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The Binary Quantization Of The Planetary

Orbits In Terms of Euler’s Number and Phi

By

Ian Beardsley

Copyright © 2020 by Ian Beardsley


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Table of Contents
Introduction………………….3

Scheme 1……………………6

Scheme 2……………………7

Scheme 3…………………..11

The Golden Ratio…………16

Euler’s Number……………20

Quantum Mechanics……..23

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Introduction
We see the outer planets are quantized according to
computer binary if taken in terms of Euler’s number and
the golden ratio conjugate.

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The asteroid belt is important to understand because we

want to sufficiently understand it that we know whether
we need to know if an asteroid is on a course with an
earth collision. The belt is about one astronomical unit
wide and is between Mars and Jupiter from about 2.2 AU
to 3.2

AU.

I have devised three schemes for predicting the orbits of

the planets. Scheme 1 describes their orbits in terms of
the AI elements.

Scheme two is in terms of Euler’s number e, and the

golden ratio conjugate phi=0.618.

Scheme 3 is in terms of number n and integer i separating

them into planets interior to the asteroid belt and planets
exterior to the asteroid belt.

Ceres, Vesta, Pallas, and Hygiea account for about one

half the mass of the Asteroid Belt.

Ceres=2.689 AU and 939,300 E15 kg

Vesta=2.36 AU and 259,00E15 kg

Pallas=2.77 AU and 20500E15 kg

Hygiea=2.69 AU and 860,00E15 kg

Giving their center of mass at

(2.689)(939,300)+(2.77)(20500)+(2.36)(259,00)(2.69)
(860,00)/1071700=

2875026.7/1071700=2.68 AU

Thus is closest to scheme 2 which is ϕe (2−ϕ) = 2.461

AU. However,

The arithmetic mean of their average orbits is 2.627 AU

which is closest to the same.

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However the asteroid Vesta is very close to the orbit

predicted by scheme 2 as well:

C 20 = C = 2.461

Vesta=2.36 AU and 259,00E15 kg

The third most massive.

I have yet to construct an equation for scheme 1, the planets

in terms of molar masses of the core AI elements, silicon
and germanium.

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Scheme 1

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Scheme 2
We have said the equations for the evolution of the Solar
System are of the form

y = Ce x; y = Cx −x

And

Si 1
≈

Ge 2+1
We here note that

1
= 0.414

2+1
The decimal part of the square root of 2. We have also
said

(1 − ϕ) = 0.38

Si 28.09
= = 0.387

Ge 72.61
Ca5(PO4)3OH
= 0.387

C57 H91N19O16

Si Ca5(PO4)3OH
≈

Ge C57 H91N19O16
This means:

Ca 5(PO4 )3OH
Si
e Ge = e C57 H91N19O16 = e (1−ϕ)

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This results in the following simple equations for the

planets:

(1 − ϕ)e ϕ = 0.7AU = Venus

ϕe (1−ϕ) = 0.9AU = Ear th

ϕ 2e (2−ϕ) = 1.52 = Mars

2ϕe (2−ϕ) = 4.9 = Jupiter

4ϕe (2−ϕ) = 10 = Sat ur n

8ϕe (2−ϕ) = 19.69 = Uranus

16ϕe (2−ϕ) = 39.38 = Nept une

Let’s say since Jupiter is the first planet after the asteroid
belt and carries significantly the mass of the solar system
that it is planet (Pn) one (P1). We have then for our
equations in general

Pn = 2n ϕe (2−ϕ)

And, if c = ϕe (2−ϕ) = 2.461, then our equation becomes:

Pn = c2n

For the inner planets, and here it is convenient to not

include Mercury, and we do this one the basis that it does
not have much mass and therefore contributes little to the
theory of the dynamics of the evolution of the Solar
System. Thus, n=1 is Venus, n=2, is Earth, and n=3 is Mars.
We see the equation is rather than exponential, logarithmic:
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(0.7)ln(e * 1) = 0.7 = Venu s

(0.7)ln(e * 2) = 1.185 = Ear th

(0.7)ln(e * 3) = 1.469 = Mars

Pn = (0.7)ln(n * e)

We have for the inner planets

0.7ln(e ⋅ n) = Pn

P1 = Venu s

P2 = Ear th

P3 = Mars

For the outer planets we have

C 2n = Pn

P1 = Jupiter

P2 = Sat ur n

P3 = Ura nu s

P4 = Nept u n e

Where C = ϕe (2−ϕ) = 2.461.

If we let n=0,
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C 20 = C = 2.461

Which is the asteroid belt (2.2-3.2AU) a planet that could

not form due to tidal forces from the other planets acting of
the protoplanetary disc at that orbit. We write

y = C ⋅ 2n

y′ = C ⋅ 2nlog(2)

y′′ = C ⋅ 2nlog2(2)

And we see that the equation for the planets is the solution
to the differential equation

d2 y dy
− 2log(2) + log2(2)y = 0
dn 2 dn
Which is the equation of a damped harmonic oscillator:

d2x dx
m + c + kx = 0
dt 2 dt
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Scheme 3

Characterizing the distribution of the planets around the

sun seems to defy a mathematical expression. Even the
Titius-Bode rule falls apart pretty badly at Neptune.

The Titius-Bode Rule is:

r = 0.4 + (0.3)2n

n = − ∞,0,1,2,…

Which produces the orbits of the planets in astronomical

units as such in AU:

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However, I find if we break-up the solar system into two

parts; planets interior to the asteroid belt, and planets
exterior to the asteroid belt, quite an interesting pattern
forms:

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We have said:

(1 − ϕ)e ϕ = 0.7AU = Venus

ϕe (1−ϕ) = 0.9AU = Ear th

ϕ 2e (2−ϕ) = 1.52 = Mars

2ϕe (2−ϕ) = 4.9 = Jupiter

4ϕe (2−ϕ) = 10 = Sat ur n

8ϕe (2−ϕ) = 19.69 = Uranus

16ϕe (2−ϕ) = 39.38 = Nept une

So that Pn = 2n ϕe (2−ϕ) for the planets exterior to the

asteroid belt or Pn = c2n where c = ϕe (2−ϕ) = 2.461 is
C 20 = C = 2.461 is the asteroid belt (P0)

P1 = Jupiter
P2 = Sat ur n
P3 = Ura nu s
P4 = Nept u n e

Which is the solution to the differential equation

d2 y dy
− 2log(2) + log2(2)y = 0
dn 2 dn
Where have we seen this? In computer science.

log2 N = n means 2n = N
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Where n is the number of bits in a number N in binary. We

write in binary

0=0
1=1
10=2
11=3
100=4
101=5
110=6
111=7
1000=8
1001=9
1010=10
1011=11
1100=12
1101=13
1110=14
1111=15
10000=16…

But what is interesting about this?

log23 = n

log3
n= = 1.5847
log2

You can’t have a fractional number of bits, thus the

spectrum is quantized according to whole number solutions
of

2n = N

But so are the planets given by

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Pn = c2n

2ϕe (2−ϕ) = 4.9 = Jupiter

4ϕe (2−ϕ) = 10 = Sat ur n

8ϕe (2−ϕ) = 19.69 = Uranus

16ϕe (2−ϕ) = 39.38 = Nept une

Meaning, since we have 2, 4, 8. 16 that the planets are

quantized according to computer binary with Jupiter as 2,
Saturn as 4, Uranus as 8, and Neptune as 16 if we do it in
terms of Euler’s number, e and the golden ratio conjugate,
ϕ.

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The Golden Ratio

But what is the golden ratio Φ and its conjugate ϕ.

We can derive the golden ratio as such (refer to fig 13):

a b
= = Φ

b c
a = b + c

ac = b 2

c = a − b

a(a − b) = b 2

a 2 − a b − b 2 = 0

a2 a
− − 1 = 0

b2 b
a2 a 1 1
− + = 1 +

b2 b 4 4
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(b)
2
a a 1 1
− + =1+

b 4 4

(b)
2
a a 1 4 1 5
− + = + =

b 4 4 4 4

(b 2)
2
a 1 5
− =

a 1 5
− =

b 2 2
5+1
Φ=

b 5−1
ϕ= =

a 2
Let us say a/b=x, the golden ratio. Then,…

x 2 − x − 1 = 0

Let us differentiate this implicitly:

d 2 d d
x − x− 1 = 0

dx dx dx
2x − 1 = 0

1
x=

2
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Which is similar to Euler’s number, e because it is the base

d x
such that e is itself e x:

dx
d x
e = e x

dx
But

2
sin 45∘ = cos45∘ =

2
Which says for this angle the x-component equals the y-
1 ∘
component is 90 that is , x=1/2 bisects a right angle.
2
Which similar in concept to Euler’s number e because it is
d x
the base such that e is itself e x . But if
dx
2
sin 45∘ = cos45∘ = , then:

2
π
2cos = 2

4
It is the diagonal of the unit square. We notice something
interesting happens:

π
2cos =

n
π π π
2cos = 2 , 2cos = Φ, 2cos = 3

4 5 6
Where 3 is the cosine of 30 degrees, in the unit
equilateral triangle in which the altitude has been drawn in
(fig 14):

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We see that our 2x-1 and 2x+1 if we implicitly differentiate

the quadratic for the conjugate of the golden ratio are in
our scheme 3 for the planets as 2n-1 and 2n+1 and 2i-1:

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Euler’s Number

But what is Euler’s number?

We see it is because if we refer back to the foundations of

calculus, while the integral of simple functions can be
considered

x n+1
∫
x nd x = +C
n+1

We have a conundrum for

1
f (x) = = x −1
x
That the power rule gives:

1 x −1+1
∫ x
dx =
0

Thus to get around this, we searched for a function such

that the integral holds, and as such we discovered the
natural logarithm (ln) and Euler’s number e. And we have

1
∫ x
d x = ln(x) + C

d x
e = ex
dx
Where

ln(x) = loge(x)
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And, the derivative of e x is itself and e is the transcendental

and irrational number given by

e=2.718…

That is, while

1
f −1ln(x) ≠
ln(x)

f −1ln(x) = e x

We can approximate any function with a polynomial, the

simples example being the linear approximation formed by
writing the change in f(x) due to a change in x:

f (x) = f (a) + f′(a)(x − a)

This results in Taylor’s formula

f′′(a)
f (x) = f (a) + f′(a)(x − a) + (x − a)2 + …
2!
From which we derive the Taylor series
∞
f n(a) f′′(a)
(x − a)n = f (a) + f′(a)(x − a) + (x − a)2 + …
∑ n! 2!
n=0

We know the kth derivative of e to the x is e to the x itself.

Thus,

f (k)(x) = e x
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x2 x3
ex = 1 + x + + +…
2! 3!
xn
lim =0
n→∞ n!

∞
x xn x2 x3
∑ n!
e = =1+x + + +…
n=0
2! 3!
∞
1 1 1 1
∑ n!
e= =1+ + + + … = 2.718
n=0
1! 2! 3!

But it is no wonder the planetary orbits are quantized, all of

these constructs are pivotal to quantum mechanics:
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Quantum Mechanics

We start with the premise that light can behave like a

particle and its energy, E, is given by

hc
E=
λ
And that particles, like electrons, can behave like a wave
given by

h
λ=
mv
Where h is a constant called Planck’s constant and is given
by

h = 2π ℏ = 6.626 × 10−34 J ⋅ s

We consider a wave

U(x, t) = A0 sin(k x − ωt)

But, since

e ix = cos(x) + isin(x)

We write it as

U(x, t) = A0 e i(k x−ωt)

But we need to put it in terms of energy E, and momentum,

p, which since
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p = ℏk

E = ℏω

mv 2
k =
2
mv 2 p2
=
2 2m
We have the wave for our particle is
i
ψ (x, t) = Ce ℏ ( px−Et)

We now make the guess that the equation which it satisfies

is:

( ∂x c ∂t )
∂2 1 ∂2
− 2 ψ (x, t) = 0

If we put in ψ (x, t) we have

∂ i ( px−Et) ∂ i ( px) i
⋅ −e ℏ (Et) = p (e ℏ ( px−Et))
i i
eℏ = eℏ
∂x ∂x ℏ
Or quite simply:

∂ψ i
= pψ
∂x ℏ
Similarly, for the time derivative

∂ i ( px−Et) ∂ i i
= e ℏ ( px) ⋅ −e ℏ (Et) = − E (e ℏ ( px−Et))
i i
eℏ
∂t ∂t ℏ
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Or quite simply

∂ψ i
= − Eψ
∂t ℏ
We now have the two first derivatives of the wave as taken
by wave equation:

∂ψ i ∂ψ i
= pψ and = − Eψ
∂x ℏ ∂t ℏ
We multiply both sides of each equation by iℏ to obtain

∂ψ
iℏ = − pψ
∂x
∂ψ
iℏ = Eψ
∂t
∂f ∂f ∂f
Vector Calculus: ∇f = ex + ey + ez
∂x ∂y ∂z

̂ p2
Hamiltonian: H = + V( r ⃗ )
2m

( ∂t 2m )
∂ ℏ2
Schrodinger Wave Equation: iℏ + ψ (r, t) = 0

Schrodinger Equation using Hamiltonian:

̂ = iℏ ∂ψ
Hψ
∂t
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ℏ2
Let us look at . Its units are:
2m

ℏ2 joules 2 ⋅ sec2
=
2m Kg
m
Joules = Kg ⋅ m
s2
m2
2
Joules = 4 ⋅ Kg2 ⋅ m 2
s
m2 m2 m m
Joules 2 ⋅ sec2 = ⋅ Kg 2
⋅ s 2
= ⋅ Kg2 = Kg ⋅ Kg ⋅ m 2
s 4 s 2 s s

Thus,…

ℏ2 p2 2
= x
2m 2m
Thus we see that h bar squared over 2m is the energy in
terms of momentum acting on the square of position.

The Schrodinger equation in vector notation for 3D space:

+ V( r) ⃗ ψ ( r,⃗ t)
( 2m )
∂ψ ℏ2 ∇2
iℏ =
∂t

But what is this wave equation, we did not derive it from an

idea based on what we think Nature might be? Well that is
precisely the thing: We noticed, when studying the
microcosmos, that particles exhibited wave like properties,
and that waves exhibited the properties of particles. The
properties we associated with particles in the macrocosmos
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from our everyday experience were now the properties we

observed in experiments with light waves of the
microcosmos, and the properties we associated with waves
in the macrocosmos from everyday experience were now
the properties we observed in experiments with small
quanta, like electrons, of the microcosmos. Thus we had to
determine a constant, Planck’s constant, which reconciled
particle equations of our macrocosmic experience with
wave equations of our macrocosmic experience, that would
allow us to describe quantum particles with our wave
physics, and light waves with our particle physics, that
worked for experiments done with quantum particles and
light. Thus, since what we were measuring was counter
intuitive, we had no basis to derive the wave equation. We
simply tried it and it worked. Schrodingers wave equation:

+ V( r) ⃗ ψ ( r,⃗ t)
( 2m )
∂ψ ℏ2 ∇2
iℏ =
∂t

Schrodinger had his equation published in The Physical

Review in 1926. He was asked by his mentor to make sense
of the strange claims being made by leading researchers,
that particles needed to be described as waves, and waves
needed to be described as particles, and give a presentation.
It is said he did not give credence to the idea, and didn’t
realized the importance of his equation at the time of
publishing it, but he later received a Nobel Prize in physics
for it.

The next crucial development came from Max Born, who

offered an interpretation for the meaning of the equation,
which though we use it today, and it works, it is still an
interpretation not a derivation, and thus professionals often
debate its validity still.
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The Born Interpretation was that the square of the absolute

value of the wave function times the volume element
dxdydz:
2
ψ (x, y, z, t) d x d yd z

Is the probability of finding a particle described by ψ ( r,⃗ t)

in the volume element d V = d x d yd z at time t. Since ψ is
a complex function, the square of its absolute value is the
product of it with its complex conjugate. Written:
2
ψ = [ψ (x, y, z, t)] [ψ*(x, y, z, t)]

For this Max Born received a Nobel Prize in 1954.

Thus, the object of quantum mechanics is to solve

Schrodinger’s equation

+ V( r) ⃗ ψ ( r,⃗ t)
( 2m )
∂ψ ℏ2 ∇2
iℏ =
∂t
For

ψ ( r,⃗ t)
And then, apply the Born interpretation
2
ψ = [ψ (x, y, z, t)] [ψ*(x, y, z, t)]

To find the probability of finding a particle in a given

region at a time t.

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The Author