REASONING

1. In a certain code ENGLISH is written as FMHKJRI.

How is OCTOBER written in that code?
1) PBUNCDS 2) PBUCNSD 3) BPUNCSD
4) PBUCNDS 5) None of these
2. If a truck is called train, train is called tractor,
tractor is called ship, ship is called aeroplane,
aeroplane is called bulldozer and bulldozer is
called scooter, which of the following can fly?
1) Ship 2) Aeroplane 3) Bulldozer
4) Tractor 5) None of these
3. In a certain code language te da ka ni means intel-
ligence is in genes, se po lo ni means genes are
not responsible and ba da fu te means intelli-
gence is through experience. What does ka stand
for in that code language?
1) genes 2) through 3) intelligence
4) in 5) responsible
4. How many meaningful four-letter English words can
be formed with the letters KEAB, using each letter
only once in each word?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Four 5) More than four
5. How many pairs of letters are there in the word DIS-
ASTER each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
6. How many such digits are there in the number
495637281 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits are
arranged in descending order within the number?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
7. Seemas watch is 6 minutes fast and the train,
which should have arrived at 7 pm, was 14 minutes
late. What time is it by Seemas watch when the
train arrived?
1) 7.05 pm 2) 7.30 pm 3) 7.01 pm
4) 7.31 pm 5) None of these
8. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight line facing
North. P sits next to S but not to T. Q is sitting next
to R, who sits on the extreme left corner. Who sits
to the left of S if T does not sit to Q?
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) T
5) Cannot be determined
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) Tulip 2) Marigold 3) Rose
4) Lotus 5) Dahlia
10. If all the letters in the word SIGNATURE are
rearranged as they appear in English alphabetic
order, the position of how many letters will remain
unchanged after rearrangement?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
Directions (Q.11-15): In each of the questions below
are given four statements followed by three conclu-
sions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at vari-
ance from commonly known facts. Read all the con-
clusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements: All chillies are garlics.
Some garlics are onions.
All onions are potatoes.
No potato is ginger.
Conclusions: I. No onion is ginger.
II. Some garlics are potatoes.
III. Some chillies are potatoes.
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows
3) Only I & II follow 4) Only I & III follow 5) All follow
12. Statements: Some keys are locks.
Some locks are numbers
All numbers are letters.
All letters are words.
Conclusions: I. Some locks are letters.
II. Some words are numbers.
III. All numbers are words.
1) Only I & II follow 2) Only II&III follow
3) Only I &III follow
4) Only I & either II or III follow 5) All follow
13. Statements: Some windows are doors.
All doors are walls.
No wall is roof.
All roofs are shelters.
Conclusions: I. Some windows are walls.
II. No wall is shelter.
III. No door is shelter.
1) None follows 2) Only II & III follow
3) Only I & III follow 4) Only I follows
5) None of these
14. Statements: All bottles are jars.
Some jars are pots.
All pots are taps.
No tap is tank.
Conclusions: I. No pot is tank.
II. Some jars are tanks.
III. Some bottles are pots.
1) Only I & III follow 2) Only I & II follow
3) Only II & III follow 4) All follow
5) None of these
15. Statements: Some fish are crocodiles.
Some crocodiles are snakes.
No snake is tortoise.
All tortoises are frogs.
Conclusions: I. No snake is frog.
II. Some snakes are fish
III. Some fish are frogs.
1) None follows 2) Only I & II follow
3) Only II & III follow 4) Only I & III follow
5) None of these
Directions (Q.16-20): These questions are based on
the following letter/number/symbol arrangement.
Study it carefully and answer the questions.
6 H 3 % T I L 4 $ E 5 F 1 R M @ A # B D 2 8 U C
16. How many such symbols are there in the above
arrangement , each of which is immediate fol-
lowed by a consonant?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three
5) More than three
17. How many such numbers are there in the above
arrangement, each of which is either followed or
preceded by a letter or both?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
18. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the
thirteenth from the right end?
1) B 2) L 3) # 4) I
5) None of these
19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
on the basis of their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group?
1) 3% 2) E$5 3) A#@
4) D2B 5) 2 8 D
20. If all the numbers are removed from the above
arrangement, which of the following will be eighth
from the left end?
1) E 2) $ 3) 5
4) L 5) None of these
Directions (21-25): Study the following information
carefully to answer these questions. Eight friends A, B,
C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing
the centre. A sits third to the left of B, and second to
the right of F. D does not sit next to A or B. C and G
always sit next to each other. H never sits next to D
and C does not sit next to B.
21. Which of the following pairs sits between H and E ?
1) F, D 2) H, B 3) C, G
4) E, G 5) None of these
22. Starting from As position, if all the eight were
arranged in alphabetical order in the clockwise
direction, the seating position of how many
members (excluding A) would not change?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) Four
23. Which of the following pairs has only one person
sitting between them, if the counting is done in
anticlockwise direction?
1) A, B 2) C, D 3) E, F
4) G, H 5) E, A
24. Who sits on the immediate right of E ?
1) A 2) D 3) F 4) H
5) None of these
25. What is the position of B with respect to C?
1) Second to the left 2) Third to the right
3) Third to the left 4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the set of numbers given
below and answer the questions which follow:
427 581 839 275 589
26. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if
the second digit of the greatest number is sub-
tracted from the sec-
ond digit of the low-
est number after
adding one to each of
the numbers?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5
27. If in each number, the first and the last digits are
interchanged, which of the following will be the
third highest number?
1) 427 2) 581 3) 839 4) 275 5) 589
28. If in each number, the second and the third digits
are interchanged, which will be the second highest
number?
1) 427 2) 581 3) 839 4) 275 5) 589
29. If two is subtracted from the first digit of each of
the numbers and then the first and the third digits
are interchanged, which of the following will be the
lowest?
1) 427 2) 581 3) 839 4) 275 5) 589
30. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged
in the ascending order, which of the following will
be the third lowest number?
1) 427 2) 581 3) 839 4) 275 5) 589
Directions (Q. 31-35): In each of these questions a
group of letters is given followed by four combinations
of numbers/symbols numbered 1), 2), 3) & 4). The
letters are to be coded as per the scheme and condi-
tions given below. You have to find out the serial
number of the combination which represents the letter
group. The serial number of that combination is your
answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your
answer is 5), ie None of these.
Letters: D K M B I N P R J A L S E Q G
Number/ Symbol: % 3 7 H 4@$ 1 8 5 # 9 2 6
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel,
both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant,
the codes for the first and the last are to be
interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the
second and the fifth letters are to be coded as .
31. KQAPJE
1) 35$82 2) 358$2 3) 25$82
4) 25$83 5) None of these
32. EMANRB
1) H75@12 2) 275@1H 3) 75@ 2
4) H75@1H 5) None of these
33. JAQDKP
1) 85%38 2) $5%3$ 3) $5%38
4) $53%8 5) None of these
34. QDBGRM
1) %H617 2) H67 3) %H167
4) %H61 5) None of these
35. IKQLMS
1) 43#74 2) 3#7 3) 43#74
4) 93#74 5) None of these
Directions (Q.36-40): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered
I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient,
answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the
question. Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer
the question. Give answer (3) if the data in Statement
I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the
Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the
question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the
Statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.
36. Who among P, Q, R and T is the heaviest?
I. Q is lighter than only T among them while P is
lighter than R.
II. Ts weight is 20 times the weight of R while 35
times the weight of P.
37. Which direction is Rahul facing?
I. He took two consecutive left turns from the
starting point P.
II. He started walking towards North from point P.
38. What is Niteshs rank in the class?
I. Madhur is two ranks above Nitesh, who is among
the top 15 in his class.
II. Samir is six ranks above Nitesh and is 25
th
from
the bottom.
39. How is X related to Y?
I. X is the only son of Ys mother-in-law.
II. Xs only daughter has only one brother, who is
the son of Y.
40. On which day of the week does Sudhas birthday
fall?
I. Her birthday falls at least two days after
Wednesday.
II. She celebrated her birthday, five days after
Indias Independence Day in the year 2006.
Directions (Q. 41-50): In each of the questions given
below which one of the five answer figures should
come after the problem figures, if the sequence were
continued?
IBPS CLERKS (CWE) MODEL GRAND TEST
TIME: 2 Hrs 30 Minutes No. of Questions: 250
41.
45.

42.
43.
44.
46.
47.
48.
Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. 51-70): What will come in the place of
question-mark (?) in the following questions.
51. 600 % of 176 + 32.84 = 1312.04 - ?
1) 223.2 2) 246.04 3) 221.08
4) 219 5) None
52. 25 % of 1620 + 33
1
/
3
% of 7740 = ? + 124
1) 2771 2) 2961 3) 2861 4) 2666 5) None
2 3 5
53. 5 + 4 - ? = 3
7 4 14
19 19 28 28
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 6 5) None
28 28 19 19
54.

289 - 3 3 + 7 = ?
1) 12 2) 21 3) 11 4) 14 5) None
55. 8769 - 125.89 - 17.865 = ?
1) 8624 2) 862.257 3) 8725.345
4) 8825 5) None
56. (17)
2
+ (29)
2
= ? + (16)
2
1) 875 2) 784 3) 886 4) 874 5) None
5 8
57. of 876 + of 582 = ?
4 3
1) 2674 2) 2467 3) 2647 4) 2764 5) None
(7824 - 7199)
58. - ? = 13

625
1) 12 2) 21 3) 13 4) 31 5) None
25 8 - 12 7
59. = ?
(16 4) + (5 - 5)
1) 39 2) 49 3) 29 4) 41 5) None

0.25 0.0025
60. 100 = ?
5
1) 5 2) 10 3) 0.5 4) 5.5 5) None
61. 897214 - 336 - 46521 - 1249 - 632176 = ?
1) 217832 2) 216725 3) 216932
4) 315950 5) None
3

62. 804357 = ?
1) 98 2) 89 3) 96 4) 93 5) None
63.

? 16 24 = 186
1) 124 2) 13924 3) 15376
4) 15876 5) None

2
64. 1024 + ? = 6 of 72
3
1) 524 2) 348 3) 426 4) 448 5) None

65. 20 +

20 +

20 + .........
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7 5) None
66. (73)
2
(41)
2
+ (29)
2
= ?
1) 4344 2) 4321 3) 4489
4) 4649 5) None of these
67. 2.5 4.8 ? = 30
1)1.4 2) 0.2 3) 1.2 4) 0.4 5) None
68. 52% of 1120 - ?% of 980 = 4.2
1) 59 2) 47 3) 49 4) 61 5) None

= ? 69. 941192
1) 101 2) 98 3) 96 4) 99 5) None
3 2
70. ? = 534
5 7
1) 3125 2) 3525 3) 3215 4) 3318 5) None
Directions (Q 71-75): What approximate value should
come in place of question mark (?) in the given below
questions?
71. (4576 + 3286 + 5639) (712 + 415 + 212) = ?
1) 18 2) 22 3) 34 4) 10 5) 46
72. 675.456 + 12.492 55.671 = ?
1) 971 2) 1071 3) 1171 4) 1271 5) 1371
73. (447.22)
2
= ?
1) 200000 2) 210000 3) 220000
4) 230000 5) 240000
74. 4374562 64 = ? 7777
1) 360 2) 3600 3) 36000
4) 360000 5) 3600000
75. (872 % of 659) 543 = ?
1) 17 2) 11 3) 21 4) 27 5) 31
Directions (Q 76-80): A wrong number is given in the
following number series. Find out the wrong number?
76. 20, 32, 84, 325, 1580
1) 20 2) 325 3) 84 4) 1580 5) None
77. 18, 60, 185, 564, 1698
1) 18 2) 564 3) 1698 4) 185 5) None
78. 10, 14, 7, 11, 6, 9.5
1) 6 2) 7 3) 14 4) 9.5 5) None
79. 16, 8, 25, 12, 36
1) 16 2) 8 3) 12 4) 25 5) None
80. 9, 29, 54, 84, 120
1) 120 2) 29 3) 84 4) 9 5) None
81. Amit sold an article for Rs 630 and earned a
profit of 20%. Find the cost price of the article?
1) 555 2) 535 3) 552 4) 525 5) None
82. The average age of Vijay, Sanjay and Pappu is 45
years. If the ratio of their ages is respectively
3:4:2, then find the age of Sanjay (in years)?
1) 55 2) 60 3) 75 4) 25 5) None
83. If the sum of three consecutive numbers is more
than middle number by 130, then find the middle
number?
1) 64 2) 65 3) 66 4) 60 5) None
84. A train running at a speed of 125 kmph crosses a
platform in 18 seconds. Find the length of the
train?
1) 625m 2) 1065m 3) 1575m
4) Data Inadequate 5) None
85. The ratio between gents and ladies in a colony is
9:5. If the number of gents is 40 more than the
number of ladies then find the total number of
gents and ladies in the colony.
1) 150 2) 140 3) 401 4) 410 5) None
86. In how many different ways can the letters of the
word ABILITY be arranged?
1) 5040 2) 720 3) 1260 4) 2520 5) None
87. The difference between a two digit number and
the number obtained by interchanging the two dig-
its of the number is 9. The sum of the digits of the
number is 15. What is the product of the two digits
of the two digit number?
1) 54 2) 72 3) 56
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
88. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by
200% and the denominator is increased by
160% the resultant fraction is
7

13
, what is the
original fraction?
1)
1

2
2)
2

5
3)
8

15
4)
5

7
5) None
89. Find the average of the following set of scores
178, 863, 441, 626, 205, 349, 462, 820
1) 505 2) 441 3) 349 4) 493 5) None
90. 16 men can do a piece of work in 8 days in how
many days can 12 men complete the same piece
of work?
1) 10 2) 9
1

3
3) 10
2

3
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
91. The product of two consecutive even numbers is
16128.which is the larger number?
1) 132 2) 128 3) 124 4) 126 5) None
92. The difference between 38%of number and 24%
of the same number is 135.10. What is 40% of that
number?
1) 394 2) 370 3) 378 4) 386 5) None
93. A car travels a distance of 45 kms at a speed of 15
kmph. It covers the next 50 kms of its journey at a
speed of 25 kmph and the last 25 kms of its jour-
ney at a speed of 10 kmph. What is the average
speed of the car?
1) 40 kmph 2) 24 kmph 3) 15 kmph
4) 18 kmph 5) None of these
94. A canteen requires 13 dozens bananas per day.
How many bananas will it require for 9 days?
1) 728 2) 9828 3) 1404
4) 9882 5) None of these
95. The cost of 3 chairs and 10 tables is Rs 98.56.
What is the cost of 6 chairs and 20 tables?
1) Rs.172.27 2) Rs.187.12 3) Rs.197.12
4) Can not be determined 5) None
Directions(Q 96-100):
Study the following table
to answer the given
questions: Percentage of
Marks obtained by seven
students in six subjects.
96. What is the total marks obtained by Meera in all
the subjects?
1) 448 2) 580 3) 470 4) 74.67 5) None
97. What is the average marks obtained by these
seven students in History?
1) 72.86 2) 27.32 3) 24.86 4) 29.14 5) None
98. How many students have got 60% or more marks
in all the subjects?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) None 5) None of these
99. What is the overall percentage of Kunal?
1) 64 2) 65 3) 75 4) 64.24 5) None
100. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?
1) Maths 2) Economics 3) History
4) Science 5) None
English Language
Directions (Q. 101-115): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words have been printed in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
For many years, the continent of Africa remained
unexplored and hence unknown. The main reason
was the inaccessibility to its interior region due to
dense forests, wild life, savage tribals, deserts and
barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the
land but could not survive the dangers. David
Livingston is among those brave few who not only
explored part of Africa but also lived among the tribals
bringing them near to social milieu. While others
explored with the idea of expanding their respective
empires, Livingston did so to explore its vast and mys-
terious hinterland, rivers and lakes. He was primarily a
religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to
help mankind with it. Livingston was born in Scotland
and was educated to become a doctor and a priest.
His exploration started at the beginning of the year
1852. He explored an unknown river in Western
Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton dur-
ing four years of travelling. By this time, he had
become famous and when he returned to England for
convalescing, entire London, along with Queen
Victoria the, turned to welcome him. After a few days,
he returned to Africa. He discovered the origin of the
River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discom-
forts. He became too sick and could not even walk. He
lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious to
know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the
American journalist, who found him after many efforts,
but Livingston had died in a tribal village in 1873. His
body was brought to London and buried in
Westminster with full honour.
101. Which of the following shows that Livingston had
become very famous?
1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London
had come to meet him.
2) Queen Victoria arranged for his medical expenses.
3) The tribals were grateful to him for bringing them
in the social mainstream.
4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he
was a medical professional. 5) None
102. Why were people not aware of the existence of
Africa?
1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs.
2) Its territory was covered with dense forests.
3) People outside the continent were chased away
by native tribals.
4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved.
5) None
103. Livingston deserves credit for which of the
following?
1) For expanding his empire
2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent
3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the
tribals
4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company
of nature 5) None of these
104. What was the impact of the four-year travelling
on Livingston?
1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals society.
2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an
unknown river.
3) He derived satisfaction as he became very
famous.
4) It badly affected his health. 5) None of these
105. The American journalist Stanley can be credited
for which of the following?
(A) Performing the last rites of Livingstons dead
body.
(B) Relentless efforts for finding out the where-
abouts of Livingston.
(C) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of
the world.
1) (A) and (B) only 2) (B) and (C) only
3) (A) and (C) only 4) (B) only 5) (C) only
106. Livingston can best be described by which of the
following?
1) Aperson with an urge for exploration of unknown
parts of the world
2) A person with religious mindset
3) A social reformer
4) A warm-hearted medical practitioner
5) A famous priest popular among the British
107. Livingston became too sick to walk and, as a
result,
(A) people in the world lost contact with him.
(B) his whereabouts were not known.
(C) American journalist Stanley could not locate
him despite many efforts.
1) (A) only 2) (B) only 3) (C) only
4) (A) and (C) only 5) None of these
108. In what way were Livingstons exploration efforts
different from those of others?
1) Livingstons exploration was restricted only to
unknown rivers whereas others explored dense
forests.
2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingston
explored to know the mysterious parts of the world.
3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth,
but Livingston did so for religious purposes.
4) Being a medical practitioner, he tried to explore
medicines; others did for tribal population.
5) None of these
109. Which of the following was/were explored by
Livingston?
(A) A river in Western Luanda (B) Scotland
(C) The origin of river Nile
1) (A) and (B) only 2) (B) and (C) only
3) (A) and (C) only 4) (A) only 5) (B) only
Directions (Q. 110-112): Choose the word which is most
nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold
as used in the passage.
110. exploration
1) execution 2) cultivation 3) foundation
4) discovery 5) assimilation
111. turned
1) rotated 2) twisted 3) spinned
4) revolved 5) arrived
112. rest
1) remaining 2) relax 3) respite
4) break 5) most
Directions (Q. 113-115): Choose the word which is most
OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as
used in the passage.
113. barren
1) uncultivated 2) fertile 3) forest
4) unlevelled 5) marshy
114. vast
1) miniature 2) magnified 3) enormous
4) gigantic 5) small
115. dense
1) crowded 2) dark 3) sparse
4) transparent 5) opaque
IBPS CLERKS (CWE) MODEL GRAND TEST
TIME: 2 Hrs 30 Minutes No. of Questions: 250
Subjects Eng His Comp Maths Science Econ
(Max.Marks)
(60) (40) (130) (150) (120) (80)
Students
Meera 100 80 50 90 90 60
Subodh 80 70 80 100 80 40
Kunal 90 70 60 90 70 70
Soni 60 60 65 80 80 80
Richu 50 90 62 80 85 95
Irene 40 60 64 70 65 85
Vijay 80 80 35 65 50 75
-(N- -v-o- - -*-)
- . . .. . ..... ....
. .. . ... ... ...:.:.:
49.
50.
--v 25 - -- 2011 -- j---
(- E- o- - - )
Directions (Q. 116-120): In each question below four
words which are numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4) have been
printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The
number of that word is the answer. If all the four words
are correctly spelt, mark 5), ie All Correct, as the
answer.
116. 1) Remorse 2) Noble 3) Upsurge
4) Incline 5) All Correct
117. 1) Blister 2) Warrant 3) Arrest
4) Mannual 5) All Correct
118. 1) Accept 2) Reicept 3) Frequent
4) Gesture 5) All Correct
119. 1) Justise 2) Practice 3) Menace
4) Variance 5) All Correct
120. 1) Complaint 2) Alerted 3) Cheated
4) Hunged 5) All Correct
Directions (Q. 121-125): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then
answer the questions given below them.
(A) He therefore spent most of his time looking
down in search of treasure while growing up.
(B) However he lost out on seeing the smiles of
passerby or the sadness in their eyes.
(C) Walking down the street one day, a child found
a one rupee coin.
(D) Thus we often focus on trivial things and tend to
lose out on the more important things in life.
(E) He was very excited to find the coin because it
costs him nothing.
(F) As a result, during the course of his life he
gained Rs 809.50.
121. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
122. Which of the following should be the SIXTH
(LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
123. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
124. Which of the following should be the THIRD
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
125. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (Q. 126-130): Pick out the most effective word
from the given words to fill in the blank in each sentence
to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
126. It is . for everyone to abide by the laws
of the land.
1) expected 2) obligatory 3) meant
4) optional 5) recommended
127. They work hard not because of the . ,
but because of their inner urge.
1) desire 2) drive 3) energy
4) incentive 5) motivation
128. . he is a hard worker, his quality of work
is not of a desirable level.
1) Despite 2) Because 3) Although
4) Somehow 5) However
129. In spite of repeated instructions, he . the
same mistakes.
1) commits 2) detects 3) corrects
4) imitates 5) exhibits
130. His . background has made him so
docile.
1) famous 2) lucrative 3) rich
4) advanced 5) humble
Directions (Q. 131-140): Read each sentence to find
out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is no error,
the answer is 5), ie No Error. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.)
131. Your desire to / meet the President / without prior
(1) (2) (3)
appointment / cannot be fulfil. No Error
(4) (5)
132. He was too tired that / he could not cross /
(1) (2)
the street even with / the help of a porter. No Error
(3) (4) (5)
133. In such delicate matters, / we often go with /
(1) (2)
his advice as he has /
(3)
been handling such cases effectively. No Error
(4) (5)
134. You should think / of all the possibilities /
(1) (2)
before you take / any decision. No Error
(3) (4) (5)
135. People who intend / to visit the tourist spots /
(1) (2)
are always thrilling / to see the scenario here.
(3) (4)
No Error
(5)
136. For giving up / the bad habit of smoking, /
(1) (2)
use of chewing gum or /similar other method
(3) (4)
can be helped. No Error
(5)
137. Whenever a man attains fame, /
(1)
his person qualities are / imitated by others who /
(2) (3)
are close to him. No Error
(4) (5)
138. Rivers, mountains and deep forests /
(1)
are the places / mostly like by /
(2) (3)
people living in urban areas. No Error
(4) (5)
139. His obviously reluctance / was viewed seriously by
(1) (2)
/ his superiors and / he was suspended.
(3) (4)
No Error
(5)
140. When we visited his office / we found that /
(1) (2)
he was sipping coffee /
(3)
with some of his colleagues. No Error
(4) (5)
Directions (Q. 141-150): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word In
each case.
Clement Atlee became the Prime Minister of England
after the Second World War. Winston Churchill, who
had successfully (141) England and the allies to
victory over Hitler was now rejected by the English
people at the hustings. Labour Party was (142) to
power and Atlee became the Prime Minister. One of
his memorable tasks was that he was (143) in granti-
ng India its freedom. Atlee was born in a well-to-do
(144) but he always had (145) for the poor and the
downtrodden. He is known for keeping (146) and
cooperation among his cabinet colleagues. Not that
there were no differences of opinion (147) his cabinet
members, but Atlee, by his (148) nature and positive
approach, always managed to keep them together
and had control over them. (149) being sympathetic to
the cause of India, and granting India freedom, he
(150) many a constructive activity for his country too,
like nationalization of some industries, and starting
National Health Scheme.
141. 1) marginalised 2) led 3) isolated
4) established 5) conquered
142. 1) used 2) immune 3) averse
4) close 5) swept
143. 1) reluctant 2) particular 3) interested
4) instrumental 5) eager
144. 1) family 2) community 3) class
4) origin 5) country
145. 1) jobs 2) indifference 3) concern
4) reverence 5) apathy
146. 1) faith 2) conflict 3) assistance
4) conviction 5) harmony
147. 1) from 2) with 3) among
4) within 5) between
148. 1) aggressive 2) docile 3) withdrawing
4) gentle 5) stubborn
149. 1) Besides 2) After 3) Although
4) Without 5) He
150. 1) observed 2) did
3) demonstrated
4) imitated
5) bypassed
GENERAL AWARENESS
151. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) hiked the short-term
policy rate (repo rate) byrecently?
1) 15 basis points 2) 75 basis points
3) 25 basis points 4) 100 basis points
5) 125 basis points
152. . is not a private bank ?
1) HDFC 2) ICICI 3) Axis bank
4) SBH 5) Yes bank
153. How many banks were nationalized in 1969 by
Indira Gandhi government?
1) 8 2) 20 3)14 4)19 5) 50
154. BASEL committee stress on . ?
1) Branch Establishment 2) Risk management
3) Appointment of Clerical Staff in banks
4) Loans to business people 5) ATM establishments
155. . Committee submitted a report on
Financial inclusion?
1) Goparia 2) Damodaran 3) Usha Thorat
4) D.Subba Rao 5) Pranab Mukherjee
156. The present rate of interest on savings account is
. ?
1) 2 % 2) 3% 3) 8% 4) 1%
5) Fixed by the respective Bank
157. On 7th September 2011, Asian Development
Bank approved 500 Million Dollar Loan to help
India to improve . ?
1) Town facilities 2) Urban Slums 3) Education
4) Telecommunications 5) Rail services
158. Priority Sector does not include . ?
1) Loans to Software Industry
2) Loans to Small road and water transport
operators
3) Housing Loans 4) Agriculture
5) Loans to Self-Help groups
159. On 22nd September 2011, RBI directed banks to
implement various safety measures related to?
1) Non-performing Assets 2) Loans to MSME
3) Institutional Debt 4) Closure of banks
5) Credit card and Debit card usage
160. . Committee submitted a report on
Micro Finance Sector?
1) K.C.Chakravarthy 2) N.Janardhar
3) Malegam 4) O.P.Bhatt 5) H.R.Khan
161. The Savings Account cannot be opened by
. ?
1) Farmer 2) Local Business man
3) Government Employee 4) Doctor
5) Person doing Money Laundering
162. BNP Paribas has base in . ?
1) USA 2) France 3) Australia
4) UK 5) New Zealand
163. As per the modern definition of bank, in 1786 the
first bank was established in India. The first bank
is?
1) The General Bank of India
2) Union Bank of India 3) Allahabad Bank
4) Indian Bank 5) Maharaja Rana Pratap Bank
164. To execute National Rural Livelihood Mission,
. granted loan of Rs. 4600 crores
recently?
1) IMF 2) ADB 3) IDA
4) IFC 5) World Bank
165. The Chief of World Bank is . ?
1) Christine Legarde 2) Vineeth Verman
3) Dominique Strauss Kahn
4) Montek Singh Ahluwalia 5) Robert Zoellick
166. A customer agreed to deposit some amount
monthly to reap a huge amount on maturity date.
This deposit is called . ?
1) Recurring Account
2) Savings Account 3) Fixed Deposit
4) Current Account 5) CASA
167. Diebold is a familiar . ?
1) Bank in USA
2) Non-banking Finance Company
3) Banking Service on line Portal
4) ATM manufacturing company 5) None
168. Relationship Beyond Banking is the punch line of
. ?
1) State Bank of India
2) Union Bank of India
3) Bank of India
4) Indian Overseas Bank 5) HDFC
169. Who are the present Deputy Governors of RBI?
1) Depak Mohanthy, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha
and H.R.Khan
2) Depak Mohanthy, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha
and K.C.Chakravarthy
3) K.C.Chakravarthy,Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha
and H.R.Khan
4) Depak Mohanthy, Anand Sinha, H.R.Khan and
D.Subba Rao 5) None
170. Rs. 10 paper currency bear the signature of?
1) Finance Secretary
2) President of India
3) RBI Governor
4) Finance Minister
5) RBI Deputy Governor
171. Which coin has the largest circulation in India?
1) Five rupee 2) Two rupee 3) One rupee
4) Ten rupee 5) Hundred rupee
172. Syamala Gopinath Committee submitted a report
on. ?
1) Fixed Deposits
2) Bank expansion 3) Bank Frauds
4) Small Savings Fund
5) International clearing systems
173. Present Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is .
percent?
1) 6 2) 5 3) 10 4) 8.25 5) 9
174. In call market, the money borrowed for ?
1) Two days 2) Three Days 3) One Week
4) One day 5) One month
175. From 30 June 2011, . coin was with-
drawn from circulation?
1) 25 NP 2) 50 NP 3) 10 NP
4) 1 rupee 5) 5 rupee
176. A person who expects share prices in general to
decline is called . ?
1) Bear 2) Bull 3) Duck 4) Pig 5) Dog
177. The wrong abbreviation is . ?
1) GST-Goods and Services Tax
2) CCEA- Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
3) CAG-Comptroller and Auditor General
4) UPSC-Union Public Service Commission
5) IBPS-Institute of Banking Professional Selection
178. The capital of South Korea is . ?
1) Kuala Lumpur 2) Pyongyang
3) Jakarta 4) Wellington 5) Seoul
179. I am visiting Israel. So I should have,
which is a local currency?
1) Rial 2) Dinar 3) rupiah 4) Shekel 5) Peso
180. Kharif grown during the months of . ?
1) June to October
2) October to March 3) March to June
4) June to July 5) March to July
181. The situation Hyper inflation means . ?
1) Inflation and Deflation occur one after another
2) Extremely slow growth of inflation
3) Inflation is there but it is not seen
4) No inflation seen
5) Extreme inflation which is out of control
182. BC Khanduri is the new Chief Minister of ?
1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Uttarakhand
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Jammu & Kashmir 5) Tamil Nadu
183. . is not a member in SAARC?
1) India 2) Sri Lanka 3) Bhutan
4) Russia 5) Afganistan
184. UNCTAD's Trade and Development Report 2011
projected the Indias growth for the year
2011-2012 as . ?
1) 8.1% 2) 7.2% 3) 5% 4) 10% 5) 9%
IBPS CLERKS(CWE) MODEL GRAND TEST
TIME: 2 Hrs 30 Minutes No. of Questions: 250

--v 25 - -- 2011 -- j---

185. 71
st
International Congress of FIP (International
Pharmaceutical Federation) was inaugurated at
?
1) Mumbai 2) Hyderabad 3) Pune
4) Chandigarh 5) Kolkatta
186. was the chief guest of 15th August
Independence Day 2011?
1) Vladimer Putin 2) David Cameron
3) Susilo Bambang Yudhoyono
4) Jigme Khesar Namgyal Wangchuck 5) None
187. In the Conference of State Ministers of Welfare
and Justice, the Prime Minister of India said the
three elements are very important for the
progress of all sections of society. They are
?
1) Education, Job and Money
2) Job, Relations and Education
3) Mobiles, Education and Books
4) Education, Health and Skill
5) Job, Reservations and Laptops
188. Rohinton Nariman is new ?
1) Attorny General of India
2) Chief Election Commissioner
3) Solicitor General of India
4) Chairman of National Commission for Minorities
5) None
189. The scheme Annapurna provides free
distribution of 10 kgs food grains to ?
1) Women 2) BPL Families
3) Industrial Workers 4) Beedi Workers
5) Senior Citizens
190. Project Surakhya an Infant and Young Child
Feeding( IYCF) introduced by . ?
1) Odisha 2) Bihar 3) Andhra Pradesh
4) Maharastra 5) Tamilnadu
191. International Jurist Award conferred on .?
1) Bhagavathi 2) Kapadia 3) Chalameswar
4) Vijay Darda 5) Nagendra Singh
192. First African Woman to win a Nobel Peace Prize
recently died. She is ?
1) Wangari Maathai of Kenya
2) Tawakkul Karman 3) Herta Muller
4) Elinor Ostrom 5) Ada E. Yonath
193. On 27
th
September we celebrate World Tourism
Day. The slogan is ?
1) Tour and get Knowledge
2) Tour for Integrity 3) Tour and Tour
4) Bring Wisdom in the Tourism
5) Tourism Linking Cultures
194. Ozone day celebrated on ?
1) 16 October 2) 16 August 3) 16 July
4) 16 November 5) 16 September
195. Dronacharya Award given to ?
1) Sports Persons 2) Sports Managers
3) Stadium Managers 4) Sports Coaches
5) Cricket Players
196. Singapore Formula One Grand Prix won by
?
1) Jenson Button (McLaren-Mercedes)
2) Lewis Hamilton (GBR/McLaren-Mercedes)
3) Fernando Alonso (Ferrari)
4) Sebastian Vettel (Red Bull) 5) None
197. Asian Champions Trophy Hockey Tournament
won by defeating Pakistan?
1) India 2) Afganisthan 3) Iran
4) Iraq 5) Sri Lanka
198. Sports terms are given. Pick up incorrect one.
1) Cricket- Ashes , Banana , Caught, Doosra, Fine
Leg, Googly, Hat-trick, In swing
2) Chess-Bishop, Capture, Grand Master, King,
Pawn, Queen, Rook, Stalemate
3) Basket Ball-Basket, Blocking, Free Throw, Jump
Ball, Multiple Throws
4) Hockey- Advantage, Bully, Corner, Duck out,
Free-hit, Goal Line, Green Card, LBW
5) All of above
199. US Open women winner is ?
1) Samantha Stosur (Australia)
2) Serena Williams ( U.S.A)
3) Li Na ( China)
4) Maria Sharapova ( Russia)
5) Kim Clijsters ( Belgium)
200. Paul Valthaty is an ?
1) Indian Cricketer 2) England Wicket Keeper
3) West Indies Umpire 4) Indian Tennis Player
5) West Indies Bowler
COMPUTER
201. Which of the following is a part of the Central
Processing Unit?
1) Printer 2) Key board 3) Mouse
4) Arithmetic & Logic Unit 5) None
202. CAD stands for
1) Computer aided design
2) Computer algorithm for design
3) Computer application in design
4) All of the above 5) None
203. Which of the following printer cannot print
graphics?
1) Ink-jet 2) Daisy Wheel 3) Laser
4) Dot-matrix 5) None
204. A program written in machine language is
called?
1) Assembler 2) Object 3) Computer
4) Machine 5) None
205. The father of Modern Computer is
1) Charles Babbage 2) Von-nuumann
3) Danies Ritchel 4) Blaise Pascal
5) None
206. The Word FTP stands for
1) File Translate Protocol 2) File Transit Protocol
3) File Transfer Protocol 4) file typing Protocol
5) None
207. The lowest form of Computer language is called
1) BASIC 2) FORTRAN
3) Machine Language 4) COBOL 5) None
208. Best Quality graphics is produced by
1) Dot Matrix 2) Laser Printer 3) Inkjet Printer
4) Plotter 5) None
209. Memory which forgets every thing when you
switch off the power is known as
1) Corrupted 2) Volatile 3) Non-Volatile
4) Non-Corrupted 5) None
210. The linking of computers with a communication
system is called
1) Networking 2) Pairing 3) Interlocking
4) Assembling 5) Sharing
211. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it
has
1) 16 address lines 2) 16 Buses
3) 16 Data lines 4) 16 routes 5) None
212. Data going into the computer is called
1) Output 2) Algorithm 3) Input
4) Calculations 5) Flow Chart
213. Which of the following refers to a small,
single-site network?
1) LAN 2) DSL 3) RAM 4) USB 5) CPU
214. Microsoft Office is
1) Shareware 2) Public domain software
3) Open-source software
4) A vertical market application
5) An application suite
215. How many options does a BINARY choice offer?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) It depends on the amount of memory on the
computer
5) It depends on the speed of the computer's
processor
216. A collection of program that controls how your
computer system runs and processes
information is called
1) Operating System 2) Computer 3) Office
4) Compiler 5) Interpreter
217. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area
Network) can
1) run faster 2) go on line
3) share information and /or share peripheral
equipment
4) E-mail 5) None
218. Information travels between components on the
mother board through
1) Flash memory 2) CMOS 3) Bays
4) Buses 5) Peripherals
219. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?
1) Lines & spaces 2) Layers & Planes
3) Height & Width
4) Rows & Columns 5) None
220. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is
called the
1) mouse 2) logo 3)
hand 4) palm 5) cur-
sor
221. A fault in a computer
program which prevents it from working correct-
ly is known as
1) Boot 2) Bug 3) Biff 4) Strap 5) None
222. A self replicating program, similar to a virus
which was taken from a 1970s science fiction
novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave
Rider is
1) Bug 2) Vice 3) Lice 4) Worm 5) None
223. A is a bi-stable electronic circuit that
has two stable states.
1) Multi vibrator 2) Flip-flop
3) Logic gates 4) laten 5) None
224. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unso-
licited bulk e-mail is known as
1) Spam 2) Trash 3) Calibre 4) Courier 5) None
225. DOS stands for
1) Disk Operating System 2) Disk operating session
3) Digital Operating System 4) Digital Open system
5) None
226. Who is the Chief of Microsoft ?
1) Babbage 2) Bill Gates 3) Bill Clinton
4) Bush 5) None
227. Which of the following are input devices?
1) Keyboard 2) Mouse 3) Card reader
4) Scanner 5) All of these
228. Examples of output devices are
1) Screen 2) Printer 3) Speaker
4) All of these 5) None
229. Which of the following is also known as brain of
computer ?
1) Control unit 2) Central Processing unit
3) Arithmetic and language unit
4) Monitor 5) None
230. IBM stands for
1) Internal Business Management
2) International Business Management
3) International Business Machines
4) Internal Business Machines 5) None
231. translates and executes program at
run time line by line
1) Compiler 2) Interpreter 3) Linker
4) Loader 5) None
232. is an OOP principle
1) Structured programming
2) Procedural programming
3) Inheritance 4) Linking 5) None
233. COBOL is widely used in applications
1) Commercial 2) Scientific 3) Space
4) Mathematical 5) None
234. RAM stands for
1) Random origin money 2) Random only memory
3) Read only memory 4) Random access memory
5) None
235. 1 Byte = ?
1) 8 bits 2) 4 bits 3) 2 bits 4) 9 bits 5) None
236. SMPS stands for
1) Switched mode power supply
2) Start mode power supply
3) Store mode power supply
4) Single mode power supply 5) None
237. The device used to carry digital data on analog
lines is called as
1) Modem 2) Multiplexer 3) Modulator
4) Demodulator 5) None
238. VDU is also called
1) Screen 2) Monitor 3) Both 1 & 2
4) printer 5) None
239. BIOS stands for
1) Basic Input Output System
2) Binary Input Output System
3) Basic Input Off System
4) All the above 5) None
240. Father of 'C' Programming language
1) Dennis Ritchie 2) Prof Jhon Kemeny
3) Thomas Kurtz 4) Bill Gates
5) None
241. Commercially produced first computer
1) IBM 2) MIPS 3) UNIVACI
4) EDSAC 5) None
242. Banks and other big organizations requiring
large data storage use:
1) Laptop PCs 2) Desktop PCs
3) Mainframe Computer 4) Workstation
5) None
243. High Level Language useful by the beginners is

1) BASIC 2) PASCAL 3) FORTRAN

4) COBOL 5) None
244. For Scientific work the most popular language is

1) PASCAL 2) FORTRAN 3) COBOL

4) PROLOG 5) None
245. Which is not the portable computer?
1) Microprocessor 2) Calculator
3) Series Computers 4) Parallel Computers
5) None
246. OBJECT ORIENTED language is
1) ADA 2) PROLOG 3) PASCAL
4) FORTRAN 5) None
247. Information is
1) Summarization process of data
2) data Information
3) textual form of data 4) facts and figures
5) None
248. The secret code that gives you access to some
programs is
1) clue 2) cue 3) password
4) help 5) None
249. For running WINDOW minimum disk free space
required is
1) 8 MB 2) 10 MB 3) 16 MB
4) 32 MB 5) None
250. The first graphical web browser is
1) Gopher 2) WAIS 3) CERN
4) Mosaic 5) None
IBPS CLERKS(CWE) MODEL GRAND TEST
TIME: 2 Hrs 30 Minutes No. of Questions: 250
ANSWERS
1.1 2.3 3.4 4.2 5.4 6.3 7.5 8.1
9.4 10.2 11.3 12.4 13.4 14.5 15.1 16.4
17.5 18.3 19.2 20.1 21.1 22.4 23.3 24.2
25.5 26.4 27.1 28.5 29.2 30.4 31.3 32.1
33.5 34.2 35.4 36.1 37.5 38.4 39.5 40.2
41.1 42.5 43.4 44.1 45.3 46.5 47.4 48.2
49.3 50.5 51.1 52.3 53.2 54.5 55.5 56.4
57.3 58.1 59.3 60.5 61.3 62.4 63.3 64.4
65.2 66.3 67.4 68.1 69.2 70.5 71.4 72.5
73.1 74.3 75.2 76.2 77.4 78.1 79.4 80.1
81.4 82.2 83.2 84.1 85.2 86.4 87.3 88.5
89.4 90.3 91.2 92.4 93.5 94.3 95.3 96.1
97.4 98.2 99.3 100.1 101.1 102.5 103.3 104.4
105.4 106.1 107.5 108.2 109.3 110.4 111.5 112.1
113.2 114.5 115.3 116.5 117.4 118.2 119.1 120.4
121.5 122.4 123.3 124.1 125.2 126.2 127.4 128.3
129.1 130.5 131.4 132.1 133.2 134.5 135.3 136.4
137.2 138.3 139.1 140.5 141.2 142.5 143.4 144.1
145.3 146.5 147.3 148.4 149.1150.2 151.3 152.4
153.3 154.2 155.3 156.5 157.5 158.1 159.5 160.3
161.5 162.2 163.1 164.5 165.5 166.1 167.4 168.3
169.3 170.3 171.3 172.4 173.1 174.4 175.1 176.1
177.5 178.5 179.4 180.1 181.5 182.2 183.4 184.1
185.2 186.3 187.4 188.3 189.5 190.1 191.4 192.1
193.5 194.5 195.4 196.4 197.1 198.4 199.1 200.1
201.4 202.1 203.2 204.1 205.1 206.3 207.3 208.4
209.2 210.1 211.3 212.3 213.1 214.5 215.3 216.1
217.3 218.3 219.4 220.5 221.2 222.4 223.2 224.1
225.1 226.2 227.5 228.4 229.2 230.3 231.2 232.3
233.1 234.4 235.1 236.1 237.1 238.3 239.1 240.1
241.3 242.3 243.4 244.2 245.4 246.1 247.1 248.3
249.1 250.4.
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.. ... ... .: