AIEEE - Part Test - 2

1
CHEMISTRY


1. For 5d type of orbital, the number of radial nodes and total nodes are, respectively,
(a) 2 and 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 1 (d) 2 and 4
2. Which of the following molecular orbital has the lowest energy ?
(a) 2p
z
(b) *2p
z

(c) *2p
x
(d) *2p
y

3. For the same velocity of alpha particles highest deviation will be for .
(a) Gold foil (b) Cu-foil
(c) Al-foil (d) Same for all the above
4. Energy of a photon having wave number 1.00 cm
-1
is
(a) 6.62 10
-34
J (b) 1.99 10
-23
J
(c) 6.62 10
-32
J (d) 6.62 10
-36
J
5. The energy of a photon of radiation having wavelength 3000 is nearly.
(a) 6.63 10
-19
J (b) 6.63 10
-18
J
(c) 6.63 10
-16
J (d) 6.63 10
-49
J
6. An electronic transition is associated with an energy change of 1 eV. The wavelength of the
radiation emitted would be
(a) 12397 10
-10
m (b) 1239.7 10
-10
m
(c) 12397 10
-10
cm (d) 12.397 m
7. The maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electrons is found to be 6.63 10
-19
J when the metal is
irradiated with a radiation of frequency 3 10
15
Hz. The threshold frequency of the metal is
(a) 1 10
15
Hz (b) 3 10
15
Hz
(c) 2 10
16
Hz (d) 2 10
15
Hz
8. In which of the following orbits, the angular momentum of an electron of He
+
will be
h

?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
9. Emission of energy takes place when an electron undergoes transition from
(a) n = 3 to n = 1 (b) n = 2 to n =3
(c) n = 3 to n = 5 (d) None of these
10. An electron has been excited from the first to the fourth energy state in an atom. Which of the
following transitions are possible when the electron comes back to the ground state ?
(a) 41 (b) 42, 21
(c) 43, 32, 2 1 (d) All of these
11. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen is x, then the radius of the fourth orbit will be
(a) 4x (b)
4

(c) 16 x (d)
16

12. The diameter of the second orbit of hydrogen atom should be:
(a) 2.12 (b) 4.23
(c) 2.10 (d) 4.01
AIEEE - Part Test - 2

2
13. If the radii of the first and fourth orbits of hydrogen atom are r
1
and r
4
respectively, then how
many times r
4
is greater than r
1
.
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 9 (d) 16
14. Radius of a Bohr's second orbit of H will be
(a) 0.0529 nm (b) 0.0529 2 nm
(c) 0.0529 2
2
nm (d) 0.0529 2
-2
nm
15. If the velocity of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is x, then velocity of the third orbit will be :
(a) 3x (b) p/3
(c) 9x (d) None of these
16. For which species , Bohr's theory does not apply .
(a) H (b) Be
(c) He
+
(d) Li
2+

17. Which orbital is dumb-bell shaped ?
(a) s (b) 2

p
y

(c) 3

s (d) 3d
z
2
18. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is 1, magnetic quantum number can have values:
(a) 1 only (b) + 1 only
(c) + 1 , 0 , 1 (d) + 1 and 1
19. Which of the subshell has double dumb-bell shape ?
(a) s (b) p
(c) d (d) f
20. An improbable configuration is :
(a) [Ar] 3

d
4
, 4

s
2
(b) [Ar] 3

d
5
, 4

s
1

(c) [Ar] 3

d
6
, 4

s
2
(d) [Ar] 3

d
10
, 4

s
1

21. Wave mechanical model of the atom depends upon :
(a) de Broglie concept of dual nature of electron (b) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
(c) Schrodinger wave equation (d) All of these
22. The probability of finding an electron residing in a p
x
orbital is not zero :
(a) in the yz plane (b) in the xy plane
(c) in the y direction (d) in the z direction
23. The possibility of finding an electron in an orbital was conceived by :
(a) Rutherford (b) Bohr
(c) Heisenberg (d) Schrodinger
24. The three quantum numbers n , l , m are the outcome of :
(a) Bohr's atomic theory (b) Solution of Schrodinger equation
(c) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle (d) Aufbau principle
25. The statements which is/are correct .
(a) Number of total nodes in an orbital = n 1
(b) Number of radial nodes in an orbital = n l 1
(c) Number of angular nodes in an orbital = l
(d) All
26. A 3

p

-

orbital has :
(a) two non-spherical nodes (b) two spherical nodes
(c) one spherical and one non-spherical node (d) one spherical and two non-spherical node
Ans. (c)
AIEEE - Part Test - 2

3
27. For an electron in a hydrogen atom , the wave function

, y is proportional to exp
r/a
o
, where a
0
is
the Bohr's radius . What is the ratio of the probability of finding the electron at the nucleus to the
probability of finding it at a
0
.
(a) e (b) e
2

(c) 1/e
2
(d) zero
Ans. (d)
28. Number of unpaired electrons in the electronic configuration 1s
2
, 2s
2
, 2p
4
are :
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
29. The zero probability of finding the electron in p
x
orbital is :
(a) Maximum on two opposite sides of the nucleus along x-axis
(b) None
(c) Same on all the sides around the nucleus
(d) In the nucleus
30. The number of orbitals that could be associated with a principal quantum number are :
(a) n
2
(b) 2

n
2

(c) n
2
+ 2 (d) n
2
- 2


MATHEMATICS

31. Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {1, 3, 5}. If relation R from A to B is given by R = {(1, 3), (2, 5), (3, 3)}.
Then R
-1
is
(a) {(3, 3), (3, 1), (5, 2)} (b) {(1, 3), (2, 5), (3, 3)}
(c) {(1, 3), (5, 2)} (d) None of these
32. The set of values of x, satisfying the equation tan
2
(sin
-1
x) > 1 is
(a) [1, 1] (b)
2 2
,
2 2

(c) (1, 1)
2 2
,
2 2

(d) [1, 1]
2 2
,
2 2
| |

|
|
\

33. The set {3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3} is represented by
(a)
2
{x x 9 x N} (b)
2
{x x 16 x Z} <
(c)
2
{x x 16 x N} < (d)
2
{x x 9}
34. Representation of set |x - 2| < 2 ?
(a)
-2 2
(b)
0 4


(c)
0 1
(d)
-2 2

35. X and Y are two sets and, : X Y f . If { (c) = y; c X, y Y} f and { '(d) = x; d Y, x X} f
then the true statement is
(a) f (f (b)) = b (b) f (f (a)) = a
(c) f(f(b)) = b, b y (d) f(f (a)) = a, a x
36. If A, B and C are non-empty sets, then (A B) (B A) equals
(a) (AB) B (b) A (AB)
(c) (AB) (AB) (d) (AB) (AB)
AIEEE - Part Test - 2

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37. Let A and B be two sets such that n(A) = 0.16, n(B) = 0.14, n(AB) = 0.25. Then n(AB) is
equal to
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.05 (d) None of these
38. If A and B are two sets, then A B = B A iff
(a) A B (b) B A
(c) A = B (d) None of these
39. If two sets A and B are having 99 elements in common, then the number of elements common to
each of the sets A B and B A are
(a) 2
99
(b) 99
2

(c) 100 (d) 18
40. Let R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9), (12, 12), (6, 12), (3, 9), (3, 12), (3, 6)} be a relation on the set
A = {3, 6, 9, 12}. The relation is
(a) an equivalence relation (b) reflexive and symmetric only
(c) reflexive and transitive only (d) reflexive only
41. A relation R on a set A is called an equivalence relation iff
(a) it is reflexive, symmetric and transitive (b) it is reflexive
(c) it is symmetric (d) it is transitive
42. The relation R defined on the set of natural numbers as {(a, b) : a differs from b by 3}, is given by
(a) {(1, 4, (2, 5), (3, 6),......} (b) {(4, 1), (5, 2), (6, 3),......}
(c) {(1, 3), (2, 6), (3, 9),.....} (d) None of these
43. Let R be a reflexive relation on a finite set A having nelements, and let there be m ordered pairs
in R. Then
(a) m n (b) m n
(c) m = n (d) None of these
44. If R be a relation < from A = {1, 2, 3, 4} to B {1, 3, 5} i.e., (a, b)Ra < b, then RoR
-1
is
(a) {(1, 3), (1, 5), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 5), (4, 5)} (b) {(3, 1), (5, 1), (3, 2), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4)}
(c) {(3, 3), (3, 5), (5, 3), (5, 5)} (d) {(3, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5)}
45. If A = {a, b}, B = {c, d}, C = {d, e}, then {(a, c), (a, d), (a, e), (b, c), (b, d), (b, e)} is equal to
(a) A(BC) (b) A(BC)
(c) A (BC) (d) A (BC)
46. 20 teachers of a school either teach mathematics or physics, 12 of them teach mathematics while 4
teach both the subjects. Then the number of teachers teaching physics only is
(a) 12 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) None of these
47. The domain of definition of the function f(x) =
1
tan tan x x
is
(a) 2n , n , neI
4 4
| |
+ +
|
\
(b) n , n , neI
4
| |
+ +
|
\

(c) n , , neI
2
| |
+
|
\
(d) None of these
48. If g(f (x)) = |

sin

x

| and f (g(x)) = (sin x )
2
, then
(a) f (x) = sin
2
x, g(x) = x (b) f (x) = sin

x, g(x) = |

x

|
(c) f (x) = x
2
, g(x) = sin x (d) f and g cannot be determined
AIEEE - Part Test - 2

5
49. The domain of the function f(x) =
( )
(sin x cosx)
log cos x cos x , 0 x
+
+ is
(a) (0, ) (b) 0,
2
| |
|
\

(c) 0,
3
| |
|
\
(d) None of these
50. If f (x) = sin x
5
| |
+
|
\
sin x
5
| |

|
\
sin
2
x
5
| |
+
|
\
+ sin
2
x
5
| |

|
\
, then the range of the function is
the interval
(a) [1, 1] (b)
1 1
,
2 2




(c) [0, 1] (d) None of these
51. In a class of 55 students, the number of students studying different subjects are 23 in
Mathematics, 24 in Physics, 19 in Chemistry, 12 in Mathematics and Physics, 9 in Mathematics
and Chemistry, 7 in Physics and Chemistry and 4 in all the three subjects. The number of students
who have taken exactly one subject is
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 7 (d) All of these
52. If A = [(x, y) : x
2
+ y
2
= 25] and B = [(x, y) : x
2
+ 9y
2
= 144], then AB contains
(a) One point (b) Three points
(c) Two points (d) Four points
53.
2 2
f (x) 6 x f (x) 4 x 2, + = + + then f(x) is necessarily non-negative in
(a) [2, 2] (b) ( ) ( ) , 2 2,
(c) [ 6, 6] (d) None of these
54. Let ( ] c 0,1 . The range of f(x) =
2
2
x 2x c
x 4x 3c
+ +
+ +
is
(a) [0, c] (b) 0, 3c



(c) [0, 2c] (d) none of these
55. The function f is not defined for x = 0, but for all non zero real numbers x, f(x) + 2f
1
x
| |
|
\
= 3x .
The equation f(x) = f(x) is satisfied by
(a) exactly one real number (b) exactly two real numbers
(c) no real numbers (d) all non zero real numbers.
56. Let f (x) = sin x, g (x) = ln |x|. If the ranges of the composite functions fog and gof are R
1
and R
2

respectively, then
(a) R
1
= ]1, 1[, R
2
=] , 0[ (b) R
1
= ] , 0[, R
2
=]1, 1[
(c) R
1
= ]1, 1[, R
2
=] , 0] (d) R
1
= [1, 1], R
2
=( , 0]
57. Let f : (1, 1) B, be a function defined by
1
2
2x
f (x) tan
1 x

, then f is both one-one and onto

when B is the interval
(a) 0,
2
|
|

(b) 0,
2
| |
|
\
(c) ,
2 2
| |

|
\
(d) ,
2 2

AIEEE - Part Test - 2

6
58. Let R and S be two non-void relations on a set A. Which of the following statements is false.
(a) R and S are transitive RS is transitive
(b) R and S are transitive RS is transitive
(c) R and S are symmetric RS is symmetric
(d) R and S are reflexive RS is reflexive
59. If f
y y
2x , 2x
8 8
| |
+
|
\
= xy, then f(x, y) + f (y, x) =
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 2 (d) 3
60. The number of integers present in the range of f(x) = (x
2
+ 8x + 1)/(x
2
+ 1) are
(a) 8 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) none of these


PHYSICS

61. The spring balance inside a lift suspends an object. As the lift begins to ascent, the reading
indicated by the spring balance will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(c) Remain unchanged (d) Depend on the speed of ascend
62. A bullet of mass 5g is shot from a gun of mass 5 kg. The muzzle velocity of the bullet is 500 m/s.
The recoil velocity of the gun is
(a) 0.5 m/s (b) 0.25 m/s
(c) 1 m/s (d) Data is insufficient
63. If two forces of 5 N each are acting along X and Y axes, then the magnitude and direction of
resultant is
(a) 5 2, / 3 (b) 5 2, / 4
(c) 5 2, / 3 (d) 5 2, / 4
64. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m, respectively, are connected by a massless
and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown
in the figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B, immediately after the string
is cut, are respectively
(a) g, g/2 (b) g/2, g
A 2m
B M

(c) g, g (d) g/2, g/2
65. A vessel containing water is given a constant acceleration a towards the right, along a straight
horizontal path. Which of the following diagram represents the surface of the liquid
a a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
66. A closed compartment containing gas is moving with some acceleration in horizontal direction.
Neglect effect of gravity. Then the pressure in the compartment is
(a) Same everywhere (b) Lower in front side
(c) Lower in rear side (d) Lower in upper side
AIEEE - Part Test - 2

7
67. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m
1
and m
2

(vertically). If the acceleration of the system is g/8 then the ratio of the masses is
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 9 : 7
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 5 : 3
68. A flat plate moves normally with a speed v
1
towards a horizontal jet of water of uniform area of
cross-section. The jet discharges water at the rate of volume V per second at a speed of v
2
. The
density of water is . Assume that water splashes along the surface of the plate at right angles to
the original motion. The magnitude of the force acting on the plate due to the jet of water is
(a)
1
V (b)
1 2
V( ) +
(c)
2
1
1 2
V

+
(d)
2
1 2
2
V
( )

+

69. A lift accelerated downward with acceleration a. A man in the lift throws a ball upward with
acceleration a
0
(a
0
< a). Then acceleration of ball observed by observer, which is on earth, is
(a) (a + a
0
) upward (b) (a a
0
) upward
(c) (a + a
0
) downward (d) (a a
0
) downward
70. A helicopter of mass M is rising vertically upwards with a uniform acceleration a. If the mass of
the persons in the helicopter is m, what is the magnitude and direction of the force exerted by the
persons on the floor of the helicopter ?
(a) m(g + a) vertically downwards (b) m(g a) vertically upwards
(c) m(g + a) vertically upwards (d) m(g a) vertically downwards
71. A ball of mass m is moving towards a batsman at a speed . The batsman strikes the ball and
deflects it by an angle without changing its speed. The impulse imparted to the ball is given by
(a) m cos ( ) (b) m sin ( )
(c) 2m cos
2
| |

|
\
(d) 2m sin
2
| |

|
\

72. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by
F = 600 2 10
5
t
where F is in newton and t in second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the
barrel. What is the average impulse imparted to the bullet ?
(a) 9 Ns (b) zero
(c) 0.9 Ns (d) 1.8 Ns
73. A force vector

F 6i 8j 10k = + newton applied to a body accelerates it by 1ms
2
. What is the
mass of the body ?
(a) 10 2 kg (b) 2 10 kg
(c) 10kg (d) 20kg
74. A shell explodes into three fragments of equal masses. Two fragments fly off at right angles to
each other with speeds of 9 ms
1
and 12 ms
1
. What is the speed of the third fragment ?
(a) 9 ms
1
(b) 12 ms
1

(c) 15 ms
1
(d) 18 ms
1

75. A body is moving down a long inclined plane of angle of inclination . The coefficient of friction
between the body and the plane varies as 0.5x = , where x is the distance moved down the
plane. The body will have the maximum velocity when it has traveled a distance x given by
(a) x = 2 tan (b) x =
2
tan

(c) x = 2 cot (d) x =
2
cot

AIEEE - Part Test - 2

8
76. A train has to negotiate a curve of radius 200 m. By how much should the outer rails be raised
with respect to the inner rails for a speed of 36 km h
1
? The distance between the rails is 1.5 m.
Take g = 10 ms
2
.
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 12.5 cm (d) 15 cm
77. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical rope of mass m. An upward force P
acts on the upper end of the rope. The system is free to move. The force exerted by the rope on the
block is
PM
M m +

(a) In all cases (b) Only if the rope is uniform
(c) In gravity-free space only (d) Only if P > (M + m) g
78. Fig. shows a block of mass m
1
resting on a smooth surface. It is
connected to a mass m
2
by a string passing over a massless and
frictionless pulley m
2
> m
1
. The acceleration of the hanging mass m
2

is
(a)
1 2
1 2
m m
g
m m

+
(b)
2 1
2 1
m m
g
m m

+

m
1
m
2

(c)
1
1 2
m g
m m +
(d)
2
1 2
m g
m m +

79. A rocket is fired upward from the earths surface such that it creates an acceleration of 19.6 m s
2
.
If after 5 s, rocket from earths surface would be
(a) 245 m (b) 490 m
(c) 980 m (d) 735 m
80. A body of mass 6 kg. moves in a straight line according to the equation
x = t
3
75t,
where x denotes the distance in metre and t the time in second. The force on the body at t = 4
second is
(a) 64 newton (b) 72 newton
(c) 144 newton (d) 36 newton
81. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v strikes a stationary particle of mass 2m and sticks
to it. The speed of the system will be
(a) v/2 (b) 2v
(c) v/3 (d) 3v
82. n small balls each of mass m impinge elastically each second on a surface with velocity u. The
force experienced by the surface will be
(a) mnu (b) 2 mnu
(c) 4 mnu (d)
1
2
mnu
83. A body is acted upon by a constant force directed towards a fixed point. The magnitude of the
force varies inversely as the square of the distance from the fixed point, then the path can be
described by an equation similar to :
(a) y = mx + C (b) x
2
+ y
2
= r
2

(c) y = Cx
2
(d) None of these
(where m, C and r are fixed values)
84. A particle of mass 5 kg is moving in a straight line. If its displacement is given by
S = (t
3
2t 10) m
Then the force acting on it at the end of 4sec. is :
(a) 240 N (b) 120 N (c) 360 N (d) 60 N
AIEEE - Part Test - 2

9
85. A balloon gross weight W newton descends with an acceleration f m/s
2
. The weight must be
thrown out in order to give the balloon an equal upward acceleration will be :
(a)
Wf
g
(b)
2Wf
g

(c)
2Wf
g f +
(d)
W(g f )
f
+

86. A bomb at rest explodes into 3 parts of same mass. The momentum of 2 parts are

2pi and

P j .
The momentum of third part will have magnitude :
(a) P 2 (b) P 3
(c) P 5 (d) zero
87. A car moving at a speed v is stopped by a retarding force F in a distance s. If the speed of the car
were 3 v, the force needed to stop it within the same distance s will be
(a) 3 F (b) 6 F
(c) 9 F (d) 12 F
88. A boy of mass 40 kg wants to climb up a rope hanging vertically. The rope can withstand a
maximum tension of 500 N. What is the maximum acceleration with which the boy can climb the
rope ? Take g = 10 ms
2
.
(a) 1.5 ms
2
(b) 2.0 ms
2

(c) 2.5 ms
2
(d) 3.0 ms
2

89. An object is kept on a smooth inclined plane of 1 in l. The horizontal acceleration to be imparted
to the inclined plane so that the object is stationary relative to the incline is given by
(a)
2
1 g l (b)
2
( 1) g l
(c)
2
1
g
l
(d)
2
1
g
l

90. A ship of mass 3 10
7
kg initially at rest is pulled by a force of 5 10
4
N through a distance of 3
m. Assume that the resistance due to water is negligible, the speed of the ship is
(a) 1.5 m/s (b) 60 m/s
(c) 0.1 m/s (d) 5 m/s

***