Communicable Diseases Nurse Test

   
1. A person who harbors the microorganism but does not manifest the signs and symptoms of the disease is called: a. Contact b. Infected c. Suspect d. Carrier

Carriers harbor the microorganism but does not manifest the signs and symptoms of the disease. CONTACT = person who has a close association with a person. SUSPECT = person whosemedical history reveals that hes having the disease. INFECTED = person who medical and diagnostic test reveals that he is having the disease. 2. Which of the following term refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe, or in other words the relative ability of a microbe to cause disease?

   

a. Susceptibility b. Virulence c. Infection d. None of the above

Virulence is the capacity of the microorganism to cause the disease. It refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe, or in other words the relative ability of a microbe to cause disease when they multiply and grow in number. 3. Direct sputum smear microscopy (DSSM) is the primary diagnostic tool in tuberculosis case finding. Which of the following conditions does a DSSM is contraindicated?  a. Fever  b. Cough

 

c. Hemoptysis d. Tonsillitis

The only contraindication for sputum collection is hemoptysis; in which case, DSSM will be requested after control of hemoptysis. 4. The most hazardous period for development of clinical disease is how many months after infection with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis?  a. 4-5 months

  

b. 2-3 months c. 6-12 months d. 12-18 months

The most hazardous period for the development of clinical disease after the infection with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis is 6-12 months. 5. Based on the National Tuberculosis Control Program patients with TB are recommended to seek hospitalization if they have the following condition:

   

a. Massive hemoptysis b. Pleural effusion c. With complications d. All of these

Patients with TB are recommended for hospitalizations with the following conditions: Massive hemoptysis Pleural effusion Military TB TB meningitis TB pneumonia Those requiring surgical intervention or with complications 6. Treatment regimen for Category I TB patient on the continuation phase includes which Anti-TB drugs? a. Isoniazid and Rifampicin b. Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol c. Etambutol and Streptomycin d. Pyrazinamide, Etambutol, Isoniazid and Rifampicin

   

Category I TB patient Intensive phase: Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol Continuation Phase: Rifampicin and Isoniazid 7. A client with TB who is taking anti-TB drugs who calls the nurse because of urine discoloration. According to the client his urine turned reddish-orange. The nurse told the client that the reddish-orange discoloration of urine is the side effect of which anti-TB drug?  a. Isoniazid  b. Rifampicin

 

c. Pyrazinamide d. Ethambutol

Rifampicin causes the reddish-orange urine output. 8. A client with TB has been treated before with Anti-TB drug, however the treatment failed. The client is under which category of TB patient?  a. Category I  b. Category II

 

c. Category III d. Category IV

Clients who had treatment with TB but failed to recover, relapse, and return after default is under the Category II of TB patient. 9. Mang Jose is Category III TB patient. He asked the nurse about the duration of his treatment regimen during the intensive phase. Intensive phase in Category III patients lasts for:  a. 2 months

  

b. 3 months c. 4 months d. 5 months

Category III patients are new smear-negative PTB with minimal parenchymal lesions on CXR. Treatment regimen includes Rifampicin, Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide for 2 months in the intensive phase and Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide in the continuation phase. 10. Prevention of TB includes the following measures: a. BCG vaccination newborns b. Public education about TB and its mode of transmission, methods of control and early diagnosis. c. Availability and accessibility of medical, laboratory and x-ray facilities for examination. d. All of these

   

Preventive Measures of TB includes the ff: (1) Prompt diagnosis and treatment (2) BCG vaccination of newborns (3) Public education about TB and its mode of (4) Transmission, methods of control and early diagnosis (5) Availability and accessibility of medical, laboratory and x-ray facilities for examination. 11. The time interval between the first exposure to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms is called: a. Prodromal period b. Incubation period

   

c. Stage of illness d. Convalescence Stage of Illness: Incubation Period time interval between the first exposure to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms PRODROMAL PERIOD = premonition of an impending attack of a disease (Ex. Frequent sneezing) Period of Illness patient is actually manifesting the signs and symptoms of the disease Convalescence is the gradual recovery of health and strength after illness 12. Prodromal period is best described as: a. the gradual recovery of health and strength after illness b. patient is actually manifesting the signs and symptoms of the disease c. first exposure to disease d. premonition of an impending attack of a disease

   

Stage of Illness: Incubation Period time interval between the first exposure to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms. PRODROMAL PERIOD = premonition of an impending attack of a disease (Ex. Frequent sneezing). Period of Illness patient is actually manifesting the signs and symptoms of the disease. Convalescence is the gradual recovery of health and strength after illness. 13. To prevent whooping cough, which of the following vaccines should be given to infants? a. BCG b. DPT c. OPV d. IPV

   

Routine DPT immunization of all infants which can be started at 1 months of life and given at monthly intervals in 3 consecutive months. This constitutes the primary injection. Booster dose is given at the age of 2 years and again at 4-5 years of age. 14. Pertussis is becoming communicable during which stage of illness? a. Catarrhal stage b. Paroxysmal stage c. Convalescence d. All of these

   

Pertusis is communicable during the Catarrhal stage. - 7 days after the exposure after exposure to 3 weeks after onset of typical paroxysms. STAGES I. Catarrhal Stage fever, nasal catarrh (rhinitisnasal congestion), cough II. Paroxysmal 5-10 times rapid successive coughing. (Coughing in one expiration which ends in a whoop or a high-pitched CROW) III. Convalescence Stage (recovery) 15. The mother of an infant with pertussis should be instructed of the following except: a. Provide abdominal support b. Feed the child during an attack c. Allow the child to rest d. Special attention to diet is needed when the child vomits after cough paroxysms.

   

A child should not be fed during a cough attack to prevent aspiration. 16. A child is diagnosed with dengue fever. The etiologic agent for Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever (DHF) is: a. Chikungunya virus b. Aedes Aegypti c. Common household mosquito d. Infected person

   

The etiologic agents for DHF are the following:Dengue viruses (1,2,3,4) and Chikungunya virus. Vectors/ source of infection: Aedes Aegypti, Common household mosquito, Infected person. 17. The child presents with high fever and less hemorrhage. The childs DHF is classified as: a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. No DHF

   

Mild DHF: slight fever, with or without petechial hemorrhage Moderate DHF: high fever, but less hemorrhage, no shock Severe, frank type: flushing, sudden high fever, severe hemorrhage, followed by sudden drop of temperature, shock and terminating in recovery or death. 18. Clinical manifestations of DHF are divided into 3 stages. Which of the following is least likely observed during the toxic stage? a. Severe abdominal pain b. Hematemesis c. High fever d. Unstable BP

   

During the toxic or hemorrhagic stage, the temperature is lowered. Other s/s observed are the ff: Vomiting, Frequent GI bleeding (hematemesis/melena), Severe abdominal pain, Unstable BP, Narrowed pulse pressure, Shock 19. Rumpel Leads Test for DHF is positive when: a. 10-15 petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed b. No petechiae are present c. 15-20 petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed d. 20 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed

   

Rumpel Leads Test or Torniquet Test is positive when there are 20 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed.

20. During the fastidial stage of typhoid fever 3 cardinal symptoms are observed to the client. These cardinal symptoms include the following except:

   

a. Ladder-like fever b. Rose spot c. Splenomegaly d. Hematochezia

Prodromal Stage: 1st week (FEVER, Abdominal Pain, Diarrhea, Constipation - sometimes). Fastidial Stage: 2nd week 3 Cardinal symptoms (Ladder-like fever - Stairway fever, Rose Spot, Spleenomegaly). Defervescence Stage: 3rd week (GI Bleeding - melena, hematochezia) (Peritonitis (severe abdominal pain, board-like/rigid abdomen). Lysis or Convalescent: 4th to 5th week. 21. Preventive measures for malaria least likely include: a. Plating of Neem trees and other herbal plants. b. Wearing of clothing that covers the arms and legs at daytime. c. Using mosquito repellents, mosquito coils. d. None of these

   

Wearing clothing that covers the legs and arms in the EVENING prevents the occurrence of malaria. The vectors peak biting is from 9pm to 3am. 22. Nematode parasites Brugia Malayi and Wuchereria Bancrofti causes the communicable disease called: a. Schistosomiasis b. Epidemic Parotitis c. Diphtheria d. Filariasis

   

A - Schistosomiasis - Schistosoma Mansoni, S. Haematobium, S. Japonicum B - Epidemic Parotitis (MUMPS) Mumps Virus C Diphtheria Corynebacterium diphtheria (Klebs-Loeffler Bacillus) D - Filariasis 23. Klebs-Loeffler Bacillus is the etiologic agent of which communicable disease? a. Schistosomiasis b. Epidemic Parotitis c. Diphtheria d. Filariasis

   

A - Schistosomiasis - Schistosoma Mansoni, S. Haematobium, S. Japonicum B - Epidemic Parotitis (MUMPS) Mumps Virus C Diphtheria Corynebacterium diphtheria (Klebs-Loeffler Bacillus) D - Filariasis 24. The drug of choice for Schistosomiasis that kills all types of microorganisms that can cause this communicable disease is: a. Metrifonate b. Oxamniquine c. Diethylcarbamazine Citrate d. Praziquantel

   

Schistosomiasis etiologic agents can be either of the following: Schistosoma Mansoni, S. Haematobium, S. Japonicum. Praziquantel (Biltricide) is the drug of choice against all species. Alternative drugs are Oxamniquine for S. Mansoni and Metrifonate for S. Haematobium. Diethycarbamazine Citrate (DEC) is for filariasis. 25. Treatment for filariasis includes the administration of which drug? a. Metrifonate b. Oxamniquine c. Diethylcarbamazine Citrate d. Praziquantel

   

Diethycarbamazine Citrate (DEC) or Hetrazan is used for the treatment of filariasis.