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Introduction to Networking
1. Ethernet networks first used which of the following cable types:
A. Fiber Optics
B. Twisted Pair
C. Microwave
D. Coaxial Cable

2. The terminator used with coaxial cable prevents:

A. Cable breakage
B. Signal reflections
C. Tampering with the cable
D. Signal losses

3. The maximum distance a signal can travel using 10Base5 is:

A. 100 meters
B. 200 meters
C. 500 meters
D. 1000 meters

4. Which two topologies are configured as a physical star but operate as a logical bus? (Choose two.)
A. 10base2
B. 10baseT
C. 100baseTx
D. 100baseVG-AnyLAN

5. Which two LAN topologies will not function when a single wire is broken? (Choose two.)
A. bus
B. star
C. ring
D. mesh
E. star-bus

6. Which IEEE specification describes Token Ring?

A. 800.6
B. 802.3
C. 802.4
D. 802.5

7. Twisted pair wires are twisted to:

A. extend the life of the cable
B. provide for higher security
C. reduce the amount of electrical interference
D. ease cable installation and termination

8. Multimode fiber optic cable most often uses which of the following to represent binary information:
A. Twisted Pair
B. Cladding
C. LEDs
D. Laser light

9. The network topology that uses a single wire or cable to connect devices together is referred to as
A. Bus topology
B. Broadcast topology

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C. Loop topology
D. Star topology

10. Which two items are associated with the 10baseT networking structure? (Choose two.)
A. BNC
B. AUI
C. RG58
D. CAT5
E. RJ-11
F. RJ-45

11. Which IEEE standard covers LANs using Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection
(CSMA/CD)?
A. 802.3
B. 802.5
C. 802.11
D. 802.12

12. Which type of network has ten or fewer computers connected by cable for the direct sharing of file
and hardware resources?
A. peer-to-peer
B. client/server
C. peer-to-server
D. server-to-server

13. The maximum data rate for thinnet and thicknet is:
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 100 Mbps
D. 1 Gbps

14. A 10BaseT star topology uses which of the following to connect the computers?
A. Repeater
B. Hub
C. Bridge
D. MAU

15. The OSI model consists of:

A. 5 layers
B. 6 layers
C. 7 layers
D. 8 layers

16. Which two unlicensed frequencies are used for spread spectrum wireless Local-Area Network (LAN)
devices? (Choose two.)
A. 860 Mhz
B. 915 Mhz
C. 2.412 Ghz
D. 2.842 Ghz
E. 5.630 Ghz

17. Which three work at Layer 2 of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)
A. bridge
B. switch
C. vampire tap
D. network interface card

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18. Which two work at Layer 3 of the OSI Model? (Choose two.)
A. router
B. bridge
C. e-mail
D. Internet Protocol (IP)
E. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

19. An Intranet server is essentially a:

A. Print Server
B. File Server
C. Communication Server
D. Web Server

20. Which layer of the OSI Model is responsible for data compression?
A. Session Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Presentation Layer

21. Which of the following is an example of a Transport Layer protocol?

A. Ethernet
B. IP
C. TCP
D. RS-232

22. Which of the layers below is most concerned with forwarding a packet through a network from the
source host, through intermediate hops, to the final destination:
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Physical

23. While a packet is traversing a network, the intermediate nodes between the source and destination
will deal with which protocol layers:
A. From Presentation Layer down
B. From Session Layer down
C. From Transport Layer down
D. From Network Layer down

24. Which technology does 11 Mbit wireless devices use?

A. IEEE 802.1d
B. Frequency Modulation System
C. Amplitude Modulation System
D. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
E. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum

25. A message, packet, and a frame refer to which three layers (in order):
A. Presentation, Session, Transport
B. Session, Transport, Network
C. Transport, Network, Data Link
D. Network, Data Link, Physical

26. What enables you to segment separate collision domains on different physical locations?
A. bridge

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B. gigabit switch
C. fast Ethernet hub
D. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

27. What is an example of a Network Layer protocol?

A. Ethernet
B. IP
C. TCP
D. RS-232

28. What is the primary purpose of a Network Layer protocol?

A. Transmit bits across a physical link
B. Transmit frames across a physical link
C. Transmit packets across a network
D. Transmit frames across a network

29. A 50-pair cable runs between two buildings. What should you use to terminate the cable?
A. RJ-50
B. router
C. split 50 block
D. split 66 block

30. A 25-pair cable runs from a building's ninth floor to the tenth floor. What should you use to terminate
the cable?
A. RJ-45
B. 66 block
C. 25 block
D. channel bank

31. Which two networking devices use a Spanning Tree algorithm to prevent active loops? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. bridge
C. switch
D. gateway

32. One of the services provided by the Data Link Layer to the Network Layer is:
A. The delivery of the network layer information to the next node in the network
B. The delivery of the network layer information to the final destination in thenetwork
C. The delivery of the application layer information to the final destination in the network
D. The error-free delivery of the application data

33. The Network Layer is to packets as the Data Link Layer is to:
A. Frames
B. Signals
C. Protocol suites
D. Datagrams

34. Which of the following is an example of decapsulation?

A. Stripping the header and trailer from an incoming frame.
B. Putting a header and a trailer on an outgoing message.
C. Putting a header and a trailer on an outgoing frame.
D. Stripping a header and a trailer from an incoming message.

35. The purpose of a Data Link Layer protocol is to:

A. Transmit messages to the correct process
B. Transmit packets to the end node

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C. Transmit frames to the next node

D. Transmit bits across a physical link

36. What part of a computer generates a frame by encapsulating a packet:

A. Media adapter unit
B. Node port
C. Network Interface Card
D. Hub

37. Which of the following is a concern at the physical layer?

A. Whether or not the data is ASCII or EBCDIC
B. How a binary zero is represented versus a binary one
C. The error free delivery of frames
D. The length of a packet

38. What is the primary purpose of a Physical Layer protocol?

A. Transmit bits across a physical link
B. Transmit frames across a physical link
C. Transmit packets across a network
D. Transmit bits across a network

39. The layer that is responsible for moving frames between NICs in a LAN is:
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport

40. You have been tasked with setting up a LAN/WAN infrastructure. You have ten stand-alone PCs and a
new Frame Relay circuit to the Internet Service Provider. Which two pieces of data networking equipment
allow the ten PCs to share files and access the Internet? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. bridge
D. repeater
E. Remote Access Server (RAS)

41. You need to interconnect offices on several floors of a large office building. The customer wants high-
speed and reliable connections between floors. Which device should you use to interconnect the floors?
A. bridge
B. gateway
C. CSU/DSU
D. gigabit switch

42. Which of the following is a function of hubs and repeaters?

A. Provide for cable extension
B. Repeat digital signals
C. Interconnect different cable types
D. All of the above

43. Why shouldn't hubs and repeaters be used to interconnect LANs:

A. They are too expensive
B. They are too powerful
C. They do not manage traffic efficiently enough
D. They do not extend the physical segment adequately

44. An Ethernet switch normally operates at which layer of the OSI model?

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A. Data Link
B. Application
C. Transport
D. Physical

45. A Layer 2 switch switches:

A. frames
B. packets
C. bits
D. sockets

46. Which items connect LANs at the Network Layer?

A. bridge
B. router
C. Data Service Unit (DSU)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)

47. Which device runs at Layer 3 of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model?
A. hub
B. router
C. bridge
D. repeater

48. Which two data networking devices are the most protocol independent? (Choose two.)
A. bridge
B. router
C. brouter
D. repeater

49. Which Local-Area Network (LAN) device takes a network frame, reads its header, and then directs it to
the proper port?
A. hub
B. switch
C. repeater
D. amplifier

50. In what two ways is the term gateway used:

A. as a router and a switch
B. as a router and a protocol converter
C. as a protocol converter and a switch
D. as a switch and a repeater

51. The Data Link Layer of the OSI Model has which two sublayers? (Choose two.)
A. Logical Link Control
B. Media Access Control
C. Network Link Control
D. Data Location Control
E. Media Access Connection

52. In a client/server arrangement, where are the requests normally generated:

A. Client
B. Server
C. Slave
D. Master

53. If an operating system is said to be peer-to-peer only, this means:

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A. A dedicated server is not used

B. A dedicated server is used, but only for printer sharing
C. A dedicated server is only used for Email
D. A dedicated server is not used except for Internet access

54. File sharing between two nodes of equal power and functionality is referred to as:
A. Client/Server
B. Master Slave
C. Client/Peer
D. Peer-to-peer

55. Which statement correctly describes a network backbone?

A. The portion of a network where all devices are connected
B. The portion of a network that carries traffic between workgroups
C. The most congested part of the network
A. The least critical part of the network

56. What allows you to separate workstations into collision domains?

A. hub
B. bridge
C. repeater
D. CSU/DSU

57. Which IEEE specification describes Token Bus?

A. 802.2
B. 802.3
C. 802.4
D. 802.5
E. 802.11

58. Which two are components of a structured cabling system? (Choose two.)
A. RJ-45
B. mouse
C. 66 block
D. multiplexer
E. Primary Rate Interface (PRI) T-1
F. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS) Line

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LANs
1. Which connector type is associated with Thinnet coaxial cable?
A. RJ-45
B. RG-58
C. BNC
D. RS-232

2. Which three of the following uses coaxial cabling? (choose three)

A. 10BaseT
B. Thinnet
C. Thicknet
D. 10Base2

3. Which item refers to the specification 100 VG-AnyLAN?

A. 802.1
B. 705.2
C. 802.10
D. 802.12

4. Which of the following cable types is typically used for 100Mbps technologies such as Fast Ethernet?
A. UTP Category 1
B. STP Category 3
C. RG-58 coaxial cable
D. UTP Category 5

5. 10Base2 cabling is also referred to as:

A. UTP
B. Thinnet
C. Thicknet
D. STP

6. 10BaseT networks use which cable type?

A. UTP
B. Thinnet
C. Thicknet
D. Cheapernet

7. Which network device stores web data that users access via the Internet so that future hits to the same
web site pull data from a local storage facility rather than from the Internet?
A. router
B. web server
C. cache server
D. print server
E. Layer 3 switch

8. Which connector goes on the end of a CAT 5 wire for a Local-Area Network (LAN)?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-14
C. RJ-21
D. RJ-45
E. RJ-55
F. 66 block

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9. If a company wants to set up a Local-Area Network (LAN) inside a 4,000-square-foot area, which two
cable types can you use to connect the LAN? (Choose two.)
A. CAT 35 wire
B. CAT 5e wire
C. coaxial cable
D. 100-pair outdoor wire
E. CAT 25 coaxial cable
F. 14 gauge copper wire

10. What is the maximum number of pairs that will terminate onto an RJ-45 connector?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
E. 25
F. 45

11. What is the rating of a CAT 3 wire?

A. 2 Mhz
B. 16 Mhz
C. 50 Mhz
D. 70 Mhz

12. Fast Ethernet describes which standard?

A. 10base2
B. 10base5
C. 100baseFX
D. 100baseVG-AnyLAN

13. What is the color code for a 568B jack?

A. blue, white blue, green, white green, orange, white orange, brown, and white brown
B. white green, green, white orange, orange, white blue, blue, white brown, and brown
C. blue, orange, green, brown, white blue, white orange, white green, and white brown
D. white orange, orange, white green, blue, white blue, green, white brown, brown
E. orange, white orange, white green, white blue, blue, green, brown, and white brown

14. When cost is a primary concern, which type of data networking equipment can connect Local-Area
Networks (LANs) that are in different buildings a block apart from each other?
A. hubs
B. routers
C. gigabit switches
D. wireless bridges

15. The source address of an Ethernet frame refers to:

A. The sender's NIC address
B. The receiver's NIC address
C. The packet address
D. The frame contents

16. An Ethernet network is which type of a network?

A. active
B. passive
C. active-passive
D. passive-aggressive

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17. What is the maximum length of an Ethernet 100BaseT cable segment?

A. 75 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 105 meters
D. 300 meters

18. What is the maximum size of an Ethernet frame?

A. 8 bits
B. 96 bytes
C. 1518 bytes
D. 1024 bytes

19. What is the minimum size of an Ethernet frame?

A. 12 bytes
B. 36 bytes
C. 64 bytes
D. 128 bytes

20. The destination address of an Ethernet frame refers to:

A. The receiver's NIC address
B. The sender's NIC address
C. The packet address
D. The frame contents

21. According to the National Electric Code (NEC), what are three purposes for grounding? (Choose three.)
A. to stabilize voltages
B. to limit the chance of power failure
C. to provide a path to facilitate the operation of overcurrent devices
D. to limit voltages due to lightning, line surges, or unintentional contact with higher voltages

22. Performance will most likely increase in an Ethernet network when:

A. Switches are replaced by hubs
B. Routers are replaced by hubs
C. Switches are replaced by routers
D. Hubs are replaced by switches

23. The primary difference between a hub and a switch is:

A. A hub works at the Data Link layer, while a switch does not
B. A hub has fewer physical ports than a switch
C. A switch is less efficient than a hub
D. A switch can isolate traffic

24. Which item constitutes a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain for all workstations
connected to the device?
A. hub
B. switch
C. router
D. bridge

25. Which standard covers 11 Mbit wireless Ethernet equipment?

A. RFC 1542
B. RFC 1618

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C. IEEE 802.2
D. IEEE 802.3
E. IEEE 802.11b

26. Which frequency does 11Mbit wireless devices use?

A. 860 Mhz
B. 915 Mhz
C. 2.4 Ghz
D. 2.8 Ghz
E. 5.6 Ghz

27. Which three create segmented collision domains in the same physical location? (Choose three.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. bridge

28. What prevents broadcast storms from being propagated through the network?
A. hub
B. router
C. bridge
D. switch

29. The organization that sets the standards for the wiring structure of a network is:
A. TIA/EIA
B. OSI
C. ISO
D. NEC

30. Which network operating system typically uses IPX/SPX as its default communication protocol?
A. UNIX/Linux
B. Windows NT
C. IBM OS Warp
D. Novell NetWare

31. Which feature reads the entire frame before forwarding the packet?
A. cut-through
B. Hold and Forward
C. Store and Forward
D. Spanning Tree Protocol

32. Which statement best describes how a Token Ring network functions?
A. The node that holds the token can transmit data on the network.
B. The node that holds the token has the highest priority on the network.
C. Several tokens can travel separate paths to improve performance.
D. The token contains routing information that allows packets to route between rings.

33. Choose the primary reason why businesses use a Virtual Private Network (VPN) solution over the
Internet?
A. web surfing
B. e-commerce
C. Internet Relay Chat
D. secure information sharing

34. Which two pieces of network equipment are in a Local-Area Network (LAN)? (Choose two.)
A. file server

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B. print server
C. Supervisor Module
D. Data Service Unit (DSU)
E. Channel Service Unit (CSU)

35. The device that can send a frame in a Token Ring network is:
A. The device with the most processing power
B. The device that controls the physical media
C. The device that controls the token
D. The Master node on the ring

36. The device that removes a frame from a ring in a Token Ring network is:
A. The server
B. The device that sent the frame
C. The device that received the frame
D. Any device on the network

37. Which two network types use a token to control the flow of data on the network? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet
B. Token Ring
C. 100baseVG-AnyLAN
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
E. Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI)

38. On which three types of local-area networks (LANs) does video conferencing function properly?
(Choose three.)
A. ArcNet
B. Thicknet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Switched Ethernet
E. Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI)

39. When a frame is broadcast:

A. It indicates congestion in a network
B. It indicates device failure
C. It goes to all NICs on the physical media
D. It goes to the NIC with the correct destination address only

40. A broadcast domain is:

A. A network that only excepts broadcast frames
B. A network that broadcast messages to the Internet
C. The area of a network where a broadcast frame travels
D. The area of a network where collisions occur

41. Which three of the following devices has the capability to isolate traffic in an Ethernet network?
(Choose three)
A. Bridge
B. Switch
C. Router
D. NICs

42. Which type of Local-Area Network (LAN) topology uses counter rotating rings?
A. Ethernet
B. Token Ring

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C. IEEE 802.11b
D. Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI)

43. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) was originally specified at which data rate?
A. 10 Mbps
B. 25 Mbps
C. 100 Mbps
D. 155 Mbps

44. At what layer of the OSI Model does ATM fall:

A. Application
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Transport

45. The two types of ATM interfaces defined by standards bodies are:
A. UNI and NNI
B. NNI and ISSI
C. UNI and Data Link Layer
D. PVC and SVC

46. Network performance on your Local-Area Network (LAN) has degraded so much that no data transfers
between workstations. Which device can you use to diagnose the source of the problem?
A. Voltage Meter
B. Protocol Analyzer
C. Spectrum Analyzer
D. Bit Error Rate Tester

47. The data transfer rates of a wireless backbone are below standard, and you suspect radio output.
Which piece of test equipment can you set up to test the frequency output?
A. Ohm Meter
B. Spectrum Analyzer
C. Protocol Analyzer
D. Data Link Content Monitor

48. Which piece of equipment can you use to test fiber-optic cable?
A. Oscilloscope
B. LM 2000 analyzer
C. Spectrum Analyzer
D. Optical Time Delay (Domain) Reflectometer

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TCP/IP
1. What is used for mapping host names to Internet Protocol (IP) addresses?
A. DNS
B. WINS
C. SNMP
D. LMHOSTS

2. Which of the following devices would evaluate the IP address of a packet?

A. NIC
B. Layer 2 Switch
C. Router
D. Bridge

3. In TCP/IP terminology, a host is:

A. Mainframe computer
B. Converter
C. Any node on an IP network
D. Any computer with access to the World Wide Web

4. Which item is the default maximum hop count for Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 1?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90

5. How long are IP addresses?

A. 8 bits
B. 16 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 64 bits

6. Which of the following would be a class B address?

A. 205.2.2.2
B. 190.2.2.2
C. 70.2.2.2
D. 7.2.2.2

7. Which of the following would be true?

A. IP adds a header to an Ethernet frame
B. Ethernet adds a header to a UDP port
C. IP adds a header to a TCP message
D. TCP adds a header to an Ethernet frame

8. The address 199.122.101.7 is what type of address:

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

9. Which of the following would be a class C address?

A. 205.2.2.2
B. 80.2.2.2
C. 7.2.2.2
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D. 1.206.206.206

10. An IP address is made up of at least two parts which are:

A. The host and mask
B. The mask and subnet
C. The network and host
D. The network and mask

11. Which of the following will allow the most unique (useable) host addresses?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

12. What is the maximum number of unique (useable) hosts that you can configure on a Class C subnet?
A. 128
B. 154
C. 192
D. 254
E. 255
F. 256

13. How many layers exist in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)/Internet Protocol (IP) model?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7

14. A subnet mask is used to:

A. Indicate the network, subnet and host portions of an IP address
B. Indicate which host is to receive the application information
C. Indicate which physical segment a router is located on
D. Indicate the path for UDP data

15. If the target device is located on another network, a frame will most likely be sent to:
A. A router
B. Another device on the same network
C. A DNS host
D. An ARP server

16. A mask for a Class C IP address might be:

A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.192.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0

17. How many octets does an Internet Protocol (IP) address contain?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

18. Which of the following is found at the Network Layer of a protocol stack?
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Bit or byte

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D. LU

19. What is a valid Internet Protocol (IP) address for loopback?

A. 127.0.0.1
B. 45.22.0.1
C. 192.168.50.12
D. 224.123.45.17

20. In a TCP/IP environment, which two devices are connected to the local subnet and know the network
IDs for other networks and the best path to reach them? (Choose two.)
A. web server
B. cache server
C. Layer 3 switch
D. default gateway
E. Data Service Unit (DSU)

21. Which three are private Internet Protocol (IP) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 10.x.x.x
B. 192.x.x.x
C. 172.x.x.x
D. 172.16.x.x
E. 192.168.x.x
F. 204.225.255.x

22. Which three attributes must be configured on a workstation before the user can browse the Internet?
(Choose three.)
A. NetBEUI
B. default gateway
C. Domain Name System (DNS)
D. Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS)
E. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)/Internet Protocol (IP) address

23. A company engages a network integrator to resolve an issue with its current Internet Protocol (IP)
addressing scheme. This company wants to allow all individuals to access the Internet. It is currently
using the private IP address 192.168.50.x. The company is assigned the single IP address 210.222.5.121
with the subnet mask 255.255.255.248. Which task provides a timely solution to provide Internet access
to all computers?
A. use Network Address Translation (NAT)
B. configure each host to use the assigned address
C. apply for the address space needed to achieve the objective
D. allow users Internet access using the current address scheme

24. What does the Domain Name System (DNS) translate?

A. MAC addresses to Internet Protocol (IP) addresses
B. URLs to Media Access Control (MAC) addresses
C. NetBIOS names to Internet Protocol (IP) addresses
D. Universal Resource Locators (URLs) to Internet Protocol (IP) addresses
E. IP addresses to Universal Resource Locators (URLs)

25. A Firewall is a:
A. A system that enforces a boundary between two or more networks
B. A wall that provides fire protection
C. The backbone of the network
D. The part of the network that is most critical

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26. Which protocol automatically configures Internet Protocol (IP) addressing on a large Transmission
Control Protocol (TCP)/Internet Protocol (IP)-based network, allowing machines to move between subnets
with minimal administrative effort?
A. Server Message Block (SMB)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Routing Interface Protocol (RIP)
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
E. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

27. Which two provide a means of connecting all network computers to the Internet when there is a
limited number of live (public) Internet Protocol (IP) addresses? (Choose two.)
A. web server
B. mail server
C. proxy server
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

28. Which of the following interior protocols uses link-state technology?

A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. UDP

29. Which item is a Link State Routing Protocol?

A. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
B. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP)
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 1
D. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2

30. Which of the following interior protocols uses distance vector technology?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. UDP

31. Which three are Distance-Vector Routing Protocols? (Choose three.)

A. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
B. NetWare Link State Protocol (NLSP)
C. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP)
D. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 1
E. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2

32. Which routing protocol uses only a hop metric when figuring the best path to a network?
A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
D. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP)

33. Which item uses the SPF algorithm to select the best paths between networks based on cost?
A. AppleTalk
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP)
D. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 1

34. Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port is used for Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

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applications?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 35
D. 80
E. 110

35. Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port is the default for Telnet applications?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 35
D. 80

36. Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port number is used for HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
applications?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 80

37. What dynamically assigns client IP configurations?

A. DNS
B. LMHOSTS
C. DHCP Service
D. WINS Service

38. Which of the following will help to determine local IP addressing information?
A. Ping
B. Winipcfg
C. Tracert
D. ARP

39. Which two protocols support user data transfer over the Internet? (Choose two)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
B. Server Message Block (SMB)
C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
E. Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS)
F. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

40. The process that is used to echo data from another computer is the:
A. ARP
B. PING
C. SMTP
D. TELNET

41. Which application identifies the path a packet takes to its destination?
A. Ping
B. Dslookup
C. Traceroute
D. Extended Ping

42. Which two verify communication with a remote host? (Choose two.)
A. Ping
B. Telnet
C. ARP

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D. Ipconfig

43. Although a network is directly connected to the Internet, a user cannot browse the Internet. Dynamic
Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) was implemented on this network to assign Internet Protocol (IP)
addresses. On a Microsoft Windows 95/98-based PC, which utility can you use to quickly check if the PC
received an address?
A. Inetcfg
B. Netstat
C. Ipconfig
D. Winipcfg

44. Which application should you use to show the number of hops between two network nodes?
A. Ping
B. Traceroute
C. Netstat
D. Inetcfg

45. A corporate client decides to participate in an online conference using third-party software. The client
has a firewall and a direct connection to the Internet. Which task must you perform to ensure that this
client can participate in the conference?
A. create a new domain name entry in the client's Domain Name System (DNS) server
B. open the proper ports on the firewall according to the third-party documentation
C. set up users and passwords with the Internet Service Provider (ISP) for each user planning to
participate in the conference
D. assign a new Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Internet Protocol (IP) address pool to
the computers that will participate in the conference

46. Which item uses hello packets to discover neighboring networks?

A. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
B. Internet Packet Exchange (IPX) Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
C. Internet Protocol (IP) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 1
D. IP RIP Version 2

47. Which item learns about neighbors to ensure bidirectional communication between networks?
A. AppleTalk
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Internet Packet Exchange (IPX) Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
D. Internet Protocol (IP) RIP Version 1

48. Which Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) Link State Acknowledgment (LSA) type describes the states of
the router's link to the area?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3/4
D. Type 5

49. Which Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) Link State Acknowledgment (LSA) type describes routes to
destinations external to the autonomous system?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3/4
D. Type 5

50. Which item is used so routers will neither advertise a route nor accept advertisements about the route
for a specific length of time?
A. cut-through

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B. split-horizon
C. poison-reverse
D. Hold Down Timers

51. Which item is a routing technique that explicitly indicates a network segment is down or unreachable,
rather than implying a network is unreachable by not including it in routing updates?
A. cut-through
B. split-horizon
C. poison-reverse
D. Hold Down Timer

52. Which item connects a network into multiple Internet Service Providers (ISPs) if you have different
policy requirements?
A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. NetWare Link State Protocol (NLSP)
D. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP)

53. Which item is used between routers in two different autonomous systems that are running the Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP) Routing Protocol?
A. Autonomous Border Router (ABR)
B. Internal Border Gateway Protocol (IBGP)
C. Exterior Border Gateway Protocol (EBGP)
D. Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR)

54. How does an intranet differ from the Internet?

A. It allows you to share proprietary information over the public network.
B. It advertises information about your company to the rest of the world.
C. It allows you to pull information from another non-affiliated company.
D. It allows you to share proprietary information internally and remotely over a public
network via a secure connection.

55. H.323 is a multimedia compression standard developed for which type of network?
A. Ethernet
B. Switched
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)

56. Which four major components are specified for the H.323 standard? (Choose four.)
A. gateways
B. terminals
C. gatekeeper
D. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
E. Multipoint Control Units (MCUs)

57. Which protocol is used for signaling in an H.323 environment?

A. H.245
B. H.248
C. Signaling System 7 (SS7)
D. Network-based Call Signaling (NCS) Protocol

58. Which multimedia protocol specifies multipoint transport?

A. T.120
B. H.261
C. T.020

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D. H.263

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WANs
1. Which three of the following describe the physical connection between two communicating devices?
(Choose three)
A. Physical circuit
B. Channel
C. Circuit
D. Virtual circuit

2. Which of the following types of virtual circuits behaves like a dedicated line between two points?
A. Switched virtual circuit
B. Permanent virtual circuit
C. Static virtual circuit
D. Dynamic virtual circuit

3. Which of the following types of virtual circuits is dynamically established when there is information to
send?
A. Switched virtual circuit
B. Permanent virtual circuit
C. Static virtual circuit
D. Dynamic virtual circuit

4. A customer is using a T-1 circuit for dedicated fax machines and modems. Which piece of equipment
will connect the fax machine and modems to the T-1 ?
A. channel bank
B. line sharing unit
C. Data Service Unit (DSU)
D. Central Office (CO) Trunk package

5. One disadvantage to using modem technology is:

A. cost
B. any-to-any connectivity
C. transfer rate
D. availability of equipment

6. Which of the following would reduce throughput on a transmission circuit?

A. Signal state changes
B. Baud
C. Character bits
D. Start and Stop bits

7. A corporate user purchases a new PC and a dial-up connection to the Internet with a local Internet
Service Provider (ISP). The Windows 98-based PC has the proper phone numbers listed in Dial-Up
Networking. When the user plugs the modem into the office phone jack and tries to dial the Internet,
there is no dial tone. The user plugs the phone into the same jack. All lights come on, and a dial tone is
heard.
What is the most likely reason that the PC modem cannot detect a dial tone?
A. The username and password are incorrect.
B. The driver for the PC's modem is installed incorrectly.
C. The user has a digital phone system, and the modem recognizes only analog lines.
D. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)/Internet Protocol (IP) properties of the dial-up
networking connection is not set up correctly.
E. The modem's connection speed is set to 9600 bps and not 56000 bps, which the modem
documentation recommends.

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8. Which Internet connection type uses existing copper phone lines to achieve high bandwidth downloads
and low bandwidth uploads?
A. cable modem
B. Digital Subscriber Line (xDSL)
C. analog modem using the V.90 standard
D. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)

9. Which of the following describes an Intranet?

A. Private Internet
B. Global TCP/IP network
C. Private and global TCP/IP network
D. Interconnection of two or more networks not connected to the global network

10. Which three of the following protocols are associated with the Internet?
A. HTTP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. IPX

11. What is the total bandwidth of an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Basic Rate Interface
(BRI)?
A. 56 Kbps
B. 128 Kbps
C. 144 Kbps
D. 1.544 Mbps

12. Which digital carrier can support seven channels for voice and 14 for data?
A. T-1
B. 56 K Line
C. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/Data Service Unit (DSU)
E. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Basic Rate Interface

13. When an Internet Service Provider (ISP) provides multiple T-1 connections to an end user, which
facility is appropriate?
A. DS3
B. ISDN Direct
C. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
D. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)

14. Which three of the following protocols fall at layer 2 of the OSI model? (Choose three)
A. SDLC
B. HDLC
C. LAPD
D. SONET

15. ADSL is best characterized by:

A. Analog to digital conversion at the local loop
B. Digital to analog conversion at the local loop
C. High speed to the subscriber, low speed from the subscriber
D. High data transfer from the subscriber, low speed transfer to the subscriber

16. The total bandwidth of basic rate ISDN is:

A. 64 Kbps
B. 144 Kbps
C. 1.544 Mbps

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D. 45 Mbps

17. The total bandwidth of primary rate ISDN is:

A. 64 Kbps
B. 144 Kbps
C. 1.544 Mbps
D. 45 Mbps

18. Which three protocols are commonly found in Wide-Area Networks (WANs)? (Choose three.)
A. X.25
B. Ethernet
C. Token Ring
D. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC)
E. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)

19. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is built on which protocol?

A. Frame Relay
B. Internet Protocol (IP)
C. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
D. Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

20. Which three items does X.25 use for virtual circuit operational procedures? (Choose three.)
A. Call Setup
B. Data Transfer
C. Call Clearing
D. Data Clearing

21. Which two protocols make a dial-up connection to the Internet? (Choose two.)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
C. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
D. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

22. Which dial-up protocol can only transmit one network protocol at the same time?
A. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
B. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
C. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
D. Challenge Handshake Access Protocol (CHAP)

23. Which three of the following describes Frame Relay?

A. It was created for data services
B. It can be used in conjunction with T1
C. It is a connection-oriented service
D. It provides error detection and recovery

24. The device that provides access to a Frame Relay network is referred to as a
A. Hub
B. Repeater
C. FRAD
D. None of the above

25. Which technology resides at the lowest layer of the OSI Model?
A. Packet Switching
B. X.25 Packet Switching
C. Frame Relay

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D. SONET

26. Frame Relay maps to which layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model?
A. Network Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Presentation Layer

27. Which Wide-Area Network (WAN) type uses cell switching technology?
A. Frame Relay
B. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
D. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

28. Which interface references the connection between the NT1 and the Integrated Services Digital
Network (ISDN) network controlled by the local phone company?
A. U interface
B. R interface
C. ST interface
D. T interface

29. Which three of the following are information channels supported by DSL?
A. Downstream digital channel
B. Upstream digital channel
C. POTS
D. T1

30. Wide-Area Networks (WANs) use which three common Layer 2 encapsulation methods? (Choose
three.)
A. Ethernet
B. Token Ring
C. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
D. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC)
E. Link Access Procedure Balanced (LAPB)

31. Which Wide-Area Network (WAN) protocol uses a Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)?
A. Frame-Relay
B. Point-to Point Protocol (PPP)
C. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC)
D. Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

32. In a Frame Relay network the Data Link Connection Identifier (DLCI) identifies the logical circuit
configured between Customer Premise Equipment (CPE) and which piece of equipment?
A. router
B. modem
C. Central Office (CO)
D. Frame Relay switch

33. Which Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) standard allows for switching and signaling?
A. E series
B. I series
C. Q series
D. S series

34. In an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) environment, what do you configure to create virtual
segments?

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A. Data Link Control Identifier (DLCI)

B. Virtual Local-Area Network (VLAN)
C. Emulated Local-Area Network (ELAN or LANE)
D. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection

35. ATM is used in which three of the following situations? (Choose three)
A. Wide area networking
B. Backbone connectivity
C. Desktop-to-networking device (such as an ATM switch) connectivity
D. Dial up connections

36. The unit of information used by an ATM network is the:

A. Frame
B. Packet
C. Cell
D. Message

37. What provides a signaling standard between a Customer Premise Equipment (CPE) device and a
Frame Relay switch?
A. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Local Management Interface (LMI)
D. Data Link Control Identifier (DLCI)

38. What is the purpose of the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) B channel?
A. call management
B. signaling information
C. circuit-switched data
D. call setup and tear down

39. Which of the following would operate at 155.5Mbps?

A. T3
B. SONET OC-3
C. T5
D. SONET OC-5

40. Which two items are used by the Primary Rate Interface (PRI) in North America and Japan? (Choose
two.)
A. 23 bearer channels
B. two bearer channels
C. one 16 kpbs D channel
D. one 56 kpbs D Channel
E. one 64 kpbs D Channel

41. What represents the default encapsulation method for Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
A. Frame Relay
B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
C. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC)
D. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

42. Data, video, and _____ are parts of multimedia applications.

A. voice
B. fax transmissions
C. toll call override
D. voice mail messages

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43. Which statement is true?

A. Virtual Paths can contain multiple ATM networks.
B. Virtual Circuits can contain multiple Virtual Paths.
C. Virtual Paths can contain multiple Virtual Channels.
D. Permanent Paths can contain multiple Virtual Circuits.

44. Which of the following protocols was designed to transmit multimedia applications? (choose two)
A. Frame Relay
B. T1
C. ATM
D. ISDN
45. A company wants to allow its employees access to the corporate network from home. Which two
types of data networking equipment should you install to accommodate the company's needs? (Choose
two.)
A. leased line
B. Remote Access Server (RAS)
C. modems hung off of individual PCs
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN) gateway

46. What is the protocol for securely encrypting and transferring data over the Internet from office to
office?
A. Domain Name System (DNS)
B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
C. Router Internet Protocol (RIP)
D. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
E. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)/Internet Protocol (IP)

47. Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)/Internet Protocol (IP)-based protocol enables a remote user
to connect to the company's Local-Area Network (LAN) via the Internet and appear as though the user
locally attached to that LAN?
A. Server Message Block (SMB)
B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
C. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
D. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

48. Which two hardware or software devices securely control the connection traffic to and from the
Internet? (Choose two.)
A. firewall
B. caching server
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN) gateway
D. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) router

49. Which Wide-Area Network (WAN) protocol is an example of packet switching technology?
A. X.25
B. Etherchannel
C. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
D. Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI)

50. Which three of the following are true concerning T1 versus Frame Relay?
A. Frame Relay is a newer technology than T1
B. Frame Relay often uses T1 at the physical layer
C. Frame Relay was designed primarily for data traffic
D. T1 was designed primarily for data traffic

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51. When a non-ISDN terminal is to be hooked up to an ISDN network, which of the following must be
used?
A. Terminal Adapter
B. Terminal Equipment Type 1
C. Network Termination Type 1
D. Network Termination Type 2

52. Which four events trigger a bipolar violation? (Choose four.)

A. two successive zero pulses
B. two successive negative pulses
C. two successive positive pulses
D. two successive zero pulses separated by a one
E. two successive positive pulses separated by a zero
F. two successive negative pulses separated by a zero

53. Which type of T-1 line coding format supports Primary Rate Interface (PRI)?
A. D4
B. B8ZS
C. Alternate Mark Inversion (AMI)
D. Dialed Number Identification Service (DNIS)

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ACACN Practice Exam,

Introduction to Telecommunications
1. You need to add 25 voice terminals to a phone system. Each voice terminal needs two-pair wire to
operate. If the new terminals will be added in a separate building 25 yards away, which wire type should
you use to connect the buildings?
A. CAT 3 wire
B. CAT 5e wire
C. 25-pair outdoor wire
D. two pair twisted wire
E. CAT 5 plennum wire
F. 200-pair outdoor wire

2. A company decides to use two-way analog trunks on its new communications system. Toll fraud is a
major concern. Which trunk should you choose?
A. Loop Start
B. Ground Start
C. E&M Tie Line
D. Direct Inward Dial (DID)

3. When two tones are used to signal switching equipment it is called:

A. Tip and Ring
B. Step-by-step
C. DTMF
D. Out-of-band signaling

4. On an analog Tip/Ring circuit, ringing is accomplished with which item?

A. digital circuitry
B. Direct Current (DC) voltage
C. Multi-Frequency (MF) signaling
D. Alternating Current (AC) voltage

5. Which trunk type is NOT polarity sensitive in its wiring?

A. T-1
B. Loop Start
C. Ground Start
D. Direct Inward Dial (DID)
E. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

6. Which two are analog trunks? (Choose two.)

A. DS0
B. ISDN
C. modem
D. Centrex
E. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
F. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

7. Which trunk type can use Wink Start signaling?

A. Centrex
B. Foreign Exchange (FX)
C. Direct Inward Dial (DID)
D. Off-Premise Extension (OPX)

8. The switch that is used to connect two COs together is a:

A. Routing Switch
B. Interconnect
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 30v7.0
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C. Layer 5 Switch
D. Tandem Switch

9. Your customer needs a trunking solution for a remote location where power outages are frequent and
where there is little or no tolerance for down time. The company estimates that it needs 24 trunks. If cost
is not a concern, what is the best trunking solution?
A. T-1
B. Loop Start
C. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
D. ISDN Primary Rate Interface (PRI)

10. A single Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Primary Rate Interface (PRI) facility consists of
which two components? (Choose two.)
A. 25 DS0s
B. processor
C. circuit pack
D. bearer channels
F. signaling channel
G. Channel Service Unit (CSU)

11. Which question should you ask when selecting a trunk type?
A. Which kind of hub does the customer have?
B. Which kind of wiring runs throughout the building?
C. Will this trunk be used to send and receive data?
D. What is the distance between the demarcation point and the phone system?

12. Overlay codes are used because of which of the following situations?
A. Too many COs
B. Too many Tandem Offices
C. Too many telephone numbers used
D. Too many subscriber services

13. When signaling takes place over a separate path than the path the analog voice signal takes it is
referred to as:
A. Out-of-band signaling
B. In-band signaling
C. SS7
D. Dial tone signaling

14. Your customer wants to provide a local number for its clients. The call is normally long distance to the
local area. Which trunk type can provide this feature?
A. T-1
B. 56 K
C. Foreign Exchange (FX) Line
D. ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

15. What is a characteristic of a key system?

A. call routing
B. line pooling
C. the appearance of all lines on all phones
D. the use of the same button for inside and outside calls

16. What is a characteristic of a hybrid system?

A. Outside trunks are grouped in pools.
B. All calls are routed over the same trunk.
C. Different buttons are used for inside calls.

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D. Each trunk is assigned to a different phone.

17. Your customer does not own a Private Branch Exchange (PBX) but wants telephone service with
multiple features on each line. Which service type is the best solution?
A. Tie line
B. T-1
C. Centrex
D. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
E. Direct Inward/Outward Dialing (DIOD)

18. Which trunk type CANNOT be used for both inbound and outbound calls?
A. T-1
B. DID
C. Loop Start
D. Ground Start
E. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

19. The physical connection that links the customer premise to the telephone company CO switch is
referred to as a:
A. Local loop
B. Trunk
C. Channel
D. Digital Circuit

20. Which facility/trunk offers the best voice quality?

A. T-1
B. Loop Start
C. Ground Start
D. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

21. Your customer wants access to the Internet with minimal cost. Speed is not an issue. Which trunking
type should you offer the customer?
A. T-1
B. ISDN
C. 128 K Line
D. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

22. Which three facilities/trunks can you use to tie two locations together? (Choose three.)
A. T-1
B. WATS
C. E&M Tie
D. ISDN PRI
E. Direct Inward Dial (DID)
F. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)

23. Which adjunct can integrate with a telephone system using DTMF protocol?
A. voice mail
B. external alarm indicators
C. call accounting computer
D. Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) terminal

24. The two basic qualities of an analog signal are:

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 32v7.0
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A. Frequency and phase

B. Phase and amplitude
C. Frequency and amplitude
D. Amplitude and electromagnetism

25. Which three trunks are used for communications systems? (Choose three.)
A. DS4
B. 5ESS
C. Centrex
D. Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
E. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)

26. What does a self-powered paging horn have built in?

A. antenna
B. amplifier
C. microphone
D. power supply

27. Shielded wire provides protection against _____.

A. static discharge
B. feedback interface
C. talk back interference
D. electrical magnetic interference

28. A line that goes from a customer's site, through the local CO and a remote CO in another part of the
country is known as a:
A. Trunk
B. POTS line
C. Tie line
D. FX line

29. A telephone line that is dedicated between two telephones is referred to as a:

A. Trunk
B. POTS line
C. Ring down
D. FX line

30. What does a least-cost routing setup in a phone system do?

A. route calls over the least used Line
B. route calls over a low-cost-per-minute T-1 Line
C. find the least expensive route for the number dialed
D. enable a caller to leave a voice message without paying for the call

31. A single T-1 configured as a Primary Rate Interface (PRI) can support a maximum of how many voice
channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 23
D. 24
E. 128

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32. If a customer has 50 telephone extensions and 20 lines installed, what is the maximum number of
simultaneous inobound or outbound call that can be made with a key system?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 20
D. 70

33. A hybrid key telephone system combines the features of which of the following two systems?
A. PBX
B. Cordless
C. Key system
D. Multiplexer

34. Detection of the telephone number that initiated a call is referred to as:
A. Caller ID
B. Call Blocking
C. Call Forwarding
D. Call Pickup

35. The merging of telephony and computer systems is referred to as:

A. CTI
B. Hybrid systems
C. Key systems
D. Cordless systems

36. When a CO switch provides a business telephone switching services, it is referred to as:
A. DACs
B. NAR
C. Centrex
D. CO provisioning

37. Which two trunk facilities are digital? (Choose two.)

A. T-1
B. Loop Start
C. Ground Start
D. E&M Tie Line
E. Direct Inward Dial (DID)
F. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

38. Which trunk type is prone to call collision (glare)?

A. T-1
B. Loop Start
C. Ground Start
D. Direct Inward Dial (DID)

39. Which type of analog trunk is preferred when release/disconnect supervision is required?
A. T-1
B. Loop Start
C. Ground Start
D. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

40. The ability to represent frequently called numbers with short codes is:
A. Speed Calling
B. Distinctive Ringing
C. Call Pickup
D. Call Hunting

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41. What feature allows you to listen to another user's phone conversation?
A. Privacy
B. Camp On
C. Conference Call
D. Extension Status
E. Service Observing

42. Which feature uses the telephone Central Office (CO) to transfer calls?
A. Autodial
B. Centrex Operation
C. Multi-function Mode
D. Automatic Route Selection

43. Caller ID is available on which trunk type?

A. Tie Line
B. Loop Start
C. Ground Start
D. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

44. Which four are telephony applications? (Choose four.)

A. Call Accounting System (CAS)
B. Call Management System (CMS)
C. Local-Area Network (LAN) System
D. Interactive Voice Response (IVR) System
E. Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) System
F. Internal Management Facility (IMF) System

45. Your customer must add a T-1 to its phone system, but it does not need the T-1 for the data network.
The T-1 was ordered, installed, and terminated on a smart jack. What is the ideal piece of equipment to
install next while keeping cost as the number one concern?
A. hub
B. NT-1
C. RJ-21X
D. the phone system
E. Channel Service Unit (CSU)
F. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/Data Service Unit (DSU)

46. Incoming calls are connected directly to employees of an organization via:

A. FX
B. DISA
C. DID
D. Attendant console

47. Which two facilities/trunks could two companies use to communicate using a uniform dialing plan?
(Choose two.)
A. T-1
B. Loop Start
C. Ground Start
D. analog E&M Tie
E. Direct Inward Dial (DID)

48. Your customer wants to add a dedicated fax line but does not want it to run through the Private
Branch Exchange (PBX). Which trunk type should the company order?
A. Loop Start

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B. Ground Start
C. Direct Inward Dial (DID)
D. ISDN Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
E. Direct Inward System Access (DISA)

49. What is the purpose of a voice terminal?

A. to hold wires for the system
B. to connect two wires together
C. to connect two end users together
D. to transfer circuit switched data to the end user

50. The system or PBX feature that routes calls to telephone support personnel is referred to as a:
A. UPS
B. DSS
C. ACD
D. SMDR

51. Which phone type normally requires the end user to dial codes to access features?
A. attendant console
B. single-line telephone
C. hybrid multi-line telephone
D. digital multi-line telephone

52. The service that allows a subscriber to have two lines but only one telephone number is:
A. Call Forwarding
B. Variable Calling
C. Call Conferencing
D. Call Waiting

53. When a call is made to a company and one of the lines is busy, the call goes to the next available
line. This is referred to as:
A. Call Pickup
B. Hunting
C. Speed Calling
D. Call Forwarding

54. Which port type must be programmed on the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) to use in-band
integration with a voice mail system?
A. serial
B. analog
C. digital
D. wireless
E. four-wire E&M

55. Which three components are necessary for a Unified Messaging System? (Choose three.)
A. network
B. DHCP server
C. Auto Attendant
D. voice mail system
E. Internet connectivity
F. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)

56. What is the relationship of a Foreign Exchange (FX) Trunk to its facility?

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A. The trunk is better grounded at the facility.

B. The facility provides robbed-bit signaling through the trunk.
C. The facility sends packets that are translated into voice transmission and sent over the Trunk
to the end user.
E. The trunk gives the user direct access to a non-local Central Office (CO) without
using a public network.

57. You are installing equipment that requires an approved ground. If more than one type of approved
ground is available on the premises, what should you do according to the National Electric Code (NEC)?
A. use the power feed ground
B. use the building (steel) ground
C. use the Main Distribution Frame (MDF) ground
D. use the water pipe ground (as long as it meets NEC specifications)
E. bond the grounds together to form a single point ground and use this for your
equipment

58. Which four rules help you avoid damaging ESD-sensitive components? (Choose four.)
A. only handle a circuit card by the faceplate or side edges
B. wear insulated footwear when installing or maintaining equipment
C. keep circuit cards away from plastics and other synthetic materials such as
polyester clothing
D. do not pass circuit cards to another person unless that person is grounded at the
same potential level
E. before handling ESD-sensitive circuit cards, attach an ESD wrist strap to your bare
wrist and the other end of the strap to a ground that terminates at the system
ground, such as any unpainted metallic chassis surface

59. Electrically connecting all protective grounds together to form one grounding electrode system is
identified as:
A. Building Ground
B. Equipment Ground
C. Single Point Ground
D. Switch Room Ground

60. As the temperature of the equipment room environment increases, the maximum allowable humidity
_____.
A. ceases
B. increases
C. decreases
D. remains the same

61. Which three items do EMI filters suppress? (Choose three.)

A. electrical surges
B. RF interference from local radio stations
C. RF interference from other equipment room systems
D. noise voltage on the Alternating Current (AC) input line

62. When checking backplane power, the voltmeter's ground lead should be connected to the _____.
A. chassis ground
B. building ground
C. single-point ground

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D. Main Distribution Frame (MDF) ground

63. You are checking for 120 VAC power. In standard wiring code, the neutral wire is _____, and the hot
wire is _____.
A. white, red
B. green, black
C. white, green
D. white, black

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