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1. A branch is (Ans: d) a.

An unconditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in the component except the next statement b. A conditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in a component c. When a component has more than one entry point, a transfer of control to any entry point of the component d. All of the above e. None of the above 2 A metric is: (Ans: c) a. A mathematical number that shows a relationship between two variables. b. Metrics is quantitative measure of the degree to which a system /component or process possesses a given attribute. c. Both (a) and (c) d. None of the above. 3 Data collected during testing should include: (Ans: d) a. Test Factors. b. Functions/subroutines c. Platforms d. All of the above e. None of the above 4 Which of the following does not represents ways to define and measure test coverage?(Ans:b) a. Statement coverage b. Point to point coverage c. Branch coverage. d. Basic path coverage. 5 For building a test plan following tasks are required. Choose the correct sequence.(Ans: c) a. Understand Project Risks, Form Test Team, Build Test Plan b. Build Test Plan, Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks. c. Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks, Build Test Plan d. None of the above represents the tasks involved in building test plan 6 Choose the correct from those given below. (Ans: d) a. Compliance Testing Business rules. b. Black Box Testing Path Coverage. c. Regression Testing End users. d. File Integrity Control Totals e. None of the above. 7 The best place to log incidents is which of the following: (Ans: d) a. Test script b. Test log c. User report d. Defect Tracking system

8 To know with adequate confidence, when is testing over, which of the following is the best approach? (Ans: b) a. Declare that it is over when Time is out. b. Use test appropriate Metrics c. Declare that it is over when budget is consumed d. Let the management decide that 9 Which of the following is not a component of software fit for acceptance? (Ans: d) a. Data b. Structure and People c. Rules d. Models 10 Which of the following statements are not correct.(Ans: d) a. Structural testing evaluates all aspects of the structure to very that the structures is sound b. Functional testing technique help ensure that the requirement/specifications are properly satisfied by the software system c. Functional testing not concerned with how processing occurs, but with the results of process. d. Functional testing techniques help to establish the roles and responsibilities of users during acceptance testing. 11 which of the following is not one of the technique to find defects.(Ans: c) a. Operational Techniques b. Dynamics Techniques c. Functional Techniques d. Static Techniques 12 The concept of defensive code involves: (Ans: c) a. Adding a syntax checker in the middle of the code b. Adding Throw() and Catch() c. Adding code to a program so that two part of the program must fail before a major problem can occur d. None of the above 13 Quality Assurance methods are usually considered (Ans: b) a. Detective b. Preventive c. Corrective d. Protective 14 Who has the primary responsibility of setting the quality culture in the organization (Ans: c) a. The Training Dept. b. The Quality Dept. c. Senior Management d. None 15 In statistics, the mean and median are called (Ans: e) a. SPC

b. Variance c. Standard deviation d. Control Chart Values. e. Measure of Central tendency 16 Quality principle dictate that the strategic quality plan should (Ans: a) a. Be incorporated by the quality assurance function b. Be written for quality assurance function c. Identify individual quality programs d. Define the size of the quality assurance department. 17 Pareto analysis will tell us (Ans: a) a. Which problems occur most often b. Why problem occur c. Relative value of walkthrough and inspections d. All of the above 18 Total quality management is a common term applied to a quality management system. Total quality management is (Ans: e) a. A process to produce zero defects b. A defect identification strategy c. Another way of expressing statistical process control d. A strategy built around control charts e. A management philosophy 19 Quality Function Deployment (Ans: d) a. helps an organization to decide how the Quality function is deployed b. is testing of previously verified program of application c. is another approach to implementing balance score card method d. is a systematic method to translate customer wants or needs into product or service 20 Which of the following are categories of acceptance requirement from users point of view (Ans: e) a. Overall software quality requirements b. Functionality requirements c. Performance requirements d. Interface quality requirements e. All the above f. None are 21 Risk is defined as (Ans : a) a. Frequency * Occurrence b. Occurrence * Risk Factor c. Risk Factor * Risk Response Number d. Probability * Influence 22 Key elements of a defect management process are: (Ans: d) a. Defect Prevention b. Defect discovery/defect naming c. Defect resolution d. All of the above

23 which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy (Ans: a) a. All of the below are the general principles b. The primary goal is to prevent defects c. Defect management process should be risk driven d. Capture and analysis of the defect information should be automated e. Defect information should be used towards process improvement. 24 Requirement is a formal statement of (Ans: d) a. An attribute to be possessed by the product/function to be performed by the product b. The performance standard for the attribute or a function c. The measuring process to be used in verifying that the standard has been met d. All the above 25 Dynamic assertion is(Ans: c) a. All the below b. a way of empowering people in the organization c. the analysis performed by executing the program code d. a powerful way of expressing yourself to make your presence felt 26 Condition coverage is(Ans: e) a. A black box testing technique b. The property of logical coherence among constituent modules of a system c. Money spent on quality activity to cover the entire testing budget d. The number of decision statements covered in cyclomatic complexity analysis e. None of the above 27 A Test Log (Ans: e) a. is a worksheet/spreadsheet to record test activities b. helps to record incidents into the defect tracking system c. is responsible for conducting the test readiness review d. should contain the procedure environment and tools for test execution e. only(a) and (b) above 28 Which of the following is the correct sequence to test execution? (Ans: c) a. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Review test results, Assign test scripts b. Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Set up Test environment, Review test results c. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Review test results d. Any of the above is a right sequence 29 Which of the following does not represent major concerns in the mind of testers during test execution step? (Ans: d) a. Software not in a testable mode b. Inadequate time/resources c. Significant problem will not be uncovered during testing d. Developer will not appreciate testing

e. None of the above 30 Which of the following is/are factors used by Test Manager to determine whether the application is ready for production(Ans: e) a. MTBF b. Failure or % coverage achieve by the executed test c. Severity level-wise number of open defects d. Risk associated with moving the application into production e. All of the above 31 During the recording of test results, deviations must be document. Which of the following attributes should be documented? (Ans: a) a. All of the following b. Activities involved c. Users/Customer served d. Deficiencies noted e. Procedure used to perform work 32 The cause is the underlying reason for the condition. The determination of the cause requires a scientific approach. Which of the following represents the correct sequences? (Ans: a) 1 Define the problem 2 Identify workflow 3 Identify procedures 4 Identify people involved 5 Recreate the circumstances a 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 c 1, 5, 4, 3, 2 d 3, 5, 2, 4 ,1 33 What technique is most effective in encouraging participation of attendees at meetings? (Ans: c) a. Having the moderator play the devils advocate b. Tell people that participation will be one of the appraisal factors c. Role playing and requesting suggestions d. Requiring participation 34 Risk management involves identifying risk and ___________ (Ans: d) a. Eliminating risks b. Avoiding risks c. Risk analysis d. Developing strategies to address risk 35 How could root cause analysis be applied to software? (Ans: a) a. It can help identify error-prone parts of the process b. It cannot be applied; there is no normal variation in software c. It cannot be used to identify similar types of failures d. It cannot be applied; software failure expose the root cause directly

36 One of the primary objective of process control is to: (Ans:d) a. Increase competition b. Improve metrics c. Find root causes d. Reduce Variability 37 Quality has been defined as: (Ans:e) a. Meeting requirements b. Customer satisfaction c. Zero defects d. All of the above e. (a) and (b) 38 Three part of the PDCA cycles are act, plan and do. The fourth part of the PDCA cycle is:(Ans:e) a. Calibrate b. Control c. Coordinate d. Create e. Check 39 The primary purpose of quality control is to: (Ans:d) a. Prevent defect from occurring b. Assign quality responsibilities c. Conducting testing d. Find and correct defects e. Writing work processes 40 The overall goal of software testing is to:(Ans:d) a. Identify error not removed previously b. Find who cause the error c. Keep re-work costs as low as possible d. None of the above 41 With the acquisition of a testing tool, the test engineers first priority is to: (Ans : c) a. Decide how much to pay b. Check with end-user first c. Identify the goal for the tool usage d. Make sure your management agrees to use the tool 42 The objectives of _________Control are to prevent, detect or correct or incorrect processing. (Ans.A) a. Transaction processing system b. External c. Internal d. Environmental 43 Testing to determine that current changes have NOT adversely affected previous functionality is called: (Ans : a) a. Regression Testing b. System Testing

c. Unit Testing d. Acceptance Testing e. Integration Testing 44 White box testing is primarily: (Ans : b) a. Data driven b. Logic driven c. Bottom up driven d. Top down driven e. Defect driven 45 The most effective test approach is to begin testing when: (Ans : e) a. After requirements b. After external design c. After internal design d. After coding e. A new project begins 46 Verification is an approach to testing that can occur during: (Ans : e) a. Requirements b. External design c. Internal design d. Coding e. All of the above 47 Quality is often referred to as being free. This is because: (Ans : a) a. The payback is greater than its cost over time b. Its difficult to quantify consumer satisfaction c. There is a never ending goal to be achieved d. Of continuous improvement 48 The characteristic of an effective meeting for testing related issues include: (Ans:e) a. Develop an agenda b. Define the role of the people attending the meeting c. Encourages attendees to contribute fully d. Clearly define the test objective e. All the above 49 Which of the following is NOT part of a process workbench?(Ans:d) a. Input b. Do Procedure c. Check Procedure d. Defect Management e. Output 50 Quality function deployment is most associated with:(Ans:d) a. Total Quality Management b. Problem Analysis c. Regression Testing d. Tracing requirements e. Continuous Process Improvement

1. Verification is: a. Checking that we are building the right system b. Checking that we are building the system right c. Performed by an independent test team d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants 2. A regression test: a. Will always be automated b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing 3. If an expected result is not specified then: a. We cannot run the test b. It may be difficult to repeat the test c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed d. We cannot automate the user inputs 4. Which of the following could be a reason for a failure 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Environment Fault 5) Documentation Fault a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not d. All of them are valid reasons for failure 5. Test are prioritized so that: a. You shorten the time required for testing b. You do the best testing in the time available c. You do more effective testing d. You find more faults 6. Which of the following is not a static testing technique a. Error guessing b. Walkthrough c. Data flow analysis d. Inspections 7. Which of the following statements about component testing is not true? a. Component testing should be performed by development b. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing

c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned d. Component testing does not involve regression testing 8. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively? a. Execution b. Design c. Planning d. Check Exit criteria completion 9. Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester? a. Being diplomatic b. Able to write software c. Having good attention to detail d. Able to be relied on 10. The purpose of requirement phase is a. To freeze requirements b. To understand user needs c. To define the scope of testing d. All of the above 11. The process starting with the terminal modules is called a. Top-down integration b. Bottom-up integration c. None of the above d. Module integration 12. The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from a. Project plan b. Business plan c. Support plan d. None of the above 13. Function/Test matrix is a type of a. Interim Test report b. Final test report c. Project status report d. Management report 14. Defect Management process does not include a. Defect prevention b. Deliverable base-lining c. Management reporting d. None of the above

15. What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your country? a. Does not meet people needs b. Cultural difference c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources d. Relinquishments of control 16. Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs? a. 10-20 b. 40-50 c. 70-80 d. 5-10 17. A reliable system will be one that: a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule b. Is unlikely to cause a failure c. Is likely to be fault-free d. Is likely to be liked by the users 18. How much testing is enough a. This question is impossible to answer b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry 19. Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability? a. Operability b. Observability c. Simplicity d. Robustness 20. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method. a. White box b. Black box c. Green box d. Yellow box 21. Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology? a. Simple Loops b. Nested Loops c. Concatenated Loops d. All of the above 22. To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data.

a. Stub b. Driver c. Proxy d. None of the above 23. Equivalence partitioning is: a. A black box testing technique used only by developers b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing 24. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by: a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool c. The independent testing team d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts 25. Inspections can find all the following except a. Variables not defined in the code b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents d. How much of the code has been covered

CSTE 2006 PAPERS

1. A question on fit components. Which of the following contributes to fit . a. Data b. Structure c. People d. Rule e. All of the above 2. Reliability, timeliness, consistency are included in which component of fit a. Data b. Structure c. People d. Rule 3. Who will develop the test process for software development using new technology? (Almost same question was asked in Part 1 ad part 3) a. Management b. Project team c. Auditor d. Tester and few more options 4. Which of the following are relatively complete acceptance criteria? a. Performance should increase b. Response time should be with in 10 sec Few more statements 5. Experienced people can be used as a tool for estimating the cost- Budgeting a. Bottom up b. Top down c. Expert judgment 6. The communication type which is rarely emphasized a. Listening Few more options . 7. There were 2 questions on maturity level e.g which level enforces control for technology. 8. There were 3 question on standard , policy , procedure 9. Which of the following model has these steps .. event identification , risk assessment, risk response a. ERM b. COSO internal control framework c. CobiT model 10. Utilize the computer resources to perform their work.. belong to which type of activity specified below a. Interface b. Development c. Computer operation

11. Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in detail in which part of the contract a. What b. Who c. When d. How 12. There was a similar question on when the contracted software will be completed 13. Test planning activity which includes starting and end time for each test milestone. a. Budgeting b. Scheduling c. Estimation d. Staffing 14. Which communication skill will be neglected by most a. Reading b. Listening c. Writing 15. Therapeutic listening is a. Sympathetic listening b. Listening to pieces of information 16. Which model demonstrates relation between 2 or more parameters of effort, duration or resource? a. Cost b. Constraint c. Function Point 17. In which model expertise can be used to estimate cost a. Top-Down b. Expert Judgment c. Bottom-Up 18. Two objective questions on responsibility Like who is responsible in issuing IT policy, work policy etc. 19. Fit for use is a. Transcendent b. Product Based c. User Based d. Value Based 20. Re-Use of data is done in which type of testing (Similar type 2 questions. ReUse, Retesting sort of qs.) a. Capture/Play back b. System Testing c. Regression Testing d. Integration Testing

21. 1 qs. On configuration management / Change Management / Version Control 22. In Acceptance testing, which data is used. a. Test Cases b. Use Case c. Test Plan 23. In four components of FIT, reliability is included in (Similar type 2 qs) a. Data b. People c. Structure d. Rules 24. Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in a. What is done b. Who does it c. When it is done d. How it is done 25. Dates on which Obligations need to be filled out should be specified in a. What is done b. Who does it c. When it is done d. How it is done 26. Two questions on Internal Auditor, Internal Control responsibilities 27. One question on ERM model 28. One question on Control Frame Work Model 29. Two questions on CMM 5 levels of maturity (Like in which level controls are implemented) 30. As a general rule, __________ measures are much more important. a. Subjective b. Objective 31. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the term as a. Reliability b. Validity c. Calibration d. Ease of Use and Simplicity 32. The term __________ refers the degree to which a measure actually measures what it was intended to measure. a. Reliability b. Validity c. Calibration d. Ease of Use and Simplicity

33. When basic quality aspects have been identified the standards should be defined by a. IT Team b. Project Manager c. Quality Assurance personal d. Management e. Development Team 34. The standards for the software developed using new technology should be defined by a. IT Team b. Project Manager c. Quality Assurance personal d. Management e. Development Team 35. If the COTS software developed by the contractor which is from the another country, then the following problem arises: a. Cultural differences b. Communication barriers c. The two words having the same name in diff. countries d. All of the above e. None of the above 36. The V represents the following term: 1. Verification and Validation 2. Static testing and Dynamic testing 3. Black box and White Box testing 4. Software development process and Software testing process 37. Test Readiness Review is conducted by the a. Project Manager b. Test Manager c. Quality Assurance Personnel d. User/Customer 38. Acceptance testing is the ________ type of testing a. Black box testing b. White box testing c. Shoe box testing d. Structural testing 39. __________ is not the White box testing technique. a. Condition Coverage b. Decision Coverage c. Test script coverage d. User specified Data coverage e. All of the above 40. Event identification, Risk Response are the term defined in the ___internal control model a. COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) Model

b. COSO Internal Control Model c. CobiT Model


41. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process. a. Pareto Chart b. Control Chart c. Run Chart d. Cause and Effect Diagram e. Histogram 42. Determination to continue with the software development or not is determined from the ______ a. Inspection b. In-process Review c. Phase end review d. Dont remember other options 43. The following is the component for the FIT a. Data b. Structure c. People d. Rule e. All of the above 44. A major obstacle for deployment of wireless networks is in the a. Standards b. Coverage c. Security 45. Hand-held and internet enabled devices are example of 1. Electronic equipment 2. Wireless Applications 3. Computer devices 46. Therapeutic listening is a. Sympathetic listening b. Listening to pieces of information c. Analyzing the listening of the speaker 47. Function point is a measure of A) Effort B) Complexity C) Usability D) Size 48. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the: A) Programmer B) Project Leader C) Independent Tester D) Assistance programmer E) User

49. While deciding the Test tool the following factors should be considered a. Testing for the next builds/releases after making changes b. Testing where large volumes of data is required c. Testing based on the UI interface d. All of the above 50. Completeness can be defined as the 1. Customer says the product is ready 2. Tester says the testing is completed 3. Dont remember the other options 51. Auxiliary code which sets up an appropriate environment and calls the module is termed as a. Driver b. Function c. Stub d. None of the above 52. System boundary diagram depicts the interfaces between the software being tested and 1. Individual 2. System 3. Other interfaces 4. All of the above 53. The primary purpose of the interviewing is the Fact-Finding

CSTE 2005 EXAM


Q1. Who defined the standards? A) ISO B) QAI Ans ISO Q2. Juran is famous for A) Quality Control B) Management Ans QC Q3. Which one is not Statistical Tool? A) Cause & effect Graphing B) Stratification C) Run Chart D) Regression Analysis Ans Cause & effect Graphing Q4. Histogram refers to A) Bar Chart B) Run Chart C) Pareto Ans Bar Chart Q5. Who are there in External IT TEAM? A) Non Developer B) Customer/ User Ans Q6. Which one is not Structural Testing? A) Regression B) Parallel c) Acceptance d) Stress Ans Acceptance Q7. Who is not part of Inspection? A) Prj Manager B) Author c) Moderator d) Reader e) Inspetor Ans Prj Manager Q8. Tester job is not to A) Report Defect b) Who entered the defect in system Ans Who entered the defect in system Q9. Which one is not secondary role of tester A) Raising Issues b) Instilling Confidence c) cts improving process

d) Insight e) developer work Ans developer work Q10. Acceptance testing is A) White Box b) Black box c) White box & black Box d) none of the above Ans Black box Q11. Deming 14 principle includes A) mobility of mgmt b) new philosphy c) adobt leadership d) both b& c e) both a & c Ans both b& c Q12 Configuration Management tool used in which phase. A) Unit tetsing b) Integration c) accepting d) all the phases Ans all the phases Q13. Max Defects created in which phases A) req b) design c) Implementaion d) Coding Ans Req Q14. 50% Defect found in which phase A) req b) design c) Implementaion d) Coding Ans req Q15. defects are least costly in which phase A) req b) design c) Implementaion d) Coding Ans req 1) Software inspections categorize defects as Wrong, Missing and Extra. A) TRUE B) FALSE 2) The purpose of Risk Management in a project is to A) Eliminate Risks B) Minimize Risks

C) Avoid risks D) Anticipate the risks

7) Testing of the system to demonstrate system compliance with user requirements is: A) Black box testing B) System testing C) Independent testing D) Acceptance Testing 8) Function point is a measure of A) Effort B) Complexity C) Usability D) None of the above 9) An activity that verifies compliance with policies and procedures and ensures that resources are conserved is A) an inspection B) an audit C) a review D) an assessment 10) Which is the application for the process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance. A) Malcolm Baldridge B) ISO 9000 C) QAI D) QS14000 11) Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs? A) 10-20 B) 30-60 C) 70-80 12) Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle? A) Requirements B) Construction C) Acceptance test D) Design 13) Which of the following test approaches is not a Functional test approach? A) Control Technique B) Stress Technique C) Regression Technique D) Cause/effect Graphing E) Requirements 14) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things

A) True B) False 15) Juran is famous for A) Quality Control B) Quality Assurance C) Trend Analysis 16) Top down & Bottom Up are the part of Incremental Testing A) True B) False 17) Achieving quality requires: A) Understanding the customers expectations B) Exceeding the customers expectations C) Meeting all the definitions of quality D) Focusing on the customer E.) All the above 18) Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing A) Code inspection Others choices not sure Q1. there is a application which is delivered to the customer now customer found bugs and assume each bug cost is $125 and there are 4 bugs found each day and there are 5 working day. What should be the cost to fix those bugs A) $300 b) $25000 c) $ 15000 d) $ 13,000 e) $ 26,000 Ans $2500 Q2. Tester should know A) Test planning b) Automation tool c) Defect tracking tool d) programming language Ans Defect Tracking tool Q3. Pareto Analysis A) 80-20 rule b) Trend analysis c) d) Ans 80-20 Rule Q4. Testing efforts in SDLC A) 10-20 % b) 30-60% c) 60-80% d) 80-90% Ans 30-60%

Q5. Critical Listening is A) Listen analyses what speaker said b) Listen what is required c) Listen only summary Ans Listen analyses what speaker said Q6. Who finds vulnuralibility in system? A) ICO b) ISS c) It Manager Ans ICO Q7. COQ is not A) Production b) Appraisal c) Prevention d) Failure Ans Production Q8. Training come under what category cost of quality? A) Appraisal b) Preventive c) Failure d) none of the above Ans Preventive Q9. Why testing is called negative A) Easy b) delay in implementation c) No training reqd Ans Q10. Incremental testing is Top down & bottom Up testing True/ false Ans False Q11. Effectiveness is doing right thing & efficency is doing thing right True/ false Ans False Q12. Which one is not part of Demind A) Plan b) do c) check d) act e) risk analysis Ans risk analysis Q13. Defect fixed in which phase is lease cost A) same phase b) production

c) next phase d) none Ans same phase Q14. In White box testing test coverage is a) Decision b) Statement c) branch d) modified decision e) user specified data coverage Ans Decision Q15. Test Plan should not contain A) Scope b) Objective c) Policy d) Risk Analysis Ans policy Q16. Test coverage? Q17. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the: A) Programmer B) Project Leader C) Independent Tester D) Assistance programmer E) User/Customer Q18. Cost of Quality is least among A) Prevention B) Appraisal C) Failure

THESE QUESTIONS I AM NOT SURE WHETHER CSTE OR CSQA 1. Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing) a) reduces the time spent by the testers b) reduces the resources spent (hardware) c) mostly used in web testing d) all of the above 2. Test coverage analysis is the process of (Testing concepts) a) Creating additional test cases to increase coverage b) Finding areas of program exercised by the test cases c) Determining a quantitative measure of code coverage, which is a direct measure of quality. d) All of the above. 3. Critical in Web Testing (Testing concepts) a) Performance and Functionality b) Functionality and usability c) Usability and Performance d) None of the above 4. Class testing (Testing concepts) a) require a driver to test b) no need of instances of other classes c) no need to test the transitions d) all of the above. 5. Defect Tracking (Defect Mgmt) a) is the communication channel between test team and development team b) is the communication channel between testing team and the rest of the team c) is the communication channel between the testing team and end users d) all of the above 6. Essential Testing Skills are (Test Mgmt) a) Test Planning, Risk Management, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management b) Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management, Test Measurement c) Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management d) Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management, Test case Design

7. Testing across different languages is called concepts) a) Linguistic Testing b) Localization Testing c) Both a and b d) None of the above.

(Testing

8. Hierarchical System (Testing concepts) a) several levels of component that includes objects and classes b) several levels of component that includes objects, classes, systems c) several levels of component that includes, foundation components, systems d) none of the above. 9. Hybrid Testing (Testing concepts) a) combination of one or more testing techniques b) Combination of top-down and bottom-up testing c) Both a and b d) None of the above. White Box Testing (Testing concepts) a) same as glass box testing b) same as clear box testing c) both a and b d) none of the above. Build Verification Test (Testing concepts) a) same as smoke test b) done after each build to make sure that the build doesnt contain major errors c) both a and b d) None of the above. Content Testing (Testing concepts) a) Similar to proof reading b) Widely used in web testing c) Part of usability Testing d) All of the above Decision Coverage. (Testing concepts) a) testing the boolean expressions which are not in control structures

b) entire expression is considered as boolean expression irrespective of logical-and and logica-l-or operators c) coverage except switch-statement cases, exception handlers d) all of the above. Branch Coverage (Testing concepts) a) another name for decision coverage b) another name for all-edges coverage c) another name for basic path coverage d) all the above The following example is a if (condition1 && (condition2 || function1())) statement1; else statement2; (Testing concepts) a) Decision coverage b) Condition coverage c) Statement coverage d) Path Coverage 16.Test cases need to be written for (Testing Artifacts) a) invalid and unexpected conditions b) valid and expected conditions c) both a and b d) none of these 17.Desk Checking (Testing concepts) a) same as code walkthrough b) same as code inspection c) verification of code by the developers d) none of the above. 18.Path coverage includes (Testing Artifacts) a) statement coverage b) condition coverage c) decision coverage d) none of these 19.Tools usage (Automation) a) very helpful in regression testing

b) saves time c) helpful in simulating Users d) all of the above. 20.Which is a true prevention mechanism (Quality) a) verifying that the executable contains a defect b) detecting that the executable contains a defect c) Validating that the specified requirements are right, complete, achievable, reasonable, testable d) Verifying that the specified requirements are right, complete, achievable, reasonable, testable 21.Objective of review meeting is (Quality) a) to identify problems with design b) to solve the problems with design c) both a and b d) none of the above. 22.The benefits of glass box testing are (Testing concepts) a) Focused Testing, Testing coverage, control flow b) Data integrity, Internal boundaries, algorithm specific testing c) Both a and b d) Either a or b 23.Structural Testing (Testing concepts) a) same as black box testing b) same as white box testing c) same as functional testing d) none of the above. 24.Characteristic of a good test (Testing Artifacts) a) reasonable probability of catching an error and can be redundant b) It is not simple or too complex c) reasonable probability of catching an error and cannot be redundant d) It is either simple or too complex 25.Find the Equivalence class for the following test case (Testing Artifacts) Enter a number to test the validity of being accepting the numbers between 1 and 99 a) All numbers < 1

b) All numbers > 99 c) Number = 0 d) All numbers between 1 and 99 26.Find the invalid equivalence class for the following test case Draw a line up to the length of 4 inches (Testing Artifacts) a) Line with 1 dot-width b) Curve c) line with 4 inches d) none of the above. 27.Testing user documentation involves (Testing concepts) a) Improved usability, reliability, maintainability b) Installability, scalability, liability c) Both a and b d) None of the above. 28.Sources of regression test cases are (Testing artifacts) a) boundary tests and other preplanned tests. b) Tests that reveal bugs in the program c) Customer reported bugs d) All of the above 29.Identify which one is an internal failure (Testing concepts) a) Delaying testers access to areas of the code b) Replacement with updated product c) Training programmers to make or miss fewer bugs d) Testing by Tech. Support 30.Identify which one is a load condition (Performance testing) a) Lost messages b) Task starts before its prerequisites are met. c) Lost or out of sync messages d) Early end of string

31.System Testing team is responsible for (Test execution) a) Performing the data validations b) Performing the Usability Testing c) Performing the Beta Testing d) None of the above

32.Testing Process comprised of (Testing artifacts) a) Test Plan and Test Cases b) Test log and Test Status c) Defect Tracking d) All of the above 33.Localization Testing (Test execution) a) Testing performed for local functions b) Testing across different languages c) Testing across different locations d) None of the above 34.Object Oriented Testing (Test execution) a) Same as Top-Down Testing b) Same as Bottom Up Testing c) Same as Hybrid Testing d) All of the above 35.Smoke Testing(Testing concepts) a) To find whether the hardware burns out b) Same as build verification test c) To find that software is stable d) None of the above 36.Test Plan (test artifacts) a) Road map for testing b) Tells about the actual results and expected results c) Both a and b d) None of the above 37.Test Script (Test execution) a) written version of test cases. b) Code used in manual testing c) Always Used when we use tools d) A code segment to replace the test case 38.Test Procedure (Testing artifacts) a) collection of test plans b) combination of test plan and test cases c) collection of test cases d) none of the above 39.Code Walkthrough (Testing concepts) a) a type of dynamic testing

b) type of static testing c) neither dynamic nor static d) performed by the testing team

40.Static Analysis (Testing concepts) a) same as static testing b) done by the developers c) both a and b d) none of the above 41.User Acceptance Testing (Testing concepts) a) same as Alpha Testing b) same as Beta Testing c) combination of Alpha and Beta Testing d) none of the above 42.State which of the one is false (Performance testing) a) In performance testing, usage of tool is a must b) In database testing, database knowledge is a must. c) In Functional Testing, knowledge of business logic is a must d) none of the above. 43.State which one is true. Collection of testing metrics contributes (Test Mgmt) a) in the improvement of testing b) Affects testers growth. c) Used against a developer d) none 44. Random Testing (K) a (Testing concepts) a) Program is tested randomly sampling the input. b) A black-box testing technique c) Both a and b d) None of the above. 45.Error seeding (Testing concepts) a) Evaluates the thoroughness with which a computer program is tested by purposely inserting errors into a supposedly correct program. b) Errors inserted by the developers intentionally to make the system malfunctioning.

c) Neither a or b d) Both a and b 46.Metrics collected during testing includes (Quality) a) System test cases planned/executed/passed b) Discrepancies reported/resolved c) Staff hours d) All of the above 47.Manual Testing (Test execution) a) at least performed one time b) need to be executed before going for automation c) both a and b d) neither a or b 48. What is the use of Affinity Diagram ? (Test Mgmt) a) A group process that takes large amounts of language data such as a list developed by brainstorming and divides it into categories b) A test or analysis conducted after an application is moved into production to determine whether it is likely to meet the originating business case. c) A test method that requires that each possible branch on each decision point be executed at least once. d) None of the above

49. The following best describes the defect density : (Defect Mgmt) a)ratio of failure reports received per unit of time. b)ratio of discovered errors per size of code. c)number of modifications made per size of code. d)number of failures reported against the code. 50. Which of the following technique is the most suitable for negative testing (Test execution) a) Boundary value analysis b) Internal value analysis

c) State transition testing d) All of the above 51. Unit, Integration and System testing being replaced by ________ using object oriented software testing concepts (Testing concepts) a) classing testing, Object Integration testing, System testing b) Statement coverage, Branch coverage , Condition coverage c) All of the above d) None of the above 52. What is the relationship between equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis techniques (Testing concepts) a) Structural testing b) Opaque testing c) Compatibility testing d) All of the above 53. Which statement is relevant for test driver (Testing concepts) a) A program that directs the execution of another program against a collection of test data sets. Usually the test driver also records and organizes the output generated as the tests are run. b) A document that identifies test items and includes current status and location information. c) A document describing any event during the testing process that requires investigation d) A software item that is an object of testing. 54. Which of the following best describes validation (Testing concepts) a) Determination of the correctness of the final program or software produced from a development project with respect to the user needs and requirements. b) A document that describes testing activities and results and evaluates the corresponding test items c) Test data that lie within the domain of the function represented by the program d) All of the above 55. Coverage based analysis is best described as: (Test artifacts)

a) A metric used to show the logic covered during a test session providing insight to the extent of testing. b)A tool for documenting the unique combinations of conditions and associated results in order to derive unique test cases for validation testing. c)Tools for documenting defects as they are found during testing and for tracking their status through to resolution. d)The most traditional means for analyzing a system or a program 56. Which of the following best describes the difference between clear box and opaque box? (Testing concepts) Clear box is structural testing , opaque box is functional testing Clear box is done by tester, and opaque box is done by developer Ad-hoc testing is a type of opaque box testing a) b) c) d) 1 only 1 and 3 2 3

57. How do you test a module for integration? (Test execution) a) Big bang approach b) Pareto analysis c) Cause and Effect diagram d) Scatter diagram 58. 80:20 rule can also be called as (Quality) a) a Fish bone diagram b) bPareto analysis c) cScatter diagram d) dHistogram 59. Suggest an alternative for requirement traceability matrix (Testing artifacts) a) a.Test Coverage matrix b) b.Average defect aging c) c.Test Effectiveness d) d.Error discovery rate 60. What can be done to minimize the reoccurrence of defects (Defect Mgmt)

a) b) c) d)

a.Defect Prevention plan b.Defect tracking c.Defect Management d.All of the above

61. Review is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods are (Quality) a. Inspection a) b.Walkthrough b) c.Testing c) d.All of the above 62. What needs to be done when there is an insufficient time for testing (Test Mgmt) 1)Do Ad-hoc testing 2)Do usability testing 3)Do sanity testing 4)Do a risk based analysis to prioritize a) b) c) d) 1 and 2 3&4 All of the above None of the above

63. What is the scenario in which automation testing can be done: (Automation) Application is stable Usability testing is to be done The project is short term Long term project having numerous releases a) b) c) d) 1 1&4 1&2 2&3

64. Choose the best match for cyclomatic complexity (Test Execution) a) The number of decision statements plus one. b) A set of Boolean conditions such that complete test sets for the conditions uncover the same errors c) The process of analyzing and correcting syntactic logic and other errors identified during testing d) None of the above

65. According to Crosby, it is less costly to (Quality) a) b) c) d) let the customer find the defects. detect defects than to prevent them. prevent defects than to detect them. ignore minor defects

66. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used during software maintenance? (Test Mgmt) a) b) c) d) Project management plan. Customer support hot line. Software problem reports. Change control board.

67. Which of the following reviews are required in order to ensure proper tracking of software between phases of a project? (Test Mgmt) 1. Product feasibility 2. Software requirements 3. Software design 4. Acceptance test a) b) c) d) I and II only II and III only I, II, and III only II, III, and IV only

68 .How can it be known when to stop testing? (Test Execution) a) b) c) d) When no more bugs can be found When the time allocated is over When the quality goals set up for testing have been achieved All of the above

69 What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? (Test Mgmt)

a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how requirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategies can be worked out in advance, if possible. b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the project, while moving more difficult new requirements into future versions of the application c) Both a and b d) None of the above

The goal of software testing is to (Testing concepts) a) b) c) d) Debug the system Validate that the system behaves as expected Let the developer know the defects injected by him Execute the program with the intent of finding errors

71. A test plan defines (Testing artifacts) a) b) c) d) What is selected for testing Objectives and results Expected results Targets and misses

72. Test planning should begin (Testing artifacts) a) b) c) d) At the same time that requirement definitions begins When building starts When code build is complete After shipping the first version

73. Risk analysis talks about (Test Mgmt) a) The data required for testing, the infrastructure requirements to manage the data as well as the methods for preparing test data, requirements, converters and sources b) Details what types of tests must be conducted, what stages of testing are required and outlines the sequence and timing of tests c) A testing goal. It is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a testing activity. These guide the development of test cases and procedures d) None of the above

74) The following defines the statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during testing activity (Testing artifacts) a) b) c) d) Test scope Test objective Test environment None of the above

75.One technique of Black Box testing is Equivalence Partitioning. In a program statement that accepts only one choice from among 10 possible choices, numbered 1 through 10, the middle partition would be from _____ to _____ (Test execution) a) 4 to 6 b) 0 to 10 c) 1 to 10 d) None of the above 76.What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis? (Test Mgmt) a) b) c) d) The probability the negative event will occur The potential loss or impact associated with the event Both a and b Neither a nor b

77) Following are some of the testing risks (Test Mgmt) a) Budget, Test environment b) Budget, Number of qualified test resources c) Budget, Number of qualified test resources, Test environment d) None of the above 78) Cost of quality is (Quality) a) Prevention costs b) Appraisal costs c) Failure costs d) All of the above 79)Which of the following metrics involves defects reported by client (Quality) a) Test efficiency b) Test effectiveness c) Test Coverage d) None of the above

80 )Security concerns are important for which type of applications (Test Execution) a) A product advertisement website b) A requirements tracking database c) An e-commerce web site d) An employment application 81) Testing responsibilities: (Test Execution) Tester 1 Verify that the program is able to display images clearly on all 10 of the monitors in the lab Tester 2 - Make sure the programs instructions are easy to use Security concerns are important for which type of applications Tester 3 Verify that the calculation module works correctly by using both scripts and ad hoc testing. Which term is used to refer to the testing that is performed by Tester 3 in the above scenario? a) Unit testing b) Algorithm specific testing c) Compatibility testing d) Black box testing 82) As a tester, what is your main objective in reviewing a requirement document? (Testing artifacts) a) To ascertain that each requirement is traceable to a business need b) To ascertain that each requirement is both testable and uniquely identifiable c) To ascertain that each requirement is traceable to a business need, testable, and uniquely identifiable d) To ascertain that each requirement is uniquely identifiable

83) What is the common limitation of automated testing? (Automation) a) They are not useful for performance testing b) They cannot be used for requirement validation c) It is very difficult for automated scripts to verify a wide range of application responses. d) They are not useful when requirements are changing frequently 85) Formal testing guidelines suggest which one of the following as the correct source of functional test cases? (Testing concepts) a) The developers knowledge of what the software can do b) The software design c) The software requirements

d) The testers knowledge of what the software should do e) The functional test procedures 86) What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change show up in some test? (Testing concepts) a) Desk checking b) Debugging a program c) A mutation error d) Performance testing e) Introducing mutations 87) Test effort estimation uses which of the following techniques (Test Mgmt) a) Function point method b) Test case point method c) Use case point method d) All of the above 88) What is the verification process in software development? (Quality) a) The probability that undesirable things will happen such as loss of human life or large financial losses b) The process of monitoring the software to ensure full compliance with established standards and procedures c) The process of trying to discover every conceivable fault or weakness in a work product d) The process of evaluating a system or component to determine whether or not the products of a given development phase satisfy the conditions imposed at the start of that phase e) The process of evaluating a system or component during or at the end of the sales process to determine whether or not it satisfies specified requirements 89) From a testing perspective, what results in the clicking of a button? (Test Execution) a) An interface event b) A sound c) A text item d) A bio-metric event e) An internal processing event 90) Test design mainly emphasizes all the following except (Testing artifacts) a) Data planning b) Test procedures planning

c) Mapping the data and test cases d) Data synchronization 91) Which type of testing is performed to test applications across different browsers and OS? (Testing concepts) a) Static testing b) Performance testing c) Compatibility testing d) Functional testing 92)Which document helps you to track test coverage? (Testing concepts) a) Traceability Matrix b) Test plan c) Test log d) Test summary report 93)Which type of test would you perform to accept a build (Test execution) a) Beta test b) Smoke test c) Functional test d) User acceptance test 94)Detecting a defect at which of the following stage is most economical? (Quality) a) Design b) Build c) Testing d) Deployment 95) If the application is complex, but NOT data intensive and is to be tested on one configuration and 2 rounds, the easiest method to test is (Test execution) a) Manual testing b) Automation testing c) Both d) None 96) Functional testing is mostly (Testing concepts) a) Validation techniques b) Verification techniques c) Both of the above d) None of the above 97)Most imprecise definition for quality is (Quality) a) Fitness for use

b) Meeting customers expectations c) Completeness of requirements d) Efficient and effective product 98) System testing include all the following except (Test Execution) a) Performance services b) Security services c) Usability services d) Monitoring services 99) Function points are used for estimating (Test Mgmt) a) Size b) Effort c) Cost d) None of the above 100)Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following except (Test Mgmt) a) Person days b) Person hours c) Calendar months d) None of the above 101)Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except (Testing artifacts) a) Test data b) Test data plan c) Test summary report d) Test procedure plan 102) Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? (Testing artifacts) a) Schedules and deliverables b) Hardware and software c) Entry and exit criteria d) Types of test cases 103) Compatibility testing for products involves all the following except (Test Execution) a) Certified and supported client environments b) High and low level sanity testing c) Client and server side compatibility d) Functional and non-functional compatibility

104) Evaluating business importance and testing the core business cases in an application is called (Test Mgmt) a) Risk based testing b) High level sanity testing c) Low level sanity testing d) Regression testing 105) Regression testing mainly helps in (Test Execution) a) Retesting fixed defects b) Checking for side-effects of fixes c) Checking the core gaps d) Ensuring high level sanity 106) Load testing emphasizes on performance under load while stress testing emphasizes on (Performance testing) a) Breaking load b) Performance under stress c) Performance under load d) There is no such difference, both are same 107) Which of the following is not a form of performance testing? (Performance testing) a) Spike testing b) Volume testing c) Transaction testing d) Endurance testing 108) Which of the following is not a type of test under phases in testing life cycle? (Testing concepts) a) Integration test b) Load test c) User Acceptance test d) Beta test 109) Test efficiency is always directly proportional to (Quality) a) Product Delivery b) Functional Coverage c) Product Reliability d) Product Cost 110) Per economics of testing optimum test is suggested because (Test Execution) a) Number of defects decrease along with extent of testing b) Number of defects increase along with extent of testing c) Cost of testing increases with the extent of testing d) Cost of testing increases with the number of defects

111)In a V-model of software testing, UAT plans are prepared during the (Test Execution) a) Analysis phase b) HLD phase c) LLD phase d) System Testing phase 112) Verification performed without any executable code is referred to as (Testing concepts) a) Review b) Static testing c) Validation d) Sanity testing 113)If Quality Control and Quality Assurance are compared (Quality) a) Both are literally the same b) QA is a higher activity in the management Hierarchy c) QC ia a higher activity in the management Hierarchy d) QA is done by the client and QC si done by the software vendor 114) The extent of automation for a given project is generally guided by (Automation) a) Scope for automation b) Tool support c) Business Functionality d) Vendors skills 115) Test data planning essentially includes (Testing artifacts) a) Network b) Operational Model c) Boundry value analysis d) Test Procedure Planning 116)Which of the following is not a client side statistics in load testing (Performance testing) a) Hits per second b) Throughput c) Cache hit ratio d) Transaction per second 117) Feasibility study is more important before load testing (Performance testing) a) Web Applications b) Client-server applications

c) Mainframe applications d) Citrix applications 118) Which one of the following need not be part of the bug tracker? (Defect Mgmt) a) Bug identifier b) One line bug description c) Severity of the bug d) None of the above 119) Which of the following approach needs to be taken if there are a large number of defects being found in the software? (Defect Mgmt) 1. Try continuing testing and logging the critical defects. 2. Immediately stop testing the product 3. Inform the lead/Manager providing proper documentation 4. Continue testing in the normal manner a) 1 and 3 b) 3 and 4 c) 2 only d) 3 only 120) What if the application has functionality that wasn't in the requirements? (Test Mgmt) a) Ignore testing that functionality b) Continue to test the functionality and report the results c) Update the Project Manager with the details and the risk involved d) None of the above 120) What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for world wide web sites (Test Execution) a) Interaction between html pages b) Performance on the client side c) Security aspects d) All of the above 121) What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt) a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested b) Use automation tool for testing c) a and b d) None of the above 122) The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing artifacts)

a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system b) Includes the area of frequent defects c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes d) All of the above 123)What are the main attributes of test automation (Automation) 1. Time saving 2. Correctness 3. Less Manpower 4. More reliable a) b) c) d) 1 and 2 2 and 3 1, 2 , 3 and 4 None of the above

124) Some of the common problems of test automation are (Automation) a) Changing requirements b) Lack of time c) Both a and b d) None of the above 125) Some of the metrics which are collected in a testing project are (Quality) Productivity Test effectiveness Requirement stability Bug fix rate a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1 and 4 126) Test Suit Manager (Test Execution) a) A tool that specifies an order of actions that should be performed during a test session b) A software package that creates test transactions for testing application systems and programs c) A tool that allows testers to organize test scripts by function or other grouping d) None of the above

127) Baseline means (Quality) a) A single software product that may or may not fully support a business function b) A quantitative measure of the current level of performance c) A test or analysis conducted after an application is moved into production d) None of the above 128) A document describing any event during the testing process that requires investigation (Test execution) a) Test log b) Test Incident report c) Test Cycle d) Test Item 129) The purpose of this event is to review the application user interface and other human factors of the application with the people who will be using the application. (Test execution) User Acceptance test Usability test Validation None of the above 130) What is used to measure the characteristics of the documentation and code? (Quality) Process metrics Product metrics Software Quality metrics None of the above 131)Use of an executable model to represent the behavior of an object is called (Testing concepts) Simulation Software item Software feature None of the above Benchmarking is (Quality) Comparing your companys products services or processes against best practices or competitive practices to help define superior performance of a product service or support process. A quantitative measure of the current level of performance A test or analysis conducted after an application is moved into production

None of the above Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is properly performed. The following should be checked for correctness (Test Execution) 1. Re-initialization 2. Restart 3. Data Recovery 4. Check Point Mechanism 1 and 2 1, 2 and 3 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4 UAT is different from other testing types normally because of (Testing concepts) Data Cycles Defects None of the above 135) Alpha testing is differentiated from Beta testing by (Testing concepts) The location where the tests are conducted. The types of test conducted The people doing the testing The degree to which white box techniques are used 136. What is the need for test planning (test planning process) a. to utilize a balance of testing techniques b. to understand testing process c. to collect metrics d. to perform ad hoc testing. 137. Which of the following is NOT a part of Test plan document? (test planning process) a. assumptions b. communication approach c. risk analysis d. status report 138. Which part of Test plan will define what will and will not be covered in the test? (test planning process) a. test scope b. test objective

c. both a & b d. none of the above 139. Test objective is simply a testing (test planning process) a. direction b. vision c. mission d. goal 140. Which out of the below is NOT a concern for testers to complete a test plan (test planning process) a. not enough training b. lack of test tools c. enough time for testing d. rapid change 141. The effort taken to create a test plan should be (test planning process) a. half of the total test effort b. one-third of the total test efforts c. two times of the total test effort d. one-fifth of the total test effort 142. What do you mean by Having to say NO (test planning process) a. No, the problem is not with testers b. No, the software is not ready for production c. Both a & b d. none of the above 143. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning process) a. functional automation tools b. performance testing tools c. configuration management tools d. none of the above. 144. In Life cycle approach to testing, test execution occurs (Performing Test) a. during testing phase b. during requirement phase c. during coding phase d. none of the above. 145. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? (Performing Test) a. Test manager

b. Test engineer c. both A & B d. Project Manager 146. What is NOT a test log? (Performing Test) a. Maps the test results to requirements b. Records test activities c. Maintains control over the test d. Contains pass or fail results. 147. When Integration testing should begin (Performing Test) a. during black-box testing b. once unit testing is complete for the integrating components c. Before unit testing is complete d. All of the above 148. Which is NOT a part of integration testing (Performing Test) a. Validation of the links between the clients and server b. Output interface file accuracy c. back-out situations d. none of the above. 149. When to stop testing? (Performing Test) a. When all quality goals defined at the start of the project have been met. b. When running short of time c. When all test cases are executed d. all the above 150. Authorization _________ (Performing Test) a. compliance testing b. disaster testing c. verifying compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations 151. File Integrity falls under (Performing Test) a. compliance testing b. disaster testing c. verifying compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations 152. Operations testing is (Performing Test) a. compliance testing

b. disaster testing c. verifying compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations 153. Security falls under (Performing Test) a. compliance testing b. disaster testing c. verifying compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations 154. Portability falls under (Performing Test) a. compliance testing b. disaster testing c. verifying compliance to rules d. functional testing e. ease of operations 155. What are the four attributes to be present in any test problem? (Performing Test) a. statement, criteria, effect and cause b. priority, fix, schedule and report c. statement, fix effect and report d. none of the above. 156. Which is not the Phase of SDLC? (Testers Role SDLC) Initiation Phase Definition Phase Planning Phase Programming and Training Phase 157. Comparison of the expected benefit versus the cost of the solution is done in which phase of SDLC (Testers Role SDLC) Definition Phase Design Phase Initiation Phase Implementation Phase 158. Who is policy/oversight participant in SDLC? (Testers Role SDLC) Project Manager Contracting Officer Information Technology Manger Information Resources Management official

159. Who reviews proposed procurement for sufficiency in the acquisition and installation of the Off-the-Self Software? (Testers Role SDLC) Sponsor / User Project Manager IT Manger All of the Above 160. V testing process is (Testers Role SDLC) a. System development process and system test process begins b. Testing starts after coding is done c. Do procedures are followed by Check procedures d. Testing starts after the prototype is done 161. Validation is (Testers Role SDLC) Execute test Review code Desk check Audit 162. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process (Testers Role SDLC) Assess development plan and status Develop the test plan Test software design Test software requirement 163. Structural testing is (Testers Role SDLC) Requirements are properly satisfied by the application Uncover errors during Coding of the program Functions works properly To test how the business requirements are implemented. 164. Functional testing is (Testers Role SDLC) a. Path testing b. Technology has been used properly c. Uncover errors that occurs in implementing requirements. d. Uncover errors in program unit. 165. Structural testing is NOT (Testers Role SDLC) a. Installation testing b. Stress testing

c. Recovery testing d. Compliance testing 166. Stress testing transaction can be obtained from (Testers Role SDLC) a. Test data generators b. Test transactions created by the test group c. Transactions previously processed in the production environment d. All of the above. 167. Who will assess vulnerability in the system (Testers Role SDLC) Internal Control Officer System Security Officer QA Engineer Test Manager 168. What is the structure testing process (Testers Role SDLC) a. Parallel b. Regression c. Stress d. Intersystem 169. What is Risk analysis? (Risk Analysis) a. Evaluating risks b. Evaluating Controls c. Evaluating vulnerabilities d. All of the above 170. Major component of Risk Analysis are (Risk Analysis) a. The probability that the negative event will occur b. The potential loss is very high c. The potential loss or impact associated with the event. d. A and C. 171. Method of conducting Risk Analysis is (Risk Analysis) a. User your judgment b. User your instinct c. Cost of failure d. All of the above 172. Which is not Testing Risk. (Risk Analysis) a. Budget b. Number of qualified test resources c. Sequence and increments of code delivery d. Inadequately tested applications

173. If abnormal termination type X occurs 100 times per year, and the loss per occurrence is $500, then the loss associated with the risk is $50,000. What methods of measuring the magnitude of risk I am using? (Risk Analysis) a. Judgment b. Annual loss expectation estimation c. Risk Formula d. Consensus 174. What is Cascading error? (Risk Analysis) a. Unrelated errors b. Triggers a second unrelated error in another part c. A functionality could not be tested d. Two similar errors 175. Configuration defects will be introduced if (Risk Analysis) a. Environment is not stable b. Environment does not mirror test environment c. Environment does not mirror production environment d. All of the above 176. Quality Risk is (Risk Analysis) a. Requirement comply with methodology b. Incorrect result will be produced c. Result of the system are unreliable d. Complex technology used. 177. Risk control objectives are established in (Risk Analysis) a. Design phase b. Requirement Phase c. Testing Phase d. Implementation Phase 178. Which of the following is not Risk characteristic (Risk Analysis) a. Inherent in every project b. Neither intrinsically good not bad c. Something to fear but not something to manage d. Probability of loss 179. Application developed should fit users business process. The components of fit are (Acceptance Testing) a. Data b. People c. Structure d. All of the above

180. Which is not the responsibility of customer/ user of the software (Acceptance Testing) a. Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed b. Prepare the acceptance plan c. Prepare resource plan d. Plan resources for providing information on which to base acceptance decisions 181. In preparation for developing the acceptance criteria, the user should (Acceptance Testing) a. Know the defects in the application b. Acquire the basic knowledge of the application for which the system is intended c. Understand the risks and benefits of the development methodology that is to be used in correcting the software system d. Know new enhancement and basic understanding of how the application is implemented in users organization 182. Acceptance requirements that a system should meet is (Acceptance Testing) a. Usability b. Understandability c. Functionality d. Enhancements 183. Testing techniques that can be used in acceptance testing are (Acceptance Testing) a. Structural b. Functional c. Usability d. A and B B and C 184. For final software acceptance testing, the system should include (Acceptance Testing) a. Delivered software b. All user documents c. Final version of other software deliverables d. All of the above 185. Acceptance testing means (Acceptance Testing) a. Testing performed on a single stand alone module or unit of code b. Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced

c. Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and end user. d. Users test the application in the developers environment 186. Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the (Acceptance Testing) a. Developer b. End users c. Test team d. Systems engineers

187. Which is not test result data (Status of Testing) a. Test factors b. Interface objective c. Platform d. Test estimation 188. What type of test that will be conducted during the execution of tests, which will be based on software requirements. What category of status data I am looking? (Status of Testing) a. Test Result b. Test Transaction c. Defects d. Efficiency 189. Summary (project)status report provides (Status of Testing) a. General view of a project b. General view of all the projects c. Detailed view of all the projects d. Detailed information about a project 190. Project status report provides (Status of Testing) a. General view of a project b. General view of all the projects c. Detailed view of all the projects d. Detailed information about a project 191. What is not the primary data given by the tester in test execution (Status of Testing) a. Total number of tests b. Number of test cases written for change request c. Number of test executed to date d. Number of tests executed successfully to date

192. Do the current project results meet the performance requirements? Which section of Project Status Report I should look for (Status of Testing) a. Vital Project Information b. General Project Information c. Project Activities Information d. Essential Elements Information 193. Which is a section of Summary status report (Status of Testing) a. Vital project information b. Essential elements information c. Project activities information d. Time Line information 194. Test Result data is (Status of Testing) a. Test Transactions b. Test events c. Business Objectives d. Reviews 195. What type of efficiency can be evaluated during testing? (Status of Testing) a. Software system b. Testing c. Development d. A and C A and B
196. Who is essentially responsible for the quality of a product? (Quality) a. Customer b. QA Manager c. Development Manager 197. What are the 3 costs that make up the Cost of Quality? (Quality) a. Prevention, Appraisal, Failure b. Appraisal, Development, Testing c. Testing, Prevention, rework

198. What are expected production costs? (Quality)


a. labor, materials, and equipment b. personnel, training, and rollout c. training, testing, user-acceptance 199 Appraisal costs are: (Quality) a. Costs associated with preventing errors b. Costs associated with detection of errors c. Costs associated with defective products delivered to customers

200. An example of a Failure Cost is: (Quality)


a. Training b. Inspections c. Rework

201. If you could build a 0 defect product, would there be any costs involved?
If yes, what costs? (Quality) Preventive costs, but they are minimally involved No costs will be involved Failure costs

202. How many Deming principles are there? (Quality) a. 10 b. 14 5 7

203. How many levels are in the CMM? (Quality) a. 18 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

204.

The Pareto analysis is most effective for: (Quality)

a) Ranking items by importance b) Showing relationships between items Measuring the impact of identified items 205. What is COTS? (Testing Concepts) a. Commercial On-the-shelf software b. Commercial off-the-shelf software c. Common Offshore testing Software

206. What is the purpose of code coverage tools? (Metrics) a. They are used to show the extent to which the logic in the program was executed during testing. b. They are used as an alternative to testing c. They are used to compile the program

207. Four examples of test specific metrics. (Metrics) a. Testing Effort variation, Defect Density, Testing Efficiency, Requirements tested. b. Inspection, review efficiency, Testing Effort variation, Defect Density c. Test scalability, Defect deviation, Testing Efficiency, Schedule variation

208. Give (Metrics)

one

commonly

recognized

size

measurement

tool.

a. Effort analysis b. LCO Analysis c. LOC Analysis d. Code Analysis 209. Give three components included in a system test report. (Test reporting) a. Description of Testing; resource requirement; and Recommendation b. Testing requirements; defects; and usability Description of test results and findings (defects); Summary (environment and references); and Recommendation 210. Review is what category of cost of quality? (Quality) a. Preventive

b. Appraisal c. Failure 211. The largest cost of quality is from production failure (Quality) a. True b. False 212. Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle? (Testing Concepts) a. Requirements b. Analysis & Design c. Construction d. Implementation 213. The purpose of software testing is to: (Testing Concepts) a. Demonstrate that the application works properly b. Detect the defects c. Validate the logical design 214. _________must be developed to describe when and how testing will occur. (Testing Concepts) Test Strategy Test Plan Test Design High Level document 215. It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks (Testing Concepts) True False 216. __________ testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is known. (Testing Concepts) Black Box testing Performance Testing White Box testing Functional testing 217. _________ test is conducted at the developers site by a customer. (Testing Concepts) Beta System

Alpha None of the above 218. Juran is famous for (Quality) a. Quality Control b. Working on Trend Analysis c. Pareto d. Fish Bone Diagram 219. Software testing activities should start (Testing Concepts) a. As soon as the code is written b. during the design stage c. when the requirements have been formally documented d. as soon as possible in the development lifecycle 220. Non Statistical tools are used in the (Test Reporting) Work Practice process Benchmarking process Both A and B None of the above 221. Quality Function deployment (QFD) is a (Test Reporting) Statistical tool Non statistical tool Development tool None of the above 222. The Sequence of the four Phases involved in Bench marking process is (Test Reporting) Action, Planning, Integration, Analysis Planning, Analysis, Integration, Action Analysis, Planning, Integration, Action Analysis, Action, Planning, Integration 223. Defect Density is calculated by (Metrics) Total no. of Defects/ Effort Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defect Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects Valid Defects/ Effort 224. Effort Variation is calculated by (Metrics) (Planned Actual)/ Actual (Actual Planned) / Actual (Actual Planned) / Planned

(Planned Actual)/ Planned 225. Percentage Rework is calculated by (Metrics) (Review effort + rework effort)/ Actual Effort expended (Review effort - rework effort)/ Actual Effort expended Rework Effort / Planned Effort Rework Effort / Actual Effort expended 226. The ______________ is an application of process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance. (Quality) Malcolm Baldridge ISO 9000 SEI/CMM QS14000 227. A quantitative measurement used to determine the test completion is Defect measurement Requirements coverage Statistical Analysis

228. The categories of Error Oriented Techniques are (Test Environment) Statistical assessment and Error-based testing Error-based testing and Fault based testing. Fault based testing and Statistical assessment Statistical assessment, Error-based testing and Fault based testing. 229. The following factors should be considered for the Test Tool selection (Test Environment) Test Phase Test Objective Test Technique Test Deliverable 1&2 1,2,3 & 4 2&3

1,2 & 3 230. Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities: (Test Environment) a). Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class at least once b). Identify all inputs and all outputs c). Identify equivalence classes for each input d). All of the above 231. Its an unfair test to perform stress testing at the same time you perform load testing (Performance). True False 232. Testing error messages fall under ------- category of testing. (Types of testing) Incremental Testing Thread Testing Documentation Testing Stress Testing 233. The term defect is related to the term fault because a fault is a defect, which has not yet been identified. (Defect Management) True False 234. What qualities must an individual possess to test effectively a software application (Test Management) Good Communication Skill Good Error Guessing Good Analytical Skill All of the above 235. Defects are least costly as what stage of Development cycle. (Test Management) Analysis & Design Construction Requirements Implementation

236. QC is (Quality) Phase building activity Intermediate activity End of Phase activity Design activity 237. _____________ is monitoring defects from the time of recording until satisfactory resolution has been determined. a) Quality Measurement b) Defect Measurement c) Defect Tracking d) None of the above 238. Most common cause of defects is (Defect Management) Failure to estimate Failure to asses risks c) Ambiguous or incomplete requirements Weak communication 239. Verification activities during design stages are (Test Design) Reviewing and Inspecting Inspecting and Testing Reviewing and Testing Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing. 240. Decision to stop testing should be based upon (Testing Concepts) Successful use of specific test case design methodologies A percentage of coverage for each coverage category Rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold All of the above 241. Testing, which is carried out using no recognized test case design (Test Design) Failure Testing Adhoc Testing Exhaustive Testing Empty test case Testing 242. A test case design technique for a component in which test cases

are designed to execute statements is called as? Design) State transition Testing Static Testing Transition testing Statement testing

(Test

243. This testing is a mechanism that simulates problems in the original environment so that an alternative-processing environment can be tested. Disaster testing Functional testing Regression testing Compliance Testing 244. Status Reports in Test Director can be generated using -----------(Test Management) a) Document Viewer b) Document Generator c) Document Tracker d) None of the Above 245. The following five tasks are needed to develop, use and maintain Test scripts. (Test Design) Unit scripting Pseudoconcurrency scripting Integration scripting Regression Scripting Stress/Performance Scripting. 1,2 & 3 2&4 1, 2 & 5 1,2,3,4 & 5 246. Testing where the system is subjected to large number of data, is (Testing Concepts) a) System Testing b) Volume Testing c) Statistical testing d) Statement testing 247. Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the systems components being combined to form the system. (Types of Testing) System testing Component Testing

Incremental Testing Big bang testing 248. Recovery Testing aims at verifying the system's ability to recover from varying degrees of failure. (Types of Testing) True False 249. Which testing methods are used by end-users who actually test software before they use it? (Types of Testing) Alpha & Beta Testing White Box Testing Black Box Testing Trial & Error Testing 250. The testing attempts to violate those procedures, which should test the adequacy of the security procedures. (Types of Testing) Disaster testing Functional testing Regression testing Compliance testing