IIT-JEE 2012 FST1 P2 Qns

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/B.
MAT1/CPM/P(II) - 1
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B-MAT FULL TEST-I
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2012

QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:
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1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has 25 pages.
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appropriate bubble for each question must be darkened with HB pencil.
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PAPER II
IIT-JEE 2012
BMAT1/CPM/P(II)/Qns
27.11.2011
2
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/B.MAT1/CPM/P(II) - 2
CHEMISTRY
TEST-II
PART-I
SECTIONI
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The following two compounds are

CH
3

H
C
CH
3

H
and
H
C
CH
3

H
CH
3

(A) Identical (B) Diastereoisomers (C) Enantiomers (D) Optically inactive

2. Collapsible balloon is inflated to a volume of 10 L at a pressure of 1 atm. When the balloon
is immersed to the bottom of a lake its volume reduces to 1.25 L. Assuming 1 atm pressure to
be equivalent to 10 m column of water and no change in temperature, the depth of the
lake will be
(A) 70 m (B) 80 m (C) 90 m (D) 100 m

3. In MPV reduction of aldehydes or ketone to alcohols by treatment with aluminum
isopropoxide in presence of 2-propanol is shown.

RCR + CH
3
CHCH
3

OH
O
2 1
3
Al[OCH(CH
3
)
2
]
3

4 5
RCHR + CH
3
CCH
3

OH O

The reaction involves migration of hydride ion to the carbonyl carbon of the ketone. Which
marked hydrogen is supplied as hydride ion?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
3

4. Wolff Kishner reduction involves the reduction of hydrazones of aldehydes and ketones to
hydrocarbon in presence of strongly basic condition.

C=O + NH
2
NH
2

R
R
C=NNH
2

R
R
NaOH
CH
2
+ N
2

R
R
I
II

Which type of intermediate is likely to be formed in the second step?
(A)

CN=NH
R
R

(B)

C
R
R

H
N=N
(C)

CH
R
R

(D) All the three

5. A complex is represented as CoCl
3
.xNH
3
. Its 0.1 molal aq. solution shows T
f
= 0.558C,
K
f
for H
2
O is 1.86 K mol
1
. Assuming 100% ionization of complex and co-ordination no. of
Co is 6, the formula of the complex is
(A) [ ]Cl Cl ) NH ( Co
2 4 3
(B) [ ]
2 5 3
Cl Cl ) NH ( Co
(C) [ ]
3 6 3
Cl ) NH ( Co (D) [ ]
3 3 3 3
NH ) NH ( ) Cl ( Co

6. In which part of earth do we find lime stone?
(A) Crust (B) Mantle (C) Outer core (D) Inner core

7. In solid ammonia each NH
3
molecule has six other NH
3
molecules as nearest neighbours,
Enthalpy of sublimation of NH
3
at the melting point is 30.8 kJ mol
1
and the estimated H of
sublimation in the absence of H-bonding is 14.4 kJ mol
1
. The strength of H-bond in solid
ammonia is
(A) 2.7 kJ mol
1
(B) 5.5 kJ mol
1
(C) 16.4 kJ mol
1
(D) 80.3 kJ mol
1

8. Two moles of an ideal gas
=
2
3
is made to expand reversibly and adiabatically to four
times its initial volume. The change in entropy of the system during expansion is
[ ] 7 . 0 2 ln ; mol K cal 2 R
1 1
= =

(A) 5.6 cal
1 1
mol K

(B) 11.2 cal
1 1
mol K

(C) 2.8 cal K
1
mol
1
(D) Zero
4
SECTIONII
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct questions. Each question has 4 choices: (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

9. For the reduction of
3
NO ion in an aqueous solution . V 96 . 0 E + =
Values of E for some metal ions are
V 19 . 1 E V e 2 ) aq ( V
2
= +
+

V 04 . 0 E Fe e 3 ) aq ( Fe
3
= +
+

V 14 . 1 E Au e 3 ) aq ( Au
3
+ = +
+

V 86 . 0 E Hg e 2 ) aq ( Hg
2
+ = +
+

Identify the pair(s) of metals that is/are oxidized by
3
NO in aqueous solution.
(A) V and Hg (B) Hg and Fe (C) Fe and Au (D) Fe and V

10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) R C C
v p
= valid for real gas and ideal gas.
(B)
v p
C C > for water in between 0C to 4C.
(C)
v p
C C < for water in between 0C to 4C.
(D) .
vt
C C
2
v p
= applicable for solids and liquids.

11. The reaction(s) which proceed via nitrene intermediate is/are
(A) Schmidt rearrangement (B) Hoffmann bromamide rearrangement
(C) Curtius rearrangement (D) Lossen rearrangement

12. Which of the following reaction(s) proceed via
Ar
SN mechanism?
(A) Reaction of chlorobenzene with KNH
2
.

(B) Reaction of 2,4-dinitrofluorobenzene with protein.
(C) Reaction of p-nitrophenol with Cl
ion.
(D) Preparation of picric acid from chlorobenzene.

5
SECTION III
Integer Type
This section contains SIX questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

13. The order of base catalysed saponification of ester is ______.

14. What is the oxidation state of Iron in the brown ring complex of nitrate ion test?

15. A reaction ) g (
2
C
) g ( B ) g ( A
2
+ shows an increase of pressure from 150 mm to 170 mm
in 10 min. The rate of disappearance of A
2
in mm per min is ______.

16. Total number of cyclic isomers of the molecular formula
6 4
H C are ______.

17. How many moles of NH
4
NO
3
are obtained when four moles of zinc are completely consumed
by excess of very dilute HNO
3
?

18. One litre of 1 M solution of an acid HA (K
a
= 10
4
at 25C) has pH = 1. It is diluted by water
so that the pH of diluted solution becomes thrice. The final volume of the diluted solution is
9 10
a
ml. What is the value of a?
6

SECTION IV
Matrix Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given
in Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in
Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r,
then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to
q and r in the ORS.

19.
Column I Column II
(A) Electrolysis of aq. Na
2
SO
4
using
platinum electrodes
(p) Oxygen is evolved
(B) Electrolysis of aq. CuSO
4
using
platinum electrodes
(q) Anodic solution is acidic
(C) Electrolysis of aq. NaCl using platinum
electrodes
(r) Hydrogen is evolved
(D) Electrolysis of dil. H
2
SO
4
using
platinum electrodes
(s) Cathodic solution neutral

(t) Cathodic solution alkaline

20.
Column I Column II
(A) Boyles temperature (p) a/Rb
(B) (Inversion temperature) 2
1
(q) 8a/27Rb
(C) Critical temperature
(r) 0
P
) PV (
=

(D) Critical pressure
(s) 0
V
P
=

(t)
2
a
27b

7
PHYSICS
PART-II
SECTIONI
This Section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. In the circuit shown in figure, the key k
1
is closed for long
time. At t = 0, key k
1
is opened and k
2
is closed. What is
the charge on plate of capacitor C
1
at the instant when
energy stored in it is three times of energy stored in
inductor
(A) 3 10 C (B) 5C
(C) 2 5 C (D) 10C
20V
10
k
1
k
2
C
2
= 2F
C
1
= 2F
0.2mH

22. Two particles each of mass m = 3 kg and having
charge C 10 = q connected by a massless string of
length cm 10 ' ' = l are placed on a frictionless table
as shown in figure. If the mid point of the string is
moved with a constant velocity s m v / 3 = in a
direction perpendicular to the initial direction of
the string, then minimum separation between the
two charges will be

q
A
m m
c q
v
B

(A) 1 cm (B) 2.5 cm
(C) 5 cm (D) zero
8

23. From two towers of height 29m and 20 m two balls
are projected with velocities m/s 2 2 and
m/s 2 14 towards each other at an angle of
inclination of 45 each as shown in figure. Find the
minimum separation between the two balls
(A) zero (B) 2m
(C) 4m (D) 6m

A
B
29 m
20 m
22 m
m/s
2 14
2 2
m/s
45
45

24. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is at rest on smooth horizontal surface. An impulse P
is applied to end B as shown in the figure. The point about which the rod can be assumed to
be rotating just after the impulse applied is
A B
P

(A) at
2
l
from A (B) at
3
l
from A
(C) at
4
l
from A (D) at
6
l
from A

25. The current ' ' i in a circuit containing resistance
=10 R and inductive reactance = 5 . 7
L
X varies
with time ' ' t as shown in the figure. The average
power consumed in the circuit is

6A
2A
t

(A) 96 W (B) 291 W
(C) 175 W (D) none of these
9
26. There are four tuning forks, and one of them has frequency 553 Hz. By using any two forks
at a time, the beat frequencies heard are 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8. The possible frequencies of other
three forks are
(A) 554 555 and 561 Hz (B) 552, 555 and 561 Hz
(C) 554, 556 and 561 Hz (D) 551, 557 and 559 Hz

27. A disc of mass m and radius R is placed over a plank of mass m. There is sufficient friction
between disc and plank to prevent slipping and there is no friction between plank and
ground. A horizontal force F is applied at the centre of the disc, then
(A) Acceleration of the disc is
m
F
2

(B) Acceleration of the plank is
m
F
2

(C) Friction force between disc and plank is
4
F

(D) Friction force between disc and plank is
3
F

F
P

28. A solid cylinder having uniform cross section of
height H and having density is floating in two
immiscible liquids of densities
1
and
2
as shown
in figure. Choose correct alternative ( H
2
< h )
(A) If
3 1 2
, h < < must be zero
(B) If
3 1 2
, h < < may be zero
(C) If
3 1 2
, h < < must be zero
(D) If
3 1 2
, h < < must be non zero

2

h
1

h
3

h
2

1
H
H

10
SECTIONII
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

29. Two circular coils A and B having number of turns 3N
and N respectively and carrying equal currents in same
sense are placed coaxially, such that they subtend the
same solid angle at O. Let B
0
be the magnetic field at
O due to smaller coil B, then
(A) magnetic field at O due to larger coil is 3 3 B
0

(B) magnetic field at O due to larger coil is B
0
(C) Net magnetic field at O is 2B
0

(D) Net magnetic field at O is zero

A
O
R
3R

30. Two radioactive samples A and B are initially in the ratio 1 : 4, and have initial activities of
the nuclei in the ratio 1 : 8. If the half life of A is 4 years, choose the correct alternative(s)
(A) Half life of nuclei B is 2 years
(B) At t = 8 years, activities of A and B are equal
(C) At t = 12 years, ratio of number of nuclei of A to that of B is 2 : 1
(D) At t = 4 years the activities of A and B are in ratio 1 : 2

31. A chain of mass m and length L is initially held in
vertical position as shown in the figure. It is released from
rest, then which of the following graph(s) is/are correct.
Here N represents normal force by the ground on the chain
and v represents velocity of free end

x

(A)

x
N

(B)

x
N
11
(C)

x
v

(D)

x
v

32. Figure shows a potentiometer circuit. The
length of the potentiometer wire AB is 120cm
and its resistance is 2 . The internal
resistance of 2V cell is negligible and the
internal resistance of 6V cell is 1. Initially
the switches
1
S and
2
S are open and
3
S is
closed
(A) when only
2
S is open balanced length
cm l 20 =

6V
1
S
1
S
2
S
3
2V
2 1
A B
G

(B) when only
1
S is open balanced length cm l 60 =
(C) when all three switches are closed balanced length cm 60
(D) when
3
S is open,
2
S is also open but
1
S is closed balance length is cm 60

SECTION III
Integer Type
This section contains SIX questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

33. When the radiation emitted by Li
++
in transition from 4 = n to 3 = n is made to fall on a
metal surface, the emitted photo electrons moves in a circular track of radius
16
91
cm when
moved in a transverse magnetic field
4
10 88 . 3

T. Find work function of the metal (in
eV). (Given that Rydbergs constant R =
3 . 911
1
A
)
12

34. A Youngs double slit apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.33. It has slit
separation of 1 mm and interference pattern is observed on the screen at a distance 1.33 m
from plane of slits. The wavelength of light used in air is 6300A. When one of the slit is
covered by a glass sheet of thickness
n 8
63
m and refractive index 1.53, the position of
maxima and minima get interchanged. Find the maximum possible value of n.

35. An oscillator of frequency 425 Hz drives two speakers. The speaker are fixed on a vertical
pole at a distance 2.4m from each other. A person whose height (of ears) is same as that of
lower speaker runs horizontally away from the two speakers. Find the maximum distance
(in m) of person from the pole where he hears no sound. (velocity of sound in air 340 m/s)

36. A particle of mass m = 1kg and having charge Q = 2C is projected on a rough horizontal xy
plane from (4,0,0) m with velocity j
50 and in the region there exist a uniform electric field

N/C
10k E =
and a uniform magnetic field k B
5 =
T. The coefficient of friction between

the particle and the horizontal surface is
3
1
= , and the particle comes to rest by moving a
distance
n
1000
metres. Find n.

37. A wedge of inclination 45 is moved
towards right with a constant acceleration of
6 2 m/s
2
as shown in figure. Find
magnitude of acceleration of the ball placed
between an inclined wall and the wedge.

6 2 m/s
2
45 75

38. In the situation shown in figure, a particle
having charge q = 2 C and mass = 1 kg is
projected from bottom of an inclined plane of
inclination 45 at an angle 45 with horizontal,
so that the particle strike the inclined plane
normally due to a uniform horizontal electric
field E. Find the value of E (in NC
1
)

45
45
4

E

13

SECTIONIV
Matrix Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in
Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I
can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then
for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to
q and r in the ORS.

39. Figure shows a thermo dynamic process for a
mono atomic gas from state ) 3 , (
0 0
P V A to state
) , 3 (
0 0
P V B . Corresponding to the given graph
match the following.

B
A
P
3P
0

V
0
3V
0

V
P
0

ColumnI ColumnII
(A) From
0
V to 1.5
0
V (p) Temperature is increasing
(B) From 1.5
0
V to 2.0
0
V (q) U decreases
(C) From 2.0
0
V to 2.5
0
V (r) Specific heat is positive
(D) From 2.5
0
V to 3
0
V
(s) Heat is absorbed by the system
(t) Heat is rejected by the system

14
40. A conductor of negligible resistance, mass m and length l is
clamped on two vertical rails of negligible resistance as
shown in figure. The two rails are connected by a wire of
resistance R. If the conductor is allowed to fall freely and
friction between the conductor and rails is negligible then the
column I represent the variation of a physical quantity with
time and column II gives the quantity.
Match the following

R

ColumnI ColumnII
(A)

t

(p) velocity of conductor
(B)

t

(q) kinetic energy of conductor
(C)

t

(r) acceleration of the conductor
(D)

t
(s) power supplied by gravity.
(t) Rate of change of kinetic energy

15
MATHEMATICS
PART-III
SECTION I
This Section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. The solution of the differential equation ( ) ( ) 0
2
2 2 2
= + + x xy e
dx
dy
y e e
x y x
, is
(A) ( ) c e y e
y x
= +
2
2
2
1 (B) ( ) c e x e
x y
= +
2
2
2
1
(C) ( ) c e y e
x y
= +
2
2
2
1 (D) ( ) c e x e
y x
= +
2
2
2
1

42. + + + + ...
10 . 8 . 6 . 4 . 2
7 . 5 . 3 . 1
8 . 6 . 4 . 2
5 . 3 . 1
6 . 4 . 2
3 . 1
4 . 2
1
is equal to
(A)
4
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
2
1
(D) 1

43. The probability that the length of a randomly chosen chord of a circle lies between
3
2
and
6
5
of its diameter is
(A)
4
1
(B)
12
5
(C)
16
1
(D)
16
5

44. If
30 2 1
,..., , are the roots of the equation
=
=
30
1
0
k
k
x , then the value of
=

30
1
1
1
i i
is
(A) 30 (B) 30 (C) 15 (D) 15

16

45. The range of the function ( ) x x x f ln = is
(A) R (B)
|
,
1
e
(C)
|
,
1
e
(D) none of these

46. A normal is drawn to the hyperbola 1
2
2
2
=
y
x at ( ) |
\
|

2
3
, , tan 2 , sec . The sum
of the intercepts made by this normal on the coordinate axes is maximum, when =
(A)
3
4
(B)
12
13
(C)
4
5
(D)
6
7

47. The difference between radii of the largest and the smallest circles which have their centres
on the circumference of the circle 5 2 3 = i z , and which pass through the point (a, b)
(lying outside the given circle), is
(A) 10 (B) ( ) ( )
2 2
2 3 + b a (C) 25
2 2
+ + b a (D) 10

48. Let c b a
, , be mutually perpendicular vectors of the same magnitude. If a vector x
satisfies
the equation ( ) [ ] ( ) [ ] ( ) [ ] 0

= + + c a x c b c x b a b x a , then x
is given by
(A) ( ) c b a
+ +
2
1
(B) ( ) c b a
+ + 2
3
1
(C) ( ) c b a
+ +
3
1
(D) ( ) c b a
2
2
1
+

SECTION II
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

49. Let
+ +
=
0
2 4
1 7x x
dx
u and
+ +
=
0
2 4
2
1 7x x
dx x
v . Then
(A) u v > (B) = v 6 (C)
6
5
2 3

= + v u (D)
3
= + v u
17

50. The image of ( ) 1 , 2 , 1 P in the plane 0 3 2 2 = + + z y x is Q and the image of P in the line
2
1
1
1
2
=
+
=
z y x
is R. Then
(A) 7 | | = QR (B) 14 2 | | = QR
(C) area of 5 6 = PQR (D) area of 14 = PQR

51. If C B A , , are independent events such that ( ) ( )
8
1
,
4
1
= = C B A P C B A P and
( )
4
1
= C B A P , then
(A) ( )
36
1
= C B A P (B) ( )
24
1
= C B A P
(C) ( ) [ ]
2
1
= C B A P (D) ( ) [ ]
16
7
= C B A P

52. Let ( ) ( )
n n
A x f det = , where [ ]
=
= =
j i
j i x
a a A
ij
n n
ij n
if
if
, 2
,
, . Then
(A) ( ) x f y
3
= has a local maximum at 2 = x
(B) ( ) ( ) ( ) 6 2
3
4
+ = x x x f
(C) ( ) x f y
4
= has a point of inflection at 2 = x
(D) ( ) 20 1 '
4
= f
18
SECTION III
Integer Type

This section contains SIX questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

53. Let
199
198
sin ...
199
2
sin
199
sin 2
198

= A . Find the value of
(
20
A
, where [.] = GIF.

54. Find the number of solutions of the equation 5 6 sin 5 sin 4 sin 3 sin 2 sin = + + + + x x x x x ,
[ ] 2 , 0 x .

55. Find the integer value of a satisfying the system of equations ( )
4
sin cos
2
2
1 1

= +

a
y x ,
( ) ( )
16
sin cos
4
2
1 1

=

y x .

56. ( ) 1 , + is an interior point of the triangle ABC , where ( ) 3 , 0 = A , ( ) 0 , 2 = B and
( ) 1 , 6 = C . Find the number of integral values of .

57. The solution of the differential equation 0 8
2
2
3
3
=
dx
y d
dx
y d
satisfying ( )
8
1
0 = y , ( ) 0 0
1
= y
and ( ) 1 0
2
= y , is
+
=
7 8
8
x e
y
x
. Find the value of .

58. A five digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 without
repetition. If the total number of ways in which this can be done is
3
n , find the value of n.

19
SECTION IV

Matrix Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in
Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I
can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then
for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to
q and r in the ORS.

59. [.] represents the GIF.

Column I Column II
(A) { } =
(
3
0
2 , , 1 min dx x x
p. 2
(B) { } =
(
2
2
] [ , min dx x x

q. 1
(C) { } =
(
0
cos , sin max dx x x
r. 0
(D) { } =
(
dx x x
0
1 , cos 1 , sin 2 min
s. 1
t. 2
20

60.
Column I Column II
(A) If ( ) ( ) x x = +
1 1
cos 1 2 tan 2 , then x =

p.
2
1

(B) If ( )
2 1 1
1 2 sin cos 2 x x x =

, then x =
q. 0
(C) If
4 2
1
tan
2
1
tan
1 1

= |
\
|
+
+
+ |
\
|

x
x
x
x
, then x = r.
2
1

(D) If
2
tan 1 sin
2 1 2 1

= + +

x x x x , then x =
s.
2
3

t. 1

21
22
23
24
25
Name: . QUESTION PAPER CODE:

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

B. Question paper format
9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Chemistry, Part B: Physics and Part C: Mathematics). Each
part has 4 sections.
10. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
11. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
12. Section III contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the
beginning of the section.
13. Section IV contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching
with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B
matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken
the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
C. Marking scheme
14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
15. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be
awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
16. For each question in Section III you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There are no negative marks in this
section.
17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened
the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of
8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

1

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