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1 The diagram shows the ultrastructure of an animal cell.

What are the functions of the labeled structures?

synthesising secreting
transporting processing
proteins from digestive
proteins proteins
amino acids enzymes
A 2 1 4 3
B 1 4 2 3
C 2 3 4 1
D 1 3 2 4

2 Which part of a phospholipid molecule contributes most to the thickness of a cell surface

A Glycerol.
B Hydrocarbon chain.
C Hydrophilic head.
D Phosphate group.

3 Polymerisation is a process that

A creates bonds between amino acids in the formation of a peptide chain.

B involves two monomers to provide a hydroxyl (-OH) group each for the formation
of a covalent bond.
C involves joining fatty acids to a glycerol molecule.
D involves addition of water molecules.

4 The alpha helix of proteins is

A a part of the tertiary structure and is stabilized by disulphide bridges.

B a double helix.
C stabilized by hydrogen bonds and commonly found in fibrous proteins.
D found in some regions of globular proteins and stabilized by hydrophobic

5 In an investigation to determine the effect of temperature on the activity of an enzyme,

the time for all the substrate to disappear from a standard solution was recorded.

Which graph shows the results of this investigation?

6 The graph shows the effects of pH on the activity of the enzyme monoamine oxidase, as
measured by two different methods.

Which one of the following hypotheses is supported by these results?

A Both acid and strong alkali denature the enzyme.

B The optimum pH is alkaline and only acid denatures the enzyme.
C Strong alkali causes a reversible change in the tertiary structure of the enzyme.
D The change in the catalytic properties of the enzyme caused by acid is reversible.

7 The list below indicates some of the characteristic features of either mitosis or meiosis.

1 Chromosomes always line up along a metaphase plate

2 Daughter cells contain one of a homologous pair of chromosomes
3 Centromeres divide in all nuclear divisions
4 Formation of chiasmata
5 Daughter chromosomes are identical
6 Homologous chromosomes associate during synapsis

Which one of the following shows the correct events specific to each process?

Mitosis Meiosis
A 1 2 5 3 4 6
B 1 3 5 2 4 6
C 2 3 5 1 4 6
D 2 5 6 1 3 4

8 S and T are two identical cells. Only the X chromosomes are shown in these cells.
When these cells undergo meiosis to form gametes, non-disjunction of the chromosomes
occurred. In cell S, it occurred during meiosis I whereas in cell T, it occurred during
meiosis II.

Cell S Cell T
(nondisjunction at meiosis I ) (nondisjunction at meiosis II )

The diagrams below show some combination of X chromosome(s) in gametes.

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

Which of the following options shows correctly the type of gametes that is/are common
to both form of non-disjunction?

A (i) only.
B (ii) only.
C (i) and (iii) only.
D (ii) and (iv) only.
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9 In 1951, Chargaff analysed bovine thymus DNA and calculated the relative amounts of 39 Corn varieties are being developed in which the leaves produce proteins that are toxic to
the four nitrogenous bases. His results are shown in the table. insects. The DNA coding for these toxic proteins was inserted into a corn chromosome
via a bacterial plasmid. Many people opposed to this process.
purines pyrimidines
adenine base 1 base 2 base 3 Which objection is not biologically valid?
28.2% 21.5% 27.8% 22.5%
A Beneficial insects may be killed if they eat genetically modified corn.
What are the bases 1, 2 and 3? B Genes for antibiotic resistance are present in plasmids and these genes may be
pass to harmful bacteria.
base 1 base 2 base 3 C Hybridisation may transfer the bacterial genes from corn to weeds, giving the
A cytosine thymine guanine weed species new and harmful characteristics.
B guanine cytosine thymine D Mutations may be caused in cattle or humans that eat the genetically modified
C guanine thymine cytosine corn.
D thymine cytosine guanine

40 Each of the statements is concerned with the success or failure of gene therapy as a
10 The following events occur in the replication of DNA: permanent cure for genetic disorders.

1 Bonds between complementary bases break 1 Somatic cells cannot pass the modified gene on to any offspring.
2 Bonds between complementary bases form 2 The treatment does not last long as the treated cells die and are replaced.
3 DNA molecule uncoils 3 The treatment does not result in all cells having the therapeutic gene.
4 Opposite strands separate
5 Sugar-phosphate bonds form Which statement(s) explain the limited success of gene therapy as a permanent cure for
6 Free nucleotides align with complementary nucleotides on each strand genetic disorders in human populations?

In which order do these events take place? A 1 only.

B 1 and 3.
A 1 3 6 4 2 5 C 2 and 3.
B 3 1 4 6 2 5 D 1, 2 and 3.
C 3 6 1 4 5 3
D 4 3 1 6 5 2

11 The production of functional mRNA is controlled by a series of enzymes. Which enzyme

catalyses the removal of introns during the production of functional mRNA?

enzyme A enzyme B
DNA template DNA unzipped to transcribed mRNA
(gene) exposed two strands produced (pre-mRNA)

enzyme C
enzyme D
functional spliced mRNA
mRNA (mature mRNA)
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37 The figure below represents a length of DNA and its restriction sites for restriction 12 The sequence of bases on a messenger RNA molecule is shown.
enzymes Spe I, Eco RI, Bgl II and Hin dIII.

It was transcribed from one strand of DNA.

What is the sequence of bases on the complementary, non-transcribed strand of DNA?

Incubation of this length of DNA in a tube containing
A Spe I would result in three pieces of DNA. B A T C G A A G T T C G T
B Hin dIII would result in two pieces of DNA. C T A G C T T C A A G C A
C Spe I and Eco RI would result in five pieces of DNA. D U G C U U G A A G C U A
D Bgl II and Hin dIII would result in four pieces of DNA.

13 Which of the following would cause phenotypic variation among organisms of the same
38 A restriction enzyme restriction site may be present or absent in a particular 200 kb genotype?
region of human chromosome 1.
A Mutation.
B Continuous variation within the species.
C Exposure to different environments.
D Different varieties of the same species.

14 In a species of plant, the allele for hairy stems is dominant to the allele for smooth stems.
The allele for purple stems is dominant to the allele for green stems. A plant was self
fertilised and the offspring appeared in the ratio 9 hairy, purple stem: 3 hairy, green stem:
3 smooth, purple stem: 1 smooth, green stem.

Which of the following gel pattern after digestion with the enzyme will be obtained if the The offspring with smooth, green stems were crossed to all the other offspring.
DNA of a person is heterozygous for this restriction site?
What proportion of these crosses would be expected to produce offspring in the ratio
1 hairy, purple stem: 1 hairy, green stem: 1 smooth, purple stem: 1 smooth, green stem?

A 9/15.
B 6/15.
C 4/15.
D 3/15.

15 How many different kinds of gametes can be produced by an individual with the
genotype AABbCCddEeFf?

A 4.
B 8.
C 16.
D 64.
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16 In humans, there is a dominant allele that causes vitiligo, where small-unpigmented 33 Which of the following describes correctly the difference between trp operon and lac
spots appear on the body. Also, there is a recessive allele for another gene that causes operon?
albinism, which causes the entire body to be unpigmented. Vitiligo cannot be seen in
albinos. A man with vitiligo had an albino mother and normal father. trp operon lac operon
A Produces polycistronic mRNA Produces monocistronic mRNA
If the man has a child by a phenotypically normal skinned woman who had an albino B Tryptophan binds to operator Allolactose binds to operator
father, what is the probability of having a phenotypically normal child? C Repressible Inducible
D Transcription occurs in the presence of Transcription occurs in the absence of
A 0. tryptophan glucose
B 1/8.
C 1/4.
D 3/8. 34 Four different genes are regulated in different ways.

Gene 1 undergoes tissue-specific patterns of alternative splicing.

17 Epistasis is different from multiple alleles at a loci, in that epistasis Gene 2 is part of a group of structural genes controlled by the same regulatory
A shows a 9:3:3:1 ratio in progeny of a dihybrid cross. Gene 3 codes for a repressor protein which acts at an operator site 25 nucleotides
B is characterized by heterozygosity at two or more loci. downstream.
C is the phenotypic result of having different alleles at one locus. Gene 4 in some circumstances is not expressed when a repressor is bound to a silencer.
D results when two or more genes interact to determine a phenotype.
Which role in the table correctly identifies which genes are prokaryotic and which are
18 In which taxonomic group are all the organisms most similar to each other?
Prokaryotic Eukaryotic
A Class. A 1 and 2 3 and 4
B Family. B 1 and 3 2 and 4
C Genus. C 2 and 3 1 and 4
D Order. D 2 and 4 1 and 3

19 Which of the following describes the process of natural selection?

35 Which of the following statement correctly describes gene expression in eukaryotic cells?
A Change from simple to more complex organisms.
A Deacetylation of histones leads to transcriptional repression.
B Differential reproductive success between genotypes.
B Inhibitor of proteasome can cause prolonged expression of a gene.
C Increase in the size of a population.
C Deacetylation of histones and DNA methylation leads to transcriptional activation.
D Random occurrence of new mutations.
D In eukaryote gene expression, transcriptional initiation is the major point of
20 Modifications in the organisation of the basic pentadactyl limb structure found in
vertebrates provides good evidence for the principle of
36 Some patients who suffer from a severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) have
inadequate levels of ADA.
A Adaptive radiation.
B Convergent evolution.
In the ADA gene, the sequence encoding the start and stop codons are separated by
C Genetic drift.
approximately 32,000 base pairs and yet the primary translation product of the gene is
D Inheritance of acquired characteristics.
only 364 amino acids long. Which feature or mechanism best resolves this apparent

A Insertional inactivation by retrovirus.

B Addition of nucleotides upstream of promoter.
C A misense mutation in the ADA gene.
D Splicing of mRNA.
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31 A person infected with HIV was monitored for several years for the level of T cells and 21 In haemoglobin, the amino acid sequence of the beta polypeptide chains differs among
HIV particles. The results were summarised in the following graph. the species which possess the molecule. The beta chains of the species shown in the
table below were analysed. The number of amino acid differences between Man and
each of the species was counted and ranged between 8 and 127.

Which one of the following shows the differences which would be consistent with the
proposed evolutionary relationships between the organisms?

Amino acid differences

dog earthworm frog lamprey
A 8 67 15 127 125
B 15 127 67 125 8
C 67 15 127 8 67
D 125 8 67 15 127

22 In an experiment, chloroplast extracts were first treated with a chemical that ‘snatches’
What conclusion cannot be drawn from the graph? away the electron that was accepted by the electron acceptor in photosystem I. The
extracts were then treated with 2 hours of light and were provided with ample carbon
A T cell concentration increases in response to HIV infection, then HIV particle level dioxide and water.
drops in the first year.
B The immune system has effectively been destroyed after nine years of infection. Which of the following correctly shows the products that were formed after the
C Since HIV mutate, increasing the number of drugs used increases the chances experiment?
that one of the drugs may be able to inhibit the action caused by a random
change. O2 ATP Reduced NADP Glucose
D T cell concentration increases in the first year of infection and decreases
A + + – –
B – + + +
C + – – –
D – – + –
32 The following diagram shows a cross section through an influenza virus.
Key: (+) = present, (–) = absent

23 Dinitrophenol is a metabolic poison that can lodge within the thylakoid membranes of
chloroplasts. It then provides an alternate route for H+ ions to diffuse across the thylakoid
membranes. In what way will the Calvin cycle (dark reaction) be affected in chloroplasts
poisoned with dinitrophenol?

A No effect since Calvin cycle is an enzyme-controlled process.

B The rate of Calvin cycle will increase because pH in the stroma will drop towards the
C The rate of Calvin cycle will decrease with the accumulation of glycerate-3-
phosphate (GP).
D The rate of Calvin Cycle will decrease with the accumulation of triose phosphate

Which of the following statements is true about R? 24 To what extent can glucose be oxidized by the soluble portion of cytoplasm of muscle
cells, from which all organelles have been removed?
A R is derived from the host cell.
B R is made up capsomeres. A Acetyl-CoA but no further.
C R required host cell machinery for replication. B Carbon dioxide and water.
D R recognises and binds to specific receptor molecules on the host cell surface. C Lactate but no further.
D Pyruvate but no further.

25 The figure below shows an electron micrograph of an organelle. 27 Which of the following is not an accurate statement about hormones?

A Not all glands produce hormones.

B Most hormones move through the circulatory system to their destination.
C Target cells have specific protein receptors for hormones.
D Steroid hormones often function as neurotransmitters.

28 The diagram below shows a myelinated axon.

How does the myelin sheath increase the speed of impulse transmission along the axon?

A It ensures that the ions are kept close to the axon membrane in region Y.
B It insulates the axon, so increasing the potential at regions X and Z.
C It restricts the change in potential difference to regions X and Z.
D It promotes a change in potential difference in region Y.

29 Certain drugs act at the synapses and affect the action of neurotransmitter substances.
The table below shows the effects of four different drugs on a synapse.

Match the following processes with the structures labelled P – S above.

Drug Effect
Breakdown of Oxidative I Uncontrolled release of acetylcholine
Temporary Formation of
fructose-6- phosphorylation II Competes with acetylcholine at the receptor sites
lowering of pH water
phosphate only III Inhibits the enzyme acetylcholinesterase
A Q R S P IV Inhibits the opening of voltage-gated sodium ion channels
C S P Q R Which combination of drugs will reduce the possibility of the formation of an excitatory
D Q P R S postsynaptic potential?

A I, II, IV.
26 What is a G protein? B II, III, IV.
C III and IV only.
A A specific type of membrane-receptor protein. D II and IV only.
B A tyrosine-kinase relay protein.
C A guanine nucleotide that converts between GDP and GTP to activate and
inactivate relay proteins. 30 Which of the following correctly describe a prokaryotic genome?
D A protein bound to the cytoplasmic side of the membrane that becomes activated
when it binds GTP. DNA associated with DNA in
Circular DNA Plasmid DNA
histone proteins organelles
A ! x x !
B ! ! x !
C x x ! x
D x ! ! x
Key:! = present, x = absent

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