Prac CAT16

INSTRUCTIONS
Special for Online Tests

1 . You are allowed to keep only your PT ID Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener and some rough sheets with you. DO
NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators),
pagers, cellular phones, stop watches etc.
Timings for the Test

1. You will be given 150 minutes to answer the test. A reverse countdown will start immediately after you start with the test.
2 . You will have to solve the questions and mark your answers to the questions in the sequence in which they come.
You are NOT allowed to move between sections or even among questions given in a section.
How to answer
1 . This test has three sections which examine various abilities. Section # 01 - 25 Questions; Section # 02 - 50
Questions; Section # 03 - 25 Questions. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear
in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections.
2 . Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully
and answer the questions by clicking on the right option provided in the space provided. There is only one correct
IC : PTpnrpc16 (1) of (22)
6. For every positive integer n, n > 2 can be written as a sum of distinct positive integers e.g.
4 = 1 + 3, 5 = 1 + 4 = 2 + 3, 7 = 2 + 5 = 1 + 2 + 4 etc. Let f(n) be the maximum number of distinct positive integers whose
sum is 2n e.g. f(2) = 2. Which of the following relations is false?
(1) f(5) = f(6) (2) f(5) = f(4)
(3) f(4) = f(3) (4) f(4) = f(6)
7. A triangle has sides measuring 10, 17, and 21 units. A square is inscribed in the triangle such that one side of the
square lies on the longest side of the triangle. The other two vertices of the square touch the two shorter sides of
the triangle. What is the length (in units) of the side of the square?
168 188
(1) (2)
29 29
168 153
(3) (4)
59 47
8. A right circular cone is cut from a solid sphere of radius a. The vertex and the circumference of the base being on the
surface of the sphere. The height of the cone, when its volume is maximum is
4a 3a
(1) (2)
3 2
6a
(3) a (4)
5
9. The ratio of the circumference of a circle to the perimeter of the inscribed regular polygon with n sides is
π π
(1) 2π : 2n sin (2) 2π : n sin
n n
2π 2π
(3) 2π : 2n sin (4) 2π : n sin
n n
10. According to astronomy, a planet revolves around a star or a group of stars. A satellite revolves around a single
planet as well as the star around which the planet revolves. In the Vega system there are four planets named as PX-
1, PX-2, PX-3 and PX-4. The system has got two stars SX-1 and SX-2. PX-1 and PX-4 revolve around both SX-1 and
SX-2 while the rest revolve around only one of them each i.e., PX-2 around SX-1 and PX-3 around SX-2. Also PX-2
and PX-3 have two satellites each named as ST-1, ST-2 and ST-3, ST-4 respectively. PX-1 does not have any satellite
while PX-4 has three satellites, ST-5, ST-6 and ST-7. How many celestial bodies revolve around SX-2?
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 9
11. Ravi’s watch is 10 minutes slow and Ravi is under the impression that it is five minutes fast. Raju’s watch is five
minutes fast and Raju think it is 10 minutes slow. They both plan to catch a train at 4 O'clock. Who gets there first?
(1) Raju (2) Both will reach at same time
(3) Ravi (4) Cannot be determined
12. The number of ways in which three distinct numbers in an AP can be selected from 1, 2, ...., 24 is
(1) 144 (2) 276
(3) 572 (4) 132
(2) of (22) IC : PTpnrpc16

DIRECTIONS: Refer to the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
A package-shipping man delivers a minimum of 10 packages and a maximum of 15 packages in any particular
week (Monday to Friday), The number of packages he delivers on Monday is always equal to the number of packages
he delivers on Friday. On Thursday, he delivers one package less than the number he delivered on Tuesday.
13. If at least 1 package is delivered every day of the week, then the minimum and maximum number of packages he can
possibly deliver on Monday are
(1) 2, 4 (2) 1, 5
(3) 1, 6 (4) 3, 4
14. If 10 packages are delivered in total and a minimum possible number of packages delivered on Monday, then the
number of packages delivered on Wednesday could be
(1) 1 or 3 (2) 2 or 3
(3) 4 or 3 or 7 (4) 1 or 3 or 5 or 7 or 9
DIRECTIONS: For the following question, four options are given. Choose the correct option.
15. An Ant starts walking from A to B on a rectangular grid. ×B

It walks either upwards or towards the right only.
The probability that it passes through point C is C
×
(1) 1/2
(2) 5/11
A
×
(3) 7/15
(4) 4/9
16. Eight players participated in the recent KAY- KAY land chess tournament. Each player played with all the others
exactly once. The winner of a game received 1 point and a loser 0; draws are allowed, giving each player 1/2 point.
Now, it turned out that everyone received a different number of points. Furthermore, Mahesh, who came in second,
earned as many points as the four bottom finishers put together. What was the result of the game between Wasim,
who came in third, and Birjoo, who came in seventh?
(1) Wasim beat Birjoo (2) Birjoo beat Wasim
(3) Match between Wasim and Birjoo was a draw (4) Cannot be determined
17. Consider a large circular disc on the table rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre O. The radius of
the disc is 5 cm and a pole of height 10 cm is fixed to the rim of the disc. The base of the pole on the rim of the disc
is A. B is the point diametrically opposite to A. The diameter AB is extended to join a point on the table. An ant
starts walking, from the point A, away from the disc at the speed of 1 cm per second. The disc rotates at 2π radians
every second. After how many seconds will the angle subtended at B by the top of the pole, be equal to the angle
subtended at the ant’s position by the top of the pole?
[Assume the disc surface and the table surface is at same level]
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 3 (4) 7

18. If a 30°-60°-90° prism is placed as shown in the figure and co-ordinates y
of points A, B and C are (0, 1, 0), (0, 0, 0) and (0, 0, 1) respectively, A 2 D
then which of the following cannot be the co-ordinates of points D
or E or F? B 2 E x
C
(1) (2, 1, 0) (2) (2, 0, 0) 2 F
z
(3) (2, 1, 1) (4) (2, 0, 1)
a+b+c+d+e
19. = N, where a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive even integers and v, w, x, y, z are five consecutive odd
v+w+x+y+z
integers. If v = a + 1 and n represents a natural number, then which of the following is the most suitable value of N?
n+2 n+3
(1) (2)
n + 2.5 n+4
n+2 n+4
(3) (4)
n+3 n+5
A
20. The sides of a regular hexagon are produced to form the adjacent star. H B C I
The circumcircle of the hexagon has a radius ‘r’ and the incircle of the
star has a radius ‘R’. What is the ratio of the perimeter of the hexagon D O E
to that of the star? What is the ratio of the area of the hexagon to that
F G
of the star?
J
(1) 2 : 1, 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1, 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2, 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1, 1 : 1
a2 b2 c2
21. If a + b + c = 0, where a ≠ b ≠ c, then + 2 + 2 is equal to
2a 2+ bc 2 b + ac 2c + ab
(1) Zero (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) abc
22. The sides of a triangle are given to be x 2 + x + 1, 2x + 1 and x 2 – 1, then the largest of the three angles of the triangle
is
FG x IJ ο
(1) 75° (2) Cos−1
H x + 1K
(3) 120° (4) 135°

23. Shyam visited Ram on a vacation. In the mornings, they both would go for Yoga. In the evenings they played
Tennis. To have more fun, they indulged themselves only in one activity per day i.e. either Yoga or Tennis each day.
There were days when they were lazy and stayed at home all day long. There were twenty four mornings, when they
did nothing, fourteen evenings when they stayed at home and a total twenty two days, when they did Yoga or
played tennis. For how many days Shyam stayed with Ram?
(1) 32 (2) 24
(3) 30 (4) Cannot be determined
24. The number of sequences of length five with 0 and 1 as terms which contain at least two consecutive 0’s is
(1) 4 × 2 3 (2) 5 C2
(3) 20 (4) 19
FG 1 + x IJ , then f(x) + f(y) is

25. If f(x) = log
H 1− xK
FG x + y IJ
(1) f(x + y) (2) f
H 1 + xy K
FG 1 IJ f ( y)
(3) (x + y) f
H 1+ xy K (4) f(x) +
1 + xy

SECTION II
Number of Questions = 25
DIRECTIONS: Choose the option that represents the most logical sequence of the four sentences labelled (A), (B),
(C) and (D) so as to form a coherent paragraph starting with sentence (1) and ending with sentence (6).
26. 1. Seldom does an ambitious dream enjoy smooth sailing all the way to completion.
(A) In spite of free supplies and volunteer labour, money was an over-pressing concern.
(B) The thousands of well-wishers who waited on the dock in San Francisco to wave goodbye to HOPE’s first
medical team were denied the spectacle.
(C) Dr. Walsh was approached by an executive of the company that was going to operate the Hope on its maiden voyage.
(D) In its fourteen years of bringing health care and education to people around the world, the SS Hope endured
many stormy seas, and a few had nothing to do with the weather.
6. The man informed Walsh that the HOPE organisation had no line of credit and an advance of $500,000 were necessary.
(1) DABC (2) BDAC
(3) CDBA (4) DABC
27. 1. The man who doesn’t want a war (Saddam) is termed as a threat to the world, while the man who is displaying
his cowboy brashness and raising war cries at the top of his voice is projected as the one who wants peace!
(A) While the NASDAQ crashed, the government demonstrated its respect for freedom of speech by openly
manipulating the print and electronic media.
(B) The Pravda of the American government!
(C) During the entire anti-Osama campaign it was obvious that along with the twin towers of New York, the twin
pillars of the American democracy vis-à-vis the freedom of speech and free market both came crashing down.
(D) In fact, the capitalist-owned media blatantly printed press releases of the Pentagon as news items dictatorially
censored any opinion, which had a protesting tone.
6. So much for freedom of speech and the illusion of democracy.
(1) CDAB (2) BCAD
(3) BADC (4) CADB
DIRECTIONS: In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath the sentence, four different
ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four.
28. The probability which is the guide of life is not the mathematical kind, not only because it is not relative to arbitrary
data, but to all data that bear on the question at issue, but also because it has to take account of something which
lies wholly outside the province of mathematical probability.
(1) but to all data that bear on the question at issue, but
(2) but also to all data bearing on the question at issue, and
(3) but also to all data that bear on the question at issue, and
(4) but also to all data that bear the question at issue, and
29. My space and time, as known in perception, are correlated with these that, in physics, are appropriate to axes that
move with my body.
(1) are correlated with these that, in physics, are appropriate to axes that
(2) are correlated with those that, in physics, are appropriate to axes that
(3) are correlated with those, that in physics, are appropriate to axes, that
(4) are correlated with those that, in physics, being appropriate to axes which
DIRECTIONS: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follow.
PASSAGE
One day when she can afford it, 21-year-old Aashna Khan will pursue what she always wanted to– photography. Right
now she works away her nights at a Mumbai call centre. Khan never sleeps for more than five hours and eats very little.
Health problems and mood swings notwithstanding, she is yet to see a doctor. "I am always too tired," she says.
In different versions, Khan's life-script is being played out in many Indian homes. Lakhs of Indian youth are opting out
of colleges to queue up for jobs in the business process outsourcing (BPO) industry – a collective term for a host of
business processes that are being shifted from developed countries to countries such as India to save on costs. Call
centres are the more popular face of this industry and account for 70 per cent of the Indian BPO industry. They dole out
handsome salaries, as high as Rs.8,000–20,000 even to fresh graduates and promotions are fast. Small wonder is that in
numbers, the BPO industry is currently doubling every two years with even qualified doctors joining call centres to
make quick money. India currently accounts for 2 per cent of the global BPO industry, employing around two lakh
people. According to a NASSCOM–Hewitt study, this number is expected to cross the one million-mark by 2006. Jobs
range from receiving and making calls to conducting research for investment banks, studying radiology reports for
hospitals and accounting work for companies.
But it is hardly as smooth as it sounds. Youngsters who have ditched campuses soon realise that the fine print of
prosperity disguises the parallel damage -- both psychological and physical. Discontent simmers behind the glassy
interiors. Most enter the industry thinking it will be one big party -- fancy offices, swank cafeterias, colourful nights and
fat salaries. But the illusion is ephemeral. Many call centres have gruelling 10-hour night shifts. This regimental white-
collar job that involves working against the body clock and sleep deprivation soon triggers off a host of health problems.
Employees need to be back in their seats not a minute later than the regulated breaks they are permitted to take.
Otherwise, it could mean angry customers and lost business. The headsets only magnify the verbal assault on the
employees. Contrary to popular perception, learning to roll their rupees, speaking with a Texan drawl and adopting a
pseudonym are just a few things to be taken in the stride. Racial abuse from faceless customers is not uncommon. "The
foreigners are rude, they start the conversation with 'Are you an Indian' and disconnect calls if you say “you are”, says
23-year-old Bangalore-based Ashwini Rao who quit her job in six months. "I couldn't take it. I would rather be unemployed
than be at a call center," says Rao, who was not allowed to take leave despite a sore throat.
Discrimination is a bad deal. It is compounded by health problems like a bad throat, painful and dry eyes, insomnia,
headaches, irritability and mental fatigue. Lack of exercise and unwholesome cafeteria food make things worse. A 2003
study conducted by Circadian Technologies, a US-based research firm, reiterated the susceptibility of those who work
only night shifts to physical disorders. Then there are the social stresses of the graveyard shift that raises the ire of
friends, lovers and family. Rajesh Nair, who says he cannot let go of his Rs.22,000 monthly pay cheque, laments how
work translates into lack of intimacy in life. Ever since his honeymoon six months ago, Nair says he has not shared a
private moment with his working wife. Life in a joint family disrupts the other leisure hours. Distasteful comments by
prying neighbours add to the frustration, especially for women who comprise nearly 50 per cent of this industry.
The boom has begun busting rather quickly. BPO employees are walking out in droves. The annual attrition rates are currently
as high as 35-40 per cent. Bangalore-based Shiva Prasad, 21, barely managed two months, whereas Ramesh Krishnan, 25, just
worked for one month. Six months after quitting, he is still trying to get rid of the dark circles under his eyes. As Zarir Udwadia,
consultant physician at Hinduja Hospital, Mumbai, puts it, "A sleep-deprived worker is not a productive worker." A sad
observation to which Hemant Thacker, physician and cardiologist at Mumbai's Breach Candy Hospital adds an irony. "The
youth is ageing faster. Cardiovascular diseases will afflict them much earlier than their parents."
But it is not the night shift alone that is the cause of all hassles. The career paths of call centre employees are obscure.
They rarely talk to people outside their headphones. "They don't get to see the rewards of their work-such as a smile on
the face of a customer," says psychiatrist Vihang Vahia. Stunted career growth is a big disappointment. This industry
allows graduates, even undergraduates to join and dream big. But there is little scope to grow beyond the middle level.
The initial growth is rapid, but only one in 10 agents becomes a manager. The roles of these employees hardly change,
the team leader being the ultimate post; it means hitting a glass ceiling in barely three to four years. As a result, hopeful
companies find themselves jolted out of their slumber, forced to tackle attrition rates. "These are causes of great
concern," admits NASSCOM chief Kiran Karnik; adding "but we are trying to position this as a service industry. The
skills they acquire here can be utilised in banking, hospitality or the airlines." As many quit academics to join the BPO
industry, there is an under utilisation of their intelligence.
This trend is making foreign customers circumspect before investing, worried as they are about retention rates and
compensation packages. While US Senator John Kerry is seeking political mileage out of India's BPO boom, there are
hundreds of stories in the US about citizens complaining about thick accent of Indian agents and their inability to
resolve problems. White-collar workers in the UK and the US have now taken to wearing T-shirts screaming "My job
went to India".
In defence, companies are revising their appointment strategies. They do not encourage those who want to casually "try
it out", least of all the well-qualified applicants. A correspondent of a business daily who made an undercover attempt
to find herself a job in a call centre found that it was easier said than done. She was repeatedly asked why she wanted
to join. Later an appointment letter was shown but not given to her and she was told to think about it for a week and
come back. To nip attrition rates, firms have started counselling employees and giving them health tips. Bangalore's
Aggarwal Eye Clinic is waging a crusade -- treating call centre workers. Some firms have managed to lower attrition rates
to 35-40 per cent by employing graduates with modest aspirations.
Promotions are also routinely handed out. "This is the only industry where a capable agent gets the chance to manage
a team of 12 in under two years," says Susir Kumar, director, Intelenet, a TCS-HDFC joint venture. Agents are now being
offered the chance to pursue correspondence courses while on the job. "There is also the opportunity for lateral
movement within the organisation," says Devashish Ghosh, Wipro Spectramind. Last year, the lobby department of the
CII even initiated talks with the UGC to see if a BPO-specific degree could be introduced in colleges. While in-house
counsellors are able to do little to keep the turnover rate low, it is clear that there will ever be shortage of people because
in a country where there are millions of jobless educated, family pressure and uncertain growth in careers are treated like
the common cold.
But despite financial benefits many employees are now asking themselves: Where do we go from here? The answers
unfortunately are not just a call away.
30. Which combination of health hazards of BPO workers, does the author refer to in the passage?
A. Sedentary life and junk food.
B. Cardiac problems and ageing set in sooner.
C. Acidity, obesity and diabetes rates are higher among night workers.
D. Sore throats, painful eyes.
E. Long working hours at night.
(1) ABCD (2) BCDE
(3) ACDE (4) ABDE
31. Which social psychological hazard of BPO is not mentioned by author in the passage?
(1) Female workers are exposed to lewd remarks.
(2) BPO workers do not enjoy good status in society.
(3) Social and personal life of a couple is disrupted.
(4) Assumed foreign name and accent is a mental strain.
32. Which of the following attractions of BPO industry is not mentioned in the passage?
(1) Promotions are fast.
(2) It offers opportunity to work with the other sex at night.
(3) Colourful working environment.
(4) Salary is high.
33. Which conclusion adheres to author's thinking as depicted in the passage?

(1) BPO industry will die out soon from the Indian scenario.
(2) Remedial measures are urgently needed to eradicate the ills of BPO in industry.
(3) BPO industry will continue to grow in India as it offers employment to large number of unemployed.
(4) It is premature to guess the future of BPO industry in India at present.

PASSAGE
Last month, when the 86 billion euro French retail giant, Carrefour, announced that it was postponing its entry into
India, officials of the Foreign Investment Promotion Board began wondering whether the government’s policy on
attracting FDI was actually in sync with the global trends. Carrefour runs over 9,600 stores including hypermarkets,
supermarkets, discount stores and cash-and-carry trading operations across the world. It is the second largest retailer
in the world after Wal-Mart. The French giant had posted senior executives in India to work out its business plans.
Apparently, the French government had thrown its weight behind Carrefour’s plans to enter India and had even lobbied
hard with the Vajpayee government.
Carrefour, according to sources, pulled back its executives because of the ‘lack of clarity and direction” on the part of
the government on foreign direct investment in various formats of trading, including retailing. Carrefour had appointed
a retail management company to study the Indian market. The company was given to understand that it could opt for the
franchisee route for retailing. But it found that there were too many complexities involved in setting up shop through
this channel. It also felt that as the investment was huge, it was necessary to be in direct control of the operations.
Carrefour’s pullout also put the brakes temporarily on the plans of another French retailer, Groupe Casino, which had
signed an agreement with Home Stores India to set up a hypermarket chain called “Super Sabka Bazaar”.
This is not the first time that plans of foreign retail chains to invest in India have come unstuck or run into opposition.
Last year, the government’s approval of 100 per cent FDI for cash-and-carry operations to German chain Metro AG came
under a scanner after allegations surfaced that the German company was using cash-and-carry as a cover to engage in
direct retailing to the consumer. Metro, which clocked global sales of 5 billion euros last year, was given a wholesale
trading license to sell over 17,500 food and non-food products, FMCG and white goods at competitive prices to registered
traders, caterers, restaurants and other small and medium businesses in all-cash deals.
The German retailer flagged off its state-of the-art wholesale complex at Bangalore in October. However, the Bangalore
traders action committee was soon demanding that the permission to Metro be withdrawn. Metro, however, decided to
stick it out by flatly denying it was engaged in retail trading. The German chain blamed local retail chains and wholesalers
with vested interests for stoking the controversy.
It wasn’t Metro AG alone that had to encounter problems. In Mumbai, even though South African retailer Shoprite chose
the franchisee route with Normal Lifestyle, the take off was anything but smooth.
The ban on FDI in retail trading was first imposed by the I.K.Gujral government on the ground that it would hurt the
livelihood margins of the small retailer or the neighbourhood shopkeeper. Since then, successive governments have
held the view that there are 12 million retailers in India and inviting foreign chains would mean creating problems for
them. This could have serious repercussions for employment as well, as even small retailers running the neighbourhood
kirana (grocery) stores employ a few hands. The argument has found resonance with the RSS-affiliated Swadeshi Jagran
Manch even though the 700 big retail stores in the country barely amount for one per cent of the retail trade. Much as
the Vajpayee government would like to attract FDI, its policy vis-a-vis retail trading has been thus kept deliberately
wishy washy.
The N.K. Singh committee on FDI too toed this line, maintaining that foreign funds may affect the existence of small
firms and jeopardise employment opportunities.
Officials of the FIPB, however, feel that there is a clear disconnect between the perception of policy markers and the
global trends on FDI as well as the structural changes taking place in the economy.
Retail business is emerging as the largest private industry in the West, ahead of even finance and engineering and
accounts for over 8 per cent of the GDP. It comes as no surprise then that over 50 of Fortune 500 and 25 of Asian Top 200
companies are retailers. In some developed countries, retail businesses have shares as large as 40 per cent of the market.
Countries affected by currency turmoil and recession have attracted FDI in retail business to pep up their economies.
This happened in Thailand and Indonesia, where deregulatory measures in the field were initiated and in Japan, where
the Large Scale Retail Store Law was abolished to break the fall in domestic investment.
The rapid growth in organised retail business in developed countries is due to the entry of foreign retailers. In Thailand,
seven of the world’s top 10 retailers have set up shop. China has attracted investments by three of the to 10 retailers, led
by Wal-Mart. In Brazil, three top global retailers share about 30 per cent of the market.
On the other hand, organised retail business in India is very small despite the fact that India is one of the biggest
markets. One estimate puts the size of the market at $180 billion. Retail business contributes to 10 per cent of the GDP.
India also has the largest number of retailers (12 million) though they are mostly small.
For a perceptive finance ministry, which now controls the FIPB, the post-liberalisation structural changes in the economy
should have underscored the significance of the retail sector on account of its co-relation with the fast growth in the
service sector. During the last decade, the manufacturing sector had slumped on demand recession and liberalised
imports. For instance, the share of manufacturing and industry in GDP increased marginally from 25 percent to 27
percent between 1991 and 2001 while that of the service sector spurted from 37 percent to 44 percent during the period.
Foreign retailers feel that restrictive and confused policy followed by successive government has constrained the flow
of funds and technology into the retail sector and left it fragmented, unorganised and small in size. Foreign funds could
have helped in setting up large stores that provide a wide choice of goods at competitive prices as well as led to
improvements in technology, retailing systems and supply chain management in the retailing industry.
Industrial houses like the Tatas, the RPG Group, ITC and HLL have sensed the potential of the retail business and are
scrambling for a piece of action. A number of chain stores like Westside (Tatas), Foodworld (RPG) and Shopper’s Stop
(Rahejas) have already come up. In metropolises, there is a discernible trend of women customers shifting from street
corner grocers to supermarkets. A recent study reveals that 17 per cent of food sales in Chennai flows through
supermarkets. Going by the current thinking in the FIPB, the issue of clear-cut guidelines being issued for FDI in retail
trade could come up afresh after the election. But for that, the incoming government would need some measure of
political ingenuity to neutralise the ire of the small shopkeepers, who have emerged as a important political constituency
over the years. It is these small retail traders who scuttled the introduction of the Value Added Tax (VAT) system last
year. Backed by the FM, they are in the forefront of the campaign to make life difficult for the foreign retail chains trying
to enter India.
Interestingly, the lobby seeking foreign funds in retail trade has found readymade support from the tourism ministry
which feels that its Incredible India campaign would get a boost if tourists are not fleeced as methodically and regularly
as they currently are by avaricious shopkeepers in every street corner. The ministry also feels that with a Wall-Mart or
a Carrefour in major cities, India could be projected as a shopping destination as well. If that happens, then Kuala
Lumpur and Dubai may have to move over.
34. The main reason for Carrefour withdrawing from India is

(1) the franchisee route of entry is simple.
(2) vague policy of Government of India for foreign retailers.
(3) it could easily get direct control of its costly operations.
(4) lack of tuning between G.O.I. policy and universal trends.
35. The opposition of Government of India to the entry of foreigner in retail trading is due to
(1) fear of greater automation in retailing.
(2) lack of clear vision of policy makers.
(3) small firms may not be able to face competition.
(4) Indian retailers will have to face a lot of hardships and unemployment may increase.
36. The tone of the passage is

(1) rhetorical (2) magniloquent
(3) truculent (4) descriptive
37. The most appropriate meaning of ‘wishy-washy’ as used in passage is

(1) unclear and confused. (2) clear cut negative.
(3) do as you wish. (4) pin-pointed with lot of restrictions.

DIRECTIONS: Each of the passages given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each
question.
PASSAGE
While fears of terrorist attacks with biological or chemical weapons have become very real in the aftermath of the WTC
attack, in actuality the United States is one of the main forces thwarting attempts to put curbs on this deadly research
with the greatest potential for destruction of life.
On a clear, calm night, a light plane flying over New York, equipped with a crop sprayer and carrying a small cargo of 200
kilograms of anthrax spores, could deliver a fatal dose to millions of inhabitants of the Big Apple. And by the time the
rest of the world wakes up to the horror of the new terror from the sky, there would be no defensive measures to protect
the people from the epidemic spread of new and uncontrollable diseases.
The entire city can be wiped out in one arial strike. Anthrax is actually a bacterial disease of cattle and sheep, but its
pneumonic form can kill humans. Properly 'weaponised' to the precise particle size, the spores pass through the lungs to
other tissues releasing toxins in the process. In a matter of few days, the victims collapse from respiratory failure,
haemorrhage and toxic shock, turning the bustling city into a city of death and destruction.
This is no science fiction. It is, in fact, a chilling sequence based on the 1993 report of the United States Office of
Technology Assessment (OTA) on weapons of mass destruction. Ironically, as the world is being told that Osmana Bin
Laden is scouting for biological weapons to fight the American onslaught after the barbaric demolition of the Twin
Towers at the World Trade Centre in New York, it is the United States that leads in developing biological weapons and
that too in the name of 'a broader research effort to improve US defenses against biological agents.'
The New York Times reported on September 4 that the Pentagon had secretly built a germ factory in the Nevada desert
capable of producing enough deadly bacteria to kill millions of people. It also divulged that the Nevada project is one
among the number of covert biological initiatives pursued by the US over recent years. This has angered the Russians,
and to some extent the Europeans, who have voiced concern over American plans to develop a potentially more lethal
version of the bacterium that causes deadly anthrax.
Accordingly, American scientists have constructed at Camp 12 of the Nellis Air Force Range in Nevada a 50-litre cylinder
capable of cultivating germs out of materials bought commercially from hardware stores. While the aim was to demonstrate
how easy it is for a terrorist group to construct one of its own without being detected, the fact remains that the simple
procedures to amass biological weapons was already known and well established. In another experiment, the Pentagon
is planning to engineer a more potent version of the bacterium that causes anthrax.
It is primarily for this reason that George Bush had recently refused to sign the draft agreement aimed at further
strengthening the 1972 Convention on Biological Weapons, which prohibits nations from developing or acquiring
weapons that spread disease, but allows work on vaccines and other protective measures. Being a signatory would have
made the US disclose the biological germ research even if it were for defensive purposes. The 'high-handedness' of the
American government, when it comes to going by the international norms and protocols, has earlier been exposed with
the US President refusing to sign the Kyoto protocol on climate change and by threatening to dismantle the 1972 Anti-
Ballistic Missile Treaty because it 'affected' American interests!
Sadly, Mr. Bush's flawed policy initiatives are a complete turnaround from what one of his predecessors, Richard Nixon,
had unilaterally followed by renouncing biological weapons in 1969, stating: "Mankind already carries in its hands too
many of the seeds of its own destruction." Perhaps, the American President is looking for another dominant industry (in
biological weapons) to sustain the US economy.
How serious is the threat can be gauged from what the OTA report states. Its list of probable weapons of mass destruction
includes plague; small pox; tularemia, a plague-like disease; and botulism, caused by a toxin from the common food-
poisoning bacteria Clostridium botulinum. Such biological weapons have long been the stuff of nightmares, but recent
developments have turned this into a grim reality as we enter the new millennium. The threat becomes more serious with
more and more biotechnology companies emerging on the horizon and given the fact that the technology does not
require much sophistication and investment.

In the recent past, Iraq is not the only country to have gone into the production of biological weapons. Ken Alibek, a
former deputy director of a top branch of the then Soviet Union's germ-warfare programme who defected to the United
States in 1993, has in an explosive book, "Biohazard", revealed two of the world's biggest biological weapon programmes.
Accordingly, China had suffered a serious accident at one of its secret plants for developing biological weapons. Soviet
spy satellites had found a large biological weapons laboratory and plant near a remote site for testing nuclear warheads.
Intelligence agencies corroborated the fact with reports of two epidemics of haemorrhagic fever that swept the region in
the late 1980s. "Our analysts concluded that they were caused by an accident in a lab where Chinese scientists were
weaponising viral diseases," he writes, adding that viral scourges that caused intense bleeding included Marburg fever
and the dreaded Ebola virus, both endemic to Africa.
Alibek had helped run about a dozen of the 40 institutes that were part of Biopreparat, the civilian cover group, used
"exclusively" for offensive agents and weapons for the Soviet military. Significantly, it was after his defection that the
American Administration had accused China of indulging in a biological weapon programme. The Chinese had denied
the allegations. "Biohazard" also talks of the Soviet programmes that included tinkering with the genetic makeup of
anthrax disease so as to make it resistant to five kinds of antibiotics. He blames the Soviets for clandestinely obtaining
a sample of the AIDS virus from the US in 1985 and for efforts to turn it into a weapon.
And as Alibek warns, the biological weapon programme is not confined to just one or two countries. After he fled and
took up residence in the US, he has been approached by several countries, ostensibly for his deadly expertise in the art
of germ warfare. Included among these are South Korea, France and Israel.
Much of the problem is because the international community has given a free hand to the unstinted growth of the
biotechnology industry. The genetic engineering industry, entirely in private hands, is outside the purview of any
regulation and control of the society or the democratic systems at large. In fact, it is the political leadership, whether in
the US, Britain, Japan, Australia or in developing countries like India and China, that provides support and promotes the
horizontal spread of the genetic engineering industry merely to seek more finances for electioneering and party funds.
Perhaps the global community is awaiting another dastardly disaster from offensive genetic engineering before it decides
to 'retaliate.' It will then be too late.
38. According to the passage, which of the following statements support the fact that US is not interested in curbing
the research on biological weapons?
I. US has refused to sign agreements which necessitate disclosure of its programmes on biological weapons.
II. US wishes to improve its defenses against biological agents which may be unleashed on it by its rivals.
III. US has waged a war against Iraq's possession of weapons of mass destruction to be used against the USA.
IV. US looks upon the production of biological agents as a means to sustain the US economy.
(1) I and II only (2) I, II and III only
(3) I, II and IV only (4) All of the above
39. The 'weaponisation of the anthrax' has the potential of killing humans. Which of the following can be considered
as symptoms of anthrax poisoning?
(1) Pneumonia and breathlessness (2) Haemorrhage and vomiting
(3) Nightmares and bouts of depression (4) Toxic shock and respiratory failure
40. Which conventions or treaties have the American government refused to sign, demonstrating its 'high-handedness?'
I. Provisions of OTA treaty on development and use of chemical weapons in national interests.
II. Prohibition on nations from acquiring or developing biological agents which have potential to spread diseases.
III. Control of environment damaging agents which result in climate change.
IV. Use of anti-ballistic missiles in emergency situations or escalation of cold war.
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only
(3) I and IV only (4) All of the above

41. As per the passage, which of the following can be considered as possible reasons for the growth of the genetic
engineering industry?
I. Growing interest in furthering research to improve the defense potential in case of any onslaught by terrorist
groups.
II. Lack of regulation and control to ensure a complete autonomy for the growth of biotechnology industry.
III. Need for developing defensive measures against possible enemy attacks with biological weapons.
IV. Promotion of the industry to meet the vested interests of political parties as these are potential revenue
generators.
(1) I, II and III only (2) II and IV only
(3) III and IV only (4) None of the above
DIRECTIONS: Four alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the option that best captures the
essence of the text.
42. Individuals can be helped to set, and hold to, a direction in their own development by preparing a development
plan. The precise format of this plan is less important than the individual's degree of commitment to it. Continuous
professional development is increasingly recognised as a requirement for managers and professionals, and it requires
the individual to prepare a plan.
(A) To ensure continuous professional development, an imperative attribute today, an individual's commitment is
more important than the plan for it.
(B) Individuals can design their development along a development plan – it is more important to be committed to
this plan, rather than the format of the plan. Continuous professional development is today imperative and
requires the individual to prepare a plan.
(C) Professionals and managers must continuously develop themselves these days – to be able to do this, they
need a plan; however, a commitment to the plan is more important than the plan format.
(D) Formats of plans do not hold much importance when it comes to developing themselves; commitment is more
important in continuous professional development.
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
43. Self-development helps us to look at and to change both, the way we think and the way we do things. Many initial
workshops on self-development programmes use a variety of methods to help participants open their minds to new
possibilities and to develop skills in “reframing” – looking at issues in new ways. This works better if participants
come to the programme wanting to make changes.
(A) Self-development is a rectification process of our old methods of working, which are incorrect, and reframes
them; however, for it to work, the essential ingredient is a desire to change.
(B) Self-development helps us evolve better methods of thinking and working; however, the level of success of
self-development programmes depends on the participants' desire to make changes.
(C) Self-development is a process of growth, whereby, an individual can change his method of thinking and also
the way he works but it is not very successful if the participants don't develop a desire to change their ways
of thinking and doing things.
(D) Self-development changes our lives by developing us in terms of methods and procedures and also calls for a
healthy attitude towards change.
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (3) D

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered (1)
to (4). Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
44. STICK
(1) Just throw in a cinnamon stick now.
(2) He took away every stick of furniture from the apartment.
(3) He initially came in for a lot of stick about his unconventional approach.
(4) She stuck at me during every crisis.
45. PLAY
(1) He’s only playing on being an artist – he goes off to Harvard business school next year.
(2) What do you think you were playing at – you could have burnt yourself!
(3) Though reluctant, he played along, as he didn’t have a choice.
(4) He had been playing politics in the group all along.
46. KNOCK
(1) He was knocking on 90 when he died.
(2) He thirstily knocked down his drink and ordered another one.
(3) My boss knocked every suggestion I made.
(4) I was knocked out by his performance.
DIRECTIONS: The following question consists of four sentences on a topic. Some sentence/s are grammatically
incorrect or inappropriate. Select the option that indicates the grammatically incorrect sentence/s.
47. A. Silver, as well as gold, have fallen in price.

B. But, eighty rupees are too much for this bracelet.
C. Between you and I, the bracelet is worth much less than its price.
D. I suggest you to look for something else.
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) B and D (4) A, B, C and D
48. A. The old patron left the club in a hurry into the pouring rain.
B. His foot slipped on the porch, which caused him to fall heavily.
C. He hurt a finger of his foot.
D. The in-house doctor was quickly summoned to give him prompt medical aid.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) C only
DIRECTIONS: Select the option that fills in the blanks most suitably, in the same order.
49. Earthquakes are ..... rather than ..... events, reflecting the slow but continual ..... of material within the earth.
(1) destructive, geological, settling (2) commonplace, extraordinary, motion
(3) natural, geographical, movement (4) extraordinary, commonplace, passage
50. Growing ..... has been expressed by many scientists, however, for the continuing ..... of the planet as a ..... for life.
(1) misconception, existence, harbour (2) worry, security, anchor
(3) earnestness, protection, haven (4) concern, safety, home

SECTION III
Number of Questions = 25
DIRECTIONS: Refer to the tables to answer the following question.
A double wicket cricket match is a unique concept found only in the Grasslands where Ghosh Babu resides. Every
year, Ghosh Babu organizes a championship in which 12 teams are invited. Ghosh babu along with his team of 10
more participants – a total of 11 on field.
The visiting 12 teams only have to Bat. The game has its set rules. There are two boundaries. If a batsman hits the
ball beyond the first boundary it is a 6 runner and if the ball crosses the second boundary it is an 8 runner. Apart
from this the batsman can run between the wickets and score more runs. For every out, a team loses 10 runs.
Every visiting team gets to bat for a total of 4 overs. Each over consist of 6 balls to be delivered. One bowler can
bowl a maximum of 10 overs. Of the final score. 4 best teams are selected, which move to the semi finals and then
the best two for the finals.
In the following tables, first table represents the score chart of 12 teams and second table represents the bowling
analysis of five bowlers B1, B2, B3, B 4 and B5 with few data missing in both the tables. First figure in the second table
represents the number of overs bowled by a particular bowler to a particular team and figures in the bracket represents
the scores made by the particular team in the number of overs given.
Table-3 represent average runs scored per over on particular bowler.
Table-1 Table-2
Running Bowlers
Teams
Number of B1 B2 B3 B4 B5
8's 6's between Total Runs Teams
outs
the wicket 1 2, (69) 2, (30)
1 5 4 35 2 79 2 1, (20) 1, (42) 2, (30)
2 4 5 30 1 82 3
3 6 7 1 4 1, (30) 2, (53) 1, (31)
4 3 3 72 0 114
5
5 102
6
6 1 154
7 1, ( ) 2, (86) 1, ( )
7 5 4 50
8 1, (24) 1, (18) 1, (10) 1, (8)
8 3 3 18 0 60
9 4 6 3 48 9 2, ( ) 2, ( )
10 4 7 20 1 84 10 1, (31) 1, (13) 2, (5)
11 0 10 1 61 11 1, ( ) 2, (57) 1, ( )
12 1 0 40 1 38 12 2, ( ) 1, ( ) 1, ( )
Table-3
Bowler B1 B2 B3 B4 B5
Average runs per over 16.2 25 16.66 32 14.9

51. How many strokes team ‘number-5’ took for 8 runs if its players got out for maximum possible number of times?
(1) 14 (2) 18
(3) 17 (4) 19
52. If team ‘number-6’ do not make any score by running between the wickets and the every batsman either hit a
boundary on a particular delivery or is out on each delivery, then total no. of 8’s and 6’s hit by team no.6 is
(1) 21 (2) 24
(3) 23 (4) 22
53. If only bowler B 1, B 2, B 3 bowled to team ‘number 3’and team ‘number 3’s score in particular over is same as the
overall average score of the particular bowler per over, then the score of team ‘number 3’ could be
(1) 74 (2) 83
(3) 75 (4) All of the above
54. There is a special credit given on scoring on each delivery. If all teams try their best to score run on every delivery,
then which team had to face a dot ball
(1) Team 8 (2) Team 12
(3) Team 9 (4) Team 1

DIRECTIONS: The following tables are the quotes for six stocks with volumes on 1st, July 2005. Read the tables and
answer the question that follow.
BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange)

Volume
Name Open High Low Close
(Number of share trade today)
Lala Motors 780 805 765 775 2,62,740
Damyanti Udyog 425 460 412 418 1,15,620
Konda Siel 240 253 235 242 9850
Khajaj Auto 655 690 610 658 86900
Karishma & Karishma 710 760 700 725 2,36,700
Zero Motors Ltd. 320 340 295 319 35500
NSE (National Stock Exchange)

Volume
Name Open High Low Close
(Number of share trade today)
Lala Motors 770 795 765 772 2,40,000
Damyanti Udyog 410 430 405 412 95,600
Konda Siel 255 258 230 254 9700
Khajaj Auto 605 612 604 606 81200
Karishma & Karishma 712 740 705 715 200830
Zero Motors Ltd. 325 330 315 318 36600
55. Which of the following stocks showed the highest percentage variance on any exchange (BSE or NSE) (percentage
variance is the difference of high and low of the day w.r.t. the low price)?
(1) Lala Motors (BSE) (2) Karishma & Karishma (NSE)
(3) Damyanti Udyog (NSE) (4) Lala Motors (NSE)
56. What is the percentage change in the closing price (as compared to the opening price) of the scrip which has shown
highest variation between open and close price in rupee terms on BSE?
(1) 2.1% (2) 3.4%
(3) 2.8% (4) 3.2%
57. Market capital of any company at a given point of time is given by the product of number of shares of the company
and the share price at that time. The market capital is calculated at closing price. Based on this, which of the
following are true?
I Market capital of Lala Motors increased during the day at BSE.
II Damyanti Udyog’s market capital growth was the highest during the day at BSE.
III Market capital of Karishma and Karishma and Khajaj Auto increased at BSE
IV Karishma and Karishma’s market capital growth was the highest during the day at BSE.
(1) I, II, III (2) II, III
(3) III, IV (4) II, III, IV

DIRECTIONS: Answer the question based on the table given below.
Sales of Shoes of different brands in July 2005 by MEGA SHOE COMPANY.

BATA LIBERTY WOODLANDS LEE COOPERS
Date Size
6 7 8 9 10 6 7 8 9 10 40 41 42 43 44 40 41 42 43 44
1 40 100 60 120 20 20 80 40 60 40 60 80 100 80 40 20 80 20 60 0
2 60 140 60 40 40 80 160 40 80 100 0 140 60 60 80 40 80 80 100 40
3 120 80 0 60 80 60 40 100 60 120 20 60 40 80 60 60 120 60 60 80
4 160 60 40 100 120 100 80 140 80 140 80 100 40 100 120 20 140 20 40 60
5 60 100 40 80 60 120 180 60 40 60 120 120 40 20 60 0 140 80 20 80
6 80 180 60 40 20 80 60 0 80 40 60 160 20 0 40 100 60 60 60 40
7 180 240 80 160 60 140 80 60 60 20 140 180 40 40 20 60 220 20 0 20
8 220 320 20 180 80 180 200 40 20 20 60 260 0 80 100 120 300 20 100 40
9 280 380 0 140 100 220 280 20 0 40 80 200 40 60 20 100 240 0 20 60
10 360 480 20 120 60 240 320 40 20 0 60 180 20 40 60 80 260 20 80 40
11 340 460 60 100 40 280 260 0 40 20 140 360 0 80 100 40 320 40 100 60
12 260 580 0 200 80 220 380 60 80 60 120 420 240 120 140 80 480 60 20 80
13 320 480 40 260 60 320 420 80 40 60 140 400 100 40 100 60 340 120 40 60
14 260 460 60 160 140 200 380 60 80 0 160 360 80 80 20 40 240 100 80 20
15 240 440 100 140 220 220 440 80 100 60 80 420 40 40 100 60 460 60 60 40
16 180 360 40 220 260 160 160 20 220 80 100 140 80 40 60 140 180 0 80 140
17 200 320 0 260 300 180 180 40 280 100 120 120 20 80 20 60 140 20 100 40
18 180 340 20 240 280 80 360 80 220 140 140 180 100 100 60 60 120 80 40 120
19 220 240 40 180 220 320 220 40 160 60 80 160 60 40 120 100 180 0 60 140
20 160 180 60 160 200 140 280 60 140 120 60 180 60 20 60 120 200 40 80 140
21 100 220 0 200 280 120 120 20 120 140 80 40 40 40 80 100 60 80 20 40
22 80 280 20 140 160 60 140 80 160 220 100 100 100 0 100 60 80 40 0 80
23 120 240 40 220 120 140 40 100 240 260 140 140 0 60 40 80 60 40 100 0
24 60 260 80 260 140 80 160 60 280 240 100 140 60 20 0 60 40 100 80 60
25 40 200 100 160 80 100 60 80 140 160 120 120 40 80 100 100 80 40 60 40
26 100 160 40 200 180 20 100 40 220 200 160 80 20 100 80 60 60 20 80 60
27 80 140 20 80 100 40 120 60 60 80 80 100 0 40 40 80 80 60 20 40
28 60 120 60 100 140 20 40 100 80 40 140 60 40 100 60 60 80 0 0 60
29 80 220 40 60 80 40 20 80 60 20 60 40 40 60 20 80 60 80 60 20
30 40 260 20 80 60 0 140 0 80 60 40 100 60 80 160 40 60 60 80 40
31 80 180 20 120 80 40 20 40 120 80 20 80 20 40 60 80 120 40 100 60
Different companies make shoes with different sizes. For calculations consider : 44 – equivalent to Size 10, 43 –
equivalent to Size 9, 42 – equivalent to Size 8, 41 – equivalent to Size 7 and 40 – equivalent to Size 6.
58. The number of days on which at least 20 pairs of shoes of every size of every company has been sold is
(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 12

59. How many pair of shoes of size 9 sold, were not from Liberty?
(1) 7940 (2) 9840
(3) 8320 (4) 8200
60. Whenever the sales of any size of any company for two consecutive days is the same, then it is considered as an
auspicious sale. The number of auspicious sales for all the companies together in July, 2005 is
(1) 15 (2) 21
(3) 19 (4) 20
61. Which of the following days was the best day of sales at the Mega Shoe Company? 'Best day' is defined as the day on
which the total sales for all the sizes of all the companies together is the highest is
(1) 1 st July (2) 12 th July
(3) 17 th July (4) 24 th July
62. For any particular size of a company, the difference between the maximum number of pair of shoes sold on any day
of the month and the minimum number of pair of shoes sold on any day of the month is called the "Margin" of that
size during that month. Considering Woodlands, which size has the least 'Margin' during July 2005?
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10
DIRECTIONS: The following questions is followed by two statements marked (A) and (B). The question are to be
answered with the help of these two statements. Mark your answer as
(1), if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements together
(2), if the question can be answered with the help of statement (B) alone
(3), if the question can be answered with the help of statement (A) alone
(4), if the question can be answered with the help of both statements together.
63. An industrial plant manufactures certain commodities. In 1995, the number of commodities manufactured by the
plant was twice the number of commodities manufactured in 1994. What was the total number of commodities
manufactured in the years 1994, 1995 and 1996?
(A) In 1996, the number of commodities manufactured was thrice the number of commodities manufactured in 1994.
(B) In 1997, the number of commodities manufactured was half the total number of commodities manufactured in
the years 1994, 1995 and 1996.
64. Students in a school can choose one or more foreign languages from among German, French and Russian. In a class
of 250 students, 98 study French and German only. No student studies only one language. How many students
study all three languages?
(A) All students in the class study German.
(B) 102 students study only Russian and German.
65. A man bought a horse and carriage in town A on Sunday. The following week, he sold both (the horse and the
carriage) to a merchant in town B. On one, he gained 30% and on the other he incurred a loss of 30%. If the man's
total investment was Rs.2800, then what is the amount he gained or lost in the transaction?
(A) The cost price of the horse was more than the cost price of the carriage.
(B) The merchant paid equal amounts for the horse and the carriage.

66. In the adjoining figure, PQ is the diameter of a circle with centre O and radius 3 cm. Q
If RP is tangent to the circle, then what is the length of QR? T
S O
(A) Length of arc STQ = 2π
(B) The measure of the inscribed angle is half the measure of the intercepted arc. R P
67. The “Candy & Toffee Company” has introduced three Diwali special packings of two of their best selling chocolate
bars – Entice and Fiesta. One contains 3 Entice bars, another contains 3 Fiesta bars and the third contains 2 Entice
and 1 Fiesta bars. The company ships the offerings in different cartons – each containing only one type of packing
identified by a descriptive label on it. Mr. Chock–O–Latey ordered 1 carton each of the 3 offerings for the festive
season. Unfortunately for him, the packing and shipping department of the “Candy & Toffee Company” mixed up
the descriptive labels and placed the wrong labels on each of the 3 cartons. They however informed Mr. Chock-O-
Latey of this mistake . W h a t i s t h e m i n i m u m n u m b e r o f c a r t o n s t h a t M r. Chock-O-Latey should open to know
the contents of all the three cartons?
(1) only one
(2) only two
(3) All three
(4) He can find out even without opening a single carton
68. A doctor, a businessman, a broker and a lawyer all lived in the same building. Their names were Mr. Jhunjhunwala,
Mr. Malhotra, Mr. Patel and Mr. Motiani, not necessarily in that order. Mr. Jhunjhunwala and the lawyer were not
friends with Mr. Malhotra. Mr. Patel and the broker were friends. Mr. Malhotra and the doctor lived on the same
floor. The businessman was a friend of Mr. Motiani and the broker. What is Mr. Motiani’s profession?
(1) Doctor (2) Lawyer
(3) Doctor or Lawyer (4) Cannot be determined
69. Which statement is true, if one and only one of the following statements is true?
1. Exactly one of these statements is false. 2. Exactly two of these statements are false.
3. Exactly three of these statements are false. 4. Exactly four of these statements are false.
5. Exactly five of these statements are false. 6. Exactly six of these statements are false.
7. Exactly seven of these statements are false. 8. Exactly eight of these statements are false.
(1) Statement 1 (2) Statement 5
(3) Statement 3 (4) Statement 7

DIRECTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.
A computer-controlled machine used to produce small items is programmed using following rules:
(i) N00m denotes m th operation.
(ii) X010 implies motion in X-direction for 10 mm.
(iii) Y015 implies motion in Y-direction for 15 mm. (Note: If the initial position is x, y then X010 Y015 means
move to (x + 10, y + 15)
(iv) S0A0 implies motion at speed of A mm/sec and S0AB implies motion at speed of A.B mm/sec., where AB are
integers. (e.g. S017 implies, motion at speed of 1.7 mm/sec.)
(v) The motion can only be in X or Y direction.
70. The initial position is (10, 20). At the end of three identical instructions the counter is at (x, y) in 30 seconds. Which
of the following can be the instruction fed to the machine?
I. N001 S025 X010 Y015
II. N002 S037 X024 Y013
III. N003 S013 X011 Y014
(1) I and III only (2) I and II only
(3) I, II and III (4) None of these
71. If the final position is (90, 85), then what would be the starting position?
(1) (75, 75) (2) (15, 10)
(3) (10, 15) (4) (20, 15)
72. What would be the time required to produce one unit of M?

(1) 32 sec. (2) 39.5 sec.
(3) 58.5 sec. (4) 24 sec.

DIRECTIONS: Refer to the following information to answer the question that follow.
India started permitting Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) to invest in Indian companies from January 1, 2000.
On that day, the FII invested in the Indian stock market with a fund size of $28.5 million as per the following
investment plan. (The exchange rate on January 1, 2000 was 1$ = Rs.35).
1. They invested 60% of the funds in Group A+ shares and the remaining funds in Group A shares.
2. They invested only in three sectors – software, electronics and petrochemical.
3. The amount invested in software sector and electronics sector is the same.
4. The amount invested in petrochemical sector exceeds the amount invested in electronics sector by Rs.10
crore.
5. The amount invested in petrochemical stocks of Group A is twice the amount invested in electronics stocks
and software stock of Group A individually. (The amount invested in electronics stocks and software stock of
Group A is same.)
6. The investment is done only in the following companies.
The price (in Rs.) for various shares is as follows
Company As on 01.01.2000 As on 01.01.2001

Amniocies 3600 4115
Sector Group A + Group A
Hexil 800 700
Quipro 250 200
Funfosys,
Software Amniocies Funfosys 450 400
Quipro, Hexil
Satsung 4000 4500
Elgi 350 350
Electronics Satsung, Elgi Viditron Viditron 12500 15000
Indoil 250 300
Indoil, Baratoil, Baratoil 700 800
Petrochemical
Harparoil Ongoil Ongoil 300 400
Harparoil 300 400
73. What is the approximate amount invested in electronics companies of Group A+ according to the investment plan?
(1) Rs.17 crore (2) Rs.20 crore
(3) Rs.24 crore (4) Rs.30 crore
74. If the amount invested in petrochemical companies of Group A + is equally distributed among the companies, then
the approx. number of Indoil shares bought by FII on January 1, 2000, is
(1) 2.6 lakh (2) 3.0 lakh
(3) 3.6 lakh (4) 4.0 lakh
75. If the amount invested in electronics companies of Group A + is equally distributed among the companies, then the
number of Satsung shares bought by FII on January 1, 2000 is
(1) 15000 (2) 21000
(3) 25000 (4) 30000

Prac-CAT # 16
A N A LY S I S
ANALYSIS
Detailed Solutions
1. The volume of earth to be removed

= πr 2h– 2 × 2 ×1 2
r
e 2j
2
2 2
= π x 1 – 4 = (2 π – 4)m 3 . Ans.(1) 2√2
2. Let the first term of the A. P. = a and the common difference = d.

Then, by the condition given in question
a + (m – 1)d = x (the m th term) and ...(1)
a + (n – 1)d = y (the n th term) ...(2)
x−y
From equation (1) and (2) : d = ....(3)
m−n
The sum of (m + n) terms will
FG m + n IJ 2a + (m + n − 1)d ⇒ FG m + n IJ a + (m − 1)d + a + nd
be
H 2 K H 2 K
F m + n IJ (x + y + d) ⇒ FG m + n IJ FG x + y + x − y IJ [From equation (3)]. Ans.(1)
⇒G
H 2 K H 2 KH m−nK
3. x 2 + 4y 2 = 1, 4x 2 + y 2 = 4 eliminating y from the equation, we will get x 2 + 16 – 16x 2 = 1.
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x = +1, –1. So there are two distinct points, (1, 0), (–1, 0). Ans.(3)
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FG 1 IJ n−1
4. The area of the n th circle is πr 2
H 4K .
Each square has the same area as the corresponding circle, and the area of a square is s 2 .
FG 1 IJ n−1
( π) and the perimeter is 4s, or 4s = 4 r 1 FG IJ cπh .
n−1
s=r
H 2K 2 H K
Therefore, the sum of the perimeters is
∞
F 1I
∑ 4 r GH 2 JK
n−1
c πh .
n=1
1 1 1 FG IJ
H
Which is the same as 4 r 1+ + + +...... (π) = 4 r π × 2 = 8 r π . Ans.(1)
2 4 8 K
5. Let r be the radius of the circle.
Given ∠BPC = 30° ⇒ ∠BOC = 60° and ∆OBC is equilateral triangle.
Hence, BC = r.
Now, draw a perpendicular from O to AB.
A E B
Which meets AB at E. Now, in ∆OEB.
Since, ∠BEO = 90°, ∠OBE = 30°, ∠EOB = 60°. r r
P 30° 60° Q
O
BE 3 BE 3r r
Hence, cos 30°= ⇒ = ⇒ BE =
r 2 r 2
D C
⇒ AB = √3r.
3r × r 3
Hence, required ratio= = . Ans.(1)
πr 2 π
6. For 2n = 10, we will have the sum (with maximum distinct positive integers) as
10 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 ⇒ f(5) = 4.
Similarly, for 2n = 12, we will have: 12 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 1 + 2 + 4 + 5 ⇒ f(6) = 4.
6 = 1 + 2 + 3 ⇒ f(3) = 3.
8 = 1 + 2 + 5 = 1 + 3 + 4 ⇒ f(4) = 3.
∴ f(5) = f(6) = 4.
∴ f(3) = f(4) = 3. Hence, f(5) ≠ f(4). Ans.(2)
“ Practice, Practice &

Practice ... and of
course, do not forget to
analyse these tests!
“
– Vishal Prabhukhanolkar
MBA (IIM Ahmedabad),
PT Knowledge Advisor
(2) of (14) IC : PTpnrps16

7. By Hero’s formula the area A of a triangle with sides a, b, c is given by A = s( s − a )( s − b )(s − c ) ,
where s = (a + b + c) / 2 is the semi-perimeter of the triangle.
Then s = (10 + 17 + 21) / 2 = 24, and A = 84.
A
G d F
10 17
d h
B C
D E
21
Now drop a perpendicular of length h to the side of length 21.
1
We also have A = × base × perpendicular distance.
2
Hence A = 21h/2 = 84, from which h = 8. (Here triangle AGF is similar to triangle ABC).
Let the square have side of length d. Considering the ratio of altitude to base in each triangle,
h 8−d
we have =
BC d
8 8−d 8 168
⇒ = = − 1 . Therefore the length of the side of the square is . Ans.(1)
21 d d 29
8. Given a is the radius of the sphere A
Let O be the centre of sphere;
a
V be the volume of the inscribed cone;
h
O
h is its height and r is the radius of the base of the cone. a
h-a
In the given figure OD = AD – AO = h – a
∴ a 2 = (h – a) 2 + r 2 ⇒ r 2 = h(2a– h ) ....(i) B D r C
1 2 1
Now V = πr h = πh 2 (2a – h) and r 2 = h (2a – h).
3 3
dv 1
= πh(4a – 3h).
dh 3
For maximum volume

dv
dh
=0 ⇒
πh
3
c h
4a − 3h = 0 ⇒ Either h = 0 or 4a – 3h = 0.
Taking the second case 4a = 3h ⇒ h = 4a/3. Ans.(1)

9. Let a regular hexagon be inscribed inside the circle of radius r, then perimeter of the circle = 2πr
and the perimeter of the hexagon = 6r.
∴ Required ratio will be = 2π : 6 = π : 3.
Now, Check from the options for n = 6, only option (1) will satisfy.
Again take n = 4 and repeat the above given process, again only option (1) satisfies. Ans.(1)

10. The best way to solve this question is to draw a diagram.
PX-4
PX-1
SX-1 SX-2
PX-2
PX-3
The orbits around the planets denote the satellites. Ans.(3)
Real Time Time by Watch

11. Rav i 4:00 3:50 Rav i thinks : 3:45
Raju 4:00 4:05 Raju thinks : 4:15
So, Raju will reach the station first. Ans.(1)

12. If we take common difference (CD) = 1, then (1, 2, 3), (2, 3, 4), (3, 4, 5) ..... (22, 23, 24).
There will be 22 combinations.
If CD = 2, then the total 20 combinations are possible i.e.,
(1, 3, 5), (2, 4, 6), (3, 5, 7) ..... (20, 22, 24).
If CD = 3, then the total 18 combinations are possible (1, 4, 7), (2, 5, 8), (3, 6, 9), ..... (18, 21, 24).
∴ Total numbers ways will be equal to 22 + 20 + 18 + ..... + 2.
(Note: there will be two combination in last i.e., (1, 12, 23) (2, 13, 24) with CD = 11.
11× 12
Hence total possible combinations are 2 × (1 + 2 + 3 + .....+ 11) = 2 × = 132. Ans.(4)
2
13. Minimum package that can be delivered on Monday is 1, hence 1 package is delivered on Friday.
Remaining atleast 8 packages can be delivered on Tuesday. Wednesday and Thursday in different
ways. Maximum that can be delivered on Monday would be when the delivery is made for maximum
packages i.e., 15 with minimum packages delivered on Tuesday. Wednesday and Thursday i.e.,
2, 1, and 1.
LM 15 − (2 + 1+ 1) OP ≈ 5 packages can be delivered. Ans.(2)
On Monday
N 2 Q
14. Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri
0 1 9 0 0
0 2 7 1 0
0 3 5 2 0
0 4 3 3 0
0 5 1 4 0
Number of packages is delivered on Wednesday could be 9, 7, 5, 3 or 1. Ans.(4)

7+ 4 C 11 C
(7 + 4)!
15. Total number of ways to travel from A to B is 4 = 4 = as any path takes 7 horizontal
7! × 4!
and 4 upward moves. Now, number of ways from A to B via C = Number of ways from A to C × Number of ways
6
C2 × 5 C2 150 5
from C to B = 6C2 × 5C2. Hence, probability is 11
= = . Ans.(2)
C4 330 11
16. From the data given in the question, we get the following arrangement
- Mahesh Wasim - - - Birju -
1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th

Now, the person coming 1 st had the highest score from the seven matches that he/she played. Let
us assume he won all his matches and has the maximum i.e. 7 points. This means that Mahesh,
who came in second must have lost atleast one game and can ∴ have a maximum of 6 points.
Similarly, Wasim coming 3 rd , can have a maximum of 5 points and so on.
This gives us the following points distribution
Player → –– M ahes h Wasim –– –– –– Birju ––

Po sitio n → 1s t 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th
Po in ts → 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0
Our current assumption satisfies the given constraint that Mahesh scores as much as the last four
players put together.
Now, if Mahesh, instead of winning 6 games and losing 1 game; won 5, drew 1 and lost 1 game,
his score would be 5.5. This violates the given constraint for Mahesh's score. Hence, we can
safely conclude that Mahesh's score cannot be less than 6.
This means that Wasim's score cannot exceed 5 (for he has already lost two matches). Applying
the same reasoning as for Mahesh, we derive that Wasim cannot lose any game against the
players ranking below him.
He can also draw with the highest scorer. Hence, the three possible score tally's are
P layer → –– Mahes h Was im –– –– –– B irju ––

P os ition st nd rd th th th th
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8th
→
(A)
7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0
→
(B )
6.5 6 5.5 4 3 2 1 0
→
(C)
6.5 6 5 4.5 3 2 1 0
→
In either case, Wasim beat Birjoo. Ans.(1)
17. The ant must travel 10 seconds so that θ = 45º. After every second the ant advances by 1 m and
the disc returns to its original position (i.e. diameter AB and the table surface are aligned). (one
radian = 180/π degrees). Ans.(2)

y
18. Referring to the figure in the question. A 2 D(2, 1, 0)
Co-ordinates mentioned are A(0, 1, 0),
B(0, 0, 0) and C(0, 0, 1).
B 2 x
E(2, 0, 0)
(2, 1, 1) cannot be the co-ordinates of any C
of the points D, E or F. Ans.(3) 2 F(2, 0, 1)
z
19. Let the five consecutive even numbers 2n, 2n + 2, 2n + 4, 2n + 6, 2n + 8 be respectively equal to
a, b, c, d and e, where n is a natural number. Then v, w, x, y and z are equal to 2n + 1, 2n + 3,
2n + 5, 2n + 7, 2n + 9.
2n + 2n + 2 + 2n + 4 + 2n + 6 + 2n + 8 10n + 20 n+2
⇒ N= = = . Ans.(1)
2n + 1+ 2n + 3 + 2n + 5 + 2n + 7 + 2n + 9 10n + 25 n + 2.5
3 3 2
20. Area of the hexagon = r . Area of the star = area of hexagon + area of 6 triangles.
2
Each side of a ∆ is r (Q ∠DBC = 120° ⇒ ∠CBA = 60°).
And ∠ECB = 120° ⇒ ∠BCA = 60° ⇒ ∠A = 60°). A
∴ ∆ABC is an equilateral ∆ as are others. B C I
H
3 2 R
∴ area of triangle = r . r
4 D O E
3 3 2 3 2
∴ area of star = r +6× × r = 3 3 r 2. F G
2 4
area of hexagon 1 J
∴ = . Perimeter of hexagon = 6r.
area of star 2
Perimeter of star = 12r ⇒ ratio = 1 : 2. Ans.(3)

a2 b2 c2
21. The given expression is: 2
+ 2 + 2
2 a + bc 2 b + ac 2 c + ab
⇒
e je j e je j e je
a 2 2b 2 + ac 2 c 2 + ab + b 2 2 a 2 + bc 2c 2 + ab + c 2 2a 2 + bc 2 b 2 + ac j
e2a + bcje2b + acje2c + abj
2 2 2
⇒
e
a 2 4b 2 c 2 + 2ab 3 + 2ac + a bc j + b e4 a c + 2a b + 2 bc + ab c j + c e4 a b
3 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 2
+ 2 a 3 c + 2b 3 c + abc 2 j
e4a b + 2a c + 2b c + abc je2c + abj
2 2 3 3 2 2
⇒
e4 a b c
2 2 2
j e j e
+ 2 a 3 b 3 + 2 a 3 c 3 + a 4 bc + 4 a 2 b 2 c 2 + 2 a 3 b 3 + 2 b 3 c 3 + ab 4 c + 4 a 2 b 2 c 2 + 2a 3 c 3 + 2b 3 c 3 + abc 4 j
8 a 2 b 2 c 2 + 4 a 3 c 3 + 4 b 3 c 3 + 2 abc 4 + 4a 3 b 3 + 2 a 4 bc + 2 ab 4 c + a 2 b 2 c 2
12 a 2 b 2 c 2 + 4 a 3 b 3 + 4a 3 c 3 + 4b 3 c 3 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4
⇒
9 a 2 b 2 c 2 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4 + 4a 3 c 3 + 4b 3 c 3 + 4 a 3 b 3 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4
12 a 2 b 2 c 2 + 4 a 3 b 3 + 4 a 3 c 3 + 4 b 3 c 3 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4
⇒
e j
9 a b c + abc a 3 + b 3 + c 3 + 4 a 3 c 3 + 4b 3 c 3 + 4a 3 b 3 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4
2 2 2
12 a 2 b 2 c 2 + 4 a 3 b 3 + 4 a 3 c 3 + 4 b 3 c 3 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4
⇒
9 a b c + abc × 3 abc + 4 a 3 c 3 + 4 b 3 c 3 + 4 a 3 b 3 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4
2 2 2

(Since, When a + b + c = 0, (a 3 + b 3 + c 3 ) = 3abc)
12 a 2 b 2 c 2 + 4a 3 b 3 + 4 a 3 c 3 + 4 b 3 c 3 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4
⇒ = 1.
12 a 2 b 2 c 2 + 4a 3 c 3 + 4b 3 c 3 + 4a 3 b 3 + a 4 bc + ab 4 c + abc 4
Short-cut: Assume values like a = 1, b = 2 and c = –3, which satisfy the given equations
(a + b + c = 0) and a ≠ b ≠ c] and check the result. Ans.(2)
22. Let the three side of the triangle are a = x 2 + x + 1, b = 2x + 1 and c = x 2 – 1.
The largest side x 2 + x + 1 = a.
Therefore the largest angle in triangle ABC is given by:
b2 + c2 − a2 (2 x + 1)2 + ( x 2 − 1)2 − ( x 2 + x + 1)2 (1− x 2 )( 2 x + 1) 1

cos A = = 2
= =−
2 bc 2 (2 x + 1)( x − 1) 2(2 x + 1)( x 2 − 1) 2
⇒ cosA = cos120° ⇒ A = 120°. Ans.(3)

23. Let d be the number of days when Shyam stayed with Ram.
Therefore, No. of mornings when they did Yoga = d – 24;
No. of evenings when they played Tennis = d – 14;
And this should be equal to 22. Thus, 22 = d – 24 + d – 14.
Gives the result d = 30. Ans.(3)
24. The total number of sequences which contain at least two consecutive 0
= Total sequences – Sequences which do not contains consecutive zeros.
Total sequences of length five with 0 and 1 as terms = 2 5.
Sequences which do not contain consecutive 0 = 11111, 01111, 10111, 11011, 11101, 11110,
01011, 01101, 01110, 10101, 10110, 11010, 01010. i.e., total 13 sequences.
Hence, required number of sequences = 32 – 13 = 19. Ans.(4)
FG 1+ x IJ , f(y) = log FG 1+ y IJ .
25. f(x) = log
H 1− x K H 1− y K
∴ f(x) + f(y) = log G
F 1+ x IJ + log FG 1+ y IJ
H 1− x K H 1− y K
⇒ f(x) + f(y) = log(1 + x) – log(1 – x) + log(1 + y) – log(1 – y)
⇒ f(x) + f(y) = log (1 + x)(1 + y) – log(1 – x)(1 – y) = log

RS (1+ x)(1+ y) UV
T (1− x)(1− y) W
R| (1+ x + y + xy) U| R| 1+ ( x + y) U|
⇒ f(x) + f(y) = log S
R 1+ x + y + xy UV = log |S (1+ xy) |V = log |S 1+ xy |V
T 1− x − y + xy W || 1+ xy − ( x + y) || || 1− (1x++xyy) ||
T (1+ xy) W T W
F
⇒ f(x) + f(y) = f G
x+y I
H 1+ xy JK . Ans.(2)

26. Ans.(4). Statement D with its “SS Hope endured many stormy seas” follows 1. Statement A then
goes on to cite a few of the difficulties faced during the project. Also, when the first medical team
was to set off (Statement B), a new problem (Statement C) emerged. C goes on to link to 6. Option
(1): B doesn’t have a logical connection with A. Option (2): B is the prelude to C and has been
separated from it. Option (3): C, which should logically be the link to 6, has been placed at the
beginning. Hence, the correct order is DABC and the answer is (4).
27. Ans.(4). Statement C is the link to 1, as it speaks about the anti-Osama campaign as an act of
complete autocracy on part of George Bush. Statement A goes on to explain what happened as
a result - the government furthered the autocracy, demonstrating total lack of respect for freedom
of speech by openly manipulating the media. Statement D explains how the media supported this.
Finally, statement B is a caustic exclamation on the issue of injury and insult to the concept of truth
and freedom of speech always toted by the American government and goes on to link with 6.
Option (1): D wrongly precedes A instead of following it. Options (2) and (3): B, the logical
connection to 6, has been placed at the beginning. Hence, the correct order is CADB and the
answer is (4).
28. Ans.(1). The original option is correct. As a rule for correlative conjunction pairs, “not only” has
to be followed by “but also” and the parts of the sentence following them have to have parallel
construction. All the remaining options violate this rule.
29. Ans.(2). Option (2) serves the best phrasing of the underlined part. Option (1) incorrectly uses
“these”, option (3) has misplaced punctuation marks (commas) and option (4) incorrectly uses
“being”. Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.
30. Ans.(4). The third paragraph of the passage mentions E, fourth paragraph mentions A and D and
the fifth paragraph mentions B. The passage does not mention C. So the combination is A, B, D,
E. Hence, option (4) is the correct option.
31. Ans.(2). The passage does not mention option (2). The fourth paragraph of the passage mentions
options (1) and (3) and third paragraph mentions option (4). Hence, option (2) is the correct
option.
32. Ans.(2). The passage does not mention option (2). The second paragraph of the passage mentions
options (1) and (4) and the third paragraph mentions option (3) as the attractions of BPO industry.
Hence, option (2) is the correct option.
33. Ans.(3). The second paragraph of the passage hints at option (3) and thus is the conclusion
which adheres to the author’s thinking. Options (1), (2) and (4) are irrelevant in the given context.
Hence, option (3) is the correct option.
34. Ans.(2). The second paragraph of the passage depicts option (2) as the main reason for Carrefour
withdrawing from India. Options (1) and (3) are incorrect as they are negated by the second
paragraph. Option (4) is incorrect as it is irrelevant in the given context. Hence option (2) is the
correct option.
“ The best person in the

“
world who can motivate me
is ‘I’. Believe in yourself.
You can do it!
– Vineeta Singh

35. Ans.(4). The seventh paragraph of the passage depicts option (4) as the cause of the opposition
of Government of India for the entry of foreigner in retail trading. Options (1), (2) and (3) are
incorrect as they are irrelevant in the context. Hence option (4) is the correct option.
36. Ans.(4). The tone of the passage can best be called ‘descriptive’ (4). It is not ‘rhetorical’
(grandiloquent, high-flown) (1) or ‘magniloquent’ (lofty, grandiose) (2) or ‘truculent’ (aggressive,
antagonistic) (3). Hence option (4) is the correct option.
37. Ans.(1). The most appropriate meaning of ‘wishy-washy’ is depicted by option (1). Options (2),
(3) and (4) are incorrect as they are irrelevant in the given context. Hence option (1) is the
correct option.
38. Ans.(3). Statement III has not been stated anywhere in the passage, nor can it be used to support
US intentions. The remaining three statements are supported by the seventh and eighth
paragraphs. So, option (3) is correct.
39. Ans.(4). Anthrax poisoning results when the spores pass through the lungs to other tissues
releasing toxins in the process. Victims show signs of respiratory failure, haemorrhage and toxic
shock. Option (4) indicates these symptoms as stated in the third paragraph.
40. Ans.(2). The American government has refused to sign the Kyoto protocol on climate change and
draft agreement aimed at further strengthening the 1972 convention on biological weapons.
This is covered by statements II and III. American government could not refuse the treaty mentioned
in statement I as no such treaty existed. As for the 1972 anti-ballistic missile treaty, American
government only threatened to dismantle it as it affected American interests. So, going by the
seventh paragraph, option (2) is correct.
41. Ans.(3). Statements III and IV are supported by the passage in the second, third and thirteenth
paragraphs. Statements I and II are wrong as they are not supported by the passage.
42. Ans.(3). Option (1) values commitment to the plan over the plan itself whereas the passage talks
about the format of the plan. Option (2) is almost a reproduction of the passage, not the theme.
Option (4) is disconnected within itself and isn't coherent. Option (3) correctly captures the
essence of the passage.
43. Ans.(2). Option (1) suggests that old methods of working are incorrect and, hence, it is ruled out.
Option (3) is verbose. Option (4) is unclear when it talks about “methods and procedures.” Only
option (2) succinctly captures the essence of the passage.
44. Ans.(4). The word is incorrectly used in option (4). The correct usage is ‘She stuck by me during
every crisis.’ (Sticking at something refers to continuing to work hard at it).
45. Ans.(1). The word is incorrectly used in option (1). The correct usage is ‘He is only playing at being
…’ (playing at refers to doing something for enjoyment or interest, or without much care and effort).
46. Ans.(2). The word is incorrectly used in option (2). The correct usage is ‘He knocked back his
drink …’ (knocking back refers to drinking quickly).
47. Ans.(4). Statements A, B, C and D, all are incorrect. In statement A, 'have' should be replaced with
'has'. Words joined to a singular subject by 'as well as' are parenthetical. The verb should
therefore be put in the singular. In statement B, 'are' should be replaced with 'is'. When a plural
noun denotes some specific quantity or amount considered as a whole, the verb is generally
singular. In statement C, 'I' should be replaced with 'me'. The object of a verb or of a preposition
should be in the objective form. Statement D should be written as 'I suggest that you should look
for something else'. The verb 'suggest' should be used with a that-clause and not with a to-
infinitive.
48. Ans.(2). Statements B and C are incorrect. Statement B should be written as: 'His foot slipped on
the porch, and this caused him to fall heavily.' A definite word as the antecedent of the relative
pronoun- 'which', makes the sentences difficult to understand than is possible otherwise. In
statement C, replace 'finger' with 'toe', which is the appropriate word to use.

49. Ans.(2). The context requires opposing words for the first and second blanks. “Commonplace”
and “extraordinary” fit in and “motion” applies to the third blank. The other three options do not
provide opposing words for the first two blanks.
50. Ans.(4). Option (1) has opposing ideas for the first and second blanks, so it is ruled out.
Contextually, “protection” in option (3) is wrong for the second blank. “Anchor” for the third
blank in option (2) cannot go with the article “a”. Therefore, option (4) is correct, and “concern”,
“safety” and “home” are right fits for the three blanks, respectively.
51. A team can play maximum of 24 balls (4 overs of 6 balls). So, team number 5 has made 102 runs
in this 24 balls. Since we have to maximise the number of outs, we also have to maximise the
number of runs taken on a single ball. i.e., 8 runs. Now suppose the wickets taken = x. Then.
(24 – x)×8 – x × 10 = 102 ⇒ x = 5. Number of required strokes = 24 – 5 = 19. Ans.(4)
52. Team ‘6’ plays 24 deliveries as given below.
13 × 8 + 10 × 6 – 10 × 1 ⇒ 104 + 60 – 10 = 154. Ans.(3)
53. Team number 3 plays the bowlers in the following way.
B 1, B 1, B 2, B 3 → 16.2 × 2 + 25 + 16.66 = 74
B 1, B 2, B 2, B 3 → 16.2 + 25 × 2 + 16.66 = 83
B 1, B 2 , B 3 , B 3 → 16.2 + 25 + 16.66 × 2 = 75. Ans.(4)
54. Since the number of boundaries hit by a particular team is fixed so the maximum possible deliveries
they can score could be as follows:
Team 8: 3 × 8 + 3 × 6 + 18 × 1 = 60. He can score in all deliveries.
Team 12: 1 × 8 – 1 × 10 + 40 = 38. He too can score in all deliveries.
Team 9: 4 × 8 + 6 × 6 – 3 × 10 = 38. Now team 9 has to play 11 deliveries and scores only 10 runs
that means at least on delivery will be there on which he wont be able to score.
Team 1: 8 × 5 + 6 × 4 – 10 × 2 + 35 = 79. He too can score in all deliveries. Ans.(3)
805 − 765
55. Variance of Lala Motors at BSE = × 100 = 5.2%.
765
795 − 765
Variance of Lala Motors at NSE = × 100 = 3.9%.
765
740 − 705
Variance of Karishma & Karishma at NSE = × 100 = 4.9%.
705
430 − 405
Variance of Damyanti Udyog at NSE = × 100 = 6.1%. Ans.(3)
405
“ Maintain a balance
between Speed and
Accuracy. This will be
your winning strategy!
“
– Bhushan Dabir

56. The scrip which has shown the highest variation on BSE is Karishma and Karishma with Rs.15
15
variation. Percentage Variation = × 100 = 2.11%. Ans.(1)
710
57. Market capital = Number of shares × Share price. As number of shares are constant, all the
changes in the market capital are corresponding to the share price.
Market capital change during the day is equivalent to change in stock price i.e., change in closing
price over the opening price of any stock.
I. Total market price is coming down during the day employing fall in the market capital.
Hence I is not true. Total marketing capital growth (change in closing price over opening
at BSE).
Name Percentage Change

Lala Motors – 0.6%
Damyanti Udyog – 1.6%
Konda Siel 0.8%
Khajaj Auto 0.4%
Karishma & Karishma 2.1%
Zero Motors Ltd. –0.3%
From the table, growth of Karishma and Karihsma the highest. Hence II is not true.
III. From the table Karishma and Karishma and Khajaj Auto increased by 2.1% and 0.4%
respectively. Hence III is true.
IV. From the table it is clear that Karishma and Karishma 's market capital is the highest.
Hence IV is true. Ans.(3)
58. By observation, the days on which at least 20 pairs of shoes of every size of every company has
been sold are 4th, 13th, 15th, 18th, 20th, 25th, 26th, 29th, 31st, i.e., 9 days. Ans.(1)
59. Adding column wise, we get
Bata – 9 – 4580 pair of shoes.
Woodlands – 9 – 1820 pair of shoes.
Lee Coopers – 9 – 1800 pair of shoes.
Total size 9 pair of shoes but were not from Liberty = 4580 + 1820 + 1800 = 8200. Ans.(4)
60. By counting, the number of auspicious sales are 20. Ans.(4)
61. Adding row wise, Total sales on 1st July for Mega Shoe Company = 1120 units.
Total sales on 12th July = 3680 units.
∴ the “Best day” was 12th July. Ans.(2)
62. By observation, the “Margin” is the least for size 9. Ans.(3)
63. Neither statement (A) alone nor statement (B) alone is sufficient as we don't know the number of
commodities manufactured in 1994. If N is the number of commodities manufactured in 1994, then
combining both statements the number of commodities for 1994 to 1997 is equal to N, 2N, 3N and
3N respectively. Since we don't know the value of N, both statements are not sufficient to answer
the question. Ans.(1)

64. Neither of the two statements alone is sufficient to answer the question. F G
98 0
0
x
If we combine both statements, we can draw a 0 102
Venn diagram to represent the given data as 0
shown.
R
⇒ x = 250 – (98 + 102) = 50. Ans.(4)
65. Statement (A) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Using statement (B), we can calculate
the percent loss as (30 x 30)/100 = 9%. As we know the man's investment, we can calculate his
loss in the transaction. Therefore, statement (B) alone is sufficient to answer the question. Ans.(2)
66. From statement (A), we know that ∠SQP = 60°. Now, using the properties of a 30°–60°–90°
triangle, we can find the length of QR. Therefore, statement (A) alone is sufficient to answer the
question. Ans.(3)
67. Since all three labels have been mixed up, the following two incorrect combinations are possible.
E denotes entice bar and F denotes fiesta bars.
Let the cartons be numbered 1, 2 & 3. (For 3E, 3F and 2E + 1F respectively,) if labelled correctly
1 2 3
3E 3F 2E + 1F ← Correct combinations.
3F 2E + 1F 3E
2E + 1F 3E 3F } Incorrect
Now, if Mr. Choco-O-latey open carton # 1 and finds 3 fiesta bars packs in it, carton # 2 must be
containing 2 Entice + 1 Fiesta packs and cartons # 3 will hence 3 Entice packs.
However, if there is 2E + 1F pack in carton # 1, cartons # 2 holds 3E packs and 3 holds 3F pack.
Ans.(1)
68. From the given information following table could be formed:
Doctor Law y er Businessman Broker

Mr. Jhunjhunw ala ✖
Mr. Malhotra ✖ ✖
Mr. Motiani ✖ ✖
Mr. Patel ✖
Ans.(3)
69. Statement 7 is correct. Since in the given statements, one and only one is true, statement # 8 is
false ⇒ 7 false statements and 1 true statement. Statement # 7 is the only statement indicating
that exactly seven statements are false and hence the answer. Ans.(4)
30
70. Since the three instructions are the same each instruction must have taken = 10 seconds.
3
Now check from the 3 statements for time = 10 sec. Ans.(2)
71. Let, initial position be (x, y). Movement in X direction = 20 + 25 + 0 + 20 + 10 = 75. Movement in
Y direction = 30 + 15 + 10 + 20 + 0 = 75 ⇒ Coordinates at end are (x + 75, y + 75). As given that
final position is (90, 85); the beginning position must be (90 – 75, 85 – 75) i.e., (15, 10). Ans.(2)

20 + 30 50
72. Time taken for Operation 1 = = = 12.5 sec.
4 4
25 + 15
Time taken for Operation 2 = = 20 sec.
2
10
Time taken for Operation 3 = = 4 sec.
2.5
20 + 20
Time taken for Operation 4 = = 20 sec .
2
10
Time taken for Operation 5 = = 2 sec .
5
⇒ Total = 12.5 + 20 + 4 + 20 + 2 = 58.5 sec. Ans.(3)
For Q.73 to Q.75:
The fund size = $28.5 m = 28.5 × 35 = Rs.99.75 crores. Investment in Group A+ shares = 0.6 ×
99.75 = Rs.59.85 crores. The remaining Rs.39.9 crores is invested in Group A shares. The amount
invested in software and electronics sector is the same, say 'x'. The amount invested in
petrochemical sector is x + 10. Now, (x + x + x + 10) = 99.75, which gives x = 29.92. So, the
investment in software and electronics sector = Rs.29.92 crores. For petrochemical sector,
investment = Rs.39.92 crores. Let, investment in electronics stocks and software stocks of Group
A be 'y'. Then investment in petrochemical stocks of Group A is '2y'. We know, (y + y + 2y) = 39.9
which gives y = 9.98. Following table can be formed using the given information
A+ A Total
Software 19.94 9.98 29.92
Electronic 19.94 9.98 29.92
Petrochemical 19.97 19.94 39.91
Total 59.85 39.9 99.75
73. Ans.(2)
74. 19.98/2 = 9.99 amount invested in Indoil.
9.99 cr
∴ Number of share = ≈ 4 lakh. Ans.(4)
250
75. 9.99 crore/4000 = 25000 approx. Ans.(3)
“ “
Regularly spend time
revising the previously learnt
concepts. It helps build
confidence!
– Devashish Chakravarty
100 percentile scorer in CAT 2004 and 2006

Objective key
1.(1) 2.(1) 3.(3) 4.(1) 5.(1)

6.(2) 7.(1) 8.(1) 9.(1) 10.(3)
11.(1) 12.(4) 13.(2) 14.(4) 15.(2)
16.(1) 17.(2) 18.(3) 19.(1) 20.(3)
21.(2) 22.(3) 23.(3) 24.(4) 25.(2)
26.(4) 27.(4) 28.(1) 29.(2) 30.(4)
31.(2) 32.(2) 33.(3) 34.(2) 35.(4)
36.(4) 37.(1) 38.(3) 39.(4) 40.(2)
41.(3) 42.(3) 43.(2) 44.(4) 45.(1)
46.(2) 47.(4) 48.(2) 49.(2) 50.(4)
51.(4) 52.(3) 53.(4) 54.(3) 55.(3)
56.(1) 57.(3) 58.(1) 59.(4) 60.(4)
61.(2) 62.(3) 63.(1) 64.(4) 65.(2)
66.(2) 67.(1) 68.(3) 69.(4) 70.(2)
71.(2) 72.(3) 73.(2) 74.(4) 75.(3)

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Timings for the Test

(2) of (22) IC : PTpnrpc16

15. An Ant starts walking from A to B on a rectangular grid. ×B

IC : PTpnrpc16 (3) of (22)

(4) of (22) IC : PTpnrpc16

FG 1 + x IJ , then f(x) + f(y) is

IC : PTpnrpc16 (5) of (22)

33. Which conclusion adheres to author's thinking as depicted in the passage?

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34. The main reason for Carrefour withdrawing from India is

36. The tone of the passage is

37. The most appropriate meaning of ‘wishy-washy’ as used in passage is

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IC : PTpnrpc16 (11) of (22)

(12) of (22) IC : PTpnrpc16

IC : PTpnrpc16 (13) of (22)

47. A. Silver, as well as gold, have fallen in price.

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DIRECTIONS: Refer to the tables to answer the following question.

Table-3 represent average runs scored per over on particular bowler.

IC : PTpnrpc16 (15) of (22)

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BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange)

NSE (National Stock Exchange)

IC : PTpnrpc16 (17) of (22)

Sales of Shoes of different brands in July 2005 by MEGA SHOE COMPANY.

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IC : PTpnrpc16 (19) of (22)

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72. What would be the time required to produce one unit of M?

IC : PTpnrpc16 (21) of (22)

The price (in Rs.) for various shares is as follows

Company As on 01.01.2000 As on 01.01.2001

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1. The volume of earth to be removed

2. Let the first term of the A. P. = a and the common difference = d.

Corp. Office: Delhi Regd. Office: Indore

Our motto “Kar ke dikhayenge” is delivered through our

“ Practice, Practice &

(2) of (14) IC : PTpnrps16

For maximum volume

Taking the second case 4a = 3h ⇒ h = 4a/3. Ans.(1)

IC : PTpnrps16 (3) of (14)

Real Time Time by Watch

So, Raju will reach the station first. Ans.(1)

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- Mahesh Wasim - - - Birju -

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th

Player → –– M ahes h Wasim –– –– –– Birju ––

P layer → –– Mahes h Was im –– –– –– B irju ––

IC : PTpnrps16 (5) of (14)

Perimeter of star = 12r ⇒ ratio = 1 : 2. Ans.(3)

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b2 + c2 − a2 (2 x + 1)2 + ( x 2 − 1)2 − ( x 2 + x + 1)2 (1− x 2 )( 2 x + 1) 1

⇒ cosA = cos120° ⇒ A = 120°. Ans.(3)

⇒ f(x) + f(y) = log (1 + x)(1 + y) – log(1 – x)(1 – y) = log

IC : PTpnrps16 (7) of (14)

“ The best person in the

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IC : PTpnrps16 (9) of (14)