Question 1 Herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus infections are usually treated with: a. aciclovir b.

no known treatment c. ribavirin d. ganciclovir You answered "ribavirin". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "aciclovir" Reference: GANCICLOVIR is used to treat cytomegalovirus (CMV) while RIBAVIRIN may be used to treat respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Question 2 The Tetanus Toxoid vaccine is given to protect women against tetanus and also prevent neonatal tetanus in their newborn infants. The TT5 vaccine gives this duration of protection for the mother: a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 10 years d. lifetime You answered "lifetime". This is the correct answer. Reference: The TT2 vaccine gives 3 years protection, the TT3 vaccine gives 5 years and the TT4 vaccine gives 10 years. Question 3 The drug of choice for Leptospirosis is: a. Doxycycline b. Ethambutol c. Isoniazid

d. Pyrazinamide You answered "Isoniazid". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "Doxycycline" Reference: Ethambutol, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide (also rifampicin and streptomycin) are all first-line anti-tuberculosis drugs. Question 4 A condition/category of pneumonia in patients with recent closecontact with the health care system but are not hospitalised: a. healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) b. community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) c. hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) d. ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) You answered "community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP)" Reference: Healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) is a category of pneumonia in patients with recent close contact with the health care system. HCAP is a condition in patients who are not hospitalised (similar to community-acquired pneumonia, CAP) but its causes, prognosis, prevention and treatment are more similar to hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). Question 5 A child is said to be fully-immunized after completing THE FOLLOWING SET OF DOSES of vaccines before 12 months of age: a. 1 dose of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 3 doses of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine b. 1 dose of BCG vaccine, 2 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 3 doses of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine c. 1 dose of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral

Polio vaccine, 1 dose of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine d. 3 doses of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 1 dose of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine You answered "3 doses of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 1 dose of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "1 dose of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 3 doses of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine" Reference: A fully-immunized child (FIC) is supposed to have received 1 dose of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine (OPV), 3 doses of Hepatitis B vaccine and 1 dose of Measles vaccine. Question 6 A World Health Organization (WHO) program with the goal to make vaccines available to all children throughout the world: a. Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) b. National Immunization Days (NID) c. Garantisadong Pambata (GP) d. Knock-Out Polio (KOP) You answered "Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)". This is the correct answer. Reference: The World Health Organization (WHO) initiated the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) in May 1974 with the objective to vaccinate children throughout the world. National Immunization Days (NID), Knock Out Polio (KOP) and Garantisadong Pambata (GP) are special campaigns by the DOH to further improve the implementation of WHO's EPI program. Question 7 A term used to describe one of several diseases in which individuals who have not recently been hospitalized develop an infection of the

lungs (pneumonia): a. community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) b. healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) c. hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) d. ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) You answered "community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)". This is the correct answer. Reference: Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is a term used to describe one of several diseases in which individuals who have not recently been hospitalized develop an infection of the lungs (pneumonia). CAP is a common illness and can affect people of all ages. CAP often causes problems like difficulty in breathing, fever, chest pains, and a cough. CAP occurs because the areas of the lung which absorb oxygen (alveoli) from the atmosphere become filled with fluid and cannot work effectively. Question 8 DPT vaccine stands for: a. Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus Vaccine b. Diphtheria-Polio-Tetanus Vaccine c. Diphtheria-Pertussis-Toxoid Vaccine d. Diphtheria-Polio-Toxoid Vaccine You answered "Diphtheria-Pertussis-Toxoid Vaccine". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus Vaccine" Reference: DPT stands for "Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus". Question 9 The name of the vaccine that protects the possibility of TB meningitis and other TB infections in which infants are prone: a. Bacillus Calmette-Gurin (BCG)

b. Bacillus cereus c. Bacillus anthracis d. Bacillus thuringiensis You answered "Bacillus Calmette-Gurin (BCG)". This is the correct answer. Reference: Bacillus Calmette-Gurin (or Bacille Calmette-Gurin, BCG) is a vaccine against tuberculosis that is prepared from a strain of the attenuated (weakened) live bovine tuberculosis bacillus, Mycobacterium bovis, that has lost its virulence in humans by being specially cultured in an artificial medium for years. Bacillus cereus is an endemic, soil-dwelling, Gram-positive, rod-shaped, beta hemolytic bacterium. Some strains are harmful to humans and cause foodborne illness, while other strains can be beneficial as probiotics for animals. Bacillus thuringiensis (or Bt) is a Grampositive, soil-dwelling bacterium, commonly used as a biological alternative to a pesticide. Bacillus anthracis is a Gram-positive spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium that causes anthrax. Question 10 The BCG vaccine is a: a. live, attenuated bacteria b. killed bacteria c. weakened toxin d. weakened virus You answered "live, attenuated bacteria". This is the correct answer. Reference: The pertussis vaccine is a killed bacteria, the diphtheria and tetanus vaccines are weakened toxins and the oral polio vaccine (OPV) is a weakened virus. Question 11 Pneumonia occurring more than 48 hours after patients have been intubated and received mechanical ventilation via tracheostomy or endotracheal tube:

a. ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) b. hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) c. community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) d. healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) You answered "ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)". This is the correct answer. Reference: Ventilator-associated pneumonia is defined as pneumonia occurring more than 48 hours after patients have been intubated and received mechanical ventilation. Question 12 The herpes simplex virus (HSV) is seen mainly in: a. newborns b. toddlers c. school-age children d. infants You answered "newborns". This is the correct answer. Reference: The herpes simplex virus (HSV) is MORE COMMON IN NEWBORNS more than in any other age group mentioned. Question 13 The most common cause of pneumonia in adults: a. bacteria b. fungi c. parasite d. virus You answered "virus". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "bacteria" Reference: VIRUSES are the most common cause of pneumonia in

CHILDREN. Fungi and parasites are less common causes of pneumonia. Question 14 The most common cause of pneumonia in children: a. virus b. bacteria c. fungi d. parasite You answered "bacteria". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "virus" Reference: BACTERIAS are the most common cause of pneumonia in ADULTS. Fungi and parasites are less common causes of pneumonia. Question 15 What is the dosage in mL of DPT, Hepatitis B and Measles vaccines? a. 0.5 mL b. 0.2 mL c. 0.05 mL d. 0.8 mL You answered "0.5 mL". This is the correct answer. Reference: The Hepatitis B and Measles vaccines dosage is 0.5 mL. Question 16 All are Gram-negative bacteria, except: a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Escherichia coli

d. Staphylococcus aureus You answered "Escherichia coli". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "Staphylococcus aureus" Reference: Staphylococcus aureus is THE ONLY Gram-positive bacteria in the choices given. Question 17 Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) may be treated with: a. ribavirin b. aciclovir c. ganciclovir d. no known treatment You answered "no known treatment". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "ribavirin" Reference: Herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus infections are usually treated with ACICLOVIR, while cytomegalovirus (CMV) is treated with GANCICLOVIR. Question 18 The route of administration of the Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus (DPT) Vaccine: a. Intradermal b. Intramuscular c. Subcutaneous d. Oral You answered "Intramuscular". This is the correct answer. Reference: The DPT vaccine is given intramuscularly, BCG is given intradermally, the measles vaccine is given subcutaneously and the polio vaccine is given orally.

Question 19 The minimum interval between doses of Oral Polio vaccines: a. 4 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 2 weeks You answered "6 weeks". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "4 weeks" Reference: There are three (3) doses of the oral polio vaccine (OPV) and the minimum interval between doses is four (4) weeks. Question 20 The earliest possible age that the BCG vaccine can be given: a. at birth or anytime after birth b. at least 6 weeks later c. at least 9 weeks later d. as early as possible during pregnancy You answered "at birth or anytime after birth". This is the correct answer. Reference: The Bacillus Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine given at earliest possible age protects the possibility of TB meningitis and other TB infections in which infants are prone. The DPT vaccine and Oral Polio vaccine is given at 6 weeks while the Measles vaccine is given at 9 months. The Tetanus Toxoid vaccine (TT1) is given to the mother as early as possible during pregnancy. Question 21 Any pneumonia contracted by a patient in a hospital at least 48 to 72 hours after being admitted. It is usually caused by a bacterial infection, rather than a virus.

a. healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) b. community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) c. hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) d. ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) You answered "hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)". This is the correct answer. Reference: Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) or nosocomial pneumonia refers to any pneumonia contracted by a patient in a hospital at least 48 72 after being admitted. It is usually caused by a bacterial infection, rather than a virus. Question 22 Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is seen mainly in people with: a. immune system problems b. high-grade fever c. internal hemorrhage d. brain and spinal cord injury You answered "immune system problems". This is the correct answer. Reference: Those patient's whose immune systems have been weakened by disease or drug treatment such as organ transplant recipients (immunosuppressed) or people infected with HIV are susceptible to CMV. Question 23 One (1) dose of the Measles vaccine is given at this age: a. at birth or anytime after birth b. 6 weeks c. 9 months d. 12 months You answered "6 weeks".

This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "9 months" Reference: The Measles vaccine is given to a child of 9 months of age. The DPT vaccine and Oral Polio vaccine is given at 6 weeks. The BCG vaccine is given at the earliest possible age. A child is said to be fully-immunized after receiving the seven (7) vaccinepreventable diseases before 12 months of age. Question 24 A Gram-positive bacteria commonly isolated from the throat in people who do not have pneumonia: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Pseudonomas aeruginosa d. Legionella pneumophila You answered "Pseudonomas aeruginosa". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "Streptococcus pneumoniae" Reference: All the rest ARE NOT Gram-positive bacteria's. Question 25 A pneumonia caused by a virus is called: a. viral pneumonia b. influenza virus c. respiratory syncytial virus d. human parainfluenza virus You answered "influenza virus". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "viral pneumonia" Reference: All the rest are COMMON CAUSES of viral pneumonia.

Question 1 The interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the circulating blood and the cells of the body tissues (throughout the body): a. internal respiration b. external respiration c. inhalation d. expiration You answered "expiration". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "internal respiration" Reference: Internal respiration is the interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the circulating blood and the cells of the body tissues. External respiration is the interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli of the lungs and the pulmonary blood. Inhalation or inspiration refers to the intake of air into the lungs. Exhalation or expiration refers to breathing out or the movement of gases from the lungs to the atmosphere. Question 2 Abnormally slow respirations are referred to as: a. bradypnea b. tachypnea c. apnea d. eupnea You answered "tachypnea". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "bradypnea" Reference: Abnormally slow respirations are referred to as bradypnea. Abnormally fast respirations are called tachypnea. Apnea is referred to as the absence of breathing. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called eupnea.

Question 3 Heat loss from the body through continuous evaporation of moisture from the respiratory tract and from the mucosa of the mouth and from the skin: a. Vaporization b. Convection c. Conduction d. Radiation You answered "Vaporization". This is the correct answer. Reference: Vaporization is continuous evaporation of moisture from the respiratory tract and from the mucosa of the mouth and from the skin. Convection is the dispersion of heat by air currents. Conduction is the transfer of heat from one molecule when in comes in contact to a molecule of lower temperature. Radiation is the transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without contact between the two objects. Question 4 Measured in degrees, this vital sign reflects the balance between the heat produced and the heat lost from the body: a. Body temperature b. Core temperature c. Surface temperature d. Basal body temperature You answered "Basal body temperature". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "Body temperature" Reference: Body temperature reflects the balance between the heat produced and the heat lost from the body. Core and surface temperatures are two kinds of body temperature. Core temperature (relatively constant) is the temperature of the deep tissues of the body, such as the abdominal and pelvic cavities. Surface temperature (rises and falls in response to the environment) is the

temperature of the skin, the subcutaneous tissue and fat. Basal body temperature is the lowest temperature attained by the body during rest (usually during sleep). Question 5 A pulse oximeter is a noninvasive device that measures a patient's arterial blood oxygen saturation (SaO2). What percent of SaO2 reading is considered life threatening? a. 100% b. 95% c. 80% d. 60% You answered "95%". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "60%" Reference: Normal SaO2 is 95% to 100%. An SaO2 below 70% is life threatening. Question 6 A blood pressure that is persistently above normal is called: a. hypertension b. hypotension c. primary hypertension d. secondary hypertension You answered "hypertension". This is the correct answer. Reference: Hypertension is a blood pressure that is persistently above normal. Hypotension is a blood pressure below normal. An elevated blood pressure of unknown cause is called primary hypertension. An elevated blood pressure of known cause is called secondary hypertension.

Question 7 Breathing that is normal in rate and depth: a. eupnea b. bradypnea c. tachypnea d. apnea You answered "eupnea". This is the correct answer. Reference: Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called eupnea. Abnormally slow respirations are referred to as bradypnea. Abnormally fast respirations are called tachypnea and apnea is absence of breathing. Question 8 During assessment of respiration, an inhalation and an exhalation count as how many respiration? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 You answered "4". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "1" Reference: An inhalation and an exhalation count as one respiration. Question 9 A shrill, harsh sound heard during inspiration with laryngeal obstruction: a. stridor b. stertor c. wheeze d. bubbling

You answered "stridor". This is the correct answer. Reference: Stridor - a shrill, harsh sound heard during inspiration with laryngeal obstruction. Stertor - snoring or sonorous respiration, usually due to a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Wheeze continuous, high-pitched musical squeak or whistling sound occurring on expiration and sometimes on inspiration when air moves through a narrowed or partially obstructed airway. Bubbling gurgling sounds heard as air passes through moist secretions in the respiratory tract. Question 10 The transfer of heat from one molecule when in comes in contact to a molecule of lower temperature is called: a. Conduction b. Radiation c. Convection d. Vaporization You answered "Conduction". This is the correct answer. Reference: Conduction is the transfer of heat from one molecule when in comes in contact to a molecule of lower temperature. Radiation is the transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without contact between the two objects. Convection is the dispersion of heat by air currents. Vaporization is continuous evaporation of moisture from the respiratory tract and from the mucosa of the mouth and from the skin. Question 11 The transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without contact between the two objects is called: a. Radiation b. Conduction

c. Convection d. Vaporization You answered "Radiation". This is the correct answer. Reference: Radiation is the transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without contact between the two objects. Conduction is the transfer of heat from one molecule when in comes in contact to a molecule of lower temperature. Convection is the dispersion of heat by air currents. Vaporization is continuous evaporation of moisture from the respiratory tract and from the mucosa of the mouth and from the skin. Question 12 This pulse site is usually used to measure blood pressure: a. brachial b. carotid c. apical d. popliteal You answered "brachial". This is the correct answer. Reference: The brachial pulse site is used to measure blood pressure. The carotid is used in cases of cardiac arrest and to determine circulation to the brain. The apical pulse is routinely used for infants and children up to 3 years of age, to determine discrepancies with radial pulse and in conjunction with some medications. The popliteal pulse site is used to determine circulation to the lower leg. Question 13 If taking a patient's pulse for the first time, when obtaining baseline data, or if the pulse is irregular, count for: a. a full minute b. 30 seconds

c. 15 seconds and multiply by 4 d. 2 minutes You answered "a full minute". This is the correct answer. Reference: In assessing a peripheral pulse, count for 15 seconds and multiply by 4. If taking a patient's pulse for the first time, when obtaining baseline data, or if the pulse is irregular, count for a full minute. Question 14 Underexpansion of the lungs characterized by shallow respirations: a. Hypoventilation b. Tachypnea c. Bradypnea d. Hyperventilation You answered "Tachypnea". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "Hypoventilation" Reference: Hypoventilation is the underexpansion of the lungs characterized by shallow respirations. Question 15 The vital or cardinal signs are: a. body temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure b. body temperature, pulse, blood pressure, basal metabolic rate c. core temperature, surface temperature, pulse, blood pressure d. body temperature, pulse, blood pressure, ventilation You answered "body temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure". This is the correct answer. Reference: The vital or cardinal signs are body temperature, pulse, respirations and blood pressure. Pulse oximetry is also commonly

measured as a traditional vital sign. Question 16 Continuous, high-pitched musical squeak or whistling sound occurring on expiration and sometimes on inspiration when air moves through a narrowed or partially obstructed airway: a. wheeze b. bubbling c. stridor d. stertor You answered "wheeze". This is the correct answer. Reference: Wheeze - continuous, high-pitched musical squeak or whistling sound occurring on expiration and sometimes on inspiration when air moves through a narrowed or partially obstructed airway. Bubbling - gurgling sounds heard as air passes through moist secretions in the respiratory tract. Stridor - a shrill, harsh sound heard during inspiration with laryngeal obstruction. Stertor - snoring or sonorous respiration, usually due to a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Question 17 The pressure exerted by the blood as it flows through the arteries: a. arterial blood pressure b. systolic pressure c. diastolic pressure d. pulse pressure You answered "systolic pressure". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "arterial blood pressure" Reference: Arterial blood pressure is a measure of the pressure exerted by the blood as it flows through the arteries. Systolic pressure is the pressure of the blood as a result of contraction of

the ventricles. Diastolic pressure is the measure of the pressure when the ventricles are at rest. Pulse pressure is the difference the systolic and diastolic pressure. Question 18 Overexpansion of the lungs characterized by rapid and deep breaths: a. Hyperventilation b. Hypoventilation c. Tachypnea d. Bradypnea You answered "Tachypnea". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "Hyperventilation" Reference: Hyperventilation is overexpansion of the lungs characterized by rapid and deep breaths. Hypoventilation is the underexpansion of the lungs characterized by shallow respirations. Tachypnea - quick, shallow breaths. Bradypnea - abnormally slow breathing. Question 19 The absence of breathing is referred to as: a. apnea b. eupnea c. bradypnea d. tachypnea You answered "apnea". This is the correct answer. Reference: Apnea is referred to as the absence of breathing. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called eupnea. Abnormally slow respirations are referred to as bradypnea. Abnormally fast respirations are called tachypnea.

Question 20 If a patient's usual blood pressure is 170/100 mm Hg, and it drops to 120/80 mm Hg post surgery, it must be: a. reported to the physician immediately b. monitored continually every hour c. plotted in the chart and assessed again in 15 minutes d. reported to the nurse on the next shift You answered "plotted in the chart and assessed again in 15 minutes". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "reported to the physician immediately" Reference: Blood pressure can vary among individuals and it is important for nurses to know the baseline blood pressure of patients. If a patient's usual blood pressure is 170/100 mm Hg, and it drops to 120/80 mm Hg post surgery, it must be reported to the physician immediately. Question 21 The body usually has a small amount of warm air adjacent to it that rises and is replaced by cooler air. The dispersion of heat by air currents is called: a. Convection b. Conduction c. Radiation d. Vaporization You answered "Convection". This is the correct answer. Reference: Convection is the dispersion of heat by air currents. Conduction is the transfer of heat from one molecule when in comes in contact to a molecule of lower temperature. Radiation is the transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without contact between the two objects. Vaporization is

continuous evaporation of moisture from the respiratory tract and from the mucosa of the mouth and from the skin. Question 22 Abnormally fast respirations are called: a. tachypnea b. apnea c. eupnea d. bradypnea You answered "bradypnea". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "tachypnea" Reference: Abnormally fast respirations are called tachypnea. Apnea is referred to as the absence of breathing. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called eupnea. Abnormally slow respirations are referred to as bradypnea. Question 23 The following are the times to assess vital signs except for: a. When a patient doesn't have a change in health status or doesn't report any symptoms b. On admission of patient to obtain baseline vital signs data c. Before and after the patient undergoes surgery or any invasive procedure d. Before and after any nursing intervention that could affect the patient's vital signs You answered "Before and after any nursing intervention that could affect the patient's vital signs". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "When a patient doesn't have a change in health status or doesn't report any symptoms" Reference: Vital signs are assessed when a patient has a change in health status or reports symptoms such as chest pain or feeling

warm/hot. Question 24 A pulse with an irregular rhythm that may consist of random, irregular beats or a predictable pattern of irregular beats: a. dysrhythmia b. tachycardia c. bradycardia d. fibrillation You answered "bradycardia". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "dysrhythmia" Reference: Dysrhythmia (also known as arrhythmia) is a pulse with an irregular rhythm. An electrocardiogram is necessary to define the dysrhythmia further. Question 25 A wave of blood created by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart: a. pulse b. cardiac output c. blood pressure d. murmur You answered "cardiac output". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "pulse" Reference: The pulse is a wave of blood created by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart. This wave represents the stroke volume output and the amount of blood that enters the arteries with each ventricular contraction. Question 26

The ability to breathe only in upright sitting or standing positions is called: a. Orthopnea b. Dyspnea c. Cheyne-Stokes breathing d. Apnea You answered "Cheyne-Stokes breathing". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "Orthopnea" Reference: Orthopnea is the ability to breathe only in upright sitting or standing positions. Dyspnea is difficult and labored breathing. Cheyne-Stokes breathing is the rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations, from very deep to very shallow breathing and temporary apnea. Apnea is the cessation of breathing. Question 27 Gurgling sounds heard as air passes through moist secretions in the respiratory tract: a. bubbling b. stridor c. stertor d. wheeze You answered "stridor". This is not the correct answer. The correct answer is: "bubbling" Reference: Bubbling - gurgling sounds heard as air passes through moist secretions in the respiratory tract. Stridor - a shrill, harsh sound heard during inspiration with laryngeal obstruction. Stertor snoring or sonorous respiration, usually due to a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Wheeze - continuous, high-pitched musical squeak or whistling sound occurring on expiration and sometimes on inspiration when air moves through a narrowed or partially obstructed airway.