred to as research .

objectives

88. In consulting, the term is often used to describe the objectives to a research client.

deliverables
89. Information from a research study conducted by the company last year assessing employees'
attitudes toward the company's absenteeism policy is an example of .

previous research
90. A directed search of published works, including periodicals and books, that discusses
theory and presents empirical results that are relevant to the topic at hand is called a(n) .

literature review
91. A small-scale exploratory research project that collects data from respondents similar to those
that will be used in the full study is called a study.

pilot
92. A plan that specifies the methods and procedures that will be used for collecting and
analyzing data in a research study is called a(n) .

research design
93. The most common method of generating primary data in business research is through the use of a(n)
.

survey
94. Any procedure that involves selecting a small number of people who are part of a larger
population of people is called .

sampling
95. Methods in which research respondents do not have to be disturbed for data to be gathered are
referred to as methods.

unobtrusive
96. is the application of computation, summarizing, and reasoning to understand the gathered
information.

Data analysis

97. The overall series of marketing research projects is called a research .

program

98. Compare and contrast exploratory, descriptive, and causal research. Which approach is the best?

Exploratory research is conducted to clarify ambiguous situations or discover ideas that may be
potential business opportunities. It is not intended to provide conclusive evidence from which to
determine a particular course of action. In this sense, it is not an end unto itself, and researchers
usually undertake this form of research with the full expectation that more research will be needed to
provide more conclusive evidence.

Descriptive research describes characteristics of objects, people, groups, organizations, or

environments. It addresses who, what, when, where, why, and how questions. Unlike exploratory
research, descriptive studies are conducted with a considerable understanding of the situation being
studies.

Causal research allows causal inferences to be made. Exploratory and/or descriptive research
usually precedes causal research. In causal studies, researchers typically have a good understanding
of the phenomena being studied and can make an educated prediction about the cause and effect
relationships that will be tested.

No single method is the "best." The most appropriate type and the amount of research needed are
determined in part by how much uncertainty surrounds the marketing situation motivating the
research. Exploratory research is conducted during the early stages of decision making, whereas
descriptive and causal research are often conducted in the later stages.

99. Explain how a researcher makes causal inferences.

A causal inference can only be supported when very specific causal evidence exists. Three critical
pieces of causal evidence are:

(1) Temporal sequence - deals with the time order of events. The cause must occur before the
effect.
(2) Concomitant variation - occurs when two events "covary," meaning they vary systematically.
This means that when a change in the cause occurs, a change in the outcome also is observed.
(3) Nonspurious association - means that any covariation between a cause and an effect is true
and not simply due to some other variable.
100. Compare and contrast the three degrees of causality.

There are three degrees of causality: absolute, conditional, contributory. Absolute causality means
the cause is necessary and sufficient to bring about the effect. Although this is a very strong
inference, it is impossible to think that we can establish absolute causality in the behavioral sciences.
While managers may like to be able to draw absolute conclusions, they can often make very good
decisions based on less powerful inferences. Conditional causality means that a cause is necessary
but not sufficient to bring about an effect. This is a weaker causal inference than absolute causality.
Contributory causality is the weakest form of causality, but it is still a useful concept. This degree
of causality means that a cause need be neither necessary nor sufficient to bring about an effect.
However, causal evidence can be established using the three factors (temporal sequence,
concomitant variation, and nonspurious association). For any outcome, there may be multiple causes.
So, an event can be a contributory cause of something so long as the introduction of the other
possible causes does not eliminate the correlation between it and the effect.

101. Your business research company has been asked to help a business understand why their sales are
decreasing. Describe the procedure you should follow to address this research request and the type of
business research you would recommend.

The stages in the business research process are:

(1) Defining the research objectives
(2) Planning a research design
(3) Planning a sample
(4) Collecting the data
(5) Analyzing the data
(6) Formulating the conclusions and preparing the report

In practice, the stages overlap somewhat from a timing perspective. Later stages sometimes can be
completed before earlier ones. The terms forward linkage and backward linkage reflect the
interrelationships between stages. Forward linkage implies that the earlier stages influence the later
stages. For example, the research objectives outlined in the first stage affect the sample selection and
the way data are collected. Backward linkage implies that later steps influence earlier stages of the
research process. For example, if it is known that the data will be collected via e-mail, then the
sampling should include those with e-mail access.

Students' recommendations regarding the type of business research will vary, but they should discuss
one or more of the three types of business research: exploratory, descriptive, or causal.
102. Explain the difference between a research project and a research program.

When the researcher has only one or a small number of research objectives that can be addressed in
a single study, that study is referred to as a research project. When numerous related studies come
together to address issues about a single company, it is referred to as a research program. The
program strategy refers to a firm's overall plan to use marketing research. It is a planning activity
that places a series of marketing research projects in the context of the company's marketing plan.

16
 Chapter 5--The Human Side of Business Research:
Organizational and Ethical Issues Key
1. One reason for an organization to hire an outside research agency is because an outside agency
may have special skills that the company research department may not possess.

TRUE

2. One advantage of using an outside agency to conduct research at cheaper costs.

FALSE

3. If secrecy is a major concern, then it is best to use an outside research agency.

FALSE
4. Often the term "client" is used by the research department to refer to line management for whom
services are being performed.

TRUE

5. Small research firms typically only have a director of marketing research and a research analyst.

FALSE
6. The manager of decision support systems supervises the collection and analysis of sales,
inventory, and other periodic customer relationship management (CRM) data.

TRUE

7. In most organizations, business research directors typically have a formalized role.

FALSE

8. Rushing into a research project may result in conducting a study that is not needed.

TRUE

9. Researchers measure past, current, and future events.

FALSE

10. A research analyst can effectively serve as a link between management and the research specialist.

FALSE

1
11. A good example of the business research concept in action is the use of cross-functional teams
within the organization.

TRUE
12. A syndicated service is a research supplier that provides standardized information for many clients
in return for a fee.

TRUE
13. A standardized research service provides a unique methodology for investigating a business
specialty area like retail location.

TRUE
14. A custom research provider specializes in only one particular research activity, such as
field interviewing, data warehousing, or data processing.

FALSE

15. Ethical questions are really philosophical questions.

TRUE
16. Being asked by a client to share information from research conducted for another client poses
an ethical dilemma for researchers.

TRUE
17. Absolutism is a term that reflects the degree to which one rejects moral standards in favor of
the acceptability of some action.

FALSE
18. The issue as to whether the respondent in a research study can choose to answer or not to answer
a specific question is a matter of confidentiality.

FALSE
19. The obligation on the part of the researcher to protect the identity of an individual
research respondent is a matter of confidentiality.

TRUE

20. The use of spyware violates the right to privacy and confidentiality of Internet users.

TRUE
21. A false experimental effect that is used to create the perception of a true experimental effect is
called a placebo effect.

TRUE
22. An Institutional Review Board (IRB) is a committee that carefully reviews a proposed
research design to try to make sure the proposed research will satisfy the research objectives.

FALSE

23. The terms sugging and frugging imply selling and fundraising under the guise of research.

TRUE

24. The purpose of a push poll is to push consumers into a pre-determined response.

TRUE

25. A breech of confidentiality occurs when one researcher works for two competing companies.

FALSE
26. A possible advantage of an outside research supplier over an in-house research department is that
it may be possible for the outside supplier to conduct the project .

A. more objectively
B. at a lower cost
C. faster
D. all of these choices
27. Best Buy is expanding internationally, but the managers are concerned that they need to better
understand a foreign market before entering it. The company has conducted research in-house in the
United States, but it really doesn't have the capacity to conduct this type of research in other
countries. Which of the following is the best reason for hiring an outside agency for this purpose?

A. An outside agency may have local expertise allowing it to specialize in research in a

foreign market.
B. An outside agency can usually conduct research more quickly than doing it in-house.
C. An outside agency often can be more objective.
D. An outside agency is often more economical.

28. All of the following are advantages of in-house research EXCEPT .

A. quick turn-around
B. better collaboration with employees
C. more objectivity
D. cheaper costs
29. Which term is used to refer to the entity for whom research services are being performed?

A. doer
B. participant
C. intermediary
D. client
30. Who is responsible for client contact, project design, preparation of proposals, selection of
research suppliers, and supervision of data collection, analysis, and reporting activities?

A. director of business research

B. manager of decision support systems
C. research analyst
D. research vice president
31. Caleb's job at a research firm is to provide technical assistance with questionnaire design. Which of
the following best describes Caleb's job title?

A. director of research
B. research assistant
C. forecast analyst
D. research generalist

32. Another name for a research assistant is .

A. junior analyst
B. research analyst
C. research vice president
D. account executive
33. Which position in a mid-sized research firm supervises the collection and analysis of sales,
inventory, and other periodic customer relationship management (CRM) data?

A. director of marketing research

B. manager of decision support systems
C. research analyst
D. research assistant
34. A job posting for a research firm advertised it was looking for someone who can use SPSS
software to forecast sales. What is this position typically called in a research firm?

A. forecast analyst
B. statistical analyst
C. research assistant
D. research analyst
35. All of the following are problems a research director typically faces EXCEPT .

A. spends more time in meetings and managing than actually conducting research
B. research management role often is not formally recognized
C. often does not have the tools available to conduct the research properly
D. research is often seen as a hodgepodge of techniques available to answer individual,
unrelated questions

36. Which of the following errors become more prominent when research studies are rushed?

A. conducting a study that is not needed

B. addressing the wrong issue
C. sampling difficulties
D. all of these choices
37. Which of the following can effectively serve as a link between management and the
research specialist?

A. marketing research director

B. research generalist
C. research assistant
D. research liaison
38. teams are composed of individuals from various functional areas such as
engineering, production, finance, and marketing who share a common purpose.

A. Specialized
B. Cross-functional
C. Hybrid
D. Task-oriented
39. 3-M Corporation puts together teams of employees from various functional areas such as
engineering, production, finance, and marketing who share a common purpose, such as new-
product development. These types of teams are referred to as .

A. cross-functional teams
B. syndicated teams
C. synergistic teams
D. focus groups

40. Commercial providers of research services are called .

A. research suppliers
B. research generalists
C. research analysts
D. research syndicators
41. A(n) is a research supplier that provides standardized information for many clients in return
for a fee.

A. full-service firm
B. boutique service
C. one-stop service
D. syndicated service
42. When J.D. Power and Associates sells the results of its research studies on new-car satisfaction
to automobile producers, J.D. Power is acting as a .

A. pseudo-research supplier
B. syndicated service
C. cross-functional team
D. custom research supplier
43. Research firms that develop a unique methodology for investigating a business specialty area
is referred to as a .

A. standardized research service

B. custom research service
C. focused research service
D. research intermediary
44. A research organization that specializes in studies about advertising effectiveness is an example
of a(n) .

A. cross-functional team
B. standardized research service
C. research generalist
D. advocacy research organization
45. When AT&T hires a research agency to conduct research tailored to it's unique needs, this is called
.

A. custom research
B. syndicated research
C. limited research
D. commercial research

46. is the application of morals to business behavior related to the exchange environment.

A. Moral relativism
B. Moral idealism
C. Business idealism
D. Business ethics
47. Principles reflecting one's beliefs about what is ethical and unethical are called .

A. guiding principles
B. ethical imperatives
C. functional standards
D. moral standards
48. Claire believes she is a moral person, but she does believe that it is acceptable to tell a lie in
certain situations. Which of the following term best reflects Claire's beliefs?

A. relativism
B. idealism
C. situationalism
D. conformism

49. Which term reflects the degree to which one bases one's morality on moral standards?

A. relativism
B. idealism
C. absolutism
D. conformism
50. When a respondent in a research study agrees to participate in the research study, this is known as
.

A. a right to privacy
B. informed consent
C. jamming
D. forecasting
51. Before participating in a research study, John was provided with information regarding the purpose
of the study and was asked to sign a form agreeing to participate in the study. John has given to
participate in the study.

A. implicit consent
B. informed consent
C. ideal consent
D. voluntary consent
52. One right a research participant has is that information involved in the research will not be
shared with others, which is known as .

A. consent
B. active research
C. passive research
D. confidentiality
53. Which of the following is generally considered to be a public place in which unobtrusive
observation is not a serious invasion of privacy?

A. an airport check-in counter at Logan Airport in Boston

B. the St. Louis Art Museum
C. a Radio Shack retail store
D. all of these choices
54. Which of the following is a type of software that is placed on users' computers without consent or
knowledge while using the Internet?

A. pop-ups
B. spyware
C. stealth file
D. COPPA
55. Janice is participating in an experimental study of an herbal supplement that is supposed to give
users more energy. Since starting the experiment, she has noticed that she has more energy, but in
reality, she is just receiving a "blank" pill that does not contain the herbal supplement. What effect is
Janice demonstrating?

A. false negative
B. type I error
C. type II error
D. placebo
56. The session in which research subjects are fully informed and provided a chance to ask any
question that they may have about the experiment is called a(n) .

A. wrap-up session
B. post-hoc session
C. debriefing session
D. placebo session
57. All of the following are questions used to determine whether the experimental procedures treat
a research participant unethically EXCEPT .

A. Is the research subject subjected to substantial or psychological trauma?

B. Can the research subject be easily returned to his or her initial state?
C. Has the research subject provided consent to participate in an experiment?
D. Is the research participant informed of the purpose of the experiment prior to participating?
58. Most universities require researchers to submit research proposals to a committee that carefully
reviews them to make sure no harm can come to any research participant. What is this committee
called?

A. human subjects review committee

B. experimental design review committee
C. ethical research review committee
D. confidentiality review committee
59. Mary received a phone call asking her to participate in a research study on car insurance. However,
after about four questions, the person on the phone went into a sales pitch and tried to get her to
switch her car insurance to another company. What is this called?

A. conflict of interest
B. pitch polling
C. sugging
D. commercial research
60. A research firm has been hired by an attorney to undertake research that will support his client's
defense in a legal dispute regarding whether or not the company can sell essentially the same
product to different markets under a different name and charge higher prices in some markets. What
type of research is the firm being asked to conduct?

A. push poll
B. advocacy research
C. confidentiality research
D. deceptive research
61. When a political candidate has staff workers phone registered voters of another party to ask a
leading and negative question about his opposing candidate, this is a form of .

A. a push poll
B. advocacy research
C. a research supplier
D. a cross-functional team

62. A(n) occurs when one researcher works for two competing companies.

A. breech of confidentiality
B. ethical violation
C. conflict of interest
D. legal conflict
63. Mark is currently conducting research studies for Enterprise and Avis, two national rental car
companies. In fact, Mark has conducted studies for two other rental car companies in the past five
years. Mark's actions represent a potential .

A. illegal situation
B. advocacy situation
C. push poll
D. conflict of interest
64. A research firm has been hired by an attorney to undertake research that will support his client's
defense in a legal dispute. What type of research is the firm being asked to conduct?

A. push poll
B. advocacy research
C. confidentiality research
D. deceptive research
65. In a personal interview, a respondent who replies: "I do not want to answer that question about my
income last year" is exercising which right in a research study?

A. right to privacy
B. right to be informed
C. right of informed consent
D. right to terminate the interview at any time
66. When research is performed by employees of the company that will benefit from the research, it
is called research.

in-house
67. When an organization's research department refers to the managers for whom it is
performing research services, it is common to refer to the manager as the department's .

client
68. An individual that is responsible for contacting clients, designing research projects, preparing
research proposals, selecting research suppliers, and supervising data collection, analysis,
and reporting activities is commonly referred to as a .

research analyst
69. An employee who provides technical assistance such as running computer programs
and manipulating data to generate a sales forecast is called a(n) .

forecast analyst
70. A individual within the research organization who acts as a "go-between" between management
and the research specialist because he or she is an expert in the needs of both parties is known as a
.

research generalist
71. Teams that are composed of representatives of research, new product development, production,
and finance to study the feasibility of the national launch of a new product are knows as teams.

cross-functional

72. A commercial research company that conducts research for clients is known as a(n) .

research supplier
73. A research supplier that provides standardized information for many different clients (such
as different automobile manufacturers) is known as a(n) research service.

syndicated
74. A research organization that develops a unique methodology for studying a specialty area (such
as brand-name evaluation) is called a(n) research service.

standardized
75. When a research supplier designs a research study that is tailored to the needs of the client, this
is known as a(n) research study.

custom
76. The attempt to decide what is "right" and what is "wrong" in the conduct of business research studies
is called .

business ethics
77. A(n) refers to a situation in which one chooses from alternative courses of actions, each
with different ethical implications.

ethical dilemma

78. is a term that reflects the degree to which one bases one's morality on moral standards.

Idealism

79. means that information involved in the research will not be shared with others.

Confidentiality
80. A session in which research subjects are fully informed and provided a chance to ask any
questions that they may have about an experiment is called a(n) session.

debriefing

81. Selling under the guise of research is called .

sugging

82. Fund-raising under the guise of research is called .

frugging

83. When telemarketing is conducted under the "guise" of a research study, this is called .

push polling

84. A(n) occurs when one researcher works for two competing companies.

conflict of interest
85. Research that is conducted to support a specific claim in a legal action (e.g. a certain miles per
gallon performance in city driving conditions) is known as research.

advocacy

86. Explain when research should be conducted externally and when it should be done internally.

When the firm facing a decision encounters one of the following situations, they should consider
having the research performed by an outside agency:
(1) An outside agency often can provide a fresh perspective.
(2) An outside agency often can be more objective.
(3) An outside agency may have special skills.
(4) An outside agency will have local knowledge and expertise and may specialize in research
from its home area.

Likewise, there are conditions that make in-house research more attractive:
(1) If the research project needs to be completed very quickly.
(2) If the research project will require the close collaboration of many other employees from
diverse areas of the organization.
(3) In-house research can almost always be done more cheaply than that done by an outside firm.
(4) If secrecy is a major concern.
87. Name and describe the various research positions in mid-sized research firms.

In mid-sized marketing research firms, someone usually holds the position of director of marketing
research, who provides leadership in research efforts and integrates all staff-level research activities.
A research analyst is responsible for client contact, project design, preparation of proposals,
selection of research suppliers, and supervision of data collection, analysis, and reporting activities.
Research assistants (or associates) provide technical assistance with questionnaire design, data
analyses, and so forth. Another common name for this position is junior analyst. The manager of
decision support systems supervises the collection and analysis of sales, inventory, and other
periodic customer relationship management (CRM) data and may be assisted by a forecast analyst,
who provides technical assistance, such as running computer programs and manipulating data to
forecast sales.

88. Discuss the sources of conflict between management and research.

In practice, the relationship between the research department and the users of research frequently is
characterized by misunderstanding and conflicts arising from:
(1) Research that implies criticism - managers may not want to find results that are critical of
their work.
(2) Money - financial managers often see research as a cost rather than as an investment or a way
of lowering risk.
(3) Time - it takes time to complete a research project, and errors are more prominent if the
research is rushed.
(4) Intuitive decision making - managers are action-oriented decision makers, and they often rely
on gut reaction and intuition, which is often successful. Thus, they often do not believe a research
project will help improve their decision making.
(5) Future decisions based on past experience - managers wish to predict the future, but
researchers measure only current or past events.

89. Raising Canes is a restaurant located primarily in the south and the owner is interested in expanding
nationwide. Name and describe the various types of research suppliers and discuss which type could
meet his need for finding the best locations in new markets.

A syndicated service is a research supplier that provides standardized information for many clients
in return for a fee. A standardized research service provider develops a unique methodology for
investigating a business specialty area, such as retail location. This is the type of research service
most likely to best meet this client's needs. Limited-service research suppliers specialize in
particular research activities, such as field interviewing, data warehousing, or data processing. Other
providers offer custom research, which is a research project that is tailored specifically to a client's
unique needs.
90. Define business ethics and explain how it applies to research.

Business ethics is the application of morals to business behavior related to the exchange
environment. An ethical dilemma refers to a situation in which one chooses from alternative courses
of actions, each with different ethical implications. Researchers, managers, and even consumers face
ethical dilemmas practically every day. Each party in the research process--researchers, clients, and
participants--has certain rights and obligations toward the other parties. Like the rest of business,
research works best when all parties act ethically.

91. You have been asked to participate in a business research study. Discuss the rights and obligations of
your role as a research participant.

Most business research is conducted with the research participant's informed consent. In other cases,
they may not be aware that they are being monitored in some way. The ethical responsibilities vary
depending on whether participation is active or passive.

One obligation of a research participant is honesty. When someone willingly consents to participate
actively, it is generally expected that he or she will provide truthful answers. In return for being
truthful, the subject has the right to expect confidentiality, meaning that information involved in the
research will not be shared with others. A participant's right to privacy involves his or her freedom
to choose whether to comply with the investigator's request. Research companies should adhere to
the principles of the "do-not-call" policy and should respect consumers' Internet privacy as well.
Since some experimental research involves some degree of deception, participant's have the right to
be protected from harm and the right to be informed.
92. You have been tasked with writing the section of a research manual for a company that deals with
the rights and obligations of the researcher. Explain what you would include in this manual.

Researchers have the right to cooperation from the sponsoring client and to be paid in full and in a
timely manner for work that is done professionally. Researchers have several obligations in the
following areas:
(1) The purpose of research is research - meaning the researcher should not mix sales or
fundraising and research by using research as a guise for selling, raising funds, or conducting
research that isn't research. Sugging is the term for selling under the guise of research, and frugging
is used to mean fund-raising under the guise of research. Pseudo-research is conducted not to gather
information for business decisions but to bolster a point of view and satisfy other needs, and push
polls attempt to push consumers into a pre-determined response. Service monitoring is also often
presented as research, but this practice is acceptable as long as the researcher allows the consumer
the option of either being contacted or not being contacted.
(2) Objectivity - researchers should maintain high standards to be certain that their data are accurate.
(3) Misrepresentation of research - researchers are obligated to be honest in presenting results
and errors.
(4) Confidentiality - the researcher must abide by any confidentiality agreement with
research participants as well as the research sponsor.
(5) Dissemination of faulty conclusions - a user of research shall not knowingly disseminate
conclusions from a given research project or service that are inconsistent with or not warranted by
the data.
 Chapter 6--Problem Definition: The Foundation of Business
Research Key
1. A decision statement is a written expression of the key question(s) that a research user wishes
to answer.

TRUE
2. The term problem definition refers to the process of defining and developing a decision statement
and the steps involved in translating it into more precise research terminology, including a set of
research objectives.

TRUE

3. The problem definition stage is the easiest stage of the research process.

FALSE

4. It is easier to define the problem in business situations that are not cyclical.

FALSE

5. When a sudden change in the business situation takes place, it can be easier to define the problem.

TRUE
6. A problem occurs when there is a difference between the current conditions and a more preferable
set of conditions.

TRUE

7. The first step in the problem-definition process is to determine the unit of analysis.

FALSE

8. Conducting a situation analysis often requires exploratory research.

TRUE

9. One of the best ways to identify the symptoms of a problem is to conduct a literature review.

FALSE

1
10. Interrogative techniques simply involve asking multiple what, where, who, when, why, and
how questions.

TRUE
11. Probing is an interview technique that tries to draw deeper and more elaborate explanations from
a discussion.

TRUE

12. Symptoms need to be translated into a problem and then a decision statement.

TRUE
13. The situation analysis ends once researchers have a clear idea of the managerial objectives from
the research effort.

TRUE
14. The unit of analysis for a study indicates the level of significance that will be acceptable for acting
on the results.

FALSE

15. Sales, income, and age are examples of variables.

TRUE

16. A point estimate is something that does not change.

FALSE
17. An absolute variable is one that can take on a range of values that correspond to some
quantitative amount.

FALSE

18. An independent variable is a variable that is predicted and/or explained by other variables.

FALSE
19. Research questions express the research objectives in terms of questions that can be addressed
by research.

TRUE

20. Managerial benchmarks specify a performance criterion upon which a decision can be based.

FALSE
21. The greater the number of research objectives, the better the research.

FALSE

22. A research proposal is a written statement of the research design.

TRUE

23. A wise researcher will not agree to do a research job for which no written proposal exists.

TRUE
24. Basic business research refers to research usually performed by academic researchers and
supported by some public or private institution.

FALSE
25. Tables placed in research proposals that are exact representations of the actual tables that will show
results in the final report with the exception that the results are hypothetical (fictitious) are referred
to as surrogate tables.

FALSE
26. A written expression of the key question(s) that a research user wishes to answer is referred to as a
.

A. problem definition
B. decision statement
C. research proposal
D. hypothesis
27. An IT manager of a hospital needs to know the information technology needs of the healthcare
providers and office personnel, so he decides to have research conducted. When he writes a list of
key questions that he wishes to answer through research, what is he creating?

A. research proposal
B. written report
C. decision statement
D. hypotheses
28. When a researcher defines and develops a decision statement and the steps involved in translating
it into more precise research terminology, he or she is involved in what process?

A. hypotheses development
B. research planning
C. research process
D. problem definition
29. Which of the following make defining problems more difficult?

A. situation is recurring or routine

B. a dramatic change occurs
C. symptoms are scattered
D. symptoms are consistent

30. All of the following are gaps that represent problems EXCEPT .

A. actual business performance is less than possible business performance

B. actual business performance is greater than expected business performance
C. actual business performance is worse than expected business performance
D. expected business performance is greater than possible business performance

31. Which of the following is the FIRST step of the problem definition process?

A. determine the unit of analysis

B. identify the problem
C. identify key symptoms in the situation
D. determine the relevant variables
32. Once the researcher has identified the key symptoms and identified the key problem(s) from
those symptoms, what is the next step the researcher will take in the problem-definition process?

A. determine the unit of analysis

B. write managerial decision statement and corresponding research objectives
C. determine the relevant variables and how to measure them
D. write research questions and/or research hypotheses

33. Which of the following is the LAST step of the problem definition process?

A. write research questions and/or hypotheses

B. determine the relevant variables
C. determine the unit of analysis
D. understand the background of the problem

34. All of the following are steps in the problem-definition process EXCEPT .

A. identify key problem(s) from symptoms

B. determine the unit of analysis
C. develop dummy tables
D. determine relevant variables
35. A(n) involves the gathering of background information to familiarize researchers and
managers with the decision-making environment.

A. situation analysis
B. exploratory review
C. environmental scan
D. preliminary analysis
36. A researcher is gathering background information to familiarize himself with his new client's
business environment. He is analyzing marketplace conditions and conducting interviews with
employees of the company. This researcher is conducting a .

A. gap analysis
B. pre-research analysis
C. basic analysis
D. situation analysis
37. All of the following are helpful hints that can be useful in the interview process when
attempting to understand the situation EXCEPT .

A. develop hypotheses before conducting interviews

B. develop many alternative decisions and problems
C. think about possible solutions to the problem
D. be open-minded
38. A researcher is asking managers and line workers questions such as what type of problems they
experience, where they are most likely to experience them, who is responsible for them, and how the
problems get resolved. Asking these what, where, who, when, why, and how questions to get a better
understanding of his client's business decision-making situation is an example of using .

A. peeling techniques
B. iceberg technique
C. 80/20 techniques
D. interrogative techniques
39. An interview technique that tries to draw deeper and more elaborate explanations from the
discussion is called .

A. probing
B. peeling
C. immersion
D. ethnography
40. Which of the following is the most important question a researcher can ask when using a
probing technique?

A. How does that make you feel?

B. Why do you think that is so?
C. What has changed?
D. What does make you think of?
41. Which of the following essentially answers the question, "What information is needed to address
this situation?"

A. dependent variable
B. independent variable
C. research objectives
D. research design
42. When a researcher determines what or who should provide the data and at what level of
aggregation, he or she is determining the .

A. hypotheses
B. research questions
C. analysis technique
D. unit of analysis

43. Which of the following is a possible unit of analysis in a research study?

A. an employee
B. a sales region
C. a zip code area
D. all of these choices

44. In research, anything that varies or changes from one instance to another is called a .

A. variable
B. constant
C. category
D. classification
45. A researcher is conducting an experiment in which different formats of a prospectus sent to
prospective investors are manipulated. The format of the prospectus is considered to be a(n) .

A. constant
B. unit
C. dependent variable
D. variable
46. Something that does not change from one instance to another is called a .

A. hypothesis
B. constant
C. variable
D. category

47. All of the following are types of variables EXCEPT .

A. continuous
B. categorical
C. constant
D. dependent
48. A variable that can take on a range of values that correspond to some quantitative amount is called a
.

A. categorical variable
B. continuous variable
C. classificatory variable
D. independent variable

49. What type of variable is "dollar sales volume"?

A. continuous variable
B. independent variable
C. categorical variable
D. classificatory variable

50. Which type of variable indicates membership in some group?

A. continuous variable
B. categorical variable
C. lexicographic variable
D. dependent variable

51. Categorical variables are also called variables.

A. independent
B. index
C. dependent
D. classificatory

52. What type of variable is "gender"?

A. continuous variable
B. primary variable
C. dependent variable
D. categorical variable
53. A(n) is a process outcome or a variable that is predicted and/or explained by other variables.

A. primary variable
B. absolute variable
C. dependent variable
D. independent variable
54. In the statement: "Years of sales experience is an important predictor of dollar sales performance,"
what type of variable is "dollar sales performance"?

A. dependent variable
B. categorical variable
C. classificatory variable
D. independent variable

55. A(n) variable is one that is expected to influence the dependent variable in some way.

A. primary
B. interactive
C. independent
D. first-order
56. In the statement: "Years of sales experience is an important variable in predicting unit sales
performance," what type of variable is "years of experience"?

A. dependent variable
B. independent variable
C. categorical variable.
D. classificatory variable
57. Which of the following expresses the research objectives in terms of questions that can be
addressed by research?

A. situation analysis
B. dependent variable
C. research question
D. independent variable
58. A statement such as: "Increasing price five percent will cause sales to drop by eight
percent or more," is an example of a .

A. hypothesis
B. dependent variable
C. problem definition
D. research objective
59. A specific performance criterion upon which a decision can be based is called a(n) .

A. managerial action standard

B. managerial benchmark
C. unit of analysis
D. standardized variable
60. A statement such as: "If our new floor cleaner reaches a local market share of three percent after
nine months of test marketing the product in Phoenix, we will launch the product nationally," is an
example of a .

A. hypothesis
B. situation analysis
C. managerial action standard
D. problem definition

61. A written statement of the research design is called a .

A. research hypothesis
B. research proposal
C. research question
D. research summary
62. Todd has prepared a document that includes the deliverables and a definition of the problem for a
research client. In this document, he described how he will conduct a survey along with a schedule of
costs and deadlines. What is this document called?

A. research proposal
B. research statement
C. research blueprint
D. managerial action statement
63. refers to basic research usually performed by academic researchers that is financially
supported by some public or private institution, as in federal government grants.

A. Philanthropic business research

B. Priority business research
C. Underwritten business research
D. Funded business research
64. Sharon is a management professor who received a grant from the American Management
Association to study how employees make decisions in cross-functional groups. Sharon's
research is .

A. applied business research

B. dependent business research
C. funded business research
D. analytical business research
65. Tables placed in a research proposal that are exact representations of the actual tables that will
show results in the final report but contain hypothetical results are called .

A. dummy tables
B. surrogate tables
C. interim tables
D. placeholder tables
66. "What is to be measured in this research study?" is a fundamental question to ask at the stage
of a research design.

problem definition

67. A is a written expression of the key question(s) that a research user wishes to answer.

decision statement
68. A(n) occurs when there is a difference between the current conditions and a more preferable
set of conditions.

problem
69. A preliminary study of background information that led up to the current situation is called a(n)
.

situation analysis
70. is an interview technique that tries to draw deeper and more elaborate explanations from a
discussion with a decision maker.

Probing
71. A researcher is studying purchasing managers to determine how they decide to use credit in
purchase situations for their companies. In this case, purchasing managers are the .

unit of analysis
72. Anything that changes in value from one instance to another in a research study is called a(n)
.

variable

73. Income is an example of a(n) variable.

continuous
74. The variable that is measured to determine the outcome of the research process is called the
variable.

dependent
75. If type of promotional offer is manipulated in an experiment to determine its effect on consumers'
intent to purchase a product, the type of promotional offer is the variable.

independent
76. The research objectives of a study are translated into research that can be answered by the
research study.

questions
77. A performance criterion that expresses what a manager will do if a criterion is achieved in a
research study is called a(n) .

managerial action standard

78. A written statement of the research design for a study is called the .

research proposal
79. Basic research usually performed by academic researchers and supported by some public or
private institution is called business research.

funded
80. Tables in a research proposal which contain fictitious, but realistic, data of the likely outcome of
the research study are referred to as tables.

dummy

81. Define problem definition and discuss factors that make defining problems more difficult.

Problem definition is the process of defining and developing a decision statement and the steps
involved in translating it into more precise research terminology, including a set of research
objectives. Factors that make it more difficult to define problems include:
(1) Situation frequency - recurring and/or routine situations allow easier problem definition and
may even be automated through a company's DSS.
(2) Dramatic changes - it is easier to define the problem when a sudden change in the
business situation takes place.
(3) How widespread are the symptoms? - the more scattered any symptoms are, the more
difficult it is to put them together into some coherent problem.
(4) Symptom ambiguity - the higher the ambiguity, the more difficult it is to define the problem.
82. What are the three types of gaps that may reflect a problem, indicating that research may be needed
to assist a business in making some decision? Give an explanation of each.

The gap can come about in a number of ways:

(1) Business performance is worse than expected business performance. For example, sales, profits,
and margins could be below targets set by management. Or employee turnover is higher than
expected.
(2) Actual business performance is less than possible business performance. Realization of this gap
first requires that management has some idea of what is possible.
(3) Expected business performance is greater than possible business performance. This could be due
to management having an unrealistic view of possible performance levels.

83. A researcher has been hired by a business owner to help her understand why she is losing
customers. List the steps the researcher should follow in defining the problem for this research
study.

(1) Understand the business situation by identifying key symptoms

(2) Identify key problem(s) from symptoms
(3) Write managerial decision statement and corresponding research objectives
(4) Determine the unit of analysis
(5) Determine the relevant variables
(6) Write research questions and/or research hypotheses

84. Devise a study that contains continuous, categorical, dependent, and independent variables and the
research objective(s) of your study. Be sure to label each variable accordingly and identify the unit of
analysis in your study.

Students' applications will vary, but they should demonstrate an understanding of what a variable is
and the types of variables. A variable is anything that varies or changes from one instance to
another. A continuous variable is one that can take on a range of values that correspond to some
quantitative amount. Age, sales, or satisfaction are examples. Categorical variables indicate
membership in some group. For example, male/female; freshman, sophomore, junior, or senior. A
dependent variable is a process outcome or a variable that is predicted and/or explained by other
variables. An independent variable is one that is expected to influence the dependent variable in
some way. For example, advertising expenditures (independent variable) might influence sales
(dependent variable). Independent and dependent variables can be continuous variables or
categorical variables.
85. Explain the difference between research questions and hypotheses.

Research questionsexpress the research objectives in terms of questions that can be addressed by
research. For example, a research question might be "Are consumers' perceptions of food quality,
price, and atmosphere related to customer loyalty?" Hypotheses are more specific than research
questions. One key distinction between research questions and hypotheses is that hypotheses can
generally specify the direction of a relationship. For example, a hypothesis might be stated as, "Food
quality perceptions are related positively to customer commitment toward a restaurant." At times, a
researcher may suspect that two variables are related but have insufficient theoretical rationale to
support the relationship as positive or negative. In this case, hypotheses cannot be offered. At times
in research, particularly in exploratory research, a proposal can only offer research questions.
Research hypotheses are much more specific and therefore require considerably more theoretical
support. In addition, research questions are interrogative, whereas research hypotheses are
declarative.

86. What is a research proposal and how is it useful for both the researcher and the client?

The research proposal is a written statement of the research design. It includes a statement
explaining the purpose of the study (in the form of research objectives or deliverables) and a
definition of the problem, often in the form of a decision statement. It outlines the particular research
methodology and details procedures that will be used during each stage of the research process.
Normally a schedule of costs and deadlines is included. It becomes the primary communication
document between the researcher and the research user.

A research proposal is useful to both the researcher and the client in two ways:
(1) Planning tool - forces the researcher to think critically about each stage of the research process.
Research clients evaluate the proposed study with particular emphasis on whether or not it will
provide useful information and whether it will do so within a reasonable budget. It helps managers
decide if the proper information will be obtained and if the proposed research will accomplish what
is desired.
(2) Contract - serves as the researcher's bid to offer a specific service. Both the researcher and client
should sign the proposal indicating agreement on what will be done. Thus, it is a record of the
researcher's obligations and provides a standard for determining whether the actual research was
conducted as originally planned.
87. How does a research proposal differ from the final research report? What is the best way for the
researcher to let management know exactly what kind of results will be produced by the
research?

The proposal and the final research report will contain much of the same information. The proposal
describes the data collection, measurement, data analysis, and so forth, in future tense. In the report,
the actual results are presented. In this sense, the proposal anticipates the research outcome. Perhaps
the best way to let management know exactly what kind of results will be produced by research is by
using dummy tables. Dummy tables are placed in research proposals and are exact representations
of the actual tables that will show results in the final report with one exception: the results are
hypothetical. A researcher can present dummy tables to the decision maker and ask if he or she can
make a decision based on findings like these.
 Chapter 7--Qualitative Research Key
1. Qualitative research is subjective in the sense that the results are researcher-dependent.

TRUE
2. Quantitative research is especially useful when it is difficult to develop specific and
actionable decision statements or research objectives.

FALSE
3. Quantitative research address research objectives through empirical assessments that
involve numerical measurement and analytical approaches.

TRUE

4. Qualitative research is objective.

FALSE
5. When different researchers reach different conclusions based on the same interview, the
research lacks intersubjective certifiability.

TRUE

6. Qualitative research is cheaper than quantitative research.

FALSE

7. Most exploratory research designs produce qualitative data.

TRUE
8. Phenomenology represents a philosophical approach to studying human experiences based on
the idea that human experience itself is inherently subjective and determined by the context in
which people live.

TRUE

9. A hermeneutic unit refers to a participant in a focus group interview.

FALSE

1
10. Studying cultures using methods that involve becoming highly active within that culture is
called phenomenology.

FALSE

11. Observation is a major way information is gathered in ethnography.

TRUE
12. Phenomenology represents an inductive investigation in which the researcher poses questions
about information provided by respondents or taken from historical records.

FALSE

13. Case studies involve documented history of a particular person, group, organization, or event.

TRUE
14. A primary advantage of the case study is that an entire organization or entity can be investigated
in depth.

TRUE
15. Case studies are analyzed for important themes identified by the frequency with which the same
term arises.

TRUE

16. A focus group typically involves a rigid question-and-answer session among participants.

FALSE

17. Focus groups, while useful, take considerable time and effort to execute.

FALSE
18. Leapfrogging is a procedure in which one respondent stimulates thought among the others in a
focus group.

FALSE

19. The ideal size of a focus group is 20 to 25 people.

FALSE
20. A focus group moderator needs to be a good talker and dominate the group discussion to keep it
on track.

FALSE
21. A focus group discussion guide includes written introductory comments, informing the group
about the focus group purpose and rules and then outlines topics or questions to be asked in the
group session.

TRUE
22. A focus blog is established for the purpose of collecting qualitative data from an informal,
continuous focus group.

TRUE
23. In online focus group sessions, the moderator's ability to probe is greater than it is in a face-to-
face focus group session.

FALSE
24. Laddering is an approach to probing, asking respondents to compare differences between brands
at different levels that produces distinctions at different levels.

TRUE
25. Depth interviews are less expensive than focus group interviews, especially if several
depth interviews are conducted.

FALSE

26. The sentence completion method is a type of free-association technique.

TRUE
27. The thematic apperception test (TAT) presents subjects with an ambiguous picture in
which consumers and products are the center of attention.

TRUE

28. The term interpretive research is often used to mean qualitative research.

TRUE

29. One advantage of qualitative research is that it is highly replicable.

FALSE

30. The primary barriers to scientific decisions are time, money, and consensus.

FALSE
31. Research that addresses business objectives through techniques allowing the researcher to
provide elaborate interpretations of business phenomena without depending on numerical
measurement is called .

A. preliminary research
B. primitive research
C. qualitative research
D. secondary research
32. Kodetra is interpreting consumers' blog postings on the Internet. Which of the following best
describes the type of research Kodetra is conducting?

A. independent business research

B. dependent business research
C. quantitative business research
D. qualitative business research
33. Qualitative research is considered to be because the researcher must extract meaning from
unstructured responses.

A. researcher-dependent
B. less valid
C. less useful
D. object-dependent

34. All of the following are situations that often call for qualitative research EXCEPT .

A. when it is difficult to develop specific and actionable decision statements or research objectives
B. when conclusive evidence is desired
C. when the research objective is to develop an understanding of some phenomena in great detail and
in much depth
D. when a fresh approach to studying some problem is needed
35. Research that addresses research objectives through empirical assessments that involve
numerical measurement and analysis approaches is called .

A. quantitative business research

B. qualitative business research
C. extensive business research
D. grounded business research

36. Researcher-dependent results are .

A. subjective
B. objective
C. primary
D. secondary
37. When different researchers reach the same conclusions based on the same interview data, the
research is said to have .

A. validity
B. intersubjective certifiability
C. subjective validity
D. qualitative validity

38. Which type of data are not characterized by numbers and instead are textual, visual, or oral?

A. grounded data
B. quantitative data
C. subjective data
D. qualitative data

39. All of the following are qualitative research orientations EXCEPT .

A. phenomenology
B. grounded theory
C. case studies
D. ANOVA

40. Which qualitative research orientation originated in philosophy and psychology?

A. phenomenology
B. grounded theory
C. ethnography
D. anthropology

41. Ethnography is a qualitative research orientation originating in .

A. marketing
B. psychology
C. anthropology
D. sociology

42. Which qualitative research orientation originated in sociology?

A. phenomenology
B. grounded theory
C. ethnography
D. case studies
43. Owen is a researcher who studies human experiences based on the idea that it is inherently
subjective and determined by the context in which people live. He focuses on how a person's
behavior is shaped by the relationship he or she has with the physical environment, objects, people,
and situation. Which qualitative research orientation is Owen using?

A. grounded theory
B. phenomenology
C. ethnography
D. case study

44. Which of the following is an important approach used in phenomenology?

A. netnography
B. ethnography
C. grounded theory
D. hermeneutics
45. Which of the following is an approach to understanding phenomenology that relies on analysis
of texts through which a person tells a story about him- or herself?

A. hermeneutics
B. ethnography
C. psychographics
D. psychodynamics
46. A text passage from a respondent's story that is linked with a key theme from within this
story or provided by the researcher is called .

A. trace element
B. schemata
C. hermeneutic unit
D. case study
47. is a way of studying culture through methods that involve becoming highly active within that
culture.

A. Grounded theory
B. Ethnography
C. Phenomenology
D. Case studies
48. Cindy is an ethnographer who is trying to better understand how mothers take care of toddlers. Being
a mother herself, she was able to join a mother's group and spent considerable time immersed within
that culture. From this immersion, she is able to draw data from her observations. Cindy is referred
to as a(n) .

A. interloper
B. participant-observer
C. moderator
D. mystery shopper
49. Which qualitative research orientation extracts a theory from whatever emerges from an area
of inquiry?

A. phenomenology
B. ethnography
C. grounded theory
D. case study

50. What is the distinguishing characteristic of grounded theory?

A. Culture is analyzed by participant-observation in which the researcher becomes "grounded" in the

culture over a long period of time.
B. It relies on analysis of texts in which a person tells a story about him- or herself.
C. The interplay among respondents allows them to piggyback off of each other's ideas.
D. It does not begin with a theory but instead extracts one from whatever emerges from an area
of inquiry.

51. represent(s) the documented history of a particular person, group, organization, or event.

A. Case studies
B. Phenomenology
C. netnography
D. Attribution theory
52. When Schwinn studies its most successful retailer in depth in order to determine some better
ideas for displaying bicycles in its retail stores, this is an example of .

A. an experiment
B. a test market
C. a case study
D. causal research
53. In case studies, are identified by the frequency with which the same term (or a synonym)
arises in the narrative description.

A. themes
B. threats
C. links
D. ladders
54. An unstructured, free-flowing interview with a small group of people led by a trained
moderator is called a(n) .

A. interaction group interview

B. focus group interview
C. depth interview
D. ethnographic interview

55. Which of the following is the most common size of a focus group?

A. 1-2 participants
B. 3-5 participants
C. 6-10 participants
D. 12-20 participants
56. Betsy and six other women are participating in a research study that is an unstructured, free-flowing
interview. The researcher asked the group their feelings about how they are treated at work. Betsy is
participating in a .

A. case study
B. grounded research study
C. depth interview
D. focus group interview

57. Which of the following is an advantage of focus group interviews?

A. provide multiple perspectives

B. low degree of scrutiny
C. inexpensive
D. easy to use for sensitive topics
58. In a focus group discussion, when the comments of one member triggers a stream of comments
from the other participants, this is called .

A. serendipity
B. piggyback
C. structure
D. themes
59. The person who leads a focus group interview and ensures that everyone gets a chance to
speak and facilitates discussion is called a(n) .

A. moderator
B. interviewer
C. facilitator
D. leader
60. Which of the following is a good characteristic for a focus group moderator to possess?

A. good listener
B. ability to make people feel comfortable so that they will talk in the group
C. ability to control discussion without being overbearing
D. all of these choices
61. The written set of guidelines that describes an outline of topics to be covered by a focus
group moderator is called a .

A. discussion guide
B. TAT test
C. concept test
D. case study
62. A type of informal, "continuous" focus group established as an Internet blog for the
purpose of collecting qualitative data from participants is referred to as a .

A. net group
B. market blog
C. focus blog
D. focus unit

63. Which of the following is a disadvantage of focus groups?

A. requires objective, sensitive, and effective moderators

B. may not be useful for discussing sensitive topics
C. high cost
D. all of these choices
64. When a professional interviewer holds a 90-minute discussion with one member of the target
market to find out why that respondent purchases a particular brand of clothing, this is an example
of a
.

A. depth interview
B. concept test
C. focus interview
D. hermeneutic analysis
65. Which type of qualitative tool is an informal and almost completely unstructured approach in
which the researcher engages a respondent in a discussion of the relevant subject matter?

A. depth interview
B. conversation
C. focus group
D. free-association
66. Hank is a researcher who is discussing football fan behavior with a respondent. His approach is
almost completely unstructured, and he enters into a discussion with few expectations. What he
wants is for a respondent to tell him about his or her experience as a football fan. Hank will then try
to derive meaning from the resulting dialog. Which qualitative research technique is Hank using?

A. conversation
B. focus group
C. depth interview
D. case study

67. All of the following are advantages of semi-structured interviews EXCEPT .

A. ability to address more specific issues

B. responses are usually easier to interpret than other qualitative approaches
C. questions are administered without the presence of an interviewer
D. high degree of scrutiny
68. Which qualitative tool simply records a respondent's first cognitive reaction (top-of-mind) to some
stimulus?

A. phenomenology
B. conversations
C. probing
D. free-association techniques
69. When the respondent is presented with: "People who watch football on television are ,"
and asked to fill in the blank, this is an example of a .

A. word association test

B. concept test
C. case study
D. sentence completion test
70. are the researcher's descriptions of what actually happens in the field and are the text from which
meaning is extracted.

A. Hermeneutics
B. Field notes
C. Discussion guides
D. Verbatims
71. Stephanie was asked to look at a picture of a woman sitting on a deserted beach and to describe
what was happening in the picture. She was then asked to tell what might happen next. Stephanie
was participating in a(n) .

A. aptitude test
B. focus interview
C. thematic apperception test
D. focus blog
72. Which of the following means the same conclusion would be reached based on another researcher's
interpretation of the research?

A. validity
B. replicable
C. homogeneity
D. scrutiny
73. Research that addresses marketing objectives through techniques that allow the researcher to
provide elaborate interpretations of business phenomena without depending on numerical
measurement is referred to as business research.

qualitative

74. Qualitative research results are because they are researcher-dependent.

subjective

75. Most exploratory research designs do not usually product data.

quantitative

76. Ethnography originated from the discipline of .

anthropology
77. represents a philosophical approach to studying human experiences based on the idea that human
experience itself is inherently subjective and determined by the context in which people live.

Phenomenology

78. The typical ethnographic approach requires the use of .

participant-observation
79. An in-depth study of a major competitor in order to determine how to improve your
organization's product line offerings is an example of a(n) .

case study
80. An unstructured, free-flowing discussion with a small group of consumers in a session
that is conducted by a moderator is called a(n) .

focus group
81. In a focus group, when the comments of one member stimulate another member to say what
she is thinking, this is called .

piggyback
82. The person who leads a focus group discussion is called a(n) .

moderator
83. A written set of guidelines prepared by a moderator that outlines the topics to be discussed in a
focus group session is called a(n) .

discussion guide

84. A focus group session that is conducted over the Internet is called a(n) focus group session.

online
85. A one-on-one interview between a professional researcher and a research respondent about
why she selected a specific insurance benefit option is an example of a(n) .

depth interview
86. When an interviewer reads a list of words and asks the respondent to "say the first thing that comes
to mind after I say each word," this is an example of a(n) technique.

free-association

87. Research that leads to the same results and conclusions by different researchers is .

replicable
88. Compare and contrast qualitative research and quantitative research and discuss situations in
which qualitative research is useful.

Qualitative business research is research that addresses business objectives through techniques that
allow the researcher to provide elaborate interpretations of phenomena without depending on
numerical measurement. Its focus is on discovering true inner meanings and new insights. It is less
structured than most quantitative approaches and does not rely on self-response questionnaires
containing structured response formats. Instead, it is more researcher-dependent in that the
researcher must extract meaning from unstructured responses such as text from a recorded interview
or a collage representing the meaning of some experience. The researcher interprets the data to
extract its meaning and converts it to information. Qualitative research is useful when:
(1) it is difficult to develop specific and actionable decision statements or research objectives;
(2 )the research objective is to develop an understanding of some phenomena in greater detail and in
much depth;
(3) the research objective is to learn how a phenomenon occurs in its natural setting or to learn how
to express some concept in colloquial terms;
(4) some behavior the researcher is studying is particularly context-dependent; or
(5) when the researcher needs a fresh approach.

Quantitative business research can be defined as business research that addresses research
objectives through empirical assessments that involve numerical measurement and analysis
approaches. It is more apt to stand on its own in the sense that it requires less interpretation.

89. Explain the role of qualitative data and quantitative data in exploratory research designs.

When researchers have limited experience or knowledge about an issue, exploratory research is
useful. Most exploratory research designs produce qualitative data, which are not characterized by
numbers and instead are textual, visual, or oral. Exploratory designs do not usually produce
quantitative data, which represent phenomena by assigning numbers in an ordered and meaningful
way.
90. Name and briefly describe the four qualitative research orientations.

Major categories of qualitative research:

(1) Phenomenology - originating in philosophy and psychology. It represents a philosophical
approach to studying human experiences based on the idea that human experience itself is
inherently subjective and determined by the context in which they live.
(2) Ethnography - originating in anthropology. It represents ways of studying cultures through
methods that involve becoming highly involved within that culture (e.g., participant-observer).
(3) Grounded theory - originating in sociology. It represents an inductive investigation in which the
researcher poses questions about information provided by respondents or taken from historical
records.
(4) Case studies - originating in psychology and in business research. It refers to the documented
history of a particular person, group, organization, or event, and cases are analyzed for important
themes.

91. Describe a focus group interview and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of this technique.

A focus group interview is an unstructured, free-flowing interview with a small group of people
(i.e., 6-10). Focus groups are led by a trained moderator who follows a flexible format encouraging
dialogue among respondents. A moderator begins by providing some opening statement to broadly
steer discussion in the intended direction. Ideally, discussion topics emerge at the group's initiative,
not the moderator's.

Focus groups offer several advantages: (1) relatively fast, (2) easy to execute, (3) allow
respondents to piggyback off each other's ideas, (4) provides multiple perspectives, (5) flexibility
to allow more detailed descriptions, and (6) high degree of scrutiny.

Disadvantages include: (1) requires objective, sensitive, and effective moderators, (2) group may not
be representative of the entire target market, (3) may not be useful for discussing sensitive topics, and
(4) expensive.
92. Develop a discussion guide for a focus group on football fan behavior.

Students' answers will vary, but they should demonstrate knowledge and application of the elements
of a discussion guide:
1. Welcome and introductions should take place first.
2. Begin the interview with a broad icebreaker that does not reveal too many specifics about
the interview.
3. Questions become increasingly more specific as the interview proceeds.
4. If there is a very specific objective to be accomplished, that question should probably be saved
for last.
5. A debriefing statement should be provided providing respondents with the actual focus group
objectives and answering any questions any may have.

93. Explain how the Internet is useful in conducting qualitative research.

Internet applications of qualitative exploratory research are growing rapidly and involve both formal
and informal applications. Formally, the term online focus group refers to a qualitative research
effort where a group of individuals provides unstructured comments by entering their remarks into an
electronic Internet display board of some type. Several companies have established a form of
informal, "continuous" focus group by establishing an Internet blog for that purpose, called a focus
blog.

94. Do exploratory research approaches using qualitative research tools have a role in scientific
inquiry? Explain why a decision may be based solely on these results.

Objectivity and replicability are two characteristics of scientific inquiry, and many would question
whether exploratory research using qualitative research tools can satisfy these. A focus group or a
depth interview or a TAT alone does not best represent a complete scientific inquiry. However, if the
thoughts discovered through these techniques survive preliminary evaluations and are developed into
research hypotheses, they can be further tested. Thus, exploratory research approaches using
qualitative research tools are very much a part of scientific inquiry. In practice, many marketing
decisions are based solely on the results of exploratory research as a scientific decision process is not
always justified. However, as the risk increases, the confidence that comes along with a rigorous
research and decision process becomes well worth the investment. The primary barriers to scientific
decisions are (1) time, (2) money, and (3) emotion.
 Chapter 13--Measurement Key
1. Measurement is the process of describing some property of a phenomenon, usually by
assigning numbers, in a reliable and valid way.

TRUE
2. In measurement, whenever a number is used to assign a value to an observation, the researcher
must assign this number according to some predetermined rule.

TRUE

3. All measurement, particularly in the social sciences, contains error.

TRUE
4. Correspondence analysis is the process of identifying scale devices that correspond to properties of
a concept involved in a research process.

FALSE

5. Scales measure concepts.

TRUE

6. A construct is a term used for concepts that are measured with single variables.

FALSE

7. How we define a construct will affect the way we measure it.

TRUE

8. A ratio scale is the simplest type of measurement scale.

FALSE
9. A measurement scale in which respondents are asked to rank items based on their preferences
is called a nominal scale.

FALSE

10. The most sophisticated form of data analysis for a nominal scale is the average of the scores.

FALSE

1
11. The Fahrenheit temperature scale is an example of a ratio scale.

FALSE

12. Interval scales represent the absolute meaning of the numbers on the scale.

FALSE

13. In ratio scales, the location of the zero point is arbitrary.

FALSE

14. Money is an example of something that can be measured using a ratio scale.

TRUE

15. Mathematical operations cannot be performed with numbers from nominal scales.

FALSE

16. Discrete measures are those that take on only one of a finite number of values.

TRUE
17. Continuous measures are those assigning values anywhere along some scale range in a place
that corresponds to the intensity of some concept.

TRUE

18. Interval scales are considered continuous when five or more categories are used.

TRUE

19. An attribute is a single characteristic or fundamental feature of an object, person, situation, or issue.

TRUE
20. An index measure assigns a value based on how characteristic an observation is of the thing
being measured.

TRUE

21. A scale can be created by simply adding together the responses to several items related to a topic.

TRUE
22. Sometimes respondents' answers need to be assigned opposite values through a process called
cross-validation.

FALSE
23. The three major criteria for evaluating measurements are reliability, validity, and replicability.

FALSE

24. Reliability is an indicator of a measure's internal consistency.

TRUE
25. A measuring instrument is valid when the results can be repeated at subsequent measurements of
the concept.

FALSE

26. Internal consistency represents a measure's heterogeneity.

FALSE

27. Coefficient alpha is the most commonly applied estimate of a composite scale's reliability.

TRUE

28. Validity is the extent to which a score truthfully represents a concept.

TRUE
29. Content validity is the ability of a measure to correlate with other standard measures of
similar constructs or established criteria.

FALSE

30. Discriminant validity is another way of expressing internal consistency.

FALSE
31. is the process of describing some property of a phenomenon, usually by assigning numbers, in
a reliable and valid way.

A. Research
B. Analysis
C. Validation
D. Measurement
32. A researcher is observing fans at a soccer game and is putting a "1" if the fan is actively cheering and
a "0" if they just seem to be merely watching the game without saying anything. He is also indicating
which team the fan seems to be associated with as well as approximate age and gender. By recording
information such as this with codes, the researcher is involved in .

A. conceptualization
B. operationalization
C. measurement
D. analysis

33. Age, gender, brand loyalty, and corporate culture are all examples of .

A. concepts
B. scales
C. ratios
D. codes

34. A(n) is a generalized idea that represents something of identifiable and distinct meaning.

A. scale
B. concept
C. operant
D. measure
35. is the process of identifying scale devices that correspond to properties of a concept
involved in a research process.

A. Conceptualization
B. Conversion
C. Correspondence
D. Operationalization

36. Researchers measure concepts through a process known as .

A. summation
B. operationalization
C. assessment
D. matching
37. Which of the following is a device providing a range of values that correspond to
different characteristics or amounts of a characteristic exhibited in observing a concept?

A. operations
B. reliability
C. sensitivity
D. scale
38. Which of the following refers to concepts measured with multiple variables?

A. operation
B. construct
C. concept
D. scale
39. In an observation study, when "shopping time in a supermarket" is defined as: "Using a stopwatch,
start the stopwatch the moment the customer enters the store and stop the stopwatch as soon as the
customer is handed a receipt by the checkout clerk," this is best described as an example of a(n)
.

A. nominal scale
B. equivalent-form scale
C. operational definition
D. test-retest method
40. Scales that assign a value to an object for identification or classification purposes are called
scales.

A. ordinal
B. nominal
C. interval
D. ratio

41. Which of the following is the most elementary level of measurement?

A. nominal scale
B. ordinal scale
C. ratio scale
D. interval scale
42. Coding household income into "Above $100,000," "Between $50,000 and $100,000," and "Below
$50,000" is an example of a(n) scale.

A. interval
B. test-retest
C. criterion
D. nominal
43. A scale that allows things to be arranged based on how much of some concept they possess is
called a(n) scale.

A. quantitative scale
B. nominal
C. ordinal
D. order
44. Which type of scale is, at the most, a ranking scale?

A. ratio
B. interval
C. nominal
D. ordinal
45. When job candidates are asked to place job listings so that their first choice is 1, their second
choice is 2, and so forth, this is best-described as an example of a(n) scale.

A. ordinal
B. ratio
C. interval
D. nominal
46. A scale which arranges brands in an ordered sequence in which there is an equal interval
between each point on the scale is an example of a(n) scale.

A. interval
B. ratio
C. nominal
D. ordinal
47. The Fahrenheit temperature scale is best described as an example of a(n) scale because it
doesn't have an absolute zero point.

A. ratio
B. nominal
C. interval
D. ordinal
48. Which type of scale has all the properties of an interval scale with the additional attribute
of representing absolute quantities, characterized by a meaningful absolute zero?

A. nominal scale
B. discrete scale
C. infinite scale
D. ratio scale

49. Which type of scale represents the highest form of measurement?

A. nominal scale
B. ordinal
C. ratio
D. interval
50. A company's stock price is best described as an example of a(n) scale.

A. ordinal
B. interval
C. ratio
D. nominal

51. Which of the following is a defining characteristic in determining between ratio and interval scales?

A. number of items
B. absolute zero
C. number of intervals
D. nominal values

52. All of the following can be measured using ratio scales EXCEPT .

A. gender
B. income
C. temperature
D. weight

53. Measures that can take on only one of a finite number of values are called .

A. discrete measures
B. neutral measures
C. limited measures
D. continuous measures

54. Which of the following is a discrete measure?

A. nominal scales
B. sensitive scales
C. ratio scales
D. all of these choices
55. Measures that reflect the intensity of a concept by assigning values that can take on any value
along some scale range are called .

A. discrete measures
B. continuous measures
C. absolute measures
D. valid measures

56. Age is an example of a measure.

A. nominal
B. biological
C. discrete
D. continuous
57. A(n) is a single characteristic or fundamental feature of an object, person, situation, or issue.

A. concept
B. variable
C. attribute
D. construct

58. Gas mileage is an example of a(n) of an automobile.

A. attribute
B. concept
C. measure
D. component
59. Which type of measure assigns a value based on how much of the concept being measured is
associated with an observation and is formed by putting several variables together
systematically?

A. conglomerate measure
B. multiplicative measure
C. index measure
D. multidimensional measure
60. Carla is using education, income, and occupation to develop a measure of social class. What type of
measure for social class is she developing?

A. index measure
B. valid measure
C. reliable measure
D. concurrent measure
61. Which type of measure assigns a value to an observation based on a mathematical derivation
of multiple measures?

A. conglomerate measure
B. derivative measure
C. higher-order measure
D. composite measure
62. A researcher is measuring consumers' attitudes toward product placement in movies using five
attitude items. She created a scale by simply summing the response to each item making up the
composite measure. This composite measure is called a(n) .

A. derived scale
B. additive scale
C. summated scale
D. primary scale
63. Which of the following means that the value assigned for a response is treated oppositely from
the other items in a scale?

A. reverse coding
B. indexing
C. alpha coding
D. convergence

64. Which of the following is an indicator of a measure's internal consistency?

A. reliability
B. validity
C. coefficient beta
D. sensitivity
65. represents a measure's homogeneity or the extent to which each indicator of a concept
converges on a common meaning.

A. Internal consistency
B. Validity
C. Internal validity
D. External consistency
66. When a researcher measures the reliability of an instrument by comparing the results of the
odd-numbered questions with the results of the even-numbered questions, this is an example of
reliability.

A. test-retest
B. split-half
C. equivalent-forms
D. criterion

67. The most commonly applied estimate of a composite scale's reliability is .

A. coefficient alpha
B. coefficient beta
C. criterion coefficient
D. an index coefficient

68. Which of the following represents the average of all possible split-half reliabilities for a construct?
2
A. R
B. S
C. a
D. W
69. A researcher who administers the same scale to the same respondents at two separate times to test
for stability is using which method of assessing the scale's reliability?

A. coefficient alpha
B. split-half method
C. test-retest method
D. before/after method

70. is the accuracy of a measure or the extent to which a score truthfully represents a concept.

A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Consistency
D. Authenticity
71. The ability of a measuring instrument to measure what it is supposed to measure is the basic
purpose of .

A. reliability
B. validity
C. sensitivity
D. indexing
72. When a group of experts agrees that a measuring instrument measures what it is intended to
measure, we say that the instrument has validity.

A. face
B. criterion
C. test-retest
D. equivalent-forms

73. All of the following are basic aspects of validity EXCEPT .

A. primary validity
B. face validity
C. construct validity
D. criterion validity
74. Which type of validity addresses the question, "Does my measure correlate with measures of similar
concepts or known quantities?"

A. face validity
B. reliability validity
C. criterion validity
D. discriminant validity
75. When a two-point scale (e.g. agree/disagree) is expanded to include five categories (e.g. strongly
disagree, disagree, undecided, agree, strongly agree), we say that the of the scale has been
increased.

A. sensitivity
B. reliability
C. predictive validity
D. criterion validity

76. A generalized idea that represents something of meaning is called a(n) .

concept

77. The process involving identifying scales that correspond to properties of a concept is called .

operationalization
78. Scales provide rules that indicate that a certain value on a scale corresponds to some true
value of a concept.

correspondence
79. A scale in which letters (e.g. A,B,C) are assigned to objects to serve as identification labels for
the objects is called a(n) scale.

nominal
80. A scale which arranges objects in order according to their relative magnitude to one another is
called a(n) scale.

ordinal
81. A scale which arranges objects so that they are equally-distant from one another is called a(n)
scale.

interval

82. A scale has an absolute zero point.

ratio

83. Measures that take on only one of a finite number of values are called measures.

discrete
84. Measures that assign values anywhere along some scale range in a place that corresponds to
the intensity of some concept are called measures.

continuous
85. A(n) measure assigns a value to an observation based on a mathematical derivation of multiple
variables.

composite

86. means that the value assigned for a response is treated oppositely from the other items.

Reverse coding
87. The degree to which a measurement instrument yields consistent results is called the of the
instrument.

reliability
88. is the most commonly applied estimate of a multiple item scale's reliability and represents the
average of all possible split-half reliabilities for a construct.

Coefficient alpha
89. The method of determining reliability involves administering the same scale or measure to
the same respondents at two separate times to test for stability.

test-retest
90. The ability of a measuring instrument to measure what it is supposed to measure is called its
.

validity

91. A scale that logically appears to reflect what was intended to be measured possesses validity.

face

92. validity is the degree that a measure covers the breadth of the domain of interest.

Content
93. validity consists of several components, including face validity, content validity,
criterion validity, convergent validity, and discriminant validity.

Construct

94. validity represents the uniqueness or distinctiveness of a measure.

Discriminant

95. The ability of a scale to measure the variability of a concept is called that scale's .

sensitivity
96. Explain the difference between a concept and a construct, giving an example of each.

A concept can be thought of as a generalized idea that represents something of identifiable and
distinct meaning. Demographic concepts such as age, sex, and number of children are relatively
concrete and have relatively unambiguous meaning. Examples of less concrete and more ambiguous
concepts include loyalty, personality, and corporate culture. Variables capture different values of a
concept. A construct is a term used to refer to concepts measured with multiple variables.

97. Compare and contrast the four different levels of scale measurement.

The four levels or types of scale measurement are:

(1) Nominal scale - represents the most elementary level of measurement. It assigns a value to an
object for identification or classification purposes. The value can be a number, but does not have to
be, because no quantities are being represented.
(2) Ordinal scale - ranking scales allowing things to be arranged based on how much of some
concepts they possess. They have nominal properties, but they also allow things to be arranged based
on how much of some concept they possess.
(3) Interval scale - has both nominal and ordinal properties, but also captures information about
differences in quantities of a concept. Unlike ordinal scales, it captures relative quantities in the form
of distances between observations.
(4) Ratio scale - represents the highest form of measurement in that is has all the properties of an
interval scale with the additional attribute representing absolute quantities. Interval scales represent
only relative meaning whereas ratio scales represent absolute meaning. Therefore, zero has meaning
in that it represents an absence of some concept.

98. Explain how indexes or composite measures are formed and give an example of how they are used
in business research.

Multi-item instruments for measuring a construct are either called index measures or composite
measures. An index measure assigns a value based on how characteristic an observation is of the
thing being measured. Indexes often are formed by putting several variables together. For example,
a social class index is based on three weighted variables: income, occupation, and education. With an
index, the different attributes may not be strongly correlated with each other. Composite measures
also assign a value based on a mathematical derivation of multiple variables. For most practical
applications, composite measures and indexes are computed in the same way. However, composite
measures are distinguished from index measures in that the composite's indicators should be both
theoretically and statistically related to each other.

These types of measures are used in several areas of business research, especially when measuring
latent concepts.
99. List the three criteria for good measurement.

Reliability, validity, and sensitivity.

100. Explain why researchers are concerned with scale reliability and discuss how it is assessed.

Reliability is an indicator of a measure's internal consistency. A measure is reliable when different

attempts at measuring something converge on the same result. When a measuring process provides
reproducible results, the measuring instrument is reliable. Internal consistency is a term used to
represent a measure's homogeneity and can be measured by correlating scores on subsets of items
making up a scale. The split-half method of checking reliability is performed by taking half the
items from a scale (e.g., odd-numbered items) and checking them against the results from the other
half (even-numbered items). The two scale halves should correlate highly. Coefficient alpha is the
most commonly applied estimate of a composite scale's reliability by computing the average of all
possible split-half reliabilities from a multiple-item scale. This coefficient demonstrates whether or
not the different items converge and ranges from 0 to 1, with values between 0.80 and 0.96
considered to have very good reliability. The test-retest method of determining reliability involves
administering the same scale or measure on the same respondents at two separate times to test for
stability.

101. Name and describe the components of construct validity.

Construct validity exists when a measure reliably measures and truthfully represents a unique
concept. It consists of several components:
(1) Face validity - refers to a scale's content logically appearing to reflect what was intended to be
measured.
(2) Content validity - the degree that a measure covers the breadth of the domain of interest.
(3) Convergent validity - another way of expressing internal consistency. Highly reliable scales
contain convergent validity.
(4) Criterion validity - addresses the question, "Does my measure correlate with measures of
similar concepts or known quantities?"
(5) Discriminant validity - represents how unique or distinct is a measure.
 Chapter 14--Attitude Measurement Key
1. A person's attitude toward the American's With Disabilities Act can be directly observed.

FALSE

2. Attitudes are thought to have three components: affective, cognitive, and behavioral.

TRUE
3. A person's knowledge about a brand is part of the affective component of that person's
attitude toward that brand.

FALSE

4. Researchers have limited options for measuring attitudinal concepts..

FALSE
5. A rating task asks the respondent to estimate the magnitude or the extent to which some
characteristic exists.

TRUE

6. Attitude can be measured using a two-point response scale.

TRUE

7. If a Likert scale statement on five-point scale is recoded, a 4 would be recoded as a 2.

TRUE

8. A composite scale is made up of multiple items to represent a latent construct.

TRUE
9. The semantic differential scale uses unlabeled response categories between two bipolar opposite
adjectives.

TRUE

10. Semantic differential scales can be scored by: -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3

TRUE

1
11. Business researchers generally assume that the semantic differential provides ratio data.

FALSE

12. An image profile can be developed based on semantic differential data.

TRUE
13. A numerical scale is similar to a Likert scale except that is uses numbers instead of
verbal descriptions as response options to identify response positions.

FALSE
14. The Stapel scale is more difficult to administer in a phone interview than a semantic
differential scale.

FALSE
15. The constant-sum scale demands that respondents divide points among several attributes to
indicate their relative importance.

TRUE
16. In a linear scale, a respondent's score is the length in millimeters from one end of the scale to
the point marked on the scale by the respondent.

FALSE

17. A variation of the graphic ratings scale is the ladder scale.

TRUE

18. A Thurstone scale is widely used in business research because of its simplicity.

FALSE

19. Ranking measurements of attitudes provide interval data.

FALSE
20. If a researcher wants to compare five brands of toothpaste on the basis of their flavor using the
paired comparison method, the researcher must ask each respondent to make five comparisons.

FALSE
21. Sorting tasks require that respondents indicate their attitudes or beliefs by arranging items on
the based of perceived similarity or some other attribute.

TRUE
22. A unidimensional rating scale is any measure of attitudes that asks respondents about a single
concept in isolation.

FALSE

23. A balanced rating scale has a neutral point, or point of indifference, at the center of the scale.

TRUE

24. Researchers use forced-choice scales to minimize the number of blank answers.

FALSE

25. Most psychological concepts are latent constructs and generally require multiple items.

TRUE
26. A(n) is an enduring disposition to consistently respond in a given manner to various aspects of
the world.

A. attitude
B. concept
C. expectation
D. construct

27. All of the following are basic components of attitude EXCEPT .

A. cognitive component
B. affective component
C. behavioral component
D. latent component

28. Which attitude component represents a person's awareness and knowledge of the relative matter?

A. affective
B. cognitive
C. behavioral
D. personal
29. Hank believes that the price of his tech company's stock will increase because the entire technology
sector is experiencing rapid growth. This belief represents which component of Hank's attitude?

A. affective
B. behavioral
C. cognitive
D. personal
30. Which component of attitude refers to an individual's general feelings or emotions toward an
object?

A. subjective
B. cognitive
C. affective
D. conative

31. "I love my job" is an example of which component of an attitude toward one's job?

A. affective
B. behavioral
C. cognitive
D. perceptive
32. Which component of attitude reflects a predisposition to action by reflecting an individual's
intentions?

A. behavioral component
B. absolute component
C. cognitive component
D. affective component
33. "I plan to buy a new DVD player sometime in the next three months" is an aspect of
which component of an attitude?

A. cognitive
B. affective
C. behavioral
D. personal
34. Variables that are not directly observable but are measurable through indirect indicators, such
as verbal expression or overt behavior, are called .

A. secondary variables
B. indirect constructs
C. hypothetical constructs
D. unrealized constructs
35. When a respondent is asked to place each shopping mall in a list of four local shopping malls in
the order in which she prefers to shop at each mall, this is an example of a task.

A. rating
B. ranking
C. sorting
D. semantic differential
36. When a respondent is given a set of 3" x 5" cards containing the current advertising slogan for a
brand or product on each card and is asked to place the cards into two piles: (1) Recognize this
slogan and can identify the brand/product and (2) Do not recognize the slogan, this is an example of
a
task.

A. rating
B. ranking
C. constant-sum
D. sorting
37. When a respondent is asked either to agree or to disagree with the statement: "The CEO is doing a
good job of managing the affairs of the corporation," this type of question produces data.

A. ordinal
B. nominal
C. ratio
D. interval
38. When a respondent is asked: "How often do you travel on business in a six-month period?" and is
asked to indicate her answer by circling one of the following: never, rarely, sometimes, often, very
often, this is an example of a scale.

A. semantic differential
B. Likert
C. category
D. constant-sum
39. Which type of scale asks respondents to indicate their attitudes by checking how strongly they
agree or disagree with carefully constructed statements, ranging from very positive to very negative
attitudes toward some object?

A. constant-sum
B. Likert
C. Stapel
D. graphic rating

40. What type of scale is the following?

The international accounting standards are an improvement over the current accounting standards.

Strongly Strongly
Agree Agree Neutral Disagree Disagree

A. semantic differential
B. constant-sum
C. Thurstone
D. Likert
41. How many choices do researchers commonly use when using Likert scales?

A. two
B. three
C. five
D. ten
42. is a method of making sure all the items forming a composite scale are scored in the
same direction.

A. Scoring
B. Reverse coding
C. Consistent coding
D. Composite scoring
43. A researcher used five Likert items to make up an attitude toward cross-functional teams in the
workplace. Two of the items were worded negatively, so the research changed the values of those
items by subtracting their value from 6. What is this researcher doing?

A. reverse coding
B. cross-validating
C. data reduction
D. inverting the items

44. Which type of scale has respondents describe their attitude using a series of bipolar rating scales?

A. Likert
B. constant-sum
C. semantic differential
D. Thurstone

45. What type of scale is the following?

Contemporary Traditional

A. Likert
B. graphic rating
C. Thurstone
D. semantic differential
46. Which of the following is a graphic representation of semantic differential data for competing
brands, products, or stores to highlight comparisons?

A. image profile
B. perceptual map
C. Likert profile
D. comparative profile
47. Which type of scale is similar to a semantic differential except that it uses numbers, instead of
verbal descriptions, as response options to identify response positions?

A. quantitative scale
B. summated scale
C. Stapel scale
D. numerical scale
48. A scale is a measure of attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the center of an
even number of numerical values.

A. Stapel
B. unidimensional
C. numerical
D. differential
49. What type of scale is the following when female shoppers are asked to rate Macy's department
store in terms of its women's apparel items?
Macy's
+3
+2
+1
Price
-1
-2
-3

A. semantic differential
B. Stapel
C. paired comparison
D. constant-sum
50. A type of scale that demands that respondents divide points among several attributes to indicate
their relative importance is called a .

A. constant-sum scale
B. Likert scale
C. Stapel scale
D. semantic differential
51. What type of scale is the following?
United Parcel Service (UPS) would like you to distribute 50 points among the following in terms of how important each
aspect is to you for your overnight shipping needs:

Accurate billing
On-time delivery
Price

A. Likert
B. paired comparison
C. Thurstone
D. constant-sum
52. Which measure of attitude allows respondents to rate an object by choosing any point along a
graphic continuum?

A. continuous rating scale

B. point scale
C. graphic rating scale
D. line scale

53. What type of scale is the following?

Please an X at the position on the horizontal line that most reflects your feelings regarding the
atmosphere of this restaurant.

Modern Old-fashioned

A. graphic rating
B. Likert
C. linear
D. category

54. What type of scale is the following?

How likely are you to purchase a DVD player during the next six months?

Definitely will purchase

Probably will purchase
Might purchase
Probably will not purchase
Definitely will not purchase

A. Likert
B. behavioral intention
C. semantic differential
D. constant-sum
55. What type of measurement is the following?
I would like to know your overall opinion of two brands of athletic shoes. They are Nike and New Balance. Overall, which
of these two brands -- Nike or New Balance-- do you think is the better one? Or are both the same?

Nike is better
New Balance is better
They are about the same

A. semantic differential
B. Thurstone
C. paired comparison
D. constant-sum
56. If researcher wish to compare six brands of HDTVs on the basis of quality, how many paired
comparisons will be necessary?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 15
D. 30
57. All of the following are practical decisions regarding the selection of a measurement scale EXCEPT
.

A. Is a ranking, sorting, rating or choice technique best?

B. Should a single measure of an index measure be used?
C. How large should the sample size be?
D. How many scale categories or response positions are needed to accurately measure an attitude?
58. Any measure of attitudes that asks respondents about a single concept in isolation is referred to
as a(n) rating scale.

A. monadic
B. unidimensional
C. primary
D. singular

59. Which type of scale is the following?

Now that you have been at your job for one year, how satisfied are you?

Very Very
Satisfied 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Dissatisfied

A. Thurstone
B. monadic rating
C. constant-sum
D. behavioral intention
60. What type of scale asks a respondent to rate a concept, such as a brand, in comparison with
a benchmark (i.e., a competing brand) explicitly used as a frame of reference?

A. comparative rating scale

B. monadic rating scale
C. semantic differential
D. ladder scale

61. In which type of scale is a neutral point, or point of indifference, at the center of the scale?

A. synergistic
B. symmetrical
C. unbalanced
D. balanced

62. Which type of scale is the following?

Very Satisfied
Satisfied
Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied
Dissatisfied
Very dissatisfied

A. balanced
B. Thurstone
C. unbalanced
D. semantic differential
63. Which type of fixed-alternative rating scale has more response categories at one end than the
other, resulting in an unequal number of positive and negative categories?

A. biased rating scale

B. skewed rating scale
C. obtuse rating scale
D. unbalanced rating scale

64. Which type of scale is the following?

Satisfied
Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied
Dissatisfied
Very dissatisfied

A. Thurstone
B. unbalanced
C. paired comparison
D. balanced
65. When a respondent is required to choose one of the fixed alternatives, what type of scale is
being used?

A. semantic differential
B. forced-choice
C. non-forced-choice
D. symmetric

66. An enduring disposition to respond consistently to an aspect of the world is called a(n) .

attitude
67. The component of attitude that represents the action that corresponds to a certain type of attitude
is a(n) component.

behavioral
68. Attitudes are considered to be constructs because they are not directly observable but are
measurable through indirect indicators.

hypothetical
69. When respondents are asked to order brands of cosmetics in terms of their prices (from high to
low), this is an example of a(n) task.

ranking
70. When respondents are asked to indicate the magnitude of a characteristic that a brand of
shampoo has, this is an example of a(n) .

rating
71. When respondents are asked whether they strongly agree, agree, are neutral, disagree, or
strongly disagree to a series of attitude items, this is an example of a(n) scale.

Likert
72. coding is a method of making sure all the items forming a composite scale are scored in
the same direction.

Reverse
73. scales are formed by summing or averaging respondents' reactions to indicate a latent
construct.

Composite
74. A(n) scale measures attitudes by using 7-point rating scales that are anchored at either end
by polar opposite adjectives.

semantic differential
75. A(n) is a graphical representation of semantic differential data for competing brands, products,
or stores to highlight comparisons.

image profile
76. A(n) scale is similar to a semantic differential except that it uses numbers, instead of verbal
descriptions, as response options to identify response positions.

numerical

77. A(n) scale measures attitudes in both their direction and their intensity simultaneously.

Stapel
78. When respondents are asked to divide up a sum (e.g. 50 points) to indicate the relative importance
of features on a new car, this is an example of a(n) scale.

constant-sum

79. A scale that presents respondents with a graphic continuum is called a(n) rating scale.

graphic

80. A variation of the graphic rating scale is the scale.

ladder
81. A rating scale instrument similar to a semantic differential that measures the behavioral intentions
of subjects toward future actions is called a(n) .

behavioral differential
82. When respondents are asked to choose among four brands of detergent in such a way that they
are asked to select the brand they prefer when each brand is compared with each other brand, this
is a type of measurement.

paired comparison
83. An attitude scale that asks respondents about a single concept by itself is called a(n) rating
scale.

monadic
84. A fixed-alternative rating scale with an equal number of both positive and negative categories, with a
neutral point in the middle of the scale, is called a(n) scale.

balanced
85. A fixed-alternative rating scale that has an unequal number of positive and negative categories so that
the categories are "piled up" at one end of the scale is called a(n) scale.

unbalanced
86. Define attitude and describe the three components that comprise it, giving an example of each
with respect to your attitude toward searching for a job.

An attitude is a social-psychological concept that can be defined as a relatively enduring

predisposition to respond consistently to various things including people, activities, events, and
objects. Attitudes are thought to have three components:
(1) Affective - expresses how much affinity someone has toward the relevant matter. This is the
feeling of liking or not liking something. Examples might be, "I would love to live in California."
(2) Cognitive - represents a person's awareness and knowledge of the relevant matter. It's what a
person believes about the subject matter. An example might be, "Bank branch managers do not make
much money."
(3) Behavioral - represents the action that corresponds to a certain type of attitude. An example
might be, "I intend to send my resume out to ten companies this week."

87. Compare and contrast a Likert scale with a semantic differential scale.

With a Likert scale, respondents indicate their attitudes by checking how strongly they agree or
disagree with carefully constructed statements. The scale results reveal the respondent's attitude
ranging from very positive to very negative. Individuals generally choose from multiple response
alternatives such as strongly agree, agree, neutral, disagree, and strongly disagree. A semantic
differential is a scale type that has respondents describe their attitude using a series of bipolar rating
scales. Bipolar rating scales involve respondents choosing between opposing adjectives, such as
"good" and "bad," "modern" and "old-fashioned," or "clean" and "dirty." Like Likert scales, a
numerical score can be assigned to each position on a semantic differential scale.
88. Describe a constant-sum scale and discuss when a researcher might use this type of scale. What is a
flaw of this type of scale?

A constant-sum scale demands that respondents divide points among several attributes to indicate
their relative importance. It requires respondents to understand that their response should total to the
number of points being allocated. This technique may be used for measuring brand preference and is
similar in approach to the paired-comparison method.

Although the constant-sum scale is widely used, strictly speaking, the scale is flawed because the last
response is completely determined by the way the respondent has scored the other choices.

89. Explain how a researcher uses the paired comparison method and determine the number of
paired comparisons necessary to compare four brands.

Paired comparison is a measurement technique that involves presenting the respondent with two
objects and asking the respondent to pick the preferred objects. More than two objects may be
presented, but comparisons are made in pairs. If a researchers wishes to compare four brands, six
comparisons will be necessary. This is determined with the following equation:

number of comparisons = [(n)(n-1)/2] = [(4)(4-1)/2] = 12/2 = 6

90. Define a forced-choice scale and explain why a researcher would use one and the potential negative
consequence of that choice of scale.

A forced-choice rating scale is a fixed-alternative scale that requires respondents to choose one of
the fixed alternatives. The argument for forced choice is that people really do have attitudes, even if
they are unfamiliar with them and should be required to answer the question. However, the use of
forced-choice questions is associated with higher incidence of "no answer."