Q1. The traditional view of marketing is that the firm makes something and then ________ it.

a) markets b) sells c) distributes d) prices e) services Q2. Today, the mass-market is actually splintering into numerous ________, each with its own wants, perceptions, preferences, and buying criteria. a) micro-markets b) market targets c) macro-markets d) customer cliques e) demographic units Q3. The ________ is a tool for identifying ways to create more customer value. a) value chain b) customer survey c) brand loyalty index d) promotion channel e) supplier database Q4. Negative externality is also known as a) external diseconomies. b) marginal damage. c) public goods. d) resource curse. Q5. International trade and specialization are determined by a) absolute advantage. b) comparative advantage. c) absolute costs. d) production possibility frontier. Q6. With respect to the core business processes, all the activities involved in researching, developing, and launching new high-quality offerings quickly and within budget are referred to as the ________. a) new product process b) new offering realization process c) product development process d) product launch process e) return on investment process Q7. Suppose a project results in a net stream of $200 per year for 4 years, but nothing thereafter. Assume that the discount rate is 5 percent. The discounted value of the total income stream over the 4-year period is a) 800. b) 40,000. c) more than zero but less than 800. d) less than zero.

Q8. If a firm pursues a ________ strategy, it must be good at engineering, purchasing, manufacturing and physical distribution. a) differentiation b) overall cost leadership c) focus d) domestic customer relationship e) market share Q9. Which of the following terms matches to the phrase it is a single business or collection of related businesses that can be planned separately from the rest of the company? a) Strategic business unit. b) Diverse business unit. c) Growth business unit. d) Niche market unit. e) Specialized business unit. Q10. Market-driven organizations excels in three distinctive capabilities: ________, customer linking and channel bonding. a) target marketing b) market research c) fulfilling customer needs d) market sensing e) customer service relationships Q11. Today, a growing number of firms now outsource some or all of their logistics to a) competitors b) third party logistics provider c) channel member d) cross functional teams e) disintermediaries Q12. In the WBS, the name of the entire project is the top box, called Level ____. a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) none of the above Q13. Project management software highlights the critical path in ____ on a network diagram. a) blue b) yellow c) green d) red e) other, it depends

Q14. Listed in Column A are four (4) descriptions associated with certain key words in Project Time Management. Column B contain the key words. Match correctly the description to the most appropriate key word. Column A I) A network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration II) Series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed III) Involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence IV) Is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity Column B A) Critical Path B) Slack or Float

C) Critical path method D) Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) E) Crashing F) Fast tracking

The correct matching is: a) I D, II A, III E, IV B b) I C, II A, III E, IV B c) I D, II A, III F, IV B d) I D, II A, III C, IV - B e) I C, II A, III F, IV B Q15. Identify from the statements given below the correct statement/s that is/are associated with Risk Management. a) The risk mitigation approaches to be used have to be addressed in the risk management plan. b) It is not necessary to identify the individuals responsible for implementing the risk management plan as any project staff member can attend to it. c) Contingency plans are not predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. d) Fallback plans are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives. e) Poor allocation and management of float is a potential risk condition associated with the scope management knowledge area. Q16. Identify from the list given below what should be in a Project Procurement Management plan. a) Risk mitigation strategies for purchases and acquisitions, such as insurance contracts and bonds. b) Scope & location of work. c) Lead times for purchases and acquisitions. d) Standard procurement documents or templates to be used, if applicable.

e) Acceptance criteria.

Q17. The annual demand for a product is 1,000 units. The company orders 200 units each time an order is placed. The lead time is 6 days, and the company has determined that 20 units should be held as a safety stock. There are 250 working days per year. What is the reorder point? a) 20 b) 24 c) 44 d) 120 e) none of the above Q18. Critical chain scheduling protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which consist of additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks. a) critical paths b) feeding buffers c) dummy activities d) fast tracking Q19. Many people are familiar with SWOT analysisanalyzing Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threatswhich is used to aid in ____. a) project initiation b) project planning c) strategic planning d) strategic initiation e) internal Analysis Q20. There are ____ main processes involved in project integration management. a) three b) six c) ten d) fifteen e) two Q21. Project managers often illustrate progress with a ____ showing key deliverables and activities. a) tracking gantt chart b) gantt chart c) network diagram d) pert chart e) s-curve Q22. The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project. a) end-product b) scope c) deliverable

d) outcome e) includes b, c, d Q23. In a ____ relationship, one task cannot finish before another finishes. a) start-to-start b) finish-to-start c) finish-to-finish d) start-to-finish e) all of the above Q24. The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the__. a) double bind b) triple constraint c) double constraint d) double obstacle e) includes b, c Q25. The project time management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of schedule control. a) initiating b) planning c) executing d) monitoring and controlling e) all of the above Q26. You can determine a projects ____ by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of zero for the project. a) internal rate of return(IRR) b) required rate of return c) payback period d) return on investment (ROI) e) discounted Cash Flow Q27. Project managers must use discipline to control ____. a) project bursts b) project schedules c) project critical paths d) project dependencies e) time constraints Q28. The ____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment. a) return on investment b) internal rate of return c) external rate of return d) required rate of return e) discounted Cash Flow Q29. In the ____ phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders.

a) development b) implementation c) concept d) close-out e) commissioning Q30. The cost of common equity for a firm is a) required rate of return on company's stock b) yield to maturity of bond c) risk free rate d) market risk premium e) others