AIIMSGMAX1

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS
AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 QUESTIONS WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

BY: GMAX. THANKS TO DOXO MY BUDDY
gmaxwinner@rediffmail.com
Question 1 Which of the following attains adult size before birth? a. Ear ossicles b. Maxilla c. Mastoid Process d. Parietal bone
Question 2 All of the following are true about Scalaneus anterior muscle: a. It is attached to the tubercle of second Rib b. It is anterior to the transverse cervical artery. c. It is pierced by the Phrenic nerve. d. It separates the subclavian vein from the subclavian artery.
Question 3 All are derivatives of Septum Transversum EXCEPT: a. Falciform ligament b. Ligamentum teres c. Coronary ligament d. Lesser sac
Question 4 Tensor tympani is supplied by a) facial b) glossopharyngeal c) trigeminal d) vagus
Question 5 All of the following are supplied by Superior gluteal nerve except: a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus minimus c. Gluteus medius d. Tensor fascia lata
Questions 6 In a study it is observed that the right ovary ovulates more than the left, all are possible explanations for the cause except? a) anatomical asymmetry b)difference in blood supply to both sides c)right handedness doubtful d)some embryological basis
Question 7 Spanish WINDLASS technique is a form of which type of execution? a. garrotting b. mugging c. bansdola d. hanging
Question 8 A teen age girl with moderate acne also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be? a. Oral isotretinoin b. Oral acitretin c. Oral minocycline d. Cyproterone acetate
Question 9 Which of the following is the least likely cause of Neonatal mortality in India? a. Prematurity b. Infection c. Birth Asphyxia d. Congenital anomalies
Question 10 Which of the following is a non-essential metal/mineral? a. sodium b. Manganese c. Iron d. Lead
Q11 In a certain population, there were 4050 births in the last one year. There were 50 still births. 50 infants died within 7 days where as 150 died within 28 days. What is the Neonatal mortality rate? a. 50 b. 62.5 c. 12.5 d. 49.4
Q12Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis? a. Riboflavin b. Thiamine c. Niacin d. Panthotheic acid
Q13 A 19 year old patient came to the out patient department with complaints of Primary Amenorrhea. She had well developed breast and pubic hair. However there was abscence of vagina and on USG her uterus was absent. Likely diagnosis is. a. XYY b. Mullerian agenisis c. Gonadal dysgenesis d. Kleinfelter's syndrome
Q14 Calculate the Pondreal index of a baby of weight 2000gm and length 50 cm at Birth.
a)1.6 b)2.2 c)2.6 d)1.0
Q15 how much Pottassium is present in the Ringer Lactate solution? 1. 1 mEq/L 2. 4 mEq/L 3. 2 mEq/L 4. 6 mEq/l
Q16 Which of the following is not perrmeable through the Blood Brain Barrier? a. Water b. Lipophilic drugs c. Gas d. Proteins
Q17 All the following diseases are spread by Ticks except... a. Relapsing fever b. KFD c. Tularemia d. Tick paralysis
Q18 Which of the following is associated with poor prognosis in Ewings sarcoma? a. B2 microglobulin
b. fever c. thrombocytosis d. young age
Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, 11th ed
Q19 Sputum can be disinfected by all EXCEPT: a. Autoclaving b. Boiling c. Cresol d. Chlorhexidine
Q20 Which one of the following is not included in Jone's Major criteria? a. Pancarditis b. Chorea c. Subcutaneous nodule d. high ESR
Q21 A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate it, place the back of hand on the lumbosacral joint. but is not able to lift it from back. What is the Etiology? 1. subscapularis tendon tear
2. teres major tendon tear 3. long head of biceps tendon tear 4. acromioclavicular jt. Dislocation
Q22 Which of the following is present normally in the urine of a pregnant women in the third trimester and lactating mother?
a. glucose b. lactose c. galactose d. fructose
Q23 True about subendocardial hemorrhage are all except: a.) may be seen after head injury b.) involves RV WALL c.) continuous pattern d.) Flame shaped hemorrhages Forensic Pathology Reviews, Volume 2 By Michael Tsoko
Q24 Chemical peeling is done by all except? 1.trichloroacetic acid

2.phosphoric acid 3.carboxylic acid 4.kijoic acid
Q25 Which of the pairs is incorrect : a. v1-smooth muscles b. v2-collecting ducts c. v3-anterior pituitary d. v4-CNS Q26 All are true regarding the SPAULDINGS disinfection protocal except.. a. noncritical devices decontamination is enuff, b. semicritical substances are those which come in contact with the mucous membrane or nonintact skin c. semicritical substances. low level disinfection is enough d. cardiac catheter is a critical item
Q27 Respiratory centre depression is caused by all except a.) opium b.) strychnine c.) barbiturates d.) gelsenium
Q28 A Bone marrow transplant receipient patient developed chest infection. ON chest Xray Tree on Bud appearance . The cause of this is a.) klebsiella b.) pneumocystis c.) TB d.) RSV
Q29 All of the following can cause SLE like syndrome except: 1. INH 2. penicillin 3. hydralazine 4. Sulphonamide
Q30 Late onset schizophrenia. wat is true: 1. Onset after 45 yrs 2. Onset btwn 25-30 yrs 3. Prognosis is poor 4. Olfactory hallucinations are seen.
Q31 A man 25 yrs old presents with renal failure. His uncle died of renal failure 3 yrs ago. ON slit lamp examination, keratoconus is present. Diagnosis a.) ADPCKD b.) ARPCKD c.) Alports syndrome d.)Denysh-Drash syndrome
Q32 Characteristic of Bacilus cereus food poisioning is a. presence of Fever b. presence of Pain abdomen c. Abscence of Vomiting d. abscence of Diarrhoea
Q33 Splenomegaly is least likely associated with A) CML, B) primary thrombocytosis C) polycythemia ruba vera D) Myelofibrosis Q34 All are true about starting of B-Blocker therapy in a case of heart disease except a. They should be started with optimum doses b. They should be graually incresed over weeks c. Special precautions should be taken in cases of NYHA class III and IV d. Carvedilol and Metoprolol are the preferred drugs.
Q35 A patient met with Road Traffic Accident with subsequent injury to the left knee. Dial test was positive. What could be the cause? 1. Medial Collateral Ligament Injury 2. Medial Meniscal Injury 3. Lateral Meniscus Tear 4. Posterolateral Corner Injury
Q36 The caecum is found to be placed below the stomach and in the midline. Which of the following abnormality must have taken place while rotation of the gut? 1. mal rotation 2. non rotation 3. reverse rotation
4. mixed rotation
Q37 Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except a.) Refsum's disease b.) Hallavardian Spatz c.) NARP d.) Abetaglobulinemia
Q38 Which is Vitamin K dependent clotting factor? 1. Factor VII 2. Factor I 3. Factor XI 4. Factor XII
Q39 A 9 year old boy with elevated both PT and ApTT. What is the diagnosis? 1. Defect in extrinsic pathway 2. Defect in Intrinsic pathway 3. Platelet function defect 4. Defect in common pathway
Q40 patient gravida 2 having previous healthy baby delivered by cesarean section,having bp of 150/100. On Pelvic examination cervix is found to be soft with 50% effacement , station is -3 , pelvis adequate and cervical os is closed. Most appropriate step at the moment would be:
A.wait nd monitor BP B.anti-HTN nd induce labour aftr 10 days C. Induce labour immidiatly D.cesarian section
Q41 A 25year old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination is not contributory. What is probable diagnosis 1. Retinal detachment 2. Eales disease 3. Glaucoma 4. Cataract
Q42 Which is not used in the treatment of hyperkalemia without ECG findings? 1. Insulin + Glucose 2. Sodium Bicarbonate 3. Calcium Gluconate 4. Salbutamol
Q43 A newborn child presents with inverted foot and the dorsum of the foot can not touch the anterior tibia. The most probable diagnosis 1. Congenital vertical talus 2. Arthrogryposis Multiplex 3. CTEV 4. cerebral palsy
Q44 A 35 yr old lady with chronic backache. On X ray she had a D12 collapse. But Intervertebral disc space is maintained. All are possible except a.) multiple myeloma b.) osteoporosis c.) Metastasis d) tuberculosis
Q45 All of the following are minor criteria for mutiple myeloma except.? 1.plasmacytosis 20% 2. multiple lytic lesion 3. 4.IgA<2.5 & IgG <3.5 4. plasmacytoma of tissue
Q46 All are true except a.) LKM1 - Autoimmune hepatitis b.) LKM2 - Drug induced c.) LKM1 - chronic hepatitis B d.) LKM2 - chronic hepatitis D
Q47 Farmer with single warty indurated lesion on dorsum of foot. Which of the following could be the lesion? a. Verruca vulgaris b. tuberculosis verrucosa cutis c. mycetoma d. lichen planus hypertrophicus
Q48 Renal stone resistant to ESWL is: 1. cystine stone 2. cal. oxalate 3. uric acid 4. ca.phosphate
Q49 Which of the following Anaesthetic agent causes adrenal suppression? a. etomidate b. thiopentone c. ketamine d. propofol
Q50 Bias can be eliminated by all excepta. matching b. blinding c. randomization d. multivariate analysis
Q51Radiation exposure is the least in the following procedure: a. micturating cystourethrogram b. IVP c. bilateral nephrostomogram d. Spiral CT for stones
Q52 A patient after undergoing Thoracotomy complained of severe pain. He can be managed by: a. intercostal cryoanalgesia b. oral morphine c. rectal diclofenac d, I.V. Fentanyl
Q53 A 20 year old female complains of oligomenorrhea along with facial hair. preliminary investigations reveal raised free testosterone levels.usg pelvis: ovary shows normal morphology. Which of the folllowing could be likely etiology? a idiopathisc hirusitsm b PCOD c adrenal hyperplasia d. Testosterone secreting tumor
Q54 Regarding Cochlear implant which of the following is true? 1. Not Contraindicated in cochlear malformation 2. Contraindicated in < 5 yrs 3. Indicated in mild to mod. hearing loss 4. Implanted through oval window Q55 Onion bulb appearence on nerve biopsy is seen in: a. amyloid neuropathy b. diabetic neuropathy.. c. CIDP d. leprosy neutitis
Q56 A patient presented with thunder clap headache. Followed by unconsciousness with progressive III cranial nerve plasy. Etiology: a. Extradural hemorrhage b. Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage c. Basilar migraine d. Cluster headache
Q57 A patient with complaints of nephrocalcinosis for the past 10 yrs. The following steps can be taken for dietary management except: a.) Protein restriction b.) Calcium restriction c.) Salt restricted diet d.) Phosphate restriction
Q58 not used in emergency contraceptions ??? a. LNG intra uterine device b. oral mifepristone c. oral levonorgesterol d. Cu T intrauterine device
Q59 Cyanosis in trauma is interpreted as: a. early sign of hypoxia b. late sign of Hypoxia c. adequate tissue ventilation d. adequate tissue oxygenation
Q60 Mediators of inflammation are all except a.) TNF b.) IFN c.) Prostaglandins d.) myeloperoxidase
Q 61: Frontal Sinus can be best visualised by : a. Caldwell's view b. Water's view c. Towne's view d. Schuller's view
maxillary : waters frontal :cadwell ethmoid : cadwell = basal view sphenoid :lateral / basal view
Q:62 A girl aged 20 yrs complains of headache while studying. Her vision is found to be normal. All of the following can be considered while evaluation except: a. family history of headache b. menstrual history c. self expectations d. her interest in studies
Q: 63 Which one of the pair is not correct regarding Hepatitis B management: a. supportive care - acute viral hepatitis B
b. antiviral drugs - chronic viral hepatitis B c. supportive care - chronic viral hepatitis B d. antiviral drugs - acute viral hepatitis B
Q: 64: A 40 year old man who met with a motor vehicle catastrophe came to the casualty hospital in an hour with severe maxillo facial trauma. His Pulse rate was 120/ min, BP was 100/70 mm hg, spO2 80% with oxygen .What would be the immediate management? a. Intravenous access b. Orotracheal intubation c. Nasotracheal intubation d. Tracheostomy
Q:65: Most sensitive test in Ductal carcinoma in situ diagnosis is: a. Mammography b. MRI c. PET d. USG
Q:66: Gas used to measure diffusion in lung a.) CO b.) NO c.) CO2 d.) Nitrogen
Q: 67: Widmark's formula is used in calculating: a. alcohol in blood b. time since death c. times since injury d. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx A Q: 68: Which of the following is used in treatment of Overactive bladder (elderly man)? a. Darifenacin b. Duloxetine c. Oxybutinin d. Flavoxate
Q: 69: Stockers line is seen in a.) Pinguencula b.) Pterygium c.) Congenital Ocular Melanosis d.) Conjunctival epithelial melanosis
Q:70: Tumour with perineural invasion :: a. Adenocarcinoma b. Adenoid cystic Ca c. Basaal cell ca d. SQuamous cell ca
Q:71:: Initiation of rhythmic respiration by: a.pre-bottzinger complex

b.dorsal grp neurons c.pneumotaxic centre d. apneustic centre
Q: 72: Mass Chemoprophylaxis is not given for one of the following: A.lymphatic filariasis b.plague c.vit A administration d.scabies
Q: 73: Pale infarcts seen in A/E a.kidney b.spleen c.heart d.lung
Q: 74: False about H influenza a)it needs factor X and V for growth b)its protein capsule plays an important role in pathogenicity c)it is a rare cause og meningitis in first 2 months of life d)m.c.invasive manifestation is meningitis
Q: 75: Not absorbed from the PCT a)Na+ b)Phosphate c)HCO3d)H+

Q: 76: Patient with 6th cranial nerve palsy on T2 weighted MRI Hyperintense shadow which shows homogenous contrast enhancement. most probable diagnosis is? (repeat with site mentioning- so ans changes from wat is in AA i.e shwannoma) a)schwannoma b)meningioma c)cavernous sinus hemangioma d) astrocytoma
Q: 77: A 20 year old boy c/o faint hearing of voices, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever/febrile since past 2 days. When asked his family says that he has been muttering to self and gesticulating. Likely Diagnosis is: 1. Dementia 2. Acute psychosis 3. Delirium 4. Delusional disorder
Q78 Wegeners granulomatosis shows one of the following on histopathology: a.granulomas in bld vessels b.granulomas in gbm c.nephrosclerosis d.Focal necrotising GN
Q:79: What is the reason that an infant can breathe while suckling breast milk? a. Small wide tongue. b. High placed larynx c. Small pharynx d. short soft palate
Q80 valsalva maneouvre increases murmur of which of the following?? 1.as 2.mr 3.ms 4.hocm
Q: 81: A test used to differentiate b/w maternal hb and fetal hb ?? a) Kleihauer Betke test b) bubblin test c) apt test d)osmotic fragility
apt test :: test was developed by Leonard Apt, an American pediatric ophthalmologist. The test was originally used to identify the source of bloody stools in newborn infants. It has been modified to distinguish fetal from maternal hemoglobin in blood samples from any source.
Q82 Not included in charcot's triad? 1.fever
2.pain 3.jaundice 4.lump gb
Q83 Inhalatioal agent prefered in pateint with MS and increased liver enzymes:: a)halothane b)sevoflurane c)enflurane d)xenon
Q84 Q.Corpus cancer synd assod wid a/e? 1.DM 2.HTN 3.Multiparity 4.Obesity
Q85 cause of gall bladder carcinoma after injesting infected fish ?? 1.gnathostoma 2.anglostrongyloidosis cantonensis 3.clonorchis sinensis 4.H. dimunata
Q86 Hypoxiema independent of a)FiO2 b)altitude
c)Hb d)co2
Q87 Inhibitor of ADP transport in and ATP out of mitochondria is inhibited bya)atractyloside b)oligomycin c)rotenone d)cyanide
Q88 a 45 yr old female for pre-surgery hemostatic evaluation has PT 13.5 sec(control 11-15s) and APTT 48s(control 26-39s).she does not give history of excessive bleeding following lap cholecystectomy done 2 yrs ago.which of the following should be done? a.factor VIIIc assay b.platelet aggregation test c.dilute russel viper venom time d.ristocetin co-factor assay
Q89 which of the is not a channelopathy a)cystic fibrosis b)liddles syndrome c)tay sach disease d)hypokaelemic paralysis
Q90 A child with eye closed,moving all 4 limbs n crying lustily,neonatal behavioral scale for him?? 1.scale 1 2.scale 3 3.scale 4 4.scale 5
Q91 increased risk of vaginal candidiasis seen in all except?? 1.hiv 2.dm 3.hypertension 4.pregnancy
Q: 92: amoebiasis route of transmission all except? a cockroach b vertical c. recto oral d.facio oral
Q: 93: Aluminium phosphide poisoning - all true except a. subendocardial hge b. produces phosphine gas c. oesophageal stricture d. inhibits cytochrome a oxidase
Q94 Cocks peculiar tumor is a)basal cell CA

b)sQuamous cell CA c)sebaceous ulcerated cyst d)cylindroma
Q95 .staff nurse has to prepare N.S IN 10 % dextrose.(total i.v fluid 100ml) how will she prepare a. 20 ml 10% dext in 80 ml NS b. 40ml 10% dext in 60ml NS c. 60 ml 10% dext in 40 ml NS d. 80 ml 10% dext in 20 ml NS
Q96 Best regimen for eclampsia is a)MgSO4 b)Lytic cocktail c)Phenytoin d)Diazepam
Q97 rickshaw run over a child, there is a mark of the tyre tracks over thigh, it is an a)patterned bruise b)ectopic bruise c). d)imprint abrasion
Q: 98: About cranial trauma false is: a) Raccon eyes seen in subgaleal hemorrhage b) depressed skull # is associated wid brain injury at the imm. area
of impact c) carticocavernous fistuala occur in base skull # d) post traumatic epilepsy seen in 15%
Q: 99: Secondary hyper-parathyroidism doesnt occur in :: a)osteoporosis b)osteomalacia c) rickets d) CRF
Q100 not used for the diagnosis of DM? a)D- Xylose b)FBS c)RBS d)OGT
Q: 101: Not a stimulus for normal/RESTING ventilation? a)stretch b)j receptor c) po2 d)pCO2
Q: 102: a 30 week old baby weighing 1.2 kgs delivered through emergency C.s {?} after 2 hrs develops moderate RD, next management: a. warm o2
b. CPAP c. mechanical ventilation + surfactant d. mechanical ventilation (?)
Q: 103: A young office executive, on tour, presents with bright red painless bleed since 7 days and abdominal pain. General physician has no finding on external examination. what is "general physician" next step: a. proctoscopy b. do a barium enema c. refer to surgeon for sigmoidoscopy d. refer to gastroenterologist for colonoscopy
_ Q104 20 yr boy is having diarrhoea, rhinorrhea, sweating, what is the most probable diagnosis? a)cocaine withdrawal b)heroin withdrawl c)marijuana withdrawl d)LSD withdrawal
Q: 105:Brilliantly transilluminant swelling all except? a hydrocele b meningeocele c. lipoma d. cystic hygroma
Q:106: Methotrexate resistance occurs by a) mutation or amplification of the DHFR gene b) Decrease folate reductase c) folate overproduction d. overproduction of dhfr
Q: 107: True about Clostridium perfringens are A/E a. Food poisoning strains produces heat resistant spores b. Commonest cause of gas gangrene c. Naegler reaction positive d. Most toxic enzyme is hyaluronidase Q: 108: CSF rhinorrhea "immediate" management is: a. Plugging with petrotlar jelly plugs b. Wait & watch for 7 days + antibiotics c. ask the patient to blow nose d. do craniotomy
Q: 109: The problem of cytology study in solid tumours and of especially in CA Cx is a)increased mitotic rate b)inadeQuate sample c)bacterial contamination of the specimen d) GOOD METAPHASE
Q110 most common site of hematogenus OM a)epiphysis b)diaphysis c)metaphysis d)site of entry of nutrient artery
Q111 restriction endonuclease is introduced into a bacteria horizontally, what happens to bacteria? a)multiply faster b)proof reading improved c)lyses host cell more effeciently d)dies off b/c of lack of methylase
actualy restrictionn endonulcease and protective methylase exist togethr as a system to protect frm dna digestion. if bacteria acquires only RE thr won be methylas to protect and bacteria would die.. ref: lehninger biochem Q112 regarding ETEC, true is a)invades submucousa b)most common in children of developing countries c)fomite borne and person 2 person d)not the most common cause of traveller's diarrhea Q113 (lipincott) same 2 same
Q114 not developed from the mesentry of the stomach? a)spleen b)liver c)pancreas d)kidneys
Q115 : Used for plasma sterilization testing:a)Bacillus subtilis b)bacillus stearothermophilus c. Bacillus pumilus d. cl. Tetani in plasma sterilization biological indicator used is bacillus atrophaeus spores..but it was not provided in d options.
Q: 116:: Neonate with ABO incompatibilty. Peripheral smear shows: a) Microspherocytes b) Elliptocytes c) Fragmented RBCs d) polychromasia
Q: 117: All are true about bacterial killing except a. MPO helps in formation of OCl b. NADPH oxidase helps in formation of superoxide anion c. Immune deficiency in Brutton's agammaglobinemia is not related to opsonization d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome there is failure of phagolysosome formation Q: 118: Malignant pustule refers to: a Carbuncle b Ulcerating melanoma c skin anthrax d rodent ulcer Q119 Child with recurrent abdominal pain, bilious vomiting,2 day history condition was diagnosed by barium follow through, surgery was done, 3 things- mesentric widening, appendicectomy, cutting the Ladd's band, diagnosis? a) recurrent Caecal volvulus b)Mal rotation c)Recurrent appendicitis d)stricture tb
Q:120: MOA of EDTA in carbonic anhydrase enzyme inactivation *SOME TEXT MISSING* a)it chelates the metal ion of the enzyme b)it combines with the substrate and forms a suicide inhibitor c)combines with the substrate and doesn't react with the enzyme d) (???)
Q: 121: Caisson's disease is:: a Gas embolism b fat embolism c amniotic fluid embolism d. tumor embolism
Q: 122True about Hep b all except :: a. vertical transmission more than horizontal b. jaundice occur one month after viremia c. hbv communicable for 6-9 months d. age dep prognosis
Q: 123: Elderly male with poor stream, 400ml urine retention, b/l hydronephrosis and prostate weighing 70 g. His urea is 120 and creat 20. Ideal "next immediate" step :: a. cathetrize with foleys catheter b. b/l PC Nephrostomies c. CT to rule out ca d. MRI pelvis
1) Treatment for acute and chronic retention due to enlarged prostate is Foleys Catheterization till uremia and kidney function settles down.(Ref - Bailey pg 1349) 2) Chronic retention of long duration(likely this case) leads to severe tortuosity and functional impairment of upper tract(ureter and kidneys). In these cases, the upper tract itself becomes obstructive and bladder drainage alone doesnt solve the renal imparment and to settle down the kidney function and uremia u need to do nephrostomies.(Ref - Smith urology - dont remember the pg but theres a chapter on obstruction of urine)
Q124 34 yr athlete given succinylcholine due to unavailability of vecuronium..after op thers no spont resp drive nd no voluntary movement Was given repeated intermittent dose of suxa throughout the surgery total dose - 640 mg .Diagnosis? 1.pseudocholinesterase def 2.undiagnosed muscular dystrophy 3.due to phase 2 block 4.repeated fasciculation induced paralysis Q:125 which of d following SERM use in treatment of osteoporosis?: a. Raloxifene b. Alendronate c. Diethylstilbestrol d. Clomiphene
Q126 .reason for CO2 diffusion a)less dense b)more soluble in plasma
c)less molecular weight d)less pCO2 in the alveoli
FACTORS AFFECTING RATE OF GAS DIFFUSION THROUGH THE RESPIRATORY MEMBRANE. 1. Thickness of membrane 2. Surface area of membrane 3. Diffusion coefficient of the gas. 4. Pressure difference between two sides of membrane. Now abt DIFFUSION COEFFICIENT for the transfer of each gas through the respiratory membrane depends on its solubility in the membrane and inversely on the sQuare root of its mol.wt. The rate of diffusion in respiratory membrane is almost exactly the same as that in water. Therefore for a given PRESSURE DIFFERENCE CO2 diffuses through the membrane about 20 times as rapidly as oxygen. Oxygen in turn diffuses about twice as rapidlz as nitrogen.
Q127 points favouring eradication of small pox all except a)subclinical infection does not spread b)very efficient vaccine c)cross immunity with animal pox present d)life long immunity ref parks 20th Q128 oligodendrocyte inclusion body? a)polio b)JE c)PML d) herpes
Q:129: During reconstruction of an amputated limb/reimpantation::which of the following is done first? a. arterial repair b. venous repair c. fixation of the bone d. nerve anastomoses
reasons - 1) if bone repaired after anasomosis, there can be entrapment/disruption of vessel/anastomosis 2) U repair from deep to superficial and bone is deepest 3) chapter on disaster surgery in bailey love 25th pg 417 gives the answer! A minor delay of doing external fixation/internal fixation is not likely to make the tissue gangrenous
Q130 .70yr old with progressive dementia for 10 yrs with jerking of whole body of recent origin, EEG showing b/L periodic spikes, diagnosis? a)Hepes simplex encephalitis b)Lewy body dementia c)Alzheimer's d)CJD Also ref harrison16th pg2499-2500 supprts cjd.
Q: 131: True about Fibronetic nephropathy are all except a. PAS and Trichome mesangium {?} b.subendothelial n mesangial deposits c.it is a autosomal recessive disorder d.inconsistent IgG deposits
Q132 24 yr old man presented wth heterogenous enhancing mass on CT of the hilum of the kidney showed a mass necrotic ,in retroperitoneum which is the most probable diagnosis a)metastatic germ cell tumour b)metastasis c)lymphoma d)transitional cell tumour Q: 133: All r true regarding tetanus except: a. transmission through contaminated wounds n injuries b. more common in winters n dry weather c. reservoir in soil and intestines of humans and animals d. no herd immunity or life long immunity
Q: 134: A man is given continuous testosterone.It would lead to:: a. azoospermia b. increased sperm motility c. increased spermatogenesis d. increased gonadotrophins Q: 135: clinical grading of Abruptio PLACENTA is done bya. Page classification b. Johnson classification c. Mcfee grading d. Apt grading
FOR ABRUPTIO 2 CLASSIFICATIONS EXIST

Page classification Stage 0: a diagnosis purely on pathology without symptoms. Stage 1: quiescent form with a live baby. Stage 2: mild form with onset of clotting problems. Shers classification has 3 stages: Stage I is mild with unexplained vaginal bleeding and a retrospective diagnosis of a small haematoma post-partum. Stage II is the intermediate form with a hypertonic uterus and a live baby. Stage III is the severe form with an intrauterine death, subdivided into IIIA without coagulopathy and stage IIIB with coagulopathy
gmaxwinner@rediffmail.com defects and fetal death Stage 3: severe form with coagulation
in utero.
Q136 Most causative of heart disease? a)HDL b)LDL c)VLDL d)Chylomicron Q137 .which of the following binds to acetyl CoA and condenses OAA a)arsenic b)fluoroacetate c)malonate d)fumarate Q: 138: Endometrial cancer involving 50% of endometrium,extending to vagina,lymph nodes negative with "positive peritoneal cytology" is staged as a. IIIa b. IIIb c. III c1 d. III c2 Q139 what produced by the stomach has a role in control of food intake? a)gherlin b)IGF-1 c)orexin d)CCK Q140 Horner syndrome not due to a. carotid aneurysm b. (medial) medical medullary syndrome c. multiple sclerosis d. as a result of treating Reynaud's phenomenon
VAGINAL mets ca cervix = II A ca endometrium = III B
Q:141: Regarding retropharyngeal abscess all are true except a. lies always on one side of midline b. causes difficulty in swallowing and breathing c palapated digitally as a swelling on post pharyngeal wall d. behind pre-vertebral fascia
Q:142: One of the following disorders is due to(caused due to) maternal disomy of chromosome 15 :: a. Prader Willi b. Angelman syndrome c. Hydatidiform mole d. Klinefelter's
Q:143: Child with PDA will not have :: a) Bounding pulses b)Pulmonary hemorrhage c)necrotising enterocolitis d)CO2 wash out
Q: 144: Gallows traction is used in relation to :: a)shaft femur b)neck femur c)shaft tibia d)tibial tuberosity
Q: 145: Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by

a)tetracyclin labeling b)alizarin red stain c)calcein stain d)von kossa stain
Q:146: Laparoscopic Intranasal approach for accessing all EXCEPT? a) lacrimal gland(? lacrimal sac) b) cerebellum c) pituitary gland d) optic nerve
Q:147: True about GIST all except a)most common in duodenum b)necrosis and ulceration present c)PET is used to assess response to rx d)well circumscribed
Q:148: 60yr old man, is both hypertensive and DM for 10years, there is reduced vision in one eye, on fundus examination there is a central {point?} bleed and the fellow eye is normal, the diagnosis? a)Diabetic retinopathy b)retinal tear c)optic neuritis d)Hypertensive retinopathy
Q:149: 30 yr old female presented in the emergency department with sudden onset tachycardia, and sense of impending dooms. No
significant abnormalities on lab tests. What is the possible diagnosis ? a. Panic disorder b. Anxiety disorder c. Acute psychosis d.conversion reactn
Q:150: Patient/child with microcytic hypochromic anemia, serum iron is 20, ferritin levels 600, transferr{ing} saturation 64%, {urinary iron 16?} What is the possible diagnosis? a)atransferrinemia b)iron defeciency anemia c)DMT1 mutation d) hemochromatosis Q:151: Abnormality to check for if lithium is given to a pregnant female: a.cvs anomaly b.cns anomaly c.git anomaly d. breech
Q:152: A patient is kept on ceftriaxone and amikacin, for ESBL klebsiella infection.What will you do next? a. Continue with same antibiotic but in higher dose b. Change ceftriaxone to ceftazidime c. Start imipenem in place of ceftriaxone d. Change Amikacin to Quinolones
Q:153: In lung, true about Hyaline membrane disease :: a.) FRC is smaller than closing volume b.) FRC is larger than closing volume c.) FRC is eQual to closing volume d.) FRC doesnt depend on closing volume
REF WIKIPEDIA:The closing capacity (CC) is the volume in the lungs at which its smallest airways, the alveoli collapse. The alveoli lack supporting cartilage and so depend on other factors to keep them open. The closing capacity is usually less than the residual volume (RV), the amount of gas that normally remains in the lungs during respiration, and specifically, after forced expiration. This means that there is normally enough air within the lungs to keep these airways open throughout both inhalation and exhalation. As the lungs age, there is a gradual increase in the closing capacity. This also occurs with certain disease processes, such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and pulmonary edema. Any process that increases the CC by lowering the functional residual capacity (FRC) can increase an individual's risk of hypoxemia, as the small airways may collapse during exhalation, leading to air trapping and atelectasis.
Q: 154: A woman has consumed several tabs of Amitryptiline. All of the following can be used as a part of her management except : a. Sodium bicarbonate/barbiturate{?} infusion b. Gastric lavage
c. Use Atropine as an antidote d. Diazepam for seizure control
Q:155: A patient undergone surgery 1 month{?} back came with complaints of altered sensorium,difficulty in urination, s.na 140,K 3.9, urea 60,Creat 1.3,Ca 15.5what should not be done (?)/ or immediate management(?) ? a.) iv. NS b.) furosemide c.) Hemodialysis d.) Bisphosphanates
Q:156: Her-2 neu association is with: a. assessment of therapeutic response b. checking for recurrence of breast cancer c.screening d.diagnosis
Q:157: A pt has prosthetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible is? a.) Staphylococcus aureus b.) Streptococcus viridans c.) Staphylococcus epidermidis d.) HACEK
Q:158: All are true about Ramelteon EXCEPT: a. It is a MT1 and MT2 agonist b. It is FDA approved for insomnia c. It has a high addiction/abuse potential d. metabolized by CYP{incomplete option}
Q: 159: Cause of nephrocalcinosis in systemic chronic granulomatosis? a)Increased absorption 2)increased conversion to 1,25 OH c)dystrophic calcification d)Mutation in calcium sensing receptor
In granulomatous disorders, there is an increased conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25dihydroxycholecalciferol in the granuloma, resulting in an unregulated production of bioactive vitamin D with resultant excessive intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus. In addition, cytokines (IL-2) released in these disorders cause dysregulation of calcium homeostasis and activation of osteoclasts, resulting in subacute and chronic hypercalcemia.
Q: 160: fogarty's catheter is used for? a.urethral catheterization b removal of blood clots from the vessel c. Bladder drainage d. TPN
Q: 161: What is the treatment of threshold ROP? a)laser photocoagulation b)slow reduction in oxygen c)retinal reattachment d)antioxidants
Threshold disease is defined as disease that has a 50% likelihood of progressing to retinal detachment. Threshold disease is considered to be present when stage 3 ROP is present in either zone I or zone II, with at least 5 continuous or 8 total clock hours of disease, and the presence of plus disease.[4] Progression to stage 4 (partial retinal detachment), or to stage 5 (total retinal detachment), will result in substantial or total loss of vision for the infant. Although oxygen therapy has been blamed for ROP progression in the past, many physicians believe that maximizing the oxygen saturation in these critical babies will induce regression in prethreshold disease. STOP-ROP (Supplemental Therapeutic Oxygen for Prethreshold Retinopathy Of Prematurity), a multicentered national study, found that no benefit was achieved by keeping the oxygen saturation above 95%. However, higher oxygen saturation levels were not found to worsen the disease in prethreshold babies Its laser for thresold. and pars plana vitrectomy for stage 4&5 rop(featuring partial and total RD respectively)
Q: 162: 8yr old child, had fever and lethargy since one month and no other significant past history, presents with Bp- 180/110, urea high(value?), creat high (value?), urine shows pus cells 15- 20, RBC 1
to 2, your diagnosis? a) PSGN b) Accelerated htn with ARF c) idiopathic RPGN d) interstitial nephritis with reflux disease Q:163: In a patient with PKU,1st thing to be done is: a) reduction of substrate for deficient enzyme b) supplementation of deficient enzyme c) increase{?} the substrate concentration for deficient enzyme d) to genetically correct it {?}
Q:164: A G2 female 31yrs, 9 wks pregnant, had a prev child with Downs syn. She doesnt want another child with Downs. You will advise: a.USG showing nuchal translucncy at this stage will confirm presence or absence b.C.V. biopsy at this stage will confirm presence or absence c.triple test /maternal AFP at this stage will confirm presence or absence d.nothin cn be done/ since she is <35 there is no risk for her B Q:165: Shock immediately after normal delivery, due to? {Question incomplete!} a) amniotic fluid embolism b) PPH c) Uterine inversion d) ?
Q:166: Pt goin for coronary angiography and now to prevent contrast nephropathy what is not needed to be done a. fenlodopam b. n acetylcystine c. hemofilteration d. ns
Q:167: Indication of surgery in BPH? a. Prostate of wt. 75gm b. b/l hydroureteronephrosis c. Episode of UTI needing 3day course of antibiotic treatment d. Cannot use alpha blockers due to hypertenssion
Q:168: Gene reassortment seen in which of the following: a.astro b.hepadna c.rota d.herpes
Q:169: A 10 yr old child comes wid complain of left hypochondrium painfor 7days,ther is no past history and on asking mother only gives history of malena 2-3 episodes in past 2yrs. She also adds that while this episodes he is very lethargic and gets tired and doesn't play wid his friends. Which clinical examination will help clinch diagnosis a)pallor b)jaundice
c)enlarged spleen d) collection of fluid in the abdomen
Q:170: Congenital cause of hypercoagaulable states except a)protein C deficiency b)protein S deficiency c)MTHFR mutation d)antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
Q:171: which of the following is a bad prognostic factor for AML? a. loss of chromosome x n y b. monosomies. c. trisomies. d. mnp (?)
Q:172: About neuropeptide y an orexin {appetite stimulant}:all are except: a. it is mediated under d effect of melanocortin b. decreases thermogenesis c its level decreases during starvation d. contains 36 aa residues
Q: 173: Negative intrapleural pressure is due to : a. uniform distribution of surfactant over alveoli b. negative intraalveolar pressure c. absorption of lymphatics from pleura d. presence of cartilage in the upper airway
Ref GUYTON pg472:-A negative force is always required on the outside of the lungs to keep the lungs expanded. This is provided by negative pressure in the normal pleural space. The basic cause of this negative pressure is pumping of fluid from the space by the lymphatics (which is also the basis of the negative pressure found in most tissue spaces of the body).Because the normal collapse tendency of the lungs is about -4 mm Hg, the pleural fluid pressure must always be at least as negative as -4 mm Hg to keep the lungs expanded. Actual measurements have shown that the pressure is usually about -7 mm Hg, which is a few millimeters of mercury more negative than the collapse pressure of the lungs. Thus, the negativity of the pleural fluid keeps the normal lungs pulled against the parietal pleura of the chest cavity, except for an extremely thin layer of mucoid fluid that acts as a lubricant.
Q:174: A person found some correlation between dietary factors and a disease; he did this by collecting data from the food manufacturers and hospitals respectively, such a study is? a) ecological b) cross sectional c) psephological study d) experimental study
Q:175: Surgery was done and on biopsy ER status was positive than on what drug u would prefer to start for the patient? a)tamoxifen b)transtuzumab
c)letrazole d)????
Q:176: A lady had 8 blood transfusions in last 2yrs. hb was 6, mcv 60, normocytic microcytic which investigation not necessary? a)pul hemosiderosis b) BM biopsy c) urinary hemosiderin d) GI endoscopy.
Q: 177: a mother taking a drug during pregnancy, phocomelia anomaly in a child is due to which drug taken by mother: a) tetracycline b) thalidomide c) trimethoprim d) cyclophosphamide
Q: 178: Not true about varicella infection a. Only single stage of lesion is present at a time b.Secondary attack rate is 90% c.lesions occurs in flexors d.reactivation occur in 10-15%cases
Q:179 All are sphincters of lower genito urinary tract of female except ? A. Pubovaginalis B. External urethral sph
C. Internal urethral sph D. Bulbospongiosus
Q:180: Antegrade amnesia seen in a.Post traumatic b Drug induced c.ECT d.Stroke
Q181 .treatment of CACx 111b is a)wertheims hysterectomy b)schauta op c)ct D)intracavitary brachytherapy + Ext beam RT
Q182 Regimen followed in expectant management of placenta previa. A. Lileys method B. Crede's method C. McCafee and johnson regimen D. shers method
Q 183 .what is the pathology of edema in nephrotic syndrome? a)loss of protein in urine b)sodium water retention c)potassium transport defect d)hyperlipidemia
Q184 Vi polysaccharide vaccine a)causes local reaction b)many side effects c) fatal systemic reaction d)can be given with yellow fever and hepatitis
Q185: Which one of the following is not a CT feature of Adrenal adenoma? a. Low attenuation b. Homogeneous density and well defined borders c. Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for relatively longer time and washes out late d. Calcification is rare.
Q:186: A patient admitted in the ICU Consuming some poison. He had features of bronchodilatation, increase in temperature, constipation,tachycardia. The likely poison consumed is a.) mushroom b.) atropine c.) op d.) penicllamine
Q 187 A study found an association between beta carotene and a disease X. but it may be due to decreased fibre in such diets, such a kind of occurrence is termed? a) multifactorial causation
b)confounding factors c)multiple regression d)?
Q188 a 10-12 yr old male child wid failiure of normal growth., Na140, K-4.7, Cl-112, HCO3-16, pCO2 32, pH-7.34, diagnosis? a) High Anion gap Met acidosis b)normal Anion gap met acidosis c)resp alkalosis d) chronic respiratory acidosis
If k+ not added,as usualfor calculating ANION GAP than d ans is b [anion gap = Na+ - ClHco3-]
Q: 189: Methods of introducing gene transfer are all except: a.electroporation b.transfection c.phage conversion d.FISH
Q: 190: endotoxic shock initiated by: a.endothelial injury b.peripheral vasodilatation c.pyrogen release d.cytokines action
Q: 191: A pt presented with cranial nerve palsies and features of meningitis, 3 years back he had penile ulcer and later had mucocutaneous lesions as well. CSf and blood were sent for serology and pt was started on antibiotics, for follow up to see response to treatment the foll is ideal: a. Vdrl b. TPI test c. FTA-Ab d. dark field microscopy
Q: 192: True about RDS in newborn: a.develop within 6 hrs after birth b.air bronchogram seen c. receipt of antenatal steroids d.term baby
Q193 drug causing hgic cystitis ? 1.cyclophosphamide 2.bleomycin 3.busulphan 4.methotrexate
Q:194: Clue cells seen in a)bacterial vaginosis b)candida inf c)senile vaginitis d)trichomonas
Q: 195: Neonatal resp distress occurs on administration of a)opoid b)furosemide c)propranalol d)?
Q:196: A child had a skin infection, a catalase negative organism was isolated, another doctor isolated a similar organism from the throat of the child/ or another child{?} the difference between the organisms from the two sites? a)M protein b) Mec A gene mutation c)capsule{?] d) c protien
Q: 197:: In post op ward of ICU, five pts developed wound infection on same wound. the best way to prevent cross infection/mrsa outbreak in indoor pts {?} is: a. give vancomycin to all patients b. fumigation of ward c. disinfect floor with sodium hypochlorite d. practise proper meticulous hand washing
Q: 198: A child refusing to meal when forcefully fed, after feeding has abdominal complaints and vomits on feeding{?}, abdominal distension and diarrhea present, urine benedict +ve,what will be
found in urine?? a.glucose b.sucrose c.fructose d.galactose
Q: 199: A newborn with RR 86/min fever and grunting there was no nasal flarring and chest retarction with lagg{?} of abdomen. What is
the score according to Silverman criteria: a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Q 200 Lacrimation is lost in lesion of? a)nasociliary nerve b)greater petrosal nerve c) ant. ethmoidal nerve d)supraorbital nerve.
Waiting for feedback, answers are concluded after great search, ref avoided in present format for easy to read pattern,detailed ques answer wth explaination will b uploaded soon Ur friend Gmax courtesy RxPg.
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GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 QUESTIONS WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

Question 4 Tensor tympani is supplied by a) facial b) glossopharyngeal c) trigeminal d) vagus

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GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

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a)1.6 b)2.2 c)2.6 d)1.0

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

b. fever c. thrombocytosis d. young age

Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, 11th ed

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

a. glucose b. lactose c. galactose d. fructose

Q24 Chemical peeling is done by all except? 1.trichloroacetic acid

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

2.phosphoric acid 3.carboxylic acid 4.kijoic acid

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

Q:71:: Initiation of rhythmic respiration by: a.pre-bottzinger complex

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

b.dorsal grp neurons c.pneumotaxic centre d. apneustic centre

Q: 73: Pale infarcts seen in A/E a.kidney b.spleen c.heart d.lung

Q: 75: Not absorbed from the PCT a)Na+ b)Phosphate c)HCO3d)H+

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

2.pain 3.jaundice 4.lump gb

Q86 Hypoxiema independent of a)FiO2 b)altitude

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

Q94 Cocks peculiar tumor is a)basal cell CA

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

b)sQuamous cell CA c)sebaceous ulcerated cyst d)cylindroma

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

Q: 99: Secondary hyper-parathyroidism doesnt occur in :: a)osteoporosis b)osteomalacia c) rickets d) CRF

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

b. CPAP c. mechanical ventilation + surfactant d. mechanical ventilation (?)

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

c)less molecular weight d)less pCO2 in the alveoli

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

FOR ABRUPTIO 2 CLASSIFICATIONS EXIST

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS

Q: 145: Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by

GMAXS COMPILATION:: AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 WITH EXPECTED ANSWERS