COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION MODULE 6: MICROBIOLOGY, QUALITY ASSURANCE AND QUALITY CONTROL 1.

Which of the following species can be found in the small intestine? a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Isospora belli d. Enterobius vermicularis Answer: B. A&D- large intestines (+ trichuris trichiura: whipworm) C- cause severe bloody diarrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as patients with AIDS. 2. Which of the following is the causative agent of Cat- scratch disease a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Bartonella henselae c. Coxiella burnetii d. Rickettsia rickettsii Answer: B- small, pleomorphic, gram- negative rod present mainly in the walls of capillaries near follicular hyperplasia or within microabscesses. 3. Which of the following is an example of nondrying oil? a. Almond oil b. Linseed oil c. Sesame oil d. Cottonseed oil Answer: A B- drying oil (IV>120) C&D- semi drying oil (IV: 100-120) 4. Liquid wastes conducted from residence together with ground surface or rain water is known as a. Refuse b. Rubbish c. Sewage d. Garbage Answer: C 5. The first oral cholera vaccine a. Orochol-E b. Vivotif c. Orochovax-1 d. Tetramune Answer: A 6. The first person to become sick in an epidemic a. Contact b. Index case c. Primary case

d. Secondary case Answer: B 7. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by: a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Plasmodium vivax c. Plasmodium ovale d. Plasmodium malariae Answer: A B&C- Tertian Malaria (fever is every 48hrs) D- Quartan Malaria (cause fever every 72hrs) 8. Describes how close a measured value is to the true value a. Precision b. Specificity c. Accuracy d. Standard deviation Answer: C A-how close are the results to each other 9. The indicator used if weak acid is titrated with strong alkali a. Phenolphthalein b. Methyl red c. Methyl orange d. Malachite green Answer: A B- WB+SA C- SA+SB D- non aqueous media: WB+ salts 10. Assay of Resorcinol is an example of what method of analysis? a. Residual iodometry b. Complexometry c. Direct acidimetry d. Residual alkalimetry Answer: A 11. Hexane is the best solvent in extracting: a. Volatile oils b. Fats c. Resins d. Alkaloids Answer: B 12. Which organism causes discoloration or clearing of the Blood Agar Plate? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Delta Answer: B complete hemolysis of RBC A-Cause partial hemolysis: green coloration C-either partial or no reaction: sometimes green, sometimes none 13. What animal is used for the biological assay of oxytocin?

a. b. c. d. Answer: D AB-

Sheep Rat Cat Chicken

d. Spore stain Answer: B 20. A German physician given credited for developing pure- culture technique a. Robert Koch b. Joseph Lister c. Paul Ehrlich d. Emil von Behring Answer: A B- aseptic technique, Phenol/ carbolic acid C-salvarsan (1st chemotherapeutic agent); Father of Chemotherapy D-vaccine for diphtheria 21. The humoral immune response is mediated by a. B cells b. T cell c. Endothelial cells d. Both B and T cells Answer: A B- cellular immune response 22. Which of the following is not eukaryotic? a. Molds b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Protozoa Answer: B- the rest are eukaryotic. Bacteria are the only prokaryotic organisms. 23. Class of antibody which is present in mucous membrane and body secretions: a. IgD b. IgM c. IgG d. IgA Answer: D A- makes up approximately 0.2% of the serum antibodies; found on the surface of B-lymphocytes (along with monomeric IgM) as a B-cell receptor where it may control of B-lymphocyte activation and suppression. B- first antibodies to be produced during a humoral immune response C-Only antibody that crosses the placenta 24. The cellular immune response is mediated by: a. B cell b. T cell c. Both B and T cell d. Endothelial cells Answer: B 25. This is a condition where there are small changes in the antigenic structure of an organism which may later result to an epidemic? a. Antigenic Shift b. Antigenic Diversion

Heparin, protamine sulfate Vasopressin (male), corticotrophin, chorionic gonadotropin (female), cod liver oil (rachitic) C- Glucagon

14. Cestodes are a. Flukes b. Round worm c. Whip worm d. Tapeworm Answer: D A- Trematodes B- Nematodes C- Trichuris trichuria 15. RNA directed DNA polymerase is exclusively found only among a. Paramyxovirus b. Adenovirus c. Togavirus d. Retrovirus Answer: D 16. This is the most common form of botulism a. Foodborne botulism b. Infant botulism c. Wound botulism d. Endemic botulism Answer: B- honey with C. botulinum 17. A malarial organism producing ringlike and crescentlike forms within red blood cells. a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Plasmodium vivax c. Plasmodium ovale d. Plasmodium malariae Answer: A 18. This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses I. Parvo II. Herpes III. Hepadna a. I only b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II, III Answer: B I.Parvo-Naked (it should be Pox) 19. Also known as the Welch method a. Acid- fast stain b. Capsule stain c. Gram stain

c. Antigenic Drift d. Tolerance Answer: C 26. This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of bacteria a. Oven b. Alcohol c. Heavy metal ions d. Formaldehyde Answer: C A-Oxidation B-Protein denaturation D-alkylation 27. This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth, and is classified as an alkylating agent a. Oven b. Alcohol c. Heavy metal ions d. Formaldehyde Answer: D (+ ethylene oxide) 28. This refers to the complete change in the antigenic structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the human immune system. This may result to pandemic a. Antigenic Shift b. Antigenic Diversion c. Antigenic Drift d. Tolerance Answer: A 29. This is/ are example (s) of organisms that can cross the placenta I. Rubeola II. Rubella III. Hepa B a. I &II b. I&III c. II&III d. I,II, III Answer: C Toxoplasma Rubella- German Measles/ soft measles; Togaviridae (rubivirus) (*Rubeola- hard measles; Paramyxoviridae) CMV Herpes/ HIV/ Hepa B Syphilis 30. Which viral organism has a characteristic bulletshaped, enveloped, helical nucleocapsid? a. Rabies virus b. Poliovirus c. Coronavirus d. Adenovirus Answer: A

31. The presence of this in the serum of patients indicates immunity to Hepatitis B virus a. Anti HBsAg b. Anti HBcAg c. HBsAg d. Anti HBeAg Answer: A HBsAg (Hepa B surface Antigen)- active infection HBcAg (Hepa B core Antigen) Anti HBcAg IgG- 2nd to be produced (chronic infection) st Anti HBcAg IgM- 1 (acute infection) HBeAg (Hepa B sol. portion of the core antigen) +: highly infectious stage Anti HBeAg- non infectious stage 32. The presence of this antigen indicates highly infectious stage of Hepa B a. HBsAg b. HBeAg c. HBcAg d. Anti HBeAg Answer: B 33. The presence of this in the serum of patients will ascertain that the patient have new Hepa B infection a. Anti HBsAg b. Anti HBcAg IgM c. Anti HBcAg IgG d. Anti HBeAg Answer: B 34. The presence of this in the serum of patients will ascertain that the patient have old Hepa B infection a. Anti HBsAg b. Anti HBcAg IgM c. Anti HBcAg IgG d. Anti HBeAg Answer: C 35. The temperature used for ignition to constant weight is a. 725 + 25oC b. 800 + 25oC c. 820 + 25oC d. 800 + 20oC Answer: B 36. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in: a. 20 tablets b. 10 tablets c. 15 tablets d. 5 tablets Answer: B 37. Weight variation test is conducted in: a. 20 tablets b. 10 tablets

c. 15 tablets d. 5 tablets Answer: A 38. Water attack test for glass is done on: a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV Answer: B 39. The operation speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is: a. 100 rpm b. 25 rpm c. 50 rpm d. 150 rpm Answer: C 40. The operation speed Roche friabilator is: a. 100 rpm b. 25 rpm c. 50 rpm d. 150 rpm Answer: B (4mins; 100 revolutions) 41. Content uniformity test is to be performed in tablets whose active ingredient is: a. < 50mg b. > 50mg c. < 130 mg d. >200 mg Answer: A > 50mg : weight variation

45. To find the mEq factor of a oxidizing agent is to divide the molecular weight by: a. No.of electrons lost b. No. of electrons gained c. Valence d. Replaceable hydrogen Answer: B 46. A country belonging to climactic Zone I is officially described as: a. Hot and Humid b. Hot and Dry c. Mediterranean d. Temperate Answer: D ITemperate IIMediterranean IIIHot and Dry IVHot and Humid 47. A country belonging to climactic Zone III is officially described as: a. Hot and Humid b. Hot and Dry c. Mediterranean d. Temperate Answer: B 48. A country belonging to climactic Zone IV is officially described as: a. Hot and Humid b. Hot and Dry c. Mediterranean d. Temperate Answer: A 49. A country belonging to climactic Zone II is officially described as: a. Hot and Humid b. Hot and Dry c. Mediterranean d. Temperate Answer: C 50. The Philippines belong to what climactic zone? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: D 51. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room temperature conditions is carried out at: a. 23 + 2oC, 60 + 5%RH b. 25 + 2oC, 60 + 5%RH c. 20 + 2oC, 60 + 5%RH d. None of the above Answer: B

42. Weight variation test is to be performed in tablets whose active ingredient is: a. < 50mg b. > 50mg c. < 130 mg d. >200 mg Answer: B 43. Optical activity is measured by: a. Polaroid b. Polarimeter c. Refractometer d. Spectrometer Answer: B 44. To find the mEq factor of a reducing agent is to divide the molecular weight by: a. No.of electrons lost b. No. of electrons gained c. Valence d. Replaceable hydrogen Answer: A GEROA- Gain electrons Reduced oxidizing agent LEORA- Lost electrons Oxidezed reducing agent

52. Accelerated stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room temperature conditions is carried out at: a. 30 + 2oC, 75 + 5%RH b. 35 + 2oC, 75 + 5%RH c. 40 + 2oC, 75 + 5%RH d. None of the above Answer: C 53. The minimum time period covered by the data for long term stability studies is a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. None of the above Answer: B 54. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. None of the above Answer: A 55. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles stored in a refrigerator is carried out at: a. 8 + 3oC b. 5 + 3oC c. 5 + 3oF d. 8 + 3oF Answer: B 56. A Soda Lime glass becomes a Treated Soda Lime glass through a. Oxidation b. Dealkalization c. Hydrolysis d. Hydrogenation Answer: B 57. A method used to assay Vitamin B12 and Ca panthothenate is by: a. Fluorimetry b. Turbidimetry c. Nephelometry d. Iodometry Answer: B 58. A method used to assay Vitamin B1 &B2 is by: a. Fluorimetry b. Turbidimetry c. Nephelometry d. Iodometry Answer: A 59. Phenolphthalein in acid medium is colored: a. Yellow b. Pink c. Colorless

d. Blue Answer: C 60. Phenolphthalein in alkali medium is colored: a. Yellow b. Pink c. Colorless d. Blue Answer: B 61. What is the other name of Koettsdorfer number? a. Acid value b. Iodine value c. Ester value d. Saponification value Answer: D SV= AV+EV 62. Kjeldahl method is used for determination of: a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen c. Fluorine d. Sulfur Answer: B 63. Assay of diluted HCl is expressed in: a. %w/v b. %w/w c. Both d. None of the above Answer: A %w/w- concentrated 64. If 15g of olive oil required 25mL of .0231 N NaOH in te titration of the free fatty acids. What is the acid number of the ol? a. 2.16 b. .00216 c. 216 d. 21.6 Answer: A Acid value= (NxVx56.11)/ wt of sample = (.0231x25x56.11)/ 15g = 2.16 65. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000mL of 0.7N of the solution? (MW= 126) a. 88.2g b. 29.4g c. 44.1g d. 22.05 Answer: C F=2 0.7= [(x/126)/1L] *2 X= 44.1g 66. Orthophenanthroline TS is used as indicator in a. Ceric sulfate titration

b. Permanganometry c. Iodometry d. Iodimetry Answer: A b- KMnO4 c- starch TS (blue to colorless) d- starch TS (colorless to blue) 67. What is the endpoint in iodometry when starch is used as indicator? a. blue to colorless b. colorless to blue c. red d. precipitation Answer: A 68. What is the endpoint in iodimetry when starch is used as indicator? a. blue to colorless b. colorless to blue c. red d. precipitation Answer: B 69. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloid is determined a. Specific b. Ultimate c. Precision d. Proximate Answer: D b- specific substance 70. Method II for determining alcohol- soluble extractives is also known as: a. Cold extraction method b. Hot extraction method c. Hot compressed method d. Cold compress method Answer: A b- method 1 71. Method I for determining alcohol- soluble extractives is also known as a. Cold extraction method b. Hot extraction method c. Hot compressed method d. Cold compress method Answer: B 72. Method I of determining iodine value a. Hubl s method b. Wij s method c. Hanus method d. Lin s method Answer: C (I2 + CCl4 in glacial acetic acid) a- Unofficial method b- Method II - I2 + Br in glacial acetic acid

73. Method II of determining iodine value a. Hubl s method b. Wij s method c. Hanus method d. Lin s method Answer: B 74. Methyl red in basic medium is a. Red b. Yellow c. Colorless d. Pink Answer: B a- Acid medium 75. Nephelometry is based o the measurement of light that is ____ by the particles of a suspension. a. Absorbed b. Adsorbed c. Transmitted d. Reflected Answer: D b- Turbidimetry 76. Bright red flame has a temperature of a. 650- 3000 b. 700- 1000 c. 500-550 d. 550- 700 Answer: B Very dull red: 500-550 Dull red: 550-700 Bright red: 700- 1000 Yellow red: 1000-1200 White: 1200-1600 77. Well closed container a. Protected from extraneous solids b. Protected from solids and liquid c. Protected from solids, liquid and vapor d. Protected from solids, liquid, vapor and gas Answer: A c- Tight container d- Hermetic container 78. Hermetic container a. Protected from extraneous solids b. Protected from solids and liquid c. Protected from solids, liquid and vapor d. Protected from solids, liquid, vapor and gas Answer: D 79. Tight container a. Protected from extraneous solids b. Protected from solids and liquid c. Protected from solids, liquid and vapor d. Protected from solids, liquid, vapor and gas Answer: C

80. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in a. Suspensions b. Tablet c. Ointment d. Emulsion Answer: C For nos. 81 85 Disintegration data of Paracetamol tablet Tablet # Time when tab disintegrate 1 415 2 470 3 420 4 441 5 567 6 500 Specification: nmt 15minutes in water 81. Determine the average time when the tablet disintegrates a. 7 52 b. 7 05 c. 7 48 d. 8 00 Answer: C Tablet # Time when tab disintegrate 1 415 (6 55 ) 2 470 (7 50 ) 3 420 (7 00 ) 4 441 (7 21 ) 5 567 (9 27 ) 6 500 (8 20 ) ave 7 48 82. Time the last tablet disintegrates a. 9 27 b. 9 21 c. 8 20 d. 8 25 Answer: A 83. Time when the first tablet completely disintegrates a. 6 45 b. 6 55 c. 6 60 d. 7 00 Answer: B 84. Disposition of the batch tested: a. Rejected b. needs retest c. passed d. reprocess Answer: C 85. If the disintegration test specification is reduced to nmt 10minutes, how many tablets will fail? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

Answer: D 86. An obligate halophile requires high a. pH b. salt c. pressure d. temperature Answer: B a- basophile (basic pH) c- barophiles d- thermophile 87. Motility is observed best in a. Negative stain b. Hanging drop method c. Streak plate d. Flagellar stain Answer: B 88. The moist heat of sterilization employing 15lbs of pressure psi in a temperature of steam at 121 oC a. Tyndallization b. Pasteurization c. Autoclaving d. Any of the above Answer: C 89. A process widely used in the dairy industry that destroys a very high percentage of undesirable microbial population by heating at a certain temperature is known as: a. Tyndallization b. Pasteurization c. Autoclaving d. Any of the above Answer: B 90. Dry heat is often used to sterilize: a. Oily materials b. Bacterial media c. Saline solutions d. Hospital blankets Answer: A 91. Betadine is an antimicrobial product containing: a. Iodine b. Hydrogen peroxide c. Chlorine d. Bromine Answer: A 92. The borderline of life a. Algae b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Virus Answer: D

93. Eukaryotic, photosynthetic organisms that range in size from unicellular to multicellular a. Fungi b. Virus c. Algae d. Bacteria Answer: C 94. Diseases that are constantly present in a certain population a. Epidemic b. Zoonotic c. Endemic d. Sporadic Answer: C a- new cases of a certain disease, in a given
human population, and during a given period, substantially exceed what is expected based on recent experience b- diseases transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans

a. Pathogenicity b. Toxicity c. Virulence d. Toxigenicity Answer: D a- Ability of microorganism to produce disease c-the degree of pathogenicity of the microorganism 99. Nosocomial infections are a. Infections in the nasal area b. Infections developed by patient while in the hospital c. Infections among animals d. Infections developed by patient while at home Answer: B 100. Reduction of nitrates to nitrites or nitrogen gas a. Putrefaction b. Fermentation c. Dentrification d. Nitration Answer: C a- Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines b- Enzymatic degradation of carbohydrates 101. A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and hospitals a. Sentrong sigla b. National Health Objectives c. Health Passport Initiative d. Health Sector Reform Agenda Answer: A 102. A biological sterilization indicator used to test oven efficiency a. B. stearothermophilus b. B. subtilis c. C. botulinum d. Both a&b Answer: B Moist heat B. stearothermophilus Dry heat (oven/ B. subtilis incinerator) Ethylene oxide B. stearothermophilus Radiation B. stearothermophilus, B. subtilis, B. pumilus 103. The bacterial organelle that is used for motility a. Pili b. Cilia c. Pseudopods d. Flagella Answer: D a- hairlike appendage found on the surface of many bacteria required for bacterial conjugation b- serve as sensory organelles

d-disease that occurs occasionally in a population 95. Dengue virus vector a. Anopheles mosquito b. Aedes aegypti

c. Tsetse fly d. Plasmodium vivax Answer: B a- Malaria c-trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) d-one of the infective agents of malaria
96. An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganism a. Fomite b. Mite c. Arthropod d. Vector Answer: A b- small arthropods; sually found in warm and humid locations, including beds; cause several forms of allergic diseases, including hay fever, asthma and eczema and are known to aggravate atopic dermatitis. c- animals with segmented bodies and six or more jointed legs. They are the largest animal group on Earth. d- Carrier; Vector is the Latin word for a "bearer." 97. Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measlesvirus are known as a. Peyer s patches b. Koplik spot c. Rose spot d. Rashes Answer: B 98. The capacity of an orhanism to produse a toxin is known as:

c- temporary projections of eukaryotic cells; Cells

having this faculty are generally referred to as amoeboids 104. Period of cell division where cells increase in number a. Log phase b. Stationary phase c. Lag phase d. Death phase Answer: A Lag Phase Period of little or no cell division where the organism adapts to their environment where they grow in size but not in number Log Phase Period of cell division where cells increase in number (exponential growth phase) Stationary Phase The growth rate slows because the number of microbial deaths balances the number of new cells and the population stabilizes Death Phase The number of deaths eventually exceeds the number of new cells form due to accumulation of waste products and depletion of nutrients ( logarithmic decline phase) 105. Period of little or no cell division where the organism adapts to their environment where they grow in size but not in number a. Log phase b. Stationary phase c. Lag phase d. Death phase Answer : C 106. Also known as exponential growth phase a. Log phase b. Stationary phase c. Lag phase d. Death phase Answer: A 107. Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as: a. 70s b. 80s c. 90s d. 50s Answer: B (Candida is a fungi- eukaryote) Prokaryote (bacteria) 70s 108. A structurally mature infectious viral particle

a. Virion b. Viroids c. Prions d. Capsule Answer: A b- Contain RNA only; RNAs are not packed and do not appear to code for any proteins; have only been shown to be associated with plant disease (Tobacco mosaic virus) c- Contains proteins only; cause creutzfeldt- jakob disease and Gerstmann-Straussler syndrome 109. A short term expression of alcohol toxicity a. Hang-over b. Cirrhosis c. Alcoholism d. All of the above Answer: A b-consequence of chronic liver disease characterized by replacement of liver tissue by fibrosis, scartissue and regenerative nodules c- compulsive and uncontrolled consumption of alcohol 110. A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidant a. Vit. A b. Vit. B c. Vit. D d. Vit. E Answer: D (inhibits the oxidation of free unsaturated fatty acids; good sources are germ oil and sunflower seeds) 111. Deficiency of thiamine leads to a. Beri- beri b. Pellagra c. Stomatitis d. All of the above Answer: A b-niacin c-riboflavin 112. Deficiency of Riboflavin leads to a. Beri- beri b. Pellagra c. Stomatitis d. All of the above Answer: C 113. Deficiency of Niacin leads to a. Beri- beri b. Pellagra c. Stomatitis d. All of the above Answer: B 114. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave except:

a. Culture media b. Olive oil c. Water d. Glassware Answer: B (dry heat- oven) 115. Phenomenon where some species vary in some extent in their size or shape due to differences in the cell wall structure a. Dimorphism b. Pleomorphism c. Polymorphism d. Fleximorphism Answer: B a-ability of organism to exist in 2 forms of growth (ex. Fungi: mold and yeast phase) c-substances can exist in more than one crystalline form 116. Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects a. Rickettsia b. Protozoa c. Chlamydia d. Mycoplasma Answer: A (small, gram negative, rod to cocci shaped bacterium; requires arthropod except Q-fever 117. Hansen s disease is caused by: a. Mycoplasma leprae b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Mycobacterium leprae d. Mycoplasma tuberculosis Answer: C (leprosy) 118. A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency a. B. stearothermophilus b. B. subtilis c. C. botulinum d. Both a&b Answer: A Moist heat B. stearothermophilus Dry heat (oven/ B. subtilis incinerator) Ethylene oxide B. stearothermophilus Radiation B. stearothermophilus, B. subtilis, B. pumilus 119. An example of ionizing radiation: a. X-ray b. UV c. Sunlight d. All of the above Answer: A Ionizing radiation (gamma, xray)- wavelength<1nm Non ionizing (UV light) wavelength >1nm 120. An example of non-ionizing radiation: a. X-ray b. UV

c. Gamma ray d. All of the above Answer: B 121. The four o clock habit promoted by DOH is designed to prevent the spread of: a. Tuberculosis b. Malaria c. Dengue fever d. Malnutrition Answer: C 122. DOTS center is for a. Tuberculosis b. Pneumonia c. Cardiovascular disease d. HIV-AIDS Answer: A (directly observed treatment short- course) 123. The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora except: a. Alveoli b. Teeth c. Urethra d. Skin Answer: A Lower respiratory tract- bronchi, alveoli, trachea, larynx (nearly sterile although trachea may contain a few bacteria) Choices for 124- 128 a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Steptococcus agalactiae 124. The causative agent of suppurative diseases like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative diseases like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis Answer: B 125. The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS and skin boils Answer: A 126. Normal flora of the skin but may cause stitch abscess and sepsis Answer: D 127. A group B streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis Answer: E 128. The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children. Answer: C Choices for 129- 133 a. Clostridium tetani b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium perfringens

d. Corynebacterium diphtheria e. Clostridium dificile 129. Characterized physiologically by a sardonic smile Answer: A 130. The causative agent of gas gangrene Answer: C 131. In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system Answer: D 132. Anaerobic, gram positive, spore- forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis Answer: E 133. The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods Answer: B 134. The heat stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram negative cell wall that is toxic to the host in known as: a. Tetanospasmin b. Endotoxin c. Exotoxin d. Enterotoxin Answer: B ( part of the outer portion of the cell wall, lipid A pyrogenic material in g(-) cell wall, which is released upon the destruction of the cell) 135.
Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:

Answer: A 138. a. b. c. d. Answer: B Organism that causes Hydatid disease Hymenolepsis nana Echinococcus granulosus Taenia solium Taenia saginata

139. Organism that causes the Chinese liver fluke infection a. Fasciola hepatica b. Fasciolopsis buski c. Schistosoma japonicum d. Clonorchis sinensis Answer: D 140. Also known as the Giant intestinal fluke a. Fasciola hepatica b. Fasciolopsis buski c. Schistosoma japonicum d. Clonorchis sinensis Answer: B 141. First and most basic test to determine if an individual is positive for a selected pathogen, such as HIV a. ELISA b. HIV EIA c. Both A &B d. None of the above Answer: C (EIA- Enzyme Immunoassay) 142. Chronic Hepatitis B virus infection is a shortterm illness that occurs within the first 6 months after someone is exposed to the Hepatitis B virus. Acute infection can but does not always lead to chronic infection.

a. Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Pellagra d. Steven Johnson s Syndrome Answer: A -a brain disorder due to thiamine deficiency. 136. A small molecule that can ract with preformed antibodies but cannot, by itself, induce their formation a. Epitope b. Hapten c. Antigen d. Cofactor Answer: B (not immunogenic by itself but can react with specific antibody, hence will not induce an immunologic response) a-smallest unit of a complex antigen that is capable of binding to an antibody 137. Smallest unit of a complex antigen that is capable of binding to an antibody a. Epitope b. Hapten c. Antigen d. Cofactor

a. b. c. d. Answer: C

Both statements are correct First statement is correct, second is wrong. Second statement is correct, first is wrong.

Both statements are wrong

143. TB that is resistant to isoniazid and rifampin, plus resistant to any fluoroquinolone and at least one of three injectable second-line drugs (i.e., amikacin, kanamycin, or capreomycin). a. Multidrug resistant TB b. Superdrug resistant TB c. Extensively Drug-resistant TB d. Wide-resistant TB Answer: C (http://www.cdc.gov/tb/topic/drtb/default.htm) 144. Resistance to TB drugs can occur when these
drugs are misused or mismanaged. Worldwide TB is one of the leading causes of death among people infected with HIV.

a. Both statements are correct b. First statement is correct, second is wrong. c. Second statement is correct, first is wrong.

d. Both statements are wrong Answer: A

People infected with HIV (the virus that causes AIDS) are more likely than uninfected people to get sick with other infections and diseases.

www.cdc.gov 150. Syphilis is hard to cure even in its early stages. Signs and symptoms of syphilis include a soft, round, small, and painful sore on the genitals, anus, or mouth, or a rash on the body, especially on the palms of the hands or the soles of the feet. a. b. c. d. Answer: D Both statements are correct. First statement is correct, second is wrong. Second statement is correct, first is wrong. Both statements are wrong.

145. In areas with high transmission, the least

vulnerable groups are young children and pregnant women. There is already Chloroquine- resistance in the Philippines.

a. b. c. d. Answer: C

Both statements are correct First statement is correct, second is wrong. Second statement is correct, first is wrong.

Both statements are wrong

In areas with high transmission, the most vulnerable groups are young children, who have not developed immunity to malaria yet, and pregnant women, whose immunity has been decreased by pregnancy. (www.cdc.gov)

-Syphilis is easy to cure in its early stages. -Signs and symptoms of syphilis include a firm, round, small, and painless sore on the genitals, anus, or mouth, or a rash on the body, especially on the palms of the hands or the soles of the feet.

146. What is/are the malaria species present in the Philippines? a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Plasmodium vivax c. Both a&b d. None of the above Answer: C
P. falciparum 70-80% P. vivax 20-30%

147. Dengue is transmitted between people by the mosquitoes Aedesaegypti and Aedes albopictus. There are three types of dengue virus. a. Both statements are correct b. First statement is correct, second is wrong. c. Second statement is correct, first is wrong. d. Both statements are wrong Answer: B
four virus types (DENV 1, DENV 2, DENV 3, DENV 4) www.cdc.gov

148. Gonorrhea has no effect in a woman s ability to have children if left untreated. Gonorrhea can only affect the genitals and anus. a. Both statements are correct. b. First statement is correct, second is wrong. c. Second statement is correct, first is wrong. d. Both statements are wrong. Answer: D Gonorrhea can affect the anus, eyes, mouth, genitals, or throat. This disease can impact a woman s ability to have children if left untreated.

149. Chlamydia is the most commonly reported STD in the United States. Sexually active females 25 years old and younger need testing every year. a. Both statements are correct. b. First statement is correct, second is wrong. c. Second statement is correct, first is wrong. d. Both statements are wrong. Answer: A