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.) DEGREE PROGRAMME Time: (2 hours) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. 2. 3. No Duplicate Booklet will be issued. Write your name and Roll Number on the accompanying Answer Sheet. The question paper consists of two parts. Part 1 contains Objective type questions. There are 5 Sections (Sections 1 V) comprising of 120 Objective type questions. All the answers to these objective type questions are to be entered on the OMR sheets by fully shading the appropriate responses. Part II contains Descriptive type questions consisting of 1 Section (Section VI) comprising of 1 Essay type question. 4. Answer all questions. There is an internal cut-off for each section, hence attempt all sections. 5. THERE IS NEGATIVE MARKING of 1/3rd of the marks allotted, for every wrong answer. No negative marking for un-attempted questions. 6. Specific instructions are given in the beginning of each Section. Read them carefully and answer accordingly. 7. In respect of objective type questions, the students are required to shade the appropriate squares on a separate printed answer sheet provided for the purpose. No additional answer sheet will be given. As the objective type question-answers will be evaluated by the Scanner, complying with the following instructions is very important: Before answering, read the details printed on the answer sheet carefully. Write your Roll Number in the appropriate squares. Use only HB Pencil for crossing inside the Squares. Erase clearly any answer choice you wish to change. Indicate only one answer by crossing from the options provided. If more than one square is shaded, the answer for that question will not be evaluated. The Answer Squares should be cross completely without leaving any space. The completely shaded answer will be taken as final. Do not make stray marks. No rough work shall be done on the question paper. Use the last page of the answer sheet for this. Handle the sheet with care. Do not fold/staple. If needed, consult the Invigilator. Those questions, which are not marked as per the instructions, will not be evaluated. In respect of the descriptive part, all the candidates are required to write legibly (in pen only) in the space provided in the Answer sheet only. 8. Based on the performance of candidates in the Objective Part and Descriptive Part of the question paper, a preliminary list in order of merit will be prepared. Its mandatory to attempt all Sections. The MATS University Law School retains the right not to evaluate the descriptive part of answer scripts of those candidates who have absolutely no chance of making it to the selection list based on their performance in the objective part. 9. For rough work there is a blank page at the end. 10. Total number of pages: 12 including first page. 11. The candidates shall not carry with them any mobile phones, calculators or other electronic gadgets inside the Examination Hall. The possession of the same in the examination hall will disqualify the candidate from being considered for selection. 12. Adoption of any unfair means during the test will disqualify the candidate. The decision of the Superintendent of the Centre shall be final in this regard. Centre: _________________________________________________________ Roll No.: ________________________________________________________ Total Marks: 180

Signature of the Invigilator/s With Centre Seal

PART I OBJECTIVE Section: I English Instructions Questions 1-5: Read carefully the questions and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the answer sheet. Questions: 1 40. Each question carries 1 (one) mark. 1. In the past three months, a new series of low-priced wheat_____________. a. Has been released b. Have been released c. Will have to been d. Would have released The insurance company hopes that neither the architect nor the construction firm_________ liable. a. Are held b. Is held c. Are to hold d. Is to hold To connect a temperature measurement circuit to the microcontroller, we added new hardware and developed new software. The added hardware controlled both the measurement and the display of the temperature. This hardware_____________ light emitting diodes. The cracked windshield, in addition to the torn upholstery and rusted body, ____________ made Ruths old car difficult to sell. a. Has b. Will c. Would d. Is This weeks National Magazine claims that there ____________ photographs of the dinosaur a. Is b. Are c. Has d. None of these





Instructions Questions 6-10: Fill in the blanks with out changing the meaning of the first sentence. 6. The salesman was helping the customer when the thief came into the store. The customer _____________ by the salesman when the thief came into the store. a. Had been helped b. Was being helped c. Had been helped d. Has been helping The employee is notifying police that three prisoners have escaped. Police _________ that three prisoners have escaped. a. Are being notified b. Is being notified c. Will be notified d. Would have been Surgeons successfully performed a new experimental heart-transplant operation yesterday. A new experimental heart-transplant operation ___________ successfully yesterday. a. Was performed b. Will be performing c. Would have performed d. Will have been performed Biological clocks are of such obvious adaptive value to living organisms, that we would expect most organisms to possess them. Since the biological clock ____________ obvious adaptive value to living organisms, that we would expect most organisms to possess them. a. Is of such b. Will be of such





c. Are of very d. Will be of The revolution in art has not lost its steam; it rages on as fiercely as ever. The revolution in art __________ its steam, it will rage on as fiercely as ever. a. Will never loose b. Will not lose c. Would not be lost d. Will not be lost He left the scene of the accident and tried to forget that it had happened. a. Correct sentence b. He, left the scene . c. .and, tried to forget. d. . Accident, and tried to forget . December 7, 1941 will never be forgotten. a. Correct Sentence b. December 7, 1941 c. December, 7th, 1941 d. December 7th, 1941 Oil which is lighter than water rises to the surface. a. Correct Sentence b. , which is lighter than water c. , which is lighter than water, d. Which, is lighter than water There is a modern sports complex in ___________ United States of America. a. The b. A c. An d. None of these There isnt enough____________ snow to go skling. a. A b. Of c. The d. None of these The accident was my fault because I ran into a ____________ object. a. Stationery b. Stationary c. Either (a) or (b) d. None of these Maria invented a digital imaging________ for counting cherries on a tree. a. Devise b. Device c. Either (a) or (b) d. None of these My ____________ to you is to wake up early and to exercise before you go to school or work. a. Advice b. Advise c. Either (a) or (b) d. None of these The young woman, ravaged by alcoholism, ____________ her two children and husband. a. Deserted b. Desserted c. Either (a) or (b) d. None of these I had hoped that you would accept my ___________ in the spirit of kindness that I gave it. a. Complement b. Compliment c. Either (a) or (b) d. None of these











The following sentences have been segmented into four units. Read the sentences and select the section which contains an error and circle the letter under it. If there is no error choose (D) 21. The other delegates (A) and him (B) immediately (C) accepted the resolution drafted by the neutral states. No error (D) a. (A) b. (B)

c. (C) 22.

d. (D)

The students have discovered (A) that they (B) can address issues more effectively through letter-writing campaigns and not (C) through public demonstrations. No error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) After (A) hours of futile debate, the committee has decided to postpone (B) further discussion of the rsolution until their (C) next meeting. No error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) After the music recital, Alexandra enjoyed listening(A) to her friend Mohammeds insightful interpretation, which she(B) thought was more sophisticated than the other performers. (C) No error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Originally a protest on (A) conventional (B) painting, the Pre-Raphaelite movement exerted (C) great influence on the art of its time. No error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) The board reviewing (A) the courses offered by the college found (B) that the quality of academic programs were (C) generally good but somewhat uneven. No error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) If he had begun (A) earlier, (B) he might have succeeded in finishing (C) the extremely complex project before the deadline. No error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Maude Adams, after her spectacular triumph as (A) the original Peter Pan, went about (B) heavy veiled (C) and was accessible to only a handful of intimate friends. No error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) All states impose (A) severe penalties on (B) drivers who do not stop when he or she is (C) involved in accidents. No error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) A policewoman (A) can often get (B) a confession out from (C) a suspect by giving him tea and sympathy. No Error (D) a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D)









Reading Comprehension I: Read the following text and answer the questions that follow by picking the correct option.

There was an increase of about 10% in the investment in the public sector, like electricity, irrigation quarrying, public services and transport; even though the emphasis leaned towards transport and away from the other sectors mentioned. A 16-17% growth in investment, including a 30% increase in investment in business premises has been recorded in trade and services. Although there continued to be a decline in the share of agriculture in total gross investment in the economy, investment grew by 9% in absolute terms, largely spurred on by a 23% expansion of investment in agriculture equipment. Housing construction had 12% more invested in it in 1964, not so much owing to increase demand, as to fears of impending new taxes and limitation of building. There was a rise of close to 11% in the total consumption in real terms during 1964 and per capita personal consumption by under 7%, as in 1963. The undesirable trend towards a rapid rise in consumption, evident in previous years, remains unaltered. Since at current prices consumption rose by 16% and disposable income by 13%, there was evidently a fall in the rate of saving in the private sector of the economy. Once again a swift advance in the standard of living was indicated in consumption patters. Though fruit consumption increased, expenditure on food, especially bread and staple items, declined significantly. There was a continuing increase in the outlay on furniture and household equipment, health, education and recreation. The greatest proof of altered living standards was the rapid expansion of expenditure on transport (including private cars) and personal services of all kinds, which occurred during 1964. The changing composition if purchased durable goods demonstrated the progressive affluence of large sectors of the public. On the one hand increased purchase of automobiles and television sets were registered, a point of saturation was rapidly being approached for items like the first household radio, gas cookers, and electric refrigerators. 31. It is possible to conclude from this passage, that the people of the country were a. spending more money than they earn b. investing and consuming at an accelerated pace c. saving more money than previously d. lacking in necessities According to the auchor the trend towards a raid rise in consumption is undesirable as: a. there was an increase in the expenditure on frills and luxuries b. there was a rise in the standard of living c. people were eating less d. people were saving less It is possible to conclude that the United States in not the discussed country as: a. there was a decline in the expenditures for food b. from the statement that the saturation point was rapidly being approached for first household radios c. there is no mention of military expenditures The area which saw the greatest expenditure of investment funds was a. The public sector b. Business premises c. Agricultural equipment d. A field which cannot be determined




Reading Comprehension II: Read the following text and answer the questions that follow by picking the correct option. One reason people perform poorly in interviews is because they fail to understand the underlying realities of interviews. They attend interviews labouring under false assumptions

which often undermine their performance. Those interviews are a lot like the exams we do at school. The danger with this myth is that it can easily lead to assumptions that weaken ones confidence and performance. Three of these assumptions include: 1. If I give the wrong answer Im finished. The fact is that at interviews there are often no absolute right answers. What works for one person may not work for another. Theres one best answer for each question therefore I have to try to find the perfect answer. Trying to find the perfect answer often leads to people giving very long-winded answers that put off interviewers. It is not helpful to think of perfect answers when it comes to interviews. Good answers are fine. What you say at an interview is the most important thing. What you say at interviews is, of course, important, but the experts tell us that how we say things and our body language are actually more powerful communicators!



The more I talk at an interview the better off Ill be. This is not true. As mentioned above, long-winded answers can drive interviewers to distraction. Even worse they can undermine your efforts in building that all-important rapport. This is not to say that you should give one to two word answers. Its simply warning you against waffling. Preparing for an interview is a waste of time because I dont know what questions theyre going to ask me. Nothing could be further from the truth. Highly effective interviewees are not born with interview skills; they develop them over time by sound preparation and practice. Furthermore, even though we dont know what exact questions we will be asked we can make intelligent guesses as to the sort of questions well have to answer and prepare our answers for those. 35. In the line The danger with this myth is that it can easily lead to assumptions that weaken ones confidence and performance the writer tries to infer that a. Attending an interview is likea school exam is a parable b. Myths about interviews will effect your performance at an interview c. Being superstitious about interviews will effect your confidence levels d. There is always danger while making assumptions about your performance Preparing for an interview is a waste of time because I dont know what questions theyre going to ask me. a. This is a myth, as we need to go in prepared for any kind of question b. Since interviewers are not born with interviewing skills we dont have to go in ready c. An interview is random and does not need preparation d. None of the above The line If I give the wrong answer Im finished means a. They will kill me is I dont know the answer b. My career will be over if I give a wrong answer c. My interview is over if I dont know the right answer d. I will not get the job if my answers are incorrect Select a suitable title for the passage: a. Handling interviews b. Myths about interviews c. Interviews and school exams d. None of the above





People dont do well at interviews because a. They dont have enough knowledge b. They look at it like a school exam c. They dont know how to attend and interview d. They take interviews very lightly Which of the sentences is true? a. If I give the wrong answer I have failed the interview b. How I speak is more important that what I say c. Each question has only one best answer d. What I say is more important that how I say it. SECTION II Logical Reasoning


Instructions: Read carefully the questions and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the answer sheet. Questions: 41 65. Each question carries 2 (two) marks. 41. Professor Lahiri must have revealed information that was embarrassing to the college. After all, to have been publicly censured by the head of the college, as Lahiri was, a professor must either have revealed information that embarrassed the college or has been guilty of gross professional negligence, and Lahiris professional behaviour is impeccable. Which one of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to that in the argument above? a. According to company policy, employees who are either frequently absent without notice or who are habitually late receive an official warning. Since Ms. Dhinka has never received such a warning, rumours that she is habitually late must be false. b. Any employee of Janki, Patel, and Lanu, who discussed a client with a member of the press will either be fired or demoted. But since Janki employees never discuss their clients at all, no Janki employee will ever be demoted. c. Anyone promoted to supervisor must either have worked on the shop floor for three years or have an influential sponsor. Babu, therefore, has an influential sponsor, since he was promoted to supervisor after a year on the shop floor. d. Anyone who is either awarded a letter of commendation or who receives a bonus must be recommended by a company officer. Simon has been recommended by a company officer and will receive a bonus, so he must not have been awarded a letter of commendation. Slash and burn agriculture is the process of burning forest areas, leaving behind vegetable ash that provides fertilizer for three or four years of crops. On the cleared land nutrients come out of the soil, however, and the land is no longer good for farming. New land is then cleared by burning and the entire process starts again. Since most farming in tropical areas uses this method, forests there will eventually be permanently destroyed. The argument depends on the assumption that: a. Forests in tropical areas do not regenerate well enough to restore themselves once they have been cleared by the slash and burn method. b. Other methods of agriculture are not as destructive to the environment in tropical regions as the slash and burn method is. c. Forests in tropical areas are naturally deficient in nutrients that are needed for the growth of plants that are not native to those areas. d. Slash and burn agriculture is most suitable for farming in tropical areas.



In a jurisdiction where use of headlights is optional when visibility is good, drivers who use headlights are less likely to be involved in a collision than are drivers who use headlights only when visibility is poor. Yet Highway Safety Department records show that making use of headlights mandatory at all times does nothing to reduce the overall number of collisions. Which of the following, if true, most helps resolve the apparent discrepancy in the paragraph above? a. In jurisdictions were use of headlights is optional when visibility is good, one driver in four uses headlights for daytime driving in good weather. b. A law making use of headlights mandatory at all times is not especially difficult to enforce. c. Only very careful drivers use headlights when their use is not legally required. d. There are some jurisdictions in which it is illegal to use headlights when visibility is good. Recent advances in cataract surgery show that high-technology medicine is increasing the nations health care costs. Cataracts are a major cause of blindness, especially in elderly people. Fifteen years ago, cataract surgery was painful and not effective all the time. Due to new technology used in cataract surgery, the surgery now restores vision drastically and is not as expensive. These two factors have caused the number of cataract surgeries performed to increase, which has, in turn, driven up the total amount spent on cataract surgery. Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage above? a. Fifteen years ago, very few people had successful cataract surgery. b. In the long term, the advantages of advanced medical technology will probably be out-weighed by the disadvantages. c. The total amount spent on cataract surgery has increased because the increased number of people choosing to have the surgery more than offsets the decrease in cost per operation. d. Fifteen years ago, cataract surgery was affordable for more people than it was last year. All students at Jitnu College were asked to label themselves liberal, conservative or in-between politically. Of the students, 25 percent labeled themselves conservative, 24 percent labeled themselves liberal, and 51 percent labeled themselves inbetween. When asked about a particular set of issues, however, 77 percent of the students endorsed what is generally regarded as a liberal position. What would resolve the apparent discrepancy? a. More students who labelled themselves in-between than students who labelled themselves liberal opposed what is defined as a liberal position on that set of issues. b. The majority of students who labelled themselves in-between opposed what is defined as a liberal position on that set of issues. c. Some students who labelled themselves liberal endorsed what is defined as a conservative position on that set of issues. d. Some students who labelled themselves conservative endorsed what is defined as a liberal position on that set of issues. Approximately 8.4 million women who earn incomes have preschool-age children, and approximately 5.6 million women are the sole income earners for their families. These figures indicate that there are very few income earning women who have preschool-age children but are not the sole income earners for their families. A major flaw in the reasoning is that it: a. Relies on figures that are too imprecise to support the conclusion drawn




b. Overlooks the possibility that there is little or no overlap between the two populations of women cited c. Does not Indicate whether the difference between the two figures cited will remain stable over time d. Ignores the possibility that families with preschool-age children may also have older children 47. Criticism that the press is influenced by public sentiment ignores the fact that the press is a profit-making institution. Like other private institutions, the press has to make money to survive. If the press were not profit making, who would support it? The only other option is subsidy and, with it, outside control. It is easy to get subsidies for propaganda, but no one is willing to subsidize honest journalism. It can be properly inferred from the passage that if the press is: a. Not subsidized, it wont be subject to outside control b. Not subsidized, it will not bring out propaganda c. Not to be subsidized, it cannot be called a profit-making institution d. To produce honest journalism, it has to be a profit-making institution There is no such thing as educational television. While a classroom encourages social interaction, television encourages isolation. School is centred on the growth of language, but television depends on mostly visual images. In school, fun is merely a means to an end, but television is the end itself. Upon which one of the following assumptions does the author rely in the passage? a. The classroom should not be where anyone has fun. b. Only those experiences that are like those that take place in school are educational. c. Television promotes some of the values of school. d. Television as a powerful learning tool has not yet been realized to the fullest. When a study of entexs ability to prevent heart attacks in people gave positive results, researchers immediately submitted those results to a medical journal, which published them four weeks later. Had the results been published in less than four weeks, many of the heart attacks that occurred during the delay would have been prevented. The conclusion drawn above would be most undermined if it were true that: a. The staff of the medical journal worked extra hours in order to publish the studys results as soon as possible b. Studies of entexs usefulness in reducing heart attacks in laborator animals remain inconclusive c. People who take entex regularly suffer a higher-than-average incidence of stomach pain d. A persons risk of suffering a heart attack drops only after that person has been taking aspirin regularly for three years School Teacher: Students do not write short stories nearly as well as they used to. Almost all of the short stories that my students have done for me this year have been poorly written. Which one of the following is the most serious weakness in the argument made by the professor? a. It requires corroboration that the change in the teachers students is representative of a change among all students. b. it does not provide any proof showing that the teacher is an accurate judge of short story writing ability. c. It does not take into account that the teacher maybe a poor teacher. d. It fails to define the terms to the extent needed.





Using technologies involving clean coal to run existing factories promises ultimately a huge reduction of polluting emissions and will affect all the pollutants that are a part of acid rain. The use of these technologies may cut sulphur dioxide emission by more than 80 percent and nitrogen oxide emissions by more than 50 percent. The emission of less nitrogen pollutants would lead to the formation of less noxious ozone in the troposphere. Which one of the following statements is an inference that can be drawn from the information given in the passage? a. Sulphur dioxide emissions are the most dangerous pollutants present in acid rain. b. Noxious ozone is formed by chemical reactions involving sulphur dioxide. c. Twenty percent of the present level of sulphur dioxide emission in the atmosphere is not a harmful level. d. The choice of technologies used in factories may reduce the formation of noxious ozone in the troposphere. The last outdoor drive-in movie theatre in Nova Scotia closed recently. The owners claimed that it could not regularly attract large enough audiences to remain viable. However, for an entire week-the final week of the theatres operation, after the announcement of the impending closure-the place was sold out every night and made a healthy profit. Therefore, the owners claim was clearly false. Which one of the following contains an error of reasoning most similar to that made in the argument above? a. On the many occasions to the present when the librarys budget was cut, staff layoffs resulted, so even though the administration denies it, the proposed budget cuts are bound to mean staff layoffs. b. The proposed cuts in library funding would require reducing the hours of the periodicals room. But that is a room in which many students like to study, so the proposed cuts are bound to stir up considerable opposition. c. All of the students who came to the meeting about proposed cuts in library funcing were strongly opposed to the cuts, so all of the students currently enrolled must be strongly opposed. d. The administration claims that the librarys funding must be cut because of last years poor library fund drive. However, the athletic departments budget is being increased. Therefore, the administrations claim must be false. In many corporations, employees are being replaced by automated equipment in order same money. However, many employees who their jobs to automation will need government assistance to survive, and the same corporations that are laying people off will eventually pay for that assistance through increased taxes and unemployment insurance payments. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the authors argument? a.Many employees who have already lost their jobs to automation have been unable to find new jobs. b.Many corporations that have failed to automate have seen their profiles decline. c. Taxes and unemployment insurance are paid also by corporations that are not automating. d.Most of the new jobs created by automation pay less than the jobs eliminated by automation did.




The sustained massive use of pesticides in farming has two effects that are especially pernicious. First, it often kills off the pests natural enemies in the area. Second, it often unintentionally gives rise to insecticide-resistant pests, since those insects that survive a particular insecticide will be the ones most resistant to it, any they are the ones left to breed. From the above, it can be inferred that the effectiveness of the sustained massive use of pesticides can be extended by doing which of the following, assuming that each is a realistic option? a. Using only chemically stable pesticides b. Periodically switching the type of insecticide used c. Gradually increasing the quantities of pesticides used d. Breeding higher-yielding varieties of crop plants. Until he was dismissed, Kapil was considered one of the greatest intelligence agents of all time. It is clear that if his dismissal was justified, then Kapil was either incompetent or else disloyal. After the dismissal, it was shown that Kapil had never been incompetent. Thus, Hastings must have been disloyal. Which one of the following states an assumption upon which the argument depends? a. Kapils dismissal was justified. b. The dismissal of anyone who was disloyal would be justified. c. Anyone whose dismissal was justified was disloyal. d. If someone was disloyal or incompetent, then his dismissal was justified. Orchids always provide a stunning display of colour, but only those flowers that smell sweet are worth growing in a garden. Some orchids have no scent. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the passage? a. Some flowers which provide a stunning display of colour are not worth growing in a garden. b. Some flowers which are growing in a garden have to scent. c. Some orchids which smell sweet are not worth growing in a garden. d. Do sweet-smelling flower is worth growing in a garden unless it provides a stunning display of colour. Recently, highly skilled workers in Bihar have left jobs in large numbers to move to Punjab. It is therefore likely that skilled workers who are still in Bihar are in high demand there. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? a. Factories in Bihar prefer to hire workers from Bihar rather than to get workers from outside. b. Major changes in Bihars economic structures have let to the eradication of many positions previously held by the highly skilled emigrants. c. Many of those who move from Bihar to Punjab need to acquire new skills after finding work in Punjab. d. Bihar plans to train many new workers to replace the highly skilled workers who have left.





The Renaissance painter Raphael used sumptuous colours in most of his paintings. Since the recently discovered Venetian Renaissance portrait contains sumptuous colors, it is probably by Raphael. Which of the following contains a pattern of flawed reasoning most similar to that in the argument above? a. Most Renaissance painters worked in a single medium, tempera or oil. Since the Renaissance painting Calypsos Bower is in oil, its painter probably always used oil. b. In Italian Renaissance painting, the most common subject was the Virgin Mary and child, so the most common subject in Western are probably is also the Virgin Mary and child. c. Works of art in the Renaissance were mostly commissioned by patrons, so the Renaissance work The Dances of Terpsichore was probably commissioned by a patron. d. The anonymous painting St. Sebastian is probably an early Florentine painting since it is in tempera, and most early Florentine paintings were in tempera. Some people have questioned why the Residents Association of Jandalnagar is supporting Rajs candidacy for President of the Association. But if the Association wants a President who will attract more businesses to the city, Raj is the only candidate it could support. So, since the Association is supporting Raj, it must have a goal of attracting more businesses to the town. The reasoning in the argument is in error because: a. The reasons the Residents Association should want to attract more businesses to the city are not given. b. The Residents Association could be supporting Rajs candidacy for reasons unrelated to attracting businesses to the city. c. Other groups besides are Residents Association may be supporting Rajs candidacy. d. The Residents Association may realize that attracting more businesses to the city is not in the best interest of its members. Eight years ago hunting was banned in Sattpur on the grounds that hunting endangers public safety. Now the boar population in the country I five times what it was before the ban. Boar are coming into residential areas in record numbers, damaging property, and causing car accidents that result in serious injury to those in the cars. Since there were never any hunting-related injuries in the city, clearly the ban was not only unnecessary but has created a danger to public safety that would not otherwise have existed. Which one of the following, if true, provides the strongest additional support for the conclusion above? a. In surrounding cities, where hunting is permitted, the size of the boar population has not increased in the last six years. b. Car accidents involving boar often result in damage to the car, injury to the driver, or both. c. When boar populations increase beyond optimal size, disease and malnutrition become more widespread among the boar population. d. In residential areas in Sattpur, many residents provide food for the boar.




When all students are treated equally in that they all have the same exposure to material, the rate, quality, and quantity of learning will vary from student to student. If all students are not master given materials, some of them need different types of help than others, as any teacher knows. If the statements above are true, which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of them? a. Unequal treatment of individual students is required in order to ensure equality with respect to the education that they pick up. b. The rate and quality of learning, where learning is the acquisition of the ability to solve problems within a given area depends on the quantity of teaching and individual student receives in any given area. c. The more experienced a teacher has, the more the students are bound to learn. d. All students should have identical exposure to learn the material being taught in any given area. Telecaster: Our television station has a responsibility to serve the public interest. So, when our critics say that our expose of events in the private lives of celebrities was too intrusive, we can only say that the public interest in these matters makes it our responsibility to bring them to light. Which one of the following is a flaw in the broadcasters defence of the radio stations practice? a. Assuming that there is a right to privacy b. Ignoring other grounds for criticism of the expose besides intrusion into peoples private lives c. Purposefully failing to specify what is defined as excessively intrusive d. Improperly exploiting an ambiguity in the phrase public interest A survey of alumni of the class of 2001 at Dandewal College yielded puzzling results. When asked to indicate their academic rank, half reported that they were in the top quarter of the graduating class in 2001. Which one of the following most helps account for the apparent contradiction above? a. A disproportionately large number of high-ranking alumni responded to the survey. b. Few respondents were mistaken about their class rank. c. Not all the alumni who were actually in the top quarter responded to the survey. d. Academic rank at Dandewal College was based on other factors in addition to average grades. Infants younger than eight months who have normal hearing can readily differential between acoustically similar sounds that are used as part of any language-and not just those used in language spoken by the people who raise them. Young adults can readily distinguish between such sounds only in languages that they regularly use. It is known that the physiological capacity to hear begins to lessen after infancy. So the observed difference in the abilities of infants and young adults to differentiate between acoustically similar speech sounds must be the result of the physiological lessening of hearing. The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument. a. Sets an arbitrary cut-off point of eight months for the age below which infants are able to differentiate acoustically similar speech sounds b. Does not explain how the abilities of two very difference populations are determined c. Ignores the fact that certain types of speech sounds occur in almost all languages d. Takes a factor that may contribute to an explanation of the observed difference as a sufficient explanation for that difference





Anuj: the highest priority should be given to the needs of the sales department, because without successful sales, the company as a whole would fail. Vishal: There are several departments other than sales that also must function successfully for the company to succeed. It is impossible to give the highest priority to all of them. Vishal criticizes Anujs argument by pointing out: a. That the sales department taken by itself is not critical to the companys success as a whole. b. The ambiguity of term highest priority c. That the departments other than sales are more vital to the companys success d. An absurd consequence of its apparent assumption that a departments necessity earns it the highest priority

SECTION III Analytical Reasoning Instructions : Read carefully the questions and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the answer sheet. Questions : 66 85. Each question carries 11/2 (one and a half) marks. Eight dogs in a training class are learning to follow two commandsheel and stay. Each dog is either a shepherd, a retriever, or a terrier, and each of these three breeds is represented at least once among the group. All female dogs in the group are retrievers. The results of the first lesson are as follows: At least tow of the dogs have learned to follow the heel command, but not the stay command. Al least two of the dogs have learned to follow the stay command, but not the heel command. At least one of the dogs has learned to follow the both command. Among the eight dogs, only terriers have learned to follow the stay command. 66. Which of the following statements CANNOT be true? a. The group includes more females than males. b. The group includes fewer terriers than shepherds c. The group includes more shepherds than retrievers d. More of the dogs have learned to stay than to heel. If each dog has learned to follow at least one of the two commands, all of the following must true EXCEPT: a. All retrievers have learned to heel. b. All shepherds have learned to heel. c. All terriers have learned to stay. d. No retriever has learned to stay.



If four of the dogs are male and four of the dogs are female, all of the following must be true EXCEPT: a. Four of the dogs have learned to heel. b. One of the dogs is a shepherd. c. Four of the dogs are retrievers. d. Three of the dogs are terriers. If the group includes more shepherds than terriers, the minimum number of male dogs among the group that have learned to heel is a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 Questions: 70 73


There are five tin cans in a row, labeled one through five, from left to right. The five cans together contain a total of 10 marbles four red, two green, two blue, one orange and one yellow. Each can contains at least one marble. The can containing the yellow marble is adjacent to the can containing the orange marble. The fourth can contains exactly three marbles, of which, exactly two are red. Exactly one of the blue marbles is in the second can. The first can contains no blue marbles. 70 If both green marbles are in the second can, how many marbles does the fifth can contain? a. one b. two c. three d. four If the fifth can contains the orange marble and nothing else, which one of the following can possibly be a complete and accurate list of the marbles in the third can? a. two red marbles b. one green marble and one red marble c. one blue marble and one green marble d. one blue marble, one green marble and one red marble If the first can contains three marbles, which one of the following CANNOT be true? a. The first can contains a green marble b. The first can contains a yellow marble. c. The first can contains a red marble. d. The last can contains a yellow marble. If the orange marble must be in the same can as two green marbles, which one of the following pairs of cans contains no red marbles? a. the first and second b. the first and third c. the first and fifth d. the second and fifth




Questions: 70 73 A salesperson will display nine chocolates in three groups of three chocolates each. The groups are labeled A, B and C. Four of the chocolates F, G, H and J are domestic chocolates, and five P, Q, R, S and T are imported chocolates. Each chocolate will be displayed in exactly one of the three groups. The display must meet the following conditions. At least one chocolate in each group must be a domestic chocolate. F must be displayed with two imported chocolates. Q must be displayed in Group C. S must be displayed in Group A. Neither F nor J nor R can be displayed in the same group as Q. 74. If both P and T are displayed n Group B, then which one of the following must be true? a. R is displayed in Group A. b. F is displayed in Group A. c. G is displayed in Group A. d. H is displayed in Group A. All of the following are groups of three chocolates that can be displayed together in Group B EXCEPT: a. F, P and R b. G, H and T c. G, J and R d. J, P and T If G is displayed in Group A, when which one of the following could be true? a. H is displayed in Group A. b. J is displayed in Group B. c. P is displayed in Group A. d. T is displayed in Group C. If both H and P are displayed in Group B, then which one of the following must be the chocolates displayed in Group A? a. F, J, S b. F, R, S c. F, S, T d. J, S, R Which one of the following are groups of three chocolates that can be displayed together in Group C: a. F, S, T b. Q, J, R c. Q, G, T d. Q, P, T





Questions: 79 85 A Government budget committee must reduce exactly five of eight areas of expenditure G, L, M, N, P, R, S, and Win accordance with the following conditions: If both G and S are reduced, W is also reduced. If N is reduced, neither R nor S is reduced. If P is reduced, L is not reduced. Of the three areas L, M, and R, exactly two are reduced.


Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the areas of expenditure reduced by the committee? a. G, L, M, N, W b. G, L, M, P, W c. G, M, N, R, W d. G, M, P, R, S If W is reduce, which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the four other areas of expenditure to be reduced? a. G, M, P, S b. L, M, N, R c. N, R d. M, P, R, S If P is reduced, which one of the following could be a pair of areas of expenditure both of which are reduced? a. G, M b. M, R c. N, R d. R, S If both L and S are reduce, which one of the following could be a pair of areas of expenditure both of which are reduced? a. G, M b. G, P c. N, R d. N, W If R is not reduced, which one of the following must be true? a. G is reduced. b. N is not reduced. c. P is reduced. d. S is reduced. If both M and R are reduced, which one of the following is a pair of areas neither of which could be reduced? a. G, L b. G, N c. L, N d. L, P Which one of the following areas must be reduced? a. G b. L c. N SECTION IV Mathematics d. W







Instructions: From the four answers, choose the most appropriate answer and shade the relevant square. Questions: 86 95. Each question carries 2 (two) marks. 86. The arithmetic mean of 7 numbers is 17. If one of the numbers is excluded their mean is 16. The excluded number is a. 18 b. 16 c. 15 d. 13 A farmer sells two horses at Rs. 48000 each and doing so gains 20% in one and loses 20% in the other. The final tally is: a. no gain, no loss b. loss of Rs. 4000 c. gain of Rs. 4000 d. gain of Rs.6400 A man can swim across a river at 8 km / hour, downstream and up the river at 4 km / hour. The distance traveled by the man in still water in 2 hours is a. 24 km b. 16 km c. 12 km d. 8 km A bucket is filled in 12 minute when two taps are made to function simultaneously. If one tap fills the tank 10 minutes faster than the other, the second tap fills the tank in a. 25 minutes b. 28 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 35 minutes





The Republic day of India in 1989 fell on Thursday. What day will May 26 be in the year 2000 fell on a. Wednesday b. Friday c. Thursday d. Tuesday A train speeds past a pole in 10 seconds and a platform of length 200 metres in 30 seconds. The length of the train in metres is a. 100 b. 200 c. 50 d. Cant be determined A farmer has some horses and hens. The number of heads is 36 and the number of feet equal 120. Then the number of horses will be a. 12 b. 15 c. 60% d. 24 A man speeds 80% of his income. His income is increased by 30% and he increased his expenditure by 25%. His savings are increased by a. 50% b. 32 % c. 60% d. 46 The prices for the fuel used in airplanes shot up by 15% as a result of the hike in the price of crudes. The price of fuel before the hike was Rs. 280 per litre. The distance between Delhi to Mumbai is 2400 kilometres. The plane consumes 200 litres of fuel for every 1200 kilometres. Ticket prices on this sector were Rs. 5600, before the price hike. With 100 passengers on board the company use to break-even. Assuming other costs to be constant, what should be the hike in ticket prices so that company continues to break even, with 100 passengers on board? a. Rs. 560 b. Rs. 840 c. Rs. 280 d. Rs. 1120 A Dairy purchases pure milk from a milkman at Rs 20 per litre, and then mixes Milk and water in a ratio of 7 : 3, the resulting solution is then sold at28 per litre. What is profit percentage for the daily? a. 100% b. 66.66% c. 90% d. 120% SECTION V General Aptitude






Instructions : From the four answers, choose the most appropriate answer and shade the relevant square. Questions: 96 105. Each question carries (half) mark. 96. 97. Which constituency did Varun Gandhi contest the 2009 Lok Sabha elections from? a. Amethi b. Bellary c. Pilibhit d. Zikarpur Name the Chief Justice of Pakistan, who, after much controversy, was re-instated in March09 by the President Asif Ali Zardari? a. Iftikhar Ahmed b. Pervez Kiyani c. Syed Yousaf Raza Gilani d. Iftikhar Mohammed Chaudhry Who is the current president of BCCI? a. Lalit Modi b. Sheshank Manohar c. Sharad pawar d. Jagmohan Dalmiya Which country is hosting the 2009 ICC T 20 World Cup? a. South Africa b. India c. England d. New Zealand



100. Which of these audit firms came under the scanner for its role in Satyam imbroglio? a. Ernest and Young b. KPMG c. Delloitte d. PricewaterhouseCoopers 101. The 2009 elections, conducted recently, were the ______________ Lok Sabha elections? a. 14th b. 13th c. 12th d. 15th 102. Which movie won the Academy Award for the Best motion picture of the year for 2008? a. Wall-E b. Slumdog Millionaire c. The Dark Knight d. Frost/Nixon 103. Which former High Court Judge has agreed to defend M.S. Pandher, accused in the Nithari case? a. R. K. Naseem b. R. S. Sodhi c. Khalid Khan d. Rama Jain 104. Who is the current president of the BJP? a. Venkiah Naidu b. L.K. Advani c. Arun Jaitley d. Rajnath Singh 105. Who presented the 2009 Interim Union budget of India? a. Manmohan Singh b. P.A. Chidambram c. Pranab Mukherjee d. A. K. Antony Questions: 106 120. Each question carries 1 (one) mark. 106. The First Attorney General of India was: a. Ashok Desai b. Ram Jethmalani c. M. C. Setalvad d. Jawaharlal Nehru 107. The Supreme Court of India has all of the following types of jurisdiction except: a. Appellate b. Advisory c. Original d. Concurrent 108. The Bar Council of India was constituted under the: a. Advocates Act, 1961 b. Government of India Act, 1919 c. Right to Information Act, 2005 d. Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, 1987 109. The Constitution of India consists of a preamble. In addition to the preamble, there are three hundred and ninety five articles, twelve schedules, ninety-four amendments, and five appendices, contained within: a. 22 parts b. 15 parts c. 60 parts d. 5 parts 110. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India was: a. Dr. Ambedkar b. Sardar Valabhbhai Patel c. Jawaharlal Nehru d. Mahatma Gandhi 111. The Supreme Court of India came into existence on: a. 15th of February, 1949 b. 28th of January,1950 th c. 20 of August, 1947 d. 27th January, 1958

112. The Attorney General of India is the Indian governments primary lawyer in the: a. High Courts of India b. International Criminal Court c. European Court of Justice d. Supreme Court of India 113. The original Constitution of India of 1950 envisaged a Supreme Court with a Chief Justice and: a. 8 judges b. 14 judges c. 24 judges d. 7 judges 114. Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of: a. 59 years b. 50 years c. 65 years 115. The current Chief Justice of India is: a. B. N. Agarwal b. K.G. Balakrishnan c. Tarun Chatterjee d. H. L. Dattu 116. Judicial review is a feature in the Constitution of India that was adopted from: a. The British laws b. The United States Constitution c. The Magna Carta d. The German laws 117. India follows the: a. Civil law legal system c. Common law legal system b. Socialist law legal system d. British law legal system d. 69 years

118. Since 1995, the number of executions that have taken place in India is: a. 1 b. 7 c. 3 d. 10 119. The first female judge of the Supreme Court of India was: a. Sujata V Manohar b. Ruma Pal c. Fathima Beevi d. Indira Jaisingh 120. The Constitution of India has undergone: a. 45 Amendments b. 60 Amendments c. 75 Amendments d 94 Amendments

PART II Descriptive Part

Write an essay of 200 250 words on any one of the topics given below. (20 marks)
A. Death Penalty should be abolished. OR B. The role of women: in the development of our country.