Chapter 10: Weighted Application Blanks and Biographical Data

Questions: 63

1. (Points: 1)

WAB stands for weighted application biodata.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 2. (Points: 1)

The total score for a WAB is like that of any personnel selection test

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer

3. (Points: 1)

WABs have been successful in predicting job tenure criteria for only clerical and sales jobs.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 4. (Points: 1)

Weighted application blanks have not been successfully developed for high-level jobs such as research scientist.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 5. (Points: 1)

Criteria such as job tenure, absenteeism, and job output are likely to provide less reliable data than subjective measures such as ratings.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 6. (Points: 1)

In the initial analyses for a weighted application blank, it is recommended that as few items as possible be used since too many provide redundant information.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 7. (Points: 1)

The greater the response differences between the successful and unsuccessful groups (in a weighted application blank development), the less important an item is in predicting the criterion.

1. True

2. False

false

Save Answer 8. (Points: 1)

Application of WAB analyses are not recommended unless the weights can be evaluated on the same groups used to develop the scoring weights.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 9. (Points: 1)

The cutoff WAB score represents the point below which an applicant is hired.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 10. (Points: 1)

WABs can only be used as a preliminary screening device.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 11. (Points: 1)

Although WABs have many desirable measurement properties, they are likely to be perceived as threatening to applicants.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 12. (Points: 1)

Usually, a single WAB will apply to all jobs in a given organization.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 13. (Points: 1)

The measure of employee success used in developing a WAB may change in importance over time.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 14. (Points: 1)

As long as there is a statistical relationship between application blank items and job success, even non-job-related items that have a discriminatory impact can be legally used in selection.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 15. (Points: 1)

Over time, the utility of a WAB in predicting employee success is unlikely to diminish.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 16. (Points: 1)

Organizational changes can affect the applicability of a WAB.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 17. (Points: 1)

The WAB is widely used across organizations.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 18. (Points: 1)

WABs are not subject to the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 19. (Points: 1)

Using biographical data for selection is a relatively recent phenomenon.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 20. (Points: 1)

BIB stands for basic information blank.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 21. (Points: 1)

Whereas a BIB generally focuses on limited, factual, verifiable information involving educational background, training, work experience, etc., a WAB may range over a broader spectrum of an individual's background, experiences, interests, attitudes, and values.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 22. (Points: 1)

In terms of length, a WAB will typically be much longer than a BIB.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 23. (Points: 1)

In general, WAB items are more easily verified than BIB items.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 24. (Points: 1)

The most preferable format for a biodata item is a continuum requiring multiple choices.

1. True

2. False

false

Save Answer 25. (Points: 1)

One of the assumptions of biodata is that the best predictor of job applicants' future behavior is what they say they will do in the future.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 26. (Points: 1)

Biodata items are retained if they exhibit little response variance, skewed response distributions, correlation with protected group characteristics such as gender or ethnicity, or no correlation with other items thought to be measuring the same life experiences.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer

27. (Points: 1)

Not surprisingly, biodata questionnaires do not usually exhibit high internal consistency reliability estimates.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 28. (Points: 1)

Average biodata test-retest reliability coefficients tend to be higher than internal consistency estimates.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 29. (Points: 1)

Biodata scoring procedures developed on job incumbents typically generalize well to applicant groups.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 30. (Points: 1)

Job applicants cannot fake their responses to a BIB because these responses can always be verified.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 31. (Points: 1)

The evidence collected on the predictive power of biodata suggests that it has applicability to a wide variety of criteria.

1. False

2. True

false

Save Answer 32. (Points: 1)

Because of its impressive validity evidence, biodata is used by a large percentage of organizations.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 33. (Points: 1)

In one study, biodata, along with personality inventories received some of the lowest perceived job-relatedness ratings.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 34. (Points: 1)

Empirical development of WABs may require considerably more people than those for biodata questionnaires and, therefore, are more likely to be restricted to large organizations.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 35. (Points: 1)

WABs may be particularly valuable in employment situations where there are

1.

jobs with a small number of employee jobs in which the turnover rate is low jobs in which the turnover rate is high jobs that do not require long training programs

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 36. (Points: 1)

Most published studies examining the effectiveness of weighted application blanks

have used which of the following criteria?

1.

job tenure training program success absenteeism rate of salary increase

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 37. (Points: 1)

When developing a weighted application blank, two groups are first identified based upon which of the following?

1.

random assignment matched pairs criterion scores predictor scores

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer

38. (Points: 1)

After the first two groups are identified in the development of a weighted application blank, each of the two groups are further split into two more groups. What are the additional groups called?

1.

scoring; verifying weighting; holdout temporary; permanent experimental; control

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 39. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is not a step involved in the development and application of a WAB?

1.

identifying criterion groups applying weights to holdout groups creating the special application blank specifying item response categories

2.

3.

4.

false

Save Answer 40. (Points: 1)

Holdout groups are necessary for which of the following types of analyses?

1.

factor analysis cross-validation item response verification validation

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 41. (Points: 1)

To set a cutoff score for a WAB, you should first plot the scores of your two criterion groups. Then, what should you determine?

1.

where the overlap in the two distributions is the most how many people scored above the median

2.

3.

how many people scored below the median where the overlap in the two distributions is the least

4.
false

Save Answer 42. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is not a concern using WABs?

1.

Over time, the utility of a WAB in predicting employee success may diminish. Direct costs associated with a WAB are likely to be high. Organizational changes can affect the applicability of a WAB. Certain items on a WAB may violate federal laws.

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 43. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is not characteristic of biographical data questions?

1.

They are standardized.

2.

They use open-ended essay responses.

3. Items may concern attitudes, feelings, and value judgments resulting from experience.

4.
false

They are self-reported.

Save Answer 44. (Points: 1)

Biodata item content can be classified into which two groups?

1.

response-type; behavior type personality type; situational type continuum-type; dichotomy-type individual-oriented; group oriented work-related; non work-related

2.

3.

4.

5.
false

Save Answer 45. (Points: 1)

What is the principle of "equipollence?"

1.

Similar personalities may not be equally successful in a particular endeavor. Similar personality types are more likely to be successful.

2.

3. Personality types high on the need for achievement but low on the need for affiliation are more likely to be successful.

4.

Opposite personalities may be equally successful in a particular endeavor. Any personality type may be equally successful for a particular endeavor.

5.
false

Save Answer 46. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is an assumption underlying biodata as a selection tool?

1.

The best predictor of future behavior is general aptitude. The best predictor of future behavior is present intentions. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior. The best predictor of future behavior is previous interests.

2.

3.

4.

false

Save Answer 47. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is not a step involved in the development of a BIB?

1.

analyzing the job selecting the model employee developing biodata items selecting the job

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 48. (Points: 1)

Which of the following job analysis methods has been recommended as particularly appropriate for biodata item development?

1.

functional job analysis position analysis questionnaire structured interviewing

2.

3.

4.

job element task analysis

5.
false

Save Answer 49. (Points: 1)

Desirable BIB items should do which of the following?

1.

deal with past and future behavior be long carry a neutral or pleasant connotation not provide "escape" options

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 50. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is not one of the empirical scoring methods used with biodata scores?

1.

vertical percentage standard error of measuremen method deviant response horizontal percentage

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 51. (Points: 1)

Which of the following methods of empirical keying has been the most popular and useful?

1.

differential regression vertical percentage deviant response correlation

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 52. (Points: 1)

Which approach to scoring a BIB appears to be the contemporary trend?

1.

identifying life history dimensions identifying multiple baselines identifying personality profiles identifying a single, unique score

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 53. (Points: 1)

For entry-level selection, validity evidence suggests which of the following as the best predictor of performance?

1.

training and experience ratings employment interviews biodata reference checks

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer

54. (Points: 1)

For predicting job performance (as measured by supervisor's ratings), what is the typical range of validity coefficients associated with BIBs?

1.

low to upper .30s low to upper .40s low to upper .50s low to upper .20s

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 55. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why biodata is a good predictor?

There is a one-to-one correspondence between the content of a BIB and the criterion being predicted.
1. 2.

Intentions are the best predictor of future behavior. Performance is often explained by singular, but important, variables. Empirical scoring keys guarantee validity.

3.

4.

false

Save Answer 56. (Points: 1)

Biodata has been criticized for being "deterministic" in nature. What does this mean in a selection context?

1. Applicants control their life history patterns by carefully making choices and creating the "right" image. This is available to anyone as a strategy.

2. Organizations decide which life history patterns they want and match applicants to those preferences.

3. Scores derived from any of the various methods decide who will be selected with little human judgment necessary.

4. Applicants don't have much control over their life histories, making some unsuitable for employment because of who they are and not what they can do.
false

Save Answer 57. (Points: 1)

As a rule-of-thumb, how often should you conduct a check of WAB scoring keys?

1.

6 months to 1 year

2.

1 year to 2 years 3 years to 5 years 3 years to 4 years

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 58. (Points: 1)

What is an estimate given for typical WAB development?

1.

25 hours 100 hours 75 hours 50 hours

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 59. (Points: 1)

Many items that could be included in a weighted application blank are predictive of job success and create adverse impact. Why is this so? Isn't this inconsistent with what we know about the relationship between validation and adverse impact? Explain.

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A weighted application blank was developed on a work force whose average age is 55. Applicants to the organization have an average age of 22. What are the possible effects of developing the WAB on an older group of employees and using it on a younger group of applicants?

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If weighted application blanks are such an effective selection device, why aren't they used by more than a handful of organizations? Develop an argument that could persuade a plant manager to embrace a weighted application blank for selecting machine operators.

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Why might biographical information blanks developed in the year 2010 be very different from those developed today for the same jobs (hint: consider demographic and social trends)?

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Develop a convincing argument against the use of biographical information blanks in selection decision making. What would you recommend in its place?

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Chapter 11: The Selection Interview

Al Al Ahbabi Started: 27 March 2011 3:44 PM Questions: 63

1. (Points: 1)

Validity generalization studies strongly support the validity of selection interviews.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 2. (Points: 1)

Until recently, researchers had arrived at pessimistic conclusions regarding the reliability, validity, and usefulness of the interview in selection.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 3. (Points: 1)

A recent research study found that applicants clearly retained more information about the position from a mixed-focus interview than from the recruitment-only interview.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 4. (Points: 1)

As the recruitment function of the interview increases, there is evidence that the interviewer places relatively more emphasis on job rather than applicant characteristics, describes vacant positions in more unfavorable terms, and asks more questions that are likely to lead to applicant disqualification.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 5. (Points: 1)

An interview is better suited to measure personal relations than other assessment methods.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 6. (Points: 1)

A conclusion about an applicant's mental ability, arrived at during a 30-minute interview, is more efficient and accurate than one based on the administration of a 10minute test.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 7. (Points: 1)

It is generally better to measure more applicant KSAs than to focus on a few specific characteristics.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 8. (Points: 1)

According to one survey, the majority of organizations use a structured format for employment interviews.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 9. (Points: 1)

Attractiveness has consistently been shown to be related to interviewers' evaluations.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 10. (Points: 1)

A research study found that moderately obese individuals, especially men, were rated lower than were individuals of average weight.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 11. (Points: 1)

Research on nonverbal behaviors supports the idea that an interviewee can manipulate the outcome of the interview through learned behaviors.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 12. (Points: 1)

Grooming (style of hair, clothing, etc.) has been found to be related to evaluations of male applicants.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 13. (Points: 1)

The similar-to-me effect is much less pronounced when the interview is structured and job requirements are clear.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 14. (Points: 1)

Many nonverbal behaviors, such as eye contact, head movement, smiling, etc. which could influence interviewers' decisions have not been found to be related to favorable interview decisions.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 15. (Points: 1)

Interviewer ratings are less accurate if the interviewers receive both a high level of verbal cues and moderate to high levels of nonverbal cues from candidates.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 16. (Points: 1)

Surprisingly, the personal liking of the interviewer for the applicant is not positively related to the interviewer's evaluation.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer

17. (Points: 1)

Somewhat surprisingly, it has been found that relatively larger weight has been given to negative information over positive information in the interviewer's decision, even for experienced interviewers.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 18. (Points: 1)

We can conclude that interviewers in different companies assess general employability in the same way but may assess the match between the applicant and the firm using weights that are specific to the firm.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 19. (Points: 1)

One of the major weaknesses of the interview is that it is often used to accomplish too many purposes.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 20. (Points: 1)

Interviewers can usually specify why acceptable applicants would be satisfactory, but cannot clearly articulate reasons why rejected applicants would be unsatisfactory.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 21. (Points: 1)

There are many factors that are marginally related to job activities but that influence interviewers' evaluations.

1. True

2. False

false

Save Answer 22. (Points: 1)

Prior to the Watson v. Ft. Worth Bank & Trust case, interview cases were most often heard as disparate impact cases.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 23. (Points: 1)

As long as you have a structured or scored interview, you are safe from charges of illegal discrimination.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 24.

(Points: 1)

The pre-interview expectations of the interviewer about the applicant has a small, but measurable effect on the evaluations made of the applicant at the completion of the interview.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 25. (Points: 1)

Despite common perceptions, men and women with approximately the same qualifications are not often evaluated differently regardless of which type of job is being staffed.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 26. (Points: 1)

Research has found that excessive talking by the interviewer does not limit the amount of job-related information obtained from interviewees.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 27. (Points: 1)

Research has found that interviewers are overconfident in their ability to evaluate applicants, which results in hasty decisions.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 28. (Points: 1)

Research has found that rarely do interviewers allow one or two either good or bad characteristics of an applicant to influence the evaluation of all other characteristics.

1. True

2. False

false

Save Answer 29. (Points: 1)

Research has found that interviewers make an evaluation of the applicant in the last few minutes of the interview.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 30. (Points: 1)

Even short training programs can reduce some of the more common rater errors, such as contrast, halo, leniency, and stringency.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 31. (Points: 1)

In the behavior description interview, it is recommended that maximum performance dimensions be omitted from the interview and almost complete emphasis be placed on typical performance dimensions.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 32. (Points: 1)

One main difference between the job content method and the situational and behavior description interviewing methods is that the job content method uses critical incidents as the major job analysis method.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 33. (Points: 1)

Even little amounts of structure in an interview can yield a valid applicant assessment.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 34. (Points: 1)

Research has shown that a panel interview (two or more interviewers acting at once) has higher validity than an individual interview.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 35. (Points: 1)

A recent study found that the interview and cognitive ability tests have a high degree of overlap in terms of their variance.

1. True

2. False

false

Save Answer 36. (Points: 1)

Both the situational interview and the behavior description interview have been shown to have high validity for predicting job performance.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 37. (Points: 1)

It is appropriate to use the interview to question applicants about incomplete or contradictory statements presented on the application blank or other similar instruments.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 38.

(Points: 1)

In general, it is preferable to limit the use of pre-interview data that an interviewer is exposed to.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 39. (Points: 1)

One recommended interview practice is to have interviewers review ability test scores, letters of reference, and other information before the interview is held.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 40. (Points: 1)

To measure KSAs related to sociability and interpersonal interaction, KSAs should be stated in general terms, such as "poise," "friendliness," "pleasantness," or "professional bearing."

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 41. (Points: 1)

All else being equal, the more items an assessment device possesses which measure the same KSA, the greater its reliability and validity.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 42. (Points: 1)

An assessment device should contain several items or parts that gather answers about the same variable in order for the assessment device to be a useful instrument.

1. True

2. False

false

Save Answer 43. (Points: 1)

When using a formal scoring format, it is necessary to score each question separately.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 44. (Points: 1)

There is evidence that when an overall score is sought it is preferable to have this rating provided by the interviewer as an independent score rather than as a summation of the ratings of the individual KSAs.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 45. (Points: 1)

The scope of selection interviews should be narrowed to

1.

job knowledge, personal relations and good citizenship likability, friendliness, and motivation dependability and adaptability work habits and compliance

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 46. (Points: 1)

Which type of information is most appropriately assessed in the selection interview?

1.

educational background good citizenship job preferences career goals

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer

47. (Points: 1)

When are job knowledge questions appropriate in an interview?

1.

They are appropriate for all situations. for jobs that require verbalization of technical information and work procedures when there are a large number of such questions to be asked when interview questions refer to actual behaviors such as diagnosis of defects

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 48. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is true about how information is processed by the interviewer?

1. Pre-interview expectations of the interviewer about the applicant have no effect on the evaluations made of the applicant at the completion of the interview.

2. Negative information is given a relatively larger weight than positive information.

3. Facts gathered in the interview play a far more important role than impressionistic information.

4.

Interviewers can not usually specify why a rejected applicant would not likely

be a good employee, but can explain why an accepted applicant would be satisfactory.
false

Save Answer 49. (Points: 1)

Why is the Watson v. Ft. Worth Bank & Trust case so important for selection interviewing?

It found that when a selection interview is central to the charge of discrimination, the case could be heard as an adverse impact case.
1. 2. It found that content validity is an inappropriate defense for the measurement of mental processes.

3. It found that structured interviewing with formal scoring procedures is an acceptable legal defense in a discrimination case.

4. It found that it is permissible to use subjective measures of certain applicant characteristics that cannot be fully measured with objective tests.
false

Save Answer 50. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a recommended legally appropriate practice associated with the selection interview?

1.

For lower level jobs, use personal traits as a portion of the criteria for selection. Use a demographically mixed set of experienced or trained interviewers. Use an unstructured interview format. KSAs should be described in terms of personal traits rather than behaviors.

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 51. (Points: 1)

What are "knowledge structures" in Dipboye's model of interviewer decision making?

1. the interviewer's beliefs about the requirements of the job and the characteristics of the applicants

2.

what an applicant brings to the workplace along with skills and abilities what an interviewer understands after the interview has taken place

3.

4. the interviewee's beliefs about the requirements of the job and the characteristics of desirable applicants
false

Save Answer 52. (Points: 1)

Dipboye's model of interviewer decision making implies which of the following?

1. The interviewer begins each interview in a neutral state, reacting only to information presented and the behavior of the applicant in the interview.

2. Pre-interview data are postulated to be incorrect and always detrimental to the evaluation of a candidate.

3. The interviewer controls what information is processed and how that information is processed during the interview.

4. The interviewer does not begin the interview in a neutral state, reacting only to information presented and the behavior of the applicant in the interview.
false

Save Answer 53. (Points: 521)

Which of the following is not one of the numerous errors committed in conducting the interview and evaluating applicants?

1.

making an evaluation of the applicant within the first minutes of the interview being influenced by the nonverbal behavior of applicants

2.

excessive talking by the interviewee, which limits the amount of job-related information obtained
3.

4.

allowing one or two either good or bad characteristics of an applicant to

influence the evaluation of all other characteristics

false

Save Answer 54. (Points: 1)

What is "structured" about a structured interview?

1. The tone of the interview is formal, thereby increasing the likelihood that jobrelated information will be exchanged.

2. Different questions are asked of each applicant, but they are determined before the interview takes place.

3. The applicant is given a list of possible questions to prepare for before the interview.

4.
false

The same information is collected about the same topics from all applicants.

Save Answer 55. (Points: 1)

What is similar in the development of both situational interviews and behavior description interviews?

1.

the generation of critical incidents

2.

Each question is formed with appropriate probes (follow-up questions) identifying and rating critical tasks

3.

4. review of the behavioral dimensions and identification of each as essentially describing either maximum or typical performance of the individual
false

Save Answer 56. (Points: 1)

Which of the following interview methods focuses use future-oriented questions that ask applicants to imagine a work situation?

1.

structured interview behavior description interview job content method situational interview

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 57. (Points: 1)

Which type of interview places applicants in one of five rank-order groups for each dimension?

1.

job content method behavior description interview structured interview situational interview

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 58. (Points: 1)

3Which of the following is an appropriate question of job knowledge?

1.

"Did you take any courses in accounting?" "Have you ever directed a construction crew?" "Could you tell me the steps in performing an empirical validation study?" "What kind of courses did you enjoy in college?"

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 59.

(Points: 1)

Why does a structured interview yield better results than an unstructured interview for making selection decisions?

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What are recommended practices for getting the most use out of a selection interview?

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What can you do to increase the likelihood that your selection interview can withstand legal challenge?

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Explain how the job content method provides a more comprehensive approach to interview question construction than either the situational interview method or the behavior description interview method.

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What should be the role of the selection interview in a contemporary selection program?

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Chapter 12: Ability Tests

Al Al Ahbabi Started: 27 March 2011 3:48 PM Questions: 38

1. (Points: 1)

Aptitude tests and achievement tests measure the same thing.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 2. (Points: 1)

All ability tests measure what a person has learned up to that point in time.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 3. (Points: 1)

Mental ability tests actually measure several distinct abilities.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 4. (Points: 1)

The Otis Self-Administering Test of Mental Ability was the first group-administered mental ability test to have widespread use in industry.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 5. (Points: 1)

All mental ability tests are interchangeable since they measure a common construct.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 6. (Points: 1)

Mental ability tests and I.Q. tests are synonymous.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 7. (Points: 1)

Over the last 30 years, the use of performance tests to assess mechanical ability has exceeded the use of paper-and-pencil tests.

1. False

2. True

false

Save Answer 8. (Points: 1)

The Bennett Mechanical Comprehension Test measures understanding of mechanical or physical principles.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 9. (Points: 1)

The Minnesota Clerical Test is a prototype of clerical ability tests.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 10. (Points: 1)

Research has supported the conclusion that clerical jobs require perceptual speed and accuracy and manual dexterity.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 11. (Points: 1)

The courts have consistently held that height and weight requirements are reasonable measures of strength.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 12. (Points: 1)

In general, courts have placed a more stringent demand for reasonable accommodation on employers when the disabled individuals are employees who are returning to work after illness or injury than when they are new workers.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 13. (Points: 1)

While women score lower than men on strength and endurance tests, they do not demonstrate lower performance on jobs that require these abilities.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 14. (Points: 1)

While mental ability tests are valid across many occupations, they are not equally valid among occupations.

1. True

2. False

false

Save Answer 15. (Points: 1)

Mental ability tests are valid for many jobs and increase in predictability of job performance as the job becomes more complex.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 16. (Points: 1)

One conclusion that can be drawn from validity generalization studies is that it is no longer necessary to conduct validity studies within each organization.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 17. (Points: 1)

You can avoid conducting a validity study if you can demonstrate through job analysis that the job within the organization is similar to the job in the validity generalization study.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 18. (Points: 1)

A score obtained from a general mental ability test is as good a predictor of job performance as is a composite score obtained from a test with multiple scales of different abilities.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 19. (Points: 1)

For the most part, criticisms of validity generalization studies have focused on the appropriateness of the studies included.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 20. (Points: 1)

It has been a common finding in simulation studies that, under many conditions, the validity generalization correction formulas underestimate the amount of variance attributable to study deficiencies.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 21. (Points: 1)

Why did the growing use of ability tests come to an abrupt halt during the late 1960s and 1970s?

1. because ability tests were becoming more costly to administer to large numbers of applicants

2.

because of EEO laws and early Supreme Court decisions that specifically

addressed a few of the most popular of these tests because research evidence questioned the validity of these tests for predicting job performance
3.

4.
false

because other, more valid predictors of job performance became available

Save Answer 22. (Points: 1)

What is a useful way to differentiate among ability tests?

1.

content, breadth physical, mental speed, power length, depth

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 23. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is true about the Wonderlic Personnel Test?

1.

There is one basic form for the test. It is not a timed test. It is an individually administered test. The primary factor measured is verbal comprehension.

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 24. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is not measured by mechanical ability tests?

1.

perceptual speed and accuracy mechanical information accuracy in processing verbal and numerical data spatial visualization

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 25. (Points: 1)

Research has consistently identified all but which of the following factors or

components of physical abilities?

1.

movement quality muscular strength anaerobic strength cardiovascular endurance

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 26. (Points: 1)

Which type of physical ability test demonstrates relatively more adverse impact against females?

1.

flexibility balance cardiovascular endurance coordination

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer

27. (Points: 1)

Validity studies for the same job have found which of the following to be true?

1. Corrections to the validity coefficients have lowered the magnitude of these coefficients.

2. The validity coefficient for the predictor and criterion measures is stable across organizations.

3.

The coefficients for performance are, as a whole, higher than those for training. Previous estimates of the validity of ability tests were quite accurate.

4.
false

Save Answer 28. (Points: 1)

What is the general conclusion of studies examining differential validity?

1.

Differential validity exists, but it has a minor impact on selection. Differential validity does not exist.

2.

3. Much more research is needed before we can conclude anything about differential validity.

4.

Differential validity exists, and it has a major impact on selection.

false

Save Answer 29. (Points: 1)

Which of the following selection methods are approximately equal to cognitive ability tests?

1.

personality inventories interview projective techniques assessment centers

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 30. (Points: 1)

Which of the following selection methods have NOT demonstrated less adverse impact than cognitive ability tests?

1.

interview personality inventories

2.

3.

academic performance assessment centers

4.
false

Save Answer 31. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is as inexpensive and easy to administer and score as a cognitive ability test?

1.

academic performance interview assessment centers biodata

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 32. (Points: 1)

Which of the following types of information are most important for assessing a test publisher's product?

1.

difficulty levels of items reliability data norm group scores whether the test measures one or multiple topics

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 33. (Points: 1)

Why is the distinction between aptitude and achievement tests difficult to specifically conceptualize?

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What is the distinction between validity generalization for the same job versus validity generalization across jobs?

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Summarize the major conclusions of validity generalization studies.

a. What are the implications of this research for human resource practice? b. What cautions should be observed based upon the research that has criticized validity generalization procedures? c. What validation practices would you recommend to an organization based upon these research findings

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What is the scientific argument concerning whether or not tests are "culturally" fair? a. What is the scientific evidence concerning this issue? b. Why do claims of test bias persist in spite of conclusive evidence?

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Prepare a checklist that a practicing manager could use to help evaluate selection tests. What should he/she look for in advertising brochures in order to assess a vendor's claims? What questions should he/she ask of the test publisher?

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Your organization has not had any disabled applicants apply for a job. However, you are concerned that you must be ready for the likelihood that it will happen at some time in the future. What do you need to diagnose in your current selection program to be sure you are in compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act?

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Chapter 13: Personality Assessment

Al Al Ahbabi Started: 27 March 2011 3:49 PM Questions: 41

1. (Points: 1)

Managers intuitively believe that personality traits matter at work

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 2. (Points: 1)

A weak situation is not uniformly interpreted.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 3. (Points: 1)

In powerful situations, individual behavior is more attributable to the known situational roles than to individual traits.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 4. (Points: 1)

For a job in a weak work situation, personality may not be an important dimension for selection purposes.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 5. (Points: 1)

A fundamental limitation of using the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator in selection is that given the type of scoring system it is not meaningful to calculate validity coefficients

between MBTI scales and job performance scales.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 6. (Points: 1)

Self-reports of personality (from self-report inventories) may actually produce overestimates of the validity of personnel for selection.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 7. (Points: 1)

Personality data that are supplied by the individual and are given in response to questions about general behavior produce an underestimate of the correlation of personally with job performance.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 8. (Points: 1)

An optimal way of gathering personality data about applicants would be to ask individuals who know the applicant questions that are phrased in terms of general job activities.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 9. (Points: 1)

Two large-sample studies have concluded that distortion of self-report personality inventories is a large problem.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 10. (Points: 1)

Projective techniques could be classified as "powerful testing situations."

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 11. (Points: 1)

Socially appropriate answers are more likely to result from projective techniques than self-report questionnaires.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 12. (Points: 1)

The scores derived from projective techniques generally have high reliabilities.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 13. (Points: 1)

Responses to projective techniques may be biased by specific skills (such as verbal or test-taking) of those people being assessed.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 14. (Points: 1)

Research evidence supports the use of projective techniques in selection.

1. False

2. True

false

Save Answer 15. (Points: 1)

Researchers have found that individuals tend to interpret even the simplest behaviors as signs of traits.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 16. (Points: 1)

If a particular middle management job is characterized by stress attributable to several conflicting project demands, all with short time deadlines, it is not justifiable to develop a selection situation in which the applicant faces stress caused by an antagonistic interviewer or an embarrassing social situation.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer

17. (Points: 1)

It is possible to infer personality traits from job analysis data in much the same way as KSAs are inferred.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 18. (Points: 1)

It would seemingly be more effective in selection to use traits that affected a wide set of behaviors rather than a narrow set.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 19. (Points: 1)

The textbook authors recommend using personality instruments for which enough testconstruction information is available to indicate that the instrument was designed to measure narrowly defined personality traits.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 20. (Points: 1)

Personality would seem to be clearly related to job performance in jobs where the application of knowledge and predetermined actions are critical to successful job performance.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 21. (Points: 1)

Personality may be less important in the performance of jobs that require non technical solutions to many work situations and more important in the performance of jobs that are technical since the effective communication of technical information is so critical.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 22. (Points: 1)

Performance in jobs that are very structured in terms of work behaviors would seem to be less related to personality than those that are unstructured.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 23. (Points: 1)

A general theory is emerging to suggest both the need for power and willingness to exert power may be important for managerial success in all situations.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer

24. (Points: 1)

Personality seems clearly related to job performance for those jobs that rely more on specific knowledge and procedures and have few acceptable ways to produce desired performance.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 25. (Points: 1)

Because psychiatrists and clinical psychologists can use personality tests to diagnose mental health deficiencies, such tests could be viewed as medical examinations and therefore deemed inappropriate for use before a job offer has been made.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 26. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion to be drawn concerning the use of personality measurements for predicting job performance?

1.

Personality data is not useful for making selection decisions. Personality data can make an independent contribution to selection decisions.

2.

3. Research evidence is too inconsistent to make any reasonable judgments about the use of personality data in selection.

4. Personality data is the single most important information for making selection decisions.
false

Save Answer 27. (Points: 1)

What is the average validity coefficient obtained in recent research studies examining the effectiveness of personality measures for predicting job performance?

1.

.40 .50 .30 .35 .45

2.

3.

4.

5.

false

Save Answer 28. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is true about the concept of a trait?

1. It begins with the common observation that individuals are quite similar in their reactions to the same situation.

2. It is used to explain the consistency of group behavior over a variety of situations.

3.

There is general consensus on which traits are common across individuals.

4. It is used to explain the consistency of one individual's behavior over a variety of situations.
false

Save Answer 29. (Points: 1)

What type of situation (in a personality context) is the selection interview considered to be?

1.

weak inconsistent

2.

3.

moderate powerful

4.
false

Save Answer 30. (Points: 1)

Traits are a more likely explanation of behavioral differences in which type of situation?

1.

moderate weak job interview powerful

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 31. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a major conclusion from the field of personality psychology and the use of personality in organizations?

1. There are ten general factors of personality that can now serve as a meaningful taxonomy for describing traits.

2. The circumstances of different situations apparently have no influence on behavior, resulting in traits being the best explanation of behavior.

3. There are five general factors of personality that can now serve as a meaningful taxonomy for describing traits.

4.
false

There are literally thousands of core traits that influence behavior.

Save Answer 32. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is TRUE about self-report questionnaires in personality measurement?

These questionnaires don't assume that there is a correspondence between what a person says about himself/herself and what is actually true.
1. 2. These instruments usually consist of long scenarios followed by multiplechoice response formats.

3. The assumption is made that the individual is aware of his/her thoughts, emotions, etc., and is willing to openly share them.

4. The assumption is made that the individual is unaware of his/her thoughts, emotions, etc., but that the questionnaire responses will reveal such thoughts, emotions, etc.

false

Save Answer 33. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is TRUE about the validity of self-report inventories that measure the Big Five?

1.

Agreeableness and openness to experience demonstrated the highest validity.

2. Extroversion and emotional stability were valid predictors for some, but not all, of the occupations.

3.

Conscientiousness was a valid predictor for only one of three criteria.

4. The conscientiousness dimension was a valid predictor for some, but not all, of the occupations.
false

Save Answer 34. (Points: 1)

What do projective techniques and self-report questionnaires have in common?

1. They both require verbal responses which are scored to obtain measures of personality characteristics.

2.

The structure of the questions is intentionally ambiguous in both devices.

3. Both devices might be classified as "weak testing situations" in which individual differences in personality strongly account for the differences in response among people.

4.
false

The structure of the responses is intentionally ambiguous in both devices.

Save Answer 35. (Points: 1)

Which of the following personality variables is appropriately measured in the selection interview?

1.

sociability aggressiveness ambition work patterns

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 36. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral assessment method?

1.

Leaderless group discussion Thematic Apperception Test unstructured interviews California Psychological Inventory

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 37. (Points: 1)

Should personality assessment be used in selection? Summarize both the arguments for and the arguments against its use in selection.

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Compare and contrast the different personality assessment methods. Which methods are more likely to create "powerful situations," and which methods are more likely to create "weak situations?" Which methods are most likely to be useful for selection purposes?

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Why is the interview, in general, such a poor measurement device for inferring personality traits?

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If you insist upon using the interview to assess personality traits, what should you assess, and what precautions should you observe?

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What can you do to ensure that personality measures have more "face validity" with job applicants?

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Chapter 14: Performance Tests and Assessment Centers

Questions: 56

1. (Points: 1)

Performance tests provide, as other selection devices, only indirect evidence of the applicant's ability and skill to work on the job.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 2. (Points: 1)

Performance tests commonly assume that the applicants already have the knowledge, ability, and skill to perform the job behavior.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 3. (Points: 1)

Performance tests have only been found to successfully predict job performance for clerical and skilled manual labor positions.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 4. (Points: 1)

Asking many questions rapidly and not allowing much time for the applicant's response in a selection interview is an effective performance test for assessing the stress associated with high work demands.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 5. (Points: 1)

The most appropriate tasks to consider for a performance test are those that depend on

specialized knowledge, abilities, or skills to use company products, personnel, materials, customers, etc, since these tasks distinguish the company's jobs from other organizations' jobs.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 6. (Points: 1)

Ordinarily, performance tests are much more expensive than other selection devices if many applicants are involved.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 7. (Points: 1)

Signs are selection tests that gather information about behaviors that are consistent with the job behavior being predicted.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 8. (Points: 1)

Trainability tests are useful for jobs requiring general knowledge or skill that applicants can be expected to possess.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 9. (Points: 1)

Minicourse trainability tests use a training setting to create a performance test that predicts future job performance.

1. True

2. False

false

Save Answer 10. (Points: 1)

In developing a performance test, it is preferable to select tasks that require a long time to perform rather than tasks that require a short time to perform.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 11. (Points: 1)

Tasks that a large majority of applicants can do are useful in discriminating among good and poor applicants.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 12. (Points: 1)

Tasks that have variable operations or products or have verbal or interactive patterns that are difficult to define are easier and less expensive to develop and score for a performance test.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 13. (Points: 1)

In general, tasks chosen to be represented in a performance test are those that are the most difficult tasks in the job since those tasks are most likely able to differentiate among good and poor applicants.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 14. (Points: 1)

All else being equal, it is preferable to have the applicant's performance on one part of the test be closely tied to a previous part of the test.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 15. (Points: 1)

In general, a process is scored in a performance test when there are many ways to do the job.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 16. (Points: 1)

In general, a product is scored in a performance test when a large number of behaviors could lead to an acceptable product.

1. False

2. True

false

Save Answer 17. (Points: 1)

When a measure of job performance was used as the measure to determine validity, the motor performance tests were found to be the best of all selection tests.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 18. (Points: 1)

When a measure of success in training was used to determine validity, verbal performance tests were found to be superior to motor tests.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 19. (Points: 1)

One study shows that the adverse impact of the performance tests was less than that of the written tests.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 20. (Points: 1)

The Management Progress Study of IBM marked the beginning of the use of assessment centers for industrial organizations.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 21. (Points: 1)

Assessment centers are usually administered to individuals one at a time rather than to groups of individuals.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 22. (Points: 1)

There is a close similarity between personality dimensions and the behavioral dimensions of assessment centers.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 23. (Points: 1)

Personality tests, both objective and projective, are commonly being included in recent assessment centers.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 24. (Points: 1)

The interview is employed quite often in assessment centers.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 25. (Points: 1)

Usually, there are one-half as many assessors in an assessment center as there are participants.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 26. (Points: 1)

In an assessment center, each dimension must be measured by more than one exercise.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 27. (Points: 1)

In an assessment center, each exercise should not measure more than one dimension.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 28. (Points: 1)

Assessors (in an assessment center) are usually outside consultants hired for their expertise and objectivity.

1. False

2. True

false

Save Answer 29. (Points: 1)

Unfortunately, assessment centers have been found to be valid for predicting job potential but not job performance.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 30. (Points: 1)

In general, adverse impact has not been a problem associated with assessment centers.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 31. (Points: 1)

One problem with assessment centers is that they have rarely received favorable support by the courts and the EEOC in alleged discrimination cases.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 32. (Points: 1)

There is evidence to support the conclusion that it is possible to use data currently available in organizations to yield comparable selection data that are content valid at a lower cost than assessment centers.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 33. (Points: 1)

In assessment centers, correlations among dimension ratings are usually quite low.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 34. (Points: 1)

In assessment centers, correlations among dimensions that are measured with the same exercise are very high.

1. False

2. True
false

Save Answer 35. (Points: 1)

Those who develop assessment centers should maximize the number of dimensions used in order to obtain a comprehensive evaluation of each applicant.

1. True

2. False
false

Save Answer 36. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a limitation in the use of performance tests?

1.

The data are subject to willing distortion or faking by the applicant.

2. Much care must be taken in the construction of work sample tests to ensure their representativeness of job activity.

3. Inferences of the applicant's future job performance must be made from only verbal information.

4. The carryover from verbal description to job performance needed in performance tests is not always complete.
false

Save Answer 37. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a true distinction between performance tests and other selection devices?

1. Performance tests predict future job performance while other selection devices assess current KSAs.

2. The focus is more on the test representing important job activities than on linking the test to specific KSAs.

3. Performance tests do not require judgments by raters or interpretations of scores, while other selection devices do require judgment and interpretation.

4. Performance tests provide indirect evidence of an applicant's ability and skill to work on the job, while other selection devices provide direct evidence.
false

Save Answer 38. (Points: 1)

"Signs" and "samples" are categories of selection tests that both rely upon which of the following "principles" of human behavior?

1.

behavioral consistency behavioral diversity trait consistency trait diversity

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 39. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is an example of a "sign" test?

1.

job knowledge test simulation exercises biodata forms training and experience evaluations

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 40. (Points: 1)

Work sample tests have been classified as falling into two categories. What are those two categories?

1.

verbal, motor mechanical, problem-centered signs, samples physical, mental

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 41. (Points: 1)

The following are steps in the development of performance tests. What is the correct order of steps to produce a performance test?
i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. training of judges tryout of test before general use job analysis scoring test results identification of tasks to be tested development of testing procedures

1.

i, iii, v, vi, ii, iv iii, vi, v, iv, i, ii iii, v, vi, iv, i, ii vi, iii, v, ii, iv, i

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 42. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is TRUE about the choice of standards for scoring a performance test?

1. Learning time is a logical standard for tasks which are characterized by having a variety of novel demands placed on the job incumbent.

2.

Safety is an important dimension to consider for all tasks.

Quality is more important when correctness of the task effort is secondary to time or cost to complete the task.
3.

4. Quantity is most importantly scored for those performance tests in which amount produced within a given period of time is not within the control of the worker.
false

Save Answer 43. (Points: 1)

The development of an assessment center starts with a job analysis to identify activities that are important parts of the job of interest. These are referred to as:

1.

categories dimensions patterns profiles

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 44. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a behavioral dimension frequently measured in assessment centers?

1.

oral communication

2.

attention to detail reliability cooperation

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 45. (Points: 1)

What are the two most often-used performance tests in assessment centers?

1.

mental ability tests; projective tests peer assessment; measures of leadership ability leaderless group discussion; in-basket case analysis; personal history data

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 46. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is true about the relationship between dimensions and exercises in an assessment center?

1.

Each dimension must be measured by more than one exercise. Each exercise measures only one dimension. One exercise is usually adequate to measure all dimensions. Each dimension is measured by one exercise.

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 47. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a statement of participant behavior rather than assessor judgment?

1.

"fell apart emotionally when discussion became heated" "resolved conflict quietly" "offered some ideas that could lead to change" "took good notes as each side presented its arguments"

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 48.

(Points: 1)

What is the "Crown Prince Syndrome?"

1. One result of participating in an assessment center is the inflated self-perception of being a "crown prince."

2. When participants in assessment centers return to their work, jealous coworkers refer to them as "crown princes."

3. When assessment center information is used for making managerial decisions it creates a self-fulfilling prophecy.

4. Managers who are promoted without being evaluated in an assessment center are referred to as "crown princes."
false

Save Answer 49. (Points: 1)

Which of the following benefits has NOT been associated with manager-assessors following their assessment center experience?

1.

decreased halo error in rating subordinate performance greater proficiency in interviewing changes in self-perceived ability ratings greater proficiency in communicating information

2.

3.

4.

false

Save Answer 50. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is a criticism of assessment centers?

1.

very expensive to develop and maintain lack of validity adverse impact lack of acceptance by organizations

2.

3.

4.
false

Save Answer 51. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is NOT an example of a "high fidelity" simulation?

1.

blueprint reading test hypothetical work situation telephone call simulation

2.

3.

4.
false

oral directions/typing test

Save Answer 52. (Points: 1)

Which of the following is true about what we know about assessment centers?

1. They work (i.e., are valid in predicting both job performance and career movement) because the dimensions are measuring empirically distinct characteristics of the participants.

They don't work (i.e., aren't valid in predicting both job performance and career movement) because it has been found that the correlation of assessors' ratings across exercises is influenced by scoring procedures.
2. 3. They don't work (i.e., aren't valid in predicting both job performance and career movement) because the dimensions do not measure empirically distinct characteristics of the participants.

4. They work (i.e., are valid in predicting both job performance and career movement), but to date we don't know why.
false

Save Answer 53. (Points: 1)

If performance tests are so sensible and efficient, shouldn't they be used in all selection situations? Why or why not?

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You are asked to develop a performance test for a mid-level management job that is characterized by multiple, competing, and high job demands. Obviously, stress is associated with this position. What kind of performance test would you create to assess the ability of an applicant to handle this type of stress effectively?

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Summarize the validity evidence for using assessment centers in selection. Do they work as they were intended to work? Why or why not?

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When would it be reasonable to include personal computer skill in an assessment center?

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