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INSTRUCTIONS
1. This booklet is your Question Paper and solutions.
2. This booklet contains 37 pages
3. This Question Paper contains 180 questions, 60 of each subject viz. Chemistry, Physics
and Mathematics.
4. This Question Paper contains 180 questions in all. Q. 1 to 60 Chemistry, Q.61 to 120
Physics and Q.121 to 180 Mathematics.
5. Every question has 4 choices for its answer: (a), (b), (c) and (d). Only ONE of them is the
right answer.
6. (a) For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only one
bubble corresponding to the right answer.
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1. In spectrochemical series chlorine is above water i.e. Cl > H2O, this is due to :
(1) good -acceptor properties of Cl. (2) strong -donor and good -acceptor properties of Cl.
(3) good -donor properties of Cl. (4) larger size of Cl than H2O.
Sol.: In spectrochemical series, chlorine is above water because the size of Cl is larger than H 2O so it can form weak -bond to the
metal ion as compared to H2O. Cl would thus be a weak donor as compared to O.
Correct choice: (4)
2. For the given complex [CoCl2(en)(NH3)2]+, the number of geometrical isomers, the number of optical isomers and total
number of isomers of all type possible respectively are :
(1) 2, 2 and 4 (2) 2, 2 and 3 (3) 2, 0 and 2 (4) 0, 2 and 2
+ Cl + +
NH3 NH3
Cl NH2 H3N NH2 H3N NH2
Sol.: Co Co Co
Cl NH2 H3N NH2 Cl NH2
NH3 Cl Cl
Py Cl Py NH3 NH3 Py
Three isomeric forms are possible.
Correct choice: (2)
5. When EDTA solution is added to Mg2+ ion solution, then which of the following statements is not true?
(1) four coordinate sites of Mg2+ are occupied by EDTA and remaining two sites are occupied by water molecules.
(2) All six coordinate sites of Mg2+ are occupied.
(3) pH of the solution is decreased.
(4) Colourless [Mg-EDTA]2– chelate is formed.
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 3
Sol.: SO 24 and ClO 4 both have the similar tetrahedral geometry because both have sp3 hybridisation.
O O–
S Cl
O– O O
O –
O O
Correct choice: (4)
7. The number of unpaired electrons in gaseous species of Mn 3+, Cr3+ and V3+ respectively are ….. and most stable species
is………
(1) 4, 3, and 2 and V3+ is most stable. (2) 3, 3 and 2 and Cr3+ is most stable.
3+
(3) 4, 3 and 2 and Cr is most stable. (4) 3, 3 and 3 and Mn3+ is most stable.
Sol.: Mn 3 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 sp6 3d 4
4 unpaired electrons
3
Cr 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 3
3 unpaired electrons
3
V 1s 2 2s 2 sp6 3s 2 sp6 3d 2
2 unpaired electrons
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 4
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 5
18. Freundlich equation for adsorption of gases (in amount of X g) on a solid (in amount of m g) at constant temperature can be
expressed as :
X 1 X 1 X X 1
(1) log log p log k (2) log log k log p (3) pn (4) log p log k
m n m n m m n
Sol.:
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 6
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 7
Sol.: A hard acid has high charge density and shows preference for hard bases and for donor atoms of high electronegativity. Hard
acids are not polarizable.
Correct choice: (4)
*27. Two types of FXF angles are present in which of the following molecule (X = S, Xe, C)
(1) SF4 (2) XeF4 (3) SF6 (4) CF4
Sol.: The hybridization of S in SF4 is sp3d. It has see-raw or distorted tetrahedral F F
shape. As a result it has two FSF bond angles.
XeF4, SF6 and CF4 have same type of bond angles.
Correct choice: (1)
S
..
F
F
*28. Which is correct statement about - and - molecular orbitals ? Statements are :
(a) -bonding orbitals are ungerade (b) -antibonding orbitals are ungerade
(c) - antibonding orbitals are gerade
(1) (a) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (c) only (4) (b) only
Sol.: The symmetry of molecular orbital is determined by rotating the orbital about the line joining the two nuclei and then about a
line perpendicular to this. If the sign of the lobes remains the same, the orbital is gerade, and if the sign changes, the orbital is
ungerade. -bonding orbitals are ungerade whereas -antibonding orbitals are gerade. Also -antibonding orbitals are
ungerade.
Correct choice: (1)
*29. In forming (i) N 2 N
2 and (ii) O 2 O 2 ; the electrons respectively are removed from :
(1) ( * 2p y or * 2px ) and ( * 2p y or * 2px ) (2) (2p y or 2px ) and (2p y or 2px )
(3) (2p y or 2px ) and ( * 2p y or * 2px ) (4) ( * 2p y or * 2px ) and (2p y or 2px )
Sol.: In O2 molecule, the electron is removed from antibonding molecular orbital *2py or *2px and in N2 molecule, the electron
is removed form bonding molecular orbital 2pz. However, no such option is given. Out of the four options given, best
option is (3).
Correct choice: (3)
*30. For AB bond if percent ionic character is plotted against B
electronegativity difference (XA – XB). The shape of the 100 C
Percent ionic character
1 2 3
0
(XA – XB)
Sol.: In a diatomic molecule AB, if the difference in electronegativity (X A X B ) is 1.7, the bond is 50% ionic and 50%
covalent. If the value XA XB is less than 1.7, the bond is largely covalent and if it is greater than 1.7, the bond is largely
ionic.
Correct choice: (3)
*31. Least active electrophile is :
O O
(1) CH3 – C – OCH3 (2) CH3 – C – Cl (3) CH3 – C – NMe2 (4) CH3 – C – SCH3
O O
O
Sol.: The NMe2 group in CH3 – C – NMe2 considerably reduces the electron deficiency of carbonyl carbon by strong +R effect,
there by making it the least active electrophile.
Correct choice: (3)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 8
Sol.: The strongest base is structure (1) because the lone pair of electrons is available in sp 3 hybridised orbital. It is more basic than
structure (4) because N is less electronegative than O. This is followed by structure (2) where lone pair is available in sp 2
hybridised orbital and structure (3) where lone pair is in resonance with other two bonds making it aromatic.
Correct choice: (1)
*33. 3 moles of A and 4 moles of B are mixed together and allowed to come into equilibrium according to the following reaction :
A(g) + 4 B(g) 2C(g) + 3D(g). When equilibrium is reached, there is 1 mole of C. The equilibrium extent of the
reaction is :
1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
4 3 2
Sol.: A(g) 4B(g) 2C(g) 3D(g)
At t 0 3 4 0 0
At equation 3–x 4 – 4x 2x 3x
1
Given, 2x = 1, x =
2
Amount of reactant consumed or productproduced 1 / 2 1
Equilibrium extent of the reaction = =
Stoichiometric coefficient of reactant or product 1 2
Correct choice: (3)
*34. For the reaction A B; H 24 kJ / mole . For the reaction B C; H 18 kJ / mole . The decreasing order of
enthalpy of A, B, C follows the order :
(1) A, B, C (2) B, C, A (3) C, B, A (4) C, A, B
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 9
Sol.: G H TS
For a chemical reaction, G will always be positive if H is negative ant TS is positive.
Correct choice: (3)
*37. In which reaction there will be increase in entropy ?
Sol.: Z X X Z
Y X X Y
Y Z Z Y
RT
Ecell ln K
nF
k AeEa / RT
Correct choice: (4)
41. In which case, the order of acidic strength is not correct ?
(1) HI > HBr > HCl (2) HIO4 > HBrO4 > HClO4 (3) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 (4) HF > H2O > NH3
Sol.: The acidic strength of oxo-acids of the same type depends upon the electronegativity of the central atom. As the
electronegativity increases, acidic strength increases.
Correct choice: (2)
*42. Which is not the correct order for the stated property ?
(1) Ba > Sr > Mg; Atomic radius. (2) F > O > N; first ionization enthalpy
(3) Cl > F > I; electron affinity (4) O > Se > Te; electronegativity
Sol.: The first ionisation energy generally increases as we move form left to right along a period. However, the first ionisation
energy of N is higher than that of O because N has stable half filled electronic configuration.
Correct choice: (2)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 10
(1) C 6 H 5 N
(2) C 6 H 5 N Heat
2 Cl Cu 2 Cl 2 C 6 H 5 Cl 2 Cl HBF4 C 6 H 5 F
(3) C 6 H 5 N
2 Cl H 3 PO2 C 6 H 5 PO4 (4) C 6 H 5 N
2 Cl SnCl 2 / HCl C 6 H 5 NHNH2
Sol.: C6 H5 N
2 Cl on reaction with hypo phosphorous acid (H3PO2) given benzene.
Correct choice: (3)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 11
49. Amino group is ortho-, para-directing for aromatic electrophilic substitution. On nitration of aniline good amount of m-
nitroaniline is obtained. This is due to :
(1) In nitration mixture, ortho-, para-activity of NH2 group is completely lost.
(2) – NH2 becomes – NH3 , which is m-directing.
Sol.: Conc HNO3 NO2 –H+
Conc H2SO4
NO2 NO2
47%
NO2
NH2 NH2
NO2
2%
NO2
51%
Correct choice: (2)
50. An aromatic compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C 9 H10 O gives the following chemical tests :
(i) Forms 2, 4-DNP derivative (ii) Reduces Tollen’s reagent;
(iii) Undergoes Cannizzaro reaction and
(iv) On vigorous oxidation 1, 2-benzenedicarboxylic acid is obtained.
X is :
CHO O CHO
CHO
C2H5 C
CH3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
CH3 C2H5
C2H5
Sol.: The following chemical tests suggests that it is an aromatic aldehyde, which is substituted at 2-position.
Correct choice: (1)
*51. The correct order of acidic strength of carboxylic acids is :
(1) Formic acid < benzoic acid < acetic acid. (2) Formic acid < acetic acid < benzoic acid.
(3) Acetic acid < formic acid < benzoic acid. (4) Acetic acid < benzoic acid < formic acid.
Sol.: – CH3 and – Ph groups in acetic acid and benzoic acid are electron donating so these are less acidic than formic acid.
– CH3 group in acetic acid shows greater electron releasing effect [(+H) + (+I)] than the releasing effect shown by phenyl
group [(+R) + (– I)].
Correct choice: (4)
52. In a reaction RCHO is reduced to RCH3 using amalgamated zinc and concentrated HCl and warming the solution. The
reaction is known as :
(1) Meerwein-Ponndorf reaction. (2) Clemmensen’s reduction.
(3) Wolff-Kishner reduction. (4) Schiff’s reaction.
Zn Hg
Sol.: C = O CH2
HCl
This conversion is called Clemmensen’s reduction.
Correct choice: (2)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 12
53. Given
OMe NO2
A= , B = , C =
OH OH OH
The decreasing order of their acidic character is :
(1) A > B > C (2) B > A > C (3) B > C > A (4) C > B > A
Sol.: Electron releasing group decreases the acidic strength while electron withdrawing group increases the acidic strength.
– NO2 group from para position is electron withdrawing group while – OMe group from para position is electron releasing
group.
Correct choice: (3)
*54. Give the correct IUPAC name for :
CH3
CH3.CH2OCH.CH2.CH2.CH2Cl
(1) 2-ethoxy-5-chloropentane. (2) 1-chloro-4-ethoxy-4-methyl butane.
(3) 1-chloro-4-ethoxy pentane. (4) Ethyl 1-chloropentyl ether.
5CH3
Sol.: CH3 – CH2 – O–CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl
4 3 2 1 Substituent
Substituent
Correct choice: (3)
*55. In the reaction for dinitration
OH
Conc. HNO3
X
CH3
1
6 2
Sol.:
5 3
4 CH3
Both the groups are activating and o/p directing. They are reinforcing each other. Position 2, 4 and 6 are activated (doubly)
but attack at position 2 is least favoured du to steric reasons, so dinitration will preferably occur at 4 and 6 - positions.
Correct choice: (1)
*56. For NH 2 , the best three-dimensional view is :
:
H
:
H
. .
: H
(1) : N (2) H N H (3) (4) N
N . .
H
:
H H
3
Sol.: NH 2 is a bent species with sp hybridisation.
Correct choice: (3)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 13
H 2 [ZnCl 4 ] 2H [ZnCl 4 ] 2
Correct choice: (1)
*58. The number of isomeric pentyl alcohols possible are :
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight
Sol.: C – C – C – C – OH
C – C – C – C – C – OH
C–C–C–C–C C
OH
OH
C–C–C–C–C C–C–C–C
OH C
C–C–C–C
C OH C
C – C – C – OH C–C–C–C
C OH C
Trans-2-butene
CH3
Debrominotion involves anti coplanar transition state.
Correct choice: (1)
60. Cerric ammonium sulphate and potassium permanganate are used as oxidising agents in acidic medium for oxidation of
ferrous ammonium sulphate to ferric sulphate. The ratio, of number of moles of cerric ammonium sulphate required per mole
of ferrous ammonium sulphate to the number of moles of KMnO4 required per mole of ferrous ammonium sulphate, is :
(1) 5.0 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.6 (4) 2.0
Sol.: Fe 2 Ce 4 Fe 3 Ce 3
5Fe2 MnO 3 2
4 8H 5Fe Mn 4H2O
moles of cerric ammonium sulphate 1
5.0
moles of potassiumpermanganate 1/ 5
Correct choice: (1)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 14
*61. The excess pressure inside a spherical drop of radius ‘r’ of a liquid of surface tension ‘T’ is:
(1) directly proportional to ‘r’ and inversely proportional to ‘T’
(2) directly proportional to ‘T’ and inversely proportional to ‘r’
(3) directly proportional to the product of ‘T’ and ‘r’
(4) inversely proportional to the product of ‘T’ and ‘r’
2T
Sol.: P
r
Correct choice: (2)
*62. Soap bubbles can be formed floating in air by blowing soap solution in air, with the help of a glass tube, but not water
bubbles. It is because:
(1) The excess pressure inside water bubble being more due to large surface tension
(2) The excess pressure inside water bubble being less due to large surface tension
(3) The excess pressure inside water bubble being more due to large viscosity
(4) The excess pressure inside water bubble being less due to less viscosity
vrms 1 8
The ratio 2 2 :3
vrms 2 9
Correct choice: (2)
*64. The mean kinetic energy of one mole of gas per degree of freedom (on the basis of kinetic theory of gases) is :
1 3 3 1
(1) k T (2) k T (3) R T (4) RT
2 2 2 2
Sol.: Correct choice: (4)
*65. A carnot engine working between 450 K and 600 K has a work output of 300 J per cycle. The amount of heat energy supplied
to the engine from the source in each cycle is:
(1) 400 J (2) 800 J (3) 1600 J (4) 3200 J
W T 450 W 1
Sol.: For a carnot engine 1 2 1 Q 4W 1200J
Q T1 600 Q 4
Correct choice: (none)
*66. According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling is proportional to ()n, where is the temperature difference
between the body and the surroundings and n is equal to :
(1) three (2) two (3) one (4) four
d
Sol.: According to Newton’s law of cooling, n = 1
dt
Correct choice: (3)
*67. A black body at a high temperature T radiates energy at the rate of U (in W/m2). When the temperature falls to half (i.e. T/2),
the radiated energy (in W/m2) will be:
U U U U
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 16 4 2
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 15
Sol.:
y1 5 sin 2t 3 cos 2t ;
y 2 5 sin 2t ;
A1 5 1 3
2
2
2
4 A2 5 1
Correct choice: (3)
*69. If a simple pendulum of length ‘L’ has maximum angular displacement ‘’ then the maximum kinetic energy of bob of mass
‘M’ is :
L
L(1-cos)
U=0
M
M (3)
Correct choice:
*70. An open organ pipe of length ‘l’ vibrates in its fundamental mode. The pressure variation is maximum :
(1) at the two ends (2) at the distance l/2 inside the ends
(3) at the distance l/4 inside the ends (4) at the distance l/8 inside the ends
Sol.: The pressure variation is maximum at x = l/2 because the displacement node is pressure antinode.
x=0 x=l
*71. Two trains, each moving with a velocity of 30 ms–1, cross each other. One of the trains gives a whistle whose frequency is
600 Hz. If the speed of sound is 330 ms–1, the apparent frequency for passengers sitting in the other train before crossing
would be :
(1) 600 Hz (2) 630 Hz (3) 920 Hz (4) 720 Hz
C v0
Sol.: Apparent frequency, f ' f 0
C vs
330 30
f ' 600 = 720 Hz
330 30
Correct choice: (4)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 16
72. An electric dipole of dipole moment ‘ p ’ is placed in a uniform electric field ‘ E ’. The maximum torque experienced by the
dipole is :
(1) pE (2) p/E (3) E/p (4) p. E
Sol.: The torque on a electric dipole is given as
pE sin max pE
Correct choice: (1)
73. The electric charges are distributed in a small volume. The flux of the electric field through a spherical surface of radius 10
cm surrounding the total charge is 20 V.m. The flux over a concentric sphere of radius 20 cm will be:
(1) 20 V.m (2) 25 V.m (3) 40 V.m (4) 200 V.m
Sol.: The flux through a closed surface only depends on the enclosed charge and independent of shape and size of the surface.
Correct choice: (1)
74. A spherical shell of radius ‘R’ has a charge +q units. The electric field due to the shell at a point:
(1) inside is zero and varies as r–1 outside it (2) inside is constant and varies as r–2 outside it
–2
(3) inside is zero and varies as r outside it (4) inside is constant and varies as r–1 outside it
1 q
Sol.: Einside 0; E outside
4 0 r 2
Correct choice: (3)
75. An air capacitor is charged with an amount of charge ‘q’ and dipped into an oil tank. If the oil is pumped out, the electric
field between the plates of capacitor will :
(1) increase (2) decrease (3) remain the same (4) become zero
E0
Sol.: E ; where K is the dielectric constant of the medium
K
Correct choice: (1)
76. A parallel plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart:
(1) the capacitance increases (2) the potential difference increases
(3) the total charge increases (4) the charge and potential difference remain the same
77. The equivalent resistance between the terminals A and D in the following circuit is:
5 10 5
A B
10 10
C D
5 10 5
10 10
D
10 5
Correct choice: (2)
78. A metallic wire of resistance 12 is bent to form a square. The resistance between two diagonal points would be :
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 6 (4) 3
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 17
Sol.: RAB = 3
B
3
3 3
3
A
Correct choice: (4)
79. A lead-acid battery of a car has an e.m.f of 12 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is 0.5 ohm, the maximum current that
can be drawn from the battery will be :
(1) 30 A (2) 20 A (3) 6 A (4) 24 A
E 12
Sol.: i max 24 A
r 0.5
Correct choice: (4)
80. In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.5 V gives a balance point at 27 cm length of wire. If the cell is replaced by
another cell and balance point shifts to 54 cm, the emf of the second cell is :
(1) 3V (2) 1.5 V (3) 0.75 V (4) 2.25 V
2 54
Sol.: 2 2 1.5 3 V
1 27
Correct choice: (1)
81. In a thermocouple, the neutral temperature is 2700C and the temperature of inversion is 5250C. The temperature of cold
junction would be :
(1) 300 C (2) 2550 C (3) 150C (4) 250C
Ti Tc
Sol.: Tn Tc 150C
2
Correct choice: (3)
84. A charged particle is moving along a magnetic field line. The magnetic force on the particle is :
(1) along its velocity (2) opposite to its velocity
(3) perpendicular to its velocity (4) zero
Sol.:
F q v B 0 ( v || B )
Correct choice: (4)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 18
85. A current carrying straight wire is kept along the axis of a circular loop carrying a current. The straight wire :
(1) will exert an inward force on the circular loop (2) will exert an outward force on the circular loop
(3) will exert a force on the circular loop parallel to itself (4) will not exert any force on the circular loop
Sol.: idl B 0
Correct choice: (4)
86. R, L and C represent the physical quantities resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively. Which one of the following
combinations has dimension of frequency?
1 R 1 C
(1) (2) (3) (4)
RC L LC L
L
Sol.: Time constant () =
R
Correct choice: (2)
87. In an AC series circuit, the instantaneous current is maximum when the instantaneous voltage is maximum. The circuit
element connected to the source will be :
(1) pure inductor (2) pure capacitor
(3) pure resistor (4) combination of a capacitor and an inductor
Sol.: In pure resistive AC circuit current and voltage are in same phase.
Correct choice: (3)
88. A plane e.m. wave of frequency 30 MHz travels in free space along the x-direction. The electric field component of the wave
at a particular point of space and time E = 6 V/m along y-direction. Its magnetic field component B at this point would be :
(1) 2 10–8 T along z-direction (2) 6 10–8 T along x-direction
–8
(3) 2 10 T along y-direction (4) 6 10–8 T along z-direction
E 6
Sol.: B 2 108 T
c 3 108
The direction of travel of e.m. wave is in the direction of E B vector.
Correct choice: (1)
89. A thin lens of glass ( = 1.5) of focal length +10 cm is immersed in water ( =1.33). The new focal length is :
(1) 20 cm (2) 40 cm (3) 48 cm (4) 12 cm
1 1 1 1.5 1 1
1.5 1
1
Sol.: ; 1 f w 40 cm
f w 1.33 R1 R2
f 1
R R 2
90. If Young’s double slit experiment of light, interference is performed in water, which one of the following is correct?
(1) fringe width will decrease (2) fringe width will increase
(3) there will be no fringe (4) fringe width will remain unchanged
D
Sol.: , in water will decrease therefore fringe width will decrease.
d
Correct choice: (1)
91. In order to increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope, one should increase :
(1) the object size (2) the aperture of the lens
(3) the focal length of the lens (4) the power of the lens
D
Sol.: For least distance of vision, m 1 = 1 +DP
f
D
For normal adjustment, m DP
f
Correct choice: (4)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 19
92. Which one of the following property of light does not support wave theory of light?
(1) Light obeys laws of reflection and refraction (2) Light waves get polarised
(3) Light shows photoelectric effect (4) Light shows interference
93. A ray of light strikes a material’s slab at an angle of incidence 60 0. If the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to
each other, the refractive index of the materials is :
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 3
3 2
Sol.: tan i p (ip = Brewster angle)
3
Correct choice: (4)
hc
94. Light of wavelength falls on a metal having work function . Photoelectric effect will take place only if :
0
(1) 0 (2) 2 0 (3) 0 (4) 4 0
hc hc
Sol.: For photoelectric effect to take place, 0
0
Correct choice: (3)
95. Two lithium nuclei in a lithium vapour at room temperature do not combine to form a carbon nucleus because :
(1) carbon nucleus is an unstable particle
(2) it is not energetically favourable
(3) nuclei do not come very close due to Coulombic repulsion
(4) lithium nucleus is more tightly bound than a carbon nucleus
Sol.: n p e v
Correct choice: (4)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 20
Sol.:
f(log scale)
Correct choice: (2)
99. In the communication systems, AM is used for broadcasting because :
(1) its use avoids receiver complexity
(2) it is more noise immune than other modulation system
(3) it requires less transmitting power
(4) no other modulation system can give the necessary bandwidth for faithful transmission
Sol.: Correct choice: (1)
100. A typical optical fibre consists of a fine core of a material of refractive index 1, surrounded by a glass or plastic cladding
with refractive index 2:
(1) 2 is slightly less than 1 (2) 2 is slightly higher than 1
(3) 2 should be equal to 1 (4) the difference 2 – 1 should be strictly equal to 1
Sol.: For total internal reflection to take place refractive index of core should be more than that of the cladding.
Correct choice: (1)
*101. A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and undergoes an acceleration ‘a’ in ms–2 with time‘t ’ in seconds which is as shown:
a
3
1 2 3 4 t
–3
Which one of the following plot represents velocity v in ms–1 versus time ‘t’ in seconds?
6
6 4
(2)
(1) 4
2
2
t t
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
v 4
2 6
(3)
t v 4
1 2 3 4 (4)
–2 2
–4 t
1 2 3 4
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 21
*102. A body is tied with a string and is given a circular motion with velocity v in radius r. The magnitude of the acceleration is:
(1) v/r (2) v2/r (3) v/r2 (4) v2/r2
v2
Sol.: ac
r
Correct choice: (2)
*103. A block of mass ‘M’ at the end of the string is whirled round a vertical circle of radius ‘R’. The critical speed of the block at
the top of the swing is :
(1) (R/g)1/2 (2) g/R (3) M/Rg (4) (Rg)1/2
Sol.: vc Rg
Correct choice: (4)
*104. The acceleration ‘a’ of a particle starting from rest varies with time according to relation a = t + . The velocity of the
particle after a time ‘t’ will be :
(1)
t 2
(2)
t 2
t
1
(3) t 2 t (4)
t 2
2 2 2 2
v t
Sol.: a t
0
dv
0
t dt
t 2
v t
2
Correct choice: (2)
*105. A particle is projected with certain velocity at two different angles of projections with respect to horizontal plane so as to
have same range ‘R’ on a horizontal plane. If ‘t1’ and ‘t2’ are the time taken for the two paths, then which one of the
following relations is correct?
(1) t1t2 2 R/ g (2) t1t2 R/ g (3) t1t2 R/ 2 g (4) t1t2 4 R/ g
2u sin 2u cos
Sol.: t1 , t2
g g
*106. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on a frictionless surface. In this process which one of the following is
correct?
(1) only momentum is conserved (2) only kinetic energy is conserved
(3) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved (4) both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
Sol.: This is the case of perfectly inelastic collision in which KE is not conserved
Correct choice: (1)
*107. For vectors A and B making an angle ‘’ which one of the following relations is correct?
(1) A B B A (2) A B ABsinθ
(3) A B ABcosθ (4) A B B A
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 22
*108. Which one of the following pair of quantities has same dimension?
(1) Force and work done (2) Momentum and impulse
(3) Pressure and Force (4) Surface tension and stress
*109. Two masses of ‘M’ and ‘4M’ are moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of their linear momenta is:
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
p1 m1 1
Sol.:
p2 m2 2
Correct choice: (3)
*110. A circular disc rolls down an inclined plane. The ratio of rotational kinetic energy to total kinetic energy is :
1 1 2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 3 4
1 2
I
K .E R 2 1
Sol.:
K .ET 1 2 1 3
I Mv 2
2 2
Correct choice: (2)
*111. Moment of inertia of a ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the
plane is ‘I’. What is the moment of inertia about its diameter?
(1) I (2) I/2 (3) I / 2 (4) I + MR2
*112. A body is traveling in a straight line with a uniformly increasing speed. Which one of the plot represents the changes in
distance(s) travelled with time (t)?
s s s s
t t t t
1 2 1 2
Sol.: S ut at = at ( u = 0)
2 2
Correct choice: (1)
*113. A ball is thrown vertically upward. Ignoring the air resistance, which one of the following plot represent the velocity time
plot for the period ball remains in air?
v v v v
t t t t
Sol.: During upward motion the velocity is decreasing while during downward motion the magnitude of velocity is increasing in
downward direction.
Correct choice: (1)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 23
*114. For an object thrown at 450 to horizontal, the maximum height (H) and horizontal range (R) are related as :
(1) R = 16 H (2) R = 8 H (3) R = 4 H (4) R = 2H
u2 u2
Sol.: R , H
g 4g
Correct choice: (3)
*115. A lift is moving upward with increasing speed with acceleration ‘a’. The apparent weight will be:
(1) less than the actual weight
(2) more than the actual weight and have a fixed value
(3) more than the actual weight which increases as long as velocity increases
(4) zero
Sol.: N mg a
Correct choice: (2)
*116. When a body is taken from poles to equator on the earth, its weight:
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) remains the same (4) increases at south pole and decreases at north pole
*117. The escape velocity of 10g body from the earth is 11.2 kms-1. Ignoring air resistance, the escape velocity of 10 kg of the iron
ball from the earth will be:
(1) 0.0112 kms–1 (2) 0.112 kms–1 (3) 11.2 kms–1 (4) 0.56 kms–1
Sol.: Escape velocity is independent of the mass of the projected body provided the air resistance is neglected.
Correct choice: (3)
*118. A metallic rod of length l and cross sectional area A is made of a material of Young modulus Y. If the rod is elongated by an
amount y, then the work done is proportional to:
(1) y (2)1/y (3) y2 (4) 1/y2
1 YA 2
Sol.: W y
2 l
Correct choice: (3)
*119. The rate of flow of water in a capillary tube of length ‘l’ and radius ‘r’ is ‘V’. The rate of flow in another capillary tube of
length ‘2l’ and radius ‘ 2r’ for same pressure difference would be :
(1) 16 V (2) 9 V (3) 8 V (4) 2 V
pr 4
Sol.: Flow rate
8l
Correct choice: (3)
*120. The water flows from a tap of diameter 1.25 cm with a rate of 5 10–5 m3s–1. The density and coefficient of viscosity of
water are 103 kgm–3 and 10–3 Pas, respectively. The flow of water is :
(1) steady with Reynolds number 5100 (2) turbulent with Reynolds number 5100
(3) steady with Reynolds number 3900 (4) turbulent with Reynolds number 3900
vD 4Q 4Q
Sol.: Reynolds’s number,(NR) 5100 ( the speed of the flow, v = )
D D 2
For NR > 3000, flow is turbulent.
Correct choice: (2)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 24
(1)
3 a2 c2 (2)
2 a2 c2 (3)
a 2
c2 (4)
2 c2 a2
2ac 3bc 3ac 3ac
b 2b A
Sol.: cos C
a a
90°
2 c
b
a 2 b2 c 2 2b
4b 2 a 2 b 2 c 2
2ab a B C
a/2 D a/2
a2 c2
3b 2 a 2 c 2 b2
3
a2 c2
cos A cos C
b c a 2b
2
.
2
3
c2 a2
2
a 2 c 2 3c 2 3a 2 2 c 2 a 2
2bc a ac 3ac 3ac
Correct choice: (4)
122. The angle of elevation of the top of a hill from a point is . After walking b meters towards the top up a slope inclined at an
angle to the horizon, the angle of elevation of the top becomes . Then the height of the hill is:
b sin sin b sin sin b sin sin
(1) (2) (3) (4)
sin sin sin b sin sin
h1 C
Sol.: sin h1 b sin
b
Let PC l h2 l sin
l h2
PCA
b l b sin P
Q
So l b
sin sin sin h1
b sin sin A
So, BC b sin sin b sin D
sin sin
B
x 1
10
x1 3 3 1 x 1
10
12 2
[ x1 3 x 1 2 ]10
Sol.: 23 13
x x 1
x . x 1 x1 3 1
x
10 r 10 r r
Tr 1 10Cr . x xr 2 1r 2 . 10Cr .x
3 . 3 2
10 r r
Coefficient of x 0 is 0 210 r 3r 0 20 5r r 4
3 2
So Coefficient of x 0 is 12 . 10C4 210
Correct choice: (1)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 25
Sol.: 4
7 . 48 1 97 7 4 C0 48 4C1 48 4C2 48 4C3 48.7 7 97
4 3 2
All terms in the bracket are divisible by 64.
and 4 48 7 7 9.720 92 is divisible by 64.
Correct choice: (3)
5
*125. The value of C 47, 4 C52 r, 3 is:
r 1
126. Let a 2i j 2k , b i j . If c is a vector such that a. c c and c a 2 2 and angle between a b and c is
30°, then a b c equals:
3 2 3
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 3 2
Sol.: a 2i j 2k , b i j
a .c c
2 2 2
c a 2 2 c a 2c . a 8 c 92 c 8 c 1
a b c 1 3
a b c sin30 3 1
2 2
Correct choice: (1)
127. Let a i j k ; b i j k and c be a unit vector perpendicular to a and coplanar with a and b , then c is:
(1)
1
2
j k (2)
1
2
j k (3)
1
6
i 2j k (4)
1
6
2i j k
Sol.: c a b
c i j k i j k i 1 j 1 k 1
c .a 0
1 1 1 0 3
2i j k
c 4i 2 j 2k cˆ
6
Correct choice: (4)
128. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon with centre at the origin such that AD EB FC ED . Then equals:
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3
D
Sol.: AD 2OD, EB 2EO, FC 2ED
AD EB FC 2 OD EO ED 2 ED ED 4ED E C
4
Correct choice: (2) O
F B
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 26
*129. A parallelopiped is formed by planes drawn through the points (2, 3, 5) and (5, 9, 7) parallel to the coordinate planes. The
length of a diagonal of the parallelopiped is:
(1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 11 (4) 155
Sol.: Give points are corners of parallelopiped, then length of diagonal 32 62 22 7
Correct choice: (1)
130. A non-zero vector a is parallel to the line of intersection of the plane determined by the vectors i , i j and the plane
determined by the vectors i j , i k . The angle between a and i 2 j 2k is:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 6 4
Sol.:
n1 i i j
n1 i j i k
n 2 n1 n1 i j
a will be parallel to n1 n1 = i j
i j . i 2 j 2k 1
cos
3 2 2 4
Correct choice: (4)
*131. If Px, y, z is a point on the line segment joining Q2, 2, 4 and R3, 5, 6 such that the projections of OP on the axis are
13 19 26
, and respectively, then P divides QR in the ratio:
5 5 5
(1) 1: 2 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 3
3 2 13 3
Sol.:
1 5 2
Correct choice: (2)
*132. The orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines xy 0 and x y 1 is:
1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) , (2) , (3) , (4) 0, 0
2 2 3 3 4 4
Sol.: Orthocentre of right angle triangle is the point where the vertex is at right angle.
So, (0, 0)
Correct choice: (4)
*133. If the sum of the distances from two perpendicular lines in a plane is 1, then its locus is:
(1) a square (2) a circle (3) a straight line (4) two intersecting lines
Sol.: x y 1 then its locus is a square.
Correct choice: (1)
*134. Point Q is symmetric to P4, 1 with respect to the bisector of the first quadrant. The length of PQ is:
4 12 4 12
Q(–1, 4)
Sol.: PQ 25 25 5 2
y=x
Correct choice: (2)
P(4, –1)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 27
*135. The radius of the circle, which is touched by the line y x and has its centre on the positive direction of x-axis and also
cuts-off a chord of length 2 units along the line 3 y x 0 , is:
2 y
Sol.: r2 1 and r y=x
4 2 1
y= x
2 2 2 3
2r r
r 1
2
1 r 2 1 C(, 0)
4 2
r x
Correct choice: (3) O
*136. Tangents drawn from the point (4, 3) to the circle x2 y 2 2 x 4 y 0 are inclined at an angle:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 4 3 2
Sol.: Point (4, 3) lies on director circle so tangents are perpendicular.
Correct choice: (4)
*137. If l denotes the semi-latus rectum of the parabola y 2 4ax and SP and SQ denote the segments of any focal chord PQ,
S being the focus, then SP, l and SQ are in the relation:
(1) A.P. (2) G.P. (3) H.P. (4) l 2 SP2 SQ2
Sol.: By property
Correct choice: (3)
3 5 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 4
q ~q p ~ q p ~ q p q
T F T F F
T F F F F
F T T T F
F T F F F
(2) ~ q p p ~ p
q ~q p ~ p ~ q p p ~ p ~ q p p ~ p
T F T F F F F
T F F T F F F
F T T F T F F
F T F T F F F
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 28
(3) ~ q p p ~ p
q ~q p ~ p ~ q p p ~ p ~ q p p ~ p
T F T F F T T
T F F T F T T Hence a tautology
F T T F T T T
F T F T F T T
(4) p q ~ p q
q p pq ~ p q p q ~ p q
T T T F F
T F F T F
F T F T F
F F F T F
*141. If the variable takes the values 0, 1, 2, ……, n with frequencies proportional to the binomial coefficients
Cn, 0, Cn, 1, Cn, 2, .......... ., Cn, n respectively, then the variance of the distribution is:
n n n
(1) n (2) (3) (4)
2 2 4
n
r
r 0
n
Cr
n. 2 n 1 n
Sol.: 1 n
2n
n
2
Cr
r 0
r 2 n
Cr
nn 1 n nn 1 n
2 r 0
n
.2 n 2
2n
n
2 4 2
Cr
r 0
142. Let A, B and C be three events such that PA 0.3, PB 0.4, PC 0.8, PA B 0.08, PA C 0.28 ,
PA B C 0.09 . If PA B C 0.75 , then PB C satisfies:
(1) PB C 0.23 (2) PB C 0.48
(3) 0.23 PB C 0.48 (4) 0.23 PB C 0.48
Sol.: PA 0.3, PB 0.4, PC 0.8
PA B 0.08, PA C 0.28, PA B C 0.09
Let P B C x
PA B C 0.3 0.4 0.8 0.28 x 0.08 0.09
PA B C 1.23 x 0.75 x 0.48
and PA B C 1 1.23 x 1 x 0.23 . So 0.23 x 0.48
Correct choice: (3)
143. Out of 3n consecutive natural numbers, 3 natural numbers are chosen at random without replacement. The probability that
the sum of the chosen numbers is divisible by 3 is:
(1)
n 3n 2 3n 2 (2)
3n
3n 2
2
(3)
3n 2
3n 2 (4)
n3n 13n 2
2 23n 13n 2 3n 13n 2 3n 1
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 29
nS
3n3n 13n 2
6
PE
nE
3n2 3n 2
nS 3n 13n 2
Correct choice: (3)
1 1
144. If X and Y are independent binomial variates B 5, and B 7, , then P X Y 3 is:
2 2
35 55 220 11
(1) (2) (3) (4)
47 1024 512 204
1 1 1
Sol.: B 5, P , n 5, q
2 2 2
1 1 1
B 7, P , n 7, q
2 2 2
Four cases are possible x 0, y 3 ; x 1, y 2 ; x 2, y 1 and x 3, y 0
5 7 5 7 5 7 5 7
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 55
5
C0 . 7C3 5C1 7C2 5 C2 . 7C1 5C3 7C 0
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2 1024
Correct choice: (2)
4
145.
log1 tan d =
0
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 30
146.
a
x a b x dx b a is equal to:
b a b a
2 2
(1) (2) (3) b a 2 (4) b a 2
8 8
b
Sol.:
a
x a b x dx, b a put x a cos2 b sin2
2
b sin
a sin2 b cos 2 a cos 2 2a cos sin 2b sin . cos d
2
0
2 2 2
b a 2 sin2 2 d b a 2
0
b a sin . cos . sin cos 2b a d
0
2 2 0
sin2 2 d
2
b a 2 1 cos 4 b a 2 2 1
2 0
2 d
4 2 2
8
b a 2
5
(1)
2 square units (2)
5 2 square units (3)
5 2 square units
(4) 5 square units
4 4 2 2
2 2
Sol.: Area
1
5 x 2 dx
1
x 1 dx (–1, 2)
(2, 1)
2
x 5 x 3 5 1
5 x 2 sin1
2 2 5 1 2 4 2
(1, 0)
Correct choice: (2)
1 1 1
148. lim ....... =
n n n 1 3n
(1) log2 (2) log3 (3) log5 (4) 0
2n 2n
nr 1 r . n
1 1 1 r 1
Sol.: lim lim put x, then dx
n n n n
r 0 r 0
n
2
1 x dx ln1 x
1 2
0
ln 3
0
149. The degree and order respectively of the differential equation of all the parabolas whose axis is x-axis, are:
(1) 2, 1 (2) 1, 2 (3) 2, 2 (4) 1, 1
Sol.: y 2 4ax c
2
dy d2y dy
2y 4a 2 y 2 2 0
dx dx dx
Degree 1 order 2
Correct choice: (2)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 31
150. The equation of the curve whose tangent at any point x, y makes an angle tan1 2 x 3 y with x-axis and which passes
through (1, 2) is:
(1) 6 x 9 y 2 26e3 x 1 (2) 6 x 9 y 2 26e3x 1
(3) 6 x 9 y 2 26e3x 1 (4) 6 x 9 y 2 26e3 x 1
dy
Sol.: 2 x 3 y ; 2x 3 y z
dx
dy dz
23
dz dx
1 dz
3z 2
dz
2 z
3 dx dx
3z 2 dx ln3z 2 3x c 3z 2 e 3x c
dz
loglogx logx dx
1
Sol.: 2
Put log x t , x e t , dx e t dt
1 1 1 t
logt t t t e dt
2
1
et logt c , where t log x
t
1
x loglog x c
log x
Correct choice: (1)
3x 4
152. If f x 2 , then
3x 4 f x dx is:
3x 4 8 2
(1) e x 2 log c (2) log 1 x x c
3x 4 3 3
x2
(4) e[3 x4 / 3 x4 ]
8 x
(3) log 1 x c 2x c
3 3 2
3x 4
Sol.: Let z
3x 4
z 1 6x 4 z 1
x
z 1 8 3 1 z
4 z 1 10 2 z
f z ; f x
f x dx ln 1 x x c
8 2 8 2
2 ;
3 1 z 31 z 31 x 3 3 3
Correct choice: (2)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 32
1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0
2
If y logcos x sin x lognx cos x sin1
2x dy
154. , then at x is equal to:
1 x 2
dx 2
8 8
(3)
(1)
4 2
(2) 0
4 2
(4) 1
2x
Sol.: y lognx sin x sin1 , Let y u v
1 x2
loge sin x
u lognx sin x
loge nx
1
loge nxcot x loge sin x
du x 2x
dx 0 and v sin1
x log nx 2
1 x 2
e
2
x
2
1
v 2 tan x
dv 2 8
dx 1 x 2 4 2
x x
2 2
5 x 12 1 x 2
155. If y sin1 , then dy is equal to:
13 dx
1 1 3 x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 x 2
1 x 2
1 x 2
1 x2
Sol.: Put x sin
5
y sin1 sin cos sin1 sin
12
13 13
12
y sin1 x ; tan1
5
dy 1
dx 1 x2
Correct choice: (2)
156. The value of a in order that f x sin x cos x ax b decreases for all real values of x is given by:
(1) a 2 (2) a 2 (3) a 1 (4) a 1
Sol.: f x 0
157.
If log10 x3 y3 log10 x2 y 2 xy 2 , then the maximum value of xy, for all x 0, y 0 , is:
(1) 2500 (2) 3000 (3) 1200 (4) 3500
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 33
Sol.: x3 y 3
log10 x3 y3 log10 x2 y 2 xy 2 log10 2 2 x y 100
x y xy
2
x y
xy
2
Maximum of xy 2500
Correct choice: (1)
158. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle formed by weightless inextensible strings, the side AB is horizontal. A and B are tied to
fixed points D and E by equal weightness inextensible strings AD, BE; a weight of W gm is attached at C. The angle DAB,
ABE are each 150°. Then which of the following statements is true?
(1) The tensions in the strings AB, BC and CA are equal.
(2) The tensions in the strings BE, AD are inversely proportional.
(3) The tension in BE is less than the tension in AB.
(4) The tension in AD is twice the tension in BC.
Sol.: TAC sin30 TBC sin30 D E
TAC TBC
TBE
2TAC cos 30 w TDA
150° 150°
TDA T AB TAC A B
sin 60 sin150 sin150 TAC TBC
C
w
T AB T AC
3 w
159. Two parabolic paths of angles and of projection aimed at a target on the horizontal plane through 0, fall p units short and
the other p units far from the target. If is the correct angle of projection so as to hit the target, then sin2 is equal to:
(1)
1
tan tan (2)
1
tan tan (3)
1
sin2 sin2 (4)
1
sin2 sin2
2 2 2 2
u 2 sin 2
Sol.: R p …(i)
g
u 2 sin 2 u 2 sin 2
R p …(ii) and R ….(iii)
g g
u2
Adding (i) and (ii) 2 R [sin2 sin2] …(iv)
g
2 R sin 2 sin 2
(by (iv)/ (iii))
R sin 2
sin2
1
sin2 sin2
2
Correct choice: (3)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 34
Sol.: z x1 x2
Here, z is maximum on the segment CD (0, 1500)
x1 + x2 1500
Solution lies on CD so, number of solutions are
(0, 1000)
infinite.
B (800, 600) x2 600
Correct choice: (4)
(0, 600) A C (1000, 500)
x1 + 2x2 2000
O x1 0 D E (2000, 0)
(0, 0) (1500, 0)
*161. A1, A2 , .......... .., An are thirty sets, each with five elements and B1, B2 , ......., Bn are n sets, each with three elements. Let
30 n
i 1
Ai B
j 1
j S . If each element of S belongs to exactly ten of Ai ' s and exactly nine of the B j ' s , then n is:
15 9 135
135 3 n [each of Bi has 3 elements]
n 45
Correct choice: (1)
162. Let R and S be two non-void relations on a set A. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) R and S are transitive implies R S is transitive (2) R and S are transitive implies R S is transitive
(3) R and S are symmetric implies R S is symmetric (4) R and S are reflexive implies R S is reflexive
Sol.: Let A 1, 2, 3
R 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 1, 2, 2 ; S 1, 1, 1, 3, 3, 1, 1,. 2, 3, 2, 3, 3
R S 1, 1, 1, 2 R S is not transitive.
Correct choice: (1)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 35
z3 z
2
3
z z
2
0 z
2
| z | 1 0 z 1; | z | 0 ….(ii)
a 2 b2 c2
Sol.: 1 2
ab bc ca
1
a b c 2 2 2
ab bc ca
3
a b c h2 4 ;
a b c 2 lies in [3, 4)
ab bc ca ab bc ca
Correct choice: (3)
*166. If , are the roots of the equation x2 x x 5 0 and if 1 and 2 are two values of obtained from
4
,
5
1 2
then equals:
22 21
(1) 4192 (2) 4144 (3) 4096 (4) 4048
1 5
Sol.: ;
4
2 2 4
12 10 4 2 16 1 0 …(i)
5 5 5 5
(i), has two roots 1, 2 , so 1 2 16 ; 1 2 1
31 32
1 2 31 2 1 2 4048
3
12 2
Correct choice: (4)
*167. If a, a1, a2 , .......... , a2n , b are in arithmetic progression and a, g1, g2 , .......... , g2n , b are in geometric progression and h is the
a1 a2n a2 a2n 1 a an 1
harmonic mean of a and b, then ......... n is equal to:
g1g 2n g 2 g 2n 1 g n g n 1
n 2n
(1) 2nh (2) (3) nh (4)
h h
a1 a2n a2 a2n 1 a an 1
Sol.: ....... n
g1g 2n g 2 g 2n 1 g n g n 1
ab a1 a 2n a 2 a 2n 1 ......... a n a n 1 a b
n
ab g 1 g 2n 1 .......... .. g n g n 1 ab
2n 2ab
where h a b
h
Correct choice: (4)
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 36
*168. The sum of the products of the numbers 1, 2, ......., n , taken two at a time is:
nn 1 nn 12n 1 nn 12n 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 0
2 6 6
Sol.: [1, 2, 3, .......... n] 2 2[12 2 2 3 2 4 2 ........ n 2 ] 2 [product taken two at a time]
nn 12n 1
Sum taken 2 at a time 0 [12 22 32 ...... n2 ]
6
Correct choice: (3)
n i j
*169. 1 is equal to:
i 1 j 1 k 1
*170. The sum of the series log4 2 log8 2 log16 2 log32 2 .......... . is:
(1) e 2 (2) loge 2 1 (3) loge 3 2 (4) 1 loge 2
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol.: ....... .......... . 1 1 .......... 1 loge 2
2 3 4 5 2 3 4 2 3 4
Correct choice: (4)
1 1.3 1.3.5
*171. The sum of the series ......... is:
1.2 1.2.3.4 1.2.3.4.5.6
(1) e 1 (2) e 1 (3) e 2 (4) e e
1.3.5...... 2n 1 xn
n n
1
Sol.: Tn Tn r
e 1 e x
1.2.3...... 2n r 1
2 r! r 0
n !
Correct choice: (2)
f x
x 1
Sol.:
1 x2 x 1
x
1 1 1 1 1
x 2 and x 2 , then ,
x x 1 2 2
x
x
Correct choice: (3)
cot x cos x
*173. lim equals:
x
2 x 3
2
1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16 8 4 2
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 37
x
2 2
tan x . 2 sin
tan x 1 cos x 2 2
cot x1 sin x
2 2 1
Sol.: lim lim lim
3 3 2
x x x 2 x 16
2 8 x 2 8 x 2 8 x .4.
2 2 2 2
Correct choice: (1)
a 2 ax x 2 a 2 ax x 2
174. The value of f 0 , so that the function f x becomes continuous for all x, is given by:
ax ax
(1) a3 2 (2) a1 2 (3) a1 2 (4) a3 2
2a 2 a
lim a
x 0 2a 2
Correct choice: (3)
x! x 1 ! x 2 !
177. If x is a positive integer, then x 1 ! x 2 ! x 3 ! is equal to:
x 2 ! x 3 !` x 4 !
(1) 2 x !x 1 ! (2) 2 x ! x 1 ! x 2 !
(3) 2 x ! x 3 ! (4) 2x 1 ! x 2 ! x 3 !
1 x 1 x 2x 1
Sol.: x ! x 1 ! x 2 ! 1 x 2 x 3x 2
1 x 3 ( x 4) x 3
1 x 1 x 2x 1
x ! x 1 ! x 2 ! 0 1 2x 2 2 x ! x 1 ! x 2 !
0 1 2x 3
Correct choice: (2)
x x
*178. If tan cosecx sin x , then the value of tan2 is:
2 2
(1) 2 5 (2) 2 5 (3) 2 5 (4) 2 5
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DCE 2009 SOLUTIONS CPM 38
x x
1 tan2 2 tan
x 2 2 x
Sol.: tan let tan t
2 x 2 x 2
2 tan 1 tan
2 2
t
1 t
2
2t
2t 2 1 t 2 1 t 2
2
t 4 4t 2 1 0 t 2 2 5
2t 1 t2
t 2 2 5 , then answer 2 5
Correct choice: (4)
3 5 7
*180. The value of cos4 cos4 cos4 cos4 is:
8 8 8 8
1 3
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4) 1
2 2
2 2 2 2
3 5 7
1 cos 1 cos 1 cos 1 cos
Sol.: 4 4 4 4
2 2 2 2
1 1
2 2
1 1 2 3
21 21 22
4 2
2 4 2 2
Correct choice: (3)
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