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Institute for All Competitive Exams

 REASONING / MENTAL APTITUDE 2 3 6 10 14 17

COMPLETE THE SERIES BALANCING SERIES ALPHABET & NUMBER ARRAYS BLOOD RELATIONS CODING - DECODING DIRECTIONAL ORIENTATION SERIES: WRONG NUMBERS POINT THE ODD MAN OUT RANKING MANIPULATIONS SIMPLE LOGIC SYMBOLS MANIPULATION VERBAL ANALOGIES SYLLOGISM ANALYTICAL BLOCKS I ANALYTICAL BLOCKS II ANALYTICAL BLOCKS III ANALYTICAL BLOCKS IV ANALYTICAL BLOCKS V INPUT-OUTPUT NON VERBAL REASONING I NON VERBAL REASONING II NON VERBAL REASONING III

21
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27
30
32
35
39

42

45

49

53

57

61

65

70

71

72

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Reasoning / Mental Aptitude

How to Solve Questions Based on Number Series

Most of the number series can be solved by addition and subtraction (Multiplication and Division being the Supersets for these). In plain English that means you need to find what to add or subtract to find the next (or missing) number in the series. We will understand the concept by solving a few questions and then you can attempt some on your own.

Example 1: Find the next number in the series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15,
Looking at the series we find that the series is an “INCREASING” sequence.
So we try to find what is being added. Here the series is
1, 1+2, 1+2+3, 1+2+3+4
or Add 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on to the last number.
1+2 =3, 3+3 = 6, 6+4 = 10, 10+5 = 15
So the answer is 15+ 6 = 21.
Practice Question 1: 21, 25, 33, 49, 81,
(a)
145
(b) 129
(c)
113 (d) 97

Ans (a)

Example 2: Find the next number in the series: 87, 80, 74, 69, 65, Answer:

Looking at the series we find that the series is a “DECREASING” sequence.
So we try to find what is being subtracted. The series is
87, 87 - 7 = 80, 80 – 6 = 74, 74 – 5 = 69, 69 – 4 = 65
65 - 3 = 62
Practice Question 2: 66, 36, 21,
(a)
13. 5
(b) 14. 5
(c)
13
(d) 14
Ans (a)
Example 3: Find the next number in the series: 40, 15, 30, 25, 20, 35,
Looking at the series we find that the series is a “MIXED” sequence.
By mixed series we mean that it is composed of two different series.
i. e. 40, 30, 20, … (decreasing) and 15, 25, 35,
(increasing)

The trick here is to know which series will give us the answer. We see that the missing number belongs to the decreasing series. Ignoring the other series the answer is 20 – 10 = 10

Practice Question 3: 7. 5, 5, 15, 4, 30, 3, 60, 2,

 (a) 1 (b) 75 (c) 120 (d) 135

Ans (c)

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Complete the Series

Part – I (Number Series)

1. 12, 32, 72, 152, ?

 (a) 312 (b) 325 (c) 515 (d) 613 2. 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9, ? (a) 54 (b) 60 (c) 66 (d) 72 3. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, ? (b) 44 (a) 37 (c) 50 4. 2, 15, 41, 80, ? (a) 111 (c) 121 5. 8, 10, 14, 18, ?, 34, 50, 66 (a) 24 (c) 26 6. 1, 2, 6, 24, ? (a) 60 (c) 120 7. 2, 3, 8, 63, ? (d) 55 (b) 120 (d) 132 (b) 25 (d) 27 (b) 95 (d) 150 (a) 1038 (b) 1998 (c) 3008 (d) 3968 8. 95, 115. 5, 138, ?, 189 (a) 154. 5 (b) 162. 5 (c) 164. 5 (d) 166. 5

9. 4, 10, ?, 82, 244, 730

 (a)24 (b) 28 (c) 10. (a) (c) 11. 77 4, 32, 128, ? 128 192 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? (d) 218 (b) 144 (d) 256 76 74 300 420 (a) (c) 12. (a) (c) 13. (a) 375 (b) 75 (d) 72 (b) 336 (d) 525 (b) 420 24, 60, 120, 210, ? 165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ? (c) 435 (d) 390 14. 5, 17, 37, 65, ?, 145 (a) 95 (b) 97 (c) 99 (d) 101 15. 9, 11, 20, 31, ?, 82 (a) 41 (b) 51 (c) 60 (d) 71 16. 5, 16, 49, 104, ? (a) 115 (b) 148 (c) 170 (d) 181 17. 34, 18. 10, 6, 4, ?

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 18. 462, 420, 380, ?, 306 (a) 322 (b) 332 (c) 342 (d) 352 19. 3, 8, 22, 63, 185, ? (a) 550 (b) 310 (c) 295 (d) 285

20. 150, 120, 105, ?

(a)

(c)

100

97. 5

(b) 95 (d) 92. 5

21.
(a)
(c)
22.
(a)
(c)
23.
(a)
(c)

Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ? R, D S, E Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, G, ? N, C O, C W, V, T, S, Q, P, N, M, ?, ? I, J J, K Z, Y, X, U, T, S, P, O, N, K, ?, ? H, G I, H b e d f ? h j ? l i m i n AZ, BY, CX, ? EF IJ AZ, CX, FU, ? IR JQ

24.

(a)

(c)

25.

(a)

(c)

26.

(a)

(c)

27.

(a)

(c)

28.

(a)

(c)

29.

(a)

(c)

AZ, GT, MN, ? YB KF SH BF, CH, ?, HO, LT DN EK

(b) R, E
(d) Q, D

PART – II (Alphabet Series)

(b) N, D (d) O, D

(b) J, I (d) K, J

(b) H, I (d) J, I

(b) m i (d) j m

(b) GH

(d) DW

(b) W

(d) KP

(b) RX

(d) TS

(b) EL

(d) EM

 30. CE, GI, KM, OQ, ? (a) TW (c) SU 31. BD, GI, LN, QS, ? (a) TV (c) WX 32. AD, EH, IL, ?, QT (a) LM (c) MP 33. JE, LH, OL, SQ, ? (a) WV (c) VW

(b) TV

(d) RT

(b) UW

(d) VX

(b) MN

(d) OM

(b) WX

(d) XW

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Institute for All Competitive Exams

34.

(a)

(c)

35.

(a)

(c)

36.

(a)

(c)

37.

(a)

DF, GJ, KM, NQ, RT, ? UW XZ cx fu ir ? ol ri lo no OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ? SYJ SXJ eac gce ieg ? jhi kgi ejo tyd ins xch ? nrw msx CAT, FDW, IGZ, ? KJA LHD BEH, KNQ, TWZ, ? IJL BDF

(b) YZ

(d) UX

(b) mn

(d) op

(b) TXI

(d) SXI

(b) kij

(c)
38.
(a)
(c)
39.
(a)
(c)
40.
(a)
(c)
(d) khi
(b) mrw
(d) nsx

(b) KTC

(d) LJC

(b) CFI

6. cdbbd
16. ddcac
26. dcccc
31. dcdda
36. dcbdb

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Balancing Series

Directions (Q 1-30): The following questions are based on letter series. In each question some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives among the five given under each question. Find the correct alternative in each question.

1. a_bbc_aab_aa_abba_

1. cabab
2. bacba
3. bbaaa
4. aabba
5. ababa
nc_dcn_cddc_n_dcnn_d
2.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
3.
cdndc
dnncc
dcndd
nccdn
cndnc
aac_bba_cc_baa_cb_
1.
2.
3.
4.
acbac
bacbc
abaac
bcacb
5.
cabcb

4.

_aabb_a_ab_a

1.
bbaa
2.
abab
3.
baba
4.
baab
5.
None of these
5.
a_bbaa_baa_baab_aab
1.
abab
2.
baba
3.
abbb
4.
bbaa
5.
aaab
6.
_a_b_aaab_aa
1.
bbbb
2.
aaab
3.
baab
4.
abab
5.
None of these
 7 ab_d_aaba_na_badna_badna 1 babda 2 badna 3 dbanb 4 dabdb 5 andaa 8 _baa_aab_a_a_baa 1 ababa 2 baabb 3 aabba 4 abaab

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 5 bbaab 9 _a_b_abaa_bab_ab 1 aaabb 2 babba 3 ababb 4 babab 5 bbaab

10. _bbm_amb_m_a_bb

1. mbabm

2. abmab
3. mabam
4. ambbm
5. babmb
11.
cab_a_c_bc_bc_b_ab
1. bcbbab
2. bcbbbc
3. acacab
4. cbaaac
5. None of these
12.
ab_cba_bcc_aabccb_abc_ba
1. caaaa
2. aabaa

3. cabac

4. cbaac

5. None of these

13. cccbb_aa_cc_bbaa_c

1. acbc

2. baca

3. baba
4. acba
5. None of these
14.
aa_aaa_aaaa_aaaa_b
1.
baaa
2.
bbaa
3.
bbbb
4.
bbba
5.
None of these
15.
ccb_c_bbc_b_cc_
_ccbb
1.
bccbbb
2.
bcccbb
3.
aaaaba

4. bbbbbb

5. None of these

16. ab_abb_bba_b

1. aba

2. bba

3. bab

4. baa

5. aab

17. a_b_aaa_bbaa

1. aab

2. bab

3. bbb

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Institute for All Competitive Exams

4. bba

5. aba

18. baa_aab_aba_

1. aba

2. bba

3. baa

4. aaa

5. bbb

19. ba_b_bbabb_b

1. aba
2. aab
3. bba
4. aaa
5. baa
20.
ImmI_ n
1. apqqm
2. mnopm
3. mnmnm
4. mmnnm
5. mmnmn
21.
aa_aaa_aaaa_aaaa_b
1.
baaa

2. cabc

3. cbcb

4. bbcc

5. None of these

22. ab_baabc_aabcb_abcb_

1. bcaa

2. cbaa
3. abca
4. aacb
5. None of these
23.
aba_baca_ba_bacaabac_aca
1.
cacb
2.
ccab
3.
cabc
4.
abcc
5.
None of these
24.
aa_bbb_ccaaab_bc_c
1.
bbcc
2.
bccc

3. ccbb

4. acbc

5. None of these

25. a_aa_baa_bb_aa

1. baab

2. bbab

3. bbba

4. abbb

5. None of these

26. _bcbca_bcb_aabc_ca

1. acbb

2. aacb

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Institute for All Competitive Exams

3. abcc

4. abbc

5. None of these

27. ab_aababb_aba_ba_b

1. bbaa

2. abba

3. aaab

4. baba

5. None of these

28.
_aabab_ab_ab_bba
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
baaa
abaa
aaab
bbaa
None of these
29.
ab_bab_b_bab_
1. bbbb
2. aaaa
3. abab
4. aabb
5. None of these
30.
a_bcab_cabc_aab_abbc

1. abcc

2. abbc

3. cbaa

4. aabb

5. None of these

1: 12523
6: 45523
11: 43241
16: 35353
21: 42142
26: 24421

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Alphabet & Number Arrays

Directions (Q 1-15): Answer the following questions on the basis of the following alphabet.

A

B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

How many “e’s” are in the following line?

1.

e

c e r e c i e n u c i e i r e c i e v u e i u v e e c e e v e

1.
4
2.
5
3.
6
4.
13
2.
How many “e’s” are preceded by consonants?
l e i e u i c e u n u e c i e v v i e c d l e n i e u i i e e c
1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
4
3.
How many “p’s” are before t?
q
p f q q p t l p f g p p l l f f p l t p q r q p r g p p q p p l t p q
1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
4

4. How many “o’s” are followed by a vowel in:

Toothsome morphologist in odorous hardbound loophole boeotian.

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 5
5. Find the total number of “u’s” in the following:
Blue, culex, pront, vacuum, curry, buoy, celluloid, cuisine, cumulous, effluence, annual, hydraulic,
innuendo, mould.
1. 14
2. 16
3.
18
4.
20
6.
Find the total number, of ‘u’s preceded by vowel?
querulous, surroundings, turquoise, auricular, plaquet, scurrilous.
1.
1
2.
2
3.
3
4.
4

7. How many ‘n’s’ are between the consonants?

m m n c e e o u n i a n n o u n p u n t o n a n i n

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

8. How many ’t’s” have “f” before and after them?

t f l f t f f t t v h t l t i n o p t s l t e f t f f t m i l

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 4 4 9 Refer Q #8. How many “f’s” are followed by “t”? 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4

10. A B C D E F G H

In the alphabet, if the odd letters are taken out, find the middle letter of the remaining;

X Y Z

1. M
2. N
3. P
4.
11.
L
Write the letter which is as far away from the beginning of the alphabet as T is from the end of
the alphabet.
1.
2.
3.
4.
12.
H
G
I
K
In the alphabets from A to Z which is the third letter to the right of the letter which is between
K and S?
1. Q
2. S

3. T

4. U

13. What is the letter that is as far from the beginning of the alphabet as the second letter before W

is from the end?

1. H

2. G
3. F
4. H
14.
Write down the third letter after N.
1.
L
2.
P
3.
R
4.
15.
Q
In the alphabets from A-Z which letter of the alphabet is eighth letter to the right of the letter
which is tenth to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
1.
M
2.
N
3.
O

4. W

Directions (Q 16-19): Study the following letter-number sequence and answer the questions

given below :

K W C R M 9 F A 2 H S T Y 6 G L O 4 X U Q E J 7 N P D

16. If every alternate position is dropped in the above sequence beginning with dropping ‘W’,

which of the following will be second to the right of the sixth position from your left ?

1. G

2. A

3. Y

4. 2

5. None of these

Institute for All Competitive Exams

17. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence

with reference to the above group of letters-numbers?

WRF, MFH, AHY, ?

1. 6LX

2. HTG

3. SYL

4. HYL

5. None of these

18.
Which of the following will be fourth to the right of the fifteenth letter/ number from your
right?
1.
4
2.
3.
4.
5.
19.
O
L
H
None of these
If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the fifth, the eighth, the twenty-second and the
twenty-fifth letters from left in the above series, which of the following will be the first letter of that
word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer. If more than one such word can be
1. N
2. M
3.
A

4. X

5. P

20. For the sequence: 6 4 2 5 5 6 7 8 8 7 8 8 9 6 5 4 2 3 4 8 4 8 5 1 2 0 4, how many times an odd

digit is sandwiched between even digit?

1. once

2.
twice
3.
thrice
4.
never
5.
none of these
21.
How many “5’s” are preceded by a perfect square digit but not succeeded by a perfect cube
digit?
1
9 5 1 8 4 1 1 1 5 1 8 9 1 4 5 1 1 1 4 8 5 9 1 4 18 5 4 1 4 9 8 4 5 4 4 9 5 8
1.
none
2.
one
3.
two
4.
three
22.
In how many cases the sum of two successive digits exceeds 11?
8
4 3 5 6 4 5 6 4 7 5 6 3 5 4 8 9 4 3 8 5 4 8 1
1.
4

2. 5

3. 6

4. 7

23. Look at the word PNEUMONIA. Cross out all the vowels. In the remaining word

1. the letters are in alphabetic order

2. the letters are in reverse alphabetic order

3. no letter is repeated

4. could be rearranged to form a meaningful word

5. none of these

24. How many pairs of letters in the word PUSILLANIMOUS exist, which have as many letters

between them in this word as they have in the alphabet?

1. 1

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2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

25. If all these choices are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary, which word would occupy the middle position? 1. whilst

2. whale

3. wharf

4. while
Answer Key (Alphabet & Number Arrays)
1: 43142
6: 31222
11: 22342
16: 13254
21: 34534

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Number of Questions: 15

Blood Relations

Suggested Time: 15 Min

Directions (Q 1-15): Attempt these questions to the best of your judgement:

1. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s father.”

How is the gentleman related to Deepak?
3.
4.
5.
1. Father
2. Grandfather
Uncle
Brother-in-law
None of these
2.
Introducing a woman, a man said, “Her only brother is the only son of my father”. How is the
woman related to that man’s father?
1.
Wife
2.
Sister
3.
Daughter
4.
Mother
5.
3.
Niece
Introducing Sunita, Ajay said, “She is the wife of my mother’s only son”. How is Sunita related to
Ajay?
1.
Wife
2.
Sister
3.
Sister-in-law

4.

5.
None of these
4.
Pointing to a photograph Manoj told Ankita, ”Her granddaughter Medha is my niece.” How the
lady in the photograph is related to Manoj?
1. Sister
2. Sister-in-law
3. Aunt
4.
Mother-in-law
5.
None of these
5.
Vijay said, “Kamala is the daughter of only daughter of my grandmother”. Vijay is Kamala’s?
1.
Son
2.
Brother or Sister
3.
Uncle
4.
Father
5.
None of these

6. A is the widow of B, B and C were the only children of E, C is unmarried and is a doctor. D is the

grand daughter of E and studies science. How is D related to A?

 1 Aunt 2 Daughter 3 Sister 4 Sister-in-law 7 A is brother of B, B is the brother of C, C is the husband of D. E is the father of A. How is D

related to E?

1. Daughter-in-law

2. Daughter

3. Sister

Institute for All Competitive Exams

4. Uncle

8. B is the aunt of C and A is the husband of B. B is the sister of D. How is A related to D?

1. Uncle

2. Brother in Law

3. Father

4.
Aunt
9.
A is the husband of B. B is the aunt of C. D is the brother of B. How is D related to A?
1.
Brother-in-law
2.
Uncle
3.
Aunt
4.
Nephew
10.
Arun is the father of Rohit. Rohit is brother of Mala. Mala is wife of Dalip. How is Dalip related
to Rohit?
1. Brother-in-law
2. Father-in-law
3. Son
4.
11.
Uncle
B is C’s wife’s husband’s brother. A is the sister of B. D is the sister of C. How is B related to A?
1. Sister –in-law
2. Brother
3. Daughter
4. Wife

12. A is the mother of ‘D’ and sister of B. B has a daughter ‘C’ who is married to ‘F’. G is the

husband of A. How is G related to D?

1. Husband

2. Son

3. Father

4.
Uncle
13.
Atul is the son of Zamir. Alka is the daughter of Aman. Sheela is the wife of Aman. Mohan is the
son of Sheela. How is Alka related to Mohan?
1. Sister
2. Uncle
4.
3. Son
Father
A is the brother of B and C. D is the C’s mother. E is A’s father. On the basis of this information
14.
point out which of the following statements CANNOT be definitely true?
1.
E is D’s husband
2.
E is B’s father
3.
A is D’s son
4.
B is E’s son
5.
D is A’s mother

15. B is the husband of A. B is the father of C. D is the son of A. How is D related to C?

1. Wife

2. Husband

3. Brother

4. Uncle

Directions (Q 16-20): All the six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are travelling together.

 B is the son of C, but C is not the mother of B. A and C are married couple. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B.

16. How many male members are there in the family?

1. 1

2. 3

3. 2

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4. 4

5. 5

17. Who is the mother of B?

1. D

2. F

3. E

4. A

5. None of these

18. How many children does A have?

3.
4.
5.
1. One
2. Two
Three
Four
None of these
19.
Who is the wife of E?
1. A
2. F
3. B
4. Cant find
5. None of these
20. Which of the following is a pair of females?
1.
AE

2. BD

3. DF

5. None of these

1: 33155
6: 21211
11: 23143
16: 44354

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Coding - Decoding

Number of Questions: 30

Suggested Time: 30 Min

1.

If GOLFER is coded as HNMEFQ, then HUNGER will be coded as

1.
ITOFFQ
2.
IVOHFS
3.
ITODFQ
4.
TIDOQF
2.
If ASHHGU is coded as BRIGHT, then DARK will be coded as
1.
2.
3.
4.
3.
LBCQ
BLCQ
CBQL
QLBC
If GOLFER is coded as EOJFCR then STUCK will be coded as
1.
2.
3.
4.
4.
UTCWM
UTWCM
QTSCI
QTCIS
If GOLFER is coded as IRPKKY, decode of HRVHK will be coded as
1.
FORTS
2.
FORCE
3.
FIRST
4.
FEWER

5.

If HIGHLIGHT is coded as GJFIKJFIS then LIMELIGHT will be coded as

1.
KJKLKJFIS
2.
KLJFKJFIS
3.
KJLFKJFIS
4.
JKFLKJFIS
6.
If ‘CERTAIN’ is coded as ‘XVIGZRM’. Then ‘MUNDANE’ will be coded as
1.
NFMWZMX
2.
NFMWZMV
3.
VMZWMFN
4.
MFMXZMV
7.
If PEKING is coded as ODJHMF, the code for SIDNEY is
1.
RHCMDX
2.
DINSEY
3.
NIDSEY
4.
YENCIS
8. If RETREAT is coded as TGVTGCV, the decoded for CFXCPEG stands for
 1 ADMARCH 2 ADVANCE 3 ATTARAT 4 SITAPUR 9 If LONDON is coded as MPOEPO then decipher PARIS 1 QBSJT 2 SPNF 3 CFSMJO 4 NPTCXP

10. If FOUR is coded as 1234, FIVE is coded as 1567 and Ten is coded as 879. Then FURNITURE

can be coded as

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 1 134958347 2 125849437 3 124557893 4 124958347 11 If LACE is code as 6543 DEEP is coded as 2338. Encode PALACE.

1. 586453

2. 685534

3. 856543

4. 384556
12.
If RANGER is coded as REGNAR then TABLE will be coded as
1.
2.
3.
4.
TABLE
ELBAT
TELBA
TELBA
13.
If LIFE is coded as IFCB, then how will you code MERIT
1. JBQFR
2. JBOFR
3. JBOFQ
4. KBQFR
14.
If HIGHLIGHT is coded as GJFIKJFIS then how will you code LIMELIGHT
1. KJFLKJFIS
2. KLJFKJSIS

3. KJLFKJFIS

4. JKFLKJFIS

15. If ADOLESCENT is coded as 3517298246 then 398246 is decoded as

1. ASCENT

2. ASTENT

3. ABSENT
4. ABODEE
16.
If GLAD is coded as INCF, how will STRANGE be coded?
4.
1. UVTCPIG
2. VTCPIGU
3. SILGFSI
KSJEIJD
If BRAVO is coded as CSBWP, how will BEAUTIFUL will be coded?
17.
1.
KDUEJFLDJ
2.
CFBVUJGVM
3.
DIOELDJTJ
4.
18.
JDKYHSBCJ
If PLAN means ABCD, LAND means BCDN, SPAN means MACD, what does NASAL means?
1.
IKHYD

2. UJHFT

3. KODJK

4. DCMCB

19. If TORCH means RMPAF, what does TROPHY means?

1. RPMNFW

2. JUILOJ

3. HDYETR

4. OITVCY

20. If AB mean 48, BC means 89, CD means 93, DE means 35. What does BCED stands for?

1. 8953

2. 6754

3. 4835

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Institute for All Competitive Exams

4. 6854

21. If in a certain code cat bat fat means “boys are hungry”, mat hat pat means “girls had cakes”,

bat fat pat rat means ‘hungry boys ate cakes”, and cat pat sat means “cakes are cheap”, what is the code word for ‘hungry’?

1. fat

2. bat

3. hat

4. mat

22. If in a certain code language,

1.”hupa chip fu Pa” stands for “Ram is very intelligent”

2.”chip hupa kupa tik” stands for “Hari is very smart”

3.”lik fu hupa” stands for “Boy is intelligent”. 4.”fu tik dop” stands for “smart and intelligent”. then, which one of the following word is used for ‘Hari ‘?

1. chip
2. hupe
3. fu
4. tik
5. kupe
23. If in a certain code language,

1.”Chip Din chunk” means “Students attend class”

2.”Din Sunk Dink” means “Arjun is student” 3.”Jump Mink Chimp” means “Schools are good” 4.”Dink Mup Chimp” means “Teacher is teaching”

then, which one of the following is used for Arjun?

1. Sunk

2. Din

3. Dink
4. Chunk
5. None
24.
In a certain code language,
“Kew xas hume deko” means “She is eating apples”,
“Kew tepo quo” means “She sells toys” and “Sul lem deko” means “I like apples” then,
which words in the language mean ‘she’ and ‘apples’?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
25.
Xas and deko
Xas and kew
Kew and deko
Kew and xas
Deko and tepo
In a certain code language,
1.”Po ke top ma” means “Usha is playing cards”
2.”Kop ja ke ma” means “Asha is playing Tennis”
3.”Ke top sop ho” means “They are playing football”
4.”Po Sur Kob” means “Cards and Tennis”,
Which word in that language means ‘Asha’?

1. ja

2. ma

3. kob

4. top

5. ke

26. If 12345678 stands for the word BREAKING, what number stands for BREAKER?

1. 1235342

2. 1234523

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Institute for All Competitive Exams

3. 1325243

4. 1234532

27. If the word EXAMINATION is written as 89123416354, what word does 456354 stand for?

1. NATION

2. RATION

3. NOTION

4. STATION

28. In a certain code language,

1. 743 means “Mangoes are good”

2. 657 means “Eat good foods”
3. 937 means “Mangoes are ripe”,
which digit means ‘Ripe’ in that language?
1. 5
2. 4
3.
9
4.
7
5.
None of these
29.
In a certain code language,
1.
2.
3.
1, 2, 3, means ‘hot filtered coffee’
3, 5, 6 means ‘very hot day’
5, 8, 9 means ‘day and night’,
which of the following numeral symbols stands for ‘very’?

1. 9

2. 5

3. 8

4. 2

5. 6

30.
In a certain code language
1. 1, 2, 3 means “Bright little boy’
2. 1, 4, 5 means ‘Tall big boy’
3. 6, 3, 7 means ‘Beautiful little flower’
which numeral in the language means ‘Bright’?
1.
1
2.
6
3.
3
4.
4
5.
None of these
1:13323
6: 21211
11: 32331
16: 12411
21: 15131
26: 45555

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Directional Orientation

1. Rohit’s house faces North. He starts from the backdoor of his house and goes straight. In which

directions is he going?

1.
South
2.
South East
3.
North East
4.
North West
2.
Sham travels 7 km North, then turns right and walks 3 km. He again turns to his right-hand side
and moves 7 km forward. How many km is Sham away from the place of his starting the journey?
1.
2.
3.
4.
3.
7 km
3 km
6 km
14 km
Rahul starts from his house and goes south-eastwards. In which direction is his back facing?
1.
2.
3.
4.
South East
North West
North East
South West
4.
While driving a man goes wayward and loses his track. The man first starts from the garage and
goes west and then turns right and goes straight and then turns left and then right. In which

direction is he from the starting point?

1. North East

2. North West

3. North

4. West

5. Sunil starts from his office and goes in East-ward direction. He turns left and then right at right
angles. Then he sees a robber who fires at him. The robber is standing opposite to Sunil. Which
direction is the robber facing?
1. North East
2. West
3. South
4.
South West
6.
Peter walks 20 metres towards the East and turns left, and continues to walk for 15 metres after
which he turns right and continues to walk for 25 metres. After that he turns right and walks for 15
metres. How far away is he from his original place?
1.
45 m
2.
50 m
3.
25 m
4.
40 m

7. After walking for 10 kms in the east direction, I turn left and again after walking for 5 kms, I turn

left and walk for 3 kms. How far away am I from my original place?

1. 74 km
2. 14 km

3. 9 km

4. 7 km

8. A policeman goes straight seven (7) kilometres eastwards, then turns right and goes straight

three (3) kilometres and turns right again and goes straight ten (10) kilometres. In which direction is he from the starting point?

1. South-West

2. North-West

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 3 North-East 4 South-East 9 You have started from a place. After walking for a kilometre, you turn to the left. Then walking

for half a km, you again turn to the left. You are going eastwards. In what direction had you originally started?

1. West

2. East

3. South

4. North
10.
I travelled 3 kms eastward, took right turn and travelled 4 kms. What is the shortest distance
between starting point and end point?
1. 7 kms
2. 6 kms
3. 5 kms
4. 4 kms
11. Raman starts walking straight towards south. After walking 3 km he turns to his right and walks
5 km. Then he turns left and walks 5 km. In which direction is he from the starting point?
1.
2.
3.
4.
12.
North-East
West
East
South-West
Early morning after sunrise, Rajesh was standing in front of his house in such a way that his

shadow was falling exactly behind him. He starts walking straight and walks 5 metres. He turns to his left and walks 3 metres and again turning to his left walks 2 metres. Now in which direction is

he from his starting point?

1. South

2. West

3. South-East
4. North-East
13.
Ms. Anita goes for her morning walk at 6 O’clock towards sun for 2 kilometres. She again turns
to her left and walks for 2 kilometres, finally she turns to her left to walk another 6 kilometres. In
which direction she is moving and at what distance she is standing?
1.
North-East, 5 km
2.
West, 2
5 km
3.
North, 2
3 km
4.
14.
North, 9 km
Sukanya starts walking towards East and after walking 10 metres turns right and walks 15
metres, then she turns left and walks 25 metres. Again she turns left and walks 15 metres and
finally walks 20 metres after turning to her left. How far is she from the original position and in
which direction?

1. 15 m East

2. 20 m West

3. 10 m East

4. 15 m North

15. J, K, L and M are playing cards, J and K are partners. M is facing towards North. If J is facing

toward West, who is facing towards South?

1. J

2. L

3. K

4. None of these

Institute for All Competitive Exams

16. Sachin walks 10 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 20 metres. He again turns

left and walks 10 metres. Again he moves 20 metres after turning to his right. How far is he from

his original position?

1. 10 metres

2. 15 metres

3. 25 metres

4. 40 metres

17. ‘B’ is to the South-West of ‘A’ ‘C’ is to the East of ‘B’ and South-East of ‘A’, ‘D’ is to the North of

‘C’ in the line with B and A. In which direction of ‘A’ is ‘D’ located?
1. North
2. East
3.
4.
18.
South-East
North-East
I started walking towards South and after walking 15 metres turned left and walked 25 metres.
Then I turned right and walked another 25 metres. In which direction I was going finally?
1. South-West
2. East
3. South
4. West
19.
A man travels 12 km West, then 3 km towards South and then 8 km towards East. How far is he
from the start?
1.
23 km

2. 20 km

3. 15 km

4. 5 km

20. Mohit walks a distance of 5 kms towards South, then turns to his right and walks 3 kms. He

again turns right and walks 5 kms. He then turns to his left and walks 5 kms. How far is he from the starting point and in what direction?

1. 5 kms and West
2. 3 kms and North
3. 3 kms and East
4. 8 kms and West
1:12222
6: 11123
11: 44212
16: 44344

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Series: Wrong Numbers

Number of Questions: 20

Suggested Time: 10 Min

Directions (Q 1-20): Herein in each of the following questions one number in the number series

is wrong. Find out the wrong number & mark the answer out of the given choices 1 to 5 below each questions.

1. 3 4 10 33 148 685 4116
1. 685
2. 10
3.
4
4.
148
5.
33
2.
2 4 13 54 273 1662 11499
1.
4
2.
13
3.
54
4.
273
5.
1662
3.
895 870 821 740 619 445 225
1.
870
 2. 821 3. 619 4. 445 5. 225 4. 6 7 17 55 231 1164 6995 1. 7 2. 17 3. 4. 5. 5. 55 231 None of these 10 21 64 255 1286 7717 54020 21 255 64 1286 7717 26 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 1. 2. 63 7 26 63 124 215 342 512
 3 124 4 342 5 512 7 2 5 9 19 37 76 1 5 2 9 3 19 4 37 5 76

8. 125 106 88 76 65 58

1. 106

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 2 88 3 76 4 65 5 None of these 9 5 15 30 135 405 1215 1 15 2 30 3 135 4 405 5 1215

10. 36 49 100 144 196 256 324

1. 100
2. 49
3. 256
4. 144
5. None of these
11. 105 85 60 30 0 -45 -90
1. 0
2. 30
3. 85
4. -45
5. None of these

12. 5 11 23 47 96 191 383

1. 11

2. 96

3. 47

4. 191

5. None of these

13.
380 188 92 48 20 8 2
1. 188
2. 92
3. 48
4. 20
5.
8
14.
0 1 3 6 10 15 21 28 37 45
1.
0
2.
10
3.
45
4.
37
5.
None of these
15.
13 17 23 31 41 53 69

1. 23

2. 31

3. 41

4. 69

5. None of these

16. 1 4 16 36 48 64 100

1. 1

2. 4

3. 36

4. 48

5. None of these

Institute for All Competitive Exams

17. 13 17 19 23 27 31 37

1. 19

2. 23

3. 27

4. 31

5. None of these

18. 327 126 411 215 125 138 513

1. 327

2. 126

3. 125
4. 138
5.
None of these
19.
123 222 402 411 303 330 430
1. 402
2. 411
3. 303
4. 430
5. None of these
20. 2 26 82 101 50 65 123
1. 2
2. 82
3. 50

4. 123

5. None of these

1: 45432
6: 55242
11: 12344
16: 43344

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Point the Odd Man Out

Number of Questions: 20

Directions (Q 1-40): In the following question there are five groups of letters in each. One of these groups is different from the rest in some way. Find the group which is different

Suggested Time: 10 Min

1.
1.
Here
2.
There
3.
Now
4.
Nowhere
5.
Somewhere
2.
1.
Pound
2.
Ton
3.
Seer
4.
Heavy
5.
Kilogram
3.
1.
Jupiter
2.
Apollo
3.
Mars
4.
Neptune
5.
Mercury

4.

1.
Athens
2.
Moscow
3.
Rome
4.
Montreal
5.
Warsaw
5.
1.
Football
2.
Cricket
3.
Hockey
4.
Chess
5.
Volleyball
6.
1.
Father
2.
Mother
3.
Niece
4.
Daughter
 5 Son 7 1 Water 2 Tank 3 River 4 Pitcher 5 Well 8 Z, W, T, R, O, L 1 T 2 R 3 W

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 4 L 9 AB, BC, CD, DE, EG 1 BC 2 CD 3 DE 4 EG

10. M, J, G, D, A, X, V

1. X
2. V
3. D
4. X
EV, FU, GT, SH, IR
11.
1. SH
2. IR
3. FU
4. EV
12.
AXW, VUS, RQP, ONL, KJH
1. RQP
2. ONL
3. ZXW
4. VUS
13.

1. FAC

2. LGI

3. ZUV

4. TNQ

5. PKM

14.

1. YVXW
2. PMNO
3. GDFE
4. MJLK
5. TQSR
15.
1.
AZCX
2.
EVGT
3.
CXEV
4.
JQLO
5.
FUHR
16.
1.
FDH

2. TRV

3. PNS

4. JHL

5. CAE

17.

1. EDA

2. NMJ

3. UTQ

4. CEH

5. KJG

18.

1. KJLM

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Institute for All Competitive Exams

2. QPSR

3. EDGF

4. VUXW

5. IHJK

19.

1. 8

2. 1

3. 125

4. 27

5. 32
20.
1. D11G
2. H19K
3. C24U
4. E19M
5. J22L
Answer Key (Point Odd Man Out)
1: 14244
6: 31341
11: 11425
16: 34154

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Ranking Manipulations

 1 A is older than B and B is older than C. Who is the youngest? 1 C 2 B 3 A 4 None of these 2 In a class Pragati secures higher marks than Reena and Sarita secures less marks than Reena.
Who secures lowest marks?
3.
4.
3.
1. Pragati
2. Sarita
Reena
None of these
Rahim, Shamim and Munir are studying in the same class. (i) Rahim is brighter than Shamim,
and (ii) Shamim is weaker than Munir. Therefore the relative position of Rahim and Munir is as
under:
1.
2.
3.
4.
4.
Rahim is brighter than Munir
Munir is brighter than Rahim
No definite conclusion can be made
None of these
Paul is taller than Dick. Grace is taller than Paul but younger than Dick. Who is the shortest?
1.
Paul

2. Dick

3. Grace

4. Can’t say

5. Pava is bigger than Java. Sava is bigger than Mava. Rava is not as big as Sava but is bigger than

Java. Mava is not as big as Java. Which is the smallest?

1.
Java
2.
Pava
3.
Rava
4.
Mava
6.
A report says – The number of bus accidents is more than that of car accidents, the number of
car accidents is less than the number of truck accidents, the number of truck accidents is less than
the number of bus accidents. Which of the following conclusions do you draw from the report?
1.
There are more buses on roads
2.
There are more trucks on roads
3.
Truck drivers are very careless
4.
None of these
7.
If Rita runs less fast than Gopa, and Gopa runs as fast but not faster than Masha, then Masha
runs:
1.
As fast as Rita
2.
Faster than Gopa
3.
Faster than Rita
4.
Less fast than Rita
8.
Vijaya, Navneet and Aashish are wise. Vipin, Vijaya and Hussain are industrious. Vipin, Aashish

and Hussain are honest. Vijay, Navneet and Hussain are sportsmen. Find out which of them is not wise but is a sportsman.

1. Vijay

2. Vipin

3. Aashish

4. Hussain

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 9 1. Radha is younger to Sunita but elder to Rita 2 Rita is elder than Geeta 3 Sham is older to Rita but younger to Radha. Who is youngest of all? 1 Rita 2 Sham 3 Sunita 4 Geeta 5 Radha
10.
Harish, Satish and Ajit are up on a ladder in the following order:
A.
Harish is higher than Satish
B. Satish is lower than Ajit
Conclusions:
X.
Ajit is higher than Harish.
Y. No definite conclusion can be made.
1.
2.
3.
4.
11.
Conclusion at X is valid
Conclusion at Y is valid
Both X and Y are valid
Both are invalid
Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is sitting
next to B, who is sitting on the extreme left and Q is sitting next to R. Who are sitting adjacent to
V?
1. R and Q
2. Q and K
3. B and M

4. K and R

5. M and K

12. In a row of children, Shirish is 7th from the left and Charu 4th from the right. When Shirish

and Charu exchange positions, Shirish will be 15th from left. Which will be Charu’s position from

the right?

1. 4th
2. 8th
3. 11th
4. 12 th
5. 15th
13.
Medha ranks twenty-first in a class of fifty-one. What is her rank from the last?
1.
31
2.
29
3.
27
4.
25
5.
20
14.
In an establishment. Jatti holds a senior position to Satti and Ratti holds a junior post to Satti.
Who holds the junior-most position?
1.
Satti

2. Jatti

3. Ratti

4. None of these

15. In a class Sohan secures higher marks than Mohan. Harish secures more marks than Sohan.

Who secures the lowest marks?

1. Sohan

2. Harish

3. Mohan

4. None of these

1: 42324

6: 13442

11: 54133

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Institute for All Competitive Exams

Simple Logic

1. A pet shop sells birds and puppies. When the owner was asked how many he had of each, he

replied that altogether, there were 60 eyes and 86 feet. How many birds and puppies did he have?

1.

2.

3.

13 puppies and 17 birds

17 puppies and 13 birds

10 puppies and 20 birds

4.
15 puppies and 15 birds
2.
Two boys were overheard discussing the number of pets each had. First boy: “If I had one of
yours, I would have as many as you”. Second boy: “If I had one of yours, I would have twice as
many as you”. How many pets does each boy have?
1.
5, 7
2.
3, 5
3.
2, 4
4.
3.
5, 3
When the race ended, there were 4 cars in front of a car, 4 cars behind a car, and a car in the
middle. How many cars finished the race?
1. 9
2. 5
3. 10
4.
11

4. A frog at the bottom of a forty-foot deep well, every day jumps up three feet and at night falls

back two. How many days will it take him to get out of the well?

1. 36

2. 38

3. 40

4. 37
5. The front wheels of a tractor are smaller than the rear wheels. Which of them travels faster?
1. Front wheels
2. Rear wheels
3. Both have equal speed
4. Can’t say
6.
A man had 11 buffaloes. All but seven died. How many were left?
1.
18
2.
11
3.
4
4.
None of these
7.
A woman who had been shopping, on being asked what fruit she had bought replied: “They are
all oranges but eight, all bananas but eight and all mangoes but eight”. How many fruits did she
1.
8
2.
12
3.
16
4.
20
8.
A person being asked what time it was answered.”The hours of the day which remain are equal

to one seventh of those which have passed”. What time was it?

1. 9 P. M.

2. 3 A. M.

3. 7 P. M.

4. 8 P. M.

Institute for All Competitive Exams

9. A bottle of medicine contains 12 ounces of medicine. The doctor has advised the patient to take a

dose of 2 ounces every half an hour. At what time will the patient finish the medicine if he starts

taking the dose at 7 AM?

1. 9. 30 A. M.

2. 12. 30 P. M.

3. 10 A. M.

4. 1 P. M.

10. Find a number which, which after being multiplied by 5 will exceed 60 as much as it is now

short of 60.
1. 10
2. 15
3.
25
4.
20
11.
The first odd number is 1. The second odd number is 3 and so on. What is the 200th odd
number?
1. 199
2. 299
3. 399
4.
499
12.
In a certain village there live 800 women. Three per cent of them are wearing one earring. Of
the other 97 per cent, half are wearing two earrings, half are wearing none. How many earrings
altogether are being worn by women?

1. 100

2. 900

3. 850

4. 800

13. A boy was supposed to meet his girl friend in the evening every Sunday. The first time she came

at 4. 30, the next time at 5. 20, then at 6. 30, then at 8. 00. When did she turn up the last time after
that?
1. 9. 50
2. 10. 20
3. 9. 30
4.
14.
9. 40
A wheel has 16 spokes. How many spaces are there between the spokes?
1.
16
2.
15
3.
17
4.
Can’t say
15.
It took 20 days for all the leaves to fall from a tree. If the number of leaves that fell each day
was twice that of the previous day, on which day was the tree half bare?
1.
10th day

2. 19th day

3. 9th day

4. None of these

16. A clock seen through a mirror reads a quarter to nine. What is the actual time?

1. 1. 15

2. 9. 30

3. 3. 15

4. 9. 15

17. Take any number, subtract from it the sum of its digits, the result will always be divisible by

1. 5

2. 7

3. 9

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Institute for All Competitive Exams

4. 11

18. A and B, A standing at the door of his house and B walking up and down the pavement, were

counting passers-by for a whole hour. Who counted more?

1. A

2. B

3. both equal

4. can’t say

19. A man and a girl, walking together step out with their left feet first. The man walks 3 paces

while the girl walks 2. When will they both put their right feet forward together?
3.
4.
20.
1. After walking 5 paces
2. When girl walks 5 pace, and men 4
Never
Can’t say
A school requires girls to wear a pale green skirt and a blouse or a pale green saree and blouse.
Thirty of fifty girls in a class wear skirts. Girls have to opt either for Guiding or Social Service.
Those opting for Social Service have to wear sarees. Therefore which of the following statements is
definitely true?
1.
2.
3.
4.
20 girls have opted for Social Service
30 girls have opted for Guiding
At least 20 girls have opted for Guiding
At least 30 girls have opted for Social Service

1:1122 6: 42214
11: 34112
16: 33331

Institute for All Competitive Exams

Symbols Manipulation

Directions (Q 1-5): Mark the best choice:

1. If sign ‘ ‘means ‘plus’, sign ‘+’ means ‘minus’ , sign ‘x’ means ‘divided by’ and sign ‘’ means

‘multiplied by ‘; then simplify: 7 8 x 5 6+ 4

1.
3
2.
12
3
3.
12
5
48
4.
5
If ‘ ‘means ‘multiplied by’, ‘x’ means ‘plus’, ‘+’ means ‘divided by’ and ‘∏’ means ‘minus’, then the
value of 14 10 x14 ∏16+ 8 is
1. 134
2. 152
3.
6
4.
2
If ‘+’ means ‘x’, ‘ ‘means ‘∏’ ‘x’ means ‘+’, ‘∏’ means ‘ ‘, then,
10 x 18 – 9 + 3 ∏1 is equal to:
1.
15
2.
20

3. 168

4. 180

If means ‘+’, ‘ ‘means ‘’ ‘x’ means ‘ ‘and ‘+’ means x, then

32 8

1. 12

2.

3. 40

4. –14

If ‘+’ means x, ‘ ‘means , x means ‘ ‘and means ‘+’, then

4 x 12 + 4 =?

1

12

4 x 9 = ?

9+ 8 8

26
17
65
11

1.

2.

3.

4.

Directions (Q 6-10): Below are given some symbols indicating some terms given opposite to them. Read these symbols carefully and answer questions given under these symbols:

+ = Not greater than = Not less than = Not equal to

= Greater than

 = Equal to = Less than 6. If a b c it does not imply 1. a x b c 2. c + b a 3. a b c 4. a b c 7. If a x b c it implies that 1. a c b 2. a x b c 3. a b x c

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 4 a b c 8 If a b c d it does not imply 1 a b 2 b b 3 a c d 4 a b c d

9. If a

b c it implies that

 1 a b + c 2 b x a x c 3 b a + c
4. c
b
a
5. c+ b
a
10.
(3
15 ∏11)
8
7 = ?
1. 4
2. 1
3. 0
4. 8

= Not less than + = Not equal to = Less than = Greater than

11. If X Y + Z, it implies that

= Equal to

If ‘ ’ means ‘’ ; ‘ ’ means ‘ ’; ‘’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘ ’; then

Directions (Q11-15): In the following questions, some relationships have been expressed through symbols which are explained below. Mark the best choice:

1. X
Y
Z
2. X+ Y
Z
3. X+ Y
Z
4. X
Y +
Z
5. X
Y
Z
12.
If X Y Z, it does not imply that
1.
X
Y
Z
2.
X
Y
Z
3.
X + Y
Z
4.
X Y
Z
5.
X+Y+Z
13.
If X Y+ Z, it does not imply that
1.
X
Y
Z
2. X
Y
Z
3. X+ Y
Z
4. X + Y
Z
5. X
Y
Z
14. If X
Y
Z, implies that
1. X + Y
Z
2. X
Y
Z
3. X+ Y+ Z
4. X
Y
Z

5. X+ Y + Z

15. If X Y Z, it does not imply that

GJ Study Material

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Page 36

Institute for All Competitive Exams

 1. X Y + Z 2. X Y Z 3. X Y Z 4. X Y + Z 5. X + Y + Z

Directions (Q 16-20): Mark the true expression out of the given choices.

[ stands for –
] stands for
stands for ∏
If
stands for +
II
stands for =
stands for ‘greater than’
16.
stands for ‘less than’
Mark the true expression out of the given choices.
1.
(18
3) ( 3
1 )
( 5 II 20)
2. (10 2)[2 2] II (10 2)
3. (20 [ 8) (14 [1) II (4 1)
4. (12) [4) (5 ] 1)
(10
21)
17.
State which of the following expressions is true (Brackets have usual meanings)?
If
* stands for ‘Subtraction’

stands for ‘Equal to’

0

+

+

0

stands for ‘Division’

stands for ‘Multiplication’

+
0
1.
(6
2)
+
2
(2
0
8) * 1
0 +
2. 81
+ 4
0
3
4
16 * 3
+
+
3. (18 * 4)
0
3
8
0 0
+ 15
7
+
0
4. (15 * 4)
0
3
(60
+
2)
3
18.
Mark the true statement:
If
‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘∏’ means ‘addition’, ‘^’ means ‘less than’, ‘ ’ means ‘greater than’, ‘ ’
means ‘equal to’, ‘<’ means multiplication and ‘>’ means ‘division’?
1.
(9 + 5) ^ (2 < 4) > 2
2.
9 ^ 5 + 2 ∏4 > + 2
3.
9 + 5 ∏(2 < 4) x 12

4. 9 < 5 – 2 ( 4 < 1 2 )

19. Mark the correct statement. If + stands for division

stands for equal to

stands for addition stands for greater than

= stands for less than

> stands for multiplication

< stands for subtraction

1. 5 > 3

2. 5 < 3 > 7 – 8 > 4 + 2

3. 5

7 = 8 > 4 + 2

3 > 7 8 + 4 < 2

Institute for All Competitive Exams

4. 5 + 3 < 7 – 8

20. Mark the correct statement:

stands for + stands for –

4 + 2

+

0 stands for
O stands for ∏
stands for =
stands for >
+
1.
5
0
4
1
2
6
2
1
+
2. 15 O 3
5
10
0
1
2
+
3. 5
3
5
5
0
15
55
+
+
4. 10
0
2 1
8
0
2 10