Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010 Science

SCIENCE MODULE FOR SPM 2010
Contents

No Items pages

01 Format of an instrument for the evaluation of Science SPM 2
(Actual examination format)

02 Analysis of SPM science Paper 2005 -2009 4

03 Examination tips 5

04 Answering Strategy 7

05 Sets of questions 12

06 Scheme 227

07 Set of Practice Bestari Questions 256 - 290

08 Practise Bestari Scheme 291 - 307

2

FORMAT OF INSTRUMENT FOR THE EVALUATION OF SCIENCE BEGINNING
SPM 2003

NO

ITEM

PAPER 1(1511/1)

PAPER 2 (1511/2)

01

Type of instrument

Objective test

Subjective test

02

Type of item

Objective item with
Multiple Choice
Multiple combination
Each item has four option,
A,B, C and D

Subjective item
Section A:
Structured item
Section B:
Response item
Section C:
Essay
Open response item
Limited response item

03

Number of Question

50 (answer all)

Section A
4 (answer all questions)
20 marks

Section B
5 (answer all questions)
30 marks

Section C
Answer question 10
And
Either question 11 or 12

04

Total marks

50

70

05

Method to responses

Mark on OMR sheet

Write in the spaces
provided on question
paper.

06

Duration of test

1 hour 15 minutes

2 hour and 30 minutes

3

07

Construct requirement

Knowledge : 25
Understanding :15
Application :10

Knowledge :20
Understanding :14
Scientific skills :30
Application :6

08

Example of item base on
construct

Refer LPM question

Refer LPM question

09

Marking Scheme

(1 or 0 mark)

Analytical

10

Coverage responses

Evaluate the constructs on
all context

Evaluate the constructs on
all context

11

Level of difficulty
Low :L
Moderate :M
High :H

L: M: H= 5:3:2

L:M:H= 5:3:2

Overall
L:M:H=5:3:2

12

Extra instrument

Calculator

4
ANALYSIS OF THE SPM SCIENCE PAPER ( 2005 - 2009 )

QUESTION
CHAPTER 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
O A B C O A B C O A B C O A B C O A B C
1 Scientific Investigation
2 Body Coordination 3 1 3 1 5 3 1 4 1
3 Heredity and Variation 4 1 5 3 1 3 4 1
4 Matter and Substance 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 1 1 4 1
5 Energy and Chemical Changes 3 1 3 1 4 1 4 3 1
6 Nuclear energy 2 1 3 1 2 1 2 1 4
7 Light, Colour and Sight 5 1 3 1 5 1 3 1 3 1
8 Chemicals in Industry 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 1
Number of Form 4 Questions 23 2 3 2 24 2 3 1 24 2 2 1 21 2 2 1 24 1 3 2
9 Microorganisms and Their 4 1 5 1 3 1 5 1 4 1
Effect on Living Things
10 Nutrition and Food Production 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 4
11 Preservation and Concervation 5 2 2 1 6 1 2 1 1
of the Environment
12 Carbon Compounds 4 1 4 1 5 1 3 1 3 1
13 Motion 4 1 5 1 5 1 5 1 5 1
14 Food Thecnology and
Production 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 3
15 Synthetic Materials in industry 2 2 2 1 2 1 2
16 Electronics and Information
and
2 1
2 1 3 1 3 3 1
Communication Technology
Number of Form 5 Questions 27 2 2 1 26 2 2 2 26 2 3 2 29 2 3 2 26 3 2 1
TOTAL 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3

O = Objective question T = Theory question
P = Practical Question E = Essay question

5
EXAMINATIONS TIPS

ERRORS IN LANGUAGE

1. Wrong spelling.
2. Repeat answer using different sentence structure.
3. Use of active voice when writing a report .

SUGGESTION TO CANDIDATES

1. Master the basic concepts and facts
2. For practical, ensure that you have mastered all the skills regarding the process in
science.
3. Use the right / accurate terminologies
4. Elaborate in sequence and avoid repetition of facts.
5. Do more exercises
6. Avoid mixing languages in the answer.
7. Ensure there is detailed observation on the stimulus given.

SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

1. Each step in a scientific investigation should be carried out to ensure a good grasp of
skills pertaining to basic science processes.
2. Ensure all the students are well versed in all topics.
3. Ensure students master the skills of science processes.
4. Use a variety of teaching and learning method.
5. Prepare worksheets which include a lot of stimulus.
6. Expose student to the exam formatted questions from form 1.
7. Increase the number of exercises.

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 1

STRATEGIES

1.Student must find/prepare / collect sets of topical objective question from revision
book.
2.Do test and retest until get 85% correct for each topical sets.
3.Practise answering each objective question in 1 minutes 30 seconds.
4.Practise answering high level question using Eliminate method

TEST AND RETEST METHOD

1.Get topical objective question from dependable source.
2.Do topical exercise.
3.If the mark gain less than 85% (set of 50 question 43 must correct), Redo the
6
exercise on the same topic until you get 85 % or more.
4.Preparation activities for redo exercise include ( reading textbook, notes, mind
map, discussion and ask teacher)
5.If you are already achieve 85% , do the same for another topic.
6.If you are already done all 15 topics until November, it means you are 85% confidence
to be in examination hall.

ELIMINATE METHOD

EXAMPLE 1

1.What is the similarity between meiosis and mitosis ?

a. Number of daughter cells produced
b. Duplication of the chromosomes
c. Number of chromosomes in the daughter cell
d. Both are important in the growth of an organism

EXAMPLE 2

2.What happens to a person if his thyroid gland secretes excessive hormone into the
blood?

A The blood pressure increases
B The glucose level in the blood decreases
C The metabolic rate increases
D The salt level in the blood decreases

Notes:

1. To answer this question find the incorrect answer first.
2 . Reject that answer ( 3 distracters left)
3. Reject one more incorrect answer ( 2 distracters left)
4. Try to reject one more incorrect answer (One distracter only left) that is the answer.

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 2

SECTION A ( Alternative test to practical, 20 marks )
In this section the students must answer 4 questions which carry 20 marks. All the items in
this section will deal with Science Process Skills. In order for the students to get the answers,
they need to acquire the skills listed below. The students can get the answer from the question
and the stimulus implicitly and explicitly.

Science Process Skills (list and definition)

Science Process Skills enable students to formulate their questions and find out the answer
systematically.
7
Descriptions of science process skills are as follows:

Observing
Using the sense of hearing, touch, smell, taste and sight to collect information about an object
or a phenomenon.

Classifying
Using observation to group objects or events according to similarities or differences

Measuring and Using Numbers
Making quantitative observations using numbers and tools with standardised units. Measuring
makes observation more accurate.

Inferring
Using past experiences or previously collected data to draw conclusions and make
explanations of events.

Predicting
Stating the outcome of a future event based on prior knowledge gained through experiences of
collecting data

Communicating
Using words or graphic symbols such as tables, graphs, figures or models to describe an
action, object or event.

Interpreting Data
Giving rational explanations about an object, event or pattern derived from collected data.

Defining Operationally
Defining concepts by describing what must be done and what should be observed

Controlling Variables
Identifying the fixed variable, manipulated variable and responding variable in an
investigation. The manipulated variable is changed to observe its relationship with the
responding variable. At the same time, the fixed variable is kept constant

Hypothesising
Making a general statement about the relationship between a manipulated variable and a
responding variable in order to explain an event or observation. This statement can be tested
to determine its validity.

Experimenting
Planning and conducting activities to test a certain hypothesis. These activities include
collecting, analysing and interpreting data and making conclusions.

8
Guide to answering question in Section A

1. Each question in section A is an alternative question to the real practical exam
2. Hence data are usually given and the candidate is asked to make an inference or
conclusion, or experiment results are given and the candidate is required to give an answer
about the process in conducting an investigation.
3. Among the matters raised in the question are :
a) Making qualitative and quantitative observations from the diagrams or through the
measurements
b) Drawing diagram, graphs, tables or charts according to data or information given.
c) Making predictions, hypotheses, inferences and conclusions based on the candidates
scientific knowledge
d) Identifying a variable that is kept constant, that is manipulated and responds
4. Your answer should be brief but accurate based on information given or obtained from
your framework

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR SCIENCE PROCESS SKILL QUESTIONS

A) Controlled Variable

Ways to find variables

1. From the sentence, find out the variables

Examples:

Steps:

a) Underline variables in the sentence
b) The underlined variables refer to manipulated variable and responding variable
c) Find out which variable that the change is fixed. This is the manipulated variable
d) The other one is responding variable.

2. From the table

Example 1:

Time/minute 0 2 4 6 8 10
Temperature/C 28 48 68 88 102 102

Steps:

a) Manipulated and responding variable given from the title of table are time and
temperature.
b) Time is manipulated variable because time are increase or changes.
c) Temperature is responding variable because changes of temperature

9
Section B(Structured questions 30 marks)

1. This section covers five structured questions which are compulsory .
2. Most of these questions test the candidates command of knowledge and
understanding of facts, procedure of an experiment, concepts,principles, theories and
laws
3. Sometimes answers can be obtained from symbols,diagrams,tables and graphps
through interpretation and graphic extrapolation.
4. You must read the instruction at the beginning carefully so that you understand the
matter tested and obtain ideas to answer the questions.
5. A small part of the question generally relates to a subsequent part.

Guide to answering questions in section B

1.Usually, you need to use your knowledge of scientific facts ,principles and theories to
answer the questions.
2.Your answers should be brief and accurate.

Section C ( Essay questions, 20 marks)

1. This section contains three questions. Question 1 is compulsory and you may choose
either question 2 or 3.
2. Question 1 test the candidates command of scientific skills in experimenting as well
as the ability to make reports.
3. This question begins with a general statement, e.g. Acidic substances have a sour
test. The candidate is required to give a hypothesis based on the statement. Then, the
candidate is required to described the experiment based on the following to test the
hypothesis.
a)Aim of experiment
b)Identification of variables
c)List of apparatus and materials
d)Procedure
e)Tabulation of data
f)Conclusion
4. Questions 2 and 3, are usually short but the candidate is required to use his or
her knowledge and understanding of scientific concepts and theories to answer.
5. In this context, the candidate has to answer the question by drawing and writing a
Short essay following the instruction of the question.
6. All answers must be written in the space provided below each question.

Guide to answer the essay questions in section C

1. The format of question 1 is fixed and the candidate is required to answer it in the
same way as writing a report after an experiment.
2. For question 2 and 3, choose one you are confident in and answer it properly to obtain
maximum marks.
3. To answer this question, identify the key words which usually appear at the
beginning of the question.
4. Key words and the type of answer required are listed below:
10

No

Key words

Type of answer

1

State

Give facts without explanation

2

Define

The answer must be specific statements of a concepts or
principle usually found in

3

Describe

Explain in detail and systematically procedures,events or
natural phenomena

4

Explain

Give reasons to explain the occurrence of a concept or a
principle.

5

Compare

List the similarities and differences between two different
matters.

6

Discuss

Give analytical and critical explanation.

7

Suggest

Give views and opinions based on knowledge, scientific
concepts and theories.

8

What

i)Give facts of information.
ii)Give explanation.

9

Why

Give explanation and reasons

10

How

i)List or describe steps in a process or a procedure in
carrying out an operation.
ii)Explain an event or phenomenon according to scientific
concepts and theories.

5.Apart from written answer, some questions require the candidate to draw and label
diagrams. In this contex, the diagrams should be clear, clean and of suitable size.
6.Wherever necessary, the workout of the calculation must be clearly shown in the space
11
provided.
7.For an essay question which requires a long answer, plan your answer step-by-step and
write in short paragraphs
8.In an essay answer, each sentence should cover only one point in order to get one mark
which is usually allotted.

12
CHAPTER 1: SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION

1. The diagram below shows the statement
that represents the steps that involved in
the method of scientific investigation.

P Forming a hypothesis.
Q Planning the investigation.
R Identifying the problem.
S Carrying out the investigation.
T Making conclusion.
U Analysing and interpreting
data.
V Identifying the variables.

2. Which of the following are correct steps
that involved in the method of scientific
investigation?

A P, V, Q, S, U, T, R
B R, V, P, Q, S, U, T
C T, R, P, V, Q, S, U
D R, P, V, Q, S, U, T

3 The following statement are the variables
that should be identified. Which of the
following is not true?

A Fixed variable is the variable that is
kept constant or unchanged.
B Manipulated variable is the variable
that is change to see its effect.
C Responding variable is the variable that
changes in response to the fixed
variable.
D Responding variable is the variable that
changes in response to the manipulated
variable.

4 Hypothesis is a simple statement of what
one thinks will happen as a result of an
experiment. It usually shows the
relationship between

A the fixed variable and the responding
variable.
B the fixed variable and the manipulated
variable.
C the responding variable and the
manipulated variable.
D the responding variable and the
independent variable.

5. Which of the following steps have been
carried out before planning the
investigation?

I Collecting data
II Making observation
III Forming a hypothesis
IV Identifying the problem

A I, II and III only
B I, II and IV only
C I, III and IV only
D II, III and IV only

6. Why the method of scientific investigation
important?

I Can be more observant and more
analytical.
II Think creatively and critically.
III Avoid misconceptions and
misinterpretations.
IV Effective in gaining, organizing, and
applying new knowledge.

B I, II and IV only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

7. A complete experiment report should
contain the following, except

A Operational definition.
B Material and apparatus.
C The aim of the experiment.
D The size of the container influences the
rate of cooling.

8. Which of the following not the parts of the
step analysing and interpreting data?

A Plot a graph.
B Organizing the data.
C Find the relationships between the
variables.
D Check and confirm whether or not the
hypothesis is accepted.

13

9. Which of the following should be done
before forming a hypothesis?

I Collecting data
II Making observation
III Identifying the problem
IV Planning the investigation

A II and III only
B I, II and III only
D I, II, III and IV only

10. Which of the following statements shows
an inference?

A The surface area exposed to air.
B The size of the container influences the
rate of cooling.
C To investigate how surface area affects
the rate of cooling.
D The larger the surface area, the higher
the rate of cooling.

11. Which of the following variables that we
can find and record when doing an
experiment?

A Fixed variable
B Responding variable
C Manipulated variable
D Independent variable

12. An experiment is carried out to

A test the problem
B test the hypothesis
C making a hypothesis
D prove the observation

13 Which of the following are the attitudes
and values that important to the learning of
science?
I Emotional
II Daring to try
III Confident and independent
IV Diligence and perseverance

B I, II and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

14. A student takes three petri dishes of
different sizes. Each petri dish is filled
with 30 cm
3
boiling water. After some
time, he found that the volume of the
boiling water left in each three petri dishes
is different.

The inference of this experiment are

A the surface area expose to air.
B the larger the surface, the higher the
rate of evaporation.
C the surface area of the petri dish
influences the rate of evaporation.
D the experiment shows that the rate of
evaporation is influenced by the
surface area of the liquid exposed to
the air.

15. Why need to practice scientific attitudes
and noble values in learning science?

A Become rational thinker.
B Become responsibility and cooperative.
C Become effective decision-makers and
problem-solvers.
D Appreciating the contribution of
science and technology.

16 The diagram below shows the graph that
represents the relationship between the
solubility of salt M with temperature.

What is the manipulated variable in this
experiment?

A Solubility
B Temperature
C Type of salt M
D Volume of water

14

17 The diagram below shows object P and Q
are placed in a measuring cylinder that
containing three different liquids.

Which of the following is the inference for
this experiment?

A Chloroform will float on the oil.
B Oil is less dense than chloroform.
C Mercury will float on the chloroform.
D Mercury is less dense than chloroform.

18 The diagram below shows the steps of the
method of scientific investigation.

Which of the following is the step P and
Q?

P Q
A Forming a
hypothesis
Collecting data
B Making
observation
Carrying out the
investigation
C Forming a
hypothesis
Carrying out the
investigation
D Carrying out the
investigation
Forming a
hypothesis

19 "The shorter the pendulum, the more
oscillations it makes in a given time." This
statement is

A a conclusion
B a hypothesis
C an observation
D aim of the investigation

20 The diagram below shows an experiment
that represents the relationship between the
densities and the ability to float in the
water.

What is the manipulated variable in this
experiment?

A Type of liquid
B Type of objects
C Size of the objects
D Temperature of water

21. Which of the following are considered as
science process skills?

I Drawing
II Predicting
III Controlling variable
IV Identifying problem

B I, II and IV only

15

22. Which of the following is the most
important when recording the data?

A Fair
B Honest
C Curiosity
D Confident

23 The following are the positive attitudes
and values that required in the learning of
science, except

A ego
B systematic
C flexible and open-minded
D diligence and perseverance

24 The following are the steps of scientific
investigation, except

A Observing phenomenon
B Controlling the variables
C Planning the investigation
D Carrying out the investigation

The table below shows the relationship
between the amount of salt and the
temperature of boiling.

Temperature of
water boiling
Amount of salt
added to
water(grams)
100
0
None
102
0
10
104
0
20
106
0
30

25. What is the suitable hypothesis for this
experiment?

A The more salt is added, the lower the
temperature for boiling.
B The more salt added, the higher the
temperature for boiling.
C The type of the salt used will be
affected the temperature of boiling.
D The amount of salt added to water will
not be affected the temperature of
boiling.

26. "It is the amount of organic fertilizer that a
farmer used will affect the growth of the
plant?" Identifying the variables for this
problem.

X = The amount of organic fertilizer
Y = Plant growth
Z = Amount of sunlight

Fixed Responding Manipulated
A X Y Z
B Z Y X
C Y Z X
D Z X Y

I Control the variables.
II Determine the procedure.
III Determine the apparatus and material.
IV Determine the method of data
collection and data analysis.

27 All of the following above are the part of
the step of

A Collecting data
B Forming a hypothesis
C Identifying the variable
D Planning the investigation

28 If a student is a people that willing to
accept other's critical and opinions, what
kinds of the attitudes and values that this
student have?

A Being objective
B Being fair and just
C Being flexible and open minded
D Being responsible and cooperative

16
CHAPTER 2: BODY COORDINATION

1. The body systems that control and regulate
coordination consist of

A muscular system and nervous system.
B central system and peripheral system.
C nervous system and endocrine system.
D endocrine system and circulatory
system.

2. Which of the following are the activities
regulated and coordinated by the nervous
system?

I Sense
II Speech
III Growth
IV Memory and thinking

B I, II and IV only

3. What are the two body systems that control
and regulate coordination?

I Nervous system
II Endocrine system
III Circulatory system
IV Respiratory system

A I and II only
B I and III only
C I, II and III only

4 Which of the following are consists of the
central nervous system?

I Brain
II Spinal cord
III Spinal nerves
IV Cranial nerves

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and IV only
D III and IV only
5. The diagram below shows the human
nervous system.

What are the labels P and Q represented?

P Q
A Central nervous
system
Peripheral nervous
system
B Peripheral nervous
system
Central nervous
system
C Voluntary nervous
system
Involuntary
nervous system
D Involuntary
nervous system
Voluntary nervous
system

6. Which of the following are consists of the
peripheral nervous system?

I Brain
II Spinal cord
III Spinal nerves
IV Cranial nerves

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and IV only
D III and IV only

17

7. The diagram below shows a neurone.

Label X and Y are

X Y
A Dendron Myelin sheath
B Myelin sheath Dendron
C Dendrite Myelin sheath
D Myelin sheath Dendrite

8. Neurones can be classified into three main
groups. Which of the following are the
main groups of neurones?

I Axon
II Relay
III Motor
IV Sensory

B I, II and IV only

9. What is the function of a nucleus which is
containing in cell body?

A A protected.
B Receive nerve impulses and transmit
them.
C Controls all the activities in the
neurone.
D Speeds up the transmission of impulses
and provide nutrients to axon and
dendron.

10 The diagram below shows the three main
groups of neurones.

Which of the following represents P, Q and
R?

P Q R
A Relay
neurone
Motor
neurone
Sensory
neurone
B Sensory
neurone
Relay
neurone
Motor
neurone
C Sensory
neurone
Motor
neurone
Relay
neurone
D Motor
neurone
Sensory
neurone
Relay
neurone

11 The diagram below shows a neurone.

What is the function of this neurone?
A Transmits impulses from the central
nervous system to effectors.
B Transmits impulses from receptors to
the central nervous system.
C Transmits impulses from effectors to
the central nervous system.
D Processes impulses received from the
sensory neurones and transmits them to
the motor neurones.

18


This neurone is called

A Axon
B Relay
C Motor
D Sensory

13. Which of the following is the basic unit in
the nervous system?

A Neurone
B Dendron
C cell body
D Myelin sheath

14. What is the similar of the sensory neurone,
motor neurone and relay neurone?

A The function
B All are nerve cells
C The length of axon
D The length of dendron

15 The sensory cells found in our sensory
organs is called

A stimuli
B effectors
C receptors
D responses

16 What is effector?

A Detect stimuli in the environment.
B Rapid and automatic response to a
stimulus.
C Processes the information and then
sends out impulses.
D Respond to the instructions received
from the central nervous system.
17. The diagram below shows the pathway of
impulses in the nervous coordination.

What are X and Y represented?

X Y
A Receptors Effectors
B Effectors Receptors
C Sensory Motor
D Motor Sensory

18. Which of the following are the examples of
reflex action?

I Knee-jerk reflex.
II Narrowing of eye when the intensity
of light is too great.
III Withdrawal of hand when touching a
hot object accidentally.
IV Blinking of eyes when an object is
moving towards our eyes.

B I, II and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

19. Which of the following are true about
reflex action?

I Help us to avoid injuries.
II detect stimuli in the environment.
III Knee-jerk is an example of reflex
action.
IV Rapid and automatic response to a
stimulus.

B I, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

19

20. Which of the following consists in a
reflex?

I Receptors and effectors
II Sensory neurones
III Motor neurones
IV Relay neurones

A I, II and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

21 The diagram below shows the reflex arc in
a human knee-jerk.

How many neurones involves in this reflex
action?

A One
B Two
C Three
D Four

22 The diagram below shows the main parts of
the human brain.

What are P, Q and R represent?
P Q R
A Cerebrum Cerebellum Medulla
oblongata
B Cerebellu
m
Cerebrum Medulla
oblongata
C Cerebellu
m
Medulla
oblongata
Cerebrum
D Medulla
oblongata
Cerebrum Cerebellum

23. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in
a human knee-jerk.

Which of the following shows the path of
the nerve impulse?

A
Receptor
spinal cord
effector
B
Effector
spinal cord
receptor
C
Receptor
spinal nerves
effector
D
Effector
spinal nerves
receptor

24. The diagram below shows the human
endocrine system.

Which of the following labelled as A, B, C
or D is the adrenal glands?

25. The following are true of the hormone,
except

A have a few target organs
B produce in larger amount
C produce by ductless gland
D secrete directly into the bloodstream

20

26. The following are true of the pituitary
gland, except

A located at the base of the cerebrum.
B often called the master gland of the
endocrine system.
C produce growth hormone which
stimulates growth.
D produce adrenaline to prepare the body
for action during emergency.

27. The diagram below shows a part the
human endocrine system.

What is the function of the label M?

A Controls the rate of metabolism.
B Conversion of glucose into glycogen.
C Develop of secondary sexual
characteristics.
D Prepares the body for actions during
emergencies.

28. The diagram below shows the part of the
human endocrine system.

What is this endocrine system?

A Pancreas
B Adrenal glands
C Thyroid gland
D Pituitary gland

29 Why the pituitary gland is called the
master gland of the endocrine system?

A It produces growth hormone.
B It located at the base of the cerebrum.
C It controls the rate of growth of a
human.
D It produces hormones which stimulate
other endocrine glands.

30 Which of the following are the health
problem causes by drug abuse?

I Mental problem.
II High blood problem.
III Slow down nerve impulses.
IV Weakened of immune system.

A I and II only
B II and III only
C I, II and III only
D I, II and IV only

CHAPTER 3:HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1. The characteristics of individuals that are
controlled by genes include

I Color of hair
II Color of eyes
III Types of ear lobes
IV Right handed or left handed

D I, II, III and IV

2. Which of the following are true about
genes?

I Units of inheritance.
II Determine the characteristics.
III Thousand of genes in a DNA
molecule.
IV Consists of dominant genes and
recessive genes.

D I, II, III and IV

3. There are two type of cell division namely

A Gene and mutation.
B Mitosis and meiosis.
C Dominant and recessive.
D Chromosome and autosome.

4. Which of the following controlled the
characteristics of individual?

A Gene
B Mutation
C Cell division
D Chromosome

5. Mitosis is a process whereby a cell
division into how many daughter cells?

A One
B Two
C Three
D Four

6 The diagram below shows the structure of
a chromosome.

What is the label P represented?

A DNA
B Gene
C Nucleus
D Chromosome

7. Which of the following are the similarities
between mitosis and meiosis?

I Important for inheritance.
II Each chromosome only double one.
III Same number of times nucleus
divides.
IV Parent cells divide to produce
daughter cells.

B I, II and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

8. Which of the following process will
produce the gametes?

A Mitosis
B Meiosis
C Mutation
D Cytoplasm

9. Which of the following are true of the
process mitosis?

I Genetic information varied.
II Divide parents cells to two daughter
cells.
III The number of times nucleus divides
is same with the number of times
cytoplasm divides.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

10. What is the probability that a couple can
get a girl baby?

A 0.25
B 0.30
C 0.40
D 0.50

11 The diagram below shows a phase in
process meiosis.

This process is known as

A mutation
B fertilization
C reproductive
D crossing-over

12 Which of the following shows the
importance of meiosis?

I Reproduce sexually.
II Replacing dead cells.
III To produce variation.

A II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

13 A cell in a plant contains 30 chromosomes.
How many chromosomes does each of its
female gamete have?

A 5
B 10
C 15
D 20

14 The following are true about the dominant
gene, except

A determined dominant traits.
B control the characteristic are present.
C shows it character in the presence of
recessive gene.
D shows it character in the absence of
recessive gene.

15. Which of the following is a recessive
traits?

A Curly hair
B Black hair
C Left handed
D Free ear lobes

16 A person with two different genes is said
to be

A genotype
B phenotype
C homozygous
D heterozygous

23

17. A parents with alleles shown as Cc x cc are
crossed.

Cc - Curly hair
cc - Straight hair

What are the phenotype ratios of the F
1

generation?

A 1 Cc : 3 cc
B 2 Cc : 2 cc
C 3 Cc : 1 cc
D 4 Cc : 0 cc

18 The figure below shows a monohybrid
cross between two plants

TT
tt
T : Tall (dominant)
t : Dwarf (recessive)

What is the genotype ratio of the F
2

generation?

A 1 tall : 3 dwarf
B 2 tall : 2 dwarf
C 3 tall : 1 dwarf
D 4 tall : 0 dwarf

19 If the 22 + X sperm fertilizes an ovum.
What is the sex of the baby?

A Boy
B Girl
C Identical twins
D Non-identical twins

20 If two ova are fertilized by two sperms.
What is the sex of baby?

A Boy
B Girl
C Twins that have same sex.
D Twins that have same or different sex.

21 The diagram below shows the
chromosomes in a male and female.

What are labels X and Y represented?

X Y
A 22 + X 22 + Y
B 22 + Y 22 + X
C 44 + X 44 + Y
D 44 + Y 44 + X

22. Which of the following are true about the
identical twins?

I Sex is same.
II One sperm is involved.
III Two foetuses share the same placenta.
IV Two foetuses develop in the mother's
uterus.

D I, II, III and IV

23

Which of the following disorder is caused
by gene mutation?

A Haemophilia
B Down's syndrome
C Turner's syndrome
D Klinefelter's syndrome

24

24 The down's syndrome disorder caused by
the possession of

A less one chromosome.
B extra one chromosome.
C less one sex chromosome.
D extra one sex chromosome.

25. Which of the following are the causes of
mutation?

I Toxic chemicals
II Ultraviolet light
III Radioactive gamma rays

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

26 The following are the example of
continuous variation, except

A Weight
B Skin color
C Intelligence
D Blood group

27 Which of the following are the importances
of variation?

I Differentiate individuals.
II Improve product quality.
III Allows selective breeding to be
carried out.
IV For survival when environment
conditions change.

D I, II, III and IV

28 If a female who has only one X
chromosome, she is suffering from

A Albinism
B Haemophilia
C Turner's syndrome
D Klinefelter's syndrome

29 Diabetic patients need to be treated by
using

A Insulin
B Potatoes
C Sheep's milk
D Gene therapy

30 Which of the following is the dominant
traits?

A Blonde hair
B Color blind
C Straight hair
D Free ear lobes

25
CHAPTER 4:MATTER AND SUBSTANCES

1. Which of the following represents a
process condensation?

2. Which of the following processes involved
absorb of heat?

I Boiling
II Melting
III Freezing
IV Condensation

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and IV only
D III and IV only

3 Which of the following represents the
boiling?

A

B

C

D

4 Gas can easily be compressed because
particles in gas

A are moving randomly.
B have high kinetic energy.
C have weak attractive forces.
D are not arranged and far apart.

5 Which of the following process involved a
release of heat?

A boiling
B melting
C freezing
D evaporation

6 Which of the following are true for pure
substances?

I Do not contain any impurities.
II Has fixed melting and boiling point.
III Not mixed with any other substance.
IV Crystals is an example of pure
substance.

D I, II, III and IV

7 Which of the following is the property of
non metals?

A Shiny
B High density
C Dull and brittle
D High tensile strength

26

8 The process of separating substances in a
mixture to obtain a pure substance is

A filtration
B distillation
C purification
D crystallization

9 What is the boiling point of water if added
a bit of salt in the water?

A 90
0
C
B 99
0
C
C 100
0
C
D 105
0
C

10 The table below shows some information
regarding an atom.

Nucleon number 28
Proton number 15

How many neutrons does this atom have?

A 13
B 15
C 28
D 43

11 Atom X has 15 neutrons and 11 protons.
The number of electrons in Atom X is

A 4
B 11
C 15
D 26

12 The table below shows information about
elements R, S, T and U. Which of the
following elements are isotopes?

Element Proton
number
Nucleon
number
R 5 13
S 6 13
T 7 15
U 7 17

A R and S
B R and U
C S and T
D T and U

13 The table below shows the information
about elements W, X, Y and Z. Which of
the following elements are negatively
charged?

Element Number of
proton
Number of
electron
W 18 19
X 11 9
Y 13 10
Z 16 17

A W and X
B W and Z
C X and Y
D Y and Z

14 Isotopes have the

A same chemical and physical properties.
B different chemical and physical
properties.
C same chemical properties but different
physical properties.
D different chemical properties but same
physical properties.

15 The nucleus contains

A protons only
B neutrons only
C protons and neutrons
D protons and electrons

16 In the distillation process, what is used to
condensation the stream into pure water?

A Impurities
B Rubber stopper
C Distillation flask
D Liebig condenser

17 The method that use to remove ethanol
from a mixture of ethanol and water which
have different boiling points is

A distillation
B purification
C crystallization
D fractional distillation

27

18 Which of the following require
crystallization process?

A Mixture of salt and sand.
B Mixture of ethanol and water.
C To obtain pure water from a salt
solution.
D To obtain petroleum fractions from
crude oil.

19 Which of the following elements are non-
metals?

A Gold
B Copper
C Bromine
D Magnesium

20 Substance P has the following
characteristic:

Corrosion resistant
Have low densities
Good heat conductor

Which of the following substance could be
P?

A Iron
B Copper
C Sodium
D Aluminium

21 Which of the following is true?

Molecules of
elements
Molecules of
compounds

A
Same type of
atoms
Two or more
different types of
atoms
B Two or more
different types of
atoms
Same type of
atoms
C Same type of
molecules
Two or more
different types of
molecules
D Two or more
different types of
molecules
Same type of
molecules
22 The following are true of molecules,
except

A have low melting and boiling point.
B may appear in solid, liquid and gas
state.
C insoluble in water but soluble in
organic solvents.
D conduct electricity only when melted
or dissolved in water.

23
Why metals have high melting and boiling
points?

A Are good conductors of electricity.
B Atoms are held strongly to each other.
C Weak Van der Waals' forces holding
the atom together.
D Oppositely charged are attracted to
each other by strong.

24 The proton number enables us to predict

I the number of protons an element
has.
II the number of electrons an element
has.
III the location of an element in the
Periodic Table.

A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D I, II and III

25 The diagram below shows the Periodic
Table

The element X is a

A Metal
B Non-metal
C Semiconductor
D Transition element

28

26 Which of the following is true about the
Elements in Group 1?

A Are non-metals
B Very unreactive
C Have high melting points
D Have a relatively low density

elements in Group 18?

A Gases
B Very reactive
C Called as halogens
D Have high melting points

28 The diagram below shows the experiment
of electrical conductivity.

Which of the metals can be used as
electrode T?

A Sulfur
B Carbon
C Copper
D Magnesium

29 Which of the following elements are not
from group 18?

A Neon
B Xenon
C Boron
D Helium

30 The diagram below shows the location of
element P in the Periodic Table.

A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5

29
CHAPTER 5:ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1 Comparison between physical change and
chemical change has shown at the table
below. Which of the following is true?

Physical Change Chemical Change

A
Reversible and
temporary
Irreversible and
permanent
B No change in
chemical property
Change in
chemical property
C Require a lot of
energy
Little or none
energy is required
D No new substances
produced
New substances
produced

2 Which is a chemical change among the
following?

A Ice melting
B Petrol burning
C Heating iodine crystals
D Sugar dissolve in water

3. Reaction X and Y that occurred have
shown is represented by the following
information.

Reaction X : Iron + water + Oxygen

Rust
Reaction Y : Ice
Water
Steam

Which is true that describes reaction X and
Y by the following information?

Reaction X Reaction Y
A Temporary Permanent
B Chemical content
remains
Chemical content
change
C Produce new
substances
No new substances
formed
D Require plenty of
heat
Little heat required

4 An endothermic reaction

A heat change negative.
B release heat into surrounding.
C absorbs heat from surroundings.
D increase surrounding temperature.

5 Diagram below shows the energy level for
a chemical reaction.

The following statement is true about the
above reaction, except

A Reaction above release heat.
B The value of heat energy is positive.
C Temperature of surrounding increase.
D Reaction above is exothermic reaction.

6 Releasing heat into surrounding occurred
when

I Burning magnesium ribbon in air.
II Ammonium chloride solution
dissolves in water.
III Calcium carbonate decomposes into
calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

30

7 The information below shows an equation.

Hydrogen + Nitrogen
Ammonia

Which of the following statement is true
regarding the equation?

I The reaction is endothermic.
II The reaction is reversible.
III Releasing heat.
IV It is part of Haber Process.

A I only
D I, II, III and IV.

8. What ratio is require when producing
ammonia from the reaction between
hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas in the
Haber process?

A 1 : 3
B 2 : 1
C 2 : 3
D 3 : 1

9 The following statement is true about
Haber process, except

A Reaction is reversible.
B The suitable temperature is 450 - 500
0
C.
C Releasing heat in the backward
reaction.
D The optimum pressure is 200
atmospheres.

10 Which of the following differences
between endothermic reaction and
exothermic reaction is true?
Endothermic Exothermic

A
Break bonds Form bonds
B
Negative
A
H Positive
A
H
C Increase
surrounding
temperature
Decrease
surrounding
temperature
D Energy product
lower than energy
reactant
Energy reactant
lower than energy
product

11 The reaction of calcium carbonate
represented by the equation below.

Calcium carbonate
Calcium oxide +
Carbon dioxide

Which type of chemical reaction can
describe equation above?

A Dissolving
B Combination
C Displacement
D Decomposition

12 The information below shows a statement
about sodium hydroxide and dilute
hydrochloric acid solution.

Temperature increase when sodium
hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid
solution undergo neutralization.

Based on this statement, what conclusion
can you make on it?

A The reaction is exothermic.
B The reaction is endothermic.
C Too much sodium neutralize.
D All sodium hydroxide will make the
temperature fall.

13 The information below shows the
characteristics about metal X.

Metal X does not produce hydrogen
gas when acid is added into.

Metal X is

A Zinc
B Silver
C Calcium
D Aluminium

31

14 The diagram below shows the reaction of
three pellets of metal Y added to the water.

What observation can be derived from the
diagram above if the metal Y is Sodium?

I Very fast with water.
II A loud pop sound is release by gas
when tested with glowing splint.
III Turns the red litmus paper into blue
color.
IV Pellets burned with brick-red flame.

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

15 Information below shows the reactivity of
Metal X, Y and Z.

X No reaction either hot or cold
water.
Y No reaction with cold water but
with hot water.
Z Reacts very fast with water.

Which of the following arrangement in
ascending order for their reactivities is
true?

A Z, Y, X
B Y, Z, X
C X, Y, Z
D X, Z, Y

16 The diagram below shows a reaction of
magnesium with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Bubbles formed and gas X is released from
the experiment above. Gas X is

A Oxygen
B Hydrogen
C Carbon dioxide
D Nitrogen dioxide

17 What is the function of potassium (VII)
manganate in the experiment for reactivity
of metals with oxygen?

A For decoration.
B Heated to release oxygen.
C Heated to release nitrogen.
D Stimulate the metal to heat until it
glows.

18 Carbon have the ability to displace oxygen
from the oxides of the following metals
except

A Iron oxide
B Zinc oxide
C Copper oxide
D Magnesium oxide

19 Which of the following method is to
extracting the metal?

I Filtration and evaporation.
II Using carbon to reduce the metal.
III Electrolysis of molten ore of metals.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

32

20 Why is the magnesium not using the
carbon reduction method to extract?

A Because the extraction process is low.
B Because the magnesium obtained is
pure.
C Because magnesium is more reactive
than carbon.
D Because the extraction process requires
a very high temperature and pressure.

21 Metal in natural conditions exist in the
Earth's crust as metal ore consist of

I Metal oxides
II Metal chlorides
III Metal sulphides
IV Metal carbonates

A I only
B I, II, and III only
D I, II, III and IV

22 Diagram below shows the study of
electrolysis of copper (II) sulphate solution
with two carbon electrodes.

The following result is true for the diagram
above, except

A The anode becomes thinner.
B Anode produce gas bubbles.
C Anode deposite the copper metal.
D Color of the solution gradually
becomes pale.

23 The diagram below shows the arrangement
of apparatus set up study of the process of
electrolysis. After a few minute, there is
any result change to be made.

What kind of error can be derived from the
diagram above that make no changes of it?

A Current are too little.
B Terminals were reversed.
C Using powdered lead iodide.
D The carbon rods are not function.

24 Diagram below shows how an iron nails
can be electroplated.

Which of the following solution will
enable the iron nails to be plated with
copper?

A Silver nitrate
B Copper nitrate
C Copper sulphate
D Aluminium nitrate

33

25 Which is a primary cell among the
following?

I Dry cell
II Alkaline battery
III Silver oxide battery
IV Cadmium battery

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

26 An alkaline battery is made up by which of
the following parts?

I Metal rod
II Zinc powder
III Sodium hydroxide solution
IV Mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and
carbon

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

27 A chemical reaction in green plants has
been represented at the equation below.

The M and N in the equation above is

M N
A Hydrogen Acid Nitrate
B Mineral salt Carbon dioxide
C Glucose Carbon dioxide
D Carbon dioxide Glucose

28 Which of the following is good habit when
using and disposing equipment that use
chemical reaction as energy sources?

I Take good care of the equipment.
II Disposing the equipment by sending
back to recycling centre.
III Follow the instruction of the
manufacturer of the equipment.
IV Throwing them together with the
household waste.

A I only
D I, II, III and IV.

29 The following is the new sources of energy
for equipment, except

I Wind mill
II Fuel cells
III Bio-diesel fuel

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

30 Among the following, which are the ways
to overcome the worst effect due to
chemical reaction?

I Throwing batteries to river.
II Using rechargeable batteries.
III Sending relevant equipment to recycle
center.
IV Discarding nickel cadmium batteries
to recycling bin.

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

34
CHAPTER 6:NUCLEAR ENERGY

1 What is radioactive substance?

A A reactive substance that reacts with
oxygen.
B An element that is stable and can be
describe as inert.
C An element with the nucleus of atoms
is stable and not active.
D An element where the nucleus of the
atoms is not stable and decay
spontaneously.

2 Which of the following are dangerous
radioactive radiations are emitted during
nucleus decay?

I Delta radiation
II Beta radiation
III Alpha radiation
IV Gamma radiation

A I only
C II,III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

3 All isotopes with a proton number bigger
than X are radioactive. Value X is

A 25
B 53
C 75
D 83

4 Uranium-235 is radioactive because

A it atom has a big nucleus.
B it atom has many protons.
C it atom has many electrons.
D it atom has an unstable nucleus.

5 Why gamma radiation is the most
dangerous in the three types of radioactive
radiation?

A because it has the highest penetration
power.
B because it has the highest electrical
charge.
C because it has the highest magnetic
power.
D because it has consists of
electromagnetic wave.

6 X emits radioactive radiation. Which of the
following is X?

A Lead-210
B Cobalt-80
C Carbon-12
D Sodium-23

7 The diagram below shows three radiations
in an electric field.

Which of the following is X, Y and Z?

X Y Z
A Alpha Beta Gamma
B Alpha Gamma Beta
C Beta Alpha Gamma
D Gamma Alpha Beta

8 Among the following, which radioisotopes
used as a tracer to test the rate of fertilizer
absorption for plants?

A Cobalt-60
B Iodine-131
C Carbon-14
D Phosphorus-32

35

9 Which of the following radioisotope is
injected into a patient's body to detect
damage to the thyroid gland?

A Iodin-131
B Cobalt-60
C Sodium-24
D Plutonium-238

10 Which of the following radioactive
radiation is negatively charged?

A X-rays
B Beta radiation
C Alpha radiation
D Gamma radiation

11 The table below shows a characteristic of
radiation X.

Neutral charged.
Highest penetration of power.
Velocity is same as speed of light.
Very week ionization power.

Which of the following is radiation X?

A X- rays
B Beta radiation
C Alpha radiation
D Gamma radiation

12 The table below shows the penetrating
power of radiation P, Q and R.

Element Penetration power
Block of
lead
Piece
of
paper
Piece of
aluminium
No Yes Yes
No No No
No No No

Which of the following represents P, Q and
R?

P Q R
A Alpha Beta Gamma
B Beta Alpha Gamma
C Gamma Beta Alpha
D Beta Gamma Alpha

13 The diagram below shows radioactive
radiation
| o,
and
penetrating through
materials X, Y and Z.

Which of the following represents X, Y
and Z?

X Y Z
A Lead Paper Aluminium
B Lead Aluminium Paper
C Paper Aluminium Lead
D Paper Lead Aluminium

14 Which of the following radioisotopes has
dedicated its function in heart peacemakers
to help stabilize the heartbeat of heart
patients?

A Cobalt-60
B Carbon-14
C Uranium-238
D Plutonium-238

15 Which of the following radioisotopes
playing an important role in archaeology
field?

A Cobalt-60
B Carbon-14
C Uranium-235
D Phosphorus-32

36

16 Which of the following statement is the
usage of radioactive substance?

I To preserve food.
II Detect brain tumours.
III To detect underground pipe leakages.
IV Diagnose damage to the thyroid gland.

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

17 The information below shows about the
characteristics of X.

The function of X is used to sterilize
surgical instruments in hospital. X will
kill and destroy all the bacteria and
fungus in surgical instruments.

Which of the following radioactive
substance can represents X?

A
o
-radiation
B |
-radiation
C
-radiation
D Uranium-235

18 In a nuclear fission, a large amount of
energy is released to

I propel submarines.
II generate electrical energy.
III melt iron ores in the steel industry.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

19 The diagram below shows the process of
nuclear fission.

According to the diagram above, the
process is producing

A electrons
B neutrons
C nuclear energy
D a smaller uranium atom

20 Among the following below, which energy
source(s) is/are non-renewable?

I Fossil fuel
II Sea waves
III Solar energy

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

21 Natural fossil resources used to produce
energy are finish soon. However, people
are still against the idea of producing
nuclear energy. Why?

A Low cost in building a nuclear reactor.
B Plenty of other alternative energy
resources.
C Requires expertise and knowledge on
nuclear technology.
D Possibility of an accident involving the
leakage of radioactive substance.

37

22 The radioactive substance used in nuclear
reactors are

A Sodium rods
B Radium rods
C Uranium rods
D Polonium rods

23 Which of the following is/are the
advantages of nuclear energy production?

I No air pollution occurs.
II Produce a small amount of waste.
III Require only a small amount of
radioactive substance.
IV Cost of generating electricity is lower
compared to the cost of generating
electrical energy from fossil fuels.

A I only
B I, II, and III only
D I, II, III and IV

24 How is the nuclear energy produced in
nuclear reactors changed into electrical
energy?

A Nuclear energy is used to heat metals
which can produce electrical energy.
B Nuclear energy is used to charge
batteries which can produce electrical
energy.
C Nuclear energy is used to activate
chemicals which can produce electrical
energy.
D Nuclear energy is used to boil water to
produce steam which then rotates the
turbine and dynamo to produce
electrical energy.

25 Among the following is the effect from
exposure to radioactive radiation, except

A Cancer growth.
B Fever and cold.
C Destruction of body cell.
D Damage of foetus in a pregnant mother
body.

26 The diagram below shows the nuclear
fission of Uranium-235.

Which of the following is represented X
and Y?
X Y
A Barium-141 Krypton-92
B Kryton-92 Barium-141
C Radium-226 Kryton-92
D Barium-141 Radium-226

27 The box to keep radioactive substances is
made from

A clay
B lead
C glass
D plastic

28 Among the following, which symbol is
warns the public about the radioactive
radiation?
A

B

C

D

38

CHAPTER 7: LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

29 Among the following, which is used to
detect a radioactive radiation?

I Cloud chamber
II Geiger-Muller tube
III Photographic paper

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

30 The following is a correct way to avoid the
negative effect that caused by radioactive
substance, except

A Eat and drink around area containing
radioactive substances.
B Avoid from exposing ourselves to
C Wear docimeter when handling
D Stored radioactive substances in a
special containers made of thick lead
or concrete.

1 The diagram below shows boy P and boy
A standing in front of a plane mirror.

What is the distance between boy P and
image of boy Y?

A 5 cm
B 7 cm
C 9 cm
D 12 cm

2 Which of the following is the characteristic
of an image formed by a plane mirror?

I Virtual
II Upright
III Same size
IV Laterally inverted

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

3 The diagram below shows an object placed
at a distance less than F.

Among the following, which of the
following are the characteristic for the
image formed?

I Virtual
II Upright
III Diminished

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

4 Among the following, which will produce
a virtual image?

I Convex lens
II Plane mirror
III Concave lens

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

39

5 The diagram below shows ray diagram for
a convex lens.

Which of the following is the focal length?

A Between X and O
B Between O and Y
C Between O and Z
D Between X and Y

6 The diagram below shows a ray diagram
for a convex lens.

Among the following instruments, which
is applying the principle shown in the
diagram above?

A Camera
B Projector
C Telescope
D Photostat machine

7 The following is a characteristic of an
image.

Real
Inverted
Smaller than object

Which of the following produced image
that have characteristic above?

A Glass prism
B Convex lens
C Plane mirror
D Concave lens

8 Which of the following ray diagram is
correct?

A

B

C

D

9 The table below shows the characteristic of
an image formed by a concave lens.

Real
Inverted
Bigger than the object
Positioned at a distance more than 2f in
front of the lens

Which of the following instruments
produce image that have characteristic
above?

A Camera
B Projector
C Telescope
D Photostat machine

40

10 The diagram below shows an object placed
in front of a pin-hole camera which
consists of three holes.

Among the following, which is the correct
image that will produce on the screen?

A

B

C

D

camera?

I Diaphragm controls the size of the
aperture.
II Image formed on the film is real,
inverted and smaller than the object.
III Amount of light that enters the camera
is also controlled by the length of time
the shutter is opened.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

12 The diagram below shows a spectrum
being produced when a ray of white light
passed through a glass prism.

Why the spectrum is formed?

I White light is a mixture of seven
colours.
II Coloured lights travel at different
speeds in a glass prism.
III Coloured lights refract at different
angles in a glass prism.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

13 Among the following, which phenomenon
is/are caused by scattering of light?

I The blue sky.
II The red sunset.
III The secondary rainbow.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

14 Which of the following will happens if the
atmosphere of earth is filled with haze
particles, dust and gases from exhaust?

A The Sun looks red.
B The sky looks blue.
C The Sun looks dim.
D The sky looks grey.

41

18 Among the following, which is involving
the subtraction of colours?

I Colour printing.
II Formation of rainbows.
III Formation of white light spectrums by
glass prisms.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

19 The diagram below shows a observer the
colour of the white object after the filter of
X and Y.

Which of the following colour represents X
and Y that will cause the white object
appear black?

I Red and blue respectively.
II Red and green respectively.
III Red and magenta respectively.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

20 Why is black object seen black when other
coloured shine on them?

A Because the black object refracts all
the colours of the lights shining on it.
B Because the black object scatters all
C Because the black object absorbs all
D Because the black object reflects all the
colours of the light shining on it.

15 Which of the following is/are primary
colours?

I Red
II Blue
III Green
IV Yellow

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

16 The diagram below shows white light
passing through a cyan filter.

Which of the following colour will form
on the screen?

A Blue
B Green
C Red and green
D Cyan, green and blue

17 The diagram below shows three spotlight
of red, blue and green light.

Which of the following colour can
represents K and L?

K L
A Cyan White
B White Cyan
C Magenta White
D White Magenta

42

21 The diagram below shows the ray box of
yellow and cyan shine on a white screen.

Which of the following can represents P, Q
and R?

P Q R
A Cyan Red Yellow
B Red Cyan Yellow
C Yellow Cyan Green
D Yellow Green Cyan

22 Paper A appears red and Paper B appears
green when it is illuminated by yellow
light. Which of the following colour is
Paper A and Paper B when illuminated by
red light?

Paper A Paper B

A
Red Red
B Red Blue
C Red Black
D Black Red

23 Which of the following colour will
observed when pigment red mix with
pigment yellow?

A Red
B Green
C Orange
D Magenta

24 Alex is wearing a blue shirt enters a room
that illuminated by yellow light. Which of
the following colour will Alex's shirt
appear in the room?

A Red
B Blue
C White
D Black

25 Why colour plays an important rule to
animal?

I To give warning to enemy
II To attract partners attention
III To camouflage themselves

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

26 Which of the following is the importance
for colour to humans?

I Photocopy
II Traffic lights
III Colour printing
IV Electrical wiring

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

27 Since human eyes cannot see small
microorganisms. What instrument is
designed to help us overcome this
problem?

A Periscope
B Telescope
C Magnifying glass
D Electron microscope

43

CHAPTER 8: CHEMICAL IN INDUSTRY

28 Which of the following is/are function of
colours?

I Give warnings
II Beautify surrounding areas
III Present certain information

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

29 Which of the following instrument allow a
person observe objects at the surface of the
water in a submarine?

A Telescope
B Periscope
C Plane mirror
D Magnifying lens

30 Which of the following instruments allow
human to observe object in outer space?

A Periscope
B Electronic microscope
C Astronomical telescope
D Spectacles with convex lenses

1 Which of the following is correct in
describing an alloy?

A A metallic compound.
B A mixture of two elements.
C A mixture of two or more non-metals.
D A mixture of a metal and another
metal.

2 Which of the following is an alloy?

I Brass
II Bronze
III Pewter
IV Copper nickel

A I only
D I, II, III and IV

3 Which of the following is not an alloy?

A Brass
B Bronze
C Copper
D Pewter

4 Which of the following atomic structure is
represents alloys?

A

B

C

D

5 Which of the following mixture is to
produce a bronze?

A Tin and nickel
B Tin and copper
C Copper and iron
D Copper and zinc

44

6 Which of the following is not an alloy
metal property?

A Durable
B Stronger
C Rust-proof
D More easily shaped

7 The diagram below shows the arrangement
of different atoms found in a substance P.

Which of the following is substance P?

A Iron
B Steel
C Copper
D Calcium

8 Which of the following is a special
property of an alloy which is suitable for
making aircraft body?

A Hard and heavy
B Light and strong
C Shiny and strong
D Low in density and shiny

9 The information below is describing an
alloy X.

Won't rust
Durable and hard
Contains 75 % copper and 25 % nickel

Which of the following is made by alloy
X?

A Cars
B Coins
C Bridges
D Aeroplanes

10 Which substance is added to carbon steel
to avoid corrosion?

A Tin
B Iron
C Chromium
D Aluminium

11 Which of the following statement is true
for a superconductor?

A Substance which is a good conductor
of heat.
B Substance which allows current to flow
efficiently.
C Substance with zero resistance at a
high temperature.
D Substance with an electrical resistance
that is directly proportional to
temperature.

12 Mary discovers that her gold necklace goes
out of shape too easily. How can she
overcome this problem?

A Add more gold in it.
B Hammer it repeatedly.
C Melt the gold and add in other
elements.
D Melt and remould the gold repeatedly
until she gets the shape that she wants.

alloy making process?

I Chemical change occurs.
II Physical change occurs.
III New substance formed which is better
than the original substance.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

45
CHAPTER 9: MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING
THINGS

5 The graph below illustrates the level of
antibodies in the blood of a patient for
immunity of a disease.

Which of the following statements refer to
the type of immunity shown in this graph?

I It is permanent.
II Antiserum is injected into the patient's
body.
III White blood cells are not stimulated to
produce antibodies.

A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

6 Bacteria are used to produce items such
as...

I alcohol
II cheese
III yoghurt

A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

1 The following diseases cannot be treated
using antibiotics except...

A AIDS
B Cholera
C Hepatitis B
D Dengue fever

2 What type of microorganisms cause
diseases?

A Vectors
B Antigens
C Pathogens
D Antibodies

3 What acts as a host for the virus that
causes dengue fever?

A Rats
B Humans
C Houseflies
D Mosquitoes

4 The graph below shows the level of
antibodies in blood.

State the level of immunity that is achieved
as shown by this graph.

A Active natural immunity
B Passive natural immunity
C Active acquired immunity
D Passive acquired immunity

46

7 What do vaccines contain?

A Antigens
B Antibodies
C Active live pathogens
D Dead or weakened pathogens

8 What type of microorganism causes
syphilis?

A Fungi
B Viruses
C Bacteria
D Protozoa

9. Vaccination can be given to a person for
the prevention of the following infections
except...

I malaria
II cholera
III hepatitis B

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

10 It is caused by protozoon.
It can cause anaemia.
It causes fever.

The statements listed above describes the
disease called...

A tinea
B cholera
C malaria
D hepatitis B

11 Algae are classified as autotrophs because
they...

A feed on dead organisms.
B feed on other living organisms.
C carry out anaerobic respiration.
D can manufacture their own food.

12 The diagram below shows four penicillin
discs of different concentrations placed in
a petri dish containing nutrient agar and
bacteria.

Which penicillin disc is most effective in
preventing the growth of the bacteria
culture?

A P
B Q
C R
D S

13 The table below shows the different
conditions in test tubes Q, R, S, and T that
are used to study the factors that affect
bacterial activity.

Test
tube
pH
value
Nutrie
nts
Tempe
rature
Moist
ure
Q 5 Present C 4

Present
R 7 Present C 37

Absent
S 7 Present C 37

Present
T 7 Present C 37

Present

After two days, which test tube showed
vigorous bacterial growth?

A Q
B R
C S
D T

14 What is the most effective way to sterilize
petri dishes used in an experiment to
culture bacteria?

A Washing it with soap.
B Freezing it in a freezer.
C Washing it with boiling water.
D Steaming it under high pressure.

47

15 The diagram below shows an experiment
to study the factors that affect the growth
of bacteria.

Which of the factors below is being
studied?

A pH
B Light
C Nutrient
D Temperature

16 The diagram below illustrates the correct
way to keep a petri dish in an experiment
to culture bacteria.

The petri dish is inverted so that...

A bacteria can grow and multiply
quickly.
B the growth of bacteria can be easily
observed.
C bacteria from the surroundings cannot
enter the petri dish.
D water droplets from condensation do
not affect the experiment.

17 Name the process that occurs when yeast is
added to grape juice and left for one week.

A Oxidation
B Distillation
C Fermentation
D Decomposition

18 Bacterial activity is affected by the
following conditions:

I light intensity
II the pH value of the medium
III oxygen concentration

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

19 Mosquitoes are vectors for disease(s) such
as...

I dengue fever
II malaria
III cholera

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

20 The dough rises when yeast is added in.
Why does this happen?

A The carbon dioxide gas is released.
B There is an increase in temperature.
C There is an increase in the amount of
dough.
D There is an increase in the number of
yeast cells.

21 The ideal temperature for bacterial activity
is...

A C 0

B C 15

C C 37

D C 50

22 Cellulose found in plants can be digested
by herbivores due to the presence of
certain bacteria that secrete...

A lipase
B amylase
C protease
D cellulase

48

23 Which of the statements below describe the
characteristics of a virus?

I It has a nucleus.
II It reproduces only in living cells.
III It contains either DNA or RNA.

A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

24 The diagram below shows the reproduction
of a microorganism.

Which combination below correctly
describes the method of reproduction?

Microorganism Methods of
reproduction
A Fungi Budding
B Algae Conjugation
C Viruses Binary fission
D Fungi Spore formation

25
In damp conditions at
C 37
, bacteria
reproduce easily through...

A budding.
B conjugation.
C binary fission.
D spore formation.

26 Which of the statements below correctly
describes bacteriophage?

A It is a bacterium that kills viruses.
B It is a type of virus that attacks
bacteria.
C It is a bacterium that causes diseases in
plants.
D It can multiply inside both living and
non-living cells.

27 Microorganisms are grouped based on
their...

I colour
II shape
III size
IV habitat

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only

28 The diagram below shows three
microorganisms.

Microorganisms X, Y, and Z are...

X Y Z
A Alga Bacterium Virus
B Virus Protozoon Fungus
C Fungus Alga Bacterium
D Virus Fungus Protozoon

29 What is the smallest microorganism?

A Algae
B Viruses
C Bacteria
D Protozoa

30 Biotechnology uses microorganisms for...

I the production of bioplastic.
II the production of hormones.
III gene therapy.

A II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

49
CHAPTER 10: NUTRITION

1 Which statements below can be examples
of healthy eating habits?

I Eating junk food which is tasty.
II Drinking 2 to 3 litres of water
everyday.
III Eating sufficient quantities of fibres
from fruits and vegetables.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

2 The purpose of eating a wide variety of
nutritious food is to...

A avoid indigestion.
B prevent constipation.
C enjoy life to the fullest.
D meet the body's nutrient requirements.

3 Why is the nitrogen cycle important?

I It maintains the concentration of
nitrogen in the air.
II It ensures a continuous source of
protein.
III It increases water pollution.

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D II and III only

4 What classes of microorganisms have an
important role to play in the nitrogen
cycle?

I Bacteria
II Algae
III Fungi

A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

5 Excessive cholesterol in arteriosclerosis...

A thickens the walls of arteries.
B narrows the lumen of arteries.
C enlarges the lumen of arteries.
D makes the walls of the arteries thin.

6 The diagram below illustrates part of a
nitrogen cycle.

State the process of denitrification.

A Q P

B Q R

C R Q

D S Q

7 A lack of chlorophyll causes chlorosis in
plants. This is due to the insufficient level
of...

A boron
B manganese
C magnesium
D molybedenum

8 What type of bacteria acts on dead plants
and animals?

A Decaying bacteria
B Nitrifying bacteria
C Denitrifying bacteria
D Nitrogen-fixing bacteria

9 What can be done to increase the
concentration of nitrates in the soil?

A Nitrification
B Denitrification
C Decomposition
D Nitrogen fixation

50

10 In what area(s) of a plant that the nitrogen-
fixing bacteria can be found?

I The soil
II Root nodules
III Leaves

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

11 The diagram below shows the root system
of a plant.

Name the plant that has this root system.

A Maize plant
B Balsam plant
C Hibiscus plant
D Groundnut plant

12 What micronutrient is required by plants?

A Calcium
B Potassium
C Manganese
D Magnesium

3 What happens when a plant shows signs of
chlorosis?

A Its growth is stunted.
B Its leaves are turning yellow.
C Its leaves are dropping prematurely.
D Its leaves have black and brown spots.

14 Plants require carbon, hydrogen, and
oxygen for the synthesis of proteins. What
macronutrients are needed for this process
as well?

I Boron
II Nitrogen
III Calcium

A I only
B III only
C I and II only
D II and III only

15 The leaves on a tree turned yellow. The
soil is lacking in...

I magnesium
II nitrogen
III ferum

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

16 Name the gases that combine when
lightning is formed.

I Oxygen
II Hydrogen
III Nitrogen

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

17 The function of a bomb caloriemeter is...

A to determine the nutrition found in
food.
B to measure the quantity of mineral salts
present in food.
C to measure the quantity of
carbohydrates present in food.
D to measure the energy content present
in a sample of food.

51

18 Which of the food below has the lowest
calorific value per unit gram?

A Eggs
B Bread
C Tomatoes
D Margarine

19 The table below shows the calorific values
for three classes of food.

Classes of food Calorific value
(kJg
-1
)
Fats 37.6
Proteins 22.2
Carbohydrates 16.7

For a bun that weighs 300 grams which
contains 3.3g of fats, 30g proteins, and
150g carbohydrates; calculate its total
energy.

A 3 295.08 kJ
B 3 130.08 kJ
C 3 2950.8 kJ
D 4 0950.8 kJ

20 What are the factors that influence the
calorific value requirement of a person?

I Age
II Sex
III State of health

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

21 A major part of an Eskimo's diet consists
of meat and fatty food. Why is it so?

A His culture favours more meaty food.
B The above food source is found
abundantly where he lives.
C To enable him to obtain more energy to
conduct heavy activities.
D To replace heat lost to the surroundings
so that body temperature can be
maintained at
C 37
.
22 What are the factors that determine the fact
that men needs more energy than women?

I Men are bigger and heavier than
women.
II The metabolic rate of men is higher
than that of women.
III Men are braver than women.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

23 Which of the people listed below requires
the least calories?

A A lactating mother.
B A child who is already active.
C A labourer who is chopping firewood.
D A grandmother that spends most of her
time resting.

24 What health problems are caused by an
excessive intake of salt?

I Stroke
II Obesity
III Hypertension

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II and III

25 Which of the statements listed below is
related to aneroxia?

A It causes death.
B It makes a person thinner.
C It is a disease due only to malnutrition.
D It causes female sufferers to experience
irregular menstruation.

52

26 The calorific value of a particular food can
be defined as...

A the energy value per calorie of the
food.
B the total amount of water that is found
in one gram of food.
C the total energy that is released when
one gram of food is burned completely.
D the total energy that is absorbed when
one gram of food is burned completely.

27 A shortage of iodine in daily diet causes...

A goitre
B scurvy
C anaemia
D beri-beri

28 What is cholesterol?

A Fat
B Vitamin
C Mineral salt
D Carbohydrate

29 The information below are the results from
an experiment to study the importance of
plant nutrients.

Spots of dead cells on leaves.
Stunted root growth.
Leaves drop easily.

What nutrients are lacking in the plant
from the experiment that was carried out?

I Phosphorus
II Sulphur
III Potassium

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

30 The diagram below illustrates the apparatus
used in the study of the importance of
macronutrients for plant growth.

Why is the bottle wrapped in black paper?

I To keep the solution warm.
II To prevent sunlight from reaching the
solution.
III To prevent the growth of algae in the
solution.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

53
CHAPTER 11: PRESERVATION AND CONSERVATION OF THE
ENVIRONMENT

1 Which of the statements listed below are
correct measures of preserving and
conserving the environment?

I Putting rubbish into recycling bins.
II Refrain from buying ornaments made
from animal parts.
III Burning fallen dried leaves and
branches of plants.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

2 How is environmental pollution
controlled?

A By burning tree stumps openly.
B By spraying insecticides and
pesticides.
C By treating factory wastes before
disposing them.
D By disposing hot water from power
stations into the sea.

3 Name the phenomenon that happens when
heat is reflected from the Earth's surface
and gets trapped in the atmosphere.

A Global warming
B Ozone depletion
C Thermal pollution
D The greenhouse effect

4 What happens when there is leaching of
chemical fertilizers into rivers and ponds?

A There is air pollution.
B There is a rapid growth of algae.
C There is an increase in the number of
aquatic organisms.
D There is an increase in the oxygen
concentration of the water.

5 Which of the statements listed below are
true about conservation and preservation?

I Protecting the ecosystem from
destruction.
II Preventing the depletion of natural
resources.
III Maintaining the population of
endangered plant and animal species.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

6 Which statements below refer to human
activities that may cause the extinction of
species?

I Using animal parts as traditional
medicine.
II Encouraging game hunting as a sport.
III Using animal parts as decorative
ornaments.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

7 Which statements below refer to human
activities that may cause the extinction of
species?

I Using animal parts as traditional
medicine.
II Encouraging game hunting as a sport.
III Using animal parts as decorative
ornaments.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

54

8 What gas is derived from oil palm fruit
stalks that are processed in a biogas
digester?

A Butane
B Methane
C Nitrogen
D Hydrogen

9 Identify the materials listed below that can
be recycled.

I Old newspapers
II Aluminium tin cans
III Plastic pails

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

10 Why is deforestation carried out?

A To produce oil
B To make furniture
C To produce plastic
D To produce methane gas

11 Mining activities are carried out by humans
to obtain...

I coal
II petroleum
III tin ore

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

12 Humus is the byproduct of compost from
the decomposition of...

A mineral salts
B toxic wastes
C domestic wastes
D chemical substances

13 What do humans suffer as the effect of the
thinning of the ozone layer in the
stratosphere?

I Cataracts
II Cancer
III Diabetes

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

14 What happens when there is uncotrolled
deforestation?

I The destruction of habitats
II Landslides
III Flooding

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

15 The molecule of ozone consists of...

A three carbon atoms.
B three oxygen atoms.
C one carbon atom and two oxygen
atoms.
D one oxygen atom and two hydrogen
atoms.

16 How can the pollution from burning fossil
fuels be reduced?

I By using an incinerator.
II By using renewable energy.
III By fixing catalytic converters in
vehicles.

A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

55

17 The diagram below shows a food web.

Identify the statements below that are true.

I Eagles are tertiary consumers.
II Eagles are secondary consumers.
III Paddy is a producer.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

18 Which of the cycles below help maintain
the balance in nature?

I The water cycle
II The nitrogen cycle
III Food webs

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

19 What is the gas that is aasociated with the
greenhouse effect?

A Oxygen
B Carbon dioxide
C Sulphur dioxide
D Nitrogen dioxide

20 How would carbon particles and smoke
from factories affect plants?

A Increase the rate of respiration in
plants.
B Decrease the rate of photosynthesis in
plants.
C Decrease the rate of transpiration in
plants.
D Increase the absorption of carbon
dioxide by plants.

21 Which of the fuels listed below is fossil
fuel?

I Tar
II Coal
III Petroleum

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

22 What system in the human body is affected
by too much exposure to the ultraviolet
rays?

A Skeletal system
B Immune system
C Nervous system
D Digestive system

23 The ozone layer is important due to the
fact that it...

A increases the temperature of the earth.
B is used by living organisms for
respiration.
C reflects the heat from the earth back
into the atmosphere.
D reduces the amount of ultraviolet rays
reaching the earth.

24 Identify the the effects of global warming
from the statements listed below.

I An increase in the sea level.
II The melting of ice at mountain peaks.
III A decrease in food production by
plants.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

56
CHAPTER 12:CARBON COMPOUNDS

1 The elements that are found present in the
fats molecule are...

I hydrogen
II magnesium
III carbon

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

2 Palm oil can be used...

I as cooking oil
II for manufacturing margarine
III for making explosives

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

3 The diagram below shows the cross-
section of an oil palm fruit.

What part of the oil palm fruit that palm oil
is derived from?

A X only
B X and Y
C X and Z
D X, Y, and Z

4 Why oil palm fruits are exposed to very
hot steam during the extraction process?

A To heat the oil palm fruit.
B To cook the oil palm fruit.
C To sterilize the oil palm fruit.
D To break down the oil palm fruit.

5 Excessive saturated fats in a diet needs to
be avoided because...

A saturated fats are toxic.
B saturated fats have a high calorific
value.
C saturated fats are difficult to digest by
enzymes.
D saturated fats lead to the deposition of
low density cholesterol.

6 What process is used to change
unsaturated fats to saturated fats?

A Oxidation
B Reduction
C Nitrification
D Hydrogenation

7 The harmful effects of low density
cholesterol are...

I they accumulate in the bile duct to
form bile stones.
II they accumulate in the walls of blood
vessels and slow down blood flow.
III they lower blood pressure.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

8 The diagram below shows the structure of
vulcanized rubber.

Name the atom that is marked with the
letter Q.

A Carbon
B Sulphur
C Nitrogen
D Phosphorus

57

9 Addiction to alcohol causes social
problems such as...

I tension in the family
II road accidents
III conflicts between families

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

10 Vulcanized rubber in comparison to natural
rubber is...

I more heat resistant
II softer
III harder

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

11 What is the difference between saturated
fats and unsaturated fats?

Saturated fats Unsaturated fats

A
Have longer
hydrocarbons
chains.
Have shorter
hydrocarbon
chains.
B Contain hydrogen. Do not contain
hydrogen.
C Are more reactive. Are less reactive.
D Have the
maximum number
of hydrogen atoms
in their molecules.
Have less
hydrogen atoms in
their molecules.

12 Identify from the list below products that
contain carbon.

I Plastic bags
II Marble tiles
III Spectacles

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III
13 What are the characteristics of natural
rubber?

I Soft and sticky when heated.
II Elastic and bouncy.
III Hard and brittle when cooled.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

14 What is the function of concentrated
alkaline catalyst in the production of soap?

A To oxidize palm oil.
B To hydrolyse palm oil.
C To hydrogenise palm oil.
D To fuse palm oil molecules.

15 A type of natural polymer is...

A silk
B nylon
C polythene
D polystyrene

16 What is the term used for the reaction to
combine a few small molecules to form a
single big molecule chain?

A Splitting
B Polymerization
C Depolymerization
D Fractional distillation

17 Which statements listed below is true
about soap?

A Soap is suitable to be used in hard
water.
B Soap increases the surface tension of
water.
C The tail molecule of soap is soluble in
water.
D Soap is produced from vegetable oil
and alkali.

58

18 During a washing action, soap molecules
act to...

I increase the surface tension of water.
II attack dirt or grease with its tail.
III remove dirt from clothes.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

19 Which statements below describe alcohol?

I It forms an alkane through
hydrogenation.
II It reacts with organic acid to form an
ester.
III It dissolves in water.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

20 The diagram below shows the preparation
of soap in the laboratory.

Why is common salt added to the mixture
of palm oil and sodium hydroxide
solution?

A To provide salty taste to soap.
B To neutralise the alkali in the mixture.
C To increase the washing ability of
soap.
D To lower the solubility of soap in water
and precipitate it out.

21 Alcohol causes damage to...

A ears
B bone
C liver
D lungs

22 Latex that is left in a beaker will coagulate
after a day because of...

A the latex reacting with oxygen in the
air.
B the action of bacteria on the latex
which produces acid.
C the alkali that is produced when the
latex is exposed to air.
D the water content in the latex that has
completely evaporated.

23 What is the effect of excessive drinking?

A Cirrhosis of the liver.
B Nervous breakdowns.
C Lower cholesterol level.
D Contraction of the arteries.

24 Which substances listed below contain
carbon?

A Cotton
B Ammonia
C Common salt
D Hydrochloric acid

25 Which substances listed below are non-
organic carbon compounds?

I calcium carbonate
II carbon dioxide
III hydrocarbons

A I and II only
B I and III only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

59

26 The difference between organic carbon
compounds and non-organic carbon
compounds is...

A organic carbon compounds are more
reactive than non-organic carbon
compounds.
B organic carbon compound molecules
are very big compared to non-organic
carbon compounds.
C organic carbon compounds originate
from living things while non-organic
carbon compounds originate from non-
living things.
D the structure of organic carbon
compounds are complex while the
structure of non-organic carbon
compounds are simple.

27 Which substances listed below are
hydrocarbons?

I Coal
II Petroleum
III Natural gas

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

28 Identify the hydrocarbons listed below that
can decolourize acidified potassium
permanganate.

I Hexane
II Heptene
III Pentene

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

29 The diagram below shows the apparatus
used in making ethanol using the
fermentation process.

What is used in this fermentation process?

I Rice + yeast
II Wheat + yeast
III Common salt + yeast

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

30 Soap is unsuitable to be used in hard water
due to the fact that...

I hard water decomposes soap
molecules.
II the magnesium and calcium ions in
hard water form salt with soap ions.
III a large number of soap molecules is
wasted due to its deposition as
magnesium or calcium salt.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

60
CHAPTER 13: MOTION

1 The picture below shows a lorry
overloaded with goods.

It is important for the government to
enforce the law to compound overloaded
vehicles because...

A goods might fall from the lorries.
B overloaded lorries are more difficult to
stop.
C overloaded lorries will damage the
roads.
D overloaded lorries might overturn on a
bend as they are less stable.

2 What should be increased in order to
obtain an increase of inertia of a moving
car?

A Speed of the car.
B Power of the engine.
C Distance travelled by the car.
D Number of passengers in the car.

3 An object will move in a straight line with
constant speed unless it is acted upon by
external forces. What causes this
phenomenon to happen?

A Energy
B Inertia
C Pressure
D Momentum

4 The diagram below shows an operational
stage in a four-stroke petrol engine.

What is the operational stage?

A Power stroke
B Exhaust stroke
C Induction stroke
D Compression stroke

5 What safety features are used in vehicles to
reduce the negative effects of inertia?

I Safety seat belts
II Automatic airbags
III Absorber bumpers

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

6 The bumper of the car is made of a
material that is easily dented in an
accident. Why this is done?

A To prolong the time of accident.
B To reduce the velocity of the car.
C To increase the momentum of the car.
D To conserve the momentum of the car.

61

7 The diagram below illustrates a piece of
chalk placed vertically on a trolley.

The trolley is pushed so that it accelerates.
In which direction that the chalk would
fall?

A W
B X
C Y
D Z

8 The diagram below shows a coin placed on
a card.

When the card is flicked away, the coin
drops neatly into the cup. The factors that
cause this are...

I gravity
II inertia of the coin
III weight

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
9 The diagram below shows the internal
combustion of engines X and Y.

What type of engine are X and Y?

X Y
A Four stroke petrol
engine
Four stroke diesel
engine
B Four stroke diesel
engine
Four stroke petrol
engine
C Four stroke petrol
engine
Two stroke petrol
engine
D Four stroke diesel
engine
Two stroke petrol
engine

10 When is the momentum of an object
increased?

A When its mass and velocity are
increased.
B When its mass and velocity are
decreased.
C When its mass is increased but its
velocity is decreased.
D When its mass is decreased but its
velocity is increased.

11 In an experiment to investigate the
relationship between the momentum of an
object and its mass, what is the fixed
variable?

A The density of the object.
B The weight of the object.
C The volume of the object.
D The velocity of the object.

62

12 What is an example of motion that is based
on the Principle of Conservation of
Momentum?

A The upward motion of a rocket.
B The upward motion of an airship.
C The upward motion of a helicopter.
D The upward motion of an aeroplane.

13 Inertia measures...

A mass
B force
C weight
D momentum

14 The diagram below shows 4 identical tins
filled with different amounts of sand. The
tins are hung from a rod with string. The
length of the strings are equal.

The tins are oscillated simultaneously with
equal force. Which tin takes the longest
time to stop oscillating?

A W
B X
C Y
D Z

15 The acceleration of a car is 5 ms
-2
. This
means that in every second,...

A the displacement of the car is 5 m.
B the velocity of the car increases by 5
ms
-1
.
C the velocity of the car decreases by 5
ms
-1
.
D the momentum of the car increases by
5 kg ms
-1
.

16 The diagram below illustrates the
arrangement of four cylinders in the engine
of a car.

What does this arrangement do?

A Increase the power of the car.
B Produce smoother output of power.
C Reduce the usage of combustion fuel.
D Complete the combustion of fuel
within the four stroke cycle.

17 What causes the combustion of fuel in a
four stroke diesel engine?

A Sparks from the spark plug.
B Expansion of the combustion fuel.
C Compression of the combustion fuel.
D Heat from the friction between the
pistons and the wall of the cylinder.

18 The description below occurs during stroke
X in a four stroke diesel engine.

Both the inlet valve and the exhaust valve
are closed.
The piston is moving downward.

What is X?

A Power stroke
B Exhaust stroke
C Induction stroke
D Compression stroke

63

19 The diagram below shows a section of a
ticker tape obtained from a moving object.

What is the average speed of the object if
the ticker timer makes 50 dots per second?

A 10 cms
-1

B 25 cms
-1

C 41 cms
-1

D 50 cms
-1

20 A car starts from rest and moves at a
constant acceleration of 2 ms
-2
. What is the
velocity of the car after 1 minute?

A 2 ms
-1

B 12 ms
-1

C 30 ms
-1

D 120 ms
-1

21 The diagram below shows the intermesh of
two gear wheels.

When is this position of gear used?

A When a vehicle is starting from rest.
B When a vehicle is moving up a slope.
C When a vehicle is going down a slope.
D When a vehicle is travelling at high
speed on a flat road.

22 What is the shape of vehicles used in
water?

A Aerofoil
B Cylindrical
C Rectangular
D Streamlined

23 Below are the parts of a four stroke engine.

W - Power stroke
X - Compression stroke
Y - Induction stroke
Z - Exhaust stroke

The sequence of the four stroke engine
cycle is...

A Y, X, Z, W
B W, X, Z, Y
C Y, X, W, Z
D X, Y, W, Z

The diagram below shows a simple
hydraulic system.

24

The forces acting on pistons P and Q are F
1

and F
2
respectively.Identify the statements
below that are true.

I The pressure that acts on piston P is
equal to pressure that acts on piston Q.
II The liquid is compressed.
III F
2
is larger than F
1.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

25 What is the principle operation of a
hydraulic jack based on?

A Pascal's principle
B Bernoulli's principle
C Archimedes' principle
D The Principle of Conservation of
Momentum

64

26 A boy wearing a pair of sport shoes stands
on a weighing machine. The reading on the
weighing machine is 500 N and the size of
his shoes is 0.025 m
2
. What is the pressure
exerted on the weighing machine by the
boy?

A 25 N m
-2

B 12.5 N m
-2

C 10 000 N m
-2

D 20 000 N m
-2

27 The diagram below shows a simple
hydraulic system.

The cross-sectional area of piston X and Y
is 25 cm
2
and 100 cm
2
respectively. A
force of 10 N acts on piston X. What is the
load supported by piston Y?

A 2.5 N
B 40.0 N
C 2 500 N
D 25 000 N

28 When is the Principle of Momentum
applied?

I When firing a shotgun.
II When driving piles into the ground
using a pile driver.
III When hammering a nail into wood.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

29 The diagram below shows the hydraulic
brake of a car.

What happens when the brake pedal is
released?

I The brake fluid flows back to the
master cylinder.
II The spring separates the brake shoe
from the drum brake in the rear wheel.
III The bake pad is separated from the
brake disc in the front wheel.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

30 A car is moving at a uniform velocity of 10
ms
-1
. Then it accelerates to a velocity of 40
ms
-1
in 5 seconds. Calculate the
acceleration of the car.

A 2 ms
-2

B 6 ms
-2

C 8 ms
-2

D 10 ms
-2

65
CHAPTER 14 :FOOD TECNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION

1 A farmer bought a two week supply of
meat. What method of preservation can be
used to maintain the freshness of the
meat?

A Drying
B Cooling
C Deep freezing
D Vacuum packing

2 Food technology is used in food production
so that food...

I would be more attractive.
II is ready to eat.
III is easier to digest.

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

3 The imbalance between population
increase and technological development in
food production can lead to...

I starvation
II malnutrition
III social disturbances

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

4 What information is contained in a food
label?

I Ingredients in the food.
II The expiry date of the food.
III The calorific value of the food.

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

5 The picture below shows the label on a
drink container for grape juice.

Based on the Food Regulations 1985, the
missing informtion on this food label is...

A the net weight.
B the expiry date.
C the main ingredients.
D the name and address of the
manufacturer.

6 Consumer rights include...

I seeking compensation
II getting information on food products
III selecting products with reasonable
prices.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

7 What individuals can do to practise their
consumer rights?

I Right to return goods bought.
II Right to buy fresh food.
III Right to report to the statutory
authority.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

66

8 What are the advantages of genetically
modified food?

I It increases the quality and quantity of
food.
II It helps to overcome the world
shortage of food and prevent famines.
III Crops that produce insecticide
themselves do not need to be sprayed
with insecticide.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

9 Which of the methods listed below can
increase the quality and quantity of food
production?

I Using modern technology.
II Using quality breeds.
III Educating the farmers.

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

10 The information below are ingredients for
making biscuits.

Wheat flour
Sugar
Margarine
Ascorbic acid
Baking powder
Salt
Vanilla essence

Which ingredient helps the biscuits to last
longer?

A Margarine
B Ascorbic acid
C Baking powder
D Vanilla essence

11 The picture below shows a drink product.

What is the most suitable way to process
and preserve this drink?

A Cooling
B Dehydration
C Deep freezing
D Pasteurization

12 Ah Seng wants to export prawns to Japan.
What method of preservation should be
used to maintain the freshness of the
prawns?

A Canning
B Deep freezing
C Pasteurization
D Vacuum packaging

13 What method of food preservation listed
below can help to maintain vitamin
contents of food?

A Canning
B Dehydration
C Deep freezing
D Vacuum packaging

14 Which of the chemicals listed below is a
preservative?
I Sulphur Dioxide
II Nitrite
III Lechitin

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

67

15 The process of dehydration is...

A adding water to food.
B
boiling food at
C 100
.
C removing air from food.
D removing water from food.

16 Which of the following chemicals is
matched correctly to its function?

Chemical Function

A
Saccharin Emulsifier
B Monosodium
glutamate
Flavouring
C Boric acid Sweetener
D Gelatin Preservative

17 What is monosodium glutamate (MSG)?

A Colouring
B Emulsifier
C Flavouring
D Preservative

18 Which food processing technology does
not kill bacteria spores?

A Cooling
B Freezing
C Pasteurization
D Vacuum packaging

19 Salt is added to fish and dried in the sun.
What type of food processing is this
called?

A Canning
B Dehydration
C Freeze drying
D Pasteurization
20 The increase in food production through
the use of quality breeds...

A do not require irrigation.
B is to carry out photosynthesis at night.
C can increase the lifespan of crops by 10
years.
D can produce higher yields in a shorter
period of time.

21 What method of food processing uses
gamma rays?

A Freezing
B Canning
C Irradiation
D Vacuum packaging

22 Why is lecithin added to ice cream?

A To sweeten it.
B To slow oxidation.
C To remove unwanted colours.
D To emulsify two substances that
generally do not mix.

23 What are the effects of consuming too
much chemical found in food?

I Damaged kidneys.
II Excessive hair loss.
III An increased risk of diabetes.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

24 The picture below shows a processed
drink.

The most suitable way to process this drink
is by...

A cooling
B freezing
C freeze drying
D pasteurization

68

25 The government agency that is
responsible for the research to increase the
quantity and quality of palm oil is...

A MPOB
B LKIM
C MARDI
D FELDA

26 What is the purpose of machinery in the
agriculture industry?

I To increase the quantity of crop yield.
II To get the job done faster.
III To reduce the dependency on human
and animal labour.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

27 What measures can be taken to maintain
soil fertility?

I By adding fertilizers.
II By cover rotation.
III By planting quality breeds.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

28 What can be done to reduce soil erosion?

I Terracing
II Contour planting
III Planting cover crops

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

29 What is the purpose of efficient land
management?

I To prevent starvation.
II To prevent soil erosion.
III To avoid the loss of soil nutrients.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

30 Which of the methods listed below
describes pasteurization?

I
Heating food at
C 63
for 30 minutes
and cooling it quickly.
II Heating food in a pressure cooker at
C 120
for 15 minutes.
III
Heating food at
C 72
and cooling it
quickly.

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

69

CHAPTER 15:SYNTHETHIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY

1 The uncontrolled disposal of synthetic
polymers can pollute the environment.
This is due to the fact that this substance
is...

A cheaper and softer.
B cheaper and stronger.
C more expensive and softer.
D more expensive and durable.

2 The burning of synthetic polymers such as
plastic is prohibited because they can
cause pollution to the environment by
releasing ...

A water vapour and haze.
B smoke and toxic gases.
C water vapour and smoke.
D smoke and carbon dioxide.

3 What are the effects of the disposal of
synthetic polymers to the environment?

I The flow of water in drains is blocked.
II They remain in the environment for a
long time.
III The accumulation of rain water in
used containers become breeding
places for mosquitoes.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

4 What is the monomer of isoprene?

A Starch
B Polythene
C Polystyrene
D Natural rubber

5 The figure below shows a chemical
change.

The processes of X and Y are...

X Y
A Polymerization Depolymerization
B Polymerization Combustion
C Depolymerization Polymerization
D Depolymerization Combustion

6 To produce tyres that are harder and more
heat resistant, natural rubber should be...

A headed with sulphur.
B added with iron wire.
C added with ethanoic acid.
D added with ammonia solution.

7 Which of the pairs listed below is NOT
correct about plastic and its uses?

Type of plastic Uses

A
PVC Water pipe
B Polystyrene Food container
C Perspex Aeroplane
window-pane
D Bakelite Plastic bag

70

8 Which of the substance listed below is an
example of synthetic rubber?

A Perspex
B Melamine
C Polyvinyl chloride
D Styrene-butadiene rubber

9 Which of the substance listed below is a
type of thermosetts plastic?

A Terylene
B Polythene
C Epoxyl glue
D Polyvinyl chloride

10 Which of the gases listed below are
released when plastic is burned?

I Carbon monoxide
II Carbon dioxide
III Nitrogen

A I only
B II only
C I and II only
D I, II, and III

11 The diagram below shows the change in
the molecular structure of natural rubber
when it is stretched and release.

The characteristic of natural rubber shown
is...

A soft
B sticky
C elastic
D easily snapped

12 What type of synthetic materials is used to
make food packaging boxes?

A Perspex
B Neoprene
C Polystyrene
D Polyvinyl chloride

13 What happens when perspex is heated?

I A liquid is formed.
II The melting point of the monomer
becomes higher.
III Long chained molecules become short
chains.

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

14 What example of products listed below are
made from neoprene?

A Tyres and shoe soles.
B Petrol rubber tubes and tyres.
C Shoe soles and electric wire casings.
D Petrol rubber tubes and electric wire
casings.

15 What is the correct comparison between
synthetic rubber and natural rubber?

Synthetic rubber Natural rubber

A
More elastic Less elastic
B Does not react
with acid
Reacts with acid
C Easily vulcanized Cannot be
vulcanized
D Cannot withstand
heat
Able to withstand
heat

71

16 Which of the listed pairs below represent
the correct pairing of polymers and
monomers?

Polymers Monomers

A
Nylon Chloroethene
B Perspex Methyl
metacrylate
C Polythene Chloroprene
D Thiokol rubber Propene

17 Which substances listed below is a
synthetic polymer?

I Protein
II Neoprene
III Polythene

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

18 How do we avoid pollution from used
plastic bags?

A Use biodegradable plastic bags.
B Bury the plastic bags in the soil.
C Throw the plastic bags into the river.
D Burn the plastic bags in a rubbish
dump.

19 Why thermosetts can only be melted and
moulded once only?

I Because they can withstand heat.
II Because they have long chains in their
polymer molecules.
III Because they have cross linkages
between long polymer plastics to
prevent sliding.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

20 What are the differences between
thermoplastic and thermosetts?

Thermoplastic Thermosetts
I Soft Hard
II Able to withstand
heat
Cannot withstand
heat
III No cross linkages Cross linkages
present

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

21 What is true about thermoplastic?

A They can withstand heat.
B They are not good insulators.
C They can be easily moulded into any
shape many times.
D They consist of long polymer chains
with cross linkages.

22 Synthetic rubber is...

I easily oxidize
II able to withstand heat
III good electric insulator

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

23 Products that are made of a combination of
synthetic rubber and natural rubber
include...

I bus tryes
II shoe soles
III cushions

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

72
CHAPTER 16:ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION AND
COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY

1 Fibre optics is a better choice of cable lines
compared to traditional copper for
telecommunication because...

I they are able to transmit more
information.
II they can carry electrical signals more
effectively.
III they face less interference during
transmission.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

2 What instruments listed below functions
by using telephone cables?

A Radio
B Television
C Fax machine
D Cellular phone

3 Why is telegram less popular nowadays?

I Because it does not send pictures.
II Because it sends a large amount of
information.
III Because it is slow in transmitting
information.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

4. Fibre optics is a better choice for cable
lines compared to traditional copper for
telecommunications because...

I they are able to transmit more
information.
II they can carry electrical signals more
effectively.
III they face less interference during
transmission.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

5 Wave frequency is the...

A highest point of the wave.
B distance between two successive peaks.
C number of complete oscillations in one
second.
D distance between the rest position and
its peak.

6 A source produces a sound with a
frequency of 200 Hz and a wave length of
1.5 m. The velocity of the wave is...

A 13.3 ms
-1

B 30.0 ms
-1

C 133.3 ms
-1

D 300.0 ms
-1

7 The electronic component that is used to
store charges and electrical energy is a(n)...

A diode
B resistor
C inductor
D capacitor

73

8 The diagram below shows a satellite
communication system.

The communication is transmitted through
X. X is...

A long waves
B short waves
C microwaves
D medium waves

9 The diagram below shows a block diagram
for a radio transmission system.

Referring to the table below, what is true
about X, Y, and Z?

X Y Z
A Modulator Amplifier Oscillator
B Modulator Oscillator Amplifier
C Oscillator Modulator Amplifier
D Oscillator Amplifier Modulator

10 Which of the statement below is true about
microwaves?

A They pass through the ionosphere.
B They are used in AM broadcasting.
C They cannot pass through a vacuum.
D They are reflected by the ionosphere.

11 The information below is about component
X of a radio wave.

Designated as short waves in radio
communication.
Reflected by the ionosphere.

What is X?

A High frequency
B Very high frequency
C Ultra high frequency
D Super high frequency

12 The table below shows the components of
an electromagnetic spectrum.

W Microwave X Visible light
Y Infrared Z X-ray

Which of the waves listed is radio waves?

A W
B X
C Y
D Z

13 The diagram below shows process P in a
radio transmission system.

P is...

A oscillator
B demodulator
C amplitude modulation
D frequency modulation

74

14 The diagram below shows the block
diagram for a radio receiver system.

What is true about X, Y, and Z?

X Y Z
A Amplifier Tuner circuit Detector
B Detector Tuner circuit Amplifier
C Tuner
circuit
Detector Amplifier
D Tuner
circuit
Amplifier Detector

15 The shortest wavelength has...

A low frequency waves
B high frequency waves
C very high frequency waves
D ultra high frequency waves

16 A radio wave travels at a velocity of 3

10
8
ms
-1
. The frequency of the radio at the
wavelength of 0.6 m is...

A 1.8
10
8
Hz
B 2.0
10
8
Hz
C 3.6
10
8
Hz
D 5.0
10
8
Hz

17 What contains in the demodulator of a
radio receiver system?

A A diode and a fixed capacitor.
B A diode and a variable capacitor.
C An inductor and a fixed capacitor.
D An inductor and a variable capacitor.

18 The diagram below shows an audio signal
in an oscilloscope.

What is the frequency of the audio signal
shown above?

A 1.0 Hz
B 1.25 Hz
C 2.5 Hz
D 5.0 Hz

19 The diagram below shows an
electromagnetic wave on the screen of an
oscilloscope.

What is the amplitude of the
electromagnetic wave?

A 2 cm
B 3 cm
C 4 cm
D 6 cm

75

20 The diagram below shows sound waves
produced from a source.

Which is the wavelength?

A JL
B JM
C KM
D KN

21 The diagram below shows the energy
changes in devices X and Y.

Sound energy

X
electrical energy

Electrical energy

Y
sound energy

What is true about devices X and Y?

X Y
A Microphone Microphone
B Microphone Loudspeaker
C Loudspeaker Microphone
D Loudspeaker Loudspeaker

22 The uses of satellites include...

I forecasting the weather.
II studying the structure of the earth's
surface.
III locating the position of ships.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

23 The advantages of using satellites for
communication are...

I more information can be transmitted
compared to using cables.
II live telecasts can be broadcasted
simultaneously around the world.
III the communication is not affected by
weather.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

24 The satellite communication provides
services such as...

I relaying telephone conversations
II facsimile transmission
III the Internet

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

25 Where does a communication satellite gets
its power supply from?

I Solar cells
II Hydrogen cells
III A nuclear reactor

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

P of a radio transmitter.

Inductor and capacitor.
Generates radio waves.

P is a (n)...

A amplifier
B oscillator
C modulator
D microphone

76

27 The diagram below shows part of a radio
receiver system.

The function of the circuit shown is...

A to amplify sound signals.
B to separate sound signals from radio
waves.
C to superimpose sound signals with
radio waves.
D to select a frequency that resonates
with the carrier frequency.

P in a radio receiver system.

Decides the programmes to be received.
Electrons oscillate inside it.

P is a(n)...

A oscillator
B modulator
C tuner circuit
D demodulator

29 What contains in the demodulator of a
radio receiver system?

A A diode and a fixed capacitor.
B A diode and a variable capacitor.
C An inductor and a fixed capacitor.
D An inductor and a variable capacitor.

30 The diagram below shows the block
diagram for a radio receiver system.

The necessary component that enables
sound to be heard on a radio receiver
system is the....

A aerial
B detector
C amplifier
D tuner circuit

77

PAPER 2

CHAPTER 1 : SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION

1. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the freezing
point of the pure water.

The table below shows the result of the experiment.
Substances
Freezing point /
C
Pure water 0
Pure water +
common salt

(a)
What is the freezing point for the pure water that is added common salt?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Write down one observation based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
State the variables in this experiment.
(i) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable:

[ 1 mark ]

78

2. The diagram below shows an experiment to determine the mass, volume and the density of
the iron and the cork.

(a)
Calculate the densities of the cork and the iron.
(i) Density of cork =_______ g cm
3

(ii) Density of iron =_______ g cm
3

[2 marks ]

(b)
If the cork and the iron are placed in a liquid with a density of 0.56g cm
3
. What will
happen to the cork and iron?

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
State one hypothesis for this experiment based on the relationship between the density of
an object and its ability to float on a liquid.

[ 1 mark ]

79

3. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the sprout of seeds.

(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment.
(i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
(i) Predict the seeds in test tube B.

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Give explanation for your answer in (c)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

80

4. The table below shows the weight of students in class 5B is divided into 5 groups.

Weight (kg) Number of
students
40-44 2
45-49 6
50-54 12
55-59 9
60-64 3

(a)
Draw a graph based on information the table that given.
[ 2 marks ]

(b)
There are how many students in class 5B?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the highest weight of the students in class 5B?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
What is the percentage of the students weighting 55 kg and above?

[ 1 mark ]
81

(a)
Based on the experiment above, complete the table below.
Length of
pendulum (cm)
Time for 10
oscillations (s)
10
20
30

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]
(c)
State the variables in this experiment.
(i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the length of pendulum on the
time for 10 oscillations.

82

6. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of fixed amount of water heater
and the temperature of the water record in every 3 minutes.

(a) Write down one observation for this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Write down one hypothesis based on the observation (a).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variable should be fixed in this experiment and explain how it is fixed.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
Predict the temperature if more water is used.

[ 1 mark ]

83

The table below shows the different weight and the extension of spring.

Weight of load
(F/N)
Extension of
spring (x/cm)
1.5 3.0
2.0 6.0
2.5 9.0
3.0 12.0
3.5 15.0


[ 1 mark ]


(i) Responding variable:

[ 1 mark ]

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
(i) For this part of question, use the graph paper.
Based on the table above plot a graph of load of weight (F) versus extension of spring
(x).

[ 1 mark ]

7. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the weight of the load on the
extension of a spring.

84

(ii) State the relationship between F and x.

[ 1 mark ]

8. The diagram below shows an experiment to estimate the size of a water particle. 200 drops of
water are released from the burette to a container.

(a)
Write down the initial reading and final reading of the burette.
(i) The initial reading of burette

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) The final reading of burette

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Calculate the volume of one drop of water.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
If one drop of water can produce 100 droplets of water, what is the volume of one droplet
of water?

[ 2 marks ]

85

9. The diagram below shows a measuring cylinder that containing water.

(a)
What is the volume of water in the cylinder?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
When a stone is placed into the water and the level of water become 58 cm
3
. What is the
volume of the stone?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
If the mass of the stone given that is 50 g, calculate the density of the stone.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
A cork with a density of 0.26 cm
3
placed into the cylinder. If given the water with a
mass of 20 g. The cork will sink in the water or float on the water?

[ 2 marks ]

86

The table below shows the result of the experiment.
Substances
Boiling point
C
Pure water 100
Pure water + salt

(a) What is the boiling point for the pure water after added the salt.
[ 1 mark ]


[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment.

(i) Responding variable:

[1 mark ]


[1 mark ]

10. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the boiling
point of pure water.

87
(a)
What is the relationship between the pressure and the volume of gas? Explain.

[ 2 marks ]


(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

12. A student doing an experiment to confirm his observation of the sugar will dissolve faster in
boiling water.


[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

11. The table below shows the gas pressure and the gas volume.

Pressure Volume
10 50
15 40
20 30
25 20
88

(a) Based on the diagram above, complete the blank of step (i) ,(ii) and (iii).

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
State two the important of scientific investigation method.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
State two attitudes and values are needed in a scientific investigation.

[ 2 marks ]

13. The diagram below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.

89

(a) State the variables in this experiment.
(i)Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii)Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii)Responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the aim of experiment based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the lead shots of the test tube.

90
15. The flow chart below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.

Identifying the problem
Forming a
hypothesis
Carrying out the

investigation
Collecting data

Conclusion

(a) Based on the diagram above, name the step X and explain this step.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
List two the part that involves in the step of planning the investigation.
1.

2.
[ 2 marks ]

(c)
List two things that should contain in a complete experimental report.
1.

2.
[ 2 marks ]

(a)
What is inference? It is same with the conclusion?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is hypothesis?

[1 mark ]

(c)
List the entire variable that important in a scientific investigation and explain it.

[3 marks ]

(d)
State two of the forms of presenting data.
1.

2.
[2 marks ]

91

16 The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the temperature of different
size of container

(a) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark]

(ii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark]

(iii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark]

(c)
State two positive attitudes and values.
1.

2.
[ 2 marks ]

92

17. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the density on the ability of an
object float or sink in the water.

Substances Observation
Ice
Iron
Cork

(a) Based on the above experiment, complete the table.
[ 2 marks ]


[ 1 mark ]

(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark]

(ii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark]

(iii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark]

93

18. The diagram below shows the density of a stone.

(a)
What is the mass of the stone which shows in the diagram (a)?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is the initial reading of the cylinder?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What the final reading of the cylinder is after placed the stone in the water?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
What is the density of the stone?

[2 marks ]

94

CHAPTER 2 : BODY COORDINATION

1. The table below shows the reaction time for 10 students from class 5B by measuring the time
taken for each student to buttoning the shirts.

Student number Reaction time (ms)
1 30
2 90
3 110
4 60
5 120
6 40
7 160
8 130
9 50
10 100

(a)
Complete the table below based on the reaction time of the students and placed into 4
groups.
Reaction time
(ms)
Number of
students in
group

[2 marks ]
(b)
Based on the table in (a) draw a bar chart.
[1 mark ]

(c)
What receptors are involved in this type of activity?

[1 mark ]

(d)
Based on the receptors that found in (b), what is the function for the receptors?

[ 1 mark ]
95

2. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in a human knee-jerk.

(a)
How many neurone involves in this reflex action?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Name the neuron that involved in this reflex action.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Write the summary of the path taken by an impulse.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
What is the outcome for this reflex action?

[ 1 mark ]

96
(a)
Name the type of this neurone.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State the function of this type of neurone.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
What is the label P?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
State the function of label P.

[ 2 marks ]

4. The table below shows the reactions of sensory organs to various stimuli.

Stimuli Reaction Sensory organ involved
Ice cubes Feel cold
Vinegar Sharp smell of sour
Sugar cane Sweet taste
Television Movie is see
Radio Music is hear

(a)
State the suitable sensory organ that involved in the various stimuli.

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Write the pathway of impulses in the nervous coordination

[ 2 marks ]

3. The diagram below shows a type of neurone.

97

(a)
What is the function for cerebellum?

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
Which parts of the human brain are controlled the involuntary actions?

[1 mark ]

(c)
Explain the voluntary actions and give an example.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
What is the effect of injuries to the cerebrum?

[ 1 mark ]

6. The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.

(a)
Label P, Q and R.

[ 3 marks ]

5. The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.

98
(b)
What is the function of R?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Name two activities controlled by the P.

[ 2 marks ]

7. The diagram below shows the cross section of the spinal cord and the nerves connected to it.

(a)
Name the neurones that involved in this reflex action.

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Name the label P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the function of P?

[ 1 mark ]

99

(a)
What are endocrine glands?

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
Name the P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
State the function for P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

8. The diagram below shows the human endocrine system.

9. The diagram below shows the human muscle.

100
[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Explain the function of structure X.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Where can structure X be found?

[ 3 marks ]

10. The diagram below shows the human nervous system.

(a)
Label the X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Explain the function of the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

[2 marks ]
(c)
What is the human nervous system?

(a)
Label the structure X.

[1 mark ]
101


(a)
Label the X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Name the neurone that shows in the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]
(c)
Shows the direction of the impulse at the diagram.
[ 2 marks ]

12. The diagram below shows a main part of human brain.

(a)
Name the part of human brain that shows at the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Label P, Q, R and S.

[ 4 marks ]

102

13. The flow chart below shows nervous coordination in human.

Stimulus
Organ P
Sensory neurone
Motor neurone
Central nervous
system
Motor neurone
Effector
Responds

(a)
State two examples of organ P.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
What type of the action that shows in the flow chart?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
List two examples of such action.

[ 2 marks ]

14. The statement below shows the examples of voluntary action.

Eating
Reading
Dancing
Writing

(a)
What is the voluntary action?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Give two examples of involuntary actions.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
List two differences between voluntary actions and involuntary actions.

[ 2 marks ]

103

(a)
What is the hormone secretes by X?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is the function of the hormone that secretes by X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
List two effects of oversecretion of hormone that secretes by X.

[ 2 marks ]

16. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in the withdrawal of hand from a hot object.

(a)
Label P, Q and R.

[ 3 marks ]

15. The diagram below shows the human endocrine gland.
104
(b)
Write the path taken by an impulse in the withdrawal reflex.

[ 2 marks ]

17. The diagram below shows a motor neurone.

(a)
Label X.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is the function of X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
List two differences between the sensory motor and relay motor.

[ 2 marks ]

18. The diagram below shows an impulse pathway when a student accidentally touches a hot pot.

(a)
Label the X, Y and Z.

[ 3 marks ]

105
(b)
Why the reflex actions are important?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
If the motor neurone is damaged, what will happen?

[ 1 mark ]

19. The diagram below shows three people that have different height. The Individual P who has a
normal height.

(a)
Name the disease that faced by individual Q and R.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Name the hormone that controls this disease.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the function of this hormone?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Name the endocrine gland involved in (b).

[ 1 mark ]
106

(a)
What is the name of this endocrine gland?

[1 mark ]

(b)
What is the function of this endocrine gland?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Name the hormone that secreted by this endocrine gland.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
List down the effect of under secretion and over secretion.

[ 2 marks ]

21. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located in front of the trachea.

(a)
Name this endocrine gland.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Name the hormone produced by this gland.

20. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located at the base of cerebrum.

[ 1 mark ]
107

(c)

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
List two effects of the under secretion of this hormone.

[ 2 marks ]

22. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located on top of the kidneys.

(a)
Label P.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Name the hormone secreted by glands P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
List two effects of over secretion of this hormone

[ 2 marks ]

108

(a)
Where the ovaries are located?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
List down the two hormones produced by ovaries.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
List down the function of both hormones.

[ 2 marks ]

24. The diagram below shows a pair of testes in male body.

(a)
Label X.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is the function of X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the main hormone produced by testes?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)

23. The diagram below shows the ovaries in a female body.

109

Stimulant
Depressant
Hallucinogens

(a)
Define the drugs.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
List two drugs for group stimulant.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
List two effects of drug abuse on nervous system and body coordination for group
hallucinogens.

[ 2 marks ]

CHAPTER 3 : HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1. The table below shows the height of the students in class 5B.

Height (cm) Number of students
146 and below 1
146 -150 5
151 - 155 13
156 - 160 12
161 - 165 6
165 and above 5

25. The statement below shows three main groups of drugs.

(a)
Draw a histogram based on the table above.
[ 2 marks ]
110

(b)
What type of the variation that show in (b)?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Give two characteristic of this type of variation .
1.

2.
[ 2 marks ]

2. The graph below shows the ability to roll the tongue of the students in class 5A.

(a)
What type of variation that shows at the graph?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Give two examples of this type variation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
List the factors that cause variation.

[ 2 marks ]
111

(a)
What type of twins is formed?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Name the process P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
List the characteristics of this type of twins.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
What is the sex of the twins?

[ 1 mark ]

4. The diagram below shows phases that happens in a cell division.

(a)
What process are involved this phases?

3. The diagram below shows the formation of twins.

[ 1 mark ]

112
(b)
Name this phases.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Describe this phases.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Is the mitosis process occurrence of crossing over?

5. The diagram below shows how two types of twins are formed.

(a)
Name the types of twins P and twins Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
State the similarity for the twins P and twins Q.

[1 mark ]

(c)
State the differences between the twins P and twins Q.

[ 3 marks ]
113

6. The diagram below shows the selective breeding of two different types of oil palm.

(a)
Defines what selective breeding is.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
List two examples products produce by selective breeding.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
List two advantages of selective breeding.

[ 2 marks ]

114

(a)
Name the disease that suffers by the patient down's syndrome.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What cause the patient suffers the disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Which chromosome pair causes the disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
List two possible distinctive physical characteristic of the patient that suffers this disease.

[ 2 marks ]

7. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of a patient that suffers of genetic disease.

115

(a)
Name a type of cell division.

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
Where is this process take places in human body?

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
List down the two characteristic of this type of cell division.

[ 2 marks ]
9. The diagram below shows the inheritance of tallness and dwarfness in plant.

(a)
Write down each child's pair of genes in the boxes provides in the diagram.

[ 2 marks ]
(b)
Based on the diagram above, what type of plant is dominant.

8. The diagram below shows the cell is undergoing cell division.
[ 1 mark ]
(c)
Give two example of recessive trait.

[ 2 marks ]
116

10 The diagram below shows the sex determination in human being.

(a)
Name process X and process Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
What is the sex of the zygote F?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Explain how to determine the sex of zygote G.

[ 2 marks ]

117

11 The diagram below shows the monohybrid cross between plants. R is gene for red flowers
,and r is gene for white flowers.

(a)
Complete the diagram above.
[ 2 marks ]

(b)
What is the phenotype ratio of the red flowers to white flowers in the F
1
generation?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Which type of flower is dominant?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Define what homozygous is.

[ 1 mark ]

118

12 The diagram below shows the chromosome mutations which involve changes in structure of
chromosomes.

(a)
Label W, X, Y and Z.

[ 4 marks ]

(b)
Define what chromosome mutation is.

[ 1 mark ]
119

(c)
If the plant has 4 pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of chromosome in its
epidermal cell?

[ 1 mark ]

14 The following passage describes a type of mutation.

Gene mutation occurs when part of the DNA on single chromosome is
changed. As a result, a defective protein may be produced or no protein
may be produced at all. This can lead to a considerable change in
certain characteristic.

(a)
What type of mutation is show at the passage above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Give two examples for this type of mutation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Define what mutation is.

[ 2 marks ]

13 The diagram below shows the relationship among gene, DNA and chromosome.

(a)
What are X, Y and Z represent?

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Defines what genes are.

[ 1 mark ]
120

(a)
Name a type of cell division.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State the two characteristic of this type of cell division.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Explain process at P.

[ 2 marks ]

15 The diagram below shows the phase of cell division in an animal cell.

121

(a)
What is the purpose of this process?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
List down the differences between mitosis and meiosis in term of occurrence of crossing
over and number of times nucleus divides.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Why is the process crossing over and random distribution of chromosomes occurring
during meiosis?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Explain the process crossing over.

[ 1 mark ]

16. The diagram below shows process meiosis.

122

[ 3 marks ]

18. The diagram below shows a disease cause by chromosome mutation.

(a)
Name the disease.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State the characteristics of this disease.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
What is the difference between this disease and Klinefelter's syndrome?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Who will suffer from this disease?

[ 1 mark ]

17. The statement below shows the disease of mutation.

Down's syndrome
Colour blindness
Haemophilia
Klinefelter's syndrome

(a)
Which of the disease of mutation that shows at the statement above are under gene
mutation?

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Give three advantages of mutation.
123

(a)
Label P, Q, R and S.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Which type of hair is recessive?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the phenotype ratio of curly hair to straight hair in F
1
generation?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
What type of variation is this?

[ 1 mark ]

20 The diagram below shows the two types of twins.

19. The diagram below shows the inheritance of the type of hair.

124
(a)
List two differences between these two types of twins.

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Define what Siamese twins are.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
State two characteristics that are same for the identical twins.

[2 marks ]

21. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of Klinefelter's syndrome.

(a)
This disease is cause by chromosome mutation or gene mutation?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Who will be affecting by this disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Define what Klinefelter's syndrome is.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Give two examples of mutagens.

[ 2 marks ]
125
22. The diagram below shows the four groups of thumb prints for the students in class 5E.

(a)
Construct a histogram of the number of students against the groups of thumb prints.

[ 2 marks ]
126

(b)
What type of variation that shows in (a)?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
List two differences between continuous variation and discontinuous variation.

[ 2 marks ]

23. The diagram below shows the inheritance of colour blindness.

(a)
Complete the diagram above.

[ 4 marks ]

(b)
What is the probability of the parents get a colour blindness son?

[ 1 marks ]

127

24 The diagram below shows the variation among Vinson family member.

(a)
What type of the diagram is used?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What type of variation is shows on the diagram?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Give a conclusion that get from the diagram.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
List two important of variation.

[ 2 marks ]

128

CHAPTER 4 : MATTER AND SUBSTANCE

1. The table below shows the subatomic particles of some element.

Element P Q R
Proton number 6 7 8
Nucleon number 14
Number of
electrons

Number of
neutrons
7 10

(a)
Complete the table above.

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Which of the elements is an isotope?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Define what isotopes are?

[ 1 mark ]

2. The diagram below shows the arrangement and movement of the particles in the three states of
matter.

(a)
Name the three states of matter that represented by X, Y and Z.

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
List two property of the matter X.

[ 2 marks ]

129
3. The diagram below shows the part of the Periodic Table.

(a)
Name an element which is in
(i) Group 17
(ii) Period 4

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Which element is a
(i) metal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) non-metal

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) semimetal

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Which two elements have similar chemical properties?

[ 1 mark ]

130

4. The table below shows the properties of subatomic particles.

Subatomic
particles
X Y Z
Charge +1 Neutral -1
Relative atomic
mass
1 1 1/840
Location In the nucleus In the nucleus In the electron
shells around
the nucleus

(a)
Name the X, Y and Z

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Why the nucleus of an atom is has a positive change.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Which of this subatomic particles move in circular orbits around the nucleus?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows interconversion of the three states of matter.

(a)
Name the process A, B, C and D.

[ 4 marks ]

(b)
Name of the process involve absorption of heat?

[ 2 marks ]
131
6. The diagram below shows the interconversion of the states of matter.

(a)
Name the process P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]
(b)
Describe the process P.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
The process P or Q involve releases of heat.

[ 1 mark ]

7. The diagram below shows an incomplete Periodic Table.

(a)
What is the specific name of group 17?

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
What is the element B represented?

[ 3 marks ]

(c)
Describe the element in group 1.

[ 1 mark ]
132

8. The diagram below shows a distillation process.

(a)
Label the flow of water at the top and bottom of the condenser.
[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Define what distillation is.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
What the purpose is of used the liebig condenser?

[ 1 mark ]

9. The table below shows the substances and their boiling point.

Substance
Boiling point (
C)
Pure water 100
Pure water + common salt 105

(a)
What is the inference for this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

133

(b)
State the variables for this experiment.
(i) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the operational definition of pure water?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
What is pure substance?

[ 2 marks ]

10. The flow chart below shows purifying salt from a saturated solution of common salt.

Dissolving
Process P
Process Q
Filtration
Crystals

(a)
Name the process P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
What is the method is using for this purifying?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Defines what purification is.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Name the other purification method.

[ 1 mark ]

134

11. The diagram below shows a Periodic Table.

(a)
What is the specific name for group 18?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Name element P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
List three characteristic of element Q.

[ 3 marks ]


(a)
Name the elements P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Give two characteristic of element T.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Which element is a semimetal?

[ 1 marks ]
135

13. The table below shows a physical property of atom and ions.

Physical property Atomic substance Ionic substance
Physical state at room
temperature
Solid( for all metals except
mercury)
Gas(for all noble gases)
Solid
Electrical conductivity All metals are good
conductors of electricity
Conduct electricity only
when melted or dissolved in
water

(a)
Physical properties of substances depend on what?

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
What are the physical properties of atoms and ions in term of melting point and solubility?

[ 2 marks ]

136

(a)
State the physical states at
(i) RS

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) ST

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Name the process where the substance changes state at
(i) BC

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) DE

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the boiling point for the substance?

[ 1 mark ]
14. The graph below shows a boiling curve of a pure substance.

137

(a)
What are the physical properties of metal can observe from the activity?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Give another two physical properties of metal.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
List two examples of metals.

[ 2 marks ]

16. The statement below shows the elements of metals and non-metals.

Copper
Sulphur
Sodium
Iodine
Chlorine

(a)
Which of the above elements are
(i) metals?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) non-metals?

15. The diagram below shows an activity to studying the physical properties of metals.

[ 1 mark ]
138
17. The table below shows the number of protons, electrons and neutron.

Element Number
of
protons
Number
of
neutrons
Number
of
electrons
P 4 4 4
Q 5 1 1
R 13 10 9
S 19 15 19

(a)
Which element is a
(i) neutral?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positively charged?

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) negatively charged?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is the nucleon number and proton number of element Q?

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Show three differences between metals and non-metals.

[ 3 marks ]

139

(a)
Which of the following liquid is not a pure substance? Explain your answer.

[2 marks ]

(b)
Predict the boiling point and freezing point for the liquid X if liquid X is pure water.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Name two methods use to purifying the impurities on the liquid Y.

[ 2 marks ]

19. The diagram below shows a difference of properties between metals and non-metals.

In term of Metals Non-metals
State Solids solids,
liquids or
gases
Luminosity Shiny
surface
Dull surface
Hardness Strong Brittle and
not strong

(a)
Give an example for metals and non-metals.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
List another three differences between metals and non-metals in term of malleability,
ductility and density.

[ 3 marks ]

18. The diagram below shows two different liquid.

140
20. The diagram below shows atomic structure of an atom P.

(a)
Name the subatomic particles contained in the nucleus of atom P.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Which group of the Periodic Table does P belong?

[1 mark ]

(c)
State two used of this group.

[ 2 marks ]
141
[ 1 mark]

(ii) an alkali metal

[ 1 mark]

(iii) an alkaline earth metal

[ 1 mark]

(iv) halogen

[ 1 mark]


(a)
How are the elements arranged in the Periodic Table?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Using the letters P - S, name
(i) noble gas

142

(a)
Name the parts for P and Q.
P:

Q:
[ 2 marks ]

(b)
The experiment above is held for 30 minutes.
(i)What happens to the mass of the iron spoon?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii)What is K made of?

[ 1 mark ]

(iii)What observation can been make for substance K?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Write down the reason for why is the concentration of copper(II) sulphate solution is
unchanged for the experiment.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
Give one condition that copper is able to electroplate nicely on the iron spoon.

[ 1 marks ]

CHAPTER 5 : ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1. The diagram below shows an apparatus to study in electroplating an iron spoon.
143
2. The diagram below shows a study of the reactivity of three types of metal, X, Y, and Z reacting
with oxygen.

The table below shows the result that derived from experiment above.
Metal Result
X Burns very brightly.
Y Glows brightly and vigorously.
Z Glow with a little dim flame.

(a)
State a hypothesis that can be derived from the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
Determine the following variable for the experiment above.
(i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]


[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
State the word equation for reaction between metal and oxygen.
(i) X

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Y

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Z

[ 1 mark ]
144

(d)
Based on the table above arrange the reactivity of metals in descending order.

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
Copper, Magnesium, Aluminium
Use the substance above identify X, Y, and Z from the result of their reactivity as shown
by the experiment above.
X:
Y:
Z:
[ 3 marks ]

3 Diagram below shows a blast furnace used to produce a certain metal.

(a)
Coke, substance X and substance Y are poured into the furnace.
Name the Substance X and Y.
Substance X:
Substance Y:
[ 2 marks ]

(b)
What gas is it that blasted into the lower part of furnace?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What are the products P and Q which are extracted from the base of the furnace?
Product P:
Product Q:
[ 2 marks ]
(d)
Write an equation that related to the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]
145

4. The diagram below shows an experiment which is carried out in the laboratory.

(a)
Name the process of the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Determine which electrode is the anode and cathode.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
State the function of copper wires at the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Predict the observation which occurs at the anode and cathode.

[ 2 marks ]

(e)
What changes will occurs to the concentration of the copper(II) sulphate solution at the end
of the process?

[ 1 mark ]

146

5. The diagram below shows the extraction of tin in a blast furnace.

(a)
What is the common name for tin ore?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is the purpose for adding limestone into the blast furnace when extracting the tin
from its ore?

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Write an equation for the reduction reaction that produces molten tin.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Why aluminium cannot be extracted using carbon in the reduction process?

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
Why is carbon usually be used when extraction of metals in the industrial?

[ 2 marks ]

147

6. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to purify a piece of metal. After 15
minutes it doesn't show any result.

(a)
State the error that causes no any observation can be making by the diagram above. Draw
the correct arrangement of apparatus that should be set up for experiment above in the
space below.

[ 2 marks ]
(b)
Which of the substance act as
(i) anode

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Write the observation at the
(i) anode

(ii) cathode

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
At the end of experiment, what changes will take place at silver nitrate solution?

[ 1 mark ]
148

7. The diagram below shows a graph of the volume of hydrogen gas produced against time for an
experiment to compare the reactivity of metals X and Y with dilute sulphuric acid.

(a)
State one hypothesis for the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
According to the experiment above, identify the
(i) manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
At 6th minute, which metal produces more hydrogen gas?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Based on your opinion, what is the volume of hydrogen gas produced by the metal Y at the
20th minute?

[ 1 mark ]
149

8. Diagram (a) and (b) shows an experiment to compare the reactivity of metals P and Q with
dilute hydrochloric acid.

(a)
Predict the observation for the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

150
(b)
Write down one inference that can be made from the observation above.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
State one controlled variable in this experiment

[1 mark ]

The graph below shows the result of the experiment above.

(d)
(i)State the relationship between the volume of gas and the reaction time in the first two
minute.

(ii) Guess the volume of gas collected by the seventh minute of metal Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(e)
What substance of metal Q might be?

[ 1 mark ]
151

(a)
State which the plates act as the positive and negative terminals.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Determine the changes can be observed at the
(i) negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positive terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Write the chemical reaction that occurs at the
(i) negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positive terminal:

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Explain how the galvanometer and the bulb function.

[ 2 marks ]

9. Diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to study the production of electrical energy
by a simple cell.

152

Experiment is repeated by replacing the lead with other metal samples.
Readings of the voltmeter are observe in the experiment above and shows in table below.

Pair of metals Voltmeter reading
(V)
Zinc and nickel 0.2
Zinc and copper 1.4

(a)
State the voltmeter reading for the lead and copper that shown in diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is the function for dilute hydrochloric acid in this experiment?

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Determine the responding variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Guess the readings of the voltmeter when a pair of copper metals is used in the experiment
above.

[ 1 mark ]

10. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus of an experiment to study the
production of electricity from chemicals.

153

(a)
Determine the part that acts as
(i) the positive terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) the negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Name the parts of the following below according the diagram above.
K:

L:

M:

N:
[4 marks ]

(c)
State two disadvantage of this cell.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
State two example of chemical cell that is same type of the cell above.

[ 2 marks ]

11. The diagram below shows the parts of a dry cell.

154

(a)
Write down the observation that will occur at
(i) anode

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Based on the answer of (a), explain how can this occur?
(i) anode

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
How can you identify the answer of (c) in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]
(d)
What is the intensity change for the color of the copper chloride solution while the
experiment proceeds?

[ 1 mark ]
12. The diagram below shows the arrangement of apparatus of an experiment for the process of
electrolysis.

155

(a)
What is the process shown in the diagram above?

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
X and Y are two electrodes made of a certain material.
(i) What is the material?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Which is the negative electrode?

[ 1 mark ]
(c)
(i) Why solid lead bromide cannot conduct electricity?

[ 1 mark]

(ii) What changes have to make on solid lead bromide in order to conduct electricity?

[ 1 mark]

(d)
When the electricity is passed through, what are the ions that present in the molten lead
bromide?

[ 2 marks ]

(e)
(i) Electrode P will release a gas. What gas is that?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Determine the properties of the gas released.

13. The diagram below shows a process which uses electric energy to split up lead bromide.

[ 1 mark ]

(f)
A product formed at electrode L is

[ 1 mark ]
156

14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the reactivity of metals with oxygen.

(a)
State the hypothesis about the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Based on the experiment, identify the
(i) fixed variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(ii) responding variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(iii) manipulated variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(c)
What is the function of potasium permanganate?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
(i) What is the observation if the metal P is Magnesium?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Explain the answer that you given in (d) (i).

[ 1 mark ]
(e)
(i) What is the observation if the metal P is Copper?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Explain the answer that you given in (e)(i).

[ 1 mark ]
157

15. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of light on photographic paper.

(a) Draw the result of the photographic paper at the space below and labelled at the specific
part.

[ 2 marks ]
(b)
Based on the experiment above, identify
(i) fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) manipulating variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Explain the result that you observe in (a).

[ 2 marks ]
(d)
Write an equation of the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

158

16 The diagram below shows a process that related with light and chemical reaction.

Based on the diagram above, answer the following question.

(a)
What type of process can u describes based on the diagram above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Based on the answer you given in (a), explain the meaning of process.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Name the two stages that will involve in the process above.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
Write an equation for the reaction above.

[ 1 mark ]
(e)
Explain one of the stages based on your given answer in (c).

[ 2 marks ]

159

CHAPTER 6 : NUCLEAR ENERGY

1. The diagram below shows two detectors, P and Q which are used to locate the position of
water leakage in an underground pipe by adding some radioactive substance R, to the water.

(a)
Label parts P and Q in the diagram above.
[2 marks]

(b)
Name radioactive substance R.

[1 mark]

(c)
Explain how can Q enable us to detect the position of the leakage in the underground
pipe?

[1 mark]

(d)
Why radioactive substance emitting gamma radiation is not added to the water?

[1 mark]

160

2. The diagram below shows the deflection of the radiations when passed through an electric
field. Radioactive substance placed in container P emits radioactive radiation X, Y and Z.

(a)
Name radioactive radiation X, Y and Z.
(i) X:

(ii) Y:

(iii) Z:
[3 marks]

(b)
(i) What will happen to radiation Y?

[1 mark]

(ii) Give one reason for your answer in (b)(i).

[1 mark]

(c)
Radiation X is deflected more than radiation Z. Why?

[1 mark]

(d)
Radioactive substance is kept inside container P.
(i) What is substance is used to made container P?

[1 mark]

(ii) Explain your answer in (d)(i).

[1 mark]

161

3. The equation below shows the process of nuclear reaction between hydrogen isotopes.

H
2
1
+
H
3
1
n
1
0
+ X

(a)
Name the process represented by the above equation.

[1 mark]

(b)
What is X?

[1 mark]

(c)
What is the production of the above process?

[1 mark]

(d)
State a place where the above process is happening most of the time.

[1 mark]
162

4. The diagram below shows the decay of a nucleus.

(a)
The above process shows the decay of the radioactive atom. Why?

[1 mark]

(b)
List three types of radioactive radiations that are emitted during the process of
radioactive decay.
1.

2.

3.
[1 mark]

(c)
Which radiation will be deflected, if the above radioactive are radiated through an
electric field?

[1 mark]

(d)
Which radiation can go through it, if the above radioactive radiations are blocked by
a sheet if aluminium?

[1 mark]

(e)
Name two characteristics of atom X and Y compared to the original radioactive atom.
1.

2.
[1 mark]

163

5. The diagram below shows one use of radioactive radiation.

(a)
(i) What type of radioactive radiation used in the diagram above?

[1 mark]

(ii) Name the characteristics of the above radioactive radiation.

[1 mark]

(iii) State the use of the radioactive radiation as shown in the diagram above?

[1 mark]

(b)
(i) What is equipment P?

[1 mark]

(ii) State the function of equipment P.

[1 mark]

(c)
Name the radioactive substance is used for detecting the effectiveness of fertilizers in the
field of agriculture.

[ 1 mark]
164

6. The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of
aluminium produced in an aluminums factory.

(a)
What radioactive radiation is emitted by the radioactive substance?

[1 mark]

(b)
If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the
aluminums will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the
counter
(i) is less than 500?

[1 mark]

(ii) is more than 600?

[1 mark]

(c)
The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.

[1 mark]

(d)
(i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety
precaution. What is X?

[1 mark]

(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?

[1 mark]
165

7. The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of
aluminium produced in an aluminium factory.

(a)
What radioactive radiation is emitted by the radioactive substance?

[1 mark]

(b)
If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the
aluminium will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the
counter
(i) is less than 500?

[1 mark]

(ii) is more than 600?

[1 mark]

(c)
The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.

[1 mark]

(d)
(i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety
precaution. What is X?

[1 mark]

(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?

[1 mark]

166

CHAPTER 7 : LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

1. The diagram below shows an object placed in front of a convex lens.

(a)
Complete the above diagram to show how an image is produced.
[1 mark]

(b)
What are the characteristics of the image produced?

[1 mark]

(c)
Name an instrument that uses the above diagram principle.

[1 mark]

(d)
Draw a complete ray diagram to show how the image is produced, if the convex lens is
replaced with a concave lens of the same focal length,

[2 marks ]
167

2. The diagram below shows a convex lens and F is its focus point. An object X is placed
between F and 2F of the lens.

(a)
Describe the focus point of a convex lens.

[1 mark]

(b)
Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image.

[2 marks ]

(c)
What is the measurement size of the image?

[1 mark]

(d)
If object X is moved slightly further away from the lens, what will happen to the size of
the image?

[1 mark]
168

3. The diagram below shows a ray of white light projected onto a coloured screen through a
coloured filter.

(a)
Complete the table below to show the colours that appear on the screen.
Filter
colours
Screen
colours
The colour of
light that
appears on the
screen
Green Blue
Blue Magenta
Red Yellow
[3 marks ]

(b)
Write down one inference that can be made from the above observation.

[2 marks ]
169

4. The diagram below shows the overlapping of lights from torches K, L and M on a white
manila card. Torches K, L and M will produce red, blue and green light respectively when
switched on.

(a)
What colour of the light that appears on spot P?

[1 mark]

(b)
Name the light that is formed on spot P when any two of the lights from torches K, L and
M are switched on.

[1 mark]

(c)
(i) Which torches that need to switch on if spot P appear cyan?

[1 mark]

(ii) What is the complementary colour for cyan?

[1 mark]

(d)
(i) What colour will spot P appear if only torch L is switched on and the white manila
card is replaced by a yellow manila card?

[1 mark]

(ii) Give a reason for your answer to d(i).

[1 mark]

170

5. The diagram below shows the structure of the eye.

(a)
Name the parts labelled as P, Q and R in the above diagram.
[3 marks ]

(b)
What is the function of the part labelled as P?

[1 mark]

(c)
Steven leaves a cinema hall after watching a movie film and the iris adjusts to the
situation when Steven steps out of the hall into the open bright daylight. Explain.

[1 mark]

(d)
Make a comparison on how the eye and the camera focus on an object to produce a sharp
image.

[2 marks]

171

CHAPTER 8 : CHEMICALS IN INDUSTRY

1. The below diagram X and Y show the structures of an alloy and a pure metal.

(a)
Which diagram shows the structure of
(i) a pure metal?

[1 mark]

(ii) an alloy?

[1 mark]

(b)
Alloys are harder and stronger than pure metals. Explain.

[1 mark]

(c)
(i) Name an alloy that can be formed from copper, antimony and tin.

[1 mark]

(ii) What are the compositions of the alloy?

[1 mark]

(iii) State two uses of the alloy.

[1 mark]

172

2. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the formation of rust by pure
iron and an alloy of iron.

(a)
Predict the observation of both types of iron nails after three days.

[ 1 mark]

(b)
Write down one inference can be made based on your answer in (a)?

[1 mark]

(c)
State the variables of the experiment.
(i) Manipulated variable:

[1 mark]


[1 mark]

(iii) Constant variable:

[1 mark]

(d)
What inference can be made from the experiment?

[1 mark]

173

3. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the hardness of an alloy with
a pure metal.

The table below shows the result of the experiment obtained.
Depth of dent (cm)
Block 1 2 3 Average
Copper 1.6 1.4 1.5

Bronze 1.1 1.2 1.0

(a)
Complete the above table.
[2 marks ]

(b)
State the relationship between the depth of dent and the hardness of the material tested.

[1 mark]

(c)
Based on the experiment results, which block is harder?

[1 mark]

(d)
State the composition of bronze.

[1 mark]

174

(e)
Draw pattern formed by the constituent atoms for copper and bronze.

Copper Bronze
[1 mark]

4. The diagram below shows the pollution of a certain area.

(a)
Based on the above diagram, what is the main gas pollution?

[1 mark]

(b)
State the effect if the gas is excess.

[1 mark]

(c)
Describe the greenhouse effect.

[1 mark]

(d)
Suggest one way to reduce the pollution of the area in the above diagram.

[1 mark]
CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS

1. The table shows results from the experiment to study the effects of pH level on bacterial
growth.

pH value Size of the bacteria
colony after 24 hours
(mm)
2
3
4
5
7
8
10
14
0
1
1.5
4
15
12
4
0

(a)
State one hypothesis based on the observation from the table above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Draw a graph to illustrate the relationship between the size of the bacteria colony and
the pH value based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]
175
176

(c)
Based on the graph from part (b) state the optimum pH value for bacterial growth.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Predict the size of the bacteria colony at pH value 6.

[ 1 mark ]
177

Three penicillin discs X1, X2, and X3, with different concentrations are placed on the
nutrient agar surface. The petri dish is incubated upside down at
C 37
. After two days, a
clear area is formed around each disc. The diameter of the clear area is measured and
recorded in the table below:

Penicillin disc X1 X2 X3
Diameter of the
clear area/cm
1.5 2.4 2.0

(a)
Based on the table above, state the disc that has the highest concentration of penicillin.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State the hypothesis of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the method to fix the controlled variable in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Penicillin is an antibiotic. Based on this experiment, give the operational definition of
antibiotic.

[ 1 mark ]

2. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to study the effect of penicillin on
bacterial growth.

178

Temperature/
C

Size of bacteria colony
after 24 hours/mm
0 2
15 5
25 10
35 15
60 3

(a)
What is the hypothesis that can be stated from the table above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
(i) Illustrate a graph to show the relationship between the size of bacterial colony and
temperature for the table above.

(ii) What is the optimum temperature for bacterial growth?

(ii) What is the size of the bacterial colony that can be predicted at C 80 ?

[ 4 marks ]

3. The table below shows the results of an experiment to study the effects of temperature on
bacterial growth.
179

(a)
State the definition of vaccine.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State a disease that can be prevented through vaccination.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
State the process that happens in the body after vaccination.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
Why is it necessary for the person to be vaccinated twice?

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
Name the type of immunity obtained from the graph above.

[ 1 mark ]

4. The graph below shows the change in the amount of antibodies in the body of a person
injected with a vaccine twice.
180

Age Immunization
After birth BCG
Hepatitis B (first dose)
1 month Hepatitis B (second dose)
3 months Poliomyelitis (first dose)
Triple Antigen (first dose)
4 months Poliomyelitis (second dose)
Triple Antigen (second dose)
5 months Poliomyelitis (third dose)
Triple Antigen (third dose)
Hepatitis B (third dose)
9 months Measles
18 months Triple Antigen (booster)

(a)
What is immunization?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What type of immunity is obtained from the immunization programme shown in the
table above?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
(i) How many times of injection the immunization for Hepatitis B is given?

(ii) Why is it necessary for the immunization in 2(c)(i) be given more than once?

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
Which of the immunization in the table above is given to prevent the infection of TB?

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
State the diseases that can be prevented through the Triple Antigen immunization.

[ 1 mark ]

(f)
Why are there more than one immunization given to the infant?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The table below shows an immunization programme of an infant.

181

(a)
Complete the nitrogen cycle by stating the substances labelled P, Q, and R in the
diagram.

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
In what form the nitrate must take to be absorbed by the plants?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
State the processes W and X.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
What bacteria are involved in the processes labelled Y and Z?

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
The microorganism that carries out process X is found in certain plants. State the part
of the plant that contains this microorganism.

[ 1 mark ]

(f)
What is an example of a chemical fertilizer that is used by farmers to increase the
nitrate content of soil?

[ 1 mark ]

6. The diagram below shows part of nitrogen cycle.

182

(a)
Name the category of the microorganisms by completing the table below.
Microorganisms Categories
W
X
Y
Z
[ 4 marks ]

(b)
What microorganism can cause diseases? State the diseases.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
What are the two differences between W and X?

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
Name the microorganism that can produce its own food. Why?

[ 2 marks ]

7. The diagram below shows four different microorganisms.
183
8. The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the study of the effect of antibiotics on
bacterial growth.

Three penicillin discs P, Q, and R of different concentrations and a tetracycline disc S were
placed on the surface of the nutrient agar containing bacteria culture. The petri dish was
kept at a temperature of
C 37
. After five days, a clear area was observed around each disc
and the diameter of each area was measured and recorded as shown in the table below.
Discs P Q R S
Diameter of
clear area (cm)
1.6 2.5 2.0 0.8

(a)
Which disc has the highest concentration of penicillin?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Which antibiotic is more effective in preventing bacteria growth?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What microorganism is used to produce penicillin?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Name the fixed variable in this experiment and how to make it constant.

[ 2 marks ]

(e)
State the effect of antibiotics on bacterial activity.

[ 1 mark ]

(f)
What is the percaution that should be taken when carrying out this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]
184

9. The diagram below shows the activity of decomposing bacteria at different temperatures in
food P.

(a)
What is the range of temperature where bacteria grow and reproduce fast in food P.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State a range of temperature that is suitable to keep food P for long and in good
condition.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
The temperature in most refrigerators is
C 4
.Why is meat unsuitable to be kept at this
temperature for more than 5 days?

[1 mark ]

(d)
In what way bacteria reproduce at a temperature of:
(i)
C 20

(ii)
C 35

[2 marks ]

(e)
Calculate the number of bacteria produced from one bacterium after 5 hours, if the
bacterium reproduces every 30 minutes.

[2 marks ]

185

10. The diagram below show the life cycle of a mosquito.

(a)
In the life cycle of a mosquito, what is stage P?

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
Name the place that a female mosquito lays her eggs.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Define the term vector.

[ 1 mark ]
(d)
In what way mosquitoes can be controlled at
(i) the adult stage and

(ii) at stage P? State one way for each stage.

[ 2 marks ]

(e)
What is the microorganism carried by mosquitoes and the disease it causes?

[ 2 marks ]

(f)
Elaborate the way this disease is spread.

[ 2 marks ]
186
CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION

1. The graph below shows the average consumption of calories by people from countries P and Q.

(a)
Which country's population would have lower risk of suffering from arteriosclerosis?
Why?

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
State two classes of food that are supplied by cereals.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
What is the consumption of sugar (g) by the population from country Q? (Calorific value
of carbohydrates: 16.7 kJ)

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
What are the reasons that the population from country Q is more likely to suffer from
dental caries?

[ 2 marks ]
187

2 The table below shows the energy content of five common types of daily food. The columns P.
Q, R, and S show the percentage of four classes of food in each type of food.

Food
s
Ener
gy
(kJ/1
00 g)
P
(%)
Q
(%)
R
(%)
S
(%)
Beef 1 400 23.0 55.0 - 20.0
Butte
r
3 200 0.6 17.0 - 83.0
Milk 290 3.1 90.0 4.7 3.5
Potat
oes
370 2.0 82.0 16.0 -
Tuna 700 18.0 70.0 - 12.0

(a)
What is the food that has
(i) the lowest energy content?

(ii) the highest energy content?

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Study the table above carefully and identify the letters that represents fats and
carbohydrates. Provide a reason for each choice.
Fats -
Reason:

Carbohydrates -
Reason:

[ 4 marks ]

(c)
State the two types of food that is suitable for an adult doing heavy work.

[ 2 marks ]

188

3. The diagram below shows the instrument used to measure the energy content in food.

(a)
State the name of this instrument.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Label the place where food is placed inside the instrument with the letter 'F'.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the gas that passes through tube P and its purpose?

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
State the changes of the water inside the instrument.

[ 1 mark ]

189

4. The diagram below shows apparatus used in the experiment to study the nutrients required for
plant growth.

(a)
State the following:
(i) Manipulated variables

(ii) Responding variables

(iii) Fixed variables

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Why do the boiling tubes need to be aerated every day?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
State two observations that can be noted on boiling tube Y after 5 days.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
Why is boiling tube Z prepared?

[ 1 mark ]

190

5. The diagram below shows a simple apparatus used in the laboratory to calculate the calorific
value of food.

(a)
What is the definition of the term 'calorific value of food'?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What are the fixed and responding variables for the calorific values of different types of
food using the same appartus?

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Calculate the calorific value of groundnuts if the mass of groundnuts used is 10 g, mass
of water used is 10 g, and temperature at the beginning of the experiment is
C 30
at the
end of experiment is
C 85
.

[ 2 marks ]

191

6. Table 1 below shows the types of food consumed by a student for breakfast. Table 2 that
follows shows the calorific values for three different types of food groups.

Table 1
Types of
food
Quantity (g) Quantity of food groups (g)
1 glass of
milk
100 g 29.0 g protein
41.2 g carbohydrates
29.8 g fat
2 pieces of
bread
200 g 200 g carbohydrates
1 tablespoon
of jam
30 g 30 g carbohydrates

Table 2
Food group Calorific value (kcal)
1 gramme carbohydrates 4
1 gramme fat 9
1 gramme protein 4

(a)
Based on the table above, calculate the total calorific value of the food consumed by the
student.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Is the food eaten for breakfast a balance diet? Give reasons for your answer.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
What diseases are caused a diet lacked in
(i) protein?

(ii) vitamin A?

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
What happens when an individual consumes an excessive amount of carbohydrates over
a long period of time? Give reasons for your explanation.

[ 2 marks ]

192

7. The information below is a report from an agriculture officer after his investigation regarding
complaints from a group of dairy farmers.

There is an increase in the number of a certain type of insect which
feeds on clover plants in the fields.
The decrease in clover plants resulted in a drop in milk production and
subsequently loss of weight among cows.
Alternative methods using chemical substances can be carried out to
increase the fertility of soil.

(a)
State the cycle involved from the information above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State the importance of the clover plants.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
What is the compound that is present in the body of the cows?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Name the compound that is lacking in the fields.

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
Name an example of the chemical substance suggested by the officer.

[ 1 mark ]

193

Types of food Calorific value (kJ/100 g)
White bread 1 134
Tea with milk 50
Fried potatoes 2 390
Fried chicken 1 630
Butter cake 3 000

(a)
Based on the table shown above, calculate the total calories consumed by a student
according to the amount of food consumed by completing the table below.
Types of
food
Quantity
consumed (g)
Calculation of calorific values (kJ)
White
bread
150
Tea with
milk
100
Fried
potatoes
75
Fried
chicken
150
Butter cake 120
Total
[ 5 marks ]

(b)
Name the type of food that gives the most amount of energy.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Identify if the student is consuming a balaced diet. Give explanation for your answer.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
A nutritionist suggested that the student should include vegetables and fruits in his diet.
What are the two classes of food that is found in vegetables and fruits.

[ 2 marks ]

(e)
If the student continues to consume this type of food for 15 years, what are the two types
of diseases he is most likely to suffer from.
8. The table below shows the calorific values of a few types of food.

[ 2 marks ]

194

CHAPTER 11 : PRESERVATION AND CONVERSION OF THE ENVIRONMENT

1. The diagram below shows a habitat in the ecosystem of a pond.

(a)
Complete the diagram above using the words provided below:
Producer Primary consumer
Secondary consumer
[ 3 marks ]

(b)
State the role played by the organisms labelled (ii).

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Illustrate a food chain found in the pond shown above.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
Describe what happens when water rich in minerals flows into the pond.

[ 2 marks ]

195

2. The diagram below shows layer X in the stratosphere.

(a)
What is layer X?

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
What is the distance of Z from the Earth's surface?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
(i) Name the chemical substance that causes layer X to become thinner?

(ii) Identify one item that used daily by humans that contains this ubstance.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
(i) Name the space that is marked Y.

(ii) Name the ray from the sun that can pass through layer X.

[ 2 marks ]

(e)
List two effects on humans when layer X becomes thinner.

[ 2 marks ]
196

3. The diagrams below show three daily activities carried out by humans.

(a)
What are the three activities shown in the diagrams above?

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Name the type of pollution that is caused by activities shown in (i) and (ii).

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Name two gases released by the activity done in (i) and state their effects on aquatic
organisms.

[ 3 marks ]

(d)
State a reason for carrying out activity (iii).

[ 1 mark ]

197

4. The diagram below shows apparatus used to study the interaction between organisms.

(a)
(i) Which airtight jar containing the grasshopper would die first?

(ii) Explain your answer in (a)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
State one precaution that should be taken into consideration when conducting this
experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What is the role of the plant in airtight jar Q to maintain a balanced ecosystem?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
(i) Would the same results be obtained if this experiment is conducted in a dark room?

(ii) Explain your answer in part (d)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

198

5. The diagram below shows part of an industrial area.

(a)
What are the five sources of pollution shown in the diagram above?

[ 5 marks ]

(b)
List the three pollutants that are released from the chemical factory.

[ 3 marks ]

(c)
How are the pollutants harmful to humans and plants?

[ 2 marks ]

199

6. The diagram below shows that the balance in nature can be maintained by various natural
cycle.

(a)
Name the cycle shown in the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What are the processes labeled P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]

(c)
Why is this natural cycle important to living organisms?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
What is the simplest carbon compound that is released from the factory?

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
State the effects on the environment when there is no control of process R.

[ 2 marks ]

200

7. The diagram below illustrates a nitrogen cycle.

(a)
Name the substances labeled X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]
(b)
What is process Q that changes plant protein to substance X?

[ 1 mark ]
(c)
(i) What type of bacteria is P?

(ii) Explain the role of bacteria P.

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
State two natural processes that can increase the level of nitrates in the soil.

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
State one human activity that causes nitrogen levels in the soil to decrease.

[ 1 mark ]

(f)
A farmer uses urea to fertilize his farm excessively. What is the effect of this activity on
the balance of nature?

[ 1 mark ]
201

8. The table below shows the number of patients suffering from three types of diseases in area P
in 1990 and 1993. During this period, the number of people living in this area doubled.

Types of
disease
Number of
patients
(1990)
Number of
patients
(1993)
Bronchitis 30 100
Asthma 15 70
Cholera 10 40

(a)
(i) What are two human activities that might cause the migration of people to this area?

(ii) Give a harmful effect for each of this activity.

(iii) State one method each to overcome the problems stated in part (a)(ii).

[ 6 marks ]

(b)
What are the two pollutants found in the air in area P?

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
What is the type of pollution and its source that causes a rise in cholera cases in area P?

[ 2 marks ]

202

CHAPTER 12 : CARBON COMPOUNDS

1. The diagram below shows the interchangibility between polymers and monomers.

(a)
What are two examples of natural polymers and identify the monomer that forms them?

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
What are processes X and Y shown in the diagram above?

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
State a word equation for an example of process X.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Synthetic rubber is a useful synthetic polymer.
(i) What is the property of synthetic rubber that makes it suitable for use as oil tank liners
or oil hoses?

(ii) What synthetic rubber that is similar to natural rubber and can be vulcanized?

[ 2 marks ]
203

2. The diagram below shows the process involved in the production of vulcanized rubber and latex
paste.

(a)
What is substance W that is added to latex to speed up the process of coagulation?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
If substance W is not added to latex, the latex still coagulates after one day. Explain your
observation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Name substance Y that is added to latex to prevent the coagulation process so that the latex
can be concentrated into latex paste.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
What is substance X that is used in the production of vulcanized rubber?

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
Name one product Z that is made from vulcanized rubber. What are two characteristics of
vulcanized rubber that is suitable for producing product Z?

[ 2 marks ]

204
3. The diagram below shows the apparatus used to prepare alcohol in the laboratory.

(a)
Name substance P that is added to the glucose solution.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What is the enzyme that is produced by P? State its function in the fermentation process.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
State the type of alcohol that is produced.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
In what way alcohol is separated from the fermentation mixture?

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
What are the two characteristics that the flame produced if alcohol is burned?

[ 2 marks ]

205
4. The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the laboratory during the preparation of soap.

(a)
What vegetable oil and alkali that can be used in the preparation of soap?

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
State the role of concentrated alkali in the process of producing soap.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
What is the purpose of adding common salt to the mixture in this process?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
In what way can we test the filtrate collected is soap?

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
Illustrate a structure of the soap molecule and identify the part that is soluble in:
(i) water

(ii) grease

[ 2 marks ]

206
5. The diagram below shows a laboratory process of extracting a type of oil.

(a)
What is step P?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State the function of step P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
In the large scale preparation of the oil, identify the step after the filtration step.

[ 1 marks ]

(d)
(i) What is filtrate L?

(ii) Name the vitamins that are found in L.

[ 3 marks ]

(e)
The diagram below shows the structure of an oil palm fruit.

(i) Identify the three parts of the fruit in the diagram above.

[ 3 marks ]

(ii) What part of the fruit produces a lot of liquid L?

[ 1 mark ]

207

CHAPTER 13 : MOTION

1. The diagram below shows a load, WN placed on the piston of syringe P. Load FN is placed on
the piston of syringe Q to balance the motion. The value of load F is recorded and the cross-
sectional area of syringe Q is measured. The experiment is repeated by using syringe Q with
different cross-sectional areas.

The table below shows the data obtained from the experiment.
Cross-sectional area
of syringe Q/m
2

0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.10
Load F/N 11 23 32 44 55

(a)
State the characteristic of liquid X that enables it to be used in the experiment.

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
State the fixed variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
(i) Draw a graph of load F against the cross-sectional area of syringe Q based on the table
shown above.

(ii) Determine the pressure transmitted through the liquid from the graph in part (c)(i).

[ 3 marks ]

208
2. The diagram P below shows an experiment to study the effect of force produced by a wooden
block when it is dropped from different heights where identical wooden blocks X, Y, and Z are
dropped onto the rods placed on the surface of the plasticine.
The diagram Q below shows the depth of the rods entering the plasticine caused by wooden
blocks X, Y, and Z.

(a)
State the fixed variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
In what way force is measured in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
Based on the observation in the experiment, give one inference that can be derived from
this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Identify the wooden block that will produce the largest momentum just before colliding
with the plasticine.

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
State a device that operates using this same principle.

[ 1 mark ]

209

3. The diagram below shows a ticker tape that has been obtained from the movement of a trolley
on a tilted platform. The trolley took 6 seconds to go from the top of the platform to the bottom.

The table below shows data about the ticker tape above.

Section of the
ticker tape
1 2 3 4
Length of
section/cm

2.0

_____

4.0

5.0

(a)
Determine the length of Section 2 of the ticker tape and record it in the table above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
Draw a bar chart based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
Based on the graph in part (b), identify the type of movement made by the trolley.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Section 5 of the ticker tape follows section 4 also represents a 1 second interval. State
your prediction for the length of Section 5 in cm, based on the diagram above.

[ 1 marks ]
210

4. The diagram below shows the arrangement of an apparatus to study the motion of a trolley
down a runway.

The ticker timer is connected to a 50 Hz alternating current power pack. The diagram below
shows the ticker tape obtained from the experiment.

(a)
A student observed the dots made on the ticker tape. He made a conclusion that the trolley
moved at uniform velocity. State a reason for his conclusion.

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
The ticker tape shows 5 ticks when the trolley moved from X to Y.
(i) State the definition of 'tick'.

(ii) What is the uniform velocity of the trolley?

[ 3 marks ]

(c)
The trolley moves down the runway with uniform acceleration. Mark the dots shown on
the ticker tape in the diagram below.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
The tape chart below shows the motion of a trolley down a runway. What is the motion of
the trolley?

[ 1 mark ]
211
5. The diagram below shows a ship floating in water that sails without sinking.

(a)
(i) What is the upward force that acts on the ship?

(ii) What is the principle that describes the action of the upward force?

[ 2 marks ]

The diagram below shows the level of the ship in fresh water.

(b)
(i) On the diagram above, indicate the level of the ship if it sails in sea water.

(ii) State your reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
State why a ship can float in the sea.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
The body of a ship is marked with horizontal lines to indicate the maximum permissible
load in a ship when it sails in different regions and seasons. Give the name of this
horizontal line.

[ 1 mark ]

212

6. The diagram below shows an object placed on top of a car that travels at uniform velocity.

(a)
The driver pressed the break pedal when a man was crossing the road.
(i) What is the effect on the object on top of the car?

(ii) State a reason for the answer given in part (a)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
What are the two safety features that can be used in a car to reduce the negative effects of
inertia during an accident?

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
The shape of a car is designed to reduce air resistance. In what way a car is shaped?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
A car does not use spark plugs. State the type of engine used in this car.

[ 1 mark ]
213

(a)
Indicate the level of water in tubes P, Q, and R in the diagram above.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
Make a comparison of the pressure of water on points X and Z.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
(i) State the reason for the water to rise in tubes A, B, and C.

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Indicate the level of water in tubes A, B, and C.

[ 2 marks ]

7. The diagram below shows a steady flow of water through a tube.
214

(a)
(i) State the stroke in the diagram above.

(ii) How the air is affected inside the cylinder?

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
(i) State P.

(ii) The structure of a four stroke petrol engine is similar to that of a four stroke diesel
engine expect that it contains Q instead of P. Name Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
State the number of revolutions that is made by the crankshaft in a complete stroke cycle.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Why does the car engine normally consists of four cylinders?

[ 1 mark ]

8. The diagram below shows a stroke of a four stroke diesel engine.

215
CHAPTER 14 : FOOD TECHNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION

1. The table below shows three types of processed food.

Types of food Chicken meat Groundnuts Potatoes
Name of food X Y Z
Method of food
processing

(a)
What is the method of food processing for foods X, Y, and Z?

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
Describe the method of processing food X.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
State the difference between the methods used in processing foods Y and Z.

2. Complete the table below:

Chemical used in food
processing
Examples Used in Functions
Boric acid Prevents food from spoiling
Flavouring Soups
and
sauces

Palm sugar Cakes
Emulsifier Ice
cream

Tocopherol
(vitamin E)
Butter
and
biscuits

[ 5 marks ]

216

3. The diagram below shows the food label for Tijace tomato sauce.

(a)
State the two information that should be on this food label to fulfil all the conditions of the
Food Regulations 1985.

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
State the action that can be taken by consumers if the information on a food label is not
complete.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
What are the chemicals present in Tijace tomato sauce?

[ 2 marks ]

(d)
State the functions of the chemicals listed in part (c).

[ 2 marks ]

217

(a)
What is the purpose of food processing?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
What method of food processing is used for W, X, Y, and Z?

[ 4 marks ]

(c)
State the method of food processing used in W.

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
Name one benefit of the method of food processing used in X.

[ 1 mark ]

(e)
(i) How is the method of food processing done in Z?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) What is the benefit of method Z?

[ 1 mark ]

4. The table below shows types of food that is processed using a particular method of food
processing.

Types of food Method of food
processing
Beef W
Cabbage X
Anchovies Y
Fresh cow's milk Z
218
what way is genetic engineering carried out?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
List three characteristics of quality breeds.

[ 3 marks ]

(c)
(i) What are two government agencies that are involved in agricultural research?

(ii) Give an example of crops produced by these agencies.

[ 4 marks ]

(d)
What type of education and guidance can the Ministry of Agriculture provide for
farmers?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows four ways of increasing the quality and quantity of food
production.

(a)
Modern technology such as genetic engineering increases the quality of food produce. In
219
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Give one reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
If this bread is consumed in excess for 2 years, state the effect of it on consumer's health.

[ 1 mark ]

6. The diagram below shows a bread wrapper with incomplete information

(a)
Based on the Food Act 1983 and Food Regulations 1985, list all of the missing
information from the food label shown above.

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
(i) What is the most important data needed in part (a) when buying this bread?

220
CHAPTER 15 : SYNTHETIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY

1. Complete the table below:

Names of
plastic
Types of
plastic
Monomers One use of plastic
Perspex Methyl
metacrylate

Thermosetts Making glue and electric insulator
Polypropene Thermoplastic
Styrene Making food packaging containers

[ 8 marks ]

2. The diagram below shows a flow chart for synthetic polymers.

(a)
What are synthetic polymers P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]

(b)
What is the monomer for polymers P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]

(c)
Give one use for polymers P, Q, and R.

[ 3 marks ]

221

CHAPTER 16 : ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOHY (ICT)

1. The diagram below shows part of the set-up of an experiment to study the relationship
between the wavelength and frequency of radio waves. Radio waves produced by an
oscillator circuit is connected to an oscilloscope.

The diagram below illustrates the wavelength of the radio wave on the screen of the
oscilloscope when its frequency is 1.5 x 10
8
Hz.

(a)
In what way are the radio waves produced by the circuit shown in diagram P?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
State the length of the radio wave shown in diagram Q.

[ 1 mark ]

222

Frequency /
x 10
7
Hz
30.0 10.0 7.5 6.0 5.0
Wavelength
/ m
1 3 4 5 6

(i) What is the responding variable in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Illustrate the graph of the wave length against frequency based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
The experiment is repeated by varying the variable capacitor. The table below shows the
results of this experiment.

223

[ 2 marks ]

(c)
The modulated frequency wave is amplified by an amplifier. What is an essential
electronic component in the amplifier?

[ 1 mark ]

(d)
What is the difference between the waves transmitted through the aerial in comparison to
the waves that enter the microphone?

[ 1 mark ]

2. The diagram below shows the block diagram for a radio transmission system.

(a)
(i) What is P?

(ii) What is the wave that is produced by P?

[ 2 marks ]

(b)
The radio transmits amplitude modulated frequency waves. Illustrate the wave that is
transmitted by the aerial.

224
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) In what way the waves changes when passed through the capacitor?

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Illustrate the waves that pass through X.

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
An electronic component is connected to box Y.

(i) Illustrate the symbol for the electronic component in box Y.

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) What is the function of the electronic component in box Y?

[ 1 mark ]

3. The diagram below shows a simple radio receiver circuit used to receive frequency modulated
radio broadcasting.

(a)
Illustrate the waves received by the aerial.

[ 1 mark ]
(b)
(i) State the function of diode.

225
[ 1 mark ]

(ii) State a reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

(c)
The communication satellite is called a geostationary satellite.
(i) What is the reason that a communication satellite is called geostationary satellite?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) What is the minimum number of satellites to enable communication around the
world?

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Illustrate the arrangement of satellites that allows communication around the world.

[ 1 mark ]

4. The diagram below shows two earth satellite stations and a communication satellite.

(a)
State the function of the communication satellite.

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
(i) What type of electromagnetic wave that is transmitted from the earth satellite station?

226

(ii) Audio signals are combined with X and Y before they are transmitted. Name Y.

[ 2 marks ]

5. The diagram below show the location of X in an electromagnetic spectrum.

X Infrared ray Visible ray Ultraviolet
ray
X-ray Gamma ray

(a)
What component of the electromagnetic spectrum has the longest wavelength?

[ 1 mark ]

(b)
(i) What is X?

(ii) Calculate the wavelength when the frequency of X is 1.5 x 10
9
Hz. (The velocity of
the electromagnetic wave is 3 x 10
8
ms
-1
)

[ 3 marks ]

(c)
X is used in a radio transmission system.
(i) State the name of X in the radio transmission system.

227

228
SCHEME

CHAPTER 1
1 B 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 D 6 D 7 D 8 D 9 A 10 B
11 B 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 C 16 B 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 B
21 D 22 B 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 D 28 C 29 30

CHAPTER 2
1 C 2 B 3 A 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 D 17 A 18 D 19 B 20 D
21 B 22 A 23 A 24 D 25 B 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 D 30 D

CHAPTER 3
1 D 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 D
11 D 12 B 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 A
21 D 22 D 23 A 24 B 25 D 26 D 27 D 28 C 29 A 30 D

CHAPTER 4
1 A 2 A 3 A 4 D 5 C 6 D 7 C 8 C 9 D 10 A
11 B 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 D
21 A 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 A 28 C 29 D 30 C

CHAPTER 5
1 C 2 B 3 C 4 C 5 B 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 C
21 D 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 A 30 C

CHAPTER 6
1 C 2 C 3 D 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 B
11 D 12 A 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 B 19 C 20 B
21 D 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 D 29 B 30

CHAPTER 7
1 B 2 D 3 B 4 C 5 B 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 C
11 D 12 D 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C
21 D 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 C 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 C

CHAPTER 8
1 D 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 B 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 C 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

229
11 D 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 A
21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 D

CHAPTER 10
1 C 2 D 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 D 7 C 8 A 9 B 10 B
11 D 12 C 13 B 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 A 20 D
21 D 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 D 26 C 27 A 28 A 29 D 30 C

CHAPTER 11
1 B 2 C 3 D 4 B 5 D 6 D 7 C 8 B 9 D 10 B
11 D 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B 16 C 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 C 22 B 23 D 24 D 25 26 27 28 29 30

CHAPTER 12
1 B 2 A 3 C 4 C 5 D 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 C
11 D 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 D
21 C 22 B 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 B 30 C

CHAPTER 13
1 B 2 D 3 B 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 A 8 D 9 C 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 A 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 C 20 D
21 D 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 B 28 D 29 D 30 B

CHAPTER 14
1 C 2 D 3 B 4 B 5 B 6 D 7 C 8 D 9 B 10 B
11 D 12 B 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 D
21 C 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 A 26 D 27 D 28 D 29 C 30 C

CHAPTER 15
1 B 2 B 3 D 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 D 8 D 9 C 10 C
11 C 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C
21 C 22 C 23 B 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

CHAPTER 16
1 B 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 C 6 D 7 D 8 C 9 C 10 C
11 A 12 A 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 A 18 C 19 A 20 D
21 B 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 B

CHAPTER 9
1 B 2 C 3 B 4 C 5 C 6 C 7 D 8 C 9 A 10 C
230

CHAPTER 1 : SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION

1.
a) -3C
b) The added of the salt will affect the freezing point of the pure water
c) The freezing point of water that added salt is -3C
d) (i) Quantity of the salt added
(ii) Freezing point of the pure water

2.
a) (i)
2
5 . 0
= 0.25 gcm
-3

(ii)
3
6
= 2.0 g cm
-3

b) The cork float on the liquid / the iron sink in the liquid
c) An object which is less denser than a liquid will float on the surface liquid

3.
a) The seeds will sprout if have oxygen, water and the suitable temperature
b) (i) type and size of the seeds used
(ii) Sprout of the seeds
(iii) Different factor given (presence or absence water oxygen and temperature.
c) (i) the seeds in test tube B will not sprout
(ii) Because the layer of oil isolation the seeds with the oxygen

4.
a) Build a histogram
b) 32
c) 50-54
d) % 5 . 37 100
32
12
= x

5.
a) 9.90s, 15.65s, 19.50s
b) The shorter the length of pendulum, the more time used for 10 oscillation
c) (i) The angle of the oscillation
(ii)The time used for 10 oscillations
(iii)The length of pendulum

6.
a) The temperature increase based on the increase in the time
b) The temperature increase if the amount of heater supply increase
c) The mass or volume of water.
d) The temperature of every 3 minutes will decrease

SCHEME PAPER 2
231
7.
a) The extension of the weight load increase will cause the extension of the spring
increase
b) (i) Extension of spring
(ii)weight of load
c) (i) a graph weight vs extension
(ii) There are positive or direct relationship between the weight of load and the
extension of spring

8.
a) (i) 3.8 cm
3

(ii) 4.8 cm
3

b) 200 drops = 1cm
3

1 drop = 0.005cm
3

c) 5 x 10
-5
or 0.00005

9.
a) 50 cm
3

b) 8cm
3

c) 6.25gcm
-3

d) The cork will float on the water because the water with a density of 4.0

10.
a) 102C
b) The added of the salt will affect the boiling point of the pure water
c) (i) Boiling point of the pure water
(ii) Quantity of salt added

11.
a) There are a negative relationship between the pressure of gas and the volume of gas.
The higher the pressure of gas the lower the volume of gas
b) (i) Amount of gas
(ii)volume of gas
(iii)pressure of gas

12.
a) Time used to dissolves the sugar depend on the temperature of the water
b) The higher temperature of water, the less time is used to dissolves the sugar
c) (i) volume of water and amount of sugar
(ii)temperature of water
(iii)time is used to dissolves

13.
a) (i) identifying the variables
(ii) planning the investigation
(iii) collecting data
b) Avoid misconception and misinterpretations, think critically and creatively
c) Being fair and just, being objective

232

14.
a) (i) volume of water, the size of the test tube
(ii)number of lead shots
(iii)the depth of test tube sink in water
b) To study how the depth of water in which the test tubes sink in the water is depends on
the number of lead shots
c) The more of number of lead shots the depther the test tube will sink in the water.

15.
a) Planning this investigation is a scientific process used to examine the effect of
changing one variable on another variables
b) Control variables, determine the procedure
c) The aim of the experiment, operational definition.

CHAPTER 2 : BODY COORDINATION

1.
a)

Reaction time number of student in group
10 - 49 2
50 - 99 3
100 - 149 4
150 - 199 1

b)

Histogram number of student vs reaction time
c)

Proprioceptors
d)

Coordinate the movement and maintain balance

2.
a)

Two neurons
b)

Motor neuron, sensory neuron
c)

Receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector
d)

The leg is straighted automatically

3.
a)

motor neuron
b)

transmits impulses from the central nervous system to effectors
c)

myelin sheath
d)

speeds up the transmission of impulses, and a fatty structure which protects axon.

4.
a)

Reaction sensory organ involved
Feel cold skin
Sharp smell of sour nose
Sweet taste tongue
Movie is see eyes
Music is hear ears

b) Stimuli receptors central nervous system effectors responses
233

5.
a)

Plays role in controlling movement, maintaining balance and keeping posture.
b)

Cerebellum
c)

Voluntary action is an action which is controlled under conscious control. Example of
voluntary action is writing
d)

Injuries to cerebrum can cause a loss os memory and senses.

6.
a)

P : medulla oblongata Q : cerebellum R : cerebrum
b)

Controls voluntary actions, reasoning, learning, memory and intelligence
c)

Heartbeat, peristalsis

7.
a)

Motor neuron, relay neuron, sensory neuron
b)

Synapse
c)

To allow the impulse to flow in one direction only

8.
a)

Endocrine glands are ductless glands which secrete hormones directly into the
bloodstream
b)

Thyroid gland and pancreas
c)

P : stimulate many other endocrine glands and stimulates growth
Q : conversion of glucose into glycogen

9.
a)

Proprioceptor
b)

Coordinates the movement and maintain balance
c)

Muscles, tendons, ligaments

10.
a)

X : spinal cord Y : spinal nerves
b)

Central nervous system : control of the nervous system
Peripheral nervous system : consist of nerves that enter and leave the brain and spinal
cord
c)

Coordinates the body activities by sending message in the form of impulse in response
to stimuli

11.
a)

X : dendrite Y : spinal nerves
b)

Name the neuron that shows at the diagram
c)

Diagram of impulse from left to right

12.
a)

Cerebrum
b)

P : thought and reasoning Q : movement of limbs
R : sight S : hearing

234

13.
a)

Ears, skin
b)

Voluntary action
c)

Reading and writing

14.
a)

Voluntary action is an action which is under conscious control
b)

Breathing, sneezing
c)

Voluntary action involuntary action
Controlled by cerebrum controlled by medulla oblongata
Action under conscious control action not under conscious control

15.
a)

Pancreas
b)

Insulin
c)

Conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver
d)

Low blood glucose level and weakness

16.
a)

P : Effector Q : motor neuron R : sensory neuron
b)

Receptor --- sensory neuron --- relay neuron --- motor neuron --- effector

17.
a)

X : cell body
b)

The nucleus controls all the activities in the neuron
c)

Relay neuron sensory neuron
The length of dendron long
The length of axon short

18.
a)

X : Relay neuron Y : effector Z : receptor
b)

Help us to avoid serious injuries
c)

The people will not be able withdrawal he fingers immediately

19.
a)

Q : Gigantism R : dwarfism
b)

Growth hormone
c)

Stimulates growth
d)

Pituitary gland

20.
a)

Pituitary gland
b)

Produces hormones which stimulate many other endocrine gland
c)

Growth hormone
d)

Under secretion : dwarfism : over secretion

235
21.
a) Thyroxin gland
b) Thyroxin
c) Control the rate of metabolism
d) Sensitivity to cold, simple goiter
22.
a)

Adrenal glands
b)

Adrenaline
c)

Prepares the body for actions during emergencies
d)

Chromic fatigue, cushings syndrome
23.
a)

Located at each side of the uterus
b)

Estrogen, progesterone
c)

Estrogen : development of female secondary sexual
Progesterone : regulate the menstrual cycle and play an important role in preparing
the body for pregnancy
24.
a)

Scrotums
b)

Protect the testes
c)

Testosterone
d)

Development of male secondary sexual charactreristics
e)

Underdevelopment of secondary sexual aharacteristics.

25.
a)

Drugs are chemical substances which can affect our nervous system
b)

Nicotine, cocaine
c)

Impair muscular coordination, distort perceptions.

CHAPTER 3 : HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1.
a)

Draw a histogram
b)

Continuous variation
c)

There is a complete range of measurements from one extreme to another
Has a normal distribution

2.
a)

Discontinuous variation
b)

Type of hair and blood group
c)

Genetic and environmental

3.
a)

Identical twins
b) Fertilization
c) Contain exactly the same genetic information / have the identical sex and other similar
characteristics
d) Identical sex, boy or girl
236

4.
a)

Meiosis
b)

Crossing over
c)

Crossing over is a process occurring during meiosis in which a pair of homologous
chromosomes exchange genetic material
d)

No
e)

Two

5.
a)

Twins P : identical twins Twins Q : non-identical twins
b)

Two fetuses develop in mothers uterus at the same time
c)

In terms of identical twins non-identical twins
Number of ovum involved one two
Sex of twin same might be same or fifty
Genetic information same different

6.
a)

Selective breeding is the crossing of two parents each with some good traits so as
produce offspring that process the good traits of both parents
b)

Paddy or papaya
c)

Improve the nutritional values / lower import and higher will help to boost the
economy of the country

7.
a)

Downs syndrome
b)

Chromosome mutation
c)

21
d)

Short necks / flat cheeks

8.
a)

Meiosis
b)

Ovaries and testes
c)

Divides into four daughter cells, only half the chromosome number of parents cell.

9.
a)

Bb , Bb, Bb, Bb
b)

Tallness
c)

Left-handed, straight hair

10.
a)

Process X is meiosis
Process Y is fertilisation
b)

Boy
c) The 22 + X sperm fertilizes an 22 + X ovum, the zygote formes will be 44 + XX
and the zygote G will be a girl

237

11.
a)

RR, Rr, Rr, rr
b)

3 : 1
c)

Red flowers
d)

A person who has two identical genes for a characteristics

12.
a)

W : deletion X : duplication Y : inversion
Z : attachment to a different chromosome
b)

Chromosome mutations refer to changes in the structure or number of chromosomes
and the such changes occur as a result of errors in cell division.

13.
a)

X : gene Y : DNA Z : chromosome
b)

Genes are units of inheritance that determine the characteristics of an individual.
c)

8

14.
a)

Gene mutations
b)

Colour-blindness / albinism
c)

Mutation is a change which occurs spontaneously on genes or chromosomes. There
are two types of mutations, namely chromosome mutation and gene mutation
15.
a)

Mitosis
b)

Divides into two identical cells exactly the same number and kind of chromosomes as
parent cell
c)

Centromere splits, each chromatid is now a chromosome. The chromosome are pulled
to the apposite poles at the cell. This is called polarization.

16.
a)

Parent cell divide to produce daughter cells
Important for inheritance
Each chromosome only double once

b)

In term of mitosis meiosis
Number of chromosome same as the parent cell half of the number
chromosomes in the
parent cell
number of time one two
cytoplasm divides
17.
a)

Color blindness and hemophilia
b)

Produce an individual with characteristics that are different form the rest
Enable more resistant to disease
Able to adopt better to changes in the environment
Ensure the survival of a species
238

18.
a)

Turners syndrome
b)

Fails to develop normal secondary sexual characteristic and sterile
c)

Female
d)

Tuners syndrome has only one sex chromosome and klinefelters syndrome have three
sex chromosome

19.

a)

P : Cc Q : Cc R : Cc S : Cc
b)

Straight hair
c)

4 : 0
d)


20.
a)

Identical twins non-identical twins
Number of zygote formed one two
Genetic information same different

b)

Siamese twins are joined of some parts of their bodies
Siamese twins contain exactly the same genetic information
c)

Iris color / blood group

21.
a)

Chromosome mutation
b)

Males
c)

Klineefelters syndrome is caused by the presence of three sex chromosomes
d)

Radioactive gamma lays and toxic chemicals

22.
a)

Histogram for number of students vs group of thumb prints
b)

c)

Continuous variation discontinuous variation
Quantitative characters qualitative characters
Influenced by genetic factors influenced by genetic factors
Environmental factors
23.
a)

Gametes : X baby : XY phenotype : boy
With normal color vision, color blindness boy
b)

25 %

24.
a)

Family tree
b)

c)

Certain characteristics can be passed down from one generation to another
d) Enables us to different individuals of the same species allow selective breeding to be
carried out

239

CHAPTER 4 : MATTER AND SUBSTANCE

CHAPTER 5 ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1.
a)

P : Anode
Q : Cathode
b)

(i) Increase
(ii) Copper
(iii) Become thinner
c)

This is because the copper at the anode dissolves to form copper ions, but copper ions
are also deposited at the anode.
d)

Rotating the spoon at the uniform rate

2.
a)

Metals with different reactivitys show different reactivitys show different reaction
with oxygen.
b)

(i) Oxygen gas
(ii) Activity of the reaction
(iii) type of metal
c)

(i) X + oxygen ------ oxide of X
(ii)

Y + oxygen ------- oxide of Y
(iii)

Z + oxygen ------ oxide of Z
d)

Y, X , Z
e)

X : Aluminium Y : Magnesium Z : Copper

3.
a)

X : Tin ore / cassiterite
Y : Limestone
b)

Hot air
c)

Product P : Molten slag
Product Q : Molten tin
d)

Calcium carbonate ------- calcium oxide + carbon dioxide

4.
a)

Electroplating
b)

The copper piece is the anode and the iron nails is the cathode
c)

To transfer electric current from copper piece to the iron nail.
d)

At the anode, copper piece dissolve in the copper sulphate solution and become copper
ions.
At the cathode, copper ion in the copper sulphate solution are discharge and become
copper atoms which are attached on the iron nail
e) The concentration of the blue copper sulphate solution will remains unchanged.

240

5.
a)

Cassiterite
b)

Limestone is used to absorb and removes the impurities in the ore
c)

Tin oxide + carbon ------ tin + carbon dioxide
d)

Because aluminium is more reactive than carbon
e)

Carbon is cheap and able to get it easily.
6.
a)

Ampere
b)

(i) Impure silver
(ii) pure silver
c)

(i) Silver piece will become thinner
(ii) Silver piece will become thicker
d)

No changes

7.
a)

Metal X reacts faster with dilute sulphuric acid than metal Y.
b)

(i) Type of metal
(ii)

Reactivity
(iii)

Concentration and volume of dilute sulphuric acid
c)

Metal X
d)

25 cm
3
.

8.
a)

Displacement reaction
b)

Aluminium sulphate and hydrogen gas
c)

Aluminium + Dilute sulphuric acid ----- Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
d)

Can test by a glowing splint. The hydrogen gas that release from the test tube will
make a pop sound.

9.
a)

Positive terminal : Copper plate
Negative terminal : zinc plate
b)

The zinc plate become thinner
Produce gas bubble at positive terminal
c)

Terminal negative : Zinc atoms - electron ---- zinc ions
Positive terminal : Hydrogen ions + electrons ---- hydrogen atoms
d)

The flow of electron through the outside circuit from the cathode to the anode
produces electric current.

10.
a)

1.2 V
b)

Used as an electrolyte
c)

Voltmeter reading
d)

0 V

241
11.
a) ( i ) K
(ii) N

b) K : Carbon rod
L : mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and carbon
M : Ammonium chloride paste
N : Zinc container
c) None rechargeable
Corrosion of the zinc casing results in leaked of the electrolyte
d) Nickel-cadmium cell
Lead- acid accumulator

12.
a)

(i) Gas bubbles are produced
(ii) A reddish brown metal is deposited at the cathode
b)

(i) Chlorine gas is produced
(ii) The brown metal deposit is copper
c)

Tested with litmus paper, it bleaches litmus paper
d)

The density changes for color of the solution gradually decrease.

13.
a)

Electrolysis
b)

(i) Carbon
(ii) P
c)

(i) this because the ions in the solid lead bromide are strongly attracted to each other
by their electrostatic charges.
(ii) Heat the solid so that it melts into liquid
d)

Lead ions and bromide ions
e)

(i) Bromine
(ii)Brown pungent gas
f)

Lead

CHAPTER 6 : NUCLEAR ENERGY
1.
a)

P - The Geiger Muller tube
Q - The scaler / rate meter / loud speaker
b)

Substance R = Na-24
c)

It will show a higher reading. It will be louder than normal
d)

Gamma radiation will penetrate through the pipe

2.
a)

(i) X : Beta particle
(ii) Y : Gamma radiation
(iii) Z : Alpha particle
b)

(i) Radiation Y is not depleted
(ii) It is neutral
c) X is lighter than Z
d) (i) Lead
(ii) Radioactive radiation cannot penetrate the lead container
242

3.
a)

Nuclear fusion
b)

Nuclear energy
c)

Hydrogen bomb
d)

The sun

4.
a)

Radioactive atoms contain unstable nuclei
b)

Alpha radiation, beta radiation, and gamma radiation
c)

Alpha and beta radiation
d)

Gamma radiation
e)

Smaller and more stable

5.
a)

(i) Gamma radiation
(ii) the radioactive radiation has high penetrating power
(iii) the radioactive radiation is used to detect to content level in the bottle
b)

(i) it is the Geiger Muller counter
(ii) To record the rate of radioactive
c)

Phosphorus-32

6.
a)

Beta
b)

(i) The aluminium is thicker than the acceptable thickness
c)

To prevent radioactive radiation from being radiated in all directions
d)

(i) a docimeter
(ii)

The photographic film on the docimeter turns black

CHAPTER 7 : LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

1.
a)

Draw a light ray with image are real, inverted and diminished
b)

Real, inverted and diminished
c)

Camera
d)

Draw a light ray with image are virtual, not inverted and diminished

2.
a)

The point on the principle axis where parallel rays of light will converge after passing
through the lens
b)

Image are real, inverted and more than object ( draw a light ray )
c)

1.6 cm
d)

Decrease
243

3.
a) Filter color screen color the color of light on the screen
Green blue black
Blue magenta blue
Red yellow red

b) The color that appears on the screen is the result of the subtraction of light by the
coloured filter and coloured screen.
4.
a)

White
b)

Secondary color
c)

(i) K and L
(ii) Red
d)

(i) Black
(ii)

Blue light is absorbed by the yellow card

5.
a)

P : Cornea Q : Irish R : Retina
b)

P : Help to focus light onto the retina by refracting light rays that pass through it.
c)

Irish muscle will contract to reduce the size of the pupil so that the amount of light
entering the eye is reduced
d)

The eyes focuses by changing the thickness of the lens while the camera focuses by
moving the lens nearer or further from the film.

CHAPTER 8 : CHEMICALS IN INDUSTRY

1.
a)

(i) Diagram Y
(ii) Diagram X
b)

The atom of the second metal prevents the layers of sliding atoms in the first metal
from sliding over each other easily
c)

(i) Pewter
(ii)

96% tin, 3% copper and 1% antimony
(iii)

For making drinking mugs and vases, to make ornaments.

2.
a)

The iron nails become brown in color while there was no change to the steel nail.
b)

The iron nail turned rusty whole the steel nail did not
c)

(i) Type of nail
(ii)

Condition of the nails after the three days
(iii)

Sodium chloride solution/test tube
d)

Alloys can prevent corrosion or rusting

3.
a)

Copper : 1.5 cm Bronze : 1.1 cm
b) The softer the tested material, the deeper the dent is
c) Bronze
d) Copper and tin
244

4.
a)

Carbon dioxide
b)

Global warning / green house effect
c)

When carbon dioxide increase with atmosphere, carbon dioxide gas absorbs heat from
the radiation of sunlight and heat is reflected back to earth. The trapping of this heat
causes the increase of the earth temperature.
d)

Fixing a catalytic converter in the exhaust pipes of vehicles / using lead free petrol.

CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMA AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS

1.
a)

The most bacteria colony is observed at the pH value = 7

b)

c)

pH = 7
d)

pH = 6 : 8

2.
a)

X
2

b) Penicillin kills bacteria. The higher the concentration of the penicillin, more bacteria
are killed
c) The size of penicillin disc / number of days
d) Antibiotic is a chemical that consists of fungi or bacteria that kills specific
microorganisms

245

3.
a)

There is bigger and more bacterial colony when the temperature is increased after 24
hours.
b)

(i) the graph size of bacteria colony vs temperature

(ii)

35C
(iii)

3

4.
a)

A suspension containing weakened or dead pathogens of a particular disease
b)

Cholera / hepatitis / TB
c)

The white blood cells (lymphocytes) are stimulated to produce antibodies
d)

To increase the number of antibodies to exceed the immunity level
e)

Active acquired immunity

5.
a)

Immunization is a process where a person is given vaccination to help him acquire
immunity from a particular disease
b)

Acquired immunity
c)

(i) 3 times
(ii) The first dose is given to stimulate the body to produce antibodies immediately
but the level of antibodies produced is insufficient. By giving the second, third and
booster dose, the level of antibodies would increase to exceed the minimum level of
immunity required to fight diseases.
d)

BCG
e)

Tetanus
f)

Each vaccination is given to prevent specific types of disease only

6.
a)

P : Plant protein Q : Ammonium compound R : Nitrate
b)

Ions
c)

W : Denitrification X : Nitrogen fixation
d)

Nitrifying bacteria
e)

Root nodules
f)

Ammonium nitrate

7.
a)

W : Viruses X : Bacteria Y : Protozoa Z : Algae
b)

W : Influenza X : Cholera Y : Malaria
c)

W has no nucleus X has a nucleus
W contain either DNA or RNA where X contain both
W is smaller in sized compare to X.
d)

Bacteria because it contains chlorophyll which enables it to carry out photosynthesis
246
8.
a) Q
b) Penicillin Q
c) Fungus
d) Temperature : incubate at 37 C.
e) Kills the bacteria / prevents the growth of the bacteria
f) Wash hands before and after the experiment / sterilize the apparatus inside an
autoclave.

9.
a) 20C - 40C
b) -20C - 0C / more than 100C
c) More bacteria are produced making the meat not suitable to be eaten
d) (i) Spore formation
(ii) Binary fission
e) In 1 hour, 2
2
= 4 bacteria are produced
In 1 hour, 2
10
= 1024 bacteria are produced

10.
a) Larva
b) In stagnant water
c) An animal that carries pathogens from one organism to another
d) (i) Clear the surrounding areas around and inside the house to prevent mosquitoes
from hiding / spraying insecticide to kill mosquitoes
(ii) Rearing fish in ponds to feed on P / spreading a layer of oil on the surface of
water to prevent P from breathing
e) Protozoa, malaria / virus, dengue fever
f) When a mosquito bites an infected person and then bites a healthy person.

CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION

1.
a)

P because their diet contains less amount of meat, fats and oil
b)

Fibres and proteins
c)

17.6 kJ of energy is released by 1 g of carbohydrate
2200 kJ of energy is released by
2200 17.6 = 125 g of sugar
d)

Because their diet contains more sugar and less vegetables.

2.
a)

(i) Milk
(ii) Butter
b)

Column S - fats
Reason : highest percentage for butter
Column R - Carbohydrates
Reason : it is found in milk and potatoes but not in beef, tuna and butter
c) Butter and beef
247

3.
a)

Bomb calorimeter
b)

Refer diagram of bomb calorimeter
c)

Oxygen, to help in the oxidation of the food
d)

The temperature of the water increase

4.
a)

(i) the nutrient contents of Knops culture solution
(ii)

the growth rate of maize seedling such as the length of roots and stem, the
size of the leaves.
(iii)

The original size of the maize seedling
b)

To provide oxygen to the roots so that they would not rot
c)

Stunted growth and the size of the leaves is small and the color of the leaves is yellow
d)

To be used as a comparison in the results of the experiment

5.
a)

The amount of energy released when 1 gram of food is completely burned
b)

Fixed variables : volume of water / mass of food
Responding variables : increase in temperature, amount of energy released
c)

1
23 . 0 2 . 4
) 10 1000 (
) 35 85 ( 10

=

kJg

6.
a)

1469 kilocalories
b)

No, because it does not contain fruits and vegetables that provides vitamins
c)

(i) kwasyiorkor
(ii)Night blinders
d)

Obesity becomes a problems because excessive carbohydrates would be changed into
fat to be stored in the body

7.
a)

The nitrogen cycle
b)

The root nodules of clover plants contain nitrogen nitrogen fixing bacteria that convert
nitrogen gas into nitrates
c)

Proteins
d)

Nitrates
e)

Ammonium sulphate/ ammonium nitrate

8.
a)

Type of food quantity (g) Calorific value
White bread 150 1701.0
Tea with milk 100 50.0
Fried potatoes 75 1792.5
Fried chicken 150 2445.0
Butter cake 120 3600.0
Total = 9588.5 kJ
b) Butter cake
c) No, because there is lack of fruits and vegetabled
d) Vitamins / minerals / fibres
e) Heart disease / high blood pressure / arteriosclerosis

248

CHAPTER 11 : PRESERVATION AND CONSERVATION OF THE
ENVIRONMENT

1.
a)

(i) secondary consumer
(ii) Producer
(iii) Primary consumer
b)

Produces food and oxygen
c)

Water plants ----- prawn ----- small fishes
d)

It causes eutrophication. Algae that blooms rapidly on water surface prevents sunlight
from reaching the base of the pond. This results in the death of water plants and finally
the death of other aquatic organisms.

2.
a)

The ozone layer
b)

15 39 km
c)

(i) Chlorofluorocarbon
(ii) Coolants in air conditioners and refrigerators / aerosol
d)

(i) ozone hole
(ii)ultraviolet rays
e)

Skin cancer, cataracts

3.
a)

(i) Burning of fossil fuels
(ii) Open burning of rubbish
(iii) Throwing rubbish into recyling bins
b)

Air pollution
c)

Sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
d)

To conserve and preserve environment

4.
a)

(i) Jar P
(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q gets the oxygen from plant that produces it through
photosynthesis
b)

To make sure that both jars P and Q are airtight
c)

The plant absorbs carbon dioxide released by the grasshopper to enable it to perform
photosynthesis to supply oxygen to the grasshopper
d)

(i) No
(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q would die first because the plant is competing with it to
use the oxygen supply.
249

5.
a) Disposal of industrial waste
Disposal of sewage
Spraying of pesticides and herbicides
Exhaust smoke from aero planes
Smoke and heat from chemical factories
b) Ashes, soot and sulphur dioxide
c) Pollutants can damage body tissues and affect vision

6.
(a) Carbon cycle
b) P - photosynthesis Q - respiration R combustion
c) Maintains the level of carbon dioxide in the environment
d) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide
e) Depletion of natural resources and air pollution

7.
a) X : Ammonium compound Y : Nitrates
b) Decomposition
c) (i) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(ii) Bacteria P changes nitrogen in the atmosphere to nitrates. Nitrates are directly
used by plants to produced proteins.
d) Nitrification and nitrogen fixation
e) Farming
f) Water pollution causes the death of aquatic organisms.
8.
a)

(i) opening up of forest lands for development // industrialisation
(ii)loss of habitat // air pollution
(ii) replanting the same type of trees // using alternative energy sources
b)

Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide / sulphur dioxide / oxides of nitrogen
c)

Water pollution through the improper disposal of sewage

9.
a)

Driving a car that emits excessive exhaust fumes
Washing with detergents that pollute water sources
Throwing rubbish such as empty cans and boxes indiscriminately
Smoking cigarettes
b)

Exhaust fumes contain gases such as carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of
nitrogen, and carbon particles that pollute the air. These gases add to the greenhouse
effect and indirectly cause global warming. They also play a part in the formation of
acid rain.

Oil and detergent flow into the river and pollute the water. These result in the death of
aquatic organism

Rubbish pollutes the surroundings and give off foul smells. They become breeding
grounds for vectors.
Cigarette smoke pollute the air.

250

CHAPTER 12 : CARBON COMPOUND

1.
a)

Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from
amino acid monomers
b)

X : polymerization Y : depolymerization

c)

n (glucose) starch when n = big number

d)

(i) synthetic rubber is resistant to oil and solvents
(ii) SBR rubber can be vulcanized
2.
a)

W is formic acid
b)

The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex
c)

Y is ammonia solution
d)

X is sulphur
e)

Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.
3.
a)

P is yeast
b)

Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol.
c)

Ethanol
d)

Distillation
e)

Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash

4.
a)

Palm oil and sodium hydroxide
b)

Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with
fatty acids to form soap
c)

Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out
d)

The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth

e)

(i) the head is soluble in water
(ii) the tail is soluble in grease

5.
a)

Sterilization
b) To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit.
c) Purification
d) (i) Raw palm oil
(ii) Vitamin E and A
e) (i) X : mesocarp Y : endocarp Z : kernel
(ii) Mesocarp and kernel

251

CHAPTER 13 : MOTION

1.
e)

Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from
amino acid monomers
f)

X : polymerization Y : depolymerization

g)

n (glucose) starch when n = big number

h)

(i) synthetic rubber is resistant to oil and solvents
(ii) SBR rubber can be vulcanized
2.
f)

W is formic acid
g)

The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex
h)

Y is ammonia solution
i)

X is sulphur
j)

Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.

3.
f)

P is yeast
g)

Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol.
h)

Ethanol
i)

Distillation
j)

Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash

4.
f)

Palm oil and sodium hydroxide
g)

Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with
fatty acids to form soap
h)

Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out
i)

The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth

j) (i) the head is soluble in water
(ii) the tail is soluble in grease
5.
f) Sterilization
g) To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit.
h) Purification
i) (i) Raw palm oil
(ii) Vitamin E and A
j) (i) X : mesocarp Y : endocarp Z : kernel
(ii) Mesocarp and kernel

252

CHAPTER 14 : FOOD TECHNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION

1.
a)

X : Freeze drying
Y : vacuum packaging
Z : Irradiation
b)

Food is kept in the freezing compartment of the refrigerator at -18C
c)

Food Processing method Y Food processing method Z
Air is sucked out from the plastic food is radiated with gamma rays
Aerobic microorganism die microorganism are killed by gamma rays

2.
a)

3.
a)

Net weight, name and address of manufacturer
b)

Report to the District Health Office or consumer association
c)

Starch and benzoic acid
d)

Function of starch : Prevents the separation of fluid parts of food
Function of benzoic acid : Prevents food from spoiling by impeding the growth and
reproduction of microorganism

4.
Chemical used in food
processing
Examples Used in Functions
Preservative

Boric acid Fish ball

Prevents food from spoiling
Flavoring Monosodium
glutamate

Soups
and
sauces
Makes food tastier

Sweetener

Palm sugar Cakes Sweetens food

Emulsifier Lecithin

Ice
cream
emulsifies two substances that
cannot be mixed

Antioxidant

Tocopherol
(vitamin E)
Butter
and
biscuits
Prevents the oxidation of food

a) To kill microorganisms and parasite, to enables easy food digestion and to enable food
to last longer
b) W : Freezing X : Refrigeration Y : Dehydrationj
Z : Pasteurization
c) At low temperature, the interaction between enzyme and microorganism is not active
d) To maintain freshness and nutrients in the food
e) (i) Heating at 63 C for 30 minutes or at 72 C for 15 second and is immerdiatly
cooled
(ii) To main tain taste and nutrients in the food, especially vitamins

253

5.
a)

The removal of a gene or section of a DNA molecule with the desired characteristics
from the cell of an organism and transferring it into a completely different organism
can produce the desired characteristics
b)

Good resistance to diseases or pests, fast ripening of fruits and abundant harvest
c)

(i) MARDI, MPOB
(ii)

MARDI - Jalomas sweet potatoes
MPOB - Tenera oil palm species

6.
a)

Berat bersih, alamat pengeluar, tarikh luput
b)

(i) the expiry date
(ii) if the expiry date is over, the bread is then not safe for consumption and cause
diseases
c)

Obesity

CHAPTER 15 : SYNTHETIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY

1.
Names of
plastic
Types of
plastic
Monomers One use of plastic
Perspex Thermoplastic

Methyl
metacrylate
Making transparent roof

Epoxyl glue

Thermosetts Amide

Making glue and electric insulator
Polypropene Thermoplastic

polystyrene

Thermoplastic

Styrene Making food packaging containers

2.
a)

P : Nylon
Q : Neoprene rubber
R : Butyl rubber

b)

P : Diamine and dicarboxylic acid
Q : Chloroprene
R : Isobutylene and isoprene

c) P : Making synthetic textile and string
Q : making water pipes and hand gloves
R : making tyres, shoe soles and hoses.

254

CHAPTER 16 : ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION COMMUNICATION
` TECHNOLOGY ( ICT )

1.
a)

Oscillating electric charges between the variable capacitor and the inductor
b)

1.5 cm
c)

(i) wavelength of the radio wave
(ii) graph wavelength vs frequency

2.
a)

(i) Oscillator
(ii) Radio waves
b)

c)

Transistor
d)

Frequency of the wave transmitted is higher

3.
a)

b)

(i) Seperates audio signals from radio waves
(ii) Earthed
(iii)

c)

(i) transistor diagram
(ii) amplifiers audio signals

4.
a)

To receive. Amplify and transmit information
b)

(i) Microwave
(ii) It has the highest frequency that enables it to travel far and is not scrattered by the
particles in the atmosphere
c)

(i) It appears stationary in the same spot in the sky
(ii) 3 satellites
(iii)

255

5.
a)

X / Radio wave
b)

(i) Radio wave
(ii) 0.2 m
c)

(i) carrier wave
(ii) Modulator

256
BESTARI PRACTISE QUESTION

PROJEK JAWAB UNTUK JAYA (JUJ)
NEGERI PAHANG
TAHUN 2010

SCIENCE

KERTAS 1

Satu jam lima belas minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

1. Kertas soalan ini adalah dalam dwibahasa.

2. Soalan dalam bahasa Inggeris mendahului soalan yang sepadan dalam
bahasa Melayu.

3. Calon dikehendaki membaca maklumat di halaman belakang kertas soalan ini.

257

BESTARI PRACTISE QUESTION

PROJEK JAWAB UNTUK JAYA (JUJ)

NEGERI PAHANG

TAHUN 2010

SCIENCE

KERTAS 2

Dua jam tiga puluh minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Bahagian

Soalan

Markah

Penuh

Markah
Diperolehi

A

1

5

2

5

3

5

4

5

B

5

6

6

6

7

6

8

6

9

6

C

10

10

11

10

12

10

Jumlah

1.

Kertas soalan ini adalah dalam
dwibahasa

2.

Soalan dalam bahasa Inggeris
mendahului soalan yang

sepadan dalam bahasa Melayu

3.

Calon dibenarkan menjawab
keseluruhan atau sebahagian
soalan sama ada dalam bahasa
Inggeris atau bahasa Melayu

4.

Calon dikehendaki membaca
maklumat di halaman 2

258

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
MAKLUMAT UNTUK CALON

1. This question paper consists of three sections. Section A, Section B and Section C
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi tiga bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B dan Bahagian
C

2. Answer all questions in Section A and Section B.
Write your answers for Section A and Section B in the spaces provided on the
question paper
Jawab semua soalan dalam Bahagian A dan Bahagian B
Tulis jawapan bagi Bahagian A dan Bahagian B dalam ruang yang disediakan pada
kertas soalan

3. For Section C, answer Question 10 and either Question 11 or Question 12.
Write your answers for Section C on the other examination sheets
You may use equations, diagrams, tables, graphs and other suitable methods to
explain your answers
Bagi Bahagian C, jawab Soalan 10 dan mana-mana satu soalan daripada Soalan 11
atau Soalan 12
Tulis jawapan bagi Bahagian C pada helaian jawapan lain
Anda boleh menggunakan persamaan, rajah, jadual, graf dan cara lain yang sesuai
untuk menjelaskan jawapan anda

4. The diagrams in the questions provided are not drawn to scale unless stated
Rajah yang mengiring soalan tidak dilukis mengikut skala kecuali dinyatakan

The marks allocated for each sub-part of a question are shown in bracket
Markah yang diperuntukkan bagi setiap ceraian soalan ditunjukkan dalam kurungan

5. If you wish to change your answer, neatly cross out the answer that you have done.
Then write down the new answer
Sekiranya anda hendak menukar jawapan, batalkan dengan kemas jawapan yang
telah dibuat. Kemudian tulis jawapan yang baru

6. You may use a non-programmable scientific calculator
Anda dibenarkan menggunakan kalkulator saintifik yang tidak boleh diprogramkan

7. The time suggested to answer Section A is 60 minutes, Section B is 50 minutes and
Section C is 40 minutes
Masa yang dicadangkan untuk menjawab Bahagian A ialah 60 minit, Bahagian B
ialah 50 minit dan Bahagian C ialah 40 minit
8. Hand in this question paper at the end of the examination
Serahkan kertas soalan ini di akhir peperiksaan

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010 Science

Transféré par

Informations du document

Description originale:

Copyright

Formats disponibles

Partager ce document

Partager ou intégrer le document

Options de partage

Avez-vous trouvé ce document utile ?

Ce contenu est-il inapproprié ?

Droits d'auteur :

Formats disponibles

Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010 Science

Transféré par

Droits d'auteur :

Formats disponibles

SCIENCE MODULE FOR SPM 2010

Carrying out the

Vous aimerez peut-être aussi