Chapter 10

Student: _________________________________________________________ 1. Which of the following steps would NOT lead to variation of genetic material? A. crossing over of non-sister chromatids B. crossing over of sister chromatids C. the alignment of the chromosomes during metaphase I D. the combination of sperm and egg genes. 2. Which of the following is NOT a difference between anaphase I and anaphase II? A. Each chromosome is composed of two chromatids in anaphase I and only one chromatid in anaphase II. B. Anaphase I occurs in a haploid cell while anaphase II occurs in a diploid cell. C. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II while homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I. D. The cell undergoing anaphase II is genetically different from from what it contained while undergoing anaphase I. 3. It could be said that males are able to provide gametes with more genetic diversity than females for reproduction. One main reason would be: A. Males provide more genes in sperm than females provide in eggs. B. Crossing over occurs more often in the formation of sperm than in eggs. C. Spermatogenesis in males results in four functional sperm while oogenesis in females results in only one egg and three structures that contain genetic information that is lost when they disintegrate. D. Sperm that contain a recombination of genes are usually more successful in fertilizing an egg. 4. The cell formed through fertilization is called a/an A. gamete. B. sperm cell. C. zygote. D. egg cell. E. ovum. 5. If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal that has ______ chromosomes. A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16 E. 24 6. The term built from the Greek root words meaning "corresponding" or "agreeing" is A. tetrad. B. homologous. C. haploid. D. diploid. E. chromatid. 7. Another name for a tetrad is a/an A. homologue. B. bivalent. C. ocyte. D. gamete. E. polar body.

8. The term "bivalent" is built from the Latin root words meaning A. twice divided. B. two and strength. C. double genetic. D. half of a gene. E. joined together. 9. The term "synapsis" is built from the Greek root word meaning A. divided. B. two. C. summarized. D. gene. E. joined together. 10. If a cell contains 12 chromosomes at the end of meiosis I, how many chromosomes will the daughter cells contain at the end of meiosis II? A. 3 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24 11. During which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur? A. prophase I B. anaphase I C. telophase I D. prophase II E. anaphase II 12. What is the importance of crossing-over? A. It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells. B. It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material. C. It produces the proteins that are associated with DNA in chromosomes. D. It increases chromosome condensation. E. It separates the homologous chromosomes. 13. A synaptonemal complex is A. the internal structure of nucleoprotein that makes up a chromosome. B. a nucleoprotein lattice that forms between homologues in chiasmata. C. the spindle fibers that attach to homologous chromosomes during meiosis. D. the spindle fibers that attach from pole to pole without binding chromosomes. E. the set of cells produced from a single original parent cell in oogenesis. 14. To what does the term chiasma refer? A. the process of fertilization B. the life cycle of a fungus C. the process of crossing-over D. a structure that holds together homologues during crossing-over E. the period between meiosis I and meiosis II 15. During which stage of meiosis are the bivalents arranged along the equator? A. prophase I

B. metaphase II C. anaphase II D. prophase II E. metaphase I 16. At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid? A. prophase I B. metaphase II C. anaphase II D. prophase II E. metaphase I 17. During which stage of meiosis does homologue separation occur? A. prophase I B. anaphase I C. telophase I D. prophase II E. anaphase II 18. Which statement is NOT true about homologues in meiosis I? A. Homologous chromosomes pair to form a tetrad. B. Homologous chromosomes separate and go to different daughter cells. C. Each homologue's centromere splits to form two chromosomes. D. Homologues exchange genetic material between non-sister chromatids. E. Homologues interact with the spindle as if they were one chromosome. 19. In the genus Lacerta are species of lizards that are female and do not mate. They undergo "endomitosis" where one extra chromosome replication results in a tetraploid cell before meiosis begins; normal female 2n offspring result without fertilization. What change(s) from regular meiosis (in preparation for fertilization) would be required to produce this system? A. The haploid cell products of meiosis II fuse. B. Meiosis stops after meiosis I and does not proceed to meiosis II. C. Cytokinesis fails to occur prior to meiosis I. D. During anaphase II, the sister centromeres fail to separate and daughter cells will not form. E. During anaphase II, the daughter chromosomes are non-disjunctive and are all pulled to one daughter cell. 20. Interkinesis is different from interphase in which way? A. Interkinesis occurs after a cell finishes a nuclear division. B. Interkinesis is the stage that precedes a prophase stage. C. Interphase involves DNA replication and interkinesis does not. D. Interkinesis can be variable in length. 21. The events of meiosis II are most similar to A. mitosis. B. meiosis I. C. interphase. D. interkinesis. 22. Which does NOT occur in meiosis? A. two daughter cells at completion B. four daughter cells at completion C. two nuclear divisions

D. formation of bivalents 23. Which is NOT true about daughter cells of mitosis and meiosis? A. In meiosis, daughter cells are haploid. B. In meiosis, there are four daughter cells. C. In mitosis, there are two daughter cells. D. In mitosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical. E. In meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical. 24. The term based on Latin and Greek root words meaning "seed" and "production" is A. gametogenesis. B. oogenesis. C. pangenesis. D. spermatogenesis. 25. The term based on Latin and Greek root words meaning "egg" and "production" is A. gametogenesis. B. oogenesis. C. pangenesis. D. spermatogenesis. 26. Meiosis leads to all of the following EXCEPT A. gametogenesis. B. oogenesis. C. pangenesis. D. spermatogenesis. 27. The term based on the Greek root words meaning "egg" and "cell" is A. gamete. B. oocyte. C. pangenesis. D. spermatogenesis. E. polar body. 28. The polar body is A. another name for an egg cell. B. a precursor cell that becomes an egg cell. C. a nonfunctional cell rudiment made at the same time as an egg cell. D. the cell produced when fertilization occurs. 29. Why do polar bodies form? A. They nurse the egg as it leaves the follicle. B. This is extra chromosomal material representing the X chromosome in each female cell. C. They orient the sperm toward the egg. D. They allow a reduction in chromosomes while preserving all the food for one egg. E. They orient the egg for penetration by the sperm. 30. Although the sperm and egg are both produced by the process of meiosis, they differ A. from a genetic point of view: each gene stands an equal chance of ending up in a sperm but has only 50% chance of being discarded in the polar body in egg production. B. in the allocation of cellular food supply. C. in motility.

D. All of the choices are correct. 31. Which of the following is/are true about sexual reproduction? A. At the cellular level is the opposite of reproduction since it involves two cells fusing to become one. B. It requires the development of organs such as the uterus, which are of no immediate survival advantage to the individual but are advantageous to the species. C. It regularly produces a wider array of adaptations to the external environment in a shorter period of time. D. It regularly produces a wider array of adaptations to the internal environment (disease agents, parasites) in a shorter period of time. E. All of the choices are true. 32. Species X reproduces asexually by fission and species Y reproduces sexually. Consider that all other relevant characteristics are similar between these species. When the environment gradually changes, then A. species X and Y will have an equal chance of surviving. B. species Y should have a better chance of surviving than species X. C. species X should have a better chance of surviving than species Y. D. neither species should have an advantage in surviving since organisms often become extinct when the environment changes. 33. Before the time of Gregor Mendel and genetics, sexual reproduction was thought to produce a blending or equal mixing of the parents' traits . Today we know that A. offspring will be identical to one another and demonstrate traits exactly halfway between the parents' traits. B. offspring can vary from receiving over 99% of one parent's genes to receiving over 99% of the other parent's genes. C. offspring inherit essentially 50% of their genes from each parent, but two sibling offspring may share with each other from zero to 23 chromosomes in common from each parent, and further variation may occur due to crossing-over. D. offspring inherit copies of the same 23 pair of chromosomes from each of their parents but the rate of crossing-over makes them very dissimilar. E. there is one chance in 23 of getting identical sets of chromosomes from one parent, times two because there are two parents; therefore, two siblings out of every 46 are really identical except for crossing-over. 34. There is a species of desert lizard where only females are known to existthere are no males known. It is nevertheless necessary for two females to court and for one to assume the posture of a male to stimulate the female to produce eggs. No fertilization can occur, and the eggs develop into female lizards. What is the probable evolutionary mechanism for this occurring? A. The species is probably going extinct. B. The desert is relatively uniform and there is little advantage to maintaining variation, but the animal has not been able to completely evolve away from its heritage of sexual reproduction. C. This switch in mating behavior is the direct physical reflection of crossing-over. D. This is probably an asexual organism attempting to mimic sexual reproduction. 35. Cytology involves all of the following EXCEPT A. is the field of biology that involves the study of cells. B. studies only the cytosol. C. involves the study of mitosis and meiosis. D. evluates all aspects of the cell. 36. Homologous chromosomes are A. similar in size. B. similar in shape and location of the centromere. C. carry the genetic code for the same traits.

D. All of the choices are correct. 37. The overall function of meiosis includes all of the following EXCEPT A. gamete production. B. 2N to N cells (chromosome number reduction). C. providing genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms. D. growth of the overall individual. 38. Sources of genetic variation in a sexually reproducing population include(s) which of the following? A. crossing over in Prophase I B. independent assortment in Metaphase I C. fertilization D. All of the choices are sources of genetic variation. 39. In human females, when does meiosis II occur? A. at ovulation B. immediately after the sperm penetration of the secondary oocyte C. immdiately after the sperm penetrates the primary oocyte D. None of the choices are correct. 40. Where in the human male does spermatogenesis occur? A. ovaries B. testes C. epididymus D. prostate gland 41. Infertility in human males is sometimes due to the failure of the spermatids to develop into mature sperm. What might be the cause of this failure to mature? A. blocked seminiferous tubules B. lowered testosterone levels C. inflammation of the epididymis D. All of the choices are correct. 42. Oogenesis always involves an equal division of cell contents in the formation of an egg and polar bodies. True False 43. The replication of DNA and the duplication of genes occurs during mitosis. True False 44. If DNA replication has already occurred, the chromosomes consist of sister chromatids held together at a centromere. True False 45. Synapsis is when a duplicated chromosome begins to pair with its homologue. True False 46. A lattice holds the members of a bivalent together in such a way that the RNA of the non-sister chromatids is aligned. True False 47. The chromosome bivalents are located at the metaphase plate during metaphase I. True False

48. Kinetochore fibers extend from one side only of the centromere during meiosis I. True False 49. The centromere holds the homologues together in meiosis I. True False 50. Chromosomes align themselves at the left of the spindle. True False 51. During anaphase I the association between members of a bivalent is disrupted and they separate. True False 52. There is no replication of DNA between meiosis I and meiosis II. True False 53. A haploid plant produces haploid gametes by mitosis. True False 54. In fungi, meiosis is followed by mitosis to produce the haploid adult form. True False 55. Only one of the four daughter cells becomes a functional gamete in spermatogenesis. True False 56. The increased number of genes controlling meiosis can lead to an increased chance of mutations and the possibility of faulty or inviable gametes. True False 57. Sexually reproduced organisms are less likely to survive environmental changes that stress populations. True False 58. At a cellular level, sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two cells into one. Some biologists have proposed early conditions (such as life in a pool that is drying up) that could have promoted primitive cells trying to engulf members of their own species but they succeeded in only fusing together. That means that the real evolutionary question may be the following: How could these early cells reduce the chromosome number by half? Consider the stages in mitotic division. Which processes in both nuclear replication and division, and cytokinesis, would need to be turned on or turned off in order to move from mitosis to meiosis?

59. Explain the differences in life cycle animals, plants, and fungi, with respect to haploid and diploid cells.

60. Some plants are tetraploid (4n). How might such a plant arise?

61. Why is it important that haploid gametes be produced in animals?

62. Describe the stages of meiosis. Which stage is most different from mitosis?

63. Explain the process of crossing-over.

64. Meiosis is duplication-division-division. Could a cell that underwent asexual reproduction by normal mitosis also cut its chromosome number in half by simply dividing once, rather than first duplicating and then dividing twice? Would this decrease the advantage of gaining variation by crossing-over?

65. Compare the processes of oogenesis and spermatogenesis.

66. Compare the processes and products of mitosis and meiosis.

67. Some aquatic organisms produce haploid gametes that are all of equal size and equipped with a flagellum. These isogametes fuse to produce a diploid zygote but we cannot identify either as a sperm or egg. Why might such a system arise and survive in an external aquatic environment?

68. Some animals are hermaphrodites that possess both male and female organs in the same organisms, and in some cases this allows for self-fertilization. Other animals can undergo parthenogenesis, where a female lays unfertilized eggs that develop into females. Since these systems can produce offspring that gain all their heredity from one parent, what is the chromosomal difference between an animal that is a hermaphrodite and one that uses parthenogenesis?

Chapter 11
Student: _________________________________________________________ 1. The location on a chromosome where a particular gene is located is known as the: A. allele B. dihybrid C. locus D. diploid E. autosome 2. Which of the following is NOT a trait that is the result of, or is affected by, the interaction of more than one gene? A. human skin color

B. cleft palate C. height D. sickle cell anemia 3. Which of the following crosses would always result in offspring that only display the dominant phenotype? A. TT x tt B. Tt x Tt C. TT x TT D. Tt x Tt E. both TT x tt and TT x TT 4. What aspect of Mendel's background gave him the necessary tools to discover the laws of inheritance? A. He was a monk. B. He was a teacher. C. He lived in Austria. D. He had studied mathematics and probability. E. He corresponded with Charles Darwin. 5. What is the blending theory of inheritance? A. Mendel's theory of how the traits of parents are passed to offspring through the gametes B. Darwin's theory of how traits are passed from all parts of the parent's body into the gamete to be transmitted to the offspring C. the modern theory of how genetic information is passed from parents to offspring D. an old theory that said that offspring show traits intermediate between those of the parents 6. Which characteristic of pea plants was NOT important in their selection as Mendel's research organism? A. Most other scientists of the time were also using peas, so a lot was known about them. B. Peas are easy to cultivate. C. Pea plants have a short generation time. D. Pea plants are self-pollinating but can be cross-fertilized easily. E. Many true-breeding varieties were available. 7. In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, which generation is always completely heterozygous? A. F1 generation B. F2 generation C. F3 generation D. P generation 8. In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, which generation is always completely homozygous? A. F1 generation B. F2 generation C. F3 generation D. P generation 9. If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype, A. it can be either TT or Tt. B. it can be either Tt or tt. C. it can be only TT. D. it can be only tt. E. it can be TT, Tt, or tt. 10. The symbol "F" in the results of a testcross stands for

A. dominant. B. recessive. C. first trait to show up. D. "faulty" or unexpected results. E. filial. 11. The F2 offspring of a monohybrid cross would show the genotype(s) A. AA and Aa. B. Aa and aa. C. AA, Aa, and aa. D. AA only. E. Aa only. 12. The F1 offspring of a monohybrid cross would show the genotype(s) A. AA and Aa. B. Aa and aa. C. AA, Aa, and aa. D. AA only. E. Aa only. 13. The offspring of a monohybrid testcross would show the genotype(s) A. AA and Aa. B. Aa and aa. C. AA, Aa, and aa. D. AA only. E. aa only. 14. If an individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a recessive phenotype, 4 of their 9 offspring show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of the first parent? A. AA B. Aa C. aa D. The answer cannot be determined from this information. 15. Which is NOT true according to Mendel's law of segregation? A. Each individual contains two factors for each trait. B. One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual. C. Factors separate from each other during gamete formation. D. Each gamete contains one copy of each factor. E. Fertilization restores the presence of two factors. 16. In which kind of cross would you expect to find a ratio of 3:1 among the F2 offspring? A. monohybrid cross B. dihybrid cross C. testcross D. None of the choices are correct. 17. Some plants fail to produce chlorophyll, and this trait appears to be recessive. Many plants also selfpollinate. If we locate a pea plant that is heterozygous for this trait, self-pollinate it and harvest seeds, what are the likely phenotypes of these seeds when they germinate? A. All will be green with chlorophyll since that is the dominant trait. B. All will be white and lack chlorophyll since this is self-pollinated.

C. About one-half will be green and one-half white since that is the distribution of the genes in the parents. D. About one-fourth will be white and three-fourths green since it is similar to a monohybrid cross. E. About one-fourth will be green and three-fourths white since it is similar to a monohybrid cross. 18. If you had two guinea pigs of opposite sex, both homozygous, one black and one brown, but you didn't know which was the dominant characteristic, how would you find out the dominant color? A. Mate them together and see what color the offspring arethat will be the dominant color. B. Mate them together and see what color the offspring arethe other will be the dominant color. C. Mate them together , then mate their offspring to see what color the grandchildren arethat will be the dominant color. D. Mate them together, then mate their offspring to see what color the grandchildren arethe other color will be the dominant color. E. None of the choices are correct. 19. If you had two guinea pigs of opposite sex, both homozygous, one black and one brown, but you didn't know which was the dominant characteristic, how could you be certain that the guinea pigs are truly homozygous? A. The guinea pigs would be homozygous for black (or brown) coat color if each strain could be bred for many generations and only black (or brown) colored offspring were produced. B. If the immediate parents of the black (or brown) guinea pigs were both of that color, it proves they are homozygous. C. If a cross between the black and brown guinea pig produced four all black offspring, the black guinea pig would have to be homozygous for black coat color. D. Any of the results would prove the black guinea pig was homozygous. E. Only microscopic examination of the guinea pig's genes could absolutely confirm homozygosity. 20. The Greek root word for allele means A. gene. B. hereditary. C. mathematical. D. parallel or reciprocal. E. different. 21. The term based on the Greek root words for "different" and "balance" or "yoke" is A. gene. B. heterozygous. C. genotype. D. phenotype. E. genetics. 22. "Genotype" is based on the Greek root words for A. appearance and shape. B. hereditary and image. C. mathematical and form. D. birth or origin, and shape. E. different and image. 23. What are alleles? A. genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color B. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes C. the locations of genes on a chromosome D. recessive forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes

E. dominant forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes 24. "Phenotype" is based on the Greek root words for A. appearance and shape. B. hereditary and image. C. mathematical and form. D. birth or origin, and shape. E. different and image. 25. Unattached earlobes (EE or Ee) are described in the textbook as dominant over attached earlobes (ee). A couple both have unattached earlobes. Both notice that one of their parents on both sides has attached earlobes (ee). Therefore, they correctly assume that they are carriers for attached earlobes (Ee). The couple proceed to have four children. A. They can be certain that three will be heterozygous and one homozygous recessive. B. If the first three are heterozygous, the fourth must be homozygous recessive. C. The children must repeat the grandparents' genotype (Ee). D. All children must have unattached earlobes since both parents possess the dominant gene for it. E. Two heterozygous, one homozygous recessive and one homozygous dominant is a likely outcome, but all heterozygous, or two, three or all four homozygous are also possible. 26. In 1940, two researchers named Weiner and Landsteiner discovered that about 85 percent of the human population sampled possessed a blood cell protein that had been previously detected in Rhesus monkeys. This blood type was labeled Rh positive, and Rh+ was found to be dominant over the absence of the blood factor (Rh). Under normal Mendelian inheritance, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Two Rh+ parents could have an Rh- child. B. Two Rh- parents could have an Rh+ child. C. An Rh- child would require that both parents be carriers of at least one Rh- gene. D. It is possible with just one pair of parents to have children where some siblings are Rh- and some are Rh+. E. All of the choices are false. 27. Since each child of two heterozygous parents has a 1/4 chance of receiving a recessive trait from each parent, A. if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child must be phenotypically dominant. B. if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child has a 3/4 chance of being phenotypically recessive. C. if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child has a 1/2 chance of being phenotypically recessive. D. no matter what the first child's phenotype, the next child will have a 1/4 chance of being phenotypically recessive. 28. The ability to roll the edges of the tongue upward in a U-shape has been considered to be an inherited ability. The standard assumption is that tongue-rolling is a dominant allele at a single gene locus. Which of the following would cast doubt on this assumption? A. A teacher reports that after testing her class on the ability to roll their tongue, with very little effort the nontongue-rollers can learn to also roll their tongues. B. A student who can roll his tongue has a mother and father, both of whom cannot. C. A student who cannot roll his tongue has a mother and father, both of whom can. D. The non-tongue rollers who learn to roll their tongues and the student who can roll his tongue while his parents cannot are two situations that cast doubt on the heritability issue. The situation where a student cannot roll his tongue while his parents can is inconclusive. E. Behaviors are not inherited, only structures are inherited.

29. If the probability of event A is 3/4 and the probability of event B is 1/4, then the probability of both A and B occurring at the same time is A. 3/4. B. 1/4. C. 1 or absolute certainty. D. 1/2. E. 3/16. 30. In which kind of cross would you expect to find exactly the anticipated ratios every time the cross is made? A. monohybrid cross B. dihybrid cross C. testcross D. None of the choices is correct. 31. Computer simulations are sometimes used to demonstrate the outcome of monohybrid fruit fly crosses, where a student can run generation after generation of fruit flies with 100 offspring produced each generation, half male and half female, and a 3-to-1 phenotype ratio (or 75 to 25) in the F1 generation. Compared with real genetics results, A. rarely would exactly 100 fly offspring be produced or survive. B. an exact balance between males and females would be rare. C. a precise 3-to-1 ratio would be uncommon. D. All of the choices are true. 32. In which kind of cross would you expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1 among the F2 offspring? A. monohybrid cross B. dihybrid cross C. testcross D. None of the choices is correct. 33. In which kind of cross would you expect to find two different kinds of ratios among the offspring, either 1:1 or 1:1:1:1? A. monohybrid cross B. dihybrid cross C. testcross D. None of the choices is correct. 34. In pea plants, the gene for round seed (R) is dominant, and wrinkled seeds (r) are recessive. The endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (S), or waxy (s). What can be said of a fully heterozygous (or dihybrid) cross? A. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for both dominant genes. B. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for both recessive genes. C. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for one dominant gene such as round seed and homozygous recessive for the other recessive waxy gene. D. All of these choices are impossible combinations in a dihybrid cross. E. All of these choices are possible combinations in a dihybrid cross. 35. A testcross involves an individual exhibiting the dominant phenotype but an unknown genotype being crossed with an individual that has a(n) ___________ genotype. A. homozygous dominant B. heterozygous dominant C. homozygous recessive D. any of the choices

36. If individuals exhibiting a dominant phenotype are crossed and produce only offspring with the dominant phenotype, what would be the logical genotype of the parents? A. homozygous recessive B. heterozygous dominant C. homozygous dominant D. unable to determine by the given information 37. In the use of a Punnett square for genetic results of crossing individuals A. all different kinds of sperm are lined up either horizontally or vertically. B. all different kinds of eggs are lined up either horizontally or vertically. C. every possible allele combination is placed within the square. D. the results show the offspring's expected genotypes. E. All of the choices are correct. 38. If a human who is a tongue roller (T) and has unattached ear lobes (E) marries a person who cannot roll their tongue and has attached earlobes, could they produce an offspring that was also a non-tongue roller with attached earlobes? What would be the genotype of the first parent? the second parent? A. yes; TtEe; ttee B. yes; TtEE; ttEe C. no; TTEE; ttee D. unable to determine from the information given 39. The particulate theory of inheritance A. preceded Mendel's research by a century. B. was proposed by Mendel. C. is based on genes. D. All of the choices are correct. 40. Of the following which is not an autosomal dominant disorder? A. Huntington's disease B. Neurofibromatosis C. Phenylketonuria D. Achondroplasia 41. An individual with blood type A marries an individual with blood type B. What blood types could their offspring exhibit? A. AB B. A C. B D. O E. all of these are possible 42. The traits Mendel studies in garden peas showed A. complete dominance. B. incomplete dominance. C. epistasis. D. pleiotropy. E. polygenic inheritance. 43. When crossing a true-breeding red snapdragon glower with a true-breeding white flower of the same species, we secure all pink offspring. This would seem to support the pre-Mendel view that inheritance is a

blending of parental traits. However, both Mendel and we know that "blending" of parental traits is not correct and that particles of inheritance are actually involved because A. in the case of incomplete dominance, only radioactive isotope tracers can follow the actual hereditary particles B. under blending theory, over many generations only the average (or pink flowers) would remain, there would be no way to get back to pure red and white C. it is possible to cross the pink F-1 generation and secure a predictable proportion of pure red and white flowers again, which is not accounted for under the blending theory D. there is no way to directly prove incomplete dominance is not a case of blending, but we can be sure of genes because of the other cases of dominance, etc., where genes are the only logical explanation. E. It is possible that (1) over many generations the average (pink flowers) would remain, with no way to get back to pure red and white and (2) it is possible to cross the pink F-1 generation and obtain a predictable portion of pure red and white flowers. 44. A classical example of incomplete dominance is A. ABO blood groups in humans. B. height in garden peas. C. pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons. D. coat color in rabbits. E. albinism in humans and animals. 45. A classical example of epistasis is A. ABO blood groups in humans. B. height in garden peas. C. pink flower in heterozygous snapdragons. D. coat color in rabbits. E. albinism in humans and animals. 46. "Pleiotropy" is based on the Greek root words for A. appearance and shape. B. standing on. C. mathematical and form. D. birth or origin, and shape. E. more and turning. 47. The term based on the Greek root words for "many" and "producing" is A. epistasis. B. pleiotropy. C. polygenic. D. homologous. E. autosomal. 48. A classical example of multiple alleles is A. coat color spotting in cattle. B. height in garden peas. C. pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons. D. ABO blood types in humans. E. albinism in humans and animals. 49. Lethal genes (genes that result in the failure to develop a vital organ or metabolic pathway) are nearly always recessive. Animal breeders who discover a unique trait and cross-breed to increase the occurrence of that trait often encounter a noticeable increase in lethal genes. Why?

A. The lethal recessive gene may be linked to the desire trait gene. B. Spreading the gene among offspring of both sexes will increase the likelihood it will be sex-linked and expressed. C. The cross-mating of closely related individuals, or inbreeding, increases chances the two recessive genes will "meet" in offspring. D. "Pleiotropy"- the gene that is being selected for this trait may have the second effect of being lethal. E. "Epistasis" -selection for the desired trait may result in "uncovering" the lethal gene. 50. A gene interaction in which a pair of recessive genes at one locus prevents expression of a dominant allele at another locus is called A. complete dominance. B. incomplete dominance. C. epistasis. D. pleiotropy. E. polygenic inheritance. 51. What causes the effects of albinism? A. the lack of pigment production B. an extra chromosome 21 C. the presence of two different codominant alleles D. inability to produce normal connective tissue E. the environment interacting with the genotype 52. The water buttercup produces thin leaves underwater, but those same tissues will produce broad leaves above the water. Individuals in the 1800's (when hunger and childhood diseases were common) averaged slightly over five feet tall, but their offspring in the 1900's were substantially taller on the average. This reflects the influence of A. polygenic inheritance. B. epistasis. C. gene linkage. D. genotype having no relationship to phenotype. E. environmental factors on the ability of genes to express themselves. 53. Skin color in humans, caused by several genes at several loci, is an example of A. multiple alleles at one locus. B. incomplete dominance. C. epistasis. D. pleiotropy. E. polygenic inheritance. 54. Haiti is settled by peoples of both African and European ancestry. A young couple, both with mixed ancestry, marry and have several children. The children vary widely in the amount of skin melanin production, with one child being lighter than either parent, and one being darker. The simple explanation for this is A. epistasis. B. multiple alleles are available for the one chromosomal locus that governs skin color. C. the environment affected the phenotype that developed. D. polygenic inheritance. E. gene linkage. 55. Which of the following diseases is NOT inherited as an autosomal recessive? A. neurofibromatosis B. Tay-Sachs disease

C. phenylketonuria D. albinism E. cystic fibrosis 56. Huntington disease is A. caused by a mutated recessive gene on chormosome 12. B. usually fatal before the individual reaches reproductive age. C. the result of a mutated gene for a protein that contains more glutamine than normal. D. due to lack of an enzyme needed to metabolize phenylalanine, and damage can therefore be controlled by a diet lacking this amino acid. E. All of the choices are correct. 57. The most common lethal genetic disease among Caucasians is A. neurofibromatosis. B. Tay-Sachs disease. C. phenylketonuria. D. albinism. E. cystic fibrosis. 58. Which of the following diseases is most prevalent in the Jewish community? A. neurofibromatosis B. Tay-Sachs disease C. phenylketonuria D. albinism E. cystic fibrosis 59. Phenylketonuria is A. caused by a mutated gene on chromosome 4. B. easily detected by high levels of phenylalanine in the urine or blood. C. the most common inherited disease of the nervous system. D. due to lack of an enzyme needed to metabolize phenylalanine, and damage can therefore be controlled by a diet low in this amino acid. E. All of the choices are correct. 60. Which type of inheritance results in continuous variation often a bell-shaped curvebecause genes at many loci are involved? A. polygenic B. autosomal dominant C. autosomal recessive D. X-linked E. sex-influenced 61. Assume your parents have blood types A and B respectively, but you do not know if they are homozygous or heterozygous. At the next family reunion, you get out a notepad and draw a pedigree chart. Whose blood types would provide possible clues to your parents' genotypes? A. your grandparents B. those aunts and uncles that are your parents siblings, especially if your grandparents are not alive C. your brothers and sisters D. you E. all of the choices are correct.

62. If the parents are AO and BO genotypes for the ABO blood group, their children could include which of the following genotypes? A. AO and BO only B. AO, BO, and AB only C. AA, BB, and AB only D. AO, BO, and OO only E. AO, BO, AB, and OO only 63. Which disease results in deformed red blood cells, poor circulation, and anemia? A. achondroplasia B. sickle-cell disease C. Huntington disease D. hemophilia E. phenylketonuria 64. Which provides protection against malaria in the heterozygote? A. pattern baldness B. sickle-cell disease C. Huntington disease D. hemophilia E. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 65. As many as 60 % of people in malaria-infected regions of Africa have the sickle-cell allele, but only about 10% of the U.S. population of African ancestry carries the allele. Malaria remains a major disease in central Africa but has not been a serious problem in the U.S. for many generations. What is/are the reason(s) for the difference in the percentages and what is a reasonable statement about future percentages? A. The presence of malaria in Africa maintains the advantage of the heterozygous sickle-cell trait, and the prevalence of malaria will likely continue to preserve the 60% rate. B. The U. S. percentage may have always been somewhat lower due to immigration from nonmalaria regions, but changes in sites and rates of immigration could occur. C. Lack of widespread malaria in the United States would have made both homozygous and heterozygous carriers of sickle-cell undergo several generations of negative selection, and we should expect this to continue unless innovative therapies give all individuals an equal chance of surviving and reproducing. D. All of the choices are reasonable. 66. In a pedigree chart, which is correct? A. Circles = males; squares = females. B. A line between a circle and a square represents a mating. C. A carrier with a normal phenotype is represented by a black circle or square. D. Offspring are represented by triangles. 67. Cystic fibrosis and neurofibromatosis are common autosomal dominant disorders. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 68. For an autosomal dominant disorder, two affected parents cannot have an unaffected child. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 69. Mendel developed a blended theory of inheritance. LEVEL: Easy True False

70. Mendel used statistical methods in the interpretation of his results. LEVEL: Easy True False 71. In Mendel's experiments, the dominant height for a pea plant was short. LEVEL: Easy True False 72. Mendel's work was widely accepted and praised when he reported his results. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 73. It is important to count many offspring in a monohybrid cross to get the best statistical ratio. LEVEL: Easy True False 74. The F1 offspring of a monohybrid cross will be intermediate in phenotype between the phenotypes of the parents. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 75. The ratio Mendel obtained from his monohybrid cross was approximately 9:3:3:1. LEVEL: Easy True False 76. The phenotype is the physical appearance of an individual. LEVEL: Easy True False 77. Each gamete carries one factor, now called an allele, for each inherited trait. LEVEL: Easy True False 78. If an individual is heterozygous for a particular trait, the gametes that individual produces will contain 3/4 dominant and 1/4 recessive alleles. LEVEL: Easy True False 79. An individual with the genotype Tt will have the dominant phenotype. LEVEL: Easy True False 80. Attached earlobes are dominant to unattached earlobes. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 81. Mendel's law of independent assortment says that members of one pair of factors segregate independently of members of another pair of factors. LEVEL: Easy True False

82. Sickle cell disease exhibits both incomplete dominance and pleiotrophy. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 83. Tay-sachs Disease is an autosomal dominant disorder of Jewish people that results in the progressive deterioration of psychomotor functions. LEVEL: Easy True False 84. An individual with the phenotype tt will exhibit the dominant phenotype. LEVEL: Easy True False 85. In a case of incomplete dominance, the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation is the same as the genotypic ratio. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 86. An allele that affects more than one characteristic is said to exhibit epistasis. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 87. The presence of multiple alleles accounts for the four human blood types. LEVEL: Easy True False 88. Different pairs of recessive alleles can interfere with a biochemical pathway and thus produce albinism. LEVEL: Difficult True False 89. An example of epistasis is the fact that inheritance of an allelic pair (aa) is sufficient to prevent normal pigment development in many structures. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 90. Polygenic traits such as height or weight are often influenced by the environment of the organism. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 91. Rh is an allele of the ABO blood group. LEVEL: Easy True False 92. Sickle-cell anemia can lead to premature death. LEVEL: Easy True False 93. Treatment by diet can eliminate the effects of sickle-cell disease. LEVEL: Easy True False

94. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by the lack of the protein dystrophin in affected muscle tissue. LEVEL: Intermediate True False 95. Huntington disease is apparently affected by parental imprinting of the genes. LEVEL: Easy True False 96. Explain what Mendel's law of segregation says and what it means.

97. Explain what Mendel's law of independent assortment says and what it means.

98. Compare the particulate theory of inheritance versus the blending theory of inheritance, explaining what each is and how Mendel's experiments supported or opposed each.

99. How were Mendel's experiments different from most approaches to inheritance during his time?

100. Distinguish between genotype and phenotype.

101. Explain the statement "chance has no memory." How does it apply to inheritance?

102. Consider three inherited features of pea seed coats: starchy endosperm (S) is dominant over waxy (s), round seed (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r), and yellow seed (Y) is dominant over green-colored seed coat (y). What proportion would you expect to be homozygous recessive for all three alleles? What proportion would you expect to be heterozygous for all three alleles? The assumption is being made that all three of these allele pairs are on separate chromosomes and are assorting independently from each other. How would the proportions change (how would the Punnett square be set up) if the round/wrinkled and starchy/waxy genes were carried on the same chromosome? How would this differ if all three sets are on the same chromosome?

103. Explain the difference between incomplete dominance and codominance.

104. Describe codominance and give an example.

105. Explain pleiotropy and give an example.

106. Explain epistasis and give an example.

107. Explain the difference between multiple alleles and polygenic inheritance.

108. Describe how genotype and environment are both important in determining phenotype.

109. Give the lines of evidence that support the chromosome theory of inheritance.

110. Describe the cause and characteristics of Tay-Sachs disease.

111. Describe the cause and characteristics of cystic fibrosis and discuss the potential for repair of the defect through genetic engineering.

112. Why are nearly all newborns in developed countries tested for phenylketonuria, and what is done with this information?

Chapter 12
Student: _________________________________________________________ 1. Women with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to ______, while men with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to _______. A. only their daughters; only their daughters B. both their daughters and sons; only their sons C. both their daughters and sons; only their daughters D. both their daughters and sons; their daughters and sons 2. Determine the sequence of genes A, B, C, and D if the distance from A-C is 17 units, A-B is 25 units, A-D is 37 units, B-C is 8 units and B-D is 12 units. The order would be as follows: A. A, B, C, D B. B, C, A, D C. A, C, B, D D. D, C, A, B 3. Which of the following human genetic disorders is NOT caused by nondisjunction? A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome

C. Klinefelter syndrome D. Fragile X syndrome 4. A human male has ____ chromosomes with ____ sex chromosomes. A. 46, XY B. 48, XY C. 46, XX D. 48, XX E. 48, YY 5. X-linkage was discovered for the first time in A. ants. B. mice. C. chickens. D. fruit flies. E. humans. 6. Which statement is NOT true about X-linked characteristics? A. More males than females are affected. B. If a female has the characteristic, all her sons will show it. C. Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it. D. The characteristic often skips a generation, from a woman's father to her son. E. Males can have two copies of the alleles for the trait, but females can have only one. 7. Not all sexual organisms utilize an XX and XY system to determine the sex of offspring. Some insects and birds utilize an XX and XO system where females lack one whole chromosome. In some lizards, there is no gene difference between sexes, but the development of a young lizard into a male or female is determined by the temperature at which the eggs incubate. In some shrimp, the young wait to develop until they have detected which sex is least common in the current population, and they can then join the rarest group. And in wasps and bees, the sex is determined by whether the egg is fertilized (2n) or not (1n). Why might there be so much variation in the mechanisms for producing sexual adults? A. It is not always necessary to produce an equal number of males and females for a population to survive. B. Some organisms apparently can maintain undifferentiated tissues and the potential to become either sex. C. A complex cascade of developmental changes can be triggered by the presence or absence of a simple gene or chromosome or by an environmental change. D. All of the choices are correct. 8. In chromosome mapping, one map unit represents A. the distance between one gene and the next on a chromosome. B. 1% crossing over between two sites on a chromosome. C. 1% of the length of the chromosome. D. 10% crossing over between two sites on a chromosome. E. 10% of the length of the chromosome. 9. "Polyploid" is based on the Greek root words for A. appearance and shape. B. hereditary and image. C. new and form. D. birth or origin, and shape. E. many and fold. 10. Which of these terms would be equivalent to 3n chromosomes?

A. tetraploidy B. trisomy C. diploidy D. triploidy E. etrasomy 11. Which refers to turning a chromosome segment around 180 and rejoining it to the original chromosome? A. inversion B. translocation C. deletion D. duplication E. monosomy 12. Which refers to the loss of a complete chromosome? A. inversion B. translocation C. deletion D. duplication E. monosomy 13. Which refers to the movement of a piece of one chromosome to another nonhomologous chromosome? A. inversion B. translocation C. deletion D. duplication E. monosomy 14. Which refers to the loss of a portion of a chromosome? A. inversion B. translocation C. deletion D. duplication E. monosomy 15. Which refers to the addition of an extra segment of a chromosome? A. inversion B. translocation C. deletion D. duplication E. monosomy 16. Consider the case of a lethal recessive gene located on the nonhomologous part of the human Xchromosome; it is therefore sex-linked. Its effect is to prevent the full development of the embryo, which is therefore reabsorbed at an early stage. Beginning with a female who carries this gene in a heterozygous state, what proportion of the offspring will be female? A. one-half B. two-thirds C. three-fourths D. all, because the lethal recessive gene will express itself in the absence of any genes on the short Y-arm for the XY male embryos E. No offspring will be produced at all.

17. Which of the following is NOT true about a karyotype? A. Homologous chromosomes are paired. B. Sex chromosomes are identified separately from autosomes. C. Chromosome pairs are numbered from smallest to largest. D. Chromosome pairs are assorted by both size and shape. E. Banding patterns are used in pairing chromosomes. 18. Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which of the following genetic disorders? A. Down syndrome B. color-blindness C. muscular dystrophy D. hemoplilia E. All of the choices. 19. Chorionic villus sampling uses what tissue to analyze the fetal cells and provide a karyotype? A. fetal blood tissue B. cells floating in the amniotic fluid C. a small biopsy from the embryo itself but it readily heals D. membrane tissues from the embryo side of the placenta E. membrane tissues from the mother's side of the placenta 20. When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is termed A. cross-over. B. RFLP. C. linked genes. D. disjunction. E. nondisjunction. 21. Generally, it is not possible to determine whether nondisjunction failed to occur in oogenesis or spermatogenesis. However, it is possible to assert that _________resulted in nondisjunction in __________. A. XXY; oogenesis B. XYY; spermatogenesis C. XXX; oogenesis D. XXY; spermatogenesis E. XO; oogenesis 22. In some cases of Down syndrome, there is a translocation between chromosomes A. 21 and 13. B. 21 and 14. C. 21 and 18. D. 21 and 22. E. X and Y. 23. Which statement is NOT true about Down syndrome? A. It is caused by a third copy of chromosome 21. B. Greatly increased incidence occurs with fathers over age 35. C. It is associated with chromosomal nondisjunction in meiosis. D. Characteristics include mental retardation and extra eyelid folds. E. Affected individuals have a considerably shortened life expectancy.

24. Considering that males are produced by Klinefelter (XXY) syndrome, XYY and normal XY chromosome combinations, and females are produced by Turner (XO) syndrome, triple-X (XXX) and normal XX combinations, it is obvious that A. maleness is caused by the presence of only one X chromosome. B. femaleness is caused by the presence of two or more X chromosomes. C. maleness is caused by the minimal presence of one Y chromosome. D. maleness occurs in the absence of two or more X chromosomes. E. sex determination is a delicate balance between X and Y chromosomes. 25. Which genetic trait is NOT associated with the chromosome involved in Down syndrome? A. increased incidence of leukemia B. cataracts C. mental retardation D. Alzheimer disease E. cystic fibrosis 26. Which one of these is caused by repeats of base triplets rather than a whole chromosome? A. Down syndrome B. Edward syndrome C. Klinefelter syndrome D. fragile-X syndrome E. Turner syndrome 27. Which sex chromosome anomaly is correctly associated with the proper genotype? A. Turner syndromeXYY B. triplo-XXO C. Klinefleter syndromeXXY 28. A male with underdeveloped testes, breast development, subnormal intelligence, and an abnormal karyotype is likely to have A. Turner syndrome. B. Hemophilia. C. Klinefelter syndrome. D. Down syndrome. 29. If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband is normal, what are their chances that a son will be color-blind? A. None since the father is normal. B. 50% since the mother is the only carrier. C. 100% because the mother has the gene. D. 25% because the mother is a hybrid. E. None since he will also be just a carrier. 30. Queen Victoria and some of her descendants carried an X-linked gene for A. male pattern baldness. B. sickle-cell disease. C. color blindness. D. hemophilia. E. Duchenne muscular dystrophy. 31. A genetic disorder (not counting disjunctions) is more likely to be common in the population if it A. does not manifest itself until after reproductive age has passed.

B. is recessive. C. bestows some benefit in a heterozygous state. D. is not sex-linked if recessive. E. All of the choices would increase the survival of a deleterious gene. 32. In humans, X-linked diseases include all of the following EXCEPT A. color blindness. B. hemophilia. C. sickle-cell trait. D. fragile X syndrome. 33. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A. fragile X syndrome is second only to Down syndrome as a genetic cause of mental retardation. B. may be asymptomatic in up to 20% of males with a fragile X. C. differs in the usual pattern for X linked genetic conditions in that the number of base triplet repeats determines whether the individual is symptomatic or not. D. this is never found in females to any degree of expression. 34. All of the following are conditions associated with changes in human chromosome numbers EXCEPT A. Down syndrome. B. Turner syndrome. C. Klinefelter syndrome. D. Jacobs syndrome. E. Fragile X syndrome. 35. Human syndromes associated with deletion of a piece of a chromosome are A. Klinefelter's syndrome. B. Williams and Cri du Chat syndromes. C. Burkitts lymphoma and Alagille syndrome. D. All of the choices are correct. 36. Alagille Syndrome A. is due to a translocation between chromosomes 2 and 20. B. may also have a deletion on chromosome 20. C. presents with severe itching and abnormalities of the eyes and internal organs. D. All of the choices are correct. 37. The first eukaryotic genome to be completely base sequenced were those of A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Caenorhabditis elegans. B. Drosophila. C. Neurospora. D. the garden pea studied by Mendel. 38. What causes Down syndrome? A. the lack of pigment production B. an extra chromosome 21 C. the presence of two different codominant alleles D. inability to produce normal connective tissue E. the environment interacting with the genotype 39. Which is associated with the inability to produce factor VIII in the blood? A. Williams syndrope

B. trisomy 21 C. color-blindness D. hemophilia E. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 40. What kind of mutation causes trisomy 21 or Down syndrome? A. change in the number of chromosomes B. change in the base sequence of DNA in a single gene C. change in the arrangement of alleles on a chromosome D. duplication of an allele with change in the base sequence of one of the copies E. recombination of genetic information between unpaired chromosomes 41. Individuals who display an aneuploid condition have an abnormal number of chromosomes. True False 42. Polyploid plants are usually sterile. True False 43. The chromosomes that are the same in both males and females are called the sex chromosomes. True False 44. Sex chromosomes only contain genes coding for sexual characteristics. True False 45. An example of an X-linked trait is red eye color in the fruit fly Drosophila. True False 46. A small number of recombinants will occur due to crossing over between linked genes on homologous chromosomes. True False 47. Polyploidy is important in the production of new species of animals. True False 48. Trisomy occurs when a chromosome, usually an autosome, is lost during meiosis. True False 49. The development of the chromosomal theory of inheritance is an example of how different avenues of research can result in a major scientific discovery. True False 50. Non-sex determining chromosomes are called autosomes. True False 51. There are 23 pairs of autosomes in the human cells. True False 52. Karyotyping can be used to tell whether the chromosome number and structure are normal in prenatal diagnosis. True False 53. Nondisjunction increases rapidly with age, particularly in the development of sperm cells.

True False 54. The cure for Down syndrome will probably soon be developed through genetic engineering. True False 55. Despite having extra X chromosomes, a triple-X female has only a few problems with menstrual irregularity. True False 56. Monosomy of the X chromosome produces Turner syndrome. True False 57. Most cases of color blindness are seen in females. True False 58. How are X-linked genes inherited differently from autosomal genes?

59. Explain the difference between triploidy and trisomy.

60. Explain how chromosome mapping can be used to determine the relative placement of three linked genes.

61. Scientists have been able to take separately fertilized nonidentical embryos of mice at the 64-cell stage and fuse them together as a one cell cluster. Instead of developing into two mice, this develops into one mouse (called a chimera) that has tissues originating from two separate sets of parental mice! More recently, a strange case occurred in a European hospital where a child with blood type AB was born to a mother with blood type O. Ruling out the possibility of a mix-up in parents, the medical researchers examined the mother's parents and found many genetic markers that indicated that the type O mother who gave birth to the type AB child was actually a chimera (a fusion of two embryos) where one embryo gave rise to her blood-forming tissues and the other developed her reproductive tissues. Briefly describe, with the help of a diagram if you wish, the blood type of the child, the two tissue types existent in the mother and which contributed to the child, and the necessary blood types of the grandparents. What effect, if any, does the possibility of chimeras in humans have upon the ability of geneticists to testify with absolute certainty at trials on the disputed paternity of children?

62. In honeybees, unfertilized eggs develop into male drone bees. Since the male bee is already haploid or 1 N, meiosis is modified so that half the sperm receive the full haploid component of chromosomes and half the sperm receive nothing. In this chapter, nondisjunction in humans is justly portrayed as problematic and leading to various disorders. (1) However, is nondisjunction in bee sperm production problematic? (2) Nondisjunction in humans can occur in either meiosis I or meiosis II. Does nondisjunction in male bee's sperm production have the option of occurring in either meiosis I or meiosis II?

63. Explain why the deletion or duplication of autosomal chromosomal material generally results in the death of the resultant individual in the embryonic stage.

64. Describe the cause and characteristics of Down syndrome.

65. Explain why the deletion or duplication of sex chromosomal material is not so much of a problem, and individuals are able to survive with X0, XXX, XXY, or XYY.

66. Describe the cause and characteristics of fragile-X syndrome.

67. Describe the cause and characteristics of Turner syndrome.

68. Describe the cause and characteristics of Klinefelter syndrome.

69. Scientists conducted experiments fusing embryonic cell clusters at the 64-cell stage from many purebred lines of mice in an attempt to form a chimera with 2,3,4, etc., sets of parents. No matter how many clusters were fused, they could never get more than three sets of traits to develop into the chimeric mice. The interpretation of this phenomenon is that at the normal 64-cell stage, only 3 cells continue on to develop into the mouse while 61 cells grow to become the mouse's side of the placenta (the chorionic villi, etc.). Considering the time that an embryonic and infant mouse (or human) has to develop versus the time the placenta must perform its function, explain why scientists would consider this a good interpretation for this indirect evidence.

70. Chorionic villus biopsy was first clinically developed in the People's Republic of China as a technique for early detection of genetic disorders. However, due to vast overcrowding and limited food supplies, China also enacted a "one child" policy to prevent overpopulation leading to starvation. A male child has traditionally been valued for carrying on the family name. Why did mainland China discontinue research and use of chorionic villus biopsy? What is a possible consequence (in 20 years) if China made this diagnostic procedure widespread today?

71. Discuss how a pedigree chart is used in evaluating and counseling a family with respect to genetic disorders.

Chapter 13
Student: _________________________________________________________ 1. Assume DNA replication is NOT semi-conservative. Meselson and Stahl's replication experiment would have shown different results. After growing the bacteria first on heavy 15N, centrifuged results would have shown one band of heavy DNA. If then bacteria were allowed to grow on light 14N, the centrifuged results would have shown: A. one hybrid band and one light band. B. one heavy band and one light band. C. two heavy bands. D. one hybrid band and one heavy band. 2. If a DNA sample contains 13% adenine, what percentage of the sample contains cytosine? A. 13% B. 37% C. 26% D. 74% 3. Which of the following is/are NOT true about mutations? A. Damage to DNA can result after exposure to environmental factors such as sunlight or chemicals such as pesticides. B. Mutations can often be repaired by cellular enzymes. C. Mutations to DNA always result in lethal effects and therefore death of a cell. D. Variations in DNA and mutations are important for evolution to occur. 4. Which is NOT a major function of the genetic material? A. store information B. catalyze chemical reactions C. replicate itself D. undergo mutation 5. Nucleic acid was first discovered in pus cells in A. 1824. B. 1869. C. 1912. D. 1931. E. 1953. 6. DNA was disregarded as a possible candidate for the genetic material because A. with only four types of nucleotides, it was a very simple, repetitive molecule that could not account for 20 different amino acids. B. it had been shown that proteins were more important in transferring genetic information than nucleic acids. C. proteins and carbohydrates were of more interest. D. it was thought that RNA was more likely to be the genetic material. 7. Transformation of bacteria was shown to occur when _______ bacteria were injected into mice and the mice _______. A. live, smooth; died B. live, rough; didn't die

C. live, smooth and dead, rough; died D. live, rough and dead, smooth; died E. live, smooth and dead, rough; didn't die 8. The process of transformation in bacteria involves A. transfer of genes for making a mucous capsule. B. infection with a virus called a bacteriophage. C. production of a cancer cell. D. the mating of two different kinds of live bacteria. 9. DNA was first proven to be the transforming factor in bacterial cells by A. Meischer. B. Watson and Crick. C. Griffith. D. McClintock. E. Avery. 10. Hershey and Chase experimented with radioactively labeled phosphorus and sulfur to determine that DNA and not protein is the genetic material. Which of the following was essential to this confirming experiment? A. Sulfur is present in amino acids in the protein coat of bacteria. B. Phosphorus is present in high amounts in DNA. C. Sulfur is not present in DNA. D. Phosphorus is not present in amino acids in the protein coat of bacteria. E. All were critical to demonstrating DNA is involved in the genetic material. 11. The term "bacteriophage" comes from the Greek root words for A. disease-causing. B. rod and to eat. C. poison-containing. D. germ and virus. E. mutation-producing. 12. Which statement is NOT correct about the results of the Hershey-Chase experiment with T2 bacteriophage? A. Radioactively labeled protein was found in the bacteria, not in the phage coats. B. Radioactively labeled DNA was found in the bacteria, not in the phage coats. C. DNA was labeled with radioactive phosphorus. D. Protein was labeled with radioactive sulfur. E. Two separate experiments were actually run, one with radioactive phosphorus and one with radioactive sulfur. 13. DNA was proven to be the transforming substance when only the ______ enzymes could inhibit transformation. A. proteinase B. RNase C. DNase D. lipase 14. One of Chargaff's rules states that A. A + T = G + C. B. A + G = T + C. C. A = G, T = C. D. A = C, T = G.

15. If a species contains 23% A in its DNA, what is the percentage of guanine it would contain? A. 23% B. 46% C. 25% D. 44% E. 27% 16. The amount of adenine is always equal to the amount of _______ in DNA. A. cytosine B. uracil C. guanine D. thymine E. ATP 17. Information from X-ray crystallographic data collected by _______ was used by Watson and Crick in their development of the model of DNA. A. Chargaff B. Griffith C. McClintock D. Franklin E. Hershey and Chase 18. The X-ray diffraction photography of Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins was critical evidence of DNA, A. indicating that DNA has a double helix structure. B. showing equal numbers of purines and pyrimidines. C. showing the bases of DNA were held together by hydrogen bonds. D. revealing the structure of the deoxyribose sugar. E. of the location of each adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. 19. In the Watson and Crick model of DNA, the "steps" of the ladder are composed of A. sugars. B. a purine and a pyrimidine. C. two purines. D. two pyrimidines. E. a sugar and a phosphate molecule. 20. Before Watson and Crick described DNA structure, Linus Pauling proposed a possible model with three strands of support running down the middle and the bases extending out the sides. How close was his guess? A. He missed the number of support strands which was two rather than three. B. The support strands ran along the outside rather than down the center. C. The bases were paired in the middle rather than sticking out the sides. D. All of the choices varied from the real model. 21. Some chemotherapeutic drugs combat cancer by using A. healthy cell templates to correct the resultant daughter cell DNA sequences that are cancerous. B. analogs of one of the four nucleotides to prevent replication. C. analogs of one of the four nucleotides to prevent unzipping of the DNA. D. DNA polymerase to promote continuous or premature replication. E. DNA repair enzymes to correct the genetic fault that causes cancer.

22. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct? A. Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break. B. Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it. C. The process is known as semiconservative replication because one old strand is conserved in the new molecule. D. The enzyme that catalyzes DNA replication is DNA polymerase. E. Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds. 23. Because one original strand of the double-stranded helix is found in each daughter cell, the replication process is called A. proofreading. B. semiconservative. C. redundant. D. freeing of DNA. E. mutation positive. 24. Which does NOT describe a function of the DNA polymerase molecule? A. recognize the free nucleotide that pairs with the base on the template strand of DNA B. read the strand of template DNA and recognize the base there C. proofread to ensure that the proper base has been incorporated D. make the proper nucleotide to match with the base read on the template strand E. cut out an improperly paired nucleotide and replace it with the proper one 25. In the Meselson and Stahl DNA replication experiment, "parent" bacteria were grown in a medium of heavy nitrogen (15N) and then allowed to grow thereafter in light nitrogen (14N) media. Because replication is conservative, A. the next generation is mid-weight or hybrid (15N-14N) and the subsequent generation is 25% heavy, 50% hybrid and 25% light nitrogen. B. the second and all subsequent generations will be hybrid (15N-14N) strands. C. the second generation will be hybrid (15N-14N) strands and all subsequent generations will regress toward higher proportions of light nitrogen (14N). D. the next generation will be all light (14N) because any heavy nitrogen will be corrected as a replication error. 26. In the Meselson and Stahl DNA replication experiment, "parent" bacteria were grown in a medium of heavy nitrogen (15N) and then allowed to grow thereafter in light nitrogen (14N) media. The results were clear-cut. Why was there no occasional variation in results due to crossing-over? A. The experiment was conducted with bacteria with just one loop of DNA. B. If crossing-over occurred in the proper organism, the original and complimentary strands would still produce the same nitrogen isotope band results. C. Variation is not observed because both the bacteria have one loop of DNA and crossing over between original and complimentary strands produces the same results. D. Crossing-over would cause variation in the Meselson and Stahl results; they just didn't run enough trials to pick up the rare cases of crossing-over. 27. Which statement is NOT true about DNA replication? A. It proceeds in a 5'-to-3' direction only. B. One strand of new DNA is replicated faster than the other strand at the replication fork. C. DNA can only replicate at one point on a chromosome at one time. D. It occurs more rapidly in bacteria than in eukaryotes. E. Replication can only begin at a special origin of replication. 28. Which statement is NOT true about DNA replication in prokaryotes?

A. Replication begins at a single origin of replication. B. Replication is bidirectional from the origin(s). C. Replication occurs at about 1 million base pairs per minute. D. Since bacterial cells replicate so rapidly, a second round of replication may begin before the first has been completed. E. There are numerous different bacterial chromosomes, with replication occurring in each at the same time. 29. Which statement is NOT true about DNA replication in eukaryotes? A. Replication of the entire genome takes about ten minutes. B. A replication fork occurs at each growing point of the replicating chromosome(s). C. Eukaryotes have numerous different chromosomes, with replication occurring in each at the same time. D. Replication occurs at the rate of about 500-5000 base pairs per minute. E. Multiple sites of replication are present on each chromosome. 30. Before the DNA repair enzymes complex has completed its function, approximately how many base-pairs are still improperly matched? A. 1 in 10,000 B. 1 in 100,000 C. 1 in 1,000,000 D. 1 in 10,000,000 E. 1 in a billion 31. After the DNA repair enzymes complex has completed its function, approximately how many base-pairs are still improperly matched? A. 1 in 10,000 B. 1 in 100,000 C. 1 in 1,000,000 D. 1 in 10,000,000 E. 1 in a billion 32. The evidence that transformation as described by Griffith's experiments was due to DNA A. was found by Avery in the laboratory. B. proved that neither enzymes that break down proteins or RNase that digests RNA could not prevent transformation. C. DNase caused digestion of the transforming substance. D. All of the choices are correct. 33. If a species contains 40% guanine in its DNA, what is the percentage of cytosine that it would contain? A. 60 B. 40 C. 27 D. 30 34. The model of DNA proposed by Watson and Crick A. combined many of the findings of other researchers also studying DNA such as Rosalind Franklin and Chargaff. B. showed the double helix nature of the molecule. C. presented a molecule with sugar-phosphate backbones on the outside and paired bases on the inside. D. All of the choices are correct. 35. Replication of DNA is A. semiconservative.

B. requires the unwinding of the double helix. C. involves new complementary nucleotides forming base pairs and then joining to form new strands. D. All of the choices are correct. 36. Genetic mutations are A. common in bacteria due to their extremely rapid rate of DNA replication. B. permanent changes in the base sequences of a gene in the DNA strand. C. due to errors in DNA replication. D. sometimes due to proofreading errors. E. All of the choices apply. 37. Mutations are due to DNA damage. Environmental factors that cause mutations include all of the following EXCEPT A. UV radiation of sun light. B. cigarette smoke. C. free radicals. D. phosphate detergents. 38. If the Hershey and Chase experiment had used a virus that has RNA for genetic material instead of a DNA virus, their results would have been dramatically different. True False 39. The only enzyme needed by the cell to replicate DNA is DNA polymerase. True False 40. There are two kinds of nucleic acid, DNA and DNase. True False 41. Bacterial transformation was first discovered using a pneumonia-causing bacterium called Streptococcus pneumoniae. True False 42. Chargaff's rules showed that different species contain differing base compositions. True False 43. The complementary bases of DNA are located on the outside of the helix, with the sugar-phosphate backbone on the inside. True False 44. Complementary base pairing always pairs a purine with a pyrimidine. True False 45. Growth at two replication forks arising from a single origin of replication produce a "bubble" as daughter DNA molecules form. True False 46. The Watson-Crick model of DNA was first described in 1961. True False 47. Identical twins are human clones. True False

48. During replication of DNA, DNA polymerase has to synthesize the daughter strand in the 5 prime to 3 prime direction because DNA polymerase can only join a 5 prime nucleotide to the free 3 prime end of another nucleotide. True False 49. Meselson and Stahl showed that DNA and not protein is the genetic material. True False USE THE FOLLOWING KEY (A-G) TO CLASSIFY THE EXPERIMENTAL RESULTS IN THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: When Griffith injected mice with normally fatal S strain bacteria that had been heat-killed, they did not die. However, if the heat-killed S strain bacteria were mixed with harmless live R strain bacteria of the same species, the mice died and living S strain bacteria were recovered. Avery continued the search for the substance that "transformed" the R strain into the S strain. Hypothesis I: Genetic material or "transforming substance" is protein. Hypothesis II: Genetic material or "transforming substance" is RNA. Hypothesis III: Genetic material or "transforming substance" is DNA. A. Supports Hypothesis I B. Supports Hypothesis II C. Supports Hypothesis III D. Disproves Hypothesis I only. E. Disproves Hypothesis II only. F. Disproves Hypothesis III only. G. Does not support any of these hypotheses. 50. Enzymes that degrade proteins cannot prevent transformation. ________________________________________ 51. Enzyme digestion by DNase prevents transformation. ________________________________________ 52. Neither heat-killed R strain or heat-killed S strain can kill the mice. ________________________________________ 53. RNase fails to prevent transformation of the strain S to R strain. ________________________________________ 54. DNA extracted from the S strain bacteria transforms R strain bacteria. ________________________________________ 55. List and discuss the importance of the three basic functions of the genetic material.

56. Discuss why DNA composition retarded the discovery of DNA as the genetic material.

57. Describe the evidence that showed that the transforming substance in bacteria was DNA.

58. Describe the evidence that showed that the genetic material of bacteriophage viruses was DNA.

59. Explain Chargaff's rules and tell why they were important in the consideration of DNA as the genetic material.

60. Explain what the DNA polymerase enzyme complex does.

61. Explain what is meant by "proofreading" by DNA polymerase.

62. The next generation of a bacterium contains half the original DNA strands of the "parent." Explain why the cells in your body do not all contain one-half or one-fourth the original strands of DNA from your parents.

63. What are the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic replication of DNA? Why do scientists still consider that all life forms on earth have a common DNA origin?

64. In an earlier chapter, the amount of membrane lipid molecules was found to be approximately enough to cover the cell volume twice, which is evidence that the membrane involves a lipid bilayer. What conclusions can be drawn from the following quantitative measurements relative to the genetic function of cells? -The amount of DNA in the cell nucleus of body cells is constant for an organism. -The amount of DNA in the nucleus of sperm or eggs cells is constant for an organism and is one-half the value for body cells. -The amount of proteins in a cell varies widely for an organism. Why does this discussion suggest but not prove that DNA is the genetic material?

Chapter 14
Student: _________________________________________________________ 1. Which of the following is/are true concerning introns? A. Introns are sections of nucleotides found on a mRNA transcript. B. RNA splicing usually removes introns from a mRNA molecule. C. Introns can function to regulate gene expression. D. The sequence of nucleotides found in introns are not known to represent anything usable by the cell. E. All the choices are true except for saying that introns do not represent anything usable by the cell. 2. During the elongation of a polypeptide chain, _________ occurs when the mRNA moves to the next site on the ribosome to read the next codon. A. translocation B. transcription C. translation

D. transference 3. Which of the following would be transcribed into a piece of mRNA? A. a noncoding gene B. a protein-coding gene C. a promoter D. a ribozyme 4. The concept of an "inborn error of metabolism" was the first recognition of the relationship between gene activity and metabolic disease, made by A. Beadle and Tatum with parasitic molds. B. Pauling and Itano with sickle-cell anemia. C. Sir Archibold Garrod from general family inheritance patterns. D. Watson and Crick, as a natural outcome of their model of DNA. E. Gregor Mendel, who extrapolated his pea plant data to human diseases. 5. Studies by Beadle and Tatum that produced the "one gene-one enzyme hypothesis" were conducted using the A. bread mold Neurospora crassa. B. bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. bacterium Escherichia coli. D. mouse. E. human. 6. In the Beadle and Tatum experiment, mutated Neurospora were unable to grow on minimal media plus metabolites A or B, but did grow on minimal media plus metabolites C and D, indicating enzyme 2 is missing from the hypothetical pathway.

A. If only enzyme 1 were missing, then growth would occur with just metaboliteB. B. From the limited data given here, enzyme 1 could also be missing from the original experiment. C. Any minimal media with metabolite D should grow the Neurospora without revealing if the strain contains or lacks enzymes 1, 2 or 3. D. Failure to grow on minimal media lacking metabolites A, B and C reflects lack of enzyme 3. E. All of the choices are correct. 7. The idea that a single gene coded for a polypeptide rather than an enzyme was evident from the A. use of X rays to make nutritional mutants in bread mold. B. transformation of bacteria from rough and non-virulent to smooth and virulent. C. presence of a mutation in one chain of hemoglobin but not in the other. D. discovery that mutated genes changed enzymes in a biochemical pathway. E. finding that some genes in eukaryotes are split by introns. 8. Today, it is most appropriate to state that a gene controls A. one enzyme. B. one protein. C. one polypeptide chain. D. one amino acid. E. one starch, amino acid or lipid molecule. 9. The use of electrophoresis in hemoglobin was important because it showed that

A. human hemoglobin is different from mouse hemoglobin. B. human hemoglobin is missing in sickle-cell anemia patients. C. normal hemoglobin is longer than sickle-cell hemoglobin. D. normal hemoglobin has a different electrical charge than sickle-cell hemoglobin. E. normal hemoglobin is shorter than sickle-cell hemoglobin. 10. The term "transcription" comes from the Latin root words for A. carry-across. B. writing-across. C. produce-across. D. produce-anew. E. copy-producing. 11. The term "translation" comes from the Latin root words for A. carry-across. B. writing-across. C. produce-across. D. produce-anew. E. copy-producing. 12. On a hypothetical planet, life evolves based on a DNA-like molecule with six rather than four nucleotides. Which table reflects the number of bases for each number of codons and the corresponding number of combinations of different amino acids that could be specified?

A. A B. B C. C D. D 13. Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information as it is needed for the construction of a protein? A. ribosomal RNA B. transfer RNA C. messenger RNA D. primary mRNA transcript 14. Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the amino acids that are added to the growing polypeptide chain? A. ribosomal RNA B. transfer RNA C. messenger RNA D. primary mRNA transcript 15. Which of the classes of RNA molecules is linked with proteins in forming the large and small subunits of a cytoplasmic structure? A. ribosomal RNA B. transfer RNA C. messenger RNA

D. primary mRNA transcript 16. Prior to protein synthesis, the DNA A. attracts tRNAs with appropriate amino acids. B. must first undergo replication. C. contains anticodons that must become codons. D. serves as a template for the production of mRNA. E. adheres to ribosomes for protein synthesis. 17. Which of the classes of RNA molecules is never found in the cytosol? A. ribosomal RNA B. transfer RNA C. messenger RNA D. primary mRNA transcript 18. The first codon to be deciphered was ______, which codes for ________. A. AAA, proline B. GGG, alanine C. UUU, phenylalanine D. TTT, arginine E. CCC, glycine 19. Transcription of a part of a DNA molecule with a nucleotide sequence of A-A-A-C-A-A-C-T-T results in a mRNA molecule with the complementary sequence of A. G-G-G-A-G-A-A-C-C. B. U-U-U-G-U-U-G-A-A. C. T-T-T-G-A-A-G-C-C. D. C-C-C-A-C-C-T-C-C. E. none of the choices are correct. 20. If one strand of DNA has the base sequence AAGCAA, the complementary strand has which of the following sequences? A. UUCGUU B. TTCGTT C. AAGCAA D. UTCGTU E. TTCGTG 21. Which is the process that synthesizes mRNA, tRNA, or rRNA? A. translation B. transcription C. transposition D. transformation 22. A complex protein cell shelters and supports the DNA genetic coding, and the coding is the blueprint for the cell proteins; thus is set the "chicken-or-the-egg" dilemma of which came first. This can be solved by the discovery that A. RNAs called had enzyme functions and could have served as both genetic matter and enzymes. B. reverse transcriptase can convert RNA back into DNA. C. all DNA and protein can be distributed evenly inside and outside the nucleus. D. some proteins are simply assemblages of guanine, cytosine, thymine and adenine. E. viruses can give rise to all of the cell molecules.

23. Which of the following nucleotide bases is found only in RNA, not in DNA? A. guanine B. adenine C. thymine D. uracil E. cytosine 24. Which of the following nucleotide bases is found only in DNA, not in RNA? A. guanine B. adenine C. thymine D. uracil E. cytosine 25. An intervening sequence in a eukaryotic gene that is not an active part of the gene is called a/an A. exon. B. intron. C. replicon. 26. A ribozyme is A. a section of the DNA that is expressed in the mRNA. B. a self-splicing intron that acts like an enzyme. C. a complex made up of many ribosomes replicating the same strand of mRNA. D. one of the small ribosomal subunits. E. the enzyme that attaches amino acids to tRNA. 27. Which is the process by which a protein is constructed? A. translation B. transcription C. transposition D. transformation 28. In order to produce many copies of a protein fast, the cell uses A. DNA replication. B. intron self-splicing. C. single-unit ribosomes for high speed translation. D. codon-anticodon reciprocal duplication. E. many RNA polymerase molecules to produce mRNA transcripts at the same time. 29. Which is most directly responsible for the sequence of amino acids in a protein? A. the sequence of the anticodons B. the number of codons in mRNA C. the enzyme that attaches the amino acid to tRNA D. the proteins associated with rRNA E. the sequence of codons in mRNA 30. Which is NOT true about the genetic code? A. It is exactly the same in all organisms. B. It is composed of a triplet code of three bases per codon. C. It produces 64 different possibilities of base sequences. D. It was cracked through the use of a cell-free system of enzymes.

E. It contains start and stop codons as instructions. 31. For translation to take place, which of the following would NOT be required to be present? A. DNA. B. mRNA. C. tRNA-amino acid complex. D. rRNA. E. ribosome. 32. Which of the following processes does NOT take place during translation? A. Growth of a polypeptide chain. B. Attachment of a ribosome to mRNA. C. Binding of two tRNA molecules per ribosome. D. Liberation of polypeptide from the ribosome. E. Production of mRNA. 33. The correct sequence of events in the production of a polypeptide is A. initiation, termination, elongation. B. elongation, termination, initiation. C. termination, elongation, initiation. D. elongation, initiation, termination. E. initiation, elongation, termination. 34. What part of hemoglobin is affected in sickle cell anemia? A. alpha polypeptide chains B. beta polypeptide chains C. both alpha and beta polypeptide chains D. none of the choices are correct 35. An unknown chemical is analyzed and found to contain the bases thymine and guanine. This chemical is most likely A. tRNA. B. mRNA. C. DNA. D. rRNA. 36. Codons are A. triplets coding for a single amino acid. B. the alphabet of the genetic language. C. redundant in their coding for various amino acids. D. All of the choices are correct. 37. The portion of the tRNA that permits proper sequencing of amino acids to occur on the mRNA strand A. is a codon. B. is an anticodon. C. is specific for a specific amino acid. D. All of the choices are correct. 38. All of the following are associated with the role of ribosomes EXCEPT A. several ribosomes are often attached to and translating the same mRNA. B. joining amino acids together to form a polypeptide.

C. prevents the anticodon of tRNA from aligining the associated amino acid in the wrong position in the developing strand. D. no protein synthesis within a cell would occur without ribosomes. 39. When a bacterial spore is introduced to a new environment that is an appropriate medium for that species to grow, fission allows a rapid expansion of the population (2-4-8-16-32-64 . . . etc.). But there is usually a slight lag before the bacteria actually begin building up such a logarithmic growth curve. What is the best explanation? A. It takes time for sub-cellular units to evolve the ability to digest new media. B. A bacterium is not actively producing all the enzymes it can code for, and it takes time to induce and amplify the production of the currently needed enzymes. C. Binary fission becomes more and more efficient. D. A new media dissolves away repressor proteins. E. Structural genes act more slowly than metabolic genes. 40. If the mRNA codon ACC stands for the amino acid threonine in a striped bass, it is impossible the the codon to code for the same amino acid in a human. True False 41. Introns are sections of mRNA that code for protein materials needed by the cell. True False 42. Garrod's "inborn errors of metabolism" linked inheritance and proteins in biochemical pathways for the first time. True False 43. Gene expression only occurs when a protein is produced. True False 44. Only the alpha chains of hemoglobin are affected by the sickle-cell mutation. True False 45. Mitochondria have a slightly different genetic code from that used in the nucleus of the cell. True False 46. Translation is the first step in the production of a protein from the information in DNA. True False 47. Transcription begins at a region of the DNA called the polymerase. True False 48. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic genes contain both exons and introns. True False 49. A tRNA molecule folds back on itself to form hydrogen bonds between different areas of the same molecule, exposing the anticodon at one end and the amino-acid binding site at the other. True False 50. In prokaryotes AUG is a codon that signals the initiation of translation. True False 51. A stop codon terminates polypeptide production and release from the ribosome.

True False 52. Beadle and Tatum proposed that each gene specifies the synthesis of one enzyme. True False 53. A gene is a segment of DNA that specifies the sequence of amino acids in the protein polypeptide. True False 54. Explain what an inborn error of metabolism is and how it is produced.

55. Describe the work by Beadle and Tatum that led to the "one gene-one enzyme hypothesis."

56. Describe the additional work by Pauling and Itano that led to the "one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis."

57. What are the main points of the "central dogma of molecular biology"?

58. List the three types of RNA and describe the function of each.

59. Describe what happens in the process of transcription.

60. Describe what happens in the process of translation.

61. Explain the significance of the occurrence of the same genetic code system in nearly all organisms.

62. Explain what happens in RNA processing of eukaryotes.

63. While many body cells only replicate 40 to 60 times, cells that produce some white blood cells may replicate many more times. In such cases, it is crucial that proofreading and repair maintain the accuracy of transfer of biological information. On the other hand, absolute accuracy in replication of biological information would cancel out mutations that are the raw material of evolution. Why is accuracy in transcription and translation less critical than accuracy in gene replication?

Chapter 15
Student: _________________________________________________________ 1. If lactose is present, which of the following occurs? A. Lactose binds to the operator preventing the promoter from attracting RNA polymerase and preventing transciption. B. Lactose bind to RNA polymerase, which then binds to the promoter and transcribes the needed genes. C. Lactose binds to the repressor, which does not bind to the operator, and RNA polymerase transcribes the needed genes. D. Lactose binds to the operon, which attracts RNA polymerase, then transcription of the needed genes occurs. 2. Which of the following is likely to be expressed? A. euchromatin B. heterochromatin C. DNA without methyl groups D. DNA with many methyl groups E. euchromatin and DNA without methyl groups is more likely to be expressed 3. Which of the following is NOT a method of posttranscriptional control? A. transcription factors B. the life span of a mRNA molecule C. differential processing of mRNA D. how fast the mRNA leaves the nucleus E. both differential processing and how fast mRNA leaves the nucleus are involved in posttranscriptional control. 4. The term "operon" comes from the Latin root word for A. gene. B. structure. C. controller. D. work. E. copy-producing. 5. Which gene in an operon is incorrectly matched with its function? A. promoterwhere RNA polymerase first binds to DNA B. regulatorbinds to the repressor protein C. structuralmakes mRNA by transcription D. operatorif unbound, allows RNA polymerase to bind to DNA 6. Which statement is NOT correct about the lac operon? A. It regulates the production of a series of five enzymes. B. It is normally turned off if glucose is present. C. Lactose binds to the repressor protein and inactivates it. D. It is an inducible system. E. The structural genes make products that allow lactose metabolism. 7. Which statement is NOT correct about the trp operon? A. The structural genes make products that act in a metabolic pathway to produce tryptophan. B. It is normally turned off if tryptophan is present.

C. Tryptophan acts as the corepressor. D. The regulator gene product is inactive by itself. E. Tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and inactivates it. 8. If two strains of E. colione of which can turn off its tryptophan production and one that cannotare grown together with tryptophan in the medium, what will occur? A. The strain that can turn off tryptophan production will overgrow the culture and be the only one left. B. The strain that cannot turn off tryptophan production will overgrow the culture and be the only one left. C. Both strains will continue to be present in equal amounts. D. The two strains will kill each other off. 9. Which statement is NOT true about genetic control in prokaryotes? A. RNA polymerase must bind to a promoter on the DNA to begin RNA synthesis. B. Most gene expression is regulated at the level of translation. C. An active repressor protein keeps RNA polymerase from binding to DNA. D. Structural genes produce enzymes that act in a metabolic pathway. 10. Stopping mRNA from being continuously translated into protein is an important mechanism when enough protein product is available. How is this accomplished? A. Transcribe antisense RNA from ordinarily inactive DNA; this will bind with sense mRNA and prevent the ribosome from further translating it. B. Regulator genes produce repressor proteins that physically bind to mRNA and stop its activity in ribosomes. C. mRNA contains stop units encoded in its sequence so only a limited number of passes can be made through ribosomes. D. The protein products of mRNA translation are feedback repressors that limit translation. E. Other genes turn on to produce enzymes that digest the mRNA. 11. The universal regulatory mechanism in eukaryotes for controlling gene expression includes A. control of the genes transcribed and the rate they are transcribed. B. control of the processing of mRNA after it is transcribed from DNA but before it leaves the nucleus, and control of the rate it leaves the nucleus. C. control of mRNA in the cytoplasm after it leaves the nucleus, including changes to mRNA before translation begins. D. control of polypeptides after they have been synthesized but before they are functional. E. All of these mechanisms are used; there is no single universal mechanism. 12. The first level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity is _______ control. A. feedback B. translational C. transcriptional D. posttranscriptional E. posttranslational 13. Which level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity involves the life span of the mRNA molecule and the ability of the mRNA to bind to ribosomes? A. feedback control B. translational control C. transcriptional control D. posttranscriptional control E. posttranslational control

14. Which level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity involves processing early RNA transcripts to mRNA and control of the rate at which mRNA leaves the nucleus? A. feedback control B. translational control C. transcriptional control D. posttranscriptional control E. posttranslational control 15. Which level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity involves changes in the polypeptide chain before it becomes functional? A. feedback control B. translational control C. transcriptional control D. posttranscriptional control E. posttranslational control 16. A form of active chromatin might also be referred to as A. a Barr body. B. heterochromatin. C. a chromosome. D. euchromatin. 17. An enhancer site is A. part of an operon. B. found only in prokaryotes. C. located at a distance from the gene it affects. D. an attachment site for RNA polymerase. 18. A form of gene regulation that occurs while RNA is still in the nucleus is A. differential intron removal and splicing. B. feedback control. C. binding of the repressor protein to DNA. D. enzymatic cleavage of a polypeptide. E. rate of binding to ribosomes. 19. Human red blood cells can live from two to four months without a nucleus and yet they continue to synthesize hemoglobin. This A. means that the necessary mRNAs are able to persist all this time. B. suggests that there is a low level of ribonucleases to degrade the mRNA. C. means that both the necessary mRNAs must persist and there must be a low level of ribonucleases present. D. still requires DNA coding, although the nuclear membrane is gone, there must be chromatin spread throughout the red blood cell. E. is a chemical process that does not require continued living pathways; the red blood cells are essentially dead after they lose their nuclei. 20. "Jumping genes" that have the ability to move within and between chromosomes are called A. introns. B. oncogenes. C. transposons. D. retroviruses. E. exons.

21. A deletion of one base pair that alters the sequence of codons, as the loss of "A" in C-C-G-T-A-G-C... to form C-C-G-T-G-C... is called a(an) A. transposon. B. point mutation. C. carcinogen. D. oncogene. E. frameshift mutation. 22. All of these are considered carcinogens EXCEPT A. cigarette smoke. B. ultraviolet light. C. cabbage and related vegetables. D. X-rays. E. mold produced aflatoxin. 23. An oncogene is A. a viral gene with no relation to the host cell's genes. B. a mutated form of a proto-oncogene. C. a bacterial gene that causes cancer in the host. D. always seen in human cancer cells. E. a gene that turns off cellular reproduction. 24. You are more likely to develop some forms of cancer if you: A. are exposed to higher doses of radiation including X rays. B. are exposed to carcinogens. C. have a high incidence of cancer in your family history leading to your hereditary lineage. D. All of the choices are correct. 25. The ______ are associated with breast cancer as well as a substantial proportion of ovarian cancers. A. p53 gene B. BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes C. ras oncogene D. bel-2 protein E. RB tumor-repressor gene 26. The ______ stimulate(s) apoptosis. A. p53 gene B. BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes C. ras oncogene D. bcl-2 protein E. RB tumor-repressor gene 27. Malfunction in the ____ is involved in retinoblastoma. A. p53 gene B. BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes C. ras oncogene D. bcl-2 protein E. RB allele 28. A Barr body A. is only found in female cells. B. is due to an inactivated X chromosome.

C. has the genes contained therein suppressed. D. All of the choices are correct. 29. In transcriptional control in eukaryotic cells A. a different combination of DNA binding proteins (transcriptional factors) may regulate the activity of a particular gene. B. enhancers may be involved in the promotion as well as regulation of gene transcription. C. may be due to the phosphorylation of transcriptional factors by a kinase. D. All of the choices are correct. 30. Transposons A. are specific DNA sequences that move within and between chromosomes. B. alter the expression of neighboring genes especially if the transposon is a regulator gene. C. have been discovered in corn, fruit flies, bacteria, and humans. D. All of the choices are correct. 31. Point mutations A. are due to a change in one DNA nucleotide. B. are a change in a specific codon. C. can cause a genetic disease such as sickle cell disease that is due to a base change that codes for valine rather than glutamate. D. All of the choices are correct. 32. Frameshift mutations A. most often happen when one or more nucleotides are inserted or deleted from the DNA. B. can result in a completely new codon sequence that results in the production of non-functional proteins. C. applies to the reading frame (sequence of codons) being changed. D. All of the choices are correct. 33. Nonfunctional proteins do all of the following EXCEPT A. affect phenotype. B. cause PKU and/or albinism. C. can produce androgen insensitivity and thus cause a XY prime genotype to be expressed as a non-functional female. D. reverse cystic fibrosis. 34. A change in a regulatory gene A. must be dominant to be effective. B. is what happens in the production of sickle cell hemoglobin. C. is always beneficial to the organism in which it occurs. D. can increase or decrease the expression of a structural gene. 35. The information on both X chromosomes is expressed in every cell of female organism. True False 36. Transposons are portions of DNA that move between chromosomes and may alter genes in their new location. True False 37. Cells of multicellular organisms such as humans have the same genetic information in each cell. True False

38. All genes are active at the same time in a prokaryotic cell, but not in a eukaryotic cell. True False 39. Once proteins are made and functional, they are no longer subject to cellular control. True False 40. The genes of a single operon are all regulated by the same repressor, operator, and promoter. True False 41. An example of an inducible operon is the lac operon. True False 42. The tryptophan operon is normally turned off, so it is an inducible operon. True False 43. The DNA of a prokaryote is wrapped around histone molecules to form a "beaded string." True False 44. A gene can only produce one kind of product in an organism, no matter in which cell it is active. True False 45. A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that affects growth and development of the organism. True False 46. A tumor suppressor gene is also known as an oncogene. True False 47. Cancer is an infectious disease spread by viruses. True False 48. Transposons were first described by Barbara McClintock. True False 49. In the transcription of DNA remodeling proteins push the histone portion of the nucleosome aside so that transcription can start. True False 50. Xerderma pigmentosum is due to deficient DNA repair enzymes in skin cells. True False 51. One third of all cancer deaths are due to smoking tobacco. True False 52. Explain why it is important for a bacterial cell to be able to turn off the synthesis of gene products if those products are already available in its environment, or to turn on synthesis of a substance it needs only under some circumstances.

53. Why is it important for a multicellular organism to be able to turn on only some of its genes in any particular tissue or cell type?

54. Biology can be distilled into the science of how proteins are produced. However, too much of anything can be just as much of a problem as the lack of it. Describe at least four mechanisms that are known in some cells to prevent, regulate, or shut down protein synthesis.

55. List and briefly describe each of the two levels of gene control in prokaryotic cells.

56. List and briefly describe each of the four levels of gene control in eukaryotic cells.

57. Describe the genes and actions of the lac operon.

58. Explain how the actions of the lac operon are different from the trp operon.

59. Describe the structural organization of the eukaryotic chromosome, starting at the level of DNA.

60. Describe the processes of cancer development that allow it to be caused by carcinogenic agents and have a hereditary component too.

61. A much larger percentage of the population is now living to be 80-90 years old than was the case in prehistoric times, when most evolutionary selection for our physiology occurred. Why does cancer seem to loom as a much larger problem today than a century ago?

62. When very thorough autopsies are conducted of elderly patients who died of many other causes, about half are found to harbor some form of cancerous tissue. Why is cancer so pervasive in the elderly? Why is it not even more fatal if perhaps half the population "has it"?

63. If evolution promotes life, survival, and the production of many offspring, how could apoptosis or programmed cell death have been "selected for"?

64. Explain the distinction between point mutations and frameshift mutations, and the results of each.

65. How is the p53 gene involved in marking healthy cells and how does this help us kill tumor cells?

Chapter 16
Student: _________________________________________________________ 1. What is the function of restriction enzymes that naturally occur in bacterial cells? A. They are used during DNA replication in the bacterial cell. B. They are used to degrade the bacterial cell's DNA. C. Restriction enzymes are intended to destroy foreign DNA that enters the cell. D. These enzymes are used to attach pieces of DNA together. 2. Which of the following is mismatched? A. bioinformatics the study of a genome using computer analysis B. polymerase chain reaction process that separates DNA fragments according to size C. genomics the study of genes of humans and other organisms D. proteomics the study of proteins of the cell. 3. Place the following steps in correct order: 1 - use vector to deliver new rDNA to bacterial or other cells 2 - use restriction enzymes to cut a plasmid and add the desired gene 3 - isolate and cut out a desired gene using restriction enzymes 4 - use DNA ligase to seal the new gene 5- -allow bacterial cells to replicate and produce desired product. A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 C. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 D. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 4. What is the function of a vector in genetic engineering? A. cut DNA into many fragments B. carry DNA into a new cell C. link together newly joined fragments of DNA D. make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E. separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges 5. The term "ligase" adds the suffix "-ase" to the Latin root word for A. gene. B. bind. C. cut. D. work. E. copy-producing. 6. Which of the following molecules forms lengths of DNA with "sticky ends"? A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase

D. reverse transcriptase E. restriction enzyme 7. What is the function of a restriction enzyme in recombinant technology? A. cut DNA into many fragments B. carry DNA into a new cell C. link together newly joined fragments of DNA D. make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E. separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges 8. What is the function of DNA ligase in recombinant technology? A. cut DNA into many fragments B. carry DNA into a new cell C. link together newly joined fragments of DNA D. make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E. separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges 9. What is complementary DNA (cDNA)? A. the strand of DNA opposite the strand used to make mRNA B. a sequence of DNA as it is found in the genome C. any sequence of cloned DNA D. DNA made from a mature mRNA template E. DNA made through the polymerase chain reaction 10. When using bacteria to clone a human gene and express its productas in the case of insulinthe gene cannot contain introns because bacteria do not have the enzymes to process mRNA. Therefore, A. if the sequence is known, very small human genes can be built with a DNA synthesizer in a laboratory and they will lack introns. B. reverse transcriptase can be used to make DNA "backwards" from human mature mRNA and this would lack introns. C. reverse transcriptase can be used along with a DNA synthesizer to construct a piece of DNA lacking introns. D. only human mitochondrial DNA can be used because it was originally of bacterial origin. E. it is impossible to use bacteria to express human gene products because all human genes have introns. 11. What is the function of the polymerase chain reaction in genetic engineering? A. cut DNA into many fragments B. carry DNA into a new cell C. link together newly joined fragments of DNA D. make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E. separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges 12. All of the following statements are true about restriction enzymes EXCEPT A. they are made by bacteria and viruses. B. hundreds of different ones have been isolated and purified. C. they produce single-stranded complementary ends that can join together two different DNA strands. D. each enzyme cuts DNA at a different specific base sequence. 13. For "DNA fingerprinting" to associate a blood sample with the criminal, or estimate the evolutionary similarity of an extinct quagga as closer to a zebra than a horse, what is minimally required? A. one sample of DNA, PCR amplification, restriction enzymes, and gel electrophoresis B. one sample of DNA, restriction enzymes, a DNA synthesizer, and gel electrophoresis C. two samples of DNA, PCR amplification, restriction enzymes, and gel electrophoresis

D. two samples of DNA, PCR amplification, a DNA synthesizer, and gel electrophoresis E. two samples of DNA, PCR amplification, restriction enzymes, and a DNA synthesizer 14. To carry out a polymerase chain reaction (PCR), you must have the catalytic DNA polymerase and A. a blueprint or gene map of the sequence you wish to copy. B. the nucleotides to synthesize new DNA strands C. a DNA synthesizer machine. D. a DNA probe. 15. Which best describes a transgenic organism? A. one that acts as the donor for DNA to be moved into another organism B. one produced by cloning a mutant cell C. one that contains a foreign gene and is free-living in the environment D. one produced by the polymerase chain reaction E. any genetically modified organism resulting from laboratory research 16. Plants are expected to be genetically engineered to have A. a requirement for more fertilizer. B. an increased water requirement. C. the ability to produce human proteins. D. increased susceptibility to herbicides. E. All of the choices are correct. 17. Which of these methods of transferring DNA is useful in bacteria and plants, but not in animals? A. virus infection B. bacteriophage infection C. plasmid transfer D. microinjection of DNA E. laser irradiation of cells in a fluid containing DNA 18. A human product that is being made in genetically engineered microorganisms includes A. human growth hormone. B. insulin. C. tissue plasminogen activator. D. clotting factor VIII. E. All of the choices are correct. 19. Which is NOT one of the new uses of biotechnology? A. making beer and wine B. cleaning up oil spills C. protein drug production in amimal milk D. production of aspartame E. keeping plants from freezing 20. What is the function of gel electrophoresis in genetic engineering? A. cut DNA into many fragments B. carry DNA into a new cell C. link together newly joined fragments of DNA D. make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E. separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges

21. With both bacterial and eukaryotic cells constantly dying and breaking down around us, and with a tremendous load of fragmentary DNA washing around in the fluid world, why aren't genes being transferred among various living organisms at a massive scale daily? A. DNA that is not protected inside a protein coat or membrane is very vulnerable. B. Living cells maintain a very effective barrier to the introduction of large molecules. C. Since a vector appears necessary to snatch up DNA from one protected source and inject it into a cell, "naked" DNA is apparently vulnerable and unable to cross membranes easily. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices since DNA is readily exchanged among all organisms in nature. 22. Gene therapy in humans involves all EXCEPT A. insertion of the gene for bovine growth hormone. B. alteration of bone marrow stem cells with the normal gene for the enzyme involved in the maturation of T and B cells. C. alteration of bone marrow stem cells to allow synthesis of the product in all kinds of blood cells. D. use of reverse transcriptase to move recombinant RNA into the chromosome as recombinant DNA. E. ex vivo and in vivo methods. 23. Ex vivo methods of removing human cells, treating them by "gene therapy" and returning them to a patient as stem cells that generate healthy products is dependent on ___ to get the missing DNA into the human cells. A. plasmids B. retroviruses C. spinning with carbide needles D. electric current to generate self-healing holes E. microsurgery 24. When bone marrow stem cells are removed from the blood and infected with a retrovirus that carries a normal gene, this is an example of A. PCR. B. chemotherapy. C. viral disinfection. D. in vivo gene therapy. E. ex vivo gene therapy. 25. Transgenic plant products do not include A. soybeans that are resistant to a common herbicide. B. an antibody produced by soybeans to treat genital herpes. C. suicide genes that cause the plants to self destruct after their product has been produced. D. corn and cotton plants that are both pest and herbicide resistant. 26. All of the following are true regarding transgenic animals EXCEPT A. foreign genes are micro-injected into eggs, fertilized in vitro and then the zygotes are placed in host females to develop. B. the process has inserted bovine growth hormone into fish, cows, and other animals. C. female offspring of in vitro produced transgenic animals are genetically weak, subject to immune diseases, and die after a brief life. D. the product desired by the transgenic procedure is secreted in the milk of female offspring. 27. Of the following, which is NOT a possible cure as the result of the human genome project? A. more medicines to keep humans healthy B. a longer life span C. shaping the genotype of our children

D. a gene chip to effectively and efficiently present an individual's phenotype to a physician 28. Human gene therapy A. includes the insertion of genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a genetic disease. B. has been used for treatment of children who have severe combined immunodeficiency. C. has been used in a trial to treat familial hypercholeterolemia. D. All of the choices are correct. 29. Researchers are looking into using the p53 gene to bring about apotosis in cancer cells. True False 30. DNA fingerprinting was developed after the year 2000. True False 31. Biotechnology is a completely new process that has only been developed within the last decade. True False 32. One use of transgenic bacteria is to produce a toxin that kills insects that eat the plant containing the toxin. True False 33. Because of the use of the polymerase chain reaction, linkage data may be gathered from the sperm cells of one man rather than from the blood of many members of that man's family. True False 34. Unlike bacteria, yeast which are eukaryotic cells have the capability of transcribing and translating mammalian genomic DNA directly. True False 35. A transgenic plant is more difficult to produce than a transgenic animal, because the plant must be injected with DNA. True False 36. Biologically engineered plants are currently being produced in corn, soybeans, and cotton. True False 37. Some foreign gene products may be expressed in the milk of transgenic animals. True False 38. Transgenic animals can be produced by microinjection of foreign DNA into the unfertilized egg. True False 39. Completing a map of the human genome will automatically and immediately end our problems with all genetic human diseases. True False 40. The production of gene clones can be accomplished by recombinant DNA technology and polymerase chain reactions. True False 41. Automated polymerase chain reactions were made possible when the temperature insensitive DNA polymerase was isolated from the thermophile Thermus aquaticus.

True False 42. What is a vector and why is it needed in gene transfer?

43. Why is it important to use cDNA in making recombinant DNA from a mammal to be expressed in a bacterial culture?

44. What are some of the methods used for genetic engineering of plants?

45. What methods are used for transfer of genetic material to animal cells?

46. What is a DNA fingerprint and how is it obtained and used?

47. In sickle cell anemia, just one simple error is a simple and direct cause of a serious disease. And severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome is due to lack of one enzyme; it may be cured using gene therapy. However, not all inherited traits are simple structures or enzymes. For instance, birds inherit a primitive song pattern and bees are genetically "wired" for rather complex hive-building. Can a map of the human genome explain or predict these traits any more than understanding a brick predicts a building? Again, examine the informal goal of the Human Genome Project and describe what limitations may exist to using the Human Gene Map for explaining all emerging genetic phenomena. "The Human Genome Project aims to know the sequence of bases of all the chromosomes and to know how this sequence relates to a complete map of each chromosome."

48. What are the advantages to ex vivo and in vivo techniques for gene therapy?

49. Describe the use of retroviruses with the use of adenoviruses in the use of gene therapy.