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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five Which of the following are true regarding ISDN (Integrated Services Digital

Network)? Choose two. A. ISDN normally runs by means of a microwave network. B. ISDN will only permit voice and graphics to be transmitted. C. ISDN involves the digitization of the telephone network, which allows source material such as voice, data, video, and graphics to be transmitted over existing telephone wires. D. ISDN components include terminal adapters (TA), terminals, line termination equipment, network termination devices, and exchange termination equipment. Answer: C and D ISDN involves the digitization of the telephone network, which allows source material such as voice, data, video, and graphics to be transmitted over existing telephone wires. ISDN components include terminal adapters (TA), terminals, line termination equipment, network termination devices, and exchange termination equipment.

What are the two types of ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) terminals? Choose two. A. B. C. D. TE1 SE1 SE2 TE2

Answer: A and D TE1 (Terminal Equipment Type 1) are terminals that are ISDN compliant. TE2 (Terminal Equipment Type 2) are terminals that predate the ISDN standards and are non-ISDN compliant.

What are the two types of ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) Network Termination devices? Choose two. A. B. C. D. WT1 NT2 WT0 NT1

Answer: B and D NT1 (Network Termination Type 1) devices implement ISDN physical layer functions and connect user devices to the ISDN facility. NT2 (Network Termination Type 2) devices perform concentration services and implement Data Link layer and Network layer protocol functions. Which of the following are ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) reference points? Choose four. 1
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five

A. B. C. D. E. F.

W R S T U V

Answer: B, C, D, and E R is the reference point Terminal Adapter (TA). S is the reference point T is the reference point U is the reference point equipment in the carrier between non-ISDN equipment and a between user terminals and the NT2. between NT1 and NT2 devices. between NT1 devices and line terminating network.

The ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) BRI (Basic Rate Interface) consists of which of the following? A. B. C. D. one B two B three two D channel and one D channel channels and one D channel B channels and two D channels channels and one B channel

Answer: B The ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) BRI (Basic Rate Interface) consists of two B channels and one D channel. The B channels operate at 64 Kbps each and the D channel operates at 16 Kbps.

The ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) PRI (Primary Rate Interface) consists of which of the following? Choose two. A. one B channel and one D channel B. three B channels and two D channels C. two D channels and one B channel D. 23 B channels and one D channel in North America and Japan E. 30 B channels and one D channel in Europe, Australia, and other parts of the world. Answer: D and E The ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) PRI (Primary Rate Interface) consists of 23 B channels and one D channel in North America and Japan or 30 B channels and one D channel in Europe, Australia, and other parts of the world. What are the three main components of PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)? A. HDLC 2
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five B. PAP C. LCP D. NCP Answer: A, C, and D The three main components of PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) are HDLC (High-Level Data-Link Control), LCP (Link Control Protocol), and NCP (Network Control Protocol). HDLC is used for encapsulating datagrams over point-to-point links. LCP establishes, configures, maintains, and terminates the point-to-point connection. NCP establishes and configures different network-layer protocols.

Which of the following are true regarding Multilink PPP (MPPP)? Choose two. A. B. C. D. Provides frame detection at the Data Adds support for channel aggregation Has become a popular replacement for Ensures that packets arrive in order Link layer to PPP X.25 at the receiving device

Answer: B and D Multilink PPP (MPPP) adds support for channel aggregation to PPP. It ensures that packets arrive in order at the receiving device.

Which of the following are true regarding Multichassis MPPP? Choose three. A. It is a Cisco Systems IOS enhancement to MPPP B. It helps configure various network protocols C. It helps track the frequency of network outages D. It allows WAN administrators to group multiple access servers into a single stack group E. It makes use of the Stack Group Bidding Protocol (SGBP) Answer: A, D, and E Multichassis MPPP is a Cisco Systems It allows channel aggregation across servers at a central site. It allows group multiple access servers into a makes use of the Stack Group Bidding IOS enhancement to MPPP. multiple remote-access WAN administrators to single stack group and Protocol (SGBP).

What two types of authentication does PPP support? A. ISDN B. PAP C. NCP 3
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five D. CHAP Answer: B and D The two types of authentication that PPP supports are PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) and CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol). CHAP is more secure than PAP and is recommended. With PAP, a users password is sent as clear text. CHAP uses a three-way handshake protocol.

IBM developed SDLC (Synchronous Data-Link Control) protocol in the mid-1970s for use in what environment? A. B. C. D. Token Ring Ethernet ATM SNA

Answer: D IBM developed SDLC (Synchronous Data-Link Control) protocol in the mid-1970s for use in SNA (Systems Network Architecture) environments. It was the first link-layer protocol based on synchronous, bit-oriented operation. Which of the following is true regarding SDLC (Synchronous Data-Link Control)? Choose two. A. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) modified SDLC to create HDLC (High-Level Data-Link Control) protocol B. The Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) modified SDLC to create IEEE 802.2 C. SDLC can only be used with multipoint links D. SDLC remains the primary SNA link-layer protocol for WAN links Answer: A and D The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) modified SDLC to create HDLC (High-Level Data-Link Control) protocol and SDLC remains the primary SNA link-layer protocol for WAN links. The Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) modified HDLC to create IEEE 802.2. SDLC can be used with point-to-point and multipoint links.

What two types of network nodes does SDLC (Synchronous DataLink Control) identify? A. main B. primary 4
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five C. backup D. secondary Answer: B and C SDLC identifies two types of network nodes: primary and secondary. Primary nodes set up and tear down links and manages links while they are operational, control the operation of other stations called secondaries, and polls the secondaries in a predetermined order. Secondary nodes are controlled by primary stations. Secondaries can only send information to the primary if permission is granted by the primary.

In what four configurations can SDLC (Synchronous Data-Link Control) primary and secondary nodes be connected? A. B. C. D. E. Loop Point-to-Point Hub go-ahead Ring Multipoint

Answer: A, B, C, and E The four configurations that SDLC (Synchronous Data-Link Control) primary and secondary nodes can be connected are Loop, Point-to-Point, Hub go-ahead, and Multipoint. Loop configuration involves a loop topology with the primary connected to the first and last secondaries. Point-to-Point configuration involves two nodes, one primary and one secondary. Hub go-ahead configuration involves an inbound and outbound channel. The primary uses the outbound channel to communicate with the secondaries and the secondaries use the inbound channel to communicate with the primary. Multipoint configuration involves one primary and multiple secondaries.

What are two differences between HDLC (High-Level Data-Link Control) protocol and SDLC (Synchronous Data-Link Control) protocol?

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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five A. HDLC does not support synchronous full-duplex operation but SDLC does B. HDLC and SDLC do not share the same frame format C. HDLC does not support the Loop or Hub go-ahead configurations but SDLC does D. HDLC supports three transfer modes but SDLC only supports one Answer: C and D Two differences between HDLC protocol and SDLC protocol are that HDLC does not support the Loop or Hub go-ahead configurations but SDLC does and HDLC supports three transfer modes but SDLC only supports one. HDLC supports NRM (Normal Response Mode), ARM (Asynchronous Response Mode), and ABM (Asynchronous Balanced Mode). On the other hand, both HDLC and SDLC support synchronous full-duplex operation and they both share the same frame format.

What are the three general categories of X.25 devices? A. B. C. D. DTE DCE PLP PSE

Answer: A, B, and D The three general categories of X.25 devices are DTEs (data terminal equipment), DCEs (data circuit-terminating equipment), and PSEs (packet switching exchanges). DTEs are end system devices that communicate across the X.25 network. They are normally CPE (customer premise equipment) such as PCs, network hosts, routers, terminals, etc. DCEs are communication devices such as modems. They provide the interface between the DTE and the PSE. PSEs are switches that are the bulk of the carriers network. They transfer data from one DTE to another.

What three layers of the OSI reference model does the X.25 protocol map to? 6
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five A. B. C. D. Transport Network Data Link Physical

Answer: B, C, and D The X.25 protocol maps the lowest three layers of the OSI reference model. These are the Physical layer, Data Link layer, and Network layer.

Match the following X.25 protocols, PLP and LAPB, with the OSI reference model layers that they map to. A. B. C. D. E. F. PLP Physical PLP Network PLP Data Link LAPB Physical LAPB Data Link LAPB Network

Answer: B and E The protocols typically used in X.25 are PLP (Packet-Layer Protocol) and LAPB (Link-Access Procedure, Balanced). PLP is a network layer protocol and LAPB is a data-link layer protocol. PLP manages packet exchanges between DTE devices across virtual circuits. PLP operates in five modes: call setup, data transfer, idle, call clearing, and restarting. LAPB manages communication and packet framing between DTE and DCE devices.

ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) Switching is a: A. B. C. D. connectionless oriented protocol synchronous protocol connection oriented, synchronous protocol connection oriented, asynchronous protocol

Answer: D ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) Switching is a connection oriented, asynchronous protocol. It is usually used when highspeed transfer of voice, data, and video is needed.

What layers of the OSI reference model does ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) map to? Choose two. 7
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five A. B. C. D. Physical Data link Network Transport

Answer: A and B ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) maps to the Physical and Data Link layers of the OSI reference model.

Which of the following two are ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) network interfaces? A. B. C. D. ANI TNI UNI NNI

Answer: C and D The two primary ATM interfaces are UNI (User network interface) and NNI (Network node interface). UNI and NNI can be further subdivided into public or private UNIs and NNIs. Private UNI Connects an ATM endpoint and a private ATM switch. Public UNI Connects an ATM endpoint or private switch to a public ATM switch. Private NNI Connects two ATM switches within the same private organization. Public NNI Connects two ATM switches within the same public organization.

ATM supports only point-to-point connections. A. True B. False Answer: B ATM supports both point-to-point and multipoint connections.

Which of the following ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) adaptation layers is used to transfer classical IP data over ATM? 8
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five A. B. C. D. AAL1 AAL2 AAL3/4 AAL5

Answer: D The following are the ATM adaptation layers: AAL1 used for handling circuit emulation AAL2 multiplexes short packets from multiple sources into a Single cell AAL3/4 designed for network service providers AAL5 the primary AAL for data. Used to transfer classical IP data over ATM and LAN emulation (LANE). Also known as SEAL (Simple and Efficient Adaptation Layer)

Which of the following best describes ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)? A. It is a token passing protocol like Token Ring but much faster. B. It is a modem technology that used existing telephone wires to transport high bandwidth data. C. It is a cell-switching and multiplexing technology that combines the benefits of circuit switching and packet switching. D. It is a protocol used for transporting SNA and NetBIOS traffic over an IP network. Answer: C ATM is a cell-switching and multiplexing technology that combines the benefits of circuit switching and packet switching. It is not a modem technology that uses existing telephone wires to transport high bandwidth data because that is ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line). It is not a protocol used for transporting SNA and NetBIOS traffic over an IP network because that is DLSw (Data-Link Switching).

An ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) cell consists of 53 octets, or bytes. A. True B. False Answer: A An ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) cell consists of 53 octets, or bytes. The first five bytes contain cell-header information and the remaining 48 bytes contain the user data, which is also known as "payload". When used on fiber-optic cabling, ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) supports speeds up to OC-192 (9.952 Gbps) and beyond. A. True 9
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five B. False Answer: A When used on fiber-optic cabling, ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) supports speeds of up to OC-192 (9.952 Gbps) and beyond, especially if technologies such as WDM (Wave Division Multiplexing) are used. Copper cabling can support speeds at or above T3 when used with ATM.

What are two motivating factors for using ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) as a WAN core technology? A. ATM is a good choice for customers with limited QoS (Quality of Service) requirements B. ATM is a good choice for customers with decreasing bandwidth requirements C. ATM is a good choice for customers who want to save money spent on monthly tariffs for WAN circuits D. ATM is a good choice for customers who need very large bandwidth requirements Answer: C and D One motivating factor for using ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) as a WAN core technology is saving money spent on monthly tariffs for WAN circuits. Customers can often have fewer WAN links with ATM than with older technologies such as leased lines or TDM (Time Division Multiplexing). Another motivating factor is that ATM can support very high bandwidth. When used on fiber-optic cabling, ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) supports speeds of up to OC-192 (9.952 Gbps) and beyond, especially if technologies such as WDM (Wave Division Multiplexing) are used. Copper cabling can support speeds at or above T3 when used with ATM.

What are two purposes of a LAN switch? A. It initiates circuit establishment 10


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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five B. It provides much higher port density at a lower cost than traditional bridges C. It breaks up collision domains and increases the available bandwidth per user D. It breaks up broadcast domains Answer: B and C A LAN switch provides much higher port density at a lower cost than traditional bridges. It breaks up collision domains and increases the available bandwidth per user. Using LAN switches allows you to microsegment (fewer users per segment). By microsegmenting, each user receives instant access to the full bandwidth and does not have to contend for available bandwidth with other users.

What are two common switching/forwarding methods used by LAN switches? A. B. C. D. Multiple forwarding Cut-through Redundant Store-and-froward

Answer: B and D Cut-through and store-and-forward are two common switching/forwarding methods used by LAN switches. Cut-through switching copies only the destination address into the LAN switches onboard buffers before it forwards the frame to its destination. It has the lowest latency of these two methods. Store-and-forward switching copies the entire frame onto the onboard buffers and computes a CRC (cyclic redundancy check) before it forwards the frame to its destination. Latency depends on the size of the frame.

An ATM switch forwards frames. A. True B. False Answer: B An ATM switch forwards cells whereas a LAN switch forwards frames. A LAN switch is sometimes called a frame switch and an ATM switch is sometimes called a cell switch.

LAN switches can be categorized according to the OSI layer at which they forward and filter frames or switch frames. What are these three categories? 11
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five

A. B. C. D.

Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 2 with Layer 3 features Multi-layer

Answer: A, C, and D The three categories that switches can be placed into according to the OSI layer at which they forward and filter frames or switch frames are Layer 2, Layer 2 with Layer 3 features, and Multi-layer. A Layer 2 LAN switch performs switching and filtering based on the Data-link layer MAC address. A Layer 2 LAN switch with Layer 3 features can make switching decisions based on more information other than the Layer 2 MAC address such as Layer 3 traffic control features. A Multi-layer switch makes switching and filtering decisions based on Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses.

Transparent bridges implement the spanning-tree algorithm (SPA) to prevent bridging loops. A. True B. False Answer: A Transparent bridges and switches implement the spanning-tree algorithm (SPA) to prevent loops. SPA was developed by Digital Equipment Corporation.

Some switches have the capability to automatically move from cut-through switching mode to store-and-forward switching mode. This type of switching is called: A. B. C. D. Cut-through-forward switching Store-and-forward-cut switching Forward-cut switching Adaptive cut-through switching

Answer: D A problem with cut-through switching is that it forwards frames with CRC errors and illegal frames such as runts. Cutthrough switching should not be used on a network that is prone to these errors and illegal frames. Some switches have the capability to automatically move from cut-through switching mode to store-and-forward switching mode when an error threshold is reached. This type of switching is called adaptive cut-through switching. Which Cisco IOS command identifies Layer 2 errors, router errors such as dropped or ignored packets, and broadcast 12
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five rates. A. B. C. D. show show show show version interface buffers processes

Answer: B The Cisco IOS router command "show interface" will identify Layer 2 errors such as dropped packets.

Which Cisco IOS command identifies router CPU usage, including CPU time used by processes? A. B. C. D. show show show show version interface buffers processes

Answer: D The Cisco IOS router command "show processes" will identify router CPU utilization.

Which Cisco IOS command checks buffer usage and buffer misses? A. B. C. D. show show show show version interface buffers processes

Answer: C The Cisco IOS router command "show buffers" will report on buffer utilization.

ISDN protocols that begin with "E" deal with? A. B. C. D. E. International Telephone Numbering Plan International ISDN addressing Concepts, structures and terminology User Network Interface (UNI) LAPD

Answer: A and B E.163 is used for International Telephone Numbering Plan and E.164 is used for International ISDN addressing. ISDN protocols that begin with "I" deal with? 13
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five A. B. C. D. E. Concepts, structures and terminology User Network Interfaces (UNI) LAPD ISDN network layer between switch and terminal International ISDN addressing

Answer: A and B I.100 series is used for concepts, structures and terminology. I.400 Series is used for UNIs.

ISDN protocols that begin with "Q" deal with? A. B. C. D. E. International ISDN addressing Concepts, structures and terminology UNIs LAPD ISDN network layer between terminal and switch

Answer: D and E Q.921 is used for LAPD on the D channel. Q.931 is used for ISDN network layer between terminal and switch.

Which of the following converts BRI signals into a form used by ISDN? A. B. C. D. E. TE1 NT2 NT1 TE2 TA

Answer: C TE1 is used to designate a router as a device having native ISDN interface. NT2 is for ISDN lines at the customer site which are switched using a customer switch. TE2 is used to designate a router as a device needing a TA for BRI signals. TA is used to convert EIA/TIA-232, V.35 signals into BRI signals.

What are the two access options for ISDN? 14


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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five A. B. C. D. E. BRI PRI local telephone company a long distance provider DDR

Answer: A and B BRI has two 64 kbps bearer channels plus one 16 kbps data channel. BRI connects to an NT1. PRI is available in North America and Japan. It has 23 bearer channels and one 64 kbps D channel. In Europe PRI has 30 B channels and one D channel.

AppleTalk addresses consist of what three elements? A. B. C. D. Network number Node number Socket number Zone number

Answer: A, B, and C AppleTalk addresses consist of a network number, a node number, and a socket number. They are usually written as decimal values separated by a period. For example, 3.2.40 means Network 3, Node 2, Socket 40. It is also sometimes represented as 3.2, Socket 40. The Network number is 16 bits, the Node number is 8 bits, and the Socket number is 8 bits.

An address must be statically assigned to an AppleTalk device. A. True B. False Answer: B It is not necessary to statically assign an address to an AppleTalk device. AppleTalk nodes are assigned addresses dynamically when they first attach to a network.

Which of the following is responsible for establishing and maintaining routing tables for AppleTalk routers? 15
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five

A. B. C. D.

RIP AURP RTMP ATP

Answer: C RTMP (Routing-Table Maintenance Protocol) is a transport-layer protocol that is responsible for establishing and maintaining routing tables for AppleTalk routers. It is based on the Routing-Information Protocol (RIP) and uses hop count as a routing metric.

What are the three options available for routing in AppleTalk networks? A. B. C. D. RIP (Routing-Information Protocol) RTMP (Routing-Table Maintenance Protocol) AURP (AppleTalk Update-Based Routing Protocol) Enhanced IGRP for AppleTalk

Answer: B, C, and D The three options available for routing in AppleTalk networks are RTMP, AURP, and Enhanced IGRP for AppleTalk. RTMP is the most common option because it is easy to configure and is supported by most vendors of multi-protocol routers. To reduce the amount of traffic caused by RTMP (an RTMP router sends its routing table every 10 seconds using split horizon), large enterprises have the option of using AURP or Enhanced IGRP for AppleTalk in the core of their internetworks.

What information is needed to choose a CIR (Committed Information Rate) for a Frame Relay network? Choose three. A. B. C. D. Amount Amount Amount Amount of of of of expected expected expected expected interactive traffic bandwidth regeneration file and transfer traffic broadcast traffic

Answer: A, C, and D In addition to verifying interactive traffic, transfer traffic and expected broadcast traffic, you will want to consider the Cisco IOS version of your internetworking routers. Some Cisco IOS versions do not have the updated capability of traffic shaping that will increase your control over the network.

The following are the four steps in establishing an X.25 virtual circuit. Place them in the correct order. 16
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five

A. The PSE (Packet Switch Exchange) passes the packet to the next remote DCE B. The local DCE packet binder sends packet to the closest PSE (Packet Switch Exchange) C. The source DTE sends packet to the local DCE D. The remote DCE examines the packet header of destination DTE Answer: C, B, A, and D The correct order of the four steps used in establishing an X.25 virtual circuit are as follows: 1.)The source DTE sends packet to the local DCE 2.)The local DCE packet binder sends packet to the closest PSE (Packet Switch Exchange) 3.)The PSE (Packet Switch Exchange) passes the packet to the next remote DCE 4.)The remote DCE examines the packet header of destination DTE

The Cisco 1900 switch IOS can be configured through a menu system and what else? A. B. C. D. Set-based CLI IOS-based CLI Pruning system VTP trunk

Answer: B The Cisco 1900 switch IOS can be configured through a menu system and an IOS-based CLI (Command-Line Interface).

What type of cable do you use when you connect two switches? A. B. C. D. rollover cable cat5 cable crossover cable straight-through cable

Answer: C You should use a crossover cable when you connect two switches.

It is possible to configure a switch through the Internet. A. True B. False 17


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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five

Answer: A You can configure a switch through the Internet using the Virtual Switch Manager (VSM). To do this, you have to type in the IP address of the switch at the Web browser.

What happens when you press the mode button on the 1900 switch? A. B. C. D. Nothing. The 1900 switch has no buttons, only ports You see three different status lights It puts you in broadcast mode It puts the switch in stand-by mode

Answer: B When you press the mode button on the 1900 switch, you see three different status lights. It is the only button on the 1900 switch. The status lights are: Stat shows status of the ports. Green is active, blinking green is activity, amber means a link fault has occurred. UTL indicates the bandwidth of the switch. FDUP shows you which ports are configured at full duplex If you have a console cable connected to the 1900 switch and you power the switch up, what menu options do you see if the IP configuration is not set? Choose three. A. B. C. D. E. [M] [S] [K] [I] [C]

Answer: A, C, and D If you have a console cable connected to the 1900 switch and you power the switch up the menu options you see if the IP configuration is not set are: [M] Menus [K] Command Line [I] IP Configuration Once the IP configuration is set, the [I] selection will no longer appear. How many ports are available on the 1900 series switches? Choose two. A. 8 B. 12 18
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five C. 16 D. 24 Answer: B and D The 1912 switch has 12 ports and the 1924 switch has 24 ports. These ports are 10BaseT ports. Each switch also has one or two FastEthernet uplinks to connect to other switches. These are either 100BaseT or 100BaseFX.

At which layers of the OSI reference model does frame relay operate? Choose two. A. B. C. D. Network Data Link Physical Transport

Answer: B and C Frame Relay operates at the Physical and the Data Link layers of the OSI reference model.

What two general categories do frame relay devices fall under? A. B. C. D. CSU DSU DTE DCE

Answer: C and D The two general categories that frame relay devices fall under are Data Terminating Equipment (DTE) and Data Circuit-terminating Equipment (DCE). DTEs are usually customer premise equipment (CPE) such as terminals, PCs, routers, bridges, etc. DCEs are carrier owned internetworking devices. DCEs provide clocking and switching services in a network.

Which of the following are true regarding a DLCI (Data-Link Connection Identifier)? Choose two. A. It identifies a Frame Relay virtual circuit B. It helps a Token Ring network identify the active monitor C. It is usually assigned by the Frame Relay service provider 19
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five D. It must be the same for all DTE devices on the WAN Answer: A and C A Frame Relay virtual circuit is identified by a DLCI (DataLink Connection Identifier). It is usually assigned by the Frame Relay service provider, such as a telephone company. DLCI numbers have local significance, so two DTE devices connected by a virtual circuit may be assigned a different DLCI number on each end of the connection. DLCI has nothing to do with Token Ring.

Frame Relay implements two congestion notification mechanisms. What are they? A. B. C. D. DLCI CSMA FECN BECN

Answer: C and D The two congestion notification mechanisms implemented by Frame Relay are FECN (Forward-explicit congestion notification) and BECN (Backwardexplicit congestion notification). Both of these are controlled by a bit contained in the Frame Relay header. The Frame Relay header also contains a DE (Discard Eligibility) bit that is used to identify less important traffic that can be dropped during periods of congestion.

Which of the following are related to Frame Relay? Choose three. A. B. C. D. CIR Be Bc BGP

Answer: A, B, and C CIR (Committed information rate) is the rate at which a Frame Relay network agrees to transfer information under normal conditions averaged over a minimum increment of time. Bc (Committed Burst) is the maximum amount of data, in bits, that a Frame Relay network is committed to accept and transmit at the CIR. Be (Excess Burst) is the number of bits that a Frame Relay network will attempt to transmit after Bc (Committed Burst) is accommodated. CIR, Bc, and Be are all negotiated tariff metrics. Which of the following are true regarding LMI (Local Management Interface)? Choose two. A. The LMI is a set of enhancements to the Frame Relay specification B. It can be used only with an SVC (Switched Virtual Circuit) 20
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CCNA 640-607 Practice Exam Five C. It was developed by IBM D. It offers a number of features called extensions for managing complex internetworks Answer: A and D The LMI is a set of enhancements to the Frame Relay specification. It was developed by StrataCom, Northern Telecom, Digital Equipment Corporation, and Cisco Systems. It offers a number of features called extensions for managing complex internetworks. LMI extensions include global addressing, virtual-circuit status messages, and multicasting.

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