PRE MOCK CAT - 3 Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 5 7

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How to answer:
1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 75 questions in all with
each section having 25 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing
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three sections.
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MCT-0003/08 Test Form Number: 333

 SECTION – I

Number of questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table provides information about the Population Density of 25 states in United States. These
25 states are ranked as per their population density with the state having greater population density being
given a numerically lesser rank. Area of all the 25 states (in square kilometer) is always an integer. Population
density of any state is the number of people living in the state per square kilometer of the area.

Rank State Population Density

1 New Jersey 438.00
2 Rhode Island 387.35
3 Massachusetts 312.68
4 Connecticut 271.40
5 Maryland 209.23
6 New York 195.18
7 Delaware 154.87
8 Florida 114.43
9 Ohio 107.05
10 Pennsylvania 105.80
11 Illinois 86.27
12 California 83.85
13 Hawaii 72.83
14 Virginia 69.03
15 Michigan 67.55
16 Indiana 65.46
17 North Carolina 63.80
18 Georgia 54.59
19 Tennessee 53.29
20 New Hampshire 53.20
21 South Carolina 51.45
22 Louisiana 39.61
23 Kentucky 39.28
24 Wisconsin 38.13
25 Washington 34.20

1. Find the minimum possible aggregate population of Rhode Island, New York, Pennsylvania, New
Hampshire and Louisiana.
(1) 21,522 (2) 23,442 (3) 22,262 (4) 21,682 (5) 20,426

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 1

2. If the mentioned states are re-ranked as per their area with the state having larger area being given a
numerically lesser rank, then which state among Michigan, North Carolina, Washington, Massachusetts
and Connecticut would have the numerically least rank? [Assume, these five mentioned states have
minimum possible area.]
(1) Connecticut (2) Massachusetts (3) Michigan (4) North Carolina (5) Washington

3. How many of the mentioned 25 states definitely have an area not less than 100 square kilometers?
(1) 12 (2) 11 (3) 10 (4) 9 (5) 8

4. If the area of New York is 150 square kilometers and the average number of people in a family in New
York is 3, then find the total number of families in New York.
(1) 9759 (2) 9653 (3) 9741 (4) 9661 (5) 9619

5. If both Kentucky and Washington have minimum possible area and the area of both the states are
interchanged, with population of both the states remaining unchanged, then find the percentage increase
in the Population Density of Kentucky.
(1) 100% (2) 200% (3) 300% (4) 600% (5) 400%

DIRECTIONS for Questions 6 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In an organisation, the salary component of four empolyees viz. Swapi, Yeshu, Manik and Vinita are shown
below. The salary consists of four parts — Basic and DA being two of them.

14000 50
12000

DA as % of basic
40
10000
30
Basic

8000
6000 20
4000
10
2000
0 0
Swapi Yeshu Manik Vinita

Basic DA as % of Basic

In addition to Basic and DA, they also get HRA (House Rent Allowance) and Bonus, which are the other two
parts.
HRA depends upon empolyee’s city of residence. Bonus depends upon the percentage of sales targets achieved
by the employee. The following tables provide information about the percentage sales targets achieved and
the class of the city in which they reside. Each empolyee resides in a city of a different class and earns a
different amount in bonus.

Sales target achieved Bonus (Rs.) Class of City HRA(Rs.)

100% 10000 Metro 7000
90% 8000 A 5000
80% 6000 B 4000
70% 5000 C 2000

2 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

Swapi lives in Delhi. He has achieved the lowest percentage sales target.
Yeshu lives in Pune and Manik lives in Raipur.
Vinita lives in Bokaro. She has achieved a lower percentage sales target than that achieved by Yeshu. She gets
Rs. 8000 in Bonus.
Delhi is a Metro class city. Pune is a B class city. Bokaro is a C class city.
Tota tax on the salary is calculated as per the formula given below:
Total tax = 30% of Basic + 20% of HRA + 10% of Bonus
DA is exempted from tax.

6. What is the salary of Vinita?

(1) Rs. 25000 (2) Rs. 20000 (3) Rs. 32000 (4) Rs. 26000 (5) Rs. 21400

7. What is the total tax on the salary of Swapi?

(1) Rs. 5100 (2) Rs. 5400 (3) Rs. 4000 (4) Rs. 4800 (5) Rs. 4900

8. The total tax on Yeshu’s salary is what percent of his salary ?

(1) 20% (2) 18% (3) 15% (4) 22% (5) 25%

9. The DA component of Manik’s salary is what percent of the HRA component of his salary ?
(1) 60% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 48% (5) 75%

DIRECTIONS for Questions 10 to 14: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five friends Chris, Matthew, Shane, Graham and Greame bought 10 cookies and distributed among themselves
such that each of them received a distinct integral number of cookies. Each of them likes a different biscuit
from amongst Hide n seek, Bon-Bon, Maska Chaska, Krackjack and Good day (not necessarily in that order)
and likes to watch a different TV shows from amongst Sportscenter, Raw, Wrestlemania, Smackdown and
Hitz (not necessarily in that order). Sportscenter and Hitz are sports shows and rest are wrestling shows. No
two persons like same type of biscuit or same TV show. Following information is also given:

1. Shane who didn’t receive any cookies does not like any wrestling show.
2. Chris likes Maska Chaska and received more cookies than Matthew.
3. Difference in the number of cookies with Shane and with Chris is equal to the difference in the number
of cookies with Matthew and with Graham.
4. Greame didn’t receive the maximum number of cookies.
5. Matthew and Shane like TV shows starting with the same alphabet.
6. Person who received the maximum number of cookies likes Krackjack and a wrestling show.
7. Persons whose names start with the same alphabet, like the same type of TV shows.
8. Greame didn’t like Bon-Bon and Shane didn’t like Hide n seek.

10. Who likes Krackjack?

(1) Graham (2) Matthew (3) Shane (4) Greame (5) Cannot be determined

11. Which biscuit does Greame like?

(1) Good Day (2) Hide n Seek (3) Bon-Bon (4) Krackjack (5) Cannot be determined

12. If Shane likes Good Day, then which biscuit does Matthew like?
(1) Good Day (2) Hide n Seek (3) Bon-Bon (4) Krackjack (5) Cannot be determined

13. Which TV show is liked by Chris?

(1) Wrestlemania (2) Raw (3) Smackdown (4) Hitz (5) Cannot be determined

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 3

14. Which of the following pairs of TV show and biscuit was definetely not liked by the same person?
(1) Hitz – Maska Chaska (2) Smackdown – Good Day (3) Raw – Bon-Bon
(4) Smackdown – Bon-Bon (5) None of these

DIRECTIONS for Questions 15 to 19: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The average annual salary figures of five leading B-schools have been shown below.

Average Annual Salary (Rs. in lakh)

Narsee Monjee 5

K.J. Somaiya 4

IMI 5

IMT 6

FMS 7

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Total salary offered in the B − School

Average Annual Salary =
Number of students in the B − School

The percentage of students getting PPOs (Pre-Placement Offers) and their average annual salary (in lakhs) is
shown below.

Average
Annual
Salary

% of students

0 5 10 15 20 25 30
FMS IMT IMI K.J. Somaiya Narsee Monjee

4 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

The number of students, companies visiting the campus and total offers made (including PPO’s) have been
shown below for the mentioned five leading B-schools.

160 250
140
Number of companies

200

Number of offers
120
and students

100 150
80
60 100
40
50
20
0 0
FMS IMT IMI K.J. Somaiya Narsee
Monjee
B-school

Number of Companies Number of students Number of offers

15. The ratio of number of students to the number of companies visiting the campus is lowest for
(1) IMT (2) FMS (3) Narsee Monjee
(4) Both (1) and (2) (5) Both (2) and (3)

16. Which B-school has the highest total number of offers per student?
(1) IMT (2) Narsee Monjee (3) IMI
(4) FMS (5) K.J. Somaiya

17. The ratio of the number of offers to the number of companies visiting the campus is highest for
(1) IMT (2) K.J. Somaiya (3) IMI
(4) FMS (5) Narsee Monjee

18. At FMS, what is the average salary of students, who did not get PPO?
(1) Rs. 7 lakh (2) Rs. 4.5 lakh (3) Rs. 8 lakh
(4) Rs. 6 lakh (5) Rs. 6.5 lakh

19. Which college had the best placements?

(1) FMS (2) IMT (3) IMI
(4) Narsee Monjee (5) Cannot be determined

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 5

DIRECTIONS for Questions 20 and 21: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer
each question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B
alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A
alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the
statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
20. In a year ‘X’, which month(s) will have its first day falling on a Sunday?
A: First May is a Sunday in the year (X – 1).
B: First December is a Sunday in the year (X + 3).
21. Is x > y?
A: (x – y) × (x – y) > 0.
1 1
B: (x + y) ×  +  = 4 .
x y

DIRECTIONS for Questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Production department of a multinational company houses seven typists where all of them are working on a
project. The given diagrams describe their performance over the four days of the project, one for each day. In
each diagram, the four squares reflect the percentage of total number of lines typed in that day by the top four
typists of the day whereas the middle circle denotes the number of lines typed by the remaining typists in that
day. No two typists type the same number of lines on a given day. A typist may not type even a single line on
a given day. The management also computed two parameters for each typist viz. Performance Variance (PV)
and Sigma. PV of a typist is the positive difference between the sum of the maximum and minimum possible
number of lines typed across 4 days and the sum of the number of lines typed on the remaining two days. The
Sigma of a typist is the average of the two middle quantities, if the number of lines typed by him across 4 days
are arranged in a non-decreasing order.
D ay 1 D ay 2

23 24 18 20
G au rav S a n ja y K an d a rp S alim

76 70

S a lim 14 20 A m m ar 16 26 D ip ak
K ap il

D ay 3 D ay 4

17 18 36 22
K ap il S a n ja y D ip ak S a n ja y

105 45

G au rav 16 14 S a lim A m m ar 18 14 K an d a rp

6 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

22. Given that the Sigma for all typists is an integer, for how many of mentioned typists it is not possible to
calculate the exact value of Sigma?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4
(4) 5 (5) 6

23. For whom of Sanajay, Salim and Ammar, the value of PV can come out to be 0?
(1) Salim (2) Sanjay (3) Ammar
(4) Both (1) and (2) (5) (1), (2) and (3)

24. How many typists have definitely typed more number of lines than Kapil over the entire project?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
(4) 4 (5) 5

25. For which typist, the difference between the minimum and the maximum possible Sigma is the least?
(1) Sanjay (2) Salim (3) Gaurav
(4) Kandarp (5) Ammar

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 7

 SECTION – II

Number of questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 29: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

Passage

Last week, at a cocktail party on British diplomatic premises somewhere in North America, a question reared
itself in my head—oh, for the thousandth time since I began to be aware of it. After all these years of stoical
endurance, I can see no reason not to go public in search of an answer: Why are the Brits—no, not you Philip,
Daisy, Marcus and Matthew, dear friends all, and generous spirits—such appalling, skinflint hosts?

In the hour we spent at this massed British party, I saw just one plate of hors d’ouevres—spring rolls—float by
in the distance. Was the food a mirage, wondered my wife, her beguiling thought quickly dispelled by a horde
of guests, their hands grabbing at the precious parcels of dough and (one can only presume) bean sprout. No
apparitions they, but modern Tuaregs in suits, eking by on the meager rations at this cocktail “Sahara Anglais”
friends.

I think one answer to why the British are such poor hosts might be found in wartime austerity and the post-war
rationing that forced Britons of every class to think that skimpery was smart. I put this relatively obvious point
to a friend in London, who responded by saying that, while the general premise was sound, “one can’t help
thinking that the post-war frugality tapped into existing norms. I don’t remember anyone handing round the
crisps in Jane Austen’s drawing rooms.”

Besides, anyone who went to the communist-era Eastern Bloc—Poland, say, or the Ukraine—was always
struck by how ordinary folk would save for days to host a guest royally. Those heaps of gherkin, sausage,
tomato, bread and cheese, not to mention the vodka on the table, were the result of a sacrificial accumulation
calculated to please a visitor. These were—and still are—people determined to be hospitable, come what may.
The Brits, by contrast, often appear determined to be anything but, and would regard the aforementioned
Poles and Ukrainians as irresponsible. Philosophically there is no shame among Britons in failing to be en-
tirely hospitable.

In an attractive little book called The Duchess Who Wouldn’t Sit Down: An Informal History of Hospitality,
Jesse Browner discusses the paradox of hospitality—that “we are incomplete alone and compromised in
company.” Yet more than any other species, the Briton actually feels complete alone. In fact, so entrenched is
his sense of private space—one’s home as one’s castle and all that—that mere admittance through the front
door is seen as privilege enough. A friend recalls for me a time when he was invited to a Scottish castle. Upon
arrival by overnight express from London, “said castle-residing hosts greeted us to announce that the whole
group would go straight from the train to Fort William supermarket to jointly buy supplies for the weekend,
including teabags.”

There is the fact, of course, that a good time among the British is associated more with drink than food. A
peripatetic friend, with experience of years in England, put it to me like this: “The food at their parties is
treated as an annoying but necessary incidental. Compare the Indian or Iranian lady who knows that she is
going to be judged by the presentation, quantity and quality of her food. When have you ever seen the first
guests at an English party take a photo of the laden table?”

8 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

At bottom, there is deep ambivalence about generosity in the English psyche. It is both admired and feared.
Falstaff is a lovable, generous rogue; but he comes to a sticky end. Henry V has to grow up and cut back on
the canapés. Scrooge repents and becomes generous. But the proto-Scrooge, distrusting hospitality and gen-
erosity, was the typical Victorian businessman against whom Dickens was campaigning.

Brits have a horror of ostentation (and a frequent inability to distinguish it from generosity). This may have
been ground into them by their “public” school system and its hatred of show-offs and swots. In America, the
rich and successful are admired, not envied. In Britain, even talking about how much money you have is
reckoned very bad form. Self-depreciation is considered a virtue—and so is frugality, its first cousin. The
British are a funny, screwed-up people, terrified of making an exhibition of themselves, and generosity is an
exhibition of sorts. To be sure, a few unstinting Cavaliers struggle for supremacy in Britain. But the Roundheads
usually—no, always—win.

26. It can be inferred that the author quotes his wife because
(1) he wanted to show the lack of etiquette during Brit parties
(2) he wants to prove that his opinion is based on experience
(3) he was appalled at the cheap choice of food at a cocktail party
(4) he was taken aback at how soon the food arrived
(5) he was not surprised at the behaviour of the guests

27. The author cites the example of the behaviour of the citizens of the countries of the Eastern Bloc in
order to
(1) show how people around the world differ in their culture and in the way they treat guests
(2) showcase varying interpretations of hospitality
(3) point out how adverse times seem to have not had the same behavioural impact on all people
(4) display how strangers are more welcome in a new country than citizens
(5) show how some people are more hospitable than others.

28. It can be inferred that the phrase “Sahara Anglais” is used to highlight
(1) the theme of the cocktail party
(2) the location where the cocktail party was hosted
(3) the amusing nature of the situation
(4) the name of the hosts
(5) the desert-like lack of food

29. How does the author credit public schools in creating skinflint Brits?
(1) They ingrain condescension towards showing off
(2) They are so expensive that parents have to be frugal in order to afford a good education for their
children
(3) They create children who are told to be economical in order to make the best of their fortunes
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) Both (2) and (3)

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 9

DIRECTIONS for Questions 30 to 34: There is one blank in each of the following sentences. From the
words given, choose the one that fills the blank most appropriately.

30. ___ is the branch in philosopy that studies the origin of knowledge.
(1) Axiology (2) Cosmology (3) Ontology (4) Epistemology (5) Metaphysics

31. ___ is a collection of selected passages or excerpts from one or more authors.
(1) Eulogy (2) Anthology (3) Edition (4) Panegyric (5) Analects

32. Non-poetic compositions are said to be written in ___.

(1) verse (2) prose (3) script (4) meter (5) cadence

33. ___ learners learn best in hands-on learning settings in which they can physically manipulate something
to learn.
(1) Parse (2) Tactile (3) Feeble (4) Quick (5) Active

34. Adhering strictly to scholarly methods is termed _____.

(1) pedantic (2) laconic (3) bucolic (4) philosophy (5) semantics

DIRECTIONS for Questions 35 to 37: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

35. A. It tells the story of the campaign to repeal the estate tax (what we would call inheritance tax) in the
United States, which culminated in the inclusion of the measure in George Bush’s massive tax-
cutting legislation of 2001.
B. Politics of another country’s tax system is unlikely to be of much interest to anyone with any sort of
normal life.
C. Listening to the ins and outs of other people’s fiscal battles can be like listening to other people’s
dreams: interminable and almost completely unreal.
D. Death by a Thousand Cuts is something different.

(1) BADC (2) BCDA (3) CBAD (4) CABD (5) BACD

36. A. Lottery officials suspected a scam until they traced the sequence to a fortune printed with the digits
“22-28-32-33-39-40” and Donald Lau’s prediction: “All the preparation you’ve done will finally be
paying off.”
B. As a vice-president at Wonton Food, Inc., in Long Island City, Donald Lau manages the company’s
accounts payable and receivable, negotiates with insurers, and, somewhat incidentally, composes
the fortunes that go inside the fortune cookies, of which Wonton is the world’s largest manufacturer.
C. Each day, Wonton’s factory churns out four million Golden Bowl-brand cookies, which are sold to
several hundred vendors, who, in turn, sell them to most of the forty thousand Chinese restaurants
across the country.
D. Wonton’s primacy in the industry and, for that matter, in the gambler’s imagination is such that
when, in March, five of six lucky numbers printed on a fortune happened to coincide with the
winning picks for the Power ball lottery, a hundred and ten people, instead of the usual handful,
came forward to claim prizes of around a hundred thousand dollars.

(1) CBAD (2) CBDA (3) ADCB (4) DCAB (5) DBAC

10 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

37. A. The service of the Church accordingly, and the translation of the Bible which was read in churches,
were both in that corrupted Latin which was the common language of the country.
B. When Christianity was first established by law, a corrupt form of Latin had become the common
language of all the western parts of Europe.
C. Two different languages were thus established in Europe: a language of the priests and a language
of the people.
D. However, although Latin was no longer understood anywhere by the great body of the people,
Church services still continued to be performed in that language.

(1) BACD (2) BADC (3) ABCD (4) ABDC (5) BCDA

DIRECTIONS for Questions 38 and 39: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in five
different ways, numbered 1 to 5. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or
INAPPROPRIATE.

38. ENSHRINED

1. The right to vote is enshrined in our constitution.

2. The priests enshrined the holy pendant inside the sacred vault.

3. The diamond was enshrined in the bank vault.

4. Respect for elders is enshrined in our religious books since time immemorial.

5. 'Service to all' is deeply enshrined in the policy of the mission.

39. FURTHER

1. Further to the letter sent by you, we would like to meet you on Wednesday morning.

Rishi was alarmed when he realized he had climbed further up the mountain than anyone
2.
else.
3. I plan to study abroad in order to further my future.

The family was grief stricken when they realized that the disease had progressed further
4.
than what was diagnosed.

5. Understanding the implications of this argument requires further investigation.

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 11

DIRECTIONS for Questions 40 and 41: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the
last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the
most appropriate way.
40. Teaching creationism in American public schools has been outlawed since 1987 when the Supreme
Court ruled that the inclusion of religious material in science classes was unconstitutional. In recent
years, however, opponents of the theory of evolution - first developed by Charles Darwin, have
regrouped, challenging science education with the doctrine of “intelligent design”, which has been
carefully stripped of all references to God and religion. Unlike traditional creationism, which claims
that God created the earth in six days, proponents of intelligent design say the workings of this planet
are too complex to be ascribed to evolution. There must have been a designer working to a plan - that
is, a creator. _____________________
(1) However, these kinds of teachings are unacceptable to the American public.
(2) However, there are many schools that are in favour of teaching traditional creationism to the students.
(3) However, such beliefs are not substantial enough to convince the American courts to allow teaching
the subject in its schools.
(4) However, the American government believes that the students must have the knowledge of traditional
creationism, as well as, intelligent design.
(5) However, some believe that parents should decide what subjects should be taught to their children.

41. Linguistics is the scientific study of language. It endeavours to answer the question—what is language
and how it is represented in the mind? Linguists focus on describing and explaining language and are
not concerned with the prescriptive rules of the language (i.e. do not split infinitives). Linguists are not
required to know many languages and linguists are not interpreters. The underlying goal of the linguist
is to try to discover the universals concerning language. That is, what are the common elements of all
languages. _____________________
(1) The linguist then tries to place these elements in a theoretical framework that will describe all
languages and also predict what specific rules can occur in a language.
(2) The linguist then tries to place these elements in a theoretical framework that will describe all
languages and also predict what specific rules cannot occur in a language.
(3) The linguist then tries to place these elements in a theoretical framework.
(4) The linguist then tries to place these elements in a theoretical framework that will describe particular
languages and track changes from time to time.
(5) Knowing the common elements in these languages makes interpreting a particular language relatively
easy.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 42 to 50: The two passages given below are followed by a set of questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage - I

Eight-million Iraqi voters have finished risking their lives to endorse freedom and defy fascism. Three things
happen in rapid succession. The right cheers. The left demurs. I walk away from a long-term intimate
relationship. I’m separating not from a person but a cause: the political philosophy that for more than three
decades has shaped my character and consciousness, my sense of self and community, even my sense of
cosmos.

I choose this day for my departure because I can no longer abide the simpering voices of self-styled progressives
— people who once championed solidarity with oppressed populations everywhere — reciting all the ways
Iraq’s democratic experiment might yet implode.

12 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

My estrangement hasn’t happened overnight. Out of the corner of my eye I watched what was coming for
more than three decades, yet refused to truly see. Now it’s all too obvious. Leading voices in America’s
“peace” movement are actually cheering against self-determination for a long-suffering Third World country
because they hate George W. Bush more than they love freedom.

Like many others who came of age politically in the 1960s, I became adept at not taking the measure of the
left’s mounting incoherence. To face it directly posed the danger that I would have to describe it accurately,
first to myself and then to others. That could only give aid and comfort to Jerry Falwell, Pat Robertson, Rush
Limbaugh, Ann Coulter and all the other Usual Suspects the left so regularly employs to keep from seeing its
own reflection in the mirror. Now, I find myself in a swirling metamorphosis. Think Kafka, without the bug.
Think Kuhnian paradigm shift, without the buzz. Every anomaly that didn’t fit my perceptual set is suddenly
back, all the more glaring for so long ignored. The insistent inner voice I learned to suppress now has my rapt
attention. “Something strange — something approaching pathological — something entirely of its own making
— has the left in its grip,” the voice whispers. “How did this happen?” The Iraqi election is my tipping point.
The time has come to walk in a different direction — just as I did many years before.

I grew up in a northwest Ohio town where conservative was a polite term for reactionary. When Martin Luther
King Jr. spoke of Mississippi “sweltering in the heat of oppression,” he could have been describing my
community, where blacks knew to keep their heads down, and animosity toward Catholics and Jews was
unapologetic. Liberal and conservative, like left and right, wouldn’t be part of my lexicon for a while, but
when King proclaimed, “I have a dream,” I instinctively cast my lot with those I later found out were liberals
(then synonymous with “the left” and “progressive thought”).

The people on the other side were dedicated to preserving my hometown’s backward-looking status quo. This
was all that my 10-year-old psyche needed to know. The knowledge carried me for a long time. Mythologies
are helpful that way.

42. The ‘long term intimate relationship’ mentioned by the author in the first paragraph means
(1) separation from politics
(2) breaking away from his left beliefs
(3) political philosophy
(4) the long-held belief in democracy
(5) separating from his progressive counterparts

43. It can be inferred that the author feels that the ‘self styled progressives’ have
(1) been selfish and shallow in opposing Iraq’s democratization
(2) been wrong about furiously opposing George Bush
(3) opposed Iraq’s democratization because they like George Bush
(4) shortchanged their ideals for money
(5) rebelled against Iraq’s democratization because they do not want a puppet government.

44. Which of these best describes the author’s tone in the passage?
(1) Critical
(2) Argumentative
(3) Pessimistic
(4) Truculent
(5) Introspective

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 13

45. It can be inferred that the mythologies the author is talking about mean
(1) the stories of black superiority
(2) Martin Luther King’s lecture
(3) generalised idea about political positions
(4) white supremacists
(5) the stories of black minority

Passage - II

In a few days, the United Kingdom hosts the heads of the world’s wealthiest eight nations in Gleneagles,
Scotland for a summit that has tackling poverty, especially in Africa, at the top of its agenda. In September, G-
8 leaders join others in New York for a United Nations General Assembly Summit on the Millennium Devel-
opment Goals, which include a commitment to halve the proportion of the world’s population living in pov-
erty by 2015. In December, the top most decision-making council of the World Trade Organisation will meet
in Hong Kong to discuss a “development agenda” for world trade.

As Asian governments, development agencies, and citizen sector organisations grapple with the realities of
poverty at the heart of tsunami relief and recovery, in Africa disease, starvation, and a lack of clean water
have ensured that life expectancy in some countries has shrunk to a level last seen in AD 500. Just five years
after the promise was made to halve poverty by 2015, the world is running 135 years behind schedule. The
year 2005 has seen the launch of a campaign aiming to consign poverty to the past. Building on the strengths
of civil society movements, it aims to make the most of the political opportunities for change this year. Unlike
Live Aid or tsunami relief, this is not a campaign to raise funds for food crops. The ‘Make Poverty History’
campaign is about mobilising people to create the political will to drive lasting policy change. It is engaging
a new generation in holding their governments accountable for their actions on the world stage.

Comprising more than 450 development agencies, campaigns, faith groups, trade unions, and other
organisations, ‘Make Poverty History’ is the largest campaign coalition ever assembled in the U.K. Taking a
white band as their symbol of commitment, the campaigners have sent tens of thousands of emails to Prime
Minister Tony Blair and Chancellor of the Exchequer Gordon Brown. In the run-up to Gleneagles, at least
200,000, dressed in white, will have converged on Edinburgh for a show of solidarity with the victims of
poverty. They will be joined by two million people campaigning locally across the U.K. The campaign has
brought in an impressive range of public figures and celebrities, among them actors Brad Pitt, Hugh Grant,
and Colin Firth, screenwriter Richard Curtis, models Kate Moss and Claudia Schiffer, and musicians Bono,
Lemar, Cold Play, Kylie Minogue, and Paul McCartney. Bob Geldof’s Live 8 concerts, being staged in five
continents, are a huge global boost to the campaign.

In the U.K., a movement of this kind is particularly significant. The country holds the presidency not only of
the G-8 group, but from July also of the European Union. Moreover, both Mr. Blair and Mr. Brown have an
expressed interest in global poverty, and in particular, African development. The British Prime Minister chaired
a 17-member international “Commission for Africa,” which came out with a visionary set of recommenda-
tions in March 2005. Over the past eight years, Mr. Brown has been working to persuade the world’s wealthi-
est nations to write off £140 billion debt owed by the African continent. Unveiling his “modern Marshall
Plan,” he called for global action to “reverse the fortunes” of Africa and change the lives of millions in the
developing world.

There are those who fear that the “positive outcomes” contained in a communiqué will amount to nothing
more than hot air. Corruption, political weaknesses, rampant HIV infection, and civil war present major
challenges. However, humankind has never been richer, or better armed with the medical knowledge,
technological prowess, and intellectual firepower needed to beat poverty. While finding ways to get badly

14 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

governed countries to raise their game is hard and hugely controversial for outsiders to do, this should not be
a barrier to action on the critical issues.

The ‘Make Poverty History’ campaign addresses three key policy areas — more and better aid for the world’s
poorest countries; debt cancellation; and trade justice.
Back in 1970 donor countries promised to give 0.7 per cent of their national income in aid to the developing
world. While personal incomes in rich countries have increased by 200 per cent since 1960, wealthy nations
spend collectively half the amount on aid they did in the early 1960s as a proportion of national income. Of
the 22 major bilateral donors, only five have met the 0.7 per cent target. Significantly, not one of them is a G-
8 member. The ‘Make Poverty History’ movement is campaigning not just for more aid but also for better aid.
International aid tends to be volatile. More than a quarter of it arrives more than six months late. About 70 per
cent is committed for three years or less — to guarantee primary education for a whole generation, a commitment
of six years is necessary. Even in circumstances where aid has been shown to work, sudden policy changes in
donor countries tend to undermine worthy efforts. Furthermore, there are many examples of aid with strings
attached. These ensure that most of the benefits go to firms in the donor country in the form of goods and
services; or that the assistance is tied to specific policies that have a counter-productive effect because they
are not a part of national government or civil society consultation.

The Brown-Blair response to this situation has given campaigners cause for some hope. The Africa Commis-
sion called for international aid to be increased by $25 billion by 2010, and then by a further $25 billion by
2015.

Mr. Brown’s International Finance Facility (IFF) is a means through which this aid can be doubled. This
scheme will let donors increase their total aid by borrowing against future aid budgets, and allow it to be spent
in a more predictable way. Part of the argument is that if the right investment in heath and education is made
now, the developed world will not need to spend so much in poverty alleviation in the future. The hope is that
G-8 leaders will make some significant announcements on aid.

Nearly 90 per cent of the debt of 52 of the poorest and most indebted countries has yet to be cancelled. In the
post-colonial era, many countries were lent money that was squandered on arms used for the benefit of a tiny
minority in power. As interest rates have risen, many countries still owe more than the original loan after years
of repayment. This prevents critical investment in health and education infrastructure. For example, Malawi
spends more on servicing its debt than on health although nearly one in five Malawians is HIV positive.

46. The author means by the comment “Just five years after the promise was made to halve poverty by
2015, the world is running 135 years behind schedule”, that
(1) The present level of poverty remains at the same level as 135 years ago
(2) The present level of poverty is lower than what it was 135 years ago
(3) The current level of poverty is at the same level as it was in 1970
(4) Poverty levels are gradually getting worse instead of getting better
(5) It has become difficult to estimate the present poverty levels.

47. Which one of these have not been mentioned as a reason making UK’s involvement in the ‘Make
poverty history’ campaign important?
(1) Tony Blair and Gordon Brown have expressed interest in the subject
(2) Gordon Brown has been lobbying for debt sign-offs to loans given to Africa
(3) Tony Blair chairs the “Commission for Asia”
(4) UK is the president of the G-8
(5) The U.K. holds the presidency of the European Union.

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 15

48. Which one of these correctly states the author’s position with reference to the “positive outcomes” of
the campaigns mentioned?
(1) They will not work since there are other pressing problems such as corruption, HIV infection etc.
(2) They will fail because the countries’ they are trying to change are international outcasts
(3) They cannot overhaul governmental policies of states but can selectively work on important issues
(4) They can put political pressure and wield it to implement the changes
(5) None of the above.

49. What is the author trying to say by phrasing “Make Poverty History’s” agenda as being “better aid not
more aid”?
(1) Too much aid has been seen to have a detrimental effect on the recipient countries
(2) The eventual impact of the aid on the recipient country is what has to be focused at
(3) Involving donors who are more committed to the cause will eradicate history
(4) More aid has led to corruption in recipient countries.
(5) Countries cannot manage the flow of aid if the quantum is high.

50. What is the essential rationale behind the issue of debt cancellation?
(1) Countries’ past rulers made erroneous use of the money and this has deleterious effects in the
present
(2) Countries’ which provided this aid now want it back since their economy is not in a healthy state
(3) The interest rates on the debts are so high that countries’ have to borrow more
(4) The international organizations do not want to be involved with the situation since the chief donors
also provide them with financial help
(5) The countries which have provided aid do not want to reduce the interest rates.

16 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

 SECTION – III

Number of questions = 25

51. Find the number of positive integral solutions of the equation (xy)z = 64.
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17 (5) 18

52. 5 concentric squares each having different area are drawn on a sheet of paper. If the area of the circle
inscribed in the smallest square is 77 square units and the distance between the corresponding vertices
of consecutive squares is 1.5 units, then find the difference between the areas of the largest and the
 22 
smallest square in square units.  Take π = 
 7 
(1) 240 (2) 264 (3) 224 (4) 216 (5) 256

53. The list price of an article was increased by 10%. It was then decreased by 10%. If the final price
became Rs. 20, then find the initial list price (in Rs.)

10 × 100 2 20 2 × 10 2 20 × 100 2 10 × 20 2  100 2 − 10 2 

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 20 ×  
100 2 – 20 2 100 2 – 10 2 100 2 – 10 2 100 2 – 20 2  100 2 
 

54. A class of 24 boys was divided into two sub-sections containing 12 boys each. What is the probability
that the two shortest boys of the class are in different sub-sections, if all boys have different heights?
7 6 12 14
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None of these
24 23 23 23

55. Two wheels of diameters 7 cm and 14 cm start rolling simultaneously towards each other from two
points which are 1990.5 cm apart. Both wheels make the same number of revolutions per second. If
both the wheels meet (touch externally) after 10 seconds, then what is the speed of the smaller wheel?
(1) 132 cm / sec (2) 66 cm / sec (3) 44 cm / sec (4) 22 cm / sec (5) 67 cm / sec

4 16
56. ‘S’ denotes the sum to infinity and ‘Sn’ denotes the sum to ‘n’ terms of the series 1 + + + ….
5 25
5
If S − Sn < , then the least value of ‘n’ is
2
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6

57. Three positive real numbers ‘x’, ‘y’ and ‘z’ exist such that they are in an arithmetic progression and the
product of x, y and z is 25. If the common difference of the arithmetic progression is 2 5, then find the
value of (x + y + z).
(1) 10 + 2 5 (2) 15 (3) 8 + 4 5 (4) 20 (5) 10

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 17

58. Mr. X bought 10 identical chocolates. He ate 2 chocolates and sold the remaining 8 chocolates for
Rs.60 making a net profit of 32%. Find the profit percent had he eaten 6 chocolates and sold the
remaining 4 chocolates for Rs.48.
(1) 4.8% (2) 5.6% (3) 6.4% (4) 7.2% (5) 6.8%

59. From a point P, the tangents PQ and PT are drawn to a circle with centre O and radius 2 units. From the
centre O, OA and OB are drawn parallel to PQ and PT respectively. The length of the chord TQ is
2 units. Find the measure of the ∠AOB.

B A

O
T Q

(1) 30° (2) 90° (3) 60° (4) 120° (5) 45°

60. Let a, b, c and d be four distinct positive integers such that a2 + b2 = c2 + d2 = x and a2 – c2 = mn, where
‘m’, ‘n’ are prime numbers greater than 2. What is the value of ‘x’?

m 2 + n2 m 2 + n2 1
(1 + m 2 ) (1 + n 2 )
(1) (2) (3)
4 2 4

(4)
1
2
(1 + m 2 ) (1 + n 2 ) (5)
4
(
3 2
m + n2 )
DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 and 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In an exam there are 30 questions. If a person solves a question correctly, he is awarded 5 marks and if he
solves it incorrectly 2 marks are deducted from his score. There are no marks awarded or deducted for not
attempting any question.

61. Arjun got 60% of the maximum possible marks he can get in the exam. Let ‘a’ denote the number of
questions attempted correctly and ‘b’ denote the number of questions attempted wrongly. The total
number of possible pairs (a, b) can be at most
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 8

62. How many natural numbers less than 150 can never be the total number of marks got by any student
writing this test?
(1) 0 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 11 (5) 12

f(8) − f(7) + f(5)

63. Given that f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1 and f(2) = 1. If f(n) = f(n+1) – f(n–1), then find the value of .
f(7) − f(6) − f(4)
13 9 16 16 13
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
5 2 5 7 2

18 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

64. Anup purchased a few chocolates for his three grandsons such that the number of chocolates got by
each grandson is atleast 2 and is not a prime number. Which of the following cannot be the number of
chocolates purchased by Anup. (All the three grandsons got a distinct number of chocolates by Anup.)
(1) 21 (2) 23 (3) 16 (4) 18 (5) None of these

65. There is a two-digit number, which is equal to the sum of the squares of its digits. What is the sum of the
digits of that number?
(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 6
(4) 8 (5) Such a number is not possible

66. There is a trapezium ABCD such that the sides AB and CD are parallel to each other. The diagonals
AC and BD intersect at O. The area of the triangle COD is 10 square cm and the area of the triangle
AOB is 40 square cm. Find the area of the trapezium.

D C

A B

(1) 90 square cm (2) 100 square cm (3) 250 square cm

(4) 45 square cm (5) 120 square cm

67. What is the product of all factors of the number N = 64 x 102 which are divisible by 5?
(1) 2210 × 3102 × 5140 (2) 2210 × 3140 × 5105 (3) 2140 × 3210 × 5102
140 102
(4) 2 × 3 × 5 210 102 210
(5) 2 × 3 × 5 140

68. Nitin has exactly 50 mangoes and lots of empty boxes with him. He puts ‘x’ mangoes in the first box,
(x + 1) mangoes in the 2nd box, (x + 2) mangoes in the 3rd box and so on till he has put (x + k) mangoes
in the (k + 1)th box till there are no more mangoes to be put in a box. In how many ways he can put the
mangoes in the boxes? (‘x’ and ‘k’ are positive integers)
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6

69. In the figure given below O, Q, P and R are respective centres of circles of different radii. It is further
given that the length of the line segements OP, PQ, OR, PR are 98, 157, 92 and 170 units respectively.
Find the radii of the circles with centres O, Q, P and R respectively.

Q
P
O
R

(1) 190, 92, 43, 66 (2) 180, 75, 64, 88 (3) 190, 92, 64, 66
(4) 180, 75, 82, 88 (5) 180, 75, 80, 88

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 19

70. Out of 4 different roses and 9 different sunflowers, a bouquet of flowers is to be prepared. Find the
number of ways of preparing a bouquet consisting of eight flowers containing at least one rose.
(1) 1384 (2) 12C7 (3) 1244
(4) 1360 (5) 1278

71. The content development team was working at a uniform rate to develop 2500 questions in ten weeks.
But after working for six weeks, the content team was informed by the management that the remaining
questions had to be developed in one week. By what percentage does the team need to increase its rate
of development of questions so that it can complete developing the remaining questions in one week?
(1) 100% (2) 250% (3) 300%
(4) 400% (5) 500%

72. If a + b = 9, where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are positive integers, then which of the following cannot be the unit’s digit
of a 243 + b243 − (ab)243 ?
(1) 1 (2) 9 (3) 7
(4) 3 (5) Both (3) and (4)

73. If the equation x3 + ax2 + bx = c does not have all real roots, then which of the following is the sufficient
condition to make it true?
(1) a2 < 4b (2) a2 < 2b (3) a2 > 2b
(4) a2 > 4b (5) a = 3c

74. Two sprinters are running in clockwise direction on a circular track ‘x’ km long (x > 1). Their second
meeting takes place at a point C which is 200 m from their starting point in the anticlockwise direction
on the circular track. If both of them started at the same time, then the location of their first meeting
point is:

I. 100 m from the starting point in the anticlockwise direction.

II. 100 m, in the anticlockwise direction, from the point diametrically opposite to the starting point.
III. 200 m from the starting point in the anticlockwise direction.

(1) Definitely I (2) Definitely II (3) Definitely III

(4) Either I or II (5) Either II or III

75. Find the smallest natural number which when divided by 7, 8 and 9 leaves the remainder 2, 4 and 6
respectively.
(1) 492 (2) 436 (3) 212
(4) 380 (5) None of these

20 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

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 PRE MOCK CAT – 3
Answers and Explanations
1 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 5 5 6 1 7 5 8 2 9 4 10 1

11 5 12 3 13 4 14 3 15 4 16 1 17 3 18 4 19 5 20 5

21 2 22 5 23 5 24 2 25 1 26 2 27 3 28 5 29 1 30 4

31 5 32 2 33 2 34 1 35 2 36 2 37 2 38 3 39 3 40 3

41 3 42 2 43 1 44 5 45 3 46 1 47 3 48 3 49 2 50 1

51 3 52 1 53 3 54 3 55 2 56 3 57 2 58 2 59 4 60 3

61 1 62 5 63 5 64 3 65 5 66 1 67 2 68 1 69 4 70 5

71 3 72 3 73 2 74 4 75 1

MY PERFORMANCE
Total Time Taken Total Correct Incorrect Net
Questions (Min) Attempts Attempts Attempts Score

Logical Reasoning based

Section I 25
Data Interpretation
Language Comprehension
Section II 25
and English Usage
Quantitative Ability Section III 25
TOTAL 75 150

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MCT-0003/08
PRE MOCK CAT - 3 1
For questions 1 to 4: Washington → population density = 34.20
The number of people cannot be in decimals, so they should be in So for integral number of people at least 5 km2 area should be
integers only. Now consider the two digits after the decimal point in there.
every figure of population density column.
Massachusetts → population density = 312.68
Out of the given states for all those states which have an odd number So for integral number of people at least 25 km2 area should
(except multiple of 5) after the decimal, the population density must be be there.
multiplied by 100 to get minimum possible number of people living in
that state. e.g. Maryland. Connecticut → population density = 271.40
So for integral number of people at least 5 km2 area should be
For all those states which have an even number (except multiple of 10 there.
and multiple of 4) after the decimal, the population density must be
multiplied by 50, if the even number after the decimal is a multiple of So out of the given states in terms of area Massachusetts will
4 the population density must be multipled by 25 to get minimum possible definitely have a numberically higher rank than the other states.
number of people living in that state. e.g. New York.
3. 3 All those states which have an odd number (except multiple
If the even number after the decimals is a multiple of 4 as well as 10, of 5) after the decimal will have an area of at least 100 km2
the population density must be multipled by 5, to get minimum possible Among the given states 10 states will definitely have area of
number of people living in the state. 100 km2, i.e. Maryland, Delaware, Florida, Illinois, Hawaii,
Virginia, Georgia, Tennessee, Louisiana and Wisconsin.
For all those states which have odd multiples of 5 after the decimal,
the population density must be multiplied by 20 to get minimum possible 4. 1 Total population of New York = 195.18 × 150 = 29277
number of people living in that state. e.g. Rhode Island.
29277
Total number of families in New York = = 9759
For all those states which have multiples of 20 after the decimal, the 3
population density must be multiplied by 5 to get the minimum possible
number of people living in that state. e.g. Pennsylvania. 5. 5 Minimum possible area of Kentucky = 25 km2
Minimum possible area of Washington = 5 km2
1. 3 Rhode Island → population density = 387.35 Now areas of both Kentucky and Wisconsin are interchanged
For integral number of people in Rhode Island it must have So new area of Kentucky = 5 km2
atleast an area of 20 km2. In this case population of Rhode Population of Kentucky = 39.28 × 25
Island will be 387.35 × 20 = 7747 39.28×25
New Population density of Kentucky =
New York → population density = 195.18 5
For integral number of people in New York must have at least = 39.28 × 5
an area of 50 km2. In this case population of New York will be Population density of Kentucky changes by
195.18 × 50 = 9759 39.28 × 5 – 39.28
= × 100 = 400%
39.28
Pennsylvania → population density = 105.80
For integral number of people in Pennsylvania must have
atleast an area of 5 km2. In this case population of Pennsylvania For questions 6 to 9:
will be 105.80 × 5 = 529
Basic DA Bonus HRA Total Tax
New Hampshire → population density = 53.20 Swapi 10000 4000 5000 7000 26000 4900
For integral number of people New Hampshire must have Yeshu 12000 4200 10000 4000 30200 5400
atleast an area of 5 km2. In this case population of New
Manik 8000 2400 6000 5000 21400 4000
Hampshire will be 53.20 × 5 = 266
Vinita 12000 3000 8000 2000 25000 4800
Louisiana → population density = 39.61
All answers are evident from the table above.
For integral number of people Louisiana must have atleast an
area of 100 km2. In this case population of Louisiana will be
6. 1 7. 5 8. 2 9. 4
39.61 × 100 = 3961
For questions 10 to 14:
Minimum possible aggregate of these four states population
From statement 1 Shane received 0 cookies. From statement 3, [Shane
= 7747 + 9759 + 529 + 266 + 3961 = 22262
and Chris], and [Matthew and Graham] can have [(0,1)(2,3)] or
[(0,2)(1,3)] or [(0,3)(1,4)] cookies respectively.
2. 2 State that will be definitely ranked higher in terms of area will
Using statements 2 and 4 we can conclude that only possible case is
be the one whose minimum possible area is more than the
[(0,3)(1,4)]. So Greame must have got 2 cookies.
minimum possible area of other states.
Using statement 1 and statement 7 we can say that Graham and
Greame like wrestling shows, as Shane likes a sports show and
Michigan → population density = 67.55
there are only two sports shows. From statement 5, Matthew likes
So for integral number of people at least 20 km2 area should
Smackdown and Shane likes Sports Center. So Chris likes Hitz.
be there.
From statement 6 Graham likes Krackjack.
From statement 8 Greame likes Hide n Seek or Good Day. Shane likes
North Carolina → population density = 63.80
Good Day or Bon-Bon. Matthew likes Hide n Seek or Bon-Bon or
Good Day.
So for integral number of people at least 5 km2 area should be
there.

2 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

 21. 2 Statement (A) : (x – y)2 > 0.
No. of It cannot be inferred that (x – y) > 0.
Name TV show Type of Biscuit It can even be (y – x) > 0
cookies
So, statement (A) itself is not sufficient.
Shane 0 Sports Center Good Day/Bon-Bon Statement (B) : (x + y) (x + y) = 4xy
Hide n Seek/Bon- (x + y)2 – 4xy = 0⇒x – y)2 = 0⇒x = y.
Matthew 1 Smackdown
Bon/Good Day So, x >/  y. So, statement (B) in itself is sufficient.
Hide n Seek/Good Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
Greame 2 Raw/Wrestlemania
Day
Chris 3 Hitz Maska Chaska For questions 22 to 25: From the given information, we can
calculate the aggregate number of lines typed by the typists in a day.
Graham 4 Wrestlemania/Raw Krackjack

10. 1 Graham likes Krackjack. Day 1 (Nu m b er of lines 400)

11. 5 Greame likes either Hide n Seek or Good Day.

Hence cannot be determined. 96
92
G au ra v S a njay
12. 3 If Shane likes Good Day then Greame likes Hide n Seek and
then Matthew likes Bon-Bon.
76
13. 4 Chris likes Hitz.

14. 3 Raw – Bon Bon cannot be a matching pair, which is liked by

the same person. S a lim 56 80 A m m ar

For questions 15 to 19: The following table can be drawn.

Number Number Of f ers Of f ers

Number of
B-school of of per per Day 2 (Nu m b er of lines 350)
companies
students of f ers company student
FMS 60 100 125 2.08 1.25
IMT 90 150 225 2.5 1.5 63 70
K a nd arp S a lim
IMI 50 120 150 3 1.25

K.J.Somaiya 70 150 150 2.14 1

70
Narsee
80 150 200 2.5 1.33
Monjee
K a pil 56 91 D ip a k
15. 4 The ratio of number of students to the number of companies
visiting the campus is lowest for both FMS and IMT, i.e. 1.67.

16. 1 IMT has the highest number of offers per student.

17. 3 IMI has the highest ratio. Day 3 (N u m b er o f lines 300)

18. 4 Total salary of the students of FMS = 100 × 7 = Rs. 700 lakh
PPO salary = 25% of 100 × 10 = Rs. 250 lakh
Average annual salary of students not getting the PPO’s 51 54
K a pil S a njay
700 − 250 450
= = = Rs. 6 lakh
100 − 25 75
Hence option (4) is the correct choice. 1 05

19. 5 Though FMS had the best average salary, what constitutes
best placements has not been defined.
So, option (5) is the correct choice, i.e. cannot be determined. G au ra v 48 42 S a lim

20. 5 No information is provided about the year ‘X’, if it is a leap year

or not. Hence option (5) is the correct choice.

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 3

 22. 5 For only Sanjay, the minimum possible sigma and the maximum
possible sigma lie within an integer.
Day 4 Num
( ber of lines 450)
Hence, for remaining six typists, exact sigma cannot be
calculated.

16 2 99 23. 5 For Sanjay, Salim and Ammar, the value of PV can be zero as
S an jay per the following conditions.

Name Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 PV

45 Salim 56 70 42 28 0
Sanjay 96 51 54 99 0
Ammar 80 26 25 81 0
81 63 K an darp
A m m ar
24. 2 Maximum lines that Kapil can type is 55 + 56 + 51 + 44 = 206.
Now Sanjay and Dipak have already crossed that mark.
Hence, both of them have definitely typed more number of
Table shows the number of lines typed by a typist. lines than Kapil.

25. 1 The difference between the maximum and the minimum

Day 1 (Total Day 2 (Total Day 3 (Total Day 4 (Total possible Sigma is least i.e. 0 for Sanjay.
Name
= 400) = 350) = 300) = 450)
Gaurav 92 48 26. 2 The author starts off the passage by talking about the Brits
being skinflint hosts. The second paragraph talks about a
Salim 56 70 42 cocktail party he attended with his wife and using the word
‘mirage’ – an illusion, means that she has had the same expe-
Sanjay 96 54 99
rience as the author and shares in his opinion. He is trying to
Ammar 80 81 substantiate his opinion and using an experience where his
wife comments on something makes it look realistic. This makes
Kapil 56 51 option (2) correct.
Dipak 91 162
27. 3 The author makes this point in the fourth paragraph. He has
Kandarp 63 63 introduced his reasoning in the third paragraph regarding the
explanation for the skinflint nature of the Brits being the
Maximum / wartime austerity, which became an ingrained habit. This is
refuted if one looks at some countries where the same wartime
Minimum
situations prevailed with no impact on the hospitality of the
number of
people. This makes option (3) correct.
lines typed 55/0 55/0 41/24 44/0
by those who 28. 5 The author uses this phrase in the second paragraph which
are not in the uses the name of a famous desert to indicate his main point –
top four the skinflintness of the Brits so that their cocktail parties seem
like being in a desert. This makes option (5) correct.

6able shows the minimum and maximum possible sigma’s. 29. 1 The author mentions in the last paragraph one of the aspects
of the Brit nature to look down upon ostentation, which might
Minimum possible Maximum possible serve to explain the skinflint nature. The public schools are
Name
sigma sigma guilty in that they teach students not to show off. This makes
0 + 48 55 + 48 option (1) correct.
Gaurav = 24 =51.5
2 2
30. 4 epistemology is correct.
56 + 42 56 + 44
Salim =49 =50
2 2 31. 5 analects is correct.
96 + 54 96 + 55
Sanjay = 75 = 75.5 32. 2 prose is correct.
2 2
80 + 24 80 + 55 33. 2 tactile is correct.
Ammar =52 =67.5
2 2 34. 1 pedantic is correct.
51 + 0 51 + 55
Kapil =25.5 =53 35. 2 The best option for the first sentence is sentence B.
2 2
It introduces the topic by talking about the disinterest regarding
63 + 24 63 + 55 the politics of taxation of another country. Sentence C takes
Kandarp =43.5 =59
2 2 that further by elaborating upon why it is a cause of such
disinterest and Sentence D introduces a book that is “different”.
91 + 24 91 + 55
Dipak =57.5 =73 Sentence A is next with information about what lies inside the
2 2 book. DA is a mandatory pair in this case. This makes option
(2) correct.

4 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

36. 2 The author introduces the Wonton factory in sentence C and
sentence B mentions its Vice President and his role. Sentence
D talks about an interesting incident related to the company
and sentence A provides the rationale behind it. DA is a
mandatory pair and this makes option (2) correct.
48. 3 The author mentions this in the fifth paragraph “While finding
ways to get badly governed countries to raise their game is
hard and hugely controversial for outsiders to do, this should
not be a barrier to action on the critical issues.” This makes
option (3) correct.

37. 2 BA is a mandatory pair. The link word is ‘corrupted latin’.
Conclusion C arises from D. Hence DC is also a mandatory
pair. Hence best choice is option (2).
38. 3 ‘enshrined’ means to cherish as sacred & has the association
of respect, ruling out option (3).
39. 3 The correct sentence should be ‘further my education/ ca-
reer’, ‘… future’ is incorrect.
40. 3 The passage refers to the subject of creationism, teaching
evolution and the stance taken by the American courts. The
beginning of the passage provides the hint.
(1) is vague. (2) restricts the idea to the point of view of the
schools. (4) mentions the opinion of the American government
whereas the passage refers to the opinion of the American
court. (5) refers to another idea and does not provide an
appropriate ending.
41. 3 In the para it is stated that one of the linguists’ goals is to
discover the universals concerning language. (1) and (2) talk
about specific rules which is negated by the paragraph. (4) is
incorrect because it talks about particular languages. (5) is
incorrect because it talks of interpretation. (3) is best in line
with the universal theme of the paragraph.
42. 2 The author mentions in the passage a set of political
happenings and then clarifies after he mentions the ‘long term
intimate relationship’ – “I’m separating not from a person but a
cause…”. This makes option (2) correct.
49. 2 The author makes this comment in the seventh paragraph
while talking about the problems that plague aid coming into
country. The issue is not so much the amount as much as the
use it is put to. This makes option (2) correct.
50. 1 The author looks at this issue in the ninth paragraph and the
basic logic for the demand is that the money was wasted by
earlier governments and now countries’ need to pay more
interest than the principal amount. This has to be channeled
from important causes and has a deleterious effect on the
present state. This makes option (1) correct.
51. 3 (xy)z = 26 = 43 = 82 = 641
When
z = 1, xy = 64. The total number of factors of 64 is 7.
z = 2, xy = 8. The total number of factors of 8 is 4.
z = 3, xy = 4. The total number of factors of 4 is 3.
z = 6, xy = 2. the total number of factors of 2 is 2
Hence, total number of positive integral solutions is 16.
52. 1 Diameter of the circle is equal to the side of the smallest
2
square is πr = 77
⇒ r = 3.5 2
⇒ 2r = 7 2 , side of the smallest square.
Diagonal of the innermost square = 14 units.
Diagonal of the largest square will be 14+ [(1.5) × 2] × 4
= 14 + 12 = 26 units
⇒ Area of the largest square

43. 1 The author mentions in the second and third paragraph the 1
= × (diagonal)2 = 338 sq units and area of the smallest
incident of the ‘self styled progressives’ opposing Iraq’s 2
democratization. What he finds objectionable about this is the
( )
2
fact that they have for long supported democratization of square = 7 2 = 98 sq. units.
oppressed people, but in case of Iraq have changed their
stance because they dislike George Bush. This makes option Required difference = 338 – 98 = 240 square units.
(1) correct.
53. 3 List price first increases by 10% and then decreases by
44. 5 The author starts off the passage by talking about a decision 10%.
he has taken regarding his political affiliations. He then  100 + 10   100 – 10 
proceeds to provide reasons for it and traces various points ⇒ ×  × initial list price = final list price
across his life relevant to this event. He is critical of the left,  100   100 
but the tone is about his decision and the rationale behind it.
This makes option (5) correct. 20 × 1002
⇒ Initial list price =
1002 – 102
45. 3 The author mentions his beginnings into the political landscape
from his childhood. He mentions that he was 10 years old and 54. 3 Total number of ways of dividing 24 boys in two distinct
did not know much about politics, all he knew was that – “The
people on the other side were dedicated to preserving my 24!
sub-sections is
24
C12 =
hometown’s backward-looking status quo”. This was the 12!12!
mythology that simplified the decision for him. This makes There can be two ways in which two shortest boys lie in
option (3) correct. different sub-section and correspondingly the remaining
22 boys can be divided into two distinct sub-sections in
46. 1 The author makes this point in the second paragraph and it 22 C
11 ways.
means that the time at which the comment is made, the level of
poverty is the same as it was 135 years ago with no reference 2× 22
C11 12
∴ Probability = 24
=
to the year 2015. This makes option (1) correct. C12 23

47. 3 The author lists the reasons in the fourth paragraph and option
(3) is incorrect as the Commission chaired was for Africa,
not Asia.

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 5

 57. 2 Let, the values of ‘x’ and ‘z’ be denoted by (y − 2 5) and
55. 2
(y + 2 5)
In th e be ginn in g 25 = (y – 2 5 ) (y) (y + 2 5 )
⇒ y3 = 25 + 20y
1 99 0.5 cm ⇒ y=5
Therefore, x + y + z = 3y = 15

58. 2 Selling price of 8 chocolates = Rs. 60.

Since Mr. X made a profit of 32%, the cost price of 10
1 0 .5
chocolates = Rs. 
6000   500 
3.5 7  = Rs.  
W h en in con ta ct  132   11 
9.89 Selling price of 4 chocolates = 48.

 500 
 48 − 11 
Let the number of revolutions per sec = x.   × 100 = 5.6%
Profit percent =
Then, the speed of the smaller wheel 500
11
 7
=  2 π  × ( x ) = 7πx cm / sec
 2
1
Speed of the larger wheel = 14 π x cm / sec 59. 4 B A
In 10 sec, together they travel a distance
= (1990.5 − 9.89) cm
= 1980.61 cm O 2

1980.61 T M 1 Q
∴ = 10
14 π x + 7π x
Or, 21 π x = 198
198 × 7
Or, x = =3
21 × 22 P
22
∴ Speed of smaller wheel = 7 × ×3 Since, OQ = TQ = 2 units, therefore ∆OTQ is an equilateral.
7
= 66 cm/sec ∴ ∠TOQ = 60°
Since, PQ is a tangent to the circle, therefore ∠OQP = 90°.

56. 3 S=
1
=5 Since, PQ is a parallel to OA therefore ∠AOQ = 90°.
4
1− For the same reason ∠BOT = 90°.
5
∴ ∠AOB = 360° – (∠TOQ + ∠AOQ + ∠BOT ) = 120°.
  4 n 
1×  1 −   
 5  a2 – c2 = d2 – b2 = mn. Assuming m > n; we can say
 = 5 1 −  4  
n 60. 3
Also, Sn = 
  a + c = m, a – c = n ...(i)
   
4 5
1− OR a – c = 1, a + c = mn ...(ii)
5
Similarly; d – b = 1 and d + b = mn ...(iii)
n
OR d – b = n and d + b = m ...(iv)
4 If (i) & (iv) OR (ii) & (iii) are the cases; we get
⇒ S − Sn = 5 ×  
5 a = d & c = b; but a, b, c & d are distinct.
Hence, only (ii) & (iv) OR (i) & (iii) are correct.
5
3 S − Sn < m+n mn − 1
2 cases (i) & (iii) give a = &b=
2 2
n
4
( )( )
5
⇒ 5×  < 1
1 + m2 1 + n2
5 2 ⇒ x = a2 + b2 =
4

4 1
n mn + 1 m−n
⇒   < Cases (ii) & (iv) give a = and b =
5 2 2 2

5
⇒   >2
n
⇒ x = a2 + b2 =
1
4 (
1 + m2 1 + n2 )( )
4 Hence, (3) is the correct choice.
∴ Minimum possible value of ‘n’ is 4.

6 PRE MOCK CAT - 3

 66. 1
5a
61. 1 5a – 2b = 60% of 150 = 90 or b = − 45
2 D a C
Since (a, b) are integers and a + b ≤ 30, the only possible h2
pairs are (18, 0) and (20, 5). O
h1
62. 5 A student can leave 0 or 1or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 ... or 30
questions unattempted. When a student attempts all the 30
questions and gets 0 or 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or ... out of them A b B
incorrect, then he can have all the scores in the series 150, Let AB = b; CD = a.
143, 136, ... 3. Hence if all the questions are attempted, 22 Let the perpendiculars from O to AB and CD be h 1 , h 2
distinct scores can be achieved. Similarly, we can list all the respectively.
possible scores when a student leaves 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or Triangles AOB and COD are similar.
6 ... questions, out of the 30. Since the ratio of their areas is 1 : 4; the ratio of the proportional
The following table lists the possible scores. sides and the heights h2, h1 must be 1 : 2.
1
Number Area of the trapezium = (a + b) (h1 + h2)
Number of Possible Scores 2
General of
Questions (Maximum to 1
Form Possible (3a) (3h2)
=
Unattempted Minimum) 2
Scores
= 9 × area of the triangle COD = 90 sq cm.
0 150, 143, 136, … , 3 7N + 3 22
1 145, 138, 131, … , 5 7N + 5 21 67. 2 Total product of the factors of
2 140, 133, 126, … , 0 7N 20 N = (26 × 34 × 52)105/2
3 135, 128, 121, … , 2 7N + 2 20 Total product of the factors of N
Which are not multiples of 5
4 130, 123, 116, …, 4 7N + 4 19 = (26 × 34)35/2= 2105 × 370
5 125, 118, 111, … , 6 7N + 6 18 So, total product of the factors of N which are multiples of 5.
6 120, 113, 106, … , 1 7N + 1 18
2315 × 3210 × 5105
=
2105 × 370
When a student leaves 7 questions, the possible scores will
be (115, 108, 101, ... , 3) which are already counted in the = 2210 × 3140 × 5105
case (7N + 3). Similarly, all the possible scores (from 1 to 150)
when 8, 9, 10, ... questions are left unattempted are already 68. 1 The equation will look like, x + (x + 1).......(x + k) = 50.
counted. The total number of possible scores are: 22 + 21 + There are a total of k + 1 terms, average of these k + 1 terms
20 + 20 + 19 + 18 + 18 = 138. Hence the number of scores (2x + k )
which are not possible to achieve are 150 – 138 = 12. Hence is .
2
(5) is correct.
So, (k + 1)(2x + k) = 100 = 22 × 52.
Since x, k are positive integers, the only possible values of
63. 5 3 f(n) = f(n + 1) − f(n − 1) k + 1 is 4 and 5 for which the value of x is 11 and 8 respectively.
⇒ f(n – 1) = f(n + 1) – f(n) ∴ (x, k) = (11, 3), (8, 4)
∴ f(8) – f(7) = f(6) and f(7) – f(6) = f(5)
⇒ f(n + 1) = f(n) + f(n – 1) 69. 4 When two circles having radii r 1 and r 2 circles touch
externally, the distance between their centres = sum of the
⇒ f(3) = f(2) + f(1) = 1 + 1 = 2 radii of the two circles = (r1 + r2)
⇒ f(4) = f(3) + f(2) = 2 + 1 = 3
⇒ f(5) = f(4) + f(3) = 3 + 2 = 5
⇒ f(6) = f(5) + f(4) = 5 + 3 = 8 r1 r2
f(8) − f(7) + f(5) f(6) + f(5) 8 + 5 13
∴ = = =
f(7) − f(6) − f(4) f(5) − f(4) 5 − 3 2 When the circles touch internally, distance between their
centres = difference between their radii = (r1 – r2)
64. 3 Out of the given options only 16 cannot be expressed as a
sum of 3 distinct composite numbers.
21 = 4 + 8 + 9, 23 = 6 + 8 + 9 and 18 = 4 + 6 + 8
Hence option (3) is the correct choice.
r 1– r 2
r 1– r 2
65. 5 10a + b = a2 + b2
10a – a2 = b2 – b Let the radii of the circles with centers O, Q, P and R be R, r1,
a(10 – a) = b(b – 1) → Now b(b – 1) is always even. r2 and r3
⇒ a(10 – a) can be → 2 × 8 = 16 or 4 × 6 = 24 OP = R – r2 = 98
Neither 16 nor 24 can be the product of two consecutive PQ = r1 + r2 = 157
numbers such as (b – 1) and b. OR = R – r3 = 92
PR = r2 + r3 = 170
⇒ R = 180, r1 = 75, r2 = 82 and r3 = 88

PRE MOCK CAT - 3 7

 Alternative Method: 74. 4
Can be directly solved by using the options by equating the
sum and difference. 1 00 m

70. 5 At least one rose means if one rose is there, then 7 sun O’
P
flowers would be there. Or, if two roses are there, means 6
sun flowers and it goes upto 4 roses & 4 sunflowers.
Total number of ways
= 4
C1 × 9C7 + 4C2 × 9C6 + 4C3 × 9C5 + 4C4 × 9C4
C
Q
⇒ 4 × 36 + 6 × 84 + 4 × 126 + 1× 126 O
⇒ 144 + 504 + 504 + 126 = 1278 1 00 m
2 00 m
2500
71. 3 Initial Efficiency per week = = 250 questions. If their starting point is O, and they are meeting for the second
10
time at C, then
After six weeks, total developed questions Either they are meeting for the first time at Q (I)
= 250 × 6 = 1500 questions Or, they are meeting for the first time at P (II)
Remaining questions = 2500 – 1500 = 1000
100 75. 1 Smallest natural number which when divided by 7 leaves a
Increase rate = (1000 – 250) × = 300% remainder of 2 is 2.
250
⇒ The number is of the form 2 + 7K
Now when we divide this number by 8, remainder should be
72. 3 If a + b = 9, then possible pairs of values of a and b not
4.
necessarily in that order is (1,8); (2,7); (3,6) and (4,5)
(K = 0) ⇒ 2 divided by 8 ⇒ remainder is 2.
Case 1: (a, b) is (1, 8): a243 + b243 – (ab) 243 = 1 + 2 – 2 = 1.
(K = 1) ⇒ 9 divided by 8 ⇒ remainder is 1.
For the below mentioned values of ‘a’ and ‘b’, the value of So, with each increment in K, remainder decreases by 1.
(ab) 243 is greater than the value of (a243 + b243). ⇒ To get remainder as 4 (or 8 – 4 = 4), the decrease must be
Case 2: (a, b) is (2, 7): (ab) 243 – (a243 + b243) = 4 – (8 + 3) carried out six times.
= 3. ⇒K=6
Case 3: (a, b) is (3, 6): (ab) 243 – (a243 + b243) = 2 – (7 + 6)
∴ Smallest natural number which when divided by 7 leaves
= 9.
a remainder of 2 and which when divided by 8 leaves a
Case 4: (a, b) is (4, 5): (ab) 243 – (a243 + b243) = 0 – (4 + 5)
remainder of 4 is 2 + 7 × 6 = 44.
= 1.
LCM (7, 8) = 56
⇒ The number is of the form 44 + 56r.
73. 2 Assume α, β and γ be the roots of the equation Now when we divide this number by 9, the remainder should
x3 + ax2 + bx = c be 6.
Then, α + β + γ = −a, αβ + βγ + γα = b (r = 0) ⇒ 44 divided by 9 ⇒ 8 remainder
(r = 1) ⇒ 100 divided by 9 ⇒ 1 remainder
2 2 2 2 2 So, with each increment in r, remainder gets increased by 2.
So, (α + β + γ ) = α + β + γ + 2(αβ + βγ + γα ) = a
⇒ To get a remainder of 6, r will be like
⇒ α2 + β2 + γ2 + 2b = a2
(r = 1) ⇒ remainder 1
⇒ α 2 + β2 + γ 2 = a2 − 2b (r = 2) ⇒ remainder 3
(r = 3) ⇒ remainder 5
If α, β & γ are all real, then
(r = 4) ⇒ remainder 7
α2 + β2 + γ2 must be positive. But, if α2 + β2 + γ2 is negative,
(r = 5) ⇒ remainder 0
then 2 roots out of (α, β, γ) must be non real numbers
(r = 6) ⇒ remainder 2
(complex numbers).
(r = 7) ⇒ remainder 4
⇒ If a2 < 2b, then all the roots of the equation are not real. (r = 8) ⇒ remainder 6
So, the smallest such number is 44 + 56 × 8 = 492

Alternative Method:
LCM of (7, 8, 9) = 504
When we subtract 3 from the LCM and divide by 7, 8 and 9
respectively, remainders will be 4, 5 and 6. Here, the gap in
these remainders is 1. When we subtract 9 from 501, then
their remainder gap will be doubled i.e. 2, 4 and 6. So, the
required smallest number is 504 – 3 – 9 i.e. 492.

8 PRE MOCK CAT - 3