1.

Which Service Management process' purpose is to provide a point of focus and

management for all availability-related issues, relating to both services and resources,
ensuring that availability targets in all areas are measured and achieved?
ANS: Availability Management

2. From a customer's viewpoint, where is the value of Service Management actually

seen?
ANS: Service Operation

3. What type of communication would not be a part of the Service Operation process?
ANS: Testing and Development reporting

4. What does Service Design pass on to Service Transition for implementation after
the design of a new service has been completed?
ANS: Service Design Package (SDP)

5. A member of an internal support group has configured a new router incorrectly

during production hours. This change has caused a network outage for several users.
Which document should Service Level Management reference to check the agreed
service level for this service?
ANS: Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

Service Level Agreement(SLA) The SLA describes the IT Service, documents

Service Level Targets, and specifies the responsibilities of the IT Service Provider
and the Customer.
Operational Level Agreement(OLA) an agreement between an IT Service provider
and another part of the same organization that assists with the provision of services.
An OLA should be defined within an SLA to ensure that targets will not be
compromised by failure of the supporting activity.

6. What does the right-hand side of the V-model represent within the service
lifecycle?
ANS: Overall approach to validation and testing

7. Which of the following describes Service Assets?

ANS: Resources and Capabilities

8. Which of the following is the key aspect of Service Design?

ANS: The design of new or changed service solutions to meet changing business
needs

9. Which of the following terms describes a portion of a service or IT infrastructure

that is normally released together according to the organization's release policy?
ANS: Release Unit

10. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) adds value to the business by providing
improvements, benefits, and Value on Investment (VOI). Which other term represents
how CSI adds value to the business?
ANS: Return on Investment (ROI)

11. What type of technology is helpful for the Service Desk analysts and other support
groups to be able to take control of the user's desktop?
ANS: Remote Control

12. Which term below best describes a Service Desk?

ANS: Function

13. Which of the following statements represents an important objective of Continual

Service Improvement?
ANS: Improve cost effectiveness of delivering IT services without sacrificing
customer satisfaction

14. A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is produced by which Service Management

process?
ANS: Financial Management

15. Why are baselines used in the Continual Service Improvement phase of the service
lifecycle?
ANS: As starting points for later comparison

16. Which statement best describes how Service Transition provides value to the
business?
ANS: Improving a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of change and
releases across its customer base

17. Within the Service Transition stage of the service lifecycle, which role is responsible
for periodically auditing the process to ensure compliance to policy and standards?
ANS: Process Owner

18. Which of the following describes the purpose of Service Catalogue Management?
ANS: Providing a single source of consistent information on all of the agreed
services

19. What type of sourcing does the following statement represent?

"Utilizing the resources of an external organization or organizations in a formal

arrangement to provide a well-defined portion of a service's design, development,
maintenance, operations, and/or support."
ANS: Outsourcing

20. Which stage of the Deming Cycle represents the implementation of improvements?
ANS: Act
Plan - Project Plan
Do - Project
Check – Audit

21. A notification that indicates a scheduled workload has been completed would be
considered what?
ANS: An Event
- The "A Service request" option is incorrect. A Service request is a request from a user
for information, advice, a Standard Change, or for access to an IT service.

22. Which of the following describes an external supplier's ability to meet the terms of
their contract?
ANS: Serviceability

23. Which option represents service assets that need to be adjusted to achieve optimal
value for a customer?
ANS: Resources and Capabilities

24. According to ITIL best practice, what is considered to be at the core of Service
Management?
ANS: Transforming resources into valuable services

25. Within the Service Design stage of the Service Lifecycle, which role is responsible
for defining the Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to evaluate the effectiveness and
efficiency of the process?
ANS: Process Owner

26. What helps improve the quality of service, reduce costs, and reduce risks by reducing
complexity and uncertainty?
ANS: Service Automation

27. What type of Service Desk merges several Service Desks into a single location?
ANS: Centralized Service Desk

28. Which of the following manages the service assets to support the other Service
Management processes?
ANS: Service Asset and Configuration Management

29. Which process is responsible for conducting regular Risk Analysis and management
exercises?
ANS: IT Service Continuity Management

30. What value does Service Level Management provide to the business?
ANS: It provides a consistent interface to the business for all service-related issues

31. Which of the following roles is responsible to the customer for the initiation,
transition, and ongoing maintenance and support of a particular service?
ANS: Service Owner

32. Demand Management is influenced by what?

ANS: Patterns of business activity

33. Which of the following options should be the single point of contact for IT users on a
day-by-day basis?
ANS: Service Desk

34. Service Management consists of which two main components?

ANS: Functions and Processes

35. What do the four P's of Service Design represent?

ANS: People, Process, Products, Partners

36. Which option is not a consideration for the Prepare for Execution phase of the Service
Strategy process?
ANS: Define the market

37. What are the four work methods associated with Service Portfolio Management?
ANS: Define, Analyze, Approve, Charter

38. What Service Management process has within its scope of responsibility to provide
and maintain accurate information on all services that are being transitioned or have been
transitioned to the live environment?
ANS: Service Catalogue Management

39. What terms represents a model that helps clearly define roles and responsibilities
when designing a service or process?
ANS: RACI
-The roles of the RACI model include the following:

- Responsible: the person or people responsible for getting the job done
- Accountable: only one person can be accountable for each task
- Consulted: the people who are consulted and whose opinions are sought
- Informed: the people who are kept up-to-date on progress

40. What is the responsibility of the Service Owner within the Service Transition stage of
the lifecycle?
ANS: Identifying opportunities for service improvements, discussing with the
customer and raising the RFC for assessment if appropriate
41. What is not an objective of Supplier Management?
ANS: Guarantee performance of suppliers

42. What type of metrics captures Key Performance Indicator (KPI) and Critical Success
Factor (CSF) information?
ANS: Process metrics

43. What would not be considered a result of good Service Design practice?
ANS: Improve cost effectiveness of delivering IT services without sacrificing
customer service

44. What represents services that are presently active in the Service Operation phase of
the Lifecycle as well as those that are approved to be offered to customers?
ANS: Service Catalogue

45. What term best describes a Service Desk?

ANS: Role

46. What Service Management process is Configuration Item (CI) under the control?
ANS: Change Management

47. What are Utility and Warranty combined to create?

ANS: Value

48. What role is responsible for operations control and facilities management including,
backups & restores, job scheduling and performance of maintenance on behalf of
technical or application management teams?
ANS: Operations Management

49. What represents one of the main purposes of Service Transition?

ANS: Provide good-quality knowledge and information so that Change, Release,
and Deployment Management can expedite effective decisions about promoting a
release through the test environments and into production.

50. What describes the practice of providing quick and effective access to standard
services that business staff can use to improve their productivity or the quality of business
services and products?
ANS: Request Fulfillment

51. What is the definition of a Service Within the framework of ITIL?

ANS: A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating the outcomes
customers want to achieve without the ownership of specific risk or costs

52. What process is responsible for ensuring that an agreed level of IT service is provided
for all current IT services and that future services are delivered to agreed achievable
targets?
ANS: Service Level Management

53. What does not represent a Service Request?

ANS: A user reports they are having trouble using an application after a network
outage

54. What describes an action that can help balance service stability with service
responsiveness?
ANS: Implement SLM to avoid situations where business, IT managers and staff
negotiate informal agreements

55. What Service Management process is responsible for completing regular Business
Impact Analysis (BIA) exercises?
ANS: IT Service Continuity Management

56. What element of Continual Service Improvement helps to fill the gap between what
the customer wants, needs and are willing to pay for?
ANS: Service gap model

57. What is not a purpose of Release and Deployment Management?

ANS: Optimize overall business risk

58. What describes an objective of Capacity Management?

ANS: Ensure that proactive measures to improve the performance of services are
implemented wherever it is cost-justifiable to do so

59. What is the Service Owner's responsibility?

ANS: To be accountable to the IT director or Service Management director for the
delivery of the service

60. Which role acts as the prime customer contact for all service-related enquiries and
issues?
ANS: Service Owner

61. How is market space defined in the Service Strategy process?

ANS: The ability to facilitate a set of business outcomes

62. Which statement is true regarding achieving balance between service priorities and
business priorities?
ANS: Internal and External priorities should be considered together.

63. What type of tools can help to validate designs before they are developed and
implemented, to ensure that they satisfy and fulfill their intended requirements?
ANS: Service Design Tools

64. Which of the following describes an Event?

ANS: Any detectable or discernible occurrence that has significance for the
management of the IT Infrastructure or the delivery of IT service and evaluation of
the impact a deviation might cause to the services

65. What would help to identify the potential impact on the delivery of services due to
failed changes and their impact on service assets and configurations?
ANS: The 7 R's of Change Management

- Who RAISED the change?

- What is the REASON for the change?
- What is the RETURN required from the change?
- What are the RISKS involved in the change?
- What RESOURCES are required to deliver the change?
- Who is RESPONSIBLE for the build, test, and implementation of the change?
- What is the RELATIONSHIP between this change and other changes?

66. What best describes the characteristics of a Process?

ANS: Measurable, Specific Results, Customers, Respond to Events

67. What process verifies that the user requesting access to an application is who they say
they are and have a legitimate requirement for that service?
ANS: Access Management

68. What would a company be considered that focuses heavily on upgrading hardware to
the newest models available and often misses SLAs for incident resolution targets?
ANS: Extremely Proactive with Infrastructure requirements and extremely
Reactive with incident management

69. What would be considered a notification that indicates a scheduled workload has
been completed?
ANS: An Event

70. What information is required to determine the appropriate priority code to assign to
an incident?
ANS: Impact and Urgency

71. What is the 4th main activity in the Service Strategy process which includes: define
the market, develop the offerings, and prepare for execution.
ANS: Develop strategic assets

72. What describes ownership of a Service Request?

ANS: Service Desk

73. Combining the effect of what 2 terms represents Value creation for the customer?
ANS: Utility and Warranty

74. What is the main purpose of the Service Strategy stage of the service management
lifecycle?
ANS: To help transform service management into a strategic asset

75. What would not be considered a justification for implementing a Service Desk?
ANS: Faster resolutions of problems

76. What Configuration Item (CI) represents commitments and investments made by a
Service Provider across all customers and market spaces?
ANS: Service Portfolio

77. What is not contained within the Service Level Agreement?

ANS: Outline penalty clauses for not achieving service level targets

78. What is the custodian of technical knowledge and provides the actual resources to
support the ITSM Lifecycle?
ANS: Technical Management

79. What has as an objective to use adequate technical skills to maintain the technical
infrastructure in optimum condition?
ANS: Technical Management

80. What describes a benefit of the Incident Management process?

ANS: The Service Desk while handling incidents, can identify additional service or
training requirements found in IT or the business

81. What two types of Event monitoring?

ANS: Active and Passive

82. What Lifecycle process has the responsibility to execute and perform processes that
optimize the cost and quality of services?
ANS: Service Operation

83. What describes the addition, modification, or removal of an authorized, planned, or

supported service or service component and its associated documentation?
ANS: Service Change

84. What is the purpose of a Process Model?

ANS: To enable understanding and help articulate the distinctive features of a
process
85. What is the term used to describe the department, group, or team of people
responsible for performing the organization's day-to-day operational activities?
ANS: Operations Management

86. What type of customer can a Service Provider, provide services to?
ANS: Internal and External Customers

87. What acts as a blueprint for Service Management processes and functions?
ANS: Service Model

88. What would not be considered a benefit from Service Automation?

ANS: Reduced number of calls to the service desk

89. What does not represent one of the ITIL v3 Lifecycle core volumes?
ANS: Service Management

90. What describes a Function?

ANS: Units of organizations specialized to perform a certain type of work and
responsible for specific outcomes

91. When should a Known Error Record be raised?

ANS: As soon as it becomes useful to do so

92. What is NOT a source of good practice?

ANS: Service Strategy

93. What does not represent a technique used by Demand Management?

ANS: Supply and demand

94. Who decides what must be protected and the level of protection, within the context of
Information Security Management?
ANS: The Business

95. What document should Mandated Technical Standards be outlined as part of?
ANS: Formal Contract

96. What role owns the responsibility of IT Governance?

ANS: Executive management and Board of directors

97. What Service Lifecycle volume has one of its main goals described as, to identify and
manage risks so that they can be removed or mitigated before services go live"?
ANS: Service Design

98. What is not considered a strategic consideration of the Service Portfolio?

ANS: how do we get there?

99. What process is responsible for maintaining information about problems and the
appropriate workarounds and resolutions, so that the organization is able to reduce the
number and impact of incidents over time?
ANS: Problem Management

100. What process is the Definitive Media Library (DML) considered to be the
foundation?
ANS: Release and Deployment Management

101. What activity is the Process Owner not responsible for, Within the Service
Transition stage of the service lifecycle.
ANS: Acting as prime customer contact for all service-related inquiries and issues

102. What type of technology would allow operators to see at a glance overall IT service
performance and availability levels?
ANS: Dashboard

104. What is good service quality a balancing act between?

ANS: Quality of service versus cost of service

105. What process within Continual Service Improvement (CSI) involves the following
steps?

- Define what you should measure

- Define what you can measure
- Gather the data
- Process the data
ANS: 7 Step Improvement Process

106. What has the Help Desk just implemented when a user has called the help desk to
report that they are having a problem connecting to a database. The Help Desk has seen
this problem before, but no permanent solution has been implemented. The help desk
instructs the user on how to connect to another database with identical information?
ANS: Workaround

107. What statement describes a main objective of Availability Management?

ANS: Assist with the diagnosis and resolution of availability-related Incidents and
Problems.

108. What is the dominant pattern of interaction between the five core ITIL Service
Management Lifecycle volumes?
ANS: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and
Continual Service Improvement
109. How many levels of build and testing are represented by the Service V-model?
ANS: Five

- Level 1: Customer/business needs

- Level 2: Service requirements
- Level 3: Service solutions
- Level 4: Service release
- Level 5: Components and assemblies