MA 2930, March 30, 2011 Worksheet 9

1.
Find the solution (if possible) of y +y = 0 for the following sets of boundary values: (a) y(0) = 0, y() = 0 (b) y(0) = 0, y () = 0 (c) y (0) = 0, y() = 0 (d) y (0) = 0, y () = 0 How would you make sense of these results? (Hint: think graphically!) For which of these boundary values would the equation y + y = cos 2x be solvable? The general solution of the dierential equation is y(x) = c1 cos x + c2 sin x Now lets apply the boundary conditions: (a) y(0) = c1 = 0 and y() = c1 = 0. So the solutions are y(x) = c2 sin x. Graphically this makes sense because any sine with period 2 can satisfy the boundary conditions, but no cosine. Note that there are innitely many solutions, illustrating that there is no uniqueness result for BVPs. (b) y(0) = c1 = 0 and y () = c2 = 0. So the only solution is y(x) = 0. (c) y (0) = c2 = 0 and y() = c1 = 0. So the only solution is again y(x) = 0. (d) y (0) = c2 = 0 and y () = c2 = 0. So the solutions are y(x) = c1 cos x. The general solution of the dierential equation of y + y = cos 2x is y(x) = c1 cos x + c2 sin x 1/3 cos 2x Now lets apply the boundary conditions: (a) y(0) = c1 1/3 = 0 and y() = c1 1/3 = 0. So there is no solution. Graphically this makes sense because no cosine can satisfy these boundary conditions. This also illustrates that there is no existence result for BVPs either. (b) By the same reasoning as above there is no solution. (c) y (0) = c2 = 0 and y() = c1 1/3 = 0. So the only solution is y(x) = 1/3 cos x 1/3 cos 2x. (d) y (0) = c2 = 0 and y () = c2 = 0. So the solutions are y(x) = c1 cos x 1/3 cos 2x.

2.
For which real numbers does y + 2 y = 0 have a solution for each of the boundary conditions (a)-(d) above? How would you make sense of this result? The general solution is y(x) = c1 cos x + c2 sin x Note that the solutions (more precisely their period/frequency) depend on the parameter . Lets apply the boundary conditions now: (a) y(0) = c1 = 0 and so y() = c2 sin = 0. Either c2 = 0 or = n, an integer. So the solutions are either y = 0 or y = c2 sin nx where n is an integer. Graphically this makes sense because only a sine function whose period is an integral quotient of 2 can satisfy the boundary conditions. (b) y(0) = c1 = 0 and y () = c2 cos = 0, so either c2 = 0 or = n/2 where n is an odd integer. So, either y(x) = 0 or y(x) = c2 sin nx/2 where n is an odd integer. (c) y (0) = c2 = 0 and y() = c1 cos = 0, so either c1 = 0 or = n/2 where n is an odd integer. So, either y(x) = 0 or y(x) = c1 cos nx/2 where n is an odd integer. (d) y (0) = c2 = 0 and y () = c1 sin = 0. so either c1 = 0 or = n where n is an integer. So, either y(x) = 0 or y(x) = c1 cos nx where n is an integer. Note that in all cases we get a solution only if the frequency is appropriate to the boundary conditions.

3.
Which of the following pairs of functions are mutually orthogonal under the usual inner product for periodic functions? (Treat them as periodic with the smallest possible common period.) (a) sin 2x + cos 3x and sin 3x + cos 5x (b) sin 2x + sin 4x and sin x + sin 4x (c) 1 and the function in problem 4(a) To do these we are utilize two properties of inner products: (1) bilinearity: (a, b+ c) = (a, b) + (a, c) and (a + b, c) = (a, c) + (b, c), (2) inner products of sines and cosines are zero unless the two functions are the same.

We can, therefore, write

(sin 2x + cos 3x, sin 3x + cos 5x) = (sin 2x, sin 3x) + (sin 2x, cos 5x) + (cos 3x, sin 3x) + (cos 3x, cos 5x = 0+0+0+0=0 So the two functions are orthogonal to each other. Similarly, (sin 2x + sin 4x, sin x + sin 4x) = (sin 2x, sin x) + (sin 2x, sin 4x) + (sin 4x, sin x) + (sin 4x, sin 4x) = 0 + 0 + 0 + /2 = /2 As to part (c)
1 0 1

1 f (x)dx =
1 1

1dx +
0

1dx = 1 + 1 = 0

So the two functions are orthogonal.

4.
Find the Fourier series of the following functions 1, 1 < x 0 (a) f (x) = 1, 0<x1 (b) f (x) = tan x In each case, where does the Fourier series converge? Where does its value equal the value of the function? (Hint: Draw the graph of the function rst, and then, apply the appropriate theorem.) Ill let you nd the Fourier series of part (a) yourself - you have done something similar on the homework. It converges everywhere because the function and its derivative are piecewise continuous. However, the function and its Fourier series are equal only at values of x = n where n is an integer because at any such n the series converges to 0 (average of the left and right hand limits of the function at n) whereas the function is not dened there. For tan x I dont know how to explicitly calculate the values of the coefcients of its Fourier series - the integrals seem unsolvable to me. However, the series - whatever it is - converges everywhere because tan x and its derivative cot x are piecewise continuous. Except at x = n/2 (n an odd integer) where tan x is not dened, the Fourier series equals the function.