(T/F) The outer membrane FALSE: they DO act a major

for G+ and the cell surface antigens BUT the

membrane for G- act as outer mb for G- and the cell
major surface antigens. membrane for G+

Are endotoxins heat stable? yes, stable at 100C for 1 hr.

Are endotoxins secreted from

NO
cells?

Are endotoxins used as no, they don't produce

antigens in vaccines? protective immune response
 no, destroyed rapidly at 60C
Are exotoxins heat stable? (exception: Staphylococcal
enterotoxin)

Are exotoxins secreted from

YES
cells?

Are exotoxins used as Yes, TOXOIDS are used as

antigens in vaccines? vaccines

Describe the chemical

Sugar backbone with cross-
composition of
linked peptide side chains.
peptidoglycan.
 inner and outer lipid bilayer
membranes - thin layer of
Describe the major peptidoglycan - periplasmic
components of a G- cell wall. space - contains
lipopolysaccharide,
lipoprotein and phospholipid

one lipid bilayer membrane -

Describe the major
thick layer of peptidoglycan -
components of a G+ cell wall.
contains teichoic acid

Describe the process of DNA transfer from one

conjugation. bacterium to another.

Describe the process of DNA transfer by a virus from

transduction. one cell to another
 Describe the process of purified DNA is taken up by a
transformation. cell

Does endotoxin induce and

no, not well
antigenic response?

Does exotoxin induce and Yes, induces high-titer

antigenic response? antibodies called antitoxins

Give two general functions of Gives rigid support - protects

peptidoglycan against osmotic pressure
 Group A are Bacitracin
How are Group A and Group B
sensitive - Group B are
Strep primarily differentiated?
Bacitracin resistant

How are the pathogenic

on the basis of sugar
Neisseria species
fermentation
differentiated?

How are the species of

on the basis of their
Streptococcus primarily
HEMOLYTIC capabilities
differentiated?

Lag phase - log (exponential)

List the four phases of the
phase - stationary phase -
bacterial growth curve.
death phase
 Name 2 G- rods that are
considered slow lactose Citrobacter and Serratia
fermenters.

Name 3 G- rods that are

1) Klebsiella 2) E. coli 3)
considered fast lactose
Enterobacter
fermenters.

Name 3 G- rods which are

lactose nonfermenters and Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus
Oxidase(-)?

Name 4 bacteria that use IgA 1) Strep. pneumoniae 2)

protease to colonize mucosal Neisseria meningitidis 3)
surfaces. Neisseria gonorrhea 4) H. flu
 1) H. flu 2) Pasteruella 3)
Name 4 genus of bacteria
Brucella 4) Bordetella
that are G- 'coccoid' rods.
pertussis

Treponema - Rickettsia -
Name 6 bacteria that don't Mycobacteria - Mycoplasma
Gram's stain well? - Legionella pneumophila -
Chlamydia

1) Clostridium (an anaerobe)

Name four genus of bacteria
2) Coynebacterium 3) Listeria
that are G+ rods.
4) Bacillus

1) Corynebacterium
diphtheriae 2) Clostridium
Name seven G+ bacteria tetani 3) Clostridium
species that make exotoxins. botulinum 4) Clostridium
perfringens 5) Bacillus
anthracis 6) Staph. aureus 7)
Strep. pyogenes
Name three diseases caused Tetanus - botulism -
by exotoxins. diptheria

Name three G- bacteria 1) E. coli 2) Vibrio cholerae

species that make exotoxins. 3) Bordetella pertussis

Name three Lactose- Eschericia, Klebsiella,

fermenting enterics. Enterobacter

Name two diseases caused by Meningococcemia - sepsis by

endotoxins. G(-) rods
Name two type of Strep that S. pneumoniae - Viridans
exhibit alpha hemolysis? strep. (e.g. S. mutans)

Name two types of Strep. that Enterococcus (E. faecalis) and

are non-hemolytic (gamma Peptostreptococcus
hemolysis). (anaerobe)

Name two types of Strep. that Group A Strep. (GAS) and

exhibit beta hemolysis. Group B Strep. (GBS)

Teichoic acid induces what

TNF and IL-1
two cytokines?
 What are the effects of it is a superantigen - it
erythrogenic toxin? causes rash of Scarlet fever

it is a hemolysin - it is the
What are the effects of
antigen for ASO-antibody
streptolysin O?
found in rheumatic fever

What are the effects of the one toxin in the toxin

exotoxin secreted by Bacillus complex is an adenylate
anthracis? (1) cyclase

Stimulates adenylate cyclase

What are the effects of the by ADP ribosylation - causes
exotoxin secreted by whooping cough - inhibits
Bordetella pertussis? (3) chemokine receptor, causing
lymphocytosis

What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by
Clostridium botulinum?
blocks release of
acetylcholine: causes
anticholenergic symptoms,
CNS paralysis; can cause
'floppy baby'

alpha toxin is a lecithinase -

What are the effects of the
causes gas gangrene - get a
exotoxin secreted by
double zone of hemolysis on
Clostridium perfringens?
blood agar

What are the effects of the blocks release of the

exotoxin secreted by inhibitory NT glycine; causes
Clostridium tetani? 'lockjaw'

What are the effects of the

1) inactivates EF-2 by ADP
exotoxin secreted by
ribosylation 2) pharyngitis 3)
Corynebacterium diphtheria?
'pseudomembrane' in throat
(3)

What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by E. coli?
(2)
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by Staph.
aureus?
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by Vibro
cholerae? (3)
What are the general clinical
effects of endotoxin?(2)
this heat labile toxin
stimulates adenylate cyclase
by ADP ribosylation of G
protein - causes watery
diarrhea
superantigen; induces IL-1
and IL-2 synthesis in Toxic
Shock Syndrome; also causes
food poisoning
Stimulates adenylate cyclase
by ADP ribosylation of G
protein - increases pumping
of Cl- and H2O into gut -
causes voluminous rice-water
diarrhea
fever, shock
 1) Acivates macrophages 2)
What are three primary/
Activates completment (alt.
general effects of endotoxin
pathway) 3) Activates
(especially lipid A)?
Hageman factor

What are two exotoxins Erythrogenic toxin and

secreted by Strep. pyogenes? streptolysin O

Mediate adherence of bacteria

What are two functions of the to the cell surface - sex pilus
pilus/fimbrae? forms attachment b/t 2
bacteria during conjugation

1) Neisseria memingitidis:
What are two species of Gram
maltose fermenter 2)
(-) cocci and how are they
Neisseria gonorrhoeae:
differentiated?
maltose NONfementer
 What bacteria produces a
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
blue-green pigment?

What bacteria produces a red Serratia marcescens

pigment? ('maraschino cherries are red')

What bacteria produces a Staph. aureus (Aureus= gold

yellow pigment? in Latin)

What culture requirements do

Sabouraud's agar
Fungi have?
What culture requirements do
MacConkey's agar (make pink
Lactose-fermenting enterics
colonies)
have?

What culture requirements

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
does B. pertussis have?

What culture requirements

Tellurite agar
does C. diphtheriae have?

What culture requirements chocolate agar with factors V

does H. flu have? (NAD) and X (hematin)
 What culture requirements Charcol yeast extract agar
does Legionella pneumophia buffered with increased iron
have? and cysteine

What culture requirements

Thayer-Martin (VCN) media
does N. gonorrhea have?

What G- rod is a lactose

nonfermenter and is Oxidase Pseudomonas
+?

What is a function of the

site of oxidative and
plasma membrane in
transport enzymes
bacterial cells.
 exotoxin treated with
formaldehyde (or acid or
What is a toxoid?
heat); retains antigeniciy but
looses toxicity

What is an acronym for

TRMMLC: These Rascals May
remembering 6 bacteria that
Microscopically Lack Color
don't Gram's stain well?

On a Blood agar plate:

What is meant by alpha, beta, alpha= complete; clear -
and gamma hemolysis? beta= partial; green -
gamma= no hemolysis; red

What is the chemical

polysaccharide
composition of a glycocalix?
 What is the chemical
RNA and protein in 30S and
composition of bacterial
50S subunits
ribosomes?

What is the chemical

Lipopolysaccharide
composition of endotoxin?

What is the chemical

polypeptide
composition of exotoxin?

What is the chemical keratin-like coat - dipicolinic

composition of spores? acid
 What is the funciton and
chemical composition of the for motility - made of protein
flagellum?

mediates adherence to
What is the function of a
surfaces, especially foreign
glycocalix?
surfaces (i.e. catheters)

provides resistance to
What is the function of
dehydration, heat, and
spores?
chemicals

Polysaccharide (*except
What is the major chemical
Bacillus anthracis, which
composition of the capsule?
contains D-Glutamate)
What is the major function of
antiphagocytic
the capsule?

What is the mode of action of

includes TNF and IL-1
endotoxin?

What is the nature of the DNA

Chromosomal or plasmid
transferred in conjugation?

Any gene in generalized

What is the nature of the DNA transduction; only certain
transferred in transduction? genes in specialized
transduction
What is the nature of the DNA
Any DNA
transferred in transformation?

the space between the inner

What is the periplasm? Where
and outer cell membranes
is it found?
found in G(-) bacteria.

What is the primary test to

are they Lactose Fermenters?
subcatergorize G- rods?

cell wall of most G- bacteria

What is the source of
(think N-dotoxin=gram
endotoxins?
Negative)
 What is the source of certain species of some G+
exotoxins? and G- bacteria

What is the unique chemical

component of Gram (-) cell Lipopolysaccharide
membranes?

What is the unique chemical

component of Gram + cell Teichoic acid
membranes?

What is used to stain

Use silver stain.
Legionella?
 What species is Group A
S. pyogenes
Strep?

What species is Group B

S. agalactiae
Strep?

What stain is amyloid and

gives an apple-green
Congo red
birefringence in polarized
light?

What stain is used for acid

Ziehl-Neelsen
fast bacteria?
 What stain is used for
Borrelia, Plasmodium,
Giemsa's
trypanosomes, and
Chlamydia?

What stain is used for

India ink
Cryptococcus neoformans?

What stains gylcogen,

mucopolysaccharides and is
PAS (periodic acid Schiff)
used to diagnose Whipple's
disease?

Staph. are Catalase (+) and

What test distinguishes Staph.
are in clusters - Strep. are
and Strep?
Catalase (-) and are in chains
What test distinguishes Staph. S. aureus is Coagulase (+) -
aureus from Staph. S. epidermidis and S.
epidermidis and Staph. saprophyticus are Coagulase
saprophyticus? (-)

S. pneumoniae: have Capsule;

What two things distinguish
Optochin Sensitive - Viridans
S. pneumoniae from Viridans
strep: No capsule; Optochin
Strep.?
Resistant

What type of enzymes allows

certain bacteria to colonize IgA proteases
mucosal surfaces?

When endotoxin activates

C3a: hypotension, edema -
complement, what are the
C5a: neutrophil chemotaxis
secondary effects?
When endotoxin activates
Hageman, what are the coagulation cascade: DIC
secondary effects?

When endotoxin activates

IL-1--fever - TNF--fever,
macrophages, what 3
hemmoragic tissue necrosis
cytokines are released and
- Nitic oxide--hypotension,
what are the secondary
shock
effects?

Where are the genes for

on the bacterial chromosome
endotoxin located?

Where are the genes for on a plasmid or in a

exotoxin located? bacteriophage
 Where are the spores of
canned food - honey
Clostridium botulinum found?

in the outer membrane of G

Where is LPS found?
(-) cell walls

EXOTOXIN: fatal dose is ~1ug!

Which has a higher toxicity:
(for endotoxin, fatal dose is
exotoxin or endotoxin?
hundreds of micrograms)

Which type of Neisseria Gonococci (Glucose=

ferment Glucose only? Gonococci)
 Meningococci
Which type of Neisseria
(MaltoseGlucose=
ferment maltose and glucose?
MeninGococci)

Which types of transfer can

only transformation
eukaryotic cells do?

all 3: conjugation,
Which types of transfer can
transduction, and
prokaryotic cells do?
transformation

Why don't Mycobacteria high lipid content cell wall

Gram's stain well? requires acid-fast stain
 Why don't Mycoplasma
no cell wall
Gram's stain well?

Why don't Rickettsia, they are intracellular

Chlamydia, and Legionella (Legionella is Mainly
Gram's stain well? intracellular)

too thin to be visualized (use

Why don't Treponema Gram's
darkfield microscopy and
stain well?
antibody staining)

Name 5 species of bacteria

Borrelia burgdorferi -
that are transmitted to
Brucella spp. - Francisella
humans from animals.
tularensis - Yersinia pestis -
(Acronym: BBugs From Your
Pasteurella multocida
Pet.)
 All Rickettsiae (except one arthropod (Coxiella is
genus) are transmitted by atypical: transmitted by
what type of vector? aeresol)

G- bugs are resistant to PenG

but may be susceptible to
Are G(-) bugs resistant to Pen
pen. derivative like ampicillin.
G? to ampicillin? to
The G- outer mb inhibits
vancomycin?
entry of PenG and
vancomycin.

Strep. pneumoniae is
Are Strep. pneumoniae
optochin-Sensitive - Viridans
sensitve to optochin? Are
streptococci is optochin-
Viridans strep.?
Resistant

Are Strep. pyogenes

YES. both are catalase +
Bacitracin-sensitive?>
 Are Viridans strep. alpha,
alpha
beta, or non-hemolytic?

Because of drug resistance,

what in an alternate rifampin with dapsone and
treatment combination for clofazimine
leprosy?

Besides the rash, what other

body systems are affected by joints -CNS -heart
Lyme disease? (3)

Aerobic, G(-) rod. - Non-

lactose fermenting - Oxidase
Describe lab-findings for
positive - Produces
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
pyocyanin (blue-green
pigment)
 Describe the disease often resistant to multiple
associated with M. avium- drugs; causes disseminated
intracellulare. disease in AIDS.

contains type b capsulare

polysaccharide conjugated to
Describe the H. flu vaccine.
diphtheria toxoid or other
When is it given?
protein. -Given b/t 2m and
18m.

Describe the typical findings 1) Ferments lactose 2) watery

with diarrhea caused by diarrhea 3) no fever/
enterotoxigenic E. coli. (3) leukocytosis

1) Comma-shaped organisms
Describe the typical findings
2) rice-water stools 3) no
with Vibro cholerae. (3)
fever/leukocytosis
Do Streptococcus pneumonia
have catalase? Do Viridans YES. both are catalase +
Strep. have catalase?

Enterococci are hardier than

nonenterococcal group D
6.5% NaCl (used as lab test)
bacteria. What lab conditions
can they grow in?

Following primary infection

-dormant tubercle bacilli
with TB, if preallergic
form in several organs -
lymphatic or hematogenous
REACTIVATION can occur in
dissemination occurs, what
adult life
follows?

Following primary infection

Miliary tuberculosis and
with TB, if severe bacteremia
possibly death
occurs, what follows?
 Following primary infection Immunity and
with TB, if the lesion heals by hypersensitivity--->
fibrosis, what is the result? tuberculin positive

Following primary infection

with TB, under what HIV, malnutrition. This
conditions would the lesion progressive lung disease can
likely progress to lung rarely lead to death.
disease?

1) Heals by fibrosis 2)
Following primary infection
Progressive lung disease 3)
with TB, what are 4 possible
Severe bacteremia 4)
courses the disease could
Preallergic lymphatic or
take?
hematogenous dissemination

Give 3 examples of obligate Clostridium - Bacteroides -

anaerobes. Actinomyces
 1) burn wound infection 2)
Give 3 types of infection
nosocomial pneumonia 3)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
pneumonia with cystic
commonly responsible for.
fibrosis

1) Strep. pneumoniae 2)
Haemophilus influenza
Give 4 examples of
(especially b) 3) Neisseria
encapsulated bacteria.
memingitidis 4) Klebsiella
pneumoniae

Epiglottitis -Meningitis -
H. flu causes what? (4) Otitis media -Pneumonia
(haEMOPhilus)

using aniline dyes (Wright's or

How are Borrelia visualized? Giemsa stain) in light
microscopy
 How are Mycobacteria acid-fast stain =Ziehl-
visualized in the lab? Neelson

How are Treponema

by dark-field microscopy
visualized?

1) Reinfection of partially
immune hypersensitized hosts
How can secondary (usu. adults) =exogenous
tuberculosis in the lung source 2) Reactivation of
occur?(2) dormant tubercle bacilli in
immunocompromised or
debilitated hosts
=endogenous source

How can you remember that

they live in the mouth and are
Viridans strep are resistant to
not afraid of the (opto-)CHIN
optochin?
 How does primary syphilis with a painless chancre
present? (localized disease; 2-10 wks).

disseminated disease (1-3m

later) with constitutional
How does secondary syphilis
symptoms, maculopapular
present?
rash, condylomata lata
(genital lesions)

gummas (granulomas),
How does tertiary syphilis aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes
present? dorsalis), Argyll-Robertson
pupil

via exotoxin encoded by

How does the bacterium beta-prophage; exotoxin
cause the disease? inhibits protein synthesis via
ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
 typhus: maculopapillary rash
BEGINS ON TRUNCK, moves
How does the rash with
peripherally -RMSF: macules
typhus differ from the rash
progressing to petichiae
with RMSF?
BEGIN ON HANDS &FFET
and move inward.

How is Brucellosis/Undulant dairy products, contact with

fever transmitted? animals

How is Cellulitis transmitted? Animal bite; cats, dogs

How is H. flu transmitted? aeresol

 use silver stain (doesn't Gram
How is Legionnaires' disease stain well) -culture with
diagnosed in lab? charcoal yeast extract with
iron and cysteine.

aeresol transmission from

How is Legionnaires' disease envirnomental water source
transmitted? habitat (NO human-to-
human transmission).

How is Lyme disease Tick bite; Ixodes ticks that

transmitted? live of deer and mice

How is Shigella spread? food, fingers, feces, and flies'

 How is the Plague Flea bite; rodents, especially
transmitted? prairie dogs

How is Tuleremia
Tick bite; rabbits, deer
transmitted?

Is Bacillus anthracis G+ or
It is a G+, spore-forming rod
G-? What is its morphology?

Is there an animal reservoir

Yes, armadillos in the US
for leprosy?
 Polyarthritis - Erythema
List 5 findings associated
marginatum -Chorea -
with rheumatic fever. (Hint:
Carditis - Subcutaneous
PECCS)
nodules

ADP ribosylation -Beta-

List the 'ABCDEFG' of prophage -Corynebacterium
diphtheria. - Diphtheria - Elongation
Factor 2 - Granules

Name 2 alpha-hemolytic Strep. pneumoniae - Viridans

bacteria. streptococci

Name 2 bugs that cause

diarrhea but NOT fever and E. coli and Vibro cholerae
leukocytosis?
Name 2 disease processes
1) UTI 2) subacute
that can be caused by
endocarditis
enterococci.

Name 2 species of Enterococcus faecalis -

enterococci. Enterococcus faecium

pseudomembraneous
Name 2 symptoms of pharyngitis (grayish white
diphtheria. membrane) -
lymphadenopathy

Bacillus anthracis -
Name 3 spore forming
Clostridium perfringens - C.
bacteria.
tetani
 1) Staph. aureus 2) Strep.
Name 4 beta-hemolytic pyogenes (GAS) 3) Strep.
bacteria. agalactiae (GBS) 4) Listeria
monocytogenes

Klebsiella -E. coli -

Name 4 lactose-fermenting Enterobacter Citrobacter
enteric bacteria. (think Lactose is KEE for first
three listed)

Norcardia - Pserudomonas
Name 4 obligate aerobic
aeruginosa - Mycobacterium
bacteria.
tuberculosis - Bacillus

1) Vibrio cholerae 2)
enterotoxigenic E. coli 3)
Name 5 bugs that cause
viruses (rotavirus) 4)
watery diarrhea.
protozoa (Cryptosporidium
and (5) Giardia)
 1) Salmonella 2) Shigella 3)
Campylobacter jejuni 4)
Name 6 bugs that cause enterohemorrhagic/
bloody diarrhea. enteroinvasive E.coli 5)
Yersinia enterocilitica 6)
Entamoeba histolytica (a
protozoan)

1) Mycobacterium 2) Brucella
Name 7 faculatative 3) Francisella 4) Listeria 5)
intracellular bacteria. Yersinia 6) Legionella 7)
Salmonella

Borrelia (big size) -

Name three genera of
Leptospira -Treponema
spirochetes.
(think: BLT; B is big)

Name two lab tests used to

VDRL and FTA-ABS
detect syphilis?
 Name two non-lactose
fermenting bacteria that
Salmonella and Shigella
invade intestinal mucosa and
can cause bloody diarrhea.

Rickettsia and Chlamydia

Name two obligate
(Hint: 'stay inside when its
intracellular bacteria.
Really Cold.')

RMSF is endemic to what part the East Coast (in spite of the
of the US? name)

Spore are formed by certain Gram+ rods, usually in soil;

species of what type of form spores only when
bacteria? nutrients are limited
T/F Chlamydia are obligate
intracellular parasites that TRUE
cause mucosal infections.

T/F Chlamys means cloak. TRUE (intracellular)

T/F Enterobacteriaceae are

oxidase negative and are TRUE
glucose fermenters.

T/F H. pylori infection is a

risk factor for peptic ulcer TRUE
and gastric carcinoma.
 T/F Penicillin is not an TRUE Mycoplama are
effective treatment against naturally resistant b/c they
Mycoplasma pneumoniae. have no cell wall.

TRUE: endotoxin--->
T/F Pseudomonas produces
fever, shock -exotoxin---
both endotoxin and exotoxin.
> inactivates EF-2

T/F Rickettsiae are obligate

intracellular parasites and TRUE
need CoA and NAD.

FALSE: ALL enterococci are

T/F Some enterococci are
naturally resistant to Pen/
resistant to PenG.
cephlosporins.
T/F Spores have no metabolic
TRUE
activity.

T/F: S. aureus food

FALSE: rapid onset of S.
poisoning is due to the
aureus food poisoning is due
ingestion of bacteria that
to injestion of PREFORMED
rapidly secrete toxin once
toxin
they enter the GI tract.

The Weil-Felix reaction

Positive: typhus and RMSF -
usually tests positive for what
Negative: Q fever -Cross-
two diseases? Negative for
reacts: with Proteus antigen
what? Cross reacts with what?

Think COFFEe for Capsular -O-antigen -

Enterobacteriaceae. What Flagellar antigen -Ferment
does that stand for? glucose -Enterobacteriaceae
 Nagging Pests Must Breath
What's a pneumonic for
(=Norcardia - Pserudomonas
remembering 4 obligate
aeruginosa - Mycobacterium
aerobes?
tuberculosis - Bacillus

burn-wound infections -
Pneumonia (esp. in cystic
What (6) infections can
fibrosis) -Sepsis (black skin
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
lesions) -External Otitis
cause?
(swimmer's ear) - UTI -hot
tub folliculitis

What 2 bugs can cause

bloody diarrhea, fever, and
Salmonella and Shigella
leukocytosis, but do not
ferment lactose?

The Ixodes tick transmits it.

What animals carry Lyme - Deer are required for tick
disease? life cycle. - Mice are
important resservoirs.
 What anitbody class is
necessary for an immune
response to encapsulated
bacteria?
What are 2 disease processes
caused by Viridans strep and
what species are responsible?
What are 2 options for triple
thearpy treatment of H.
pylori?
What are 3 advantages/
differences between VDRL
and FTA-ABS?
IgG2.
1) dental caries: Strep.
mutans 2) bacterial
endocarditis: Strep. sanguis
(1) bismuth (Pepto-Bismal),
metronidazole, and
tetracyclin or amoxicillin. OR
(2) metronidazole,
omeprazole, and
clarithromycin (#2 is more
expensive)
FTA-ABS is 1) more specific
2) positive earlier in disease
3) remains positive longer
than VDRL

What are 3 disease processes
caused by Strep. pyogenes?
What are 4 biological false
positives for VDRL?
What are 4 clinical symptoms
of 'walking' pneumonia?
What are 4 clinical symptoms
of TB?
1) Pyogenic--pharyngitis,
cellulitis, skin infection 2)
Toxigenic--scarlet fever, TSS
3) Immunologic--rheumatic
fever, acute
glomerulonephritis
1) Viruses (mono, hepatitis)
2) Drugs 3) Rheumatic fever
and rheumatic arthritis 4)
Lupus and leprosy (=VDRL)
1) insidious onset 2)
headache 3) nonproductive
cough 4) diffuse interstitial
infiltrate
1) fever 2) night sweats 3)
weight loss 4) hemoptysis

What are 5 areas that can be
affected by extrapulmonary
TB?
1) CNS (parenchmal
tuberculoma or meningitis)
2) Vertebral body (Pott's
disease) 3) Lymphadenitis 4)
Renal 5) GI

culture on chocolate agar

with factor V (NAD) and X
What are the culture (hematin). [Think: 'Child has
requirement for H. flu? 'flu'; mom goes to five (V) and
dime (X) store to buy
chocolate.']

cytoplasmic inclusions on
What are the lab findings with
Giemsa fluorescent antibody-
Chlamydia?
stains smear

1) rash on palms and soles

What are the symptoms of (migrating to wrists, ankles,
RMSF? (3) then trunck) 2) headache 3)
fever
 1) erythema chronicum
migrans, flu-like symptoms
What are the three stages of 2) neurologic and cardiac
Lyme disease? manefestations 3)
autoimmune migratory
polyarthritis

1) Elementary body (small,

dense): Enters cell via
What are the two forms of
endocytosis 2) Initial or
chlamydia?
Reticulate body: Replicates in
the cell by fission

1) lepromatous- failed cell-

What are the two forms of
mediated immunity, worse 2)
leprosy (or Hansen's disease)?
tuberculoid- self-limited.

What are two drugs that could

be used to treat 'walking' tetracycline or erythromycin
pneumonia?
What are two drugs that could
erythromycin or tetracycline
treat Chlmydia?

What are two lab findings 1) X-ray looks worse than

associated with 'walking' patient 2)High titer of cold
pneumonia? agglutinins (IgM)

Clostridium difficile; it kills

What are usually associated enterocytes, usu. is
with pseudomembraneous overgrowth secondary to
colitis? antibiotic use (esp.
clindamycin or ampicillin)

What bacteria are G+, spore-

Clostridia
forming, anaerobic bacilli?
 What bacteria causes a
malignant pustule (painless
ulcer); black skin lesions that Bacillus anthracis
are vesicular papules covered
by a blak eschar?

What bacteria exhibits a

'tumbling' motility, is found in
unpasteurized milk, and Listeria monocytogenes
causes meningitis in
newborns?

What bacteria is catalase(-)

Strep. agalactiae
and bacitracin-resistant?

What bacteria is catalase(-)

Strep. pyogenes
and bacitracin-sensitive?
What bacteria is catalase+
Staph. aureus
and coagulase+?

What bacteria produces

alpha-toxin, a hemolytic
lecithinase that causes Clostridium perfringens
myonecrosis or gas
gangrene?

What bacterium causes

Pasteurella multocida
Cellulitis?

What bacterium causes

Mycobacterium leprae
leprosy?
What bacterium causes Lyme
Borrelia burgdorferi
disease?

What bacterium causes the

Yersinia pestis
Plague?

What bacterium causes

Francisella tularensis
Tularemia?

What bacterium causes Brucella spp. (a.k.a.

Undulant fever? Brucellosis)
 What bug causes atypical
Mycoplama pneumoniae
'walking' pneumonia?

What bug causes

gastroenteritis and up to 90% Helicobacter pylori
of duodenal ulcers?

What bug causes

Legionella pneumophila
Legionnaire's disease?

What bug is associated with

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
burn wound infections?
What bug is comma- or S-
shaped and grows at 42C,
Campylobacter jejuni
and causes bloody diarrhea
with fever and leukocytosis?

What bug that causes

diarrhea is usually
Yersinia enterocolitica
transmitted from pet feces
(e.g. puppies)?

Clostridium tetani: exotoxin

What causes tetanus? (give produced blocks glycine
bacteria and disease process) release (inhibitory NT) from
Renshaw cells in spinal cord

NOT H. flu -it is caused by

What causes the flu?
influenza virus
What chemical is found in the
core of spores?
What coccobacillus causes
vaginosis: greenish vaginal
discharge with a fishy smell;
nonpainful?
What disease does Bordetella
perussis cause? How?
What disease does Vibrio
cholerae cause? How?
dipicolinic acid
Gardnerella vaginalis
Whooping cough: toxin
permanently disables G-
protein in respiratory mucosa
(turns the 'off' off);ciliated
epithelial cells are killed;
mucosal cells are overactive.
Cholera: toxin permanently
activates G-protein in
intestinal mucosa (turns the
'on' on) causing rice-water
diarrhea
 What disease is caused by
Lyme Disease
Borrelia?

Botulism: associated with

contaminated canned food,
What disease is caused by
produces a preformed, heat-
Clostridium botulinum? What
labile toxin that inhibits ACh
pathophys. does it cause?
release---> flaccid
paralysis.

What diseases (2) are caused Syphilis (T. pallidum) -yaws

by Treponema? (T. pertenue; not and STD)

Inflammatory disease: skin

infections, organ abcess,
pneumonia - Toxin-
What diseases can be caused mediated disease: Toxic
by Staph. aureus? Shock Syn., scalded skin
syndrome (exfoliative toxin),
rapid onset food poisoning
(enterotoxins)
 What do Chlamydia chronic infection, cause
trachomatis serotypes A, B, blindness in Africa (ABC=
and C cause? Africa / Blindness / Chronic

What do Chlamydia urethritis/ PID - neonatal

trachomatis serotypes D-K pneumonia -neonatal
cause? (3) conjuctivitis

What do Chlamydia lymphogranuloma venereum

trachomatis serotypes L1,L2, (acute lymphadentis: positive
and L3 cause? Frei test)

rash on palm and sole is seen

What do RMSF, syphilis, and
in each (coxasackievirus A
coxsackievirus A infection
=hand, foot, and mouth
have in common?
disease)
 it degrades H2O2, an
What does catalase do? Which antimicrobial product of
bacteria have it? PMNs. - Staphlococci make
catalase; Strep. do NOT.

What does the H-antigen H: flagellar antigen, found on

represent? motile species

What does the K-antigen K: capsular, relates to

represent? virulence

O-antigen is the
What does the O-antigen
polysaccharide of endotoxin
represent?
(found on all species)
 What does VDRL detect? (It
detects antibody that reacts
detects non-specific antibody
with beef cardiolipin
that reacts with what?)

What drug of choice is used

to treat Norcardia? Sulfa for Norcarida,
Actinomyces? (Acronym: Actinomyces gets Penicillin
SNAP)

What enteric bacterial

infection may be prolonged Salmonellosis
with antibiotic treatment?

What enzyme allows H. pylori urease (cleaves urea to

to creat an alkaline ammonia); used in urease
environment? breath test
What family includes E. coli,
Salmonella, Klebsiella,
Enterobacteriaceae
Enterobacter, Serratia, and
Proteus?

What family of bacteria uses

the O-, K-, and H-antigen Enterobacteriaceae
nomenclature?

1) antiphagocytic 2) antigen
What function does the
in vaccines (Pneumovax, H.
capsule serve? (2: one for the
flu b, meningococcal
bacterium, one other)
vaccines)

What G+ anaerobe causes

oral/facial abscesses with
'sulfur granules' that may Acinomyces israelii
drain through sinus tracts in
skin?
What G+ and also weakly acid
fast aorobe found in soil
causes pulmonary infections Norcardia asteroides
in immunocompromised
patients?

What general type of bacteria

are normal flora in GI tract Anaerobes
but pathogenic elsewhere?

What general type of bacteria

Lactose-fermenting enteric
grow pink colonies on
bacteria
MacConkey's agar?

Occurs in Primary TB (usually

a child) -Ghon complex=
What is a Ghon complex and draining Hilar nodes and
in whom does it occur? Ghon focus, exudative
parenchymal lesion (usu. in
LOWER lobes of lung)
 G+ rods with metachromatic
What is a lab diagnosis of
granules; grows on tellurite
diphtheria based on?
agar. (Coryne=club shaped)

What is a major difference

Salmonella are motile;
between Salmonella and
Shigella are nonmotile
Shigella observable in the lab?

if encapsulated bug is
What is a positive Quellung present, capsule SWELLS
reaction? when specific anticapsular
antisera are added.

What is notable about

has an avian reservoir
Chrmydia psittaci?
What is one reason M. leparae
infects skin and superficial It likes cool temperatures
nerves?

erythema chronicum migrans,

What is the classic symptom
an expanding 'bull's eys' red
of Lyme Disease?
rash with central clearing.

What is the classic triad of

1) headache 2) fever 3) rash
symptoms associated with
(vasiculitis)
Rickettsiae?

What is the common

Fibrocaseous cavitary lesion
manifestation of secondary
usu. in APICIES of lung
TB?
 What is the common site of
the apicies of the lung (which
infection for Mycobacterium
have the highest PO2)
tuberculosis?

What is the D.O.C. to treat

Metroidazole
Gardnerella vaginalis?

What is the DOC for treating

tetracycline
rickettsial infections?

What is the DOC for

treatment of most rickettsial tetracycline
infections?
 What is the DOC to treat
tetracycline
Lyme Disease?

What is the DOC to treat

Penicillin G
syphilis?

What is the drug of choice for

Treat meningitis with
H. flu meningitis? What DOC
CEFTRIAXONE; Rifampin for
for prophylaxis in close-
prophylaxis.
contacts?

What is the drug of choice for

Erythromycin
Legionaires' disease?
What is the morphology of H.
Small G(-) (coccobacillary) rod
flu?

What is the morphology of H.

Gram (-) rod
pylori?

What is the primary drug dapsone (toxicity is hemolysis

used to treat leprosy? and methemoglobinemia)

What is the recommended aminoglycoside plus

treatment for Pseudomonas extended-spectrum penicillin
aeruginosa infection? (e.g. piperacillin or ticarcillin)
 What is the source of
infection and the bacterium R. typhi; from fleas
that causes endemic typhus?

What is the source of

R. prowazekii; from human
infection and the bacterium
body louse
that causes epidemic typhus?

What is the source of

Coxiella burnetii; from
infection and the bacterium
inhaled aersols
that causes Q fever?

What is the source of

infection and the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii; from tick
that causes Rocky Mountain bite
Spotted Fever?
 TSST-1; it is a superantigen
What is the toxin responsible that binds to class II MHC and
for TSS is Staph. aureus? T-cell receptors--->
polyclonal T-cell activation

What is the unique

component found in
cholesterol
Mycoplamsa bacterial
membranes?

What is the unique feature of its peptidoglycan wall lacks

Chlamydiae cell walls? muramic acid

inhalation anthrax; can cause

What is woolsorter's disease?
life-threatening pneumonia
 What lab test assays for
Weil-Felix reaction
antirickettsial antibodies?

What Lancefield Antigen

Group D
Group are enterococci in?

They are non-typealbe. They

What Lancefield Antigen do not have a C-carbohydrate
Group are Viridans strep in? on their cell wall to be
classified by.

autoclaving; they are highly

What level of disinfection is
resistant to destruction by
required to kill spores?
heat and chemicals
 What populations are most
patients younger than age 30
likely to get Mycoplama
- military recruits - prisons
pneumoniae infection?

What rickettsial disease is

atypical in that it has no rash,
no vector, negative Weil-Felix Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
reaction, and its causative
organism can survive outside
for a long time?

What species are associated

Vibrio parahaemolytica and
with food poisoning in
Virbrio vulnificus
contaminated seafood?

What species causes

Corynebacterium diptheriae
diphtheria?
 What species is associated
with food poisoning in
Clostridium botulinum
improperly canned foods
(bulging cans)?

What species is associated Staphylococcus aureus (this

with food poisoning in meats, food poisoining usu. starts
mayonnaise, and custard? quickly and ends quickly)

What species is associated

with food poisoning in Salmonella
poultry, meat, and eggs?

What species is associated

with food poisoning in Clostridium perfringens
reheated meat dishes?
 What species is associated Bacillus cereus ('Food
with food poisoning in poisoning from reheated rice?
reheated rice? Be serious!')

What species is associated

with food poisoning in
E. coli 0157-H7
undercooked meat and
unpasteurized juices?

What species of Mycobacteria

causes pulmonary, TB-like M. kansasii
symptoms?

What strain of Haemophilus

influenza causes most capsular type b
invasive disease?
 What symptoms are
associated with M. cervical lymphadenitis in kids
scrofulaceum

Viridans are resistant to

What test differentiates
optochin; S. pneu. are
Viridans from S. pneumoniae?
sensitive to optochin

What two bugs secrete

exotoxins that act via ADP
ribosylation of G-proteins, Vibrio cholerae - Bordetella
permanently activating adenyl pertussis
cyclase (resulting in increased
cAMP)?

What two genera of G+ rods

form long branching Acinomyces and Nocardia
filaments resembling fungi?
 What type of bacteria are
difficult to culture, produce
gas in tissue (CO2 and H2), Anaerobes
and are generally foul-
smelling?

What type of bacteria is

associated with rusty sputum,
Pneumoccocus
sepsis in sickle cell, and
splenectomy?

What type of E. coli are

enterohemmoragic/
associated with bloody
enteroinvasive E. coli
diarrhea?

What type of immunologic

response is elicited by a monocyte response
Salmonella infection?
 arthritis - conjunctivitis -
What types of infection can
pneumonia - nongonococcal
chlamydia cause? (4)
urethritis

What virulence factor of

Staph. aureus binds Fc-IgG,
Protein A
inhibiting complement
fixation and phagocytosis?

What virulence factor of

Strep. pyogenes also serves
M-protein
as an antigen to which the
host makes antibodies?

What will likely be visible

under the microscope in the Clue cell, or vaginal epithelial
case of Gardnerella vaginallis cells covered with bacteria
infection?
 Where are Viridans strep.
normal flora of oropharynx
found (reservoir)?

Where are when is Lyme common in northeast US in

disease common? summer months

Which disease/toxin causes

Pertussis toxin: by inhibiting
lymphocytosis? (Cholera or
chemokine receptors
Pertussis)

Which has an animal

Salmonella: poultry, meat,
reservoir? (Salmonella or
eggs
Shigella)
 Which is more specific for
FTA-ABS is more specific
syphilis: VDRL or FTA-ABS?

Which is more virulent? Shigella (10^1 organisms vs.

(Salmonella or Shigella) Salmonella 10^5 organisms)

Which is motile? (Salmonella Salmonella (think: salmon

or Shigella) swim)

Which species of chlamydia

causes and atypical C. pneumonia -transmitted
pneumonia? How is it via aeresol
transmitted?
 Which two species of
C. trachomatis -C.
chlamydia infect only
pneumoniae
humans?

they lack catalase and/or

Why are anaerobes
oxidase and are susceptible
susceptible to oxygen?
to oxidative damage

M.tuberculosis is an aerobe;
Why does TB usually infect
there is more oxygen at the
the upper lobes of the lung?
apicies

Why must rickettsia and

they can't make their own
chlamydia always be
ATP
intracellular?
 Are most fungal spores
yes
asexual?

Are most P. Carinii infections

no, most of are asymptomatic
symptomatic?

Are the above mentioned yes, except coccioidomycosis

systemic mycoses dimorphic? which is a spherule in tissue

How do the S. Schenckii yeast

Cigar-shaped budding yeast
appear in the pus?
 How do you diagnose
cysts on acid fast stain
cryptosporidium?

How do you diagnose

Trophozoites or cysts in stool
giardiasis?

How do you get P. Carinii? Inhalation

fluconazole or ketoconazole
How do you treat systemic for local infection,
mycoses? amphotericin B for systemic
infection
 Itraconazole or Potassium
How do you Tx S. Schenckii?
Iodide

Mold with septate hyphae

How does Aspergillus appear that branch at a V-shaped (45
microscopically? degree angle) , they are NOT
dimorphic

It is a mold with irregular

How does Mucor species
nonseptate hyphae branching
appear microscopically?
at wide angles>90 degrees

How does
Captain's wheel' appearance
Paracocciodioidomycosis
(like on a sailboat)
appear histologically?
 How is Clonorchis sinensis undercooked fish; causes
transmitted and what disease inflammation of the biliary
results? tract

snails are host; cercariae

How is Schistosoma penetrate skin of humans;
transmitted and what disease causes granulomas, fibrosis,
results? and inflammation of the
spleen and liver

How is Ancylostoma Larvae penetrate skin of feet;

Duodenale transmitted and intestinal infection can cause
what disease results? anemia

How is Ascaris Lumbricoides

Eggs are visible in feces;
transmitted and what disease
intestinal infection
results?
 How is cryptosporidium
Cysts in Water
transmitted?

How is Dracunculus
In drinking water; sink
medinensis transmitted and
inflammation and ulceration
what disease results?

Eggs in dog feces cause cysts

How is E. granulosis
in liver; causes anaphylaxis if
transmitted and what disease
echinococcal antigens
results?
released from cysts

How is E. Histolytica
Cysts in Water
transmitted?
 How is Enterobius food contaminated with eggs;
Vermicularis transmitted and intestinal infections; causes
what disease results? anal pruritus

How is giardia transmitted? Cysts in Water

Transmitted by deer fly;

How is Loa loa transmitted causes swelling the in the
and what disease results? skin (can see worm crawling
in conjunctiva)

How is malaria dx? Blood smear

How is malaria transmitted? mosquito (Anopheles)

How is Onchocerca volvulus transmitted by female

transmitted and what disease blackflies; causes river
results? blindness

Undercooked crab meat;

How is Paragonimus
causes inflammation and
Westermani transmitted and
secondary bacterial infection
what disease results?
of the lung

How is Sporothrix schenckii Dimorphic fugus that lives on

appear under the scope? vegetation
 How is Strongyloides
larvae in soil penetrate the
Stercoralis transmitted and
skin; intestinal infection
what disease results?

food contaminated with eggs;

How is T. Canis transmitted
causes granulomas (if in
and what disease results?
retina=blindness)

undercooked pork tapeworm;

How is T. Solium transmitted
causes mass lesions in the
and what disease results?
brain, cysticercosis

How is T. Vaginalis
sexually
transmitted?
 How is Toxo transmitted? cysts in meat or cat feces

How is Trichinella Spiralis undercooked meat, usually

transmitted and what disease pork; inflammation of muscle,
results? periorbital edema

female mosquito; causes

How is Wucheria transmitted
blockage of lymphatic vessels
and what disease results?
(elephantiasis)

In what cells do you find

macrophages
histoplasmosis?
 Is Pneumocystis Carinii a Yes, but originally classified
yeast? as a Protozoa

budding yeast with

Microscopically how does
pseudohyphae, germ tube
Candida appear?
formation at 37 degrees C)

Schistosoma, Clonorchis
Name 3 Trematodes (Flukes) . sinensis, Paragonimus
Westermani

Candida Albicans, Aspergillus

Name 4 opportunistic fungal fumigatus, Cryptococcus
infections. Neoformans, Mucor and
Rhizopus species
 Coccidiomycosis,
Histoplasmosis,
Name 4 systemic mycoses.
Paracoccidioidomycosis,
Blastomycosis

Name two asexual spores Hisoplasmosis and

transmitted by inhalation. Coccidiodomycosis

Name two Cestodes Taenia Solium, and

(Tapeworms) . Echinococcus Ganulosus

What agar is used to culture

Sabouraud's Agar
for systemic mycoses?
 asexual fungal spores (ex.
What are Conidia? Blastoconidia, and
arthroconidia)

Thrush in Immunocompromised
pts (neonates, patients on
steroids, diabetics and AIDS
What are some common pts) , endocarditis in IV drug
Candida infections? users, vaginitis (high pH,
Diabetes, post-antibiotic) ,
diaper rash, disseminated
candidiasis (to any organ)

What are some infections Cryptococcal meningitis,

caused by cryptococcus? cryptococcosis

Ancylostoma duodenale
(hookworm) , Ascaris
Lumbricoides, Enterobius
What are the 10 Nematodes Vermicularis (pinworm) ,
(roundworms) we are Strongyloides stercoralis,
concerned with? Trichinella Spiralis, Dracunculus
Medinensis, Loa loa, Onchocerca
Volvulus, Toxocara Canis,
Wucheria Bancrofti
 What are the 4 B's of
Big, Broad-Based, Budding
Blastomycosis?

Severe diarrhea in AIDS, Mild

What are the diseases caused
disease (watery diarrhea) in
by Cryptosporidium?
non-HIV

What are the diseases caused Brain Abscess in HIV and birth
by Toxoplasma? defects

Ear fungus, Lung cavity

What are the infections
Aspergilloma ('fungus ball') ,
caused by Aspergillus?
invasive aspergillosis.
What can systemic mycoses
TB (granuloma formation)
mimic?

Amebiasis: bloody diarrhea,

What disease are caused by
dysentery, liver abscess, RUQ
Entamoeba Histolytica?
pain

What disease does Mucor

Mucormycosis
species cause?

What disease does Pneumocystis Carinii

Pneumocystis carinii cause? Pneumonia
What disease does Sporothrix
Sprotricosis
Schenckii cause?

What disease does Chaga's Disease (heart

Trypanosoma Cruzi casue? disease)

Giardiasis: bloating,
What disease is caused by
flatulence, foul-smelling
Giardia Lamblia?
diarrhea

What disease is caused by Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-

Leishmanina donovani? azar)
What disease is caused by P. Diffuse interstitial pneumonia
Carinii? in HIV

What disease is caused by the Malaria: cyclic fever,

plasmodium species (vivax, headache, anemia,
ovale, malariae, falciparum) ? splenomegaly

What disease is caused by

Trypanosma Gambiense and African Sleeping sickness
Rhodesiense?

Vaginitis: foul-smeilling,
What disesase does
greenish discharge; itching
Trichomonas Vaginalis cause?
and burning
 What do you tx P. Carinii TMP-SMZ, or pentamidine, or
with? dapsone

What do you use to culture

Asabouraud's Agar
cryptococcus?

What do you use to Diagnose Serology and/or trophozoites

E. Histolytica? or cysts in stool

What do you use to stain

India Ink
Cryptococcus?
 What do you use to tx
nothing
cryptosporidium?

What do you use to Tx

Metronidazole
Giardiasis?

What do you use to tx T.

Metronidazole
Vaginalis?

What do you used to dx P. Lung biopsy or lavage,

Carinii? methenamine silver stain
 Nystatin for superficial
What do you used to Tx
infection, Amphotericin B for
Candida Albicans?
systemic

What does Alba mean? white

fungi that are mold in the soil

What does dimorphic mean? (low temp) and yeast in tissue
(higher/body temp 37 C)

What is diagnositic for L. Macrophages containg

donovani? amastigotes
 What is diagnositic of T.
Trophozoites on wet mount
Vaginalis?

What is histoplasmosis
bird or bat droppings
associated with?

traumatic introduction into

the skin, typically by a thorn
('rose gardner's' disease) ,
What is the progression of S. causes local pustule or ulcer
Schenckii infection? with nodules along draining
lymphatics (ascending
lymphangitis) . Little systemic
illness.

What is the vector for L.

Sandfly
donovani?
 What is the vector for T.
Reduviid Bug
Cruzi?

What is the vector for T.

Tstese fly
Gambiense and Rhodesiense?

What is used to dx African

Blood smear
sleeping sickness?

What is used to dx T. Cruzii? blood smear

 What is used to dx
serology and biopsy
toxoplasma?

What is used to treat D.

Niridazole
Medinensis?

What is used to Treat E.

Metronidazole and Iodoquinol
Histolytica?

Suramin for bloodborne

What is used to tx african
disease or melaroprol for CNS
sleeping sickness?
penetration
 What is used to tx Mebendazole/pyrantel
Ancylostoma duodenale? pamoate

What is used to tx Ascaris Mebendazole/pyrantel

Lumbricoides? pamoate

What is used to tx Clonorhis

Praziquantel
sinensis?

What is used to tx E.
Albendazole
Granulosus?
 What is used to tx E. Mebendazole/pyrantel
Vermicularis? pamoate

What is used to tx L.
Sodium Stibogluconate
Donovani?

What is used to tx Loa loa? diethylcarbamazine

Chloroquine ( primaquine for

vivax, ovale) , sulfadoxine +
What is used to tx malaria?
pyrimethamine, mefloquine,
quinine
 What is used to tx O.
Ivermectin
Volvulus?

What is used to tx
Praziquantel
Paragonimus Wetermani?

What is used to tx S.
Ivermectin/thiabendazole
Stercoralis?

What is used to tx
Praziquantel
schistosoma?
What is used to tx T. Canis? diethylcarbamazine

What is used to tx T. Cruzii? Nifurtimox

What is used to tx T. Spiralis? Thiabendazole

What is used to tx taenia Praziquantel/niclosamide;

solium infection? albendazole for cysticercosis
 What is used to tx
sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
toxoplasma?

What is used to tx W.
diethylcarbamazine
Bancrofti?

What patient population is Ketoacidotic patients and

susceptible to Mucor disease? Leukemic patients

What stain do you use for

lung tissue when you are silver
detecting P. Carinii?
What state predisposes you to
Immunosuppression
P. Carinii infection?

What test can be used to

detect polysaccharide
latex agglutination test
capsular antigen of
Cryptococcus?

What types of infections can systemic or superficial fungal

Candida Albicans cause? in fections

When do you start when the CD4 drops below

prophylaxis in HIV patients? 200 cells/mL
 Where do the mucor and in the walls of blood vessels
rhizopus species fungi and cause infarction of distal
proliferate? tissue

Where is Blastomycosis States east of the Mississippi

endemic? River and Central America

SWUS, California (San Joaquin

Where is Coccidioidomycosis
Valley or destert (desert
endemic?
bumps) 'Valley fever')

Where is Histoplasmosis Mississippi and Ohio River

endemic? valleys
 Where is
Paracoccioidomycosis Rural Latin America
endemic?

Retroviruses, which have two

All viruses are haploid except
identical ssRNA molecules
_________?(1)
(diploid).

Bites from what 3 animals are

more prone to rabies
Bat, Raccoon, and Skunk
infection than a bite from a
dog?

When one of 2 viruses that

infects the cell has a mutation
that results in a nonfunctional
Define complementation? protein. The nonmutated
virus 'complements' the
mutated one by making a
functional protein that serves
both viruses.
 Minor changes based on
Define genetic drift.
random mutations.

Reassorment of viral genome

(such as when human flu A
Define genetic shift.
virus recombines with swin
flu A virus.)

When virus A acquires virus B

coat proteins and acts like
Define phenotypic mixing? virus B buts its progeny will
have virus A genome and
coat.

-When viruses with

segmented genomes (eg.
influenza virus) exchange
Define reassortment?
segments. -High frequency
recombination. Cause of
worldwide pandemics.
 Exchange of genes between 2
chromosomes by crossing
Define recombination? over within regions of
significant base sequence
homology.

Describe its incubation period

-Short incubation period (3
and whether or not it has a
weeks) -No carriers
carrier.

Describe its incubation period

-Long incubation (3 months)
and whether or not it has a
- has carriers
carrier.

Describe the general concept A life-threatening illness

of bacterial super infection where a bacterial infection is
which can occur with superimposed on an existing
influenza infection? viral infection.
 Describe the genetic and -Enveloped -ssRNA virus with
physical properties of segmented genome -prone to
influenza virus? genetic changes

It migrates in a retrograde
Describe the migration of
fashion within the CNS up n.
rabies within the CNS.
axons.

Describe the physical shape -Bullet-shaped capsid (illus.

and duration of incubation in book) -long incubation
for rabies. period (wks. - 3 months)

-assay for herpes -make a

Describe the technique and
smear of an opened skin
purpose for performing a
vesicle to detect
Tzanck test?
multinucleated giant cells
 Describe whether or not it
has carriers
has a carrier.

Does HDV have carriers? Yes

Virus exists in patient for

Explain the concept of a slow
months to years before it
virus infection.
manifests as clinical disease.

From the following selection

-Infectious: dsDNA (except
which classes are considered
poxviruses and HBV) and (+)
infectious and which aren't:
ssRNA -Noninfectious:
dsDNA, ds RNA, (-)ssRNA, (+)
dsRNA and (-)ssRNA
ssRNA.
 HCV is a common form of
hepatitis in what US IV drug users
population?

It detects heterophil
How does a Monospot test
antibodies by agglutination to
work?
sheep RBC's

RNA is translated into one

How is RNA translated and long polypeptide that is
processed in picornaviruses? cleaved by proteases into
many small proteins.

How many segments and

what sense is the RNA -8 segments -negative sense
genome of influenza viruses?
 How may serotypes do
paramyxoviruses have except -1 -4
parainfluenza which has ___?

Into what class RNA or DNA

RNA
to all segmented viruses fall?

Humoral, with no possibility

Killed vaccines induce what
of the virus reverting to
type of immunity?
virulence

Live attenuated vaccines Humoral and Cellular -with a

induce what type of risk of the virus reverting to
immunity? virulence
Mneumonic for rotavirus
Right Out The Anus
symptoms: ROTA

Mneumonic: Hep D: Defective, Dependent on HBV

Enteric, Expectant mothers,

Mneumonic: Hep E:
Epidemics

Mneumonic: Hep A: Asymptomatic (usually)

 Mneumonic: Hep B: Blood-borne

Mneumonic: picoRNAvirus pico = 'small' RNA viruses

Name 2 common bacterial TB, M. avium-intracellulare

infections in AIDS pts. complex

Name 2 common protozoan Toxoplasmosis,

infections in AIDS pts. cryptosporidiosis
 Name 3 members of the Flavivirus, Togavirus, and
arborvirus family. Bunyavirus

-SSPE -encephalitis -giant

Name 3 possible sequelae of cell pneumonia (rare;found in
measles infection? immunocompromised
persons)

-Thrush (Candida ablicans) -

Name 4 common fungal cryptococcosis (cryptococcal
infections in AIDS pts. meningitis) -histoplasmosis -
Pneumocystis pneumonia

-HSV -VZV -CMV -

Name 4 common viral progressive multifocal
infections in AIDS pts. leukoencephalopathy (JC
virus)
Name 4 herpesviruses using
the mneumonic: Get herpes -CMV -HSV -EBV -VZV
in a CHEVrolet.

-Bunyaviruses -
Name 4 main segmented
Orthomyxoviruses (influenza
viruses using the mneumonic
virus) -Arenaviruses -
BOAR.
Reoviruses

Name eveloped DNA viruses

-Hepadna -Pox -Herpes
(3). HPH

-Parvo -Adeno -Papova 'You

Name naked DNA viruses (3).
need to be naked for a PAP
PAP
smear.'
 Name the 3 naked RNA -Calcivivirus -Picornavirus -
viruses Naked CPR). Reovirus

Name the characteristic

cytoplasmic inclusions seen
Negri bodies
in neurons infected with
rabies.

-Herpesviruses (herpes
Name the DNA enveloped simplex virus types 1 and 2,
viruses (3). VZV, CMV, EBV) -HBV -
smallpox virus

Name the DNA nucleocapsid

Adenovirus, Papillomaviruses
viruses (2).
 -Hepadnavirus -
Name the DNA viruses using
Herpesviruses -Adenovirus -
the mneumonic 'HHAPPPy
Parvovirus -Papovavirus -
viruses.'
Poxvirus

Name the illness caused by Encephalitis, fatal is not

rabies and 2 primary prevented, with seizures and
symptoms. hydrophobia.

Name the members of the

-Parainfluenza -RSV -Measles
PaRaMyxovirus using the
-Mumps
letters in bold (4 viruses).

Name the recombinant HBV (antigen = recombinant

vaccine available (1). HBsAg)
 -Influenza viruses -
Name the RNA enveloped parainfluenza viruses -RSV -
viruses (9). measles -mumps -rubella -
rabies -HTLV -HIV

-Enteroviruses (poliovirus,
Name the RNA nucleocapsid coxsackievirus, echovirus,
viruses (3). hepatitis A virus) -rhinovirus
-reovirus.

Name the vaccines that are -rabies -influenza -hepatitis

killed (4). A -SalK=Killed

Name the vaccines that are -MMR -Sabin polio -VZV -

live attenuated (6). yellow fever
 Of these 3 markers (HBsAg,
HBsAb, HBcAg), which ones
-HBsAg, HBcAg -HBcAg -
are positive in each of the 4
HBsAb, HBcAg -HBsAg,
phases below: (acute disease,
HBcAg
window phase, complete
recovery, chronic carrier).

On HIV, what is gp41 and

envelope protein
gp120?

On HIV, what is p24? (illus. p. rectangular nucleocapsid

205) protein

Acute: 1-3 months Latent: 3

Roughly, what are the time
months-3years
periods for acute, latent, and
Immunodefic.: 3 yrs.-death
immunodeficient stages of
(diagram p. 205 that follows
HIV?
serologic course).
 Statement: HEV resembles course, severity, and
HAV in: incubation,

Use the mneumonic PERCH to -Poliovirus -Echovirus -

name members of the Rhinovirus -Coxsackievirus -
Picornavirus family. Hepatitis A

Viral nucleic acids with

(choose) same/different
nucleic acids as host are same
infective alone; others require
special enzymes (contained in
intact virion.)

What 2 antigens are used to Neuraminadase,

classify influenza? Hemagglutinin
 What age group is the
primary target of children
paramyxoviruses?

What antiviral treatment is

approved for influenza A
Amantadine and Rimantadine
(especially prophylaxis) but
not for influenza B & C

What antiviral treatment is

approved for influenza A and Zanamivir
B?

What are Councilman bodies acidophilic inclusions seen in

and what are they the liver of those with yellow
pathomneumonic for? fever
 What are the 3 C's of -Cough -Coryza -
measles? Conjunctivitis

Chronic, Cirrhosis,
What are the 4 C's of HCV.
Carcinoma, Carriers

-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
What are the 4 most common (CJD: rapid progressive
diseases caused by prions? dementia) -kuru -scrapie
(sheep -'mad cow disease'

What are the causes of SSPE

-Late sequelae of measles -
and PML in
Reactivation of JC virus
immunocompromised pts.
 What are the classic -high fever -black vomitous -
symptoms of yellow fever? jaundice

What are the common

-Kaposi's sarcoma (HIV pts.) -
diseases (1) and routes of
sexual contact
transmission(1) for HHV-8?

What are the common -infectious mono, Burkitt's

diseases (2) and routes of lymphoma -resp. secretions,
transmission(2) for EBV? saliva

What are the common -herpes genitalis, neonatal

diseases (2) and routes of herpes -sexual contact,
transmission(2) for HSV-2? perinatal
 What are the common
-varicella zoster (shingles) -
diseases (3) and routes of
encephalitis -pneumonia
transmission(1) for VZV?

-gingivostomatitis
What are the common keratoconjunctivitis temporal
diseases (3) and routes of lobe encephalitis herpes
transmission(2) for HSV-1? labialis -respiratory
secretions and saliva

-congenital infection, mono,

What are the common
pneumonia -congenital,
diseases (3) and routes of
transfusion, sexual contact,
transmission(6) for CMV?
saliva, urine, transplant

infectious agent that does not

What are the general
contain RNA or DNA, consists
characteristics of a prion?
only of protein
What are the major viruses of -parainfluenza (croup) -RSV -
the paramyxovirus family? (4) Measles -Mumps

What are the primary -aseptic Meningitis -Orchitis

symptoms of the mumps -Parotitis (mumps give you
virus? (MOP) bumps = parotitis)

What are the primary viruses -Poliovirus -Echovirus -

of the picornavirus family? Rhinovirus -Coxsackievirus -
(PERCH) Hepatitis A

What are two classic illness -dengue fever (break-bone

caused by arborviruses? fever) -yellow fever
 What general form of
encephalopathies do prions spongiform encephalopathies
present as?

-Segmentation allows
What genetic property does
reassorment to occur in RNA
segmentation afford viruses
viruses -this contributes to
and how does this play into
antigenic shifts which cause
flu epidemics?
most flu pandemics.

What group has a high

pregnant women
mortality rate from HEV?

abnormal circulating
What hematologic finding is
cytotoxic T cells (atypical
characteristic of mono?
lymphocytes)
 Antibody to HBcAg; IgM
What is HBcAb, and what
HBcAb indicates recent
does it indicate?
disease

Antigen associated with core

What is HBcAg?
of HBV

What is HBeAb, and what Antibody to e antigen;

does it indicate? indicates low transmissibility

it is a 2nd different antigen

What is HBeAg, and what marker of HBV core; indicates
does it indicate? transmissibility
(HBeAg=Beware)
 What is HBsAb, and what Antibody to HBsAg; provides
does it do? immunity to hepatitis B

Antigen found on surface of

What is HBsAg, and what does
HBV; continued presence
it indicate?
indicates carrier state

IgM antibody to HAV; best

What is IgM HAVAb, and what
test to detect active hepatitis
is it used to detect?
A

It is the period between

What is meant by the 'window
disappearance of HBsAg and
period' in HBV infection, and
appearance of Anti-HBs;
what is positive in this
HBcAb is pos. during this
period?
period.
What is the classic vector for Arthropods (mosquitos, ticks,
arborvirus? etc.) ARBOR=Arthropod Borne

synthesize dsDNA from RNA

What is the function of
for integration into host
reverse transcriptase in HIV?
genome.

Killed viral vaccine which is

What is the major mode of reformulated each year and is
protection from influenza given to those in high risk of
virus? infection (elderly, health-
workers, etc.)

What is the method behind

ELISA/Western blot and look for abs to viral proteins;
during what period of HIV false negatives common in
infection are they often first 1-2 months of infection
negative?
What is the mneumonic for
Tzanck heavens I don't have
remembering the Tzanck
herpes.
smear?

What is the only DNA virus

Parvoviridae (ssDNA)
that is not double stranded?

Reoviridae
What is the only RNA virus
['repeatovirus' (reovirus) is
that has dsRNA?
dsRNA]

What is the viral cause of the -Rhinovirus, 100+ serotypes

common cold? -Rhino has a Runny nose.
What neurologic infection can
picornaviruses (except
Aseptic Meningitis
rhinoviruses and hepatitis A
viruses) cause?

What physical finding is Koplik spots (bluish-gray

diagnostic for measles? spots on buccal mucosa)

Those who are

What population should not
immunocompromised and
receive a live vaccine?
their close contacts.

What reproductive
sterility; especially after
complication can mumps
puberty
cause?
 What shape are all the DNA
-Icosahedral -Poxvirus
viruses? Which virus (1) is the
(complex)
exception?

ELISA (sensitive w/ high false

What test is used to make the
+ and low threshold);
presumptive dx of HIV, and
Western blot (specific, high
then, which test confirms the
false - rate with high
dx?
threshold)

What tests are gaining

popularity for monitoring PCR/viral load tests
drug tx efficacy in HIV?

What type of genome does

diploid RNA
HIV have?
 What type of nucleic acid
segmented dsRNA
structure does rotavirus have?

What type of transcription -Reverse transcription -the

occurs and what type of virion contains an RNA-
polymerase does it possess? dependent DNA polymerase

What type of virus is HAV and -RNA picornavirus -fecal-oral

how is it transmitted? route

-DNA hepadnavirus -
What type of virus is HBV and
parenteral, sexual, and
how is it transmitted?
maternal-fetal routes
 -RNA flavivirus -via blood
What type of virus is HCV and
and resembles HBV in its
how is it transmitted?
course and severity

What type of virus is HDV and -delta agent, it is a defective

what is special about its virus -requires HBsAg as its
envelope? evelope

-RNA calicivirus -enteric

What type of virus is HEV and
transmission; causes water-
how is it transmitted?
borne epidemics

What variant of dengue fever

hemorrhagic shock syndrome
is found in Southeast Asia?
 -EBV -fever,
What virus causes and what hepatosplenomegaly,
are the classic symptoms of pharyngitis,
mononucleosis? lymphadenopathy (esp.
posterior auricular nodes)

What virus causes yellow

-flavivirus -Aedes mosquitos
(=flavi) fever, and what is its
-monkey or human reservoir
vector and reservoirs (2)?

What virus is the most

common global cause of
Rotavirus
infantile gastroenteritis and
acute diarrhea (in the US).

Where do enveloped viruses -Plasma membrane -

acquire their envelopes, and Herpesviruses which acquire
what virus is the exception to their envelope from the
this rule? nuclear membrane
 Where in the cell do DNA -Nucleus -exception:
viruses replicate, and which poxvirus in cytoplasm (carries
virus is the exception to this DNA-dependent RNA
rule? polymerase)

Where in the cell do RNA

-Cytoplasm -exception:
viruses replicate, and what 2
influenza virus and
viruses are the exception to
retroviruses
this rule?

Which marker tests are

appropriate for each phase of
-HBsAg -HBsAg (Anti-HBc) -
hepatitis infection:
Anti-HBc -Anti-HBs (anti-
Incubation, Prodrome/acute
HBc)
illness, Early Convalescence,
Late Convalescence.

Which two DNA viruses don't

Papovaviruses and
have a linear genome?
Hepadnaviruses
(they're circular)
Which two hepatitis viruses A and E; 'The vowels hit your
follow the fecal-oral route? bowels.'

Which two hepatitis viruses

predispose to hepatocellular HBV and HCV
carcinoma?

-Peak incidence occurs

Why is mono called the during peak kissing years
'kissing disease?' 15-20 yo -(saliva
transmission)

- opsonization -
3 main roles of Ig binding to
neutralization - complement
bacteria
activation
 A defect in phagocytosis of
neutrophils owing to lack of
NADPH oxidase activity or Chronic granulomatous
similar enzymes is indicative disease
of what immune deficiency
disease?

After exposure to what 4

Tetanus toxin, Botulinum
things are preformed
toxin, HBV, or Rabies.
(passive) antibodies given?

All nucleated cells have what

class I MHC proteins
class of MHC proteins?

Anaphylaxis, asthma, or local

wheal and flare are possible
Type I
manifestations of which type
of hypersensitivity?
Anti-gliadin autoantibodies
are associated with what Celiac disease
disease?

Anti-Scl-70 autoantibodies
are associated with what diffuse Scleroderma
disease?

Autoimmune hemolytic
anemia, Rh disease
(erythroblastosis fetalis), and type II hypersensitivity
Goodpasture's syndrome are
examples of what kind of
hypersensitivity reaction?

Class I major
1 polypeptide, with B2-
histocompatibilty complex
microglobulin
consists of …
 Class II major
2 polypeptides, an a and a B
histocompatibilty complex
chain
consists of …

Cytotoxic T cells have CD(?),

which binds to class (?) MHC CD8 binds to class I MHC
on virus-infected cells.

Cell-mediated due to
cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Define acute transplant
reacting against foreign
rejection.
MHCs. Occurs weeks after
transplantation.

Adjuvants are nonspecific

stimulators of the immune
Define adjuvant.
response but are not
immunogenic by themselves.
 Antibody-mediated vascular
Define chronic transplant damage (fibrinoid necrosis)--
rejection. irreversible. Occurs months
to years after transplantation.

Define hyperacute transplant
rejection.
Antibody-mediated due to
the presence of preormed
anti-donor antibodies in the
transplant recipient. Occurs
within minutes after
transplantation.

Ig epitope that differs among

Define Ig allotype. members of the same species
(on light or heavy chain)

Ig epitope determine by the

antigen-binging site (specific
Define Ig idiotype.
for a given antigen-binding
site)
 Ig epitope common to a
single class of Ig (5 classes,
Define Ig isotype.
determined by the heavy
chain)

(1) Salmonella (2 flagellar

Give 3 classic examples of
variants) (2) Borrelia
bacteria with antigen
(relapsing fever) (3) Neisseria
variation.
gonorrhoeae (pilus protein)

(1) failure to synthesize class

Give 3 examples of possibly II MHC antigens (2) defective
causes for SCID? Il-2 receptors (3) adenosine
deaminase deficiency

Goodpasture's syndrome is
anti-basement membrane
associated with what kind of
antibodies.
autoantibodies?
 Helper T cells have CD(?)
which binds to class (?) MHC CD4 binds to class II MHC
on antigen-presenting cells.

as bacterial infections in boys

How does Bruton's
after about 6 months of age,
agammaglobulinemia usually
when levels of maternal IgG
present?
antibody decline

Active immunity is induced

after exposure to foreign
How is active immunity
antigens. There is a slow
acquired?
onset with long-lasting
protection.

by receiving preformed
antibodies from another host.
How is passive immunity
Antibodies have a short life
acquired?
span, but the immunity has a
rapid onset.
IL-4 promotes the growth of
B cells and the synthesis of IgE and IgG
what 2 immunoglobulins?

In what immune deficiency do

neutrophils fail to respond to Job's syndrome
chemotactic stimuli?

In what T-cell deficiency do

the thymus and parathyroids
fail to develop owing to Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge
failure of development of the syndrome)
3rd and 4th pharyngeal
pouches?

Job's syndrome is associated

with high levels of what IgE
immunoglobulin?
MHC I Ag loading occurs in __
(1) in rER (viral antigens) (2)
(1?)__ while MHC II Ag loading
in acidified endosomes.
occurs in __(2?)__?

Primary biliary cirrhosis has

anti-mitochondrial antibodies
what kind of autoantibodies?

produce IL-2 (activate Tc cells

and further stimulate TH1
Role of TH1 cells?
cell) and g-interferon
(activate macrophages)

produce IL-4 and IL-5 (help B

Role of TH2 cells?
cells make Ab)
 Sensitized T lymphocytes
encounter antigen and then
release lymphokines which Type IV
leads to macrophage
activation' in what
hypersensitivity reaction?

TB skin test, transplant

rejection, and contact
dermatitis are examples of Type IV
what type of hypersensitivity
reaction?

The 3 kinds of MHC class I

A, B, and C
genes are…

The 3 kinds of MHC class II

DP, DQ, DR
genes are…
 The Fc portion of
immunoglobulins are at the The carboxy terminal
__?__ terminal.

What 2 cytokines are secreted

IL-1 and TNF-a
by macrophages?

What 2 kinds of
autoantibodies are specific Anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith
for systemic lupus?

What 3 cytokines are

classified as 'acute phase IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-a
cytokines'?
 (1) alpha and beta interferons
induce production of a second
What 3 ways do interferons protein that degrades viral
mRNA (2) gamma interferons
interfere with viral protein
increase MHC class I expression
synthesis?
and antigen presentation in all
cells (3) activates NK cells to
kill virus-infected cells.

What affect do the acute mobilization of energy

phase cytokines have on fat reserves to raise body
and muscle? temperature

What affect do the acute Incr. Production of Colony

phase cytokines have on the stim. Factor (CS) which leads
bone marrow? to leukocytosis

What affect do the acute

phase cytokines have on the increase body temperature
hypothalamus?
 What antibody isotype can
IgG
cross the placenta?

What are 3 types of antigen- macrophages, B cells, and

presenting cells? dendritic cells

What are the maim symptoms

fever, urticaria, arthralgias,
of serum sickness an at what
proteinuria, lymphadenopathy
period of time following Ag
5-10 days after Ag exposure
exposure?

maculopapular rash, jaundice,

What are the major symptoms
hepatosplenomegaly, and
of graft-vs.-host disease?
diarrhea.
 What B- and T- cell
deficiency, assoc. with IgA
deficiency, presents with ataxia-telangiectasia
cerebellar problems and
spider angiomas?

formation of immune
What causes the tissue complexes of foreign
damage associated with particles and Abs that deposit
Serum sickness? in membranes where they fix
complement

What class of MHC proteins

are the main determinants of class II MHC
organ rejection?

What complement
components can cause C3a and C5a
anaphylaxis?
 What components of the
alternative complement
C3b, Bb
pathway make the C3
convertase?

What components of the

alternative complement
C3b, Bb, and 3b
pathway make the C5
convertase?

What components of the

classic complement pathway C4b, C2b
make the C3 convertase?

What components of the

classic complement pathway C4b, 2b, and 3b
make the C5 convertase?
 What components of the
The MAC complex--(C5b, C6,
complement pathway are
C7, C8, C9)
deficient in Neisseria sepsis?

What cytokines attract and

TNF-a and B
activate neutrophils?

What disease is associated

with a X-linked defect in a
tyrosine-kinase gene Bruton's
associated with low levels of agammaglobulinemia
all classes of
immunoglobulins?

What disease is associated

with anti-epithelial cell Pemphigus vulgaris
autoantibodies?
 What disease is associated
with anti-microsomal Hashimoto's thyroiditis
autoantibodies?

What does a deficiency of C1

angioedema because of
esterase inhibitor cause (in
overactive complement
the complement cascade)?

What does a deficiency of C3 can lead to severe, recurrent

cause (in the complement pyogenic sinus and
cascade)? respiratory tract infections.

What does deficiency of

leads to paroxysmal
decay-accelerating factor
nocturnal hemoglobinuria
(DAF) in the complement
(PNH)
cascade cause?
 What does Job's syndrome recurrent 'cold' (noninflamed)
classically present with? staphylococcal abscesses

TNF-a stimulates their

What does TNF-a stimulate migration to lymph nodes
dendritic cells to do during and their maturation for the
the acute phase response? initiation of the adaptive
immune response.

What elements of the

complement cascade made
C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9
the Membrane Attack
Complex (MAC)?

What Ig is found in secretions

IgA
as a monomer or a dimer?
What Ig is found in secretions
IgM
as a monomer or a pentamer?

What immune deficiency

disease has an autosomal-
recessive defect in
phagocytosis that results Chediak-Higashi disease
from microtubular and
lysosomal defects of
phagocytic cells?

What immune deficiency is

associated with elevated IgA
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
levels, normal IgE levels, and
low IgM levels?

What immune deficiency

presents with tetany owing to
hypocalcemia, congenital Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge
defects of the heart and great syndrome)
vessels, and recurrent viral,
fungal, and protozoal
infections?
What immunoglobulin isotype
has the lowest concentration IgE
in serum?

What immunoglobulin isotype

is involved in type-I IgE
hypersensitivity reactions?

What immunoglobulin isotype

is produced in the primary
IgM
response to an antigen and is
on the surface of B cells?

What immunoglobulin isotype

IgE
mediates immunity to worms?
What immunoglobulin isotype
prevents the attachment of
IgA
bacteria and viruses to
mucous membranes?

What immunoglobulins bind

and activate the classic IgG and IgM (the Fc portion)
complement pathway?

What interleukin induces

naive helper T-cells to IL-12
become TH1 cells?

What interleukin induces

naive helper T-cells to IL-4
become TH2 cells?
 What interleukin stimulates
the growth of both helper and IL-2
cytotoxic T-cells?

What is Chronic T-cell dysfunction specifically

mucocutaneous candidiasis? against Candida albicans.

It is a cluster of polypeptides
What is important about the associated with a T-cell
CD3 complex? receptor and is important in
signal transduction.

Ag cross-links IgE on
What is the cellular process
presensitized mast cells and
that causes type I
basophils, triggering the
hypersensitivity?
release of vasoactive amines.
 IgM, IgG bind to Ag on
What is the cellular process
'enemy' cell, leading to lysis
that causes type II
(by complement) or
hypersensitivity?
phagocytosis (its cytotoxic).

What is the main antibody in

the secondary immune IgG
response?

What is the most abundant

IgG
immunoglobulin isotype?

What is the most common

selective immunoglobulin selective IgA deficiency
deficiency?
 What is the rise in (1) increase specific immune
temperature during the acute response (2) increase antigen
phase response help do (3 processing (3) decrease viral
things?) and bacterial replication

What is the triad of symptoms recurrent pyogenic infections,

seen with Wiskott-Aldrich eczema, and
syndrome? thrombocytopenia

What kind of autoantibodies

are associated with CREST/ anti-centromere antibodies
Scleroderma?

What kind of autoantibodies

are known as rheumatoid anti-IgG antibodies
factor?
 What kind of immunity
(antibody-mediated or cell antibody-mediated immunity
mediated) is involved in (B cells)
autoimmunity?

What kind of immunity

(antibody-mediated or cell cell mediated immunity (T
mediated) is involved in graft cells)
and tumor rejection?

What kind of transplant

rejection is reversible with
acute transplant rejection
immunosuppressants such as
cyclosporin and OKT3?

What kinds of adjuvants are

aluminum hydroxide or lipid
included in human vaccines?
 antigen-presenting cells (e.g.
What kinds of cells have class
macrophages and dendritic
II MHC proteins?
cells)

What parasites have antigen trypanosomes (programmed

variation? rearrangement)

edema, necrosis, and

What symptoms characterize activation of complement due
the Arthus reaction and what to the Ag-Ab complexes that
causes them? form in the skin following
intradermal injection of Ag.

What type of cell secretes

activated T-cells
IL-3?
 What type of cells does
macrophages
gamma interferon stimulate?

What type of hypersensitivity

reaction is the Arthus type III
reaction?

Where does the alternative

On microbial surfaces
complement pathway occur?

Where does the classic

antigen-antibody complexes
complement pathway occur?
 the defect is in early stem-
Where is the defect in SCID? cell differentiation, leading to
B- and T-cell deficiency

Which interleukin causes

IL-1
fever?

Which interleukin enhances

IL-5
the synthesis of IgA?

Which interleukin stimulates

the production and activation IL-5
of eosinophils?
 Which interleukin supports
the growth and differentiation IL-3
of bone marrow stem cells?

Which is the only type of cell-

mediated hypersensitivity
Type IV
reaction, and thus not
transferable by serum?

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is
a defect in the ability to an IgM response to capsular
mount what immune polysaccharides of bacteria.
response?

With what disease are anti-

histone autoantibodies drug-induced lupus
associated?
 With what disease are anti-
nuclear antibodies systemic lupus
associated?

Aspiration pneumonia is
- Anaerobes
usually caused by…

Atypical pneumonia is usually - Mycoplasma - Legionella -

caused by… Chlamydia

Bug Hints: Branching rods in

Actinomyces israelii
oral infection =
 Bug Hints: Currant jelly
Klebsiella
sputum =

Bug Hints: Dog or cat bite = Pasteurella multocida

Bug Hints: Pediatric Infection H. influenzae (including

= epiglottitis)

Bug Hints: Pneumonia in CS,

P. aeruginosa
burn infection =
 Bug Hints: Pus, Empyema,
S. aureus
Abscess =

Bug Hints: Sepsis/Meningitis

Group B strep
in Newborn =

Bug Hints: Surgical wound = S. aureus

Bug Hints: Traumatic open

C. perfringens
wound =
 Incidence of H. influenze
Incidence of what cause of meningitis has decreased
mengitis has decreased with a greatly with introduction of H.
vaccine? influenzae vaccine in the last
10-15 years

Most osteomyelitis occurs in

children
what age group?

Neonatal pneumonia is - Group B streptococci - E.

usually caused by… coli

Nosocomial pneumonia is - Staphylococcus - gram-

usually caused by… negative rods
 salpingitis, endometritis,
PID includes what disorders
hydrosalpinx, tubo-ovarian
in the body?
abscess

PID is likely caused by what -Chlamydia trachomatis:

two organisms? What are the subacute, often undiagnosed
characteristics of the disease - N. gonorrhoeae:acute, high
caused by each organism? fever

- Staphylococcus - gram-
Pneumonia in
negative rods - fungi -
immunocompromised
viruses - Pnemumocystis
patients is caused by…
carinii (with HIV)

Pneumonia in the alcoholic/IV

- S. pneumoniae - Klebsiella
drug user is usually caused
- Staphylococcus
by…
 Postviral pneumonia is - Staphylococcus - H.
usually caused by… influenzae

- ectopic pregnancy -
Salpingitis is a risk factor
infertility -chronic pelvic pain
for…
- adhesions

Babies with congenital

UTIs are found in men in
defects and Elderly with
which 2 age groups?
enlarged prostates

UTIs are mostly caused how? by ascending infections

 What's the likely cause of
osteomyelitis in a pt where
S. aureus
you have no other
information?

What 2 pathogens likely

cause nosocomial infections
E. coli, Proteus mirabilis
associated with urinary
catherization?

What 2 pathogens likely

cause nosocomial infections CMV, RSV
in the newborn nursery?

- Serratia marcescens -
What 3 UTI-causing
Enterobacter cloacae -
organisms are often
Klebsiella pneumoniae -
nosocomial and drug-
Proteus mirabilis -
resistant?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
 - Serratia marcescens -
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
What 7 organisms are - E. coli - Enterobacter
associated with UTIs? cloacae - Klebsiella
pneumoniae - Proteus
mirabilis - Pseudomonas
aeruginosa [HINT: SEEKS PP]

What abnormal lab result is

often seen in osteomyelitis elevated ESR
patients?

What are 4 clinical findings of - fever - chills - flank pain -

Pyelonephritis? CVA tenderness [c/c with UTI]

- diysuria - frequency -
What are 4 clinical findings of
urgency - suprapubic pain [c/
UTIs?
c with pyelonephritis]
What are the 2 most common - E. coli causes UTI - S.
causes of nosocomial aureus causes wound
infections? infection

1. E. coli (50-80%) 2.
What are the 3 most common
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
causes of UTI in young
(10-30%) 3. Klebsiella
ambulatory women?
(8-10%)

What are the common causes - E. coli - Proteus - Klebsiella

of hospital-acquired UTIs? - Serratia - Pseudomonas

- N. MENINGITIDIS -
What are the common causes
Enteroviruses - S.
of meningitis in 6-60y/o?
pneumoniae - HSV
What are the common causes - S. PNEUMONIAE - Gram-
of meningitis in 60+ y/o? negative rods - Listeria

What are the common causes - S. pneumoniae - N.

of meningitis in children meningitidis - H. influenzae B
(6mo-6y/o)? - Enteroviruses

- Cryptococcus - CMV -
What are the common causes
toxoplasmosis (brain abscess)
of meningitis in HIV pts?
JC virus (PML)

What are the common causes

- GROUP B STREPTOCOCCI -
of meningitis in newborns
E. COLI - Listeria
(0-6mos)?
What are the common causes
of osteomyelitis in those with S. aureus and S. epidermidis
prosthetic replacements?

What are the common causes

- Mycoplasma - C.
of pneumonia in adults
pneumoniae - S. pneumoniae
18-40 y/o?

What are the common causes - S. pneumoniae - H.

of pneumonia in adults influenzae - Anaerobes -
40-65 y/o? Viruses - Mycoplasma

What are the common causes - Viruses (RSV) - Mycoplasma

of pneumonia in children - Chlamidia pneumonia S.
(6wk-18y)? pneumoniae
 - S. pneumoniae - Anaerobes
What are the common causes
- Viruses - H. influenzae -
of pneumonia in the elderly?
Gram-neg. rods

What are the CSF finings in

- Pressure: incr. - Cell type:
bacterial meningitis
incr. PMNs - Protein: incr -
(pressure, cell type, protein
Sugar: decr
and sugar levels)?

What are the CSF finings in

- Pressure: nl or incr. - Cell
bacterial meningitis
type: incr. lymphocytes -
(pressure, cell type, protein
Protein: nl - Sugar: nl
and sugar levels)?

What are the CSF finings in

- Pressure: incr. - Cell type:
fungal/TB meningitis
incr. lymphocytes - Protein:
(pressure, cell type, protein
incr - Sugar:decr.
and sugar levels)?
 What are the dominant
B fragilis > E. coli
normal florae in the colon?

What are the dominant Lactobacillus, colonized by E.

normal florae in the vagina? coli and group B strep

- flow obstruction - kidney

What are the predisposing surgery - catherization -
factors of UTIs? gynecologic abnormailities -
diabetes - pregnancy

- Toxoplasma - Rubella -
What infections are
CMV - HSV/HIV -Syphilis
dangerous in pregnancy?
[HINT: ToRCHeS]
 Cervical motion tenderness
What is chandelier sign?
associated with PID

What is the 2nd leading cause

of community-acquired UTI in Staphylococcus saprophyticus
sexually active women?

What is the characterisitc of

motile on wet prep
Trichomonas on a slide?

What is the common cause of

Psudomonas aeruginosa
osteomyelitis in drug addicts?
What is the common cause of
S. aureus
osteomyelitis in most people?

What is the common cause of

osteomyelitis in sickle cell Salmonella
pts?

What is the common cause of

osteomyelitis in the sexually N. gonorrhoeae
active?

What is the common cause of

M. tuberculosis
osteomyelitis in the vertebra?
What is the dominant normal
flora contributes to dental S. mutans
plaque?

What is the dominant normal

S. aureus
flora in the nose?

What is the dominant normal

viridans streptococci
flora in the oropharynx?

What is the dominant normal

S. epidermidis
flora on the skin?
 Chlamydia trachomatis
What is the most common
causes 3-4 million cases per
STD in the U.S.?
year

What organism can you

presume is causing a
nosocomial infection if Psudomonas aeruginosa
respiratory equipment or
burns are involved?

What organism is the leading

cause of UTI and shows a E. coli
metallic sheen on EMB agar?

What pathogen is associated

Candida albicans
with hyperalimentation?
What pathogen is associated
Legionella
with water (ie. aerosols)?

What pathogen likely causes

nosocomial infections in the HBV
renal dialysis unit?

Neonates delivered by
What population does not csarean section have no flora
have any flora? but are rapidly colonized
after birth

10 to 1 because women have

What ratio is UTIs found more
short urethrae more likely to
in women vs. men? Why?
be colonized by fecal flora
What STD is associated with
3' Syphilis
Argyll-Robertson pupil?

What STD is associated with

Garnerella
clue cells?

What STD is associated with

- Condylomata acuminata -
Genital warts and loilocytes?
HPV 6 and 11
What is the causative agent?

What STD is associated with

jaundice? What is the - Hepatitis B - HBV
causative agent?
 What STD is associated with
opportunistic infections,
- AIDS -HIV
Kaposi's sarcoma, lymphoma?
What is the causative agent?

What STD is associated with

painful penile, vulvar or
-Genital Herpies - HSV-2
cervical ulcers? What's the
causative agent?

What STD is associated with

painful ulcers, - Lymphogranuloma
lymphadenopathy, rectal venereum - Chlamydia
strictures? What is the trachomatis
causative agent?

What STD is associated with

urethritis, cervicitis, Chlamydia - Chlamydia
conjuntivitis, Reiter's trachomatis
syndrome PID? What is the
causative agent?
What STD is associated with
-Trichomoniasis -
vaginitis? What is the
Trichomonas vaginalis
causative agent?

What STD is characterized by

- chancroid - Haemophilus
painful genital ulcer? What is
ducreyi
the causative agent?

What STD is likely in a patient

- 1' Syphilis - Treponema
with a painless chancre? What
pallidum
causes it?

What STD is likely in a patient

with fever, lymphadenopathy, - 2' Syphilis - Treponema
skin rashes, condylomata pallidum
lata? What causes it?
What STD is likely in a patient
with gummas, tabes dorsalis, - 3' Syphilis - Treponema
general paresis, aortitis, pallidum
Argyll-Robertson pupil? What
causes it?

What STD is likely in a patient

with urethritis, cervicitis, PID, - Gonorrhea - Neisseria
prostatitus, epididymitis, gonorrhoeae
arthritis? What organism
causes it?

What UTI-causing organism

has a bue-green pigment,
fruity odor and is usually Pseudomonas aeruginosa
nosocomial and drug-
resistant?

What UTI-causing organism is

characterized by a large
Klebsiella pneumoniae
mucoid capsule and viscous
colonies?
What UTI-causing organism is
mobile, causing 'swarming'
on agar and also produces Proteus mirabilis
urease and is associated with
struvite stones?

What UTI-causing organism

sometimes produces a red
Serratia marcescens
pigment, is often nosocomial
and drug-resistant?