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IIT-JEE 2008 STS VII/PCM/P(I)/QNS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

Maximum Marks: 243

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling the ORS 8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. ............................................... Signature of the Candidate

I have verified all the informations filled in by the Candidate. ............................................... Signature of the Invigilator

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SEAL

Name: .

Enrollment No.:

SEAL

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A gas consisting of diatomic molecules is expanded adiabatically. How many times has the gas to be expanded to reduce the root mean square velocity of 2 molecules to of the initial value? 3 (A) 7.6 (B) 2.8 (C) 5.2 (D) 1.5 2. The wavelength of light coming from a distant galaxy is found to be 0.5% more than that coming from a source on earth. The velocity of galaxy will be (A) 1.5 10 m/s (C) 4.5 10 m/s
6 6

(B) 3 10 m/s (D) 7.5 10 m/s


7

3. A string of finite length L and linear density m hangs from a rigid support. The time taken by a transverse wave to travel the full length of the string from its free end is (A) 2 L g
10

(B) 2 L g

(C) 2

g L

(D) gL

4. When thermal neutrons are used to induce the following reaction,


5

+ n Li + He
0 3 2

alpha particles are emitted with energy 1.83 MeV. The masses of boron, neutron and alpha particles are respectively equal to 10.0167 amu, 1.00894 amu, 4.00386 amu. Calculate the mass of lithium atom. (A) 7.0187 amu (B) 7.5 amu (C) 9.01 amu (D) 8.123 amu

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5. At a given place where the acceleration due to gravity is g, a sphere of lead of density d is gently released in a column of liquid of density . If d > , the acceleration with which the sphere will fall is (A) g d d (B) g d (C) gd (D) gd d

6. If N is the number of radioactive atoms at time t and if T is its half-life period, then the rate of change of N with time is (A) log 2
e

(B)

0.693 N T

(C)

T 0.693

(D)

7. One face of a prism is silver polished. A light ray falls at an angle of 45 on the other face. After refraction, it is subsequently reflected from silver face and then retraverses its path. The angle of the prism is 30. What is its refractive index? (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.78
6

8. An air-filled parallel plate capacitor is constructed which can store 12 C charge when operated at 1200 V. The dielectric strength of air is 3 10 V/m. What is the minimum area of the plates of the capacitor? (A) 1 m
2

(B) 0.45 m

(C) 1.5 m

(D) 1.2 m

9. The orbital period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius r about a spherical planet of mass M and mean density for a low altitude orbit (r = rp) will be (A) 3 G (B) 3G (C) G (D) 2G

SECTION II Assertion-Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The power in an electrical circuit is V where V is the voltage R and R is the resistance. No net force acts on a rectangular coil carrying a steady current when suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field. The forces on the opposite sides of the coil are equal and opposite. A filament lamp emits light having a constant phase. The filament lamp emits light of different wavelengths and random phases. Rydberg s constant varies with the mass number of the given element.
2

At a constant voltage, the heat developed in a uniform wire varies inversely as the length of wire used.

11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 13. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

The reduced mass of the electron, = mass of the nucleus (M). SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

mM m M

depends on the

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SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 Two bugs each of mass 10
1 1

kg move along a circular track of radius 2 m with

identical speeds of 10 ms in the same sense. Initially the two bugs start from the two ends of a diameter. A thin massless rod is now placed along the diameter of circular track. 14. The angular momentum of the bugs is (A) 4 SI units (B) 2 SI units (C) 8 SI units (D) 6 SI units 15. If the bugs start moving along the rod and reduce their separation to 3 m, then the angular speed of the bugs is (A) 8.89 rad/s (B) 9 rad/s (C) 10.9 rad/s (D) 12 rad/s 16. The ratio of the rotational kinetic energy at the start and after bugs have moved closer is (A) 0.86 (B) 0.56 (C) 0.34 (D) 0.2 Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 A small mass slides down an inclined plane of induction with the horizontal. The coefficient of friction is = 0 x, where x is the distance through which the mass slides 17. The instantaneous acceleration of the mass is (A) g(sin 0 x cos ) (C) g(sin cos )
2

down and 0 is a constant.

(B) g(sin + 0 x cos ) (D) g(sin + cos )


2

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18. The distance covered by the mass before it comes to rest is (A) 2
0

cos

(B)

2
0

sin

(C)

2
0

tan

(D)

2
0

cot

19. The maximum speed over this distance is (A) v = g


0

max

sin tan

(B) v

max

g
0

cos sin

(C) v

max

g
0

cos cot

(D) v

max

g
0

sin cos

SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s

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20.

Column I (Moment of inertia of bodies) (A) Rod of length L and mass M about one end perpendicular to length (B) Sphere of mass M and radius R about any tangent plane (C) Circular ring of mass M and radius R about any tangent in the plane of ring (D) Cylinder of mass M, radius R and length L about its own axis

Column II (Expression for calculating them) (p) 7 5 3 2 MR


2

(q)

MR

(r) MR 2 (s) ML 3

21.

Column I (A) Energy stored in a capacitor (B) Capacitance of a body

Column II (p) (q) Q V 1 Q


2

2 C 2 K l
0

(C) Capacitance of a spherical condenser

(r)

log

b
e

(D) Capacitance of a cylindrical condenser

(s)

4 K ab
0

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22. Column I gives formulae for calculating the apparent frequency due to Doppler effect and Column II gives the different situations for which the formulae will fit. u = Speed of source emitting sound waves
s

uo = Speed of observer receiving the sound n = Original frequency v = Speed of sound in medium n = Apparent frequency Column I (A) n = n v v u u
s o

Column II (p) Both source and observer receding from each other
o

(B) n =

n v v

u u
s

(q) Both source and observer approaching each other

(C) n =

n v v n v v

u u
s

(r) Source approaching a receding observer

(D) n =

u u
s

(s) Observer approaching a receding source

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PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. 3.92 g ferrous ammonium sulphate crystals are dissolved in 100 mL of water. 20 mL of this solution requires 18 mL of KMnO4 during titration for complete oxidation. The weight of KMnO4 present in 500 mL of the solution is (A) 1.75 (B) 3.5 (C) 1.23 (D) 12.3

24. 4.0 g of argon (atomic mass = 40) in a bulb at a temperature of T K had a pressure P atm. When the bulb was placed in a bath of temperature 50C more than the first one, 0.8 g of the gas had to be removed to get the original pressure. T is equal to (A) 510 K
o

(B) 200 K

(C) 100 K

(D) 73 K
1

25. Given H for CO2(g), CO(g) and H2O(g) are 393.5, 110.5 and 241.8 kJ mol f respectively. The standard enthalpy change for the reaction (in kJ) is. CO2 (g) + H2 (g) CO (g) + H2O (g) is (A) 524.1 (B) 41.2
2

(C) 262.5
2

(D) 41.2

26. Among KO2, AlO , BaO2 and NO , unpaired electron is present in (A) NO
2

and BaO2

(B) KO2 and AlO 2 (D) BaO2 only

(C) KO2 only (A) Mn


2+

27. Which of the following contains maximum number of unpaired electrons? (B) Co
2+

(C) Co

3+

(D) Fe

2+

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28. Which of the following statements regarding P4O10 is not correct? (A) Each P atom is bonded to four O atoms. (B) P atoms are arranged tetrahedrally with respect to each other. (C) P O bonds have identical bond lengths. (D) Each P atom is bonded to one O atom with considerable p-p back bonding. 29. An aqueous solution of potassium salt of a dibasic acid on electrolysis, forms a gas X at anode and decolourises Br2 water and gives n-butane on hydrogenation with one equivalent of H . Identify the gas X and the dibasic acid respectively.
2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

30. CH CH + HOCl X (on complete reaction). X is (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

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31. The acids undergo Schmidt reaction to form a primary amine with one carbon atom less than the parent acid.

The reaction steps involve (A) an acyl nitrene intermediate (B) an alkyl isothiocyanate formation (C) an intramolecular 1,2-shift Assertion - Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: He and Ne are noble gases. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK There is intramolecular H bond in salicylic acid. Noble gases are paramagnetic in nature. Salicylic acid is a stronger acid than benzoic acid. (D) all are correct SECTION II

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34. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

K2CrO4 is yellow due to charge transfer.

CrO

2 4

ion is water soluble.


2+

2Cu Cu

+ Cu, is an example of disproportionation reaction.

Cu salts are generally insoluble in water but Cu soluble. SECTION III

2+

salts are

Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 Hyperconjugation or no bond resonance is an important method to stabilise a molecule by delocalising and electrons in conjugation. Presence of at least one allylic hydrogen is the necessary and sufficient condition to exhibit hyperconjugation.

In the structure I, there seems to be no bond between C and H but remains intact with the negatively charged carbon skeleton, hence this is also called as no bond resonance . SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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36. The decreasing order of reactivity of the following compounds towards SE reaction is

(A) I > II > III > IV (C) II > III > IV > I

(B) IV > III > II > I (D) I = II > III > IV

37. The increasing order of stability of alkyl carbocations is

(A) I > II > III > IV (C) IV < II < III < I

(B) I < III < II < IV (D) II < III < I < IV

38. In the case of following alkenes, the decreasing order of reactivity is

(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I

(C) I = II > III

(D) III > I > II

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 A glass bulb contains 2.24 L of H and 1.12 L of D at S.T.P. It is connected to a fully evacuated bulb by a stop cock with a small opening. The stop cock is opened for sometime and then closed. The first bulb now contains 0.10 g of D .
2 2 2

39. Volume of D2 diffused is (A) 0.56 L (A) 0.2 g (B) 1.4 L (B) 0.171 g (C) 5.6 L (C) 2.0 g (D) 0.14 L (D) 1.71 g

40. Total amount of gases in the second bulb is

41. Percentage of H2 and D2 gases respectively are (A) 41.2, 58.8 (B) 58.8, 41.2 (C) 50, 50 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s (D) 60, 40

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42.

Column I (A) ClO (B) Br


3

Column II (p) Number of lone pair is 1 (q) Linear (r) Number of lone pair is 3 (s) Square pyramidal Column II (p) Z < 1 at low pressures (q) uav = 8RT M

(C) BrF5 (D) NH 43.


3

Column I (A) H
2

(B) CO2 (C) CH4 (D) O2 44. Column I

(r) absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol (s) Z > 1 at all pressures Column II

(A) (B) CH3CN and CH3NC (C) CH3CH2C CH and CH3C CCH3 (D) CH3CH2OH and CH3OCH3

(p) Functional isomers (q) One of the isomers reacts with PCl5 (r) Position isomers (s) One of the isomers responds iodoform test

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PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. Through the vertex A of the parabola y = 4ax two chords AP, AQ are drawn. Circles on AP, AQ as diameters intersect at R. If 1, 2, are the angles made with the axis of the parabola by the tangents at P and Q and AR, then 2 tan is (A) tan + tan
1 2 2

(B) cot + cot


1

(C) cot 1 cot 2

(D) 5
2

46. Let a sequence z1, z2, z3, ... of complex numbers be defined by z1 = 0, zn + 1 = z + i,
n

then |z (A) 1

z1005| is 1008 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5

47. The number of real solutions of log0.5|x| = 2|x| is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 is (C) 5 (D) 1 (D) 3

48. D, E are the points of trisection of the base BC of ABC, , , are the opposite angles, then sin sin sin sin (A) 3 (B) 4

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49.

x x
4

1 3x 3x
4 4

2x 2x
6

dx is equal to 1 1 2x
6

(A)

x 2x
6

(B)

3x x
4

(C)

3x 3x
3

(D)

2x

3x x
2

50. If 0 < < 2, the interval in which lies so that 2 cos 7 cos + 3 > 0 is (A) 0 , 3 (B) 0, 3

(C)

5 , 3 3

(D)

5 3

, 2

51. A soldier is firing at a moving target. He fires 4 shots. The probability of hitting the target at first, second, third and fourth shots are 0.6, 0.4, 0.2 and 0.1 respectively. The probability that he hits the target is (A) 2 625 (B) 516 625 (C) 517 625 (D) 117 625

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52. If f(x) = cot

1 3x

x 3x (B)

1 (A) 21 3 a
2

and g(x) = cos

1 1

x x 3 2

2 2

, then Lim

f x

f a g a

xa g x

;0<a<

1 2

is

3 21 x
2

(C)

(D)

3 2

53. The sum of n terms of two AP series are in the ratio of (n + 1) : (n + 3). Then the ratio of their seventh terms is (A) 6 : 7 (B) 5 : 6 (C) 7 : 8 SECTION II Assertion - Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: because Statement 2: P E F = P EF PF . If P A B = 1 4 and P B A = 1 2 , then P(A) : P(B) = 1 : 2. (D) 4 : 3

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55. Statement 1:

If x1, x2 are two solutions of tan

x + tan

(1 x) = cot

1 7

belonging to (0, 1), then x1 + x2 = 1. because Statement 2: 56. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 57. Statement 1: because Statement 2: cos A = b
2

tan

l + tan

m = + tan

1 l

m lm

, if l, m > 0 and lm > 1.

A function f : R R satisfies f(x + y) = f(x) f(y), x, y R and f(x) 0 for any x R; f (0) = 2, then f (x) = 2f(x) for all x R. f x h h
2

f x = Lim
h0

f x

.
2

If in ABC, a cos

B 2
2

b cos

A 2
2

3c 2
2

, then a, c, b are in AP.

2bc

, cos B =

2ca

SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 There are n boxes. Each containing (n + 2) balls, i box contains i green and the remaining are blue balls. The probability that second box is chosen and a blue ball is 1 drawn from it is . 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
th

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58. The probability that fourth box is selected and a green ball is drawn is (A) 2 9 (B) 1 9 (C) 1 3 (D) 1 2

59. The probability that a blue ball is drawn either from first box or from fifth box is (A) 1 24 (B) 1 12
th

(C)

1 8

(D)

5 24

60. Ei is the event that i


i=1

box is chosen and a green ball is drawn from it. Then

PE

is

(A)

7 16

(B)

1 2

(C)

3 16

(D)

1 4

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 Summation of series (1) Method of difference: Each term is expressed as the difference of two terms. Then adding vertically certain terms get cancelled, the remaining gives sum to n terms. (2) If n
th

term = un = a(a + d) (a + 2d) ... (a + (n 1) d)

Then vn = a (a + d) ... [a + (n 1) d] (a + nd) Then un is expressed in terms of vn vn 1 . Then method of difference is followed. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(3) If u n = Then u

1 a a
n

d a

2d ... a

1 d
n

, then v =
n

1 a d a 2d ... a n 1 d

is expressed in terms of v

applied. 61. If

n 1

. Then method of difference is

r =1

t =
r

1 12

(n + 1) (n + 2) (n + 3), then

1 is r =1 t

(A) 2
1

(B) 1 2r 2 r
2

(C)

1 2

(D)

1 3

62. If u = tan
r

, then S is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 0

63. If ur = (3r + 1) (3r + 4), then S10 is (A) 12001 (B) 12003 (C) 120009 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (D) 4330

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If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 64. Column I (A) From any point on the line 2x + y = 1, tangents are drawn to x + y 4x 8 = 0, then the chords of contact pass through the point (B) From P(2, 4) on y = 8x, perpendicular chords are drawn, then the chords through other extremities pass through the point
2 2 2

q q q q q

r r r r r

s s s s s Column II (p) (3, 4)

p p p p

(q) ( 6, 4)

(C) From a point on the line x = 3, perpendicular (r) tangents are drawn to the ellipse 9x + 16y = 144, then the point is (D) H and H are the foci of the ellipse 4x + 9y = 36. P is a point on the ellipse such that area of HPH is 10 sq. units, then P is
2 2 2 2

3 2

, 2

(s) (10, 4)

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65. (A) If

Column I

Column II
4 3 2

k =1 m=1

= An + Bn + Cn + Dn + e,

(p)

1 4

then value of A is x (B) Let x x


2

3x x 1 x 3 4 3 2 1 2x x 4 = ax + bx + cx + dx + e 3 x 4 3x

(q)

1 12

is an identity in x and a, b, c, d, e are independent of x, then value of e is (C) If sin x + sin y = 3(cos y cos x), then value of sin 2x + sin 2y is (D) If {x} denotes the fractional part of x, then (where n is a positive integer) 66. Column I (A) The area of the triangle formed by the distinct roots of 1 + z + z + z = 0 is (B) The area of the triangle formed by the roots of z + iz + 2i = 0 is (C) The number of solutions of tan x = 1 + x in (D) The value of cos 5 + cos 10 + ... + cos 90 is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
2 2 2 3 2 3 4

(r) 5
2n

1 8

is (s) 0

Column II (p) 17 2 3 3 4

(q)

, 2 is (r) 3 (s) 2

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 25

Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 26

IIT-JEE 2008 STS VII/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS BRILLIANT S HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS


PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I 1. (A) RMS velocity absolute temperature v1 v2 T
1

2 2

v v

1 2

3 2

T T But T v

1 2 1

3 2
1

1 1

=T v

2 2 1

T T

1 2

v v

2 1

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 1

2
2 1 1.4 1 25

3 2 v v
2 1

v v

2 1 5 2

v v

2 1

v v

2 1

3 2

3 2

243 32

= 7.6

2. (A) Using Doppler shift formula for spectral lines, we get = 0.5 100 = v c
6

Velocity of galaxy v = 1.5 10 m/s. 3. (A) Velocity of transverse wave in a string = T m

Tension T(x) at a distance x below = weight of string below that point T(x) = Speed of wave = M L T x m gx = mgx = gx

As the wave travels, its speed changes from point to point. From point x to x + dx, let the wave travel in dt second dx = v(x) dt t= 4. (A) B
10

dx = v x
1

dx = 2 gx
0

L g

+ 0n 5B11 3Li7 + 2He4 + Q


7

The energy Q produced by reaction is in the form of kinetic energy of 3Li

and 2He4. Since the compound nucleus B11 is at rest, the product nuclei will the velocity of Li and He respectively. 7v1 = 4v2 Total kinetic energy, Q = =
2 1 7v 1 2 7 4

move in the opposite direction to conserve the momentum. Let v1 and v2 be

4v

2 2

2 1 4v 1 2 2

4 7

Qv =
1

4 v 7 2

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 2

Kinetic energy of He nuclei = Q = 1.83

1 2

4 v = 1.83 MeV 2

11 1.83 11 3 MeV = amu = 3.08 10 amu 7 7 931 10.0167 + 1.00894 Li + 4.00386 + 0.00308
7

The reaction can be written as Mass of Li7 = 7.0187 amu 5. (A) If V is the volume of sphere, mass of sphere = Vd Net force acting on the sphere = weight upward thrust = Vdg Vg acceleration = force mass =
e

Vdg

Vg Vd

g d d

6. (B) Half-life period, T = log 2


e

log 2

0.693 , where is decay constant.

= dN dt = =

T N log 2
e

N =

0.693 N T

7. (B) Light ray must fall normally at silvered face in order to retraverse the path. It is clear from the Figure, the angle of refraction at the first surface is 30. = = sin 45 sin 30 1 2 2 1

= 2 8. (B) Q = 12 10
6

C, V = 1200 V Q V = 12 10 1200
6 6

Capacitance =

= 10

Farad

Dielectric strength = 3 10 V/m


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If t is thickness and operating voltage is 1200 V and x is the distance between plates then, 1200 = 3 106 x x = 4 10 Capacitance = A
0 4

m 4 10
2 4

or A =

10
12

8.85 10 A = 0.45 m

9. (A) We have, v=

mv r 2 r T

GMm r
2

4 r rT
2

2 2

GMm r
2

T= M=

2 r 4 3

3 2

GM r3 and r = rp 2 r G
3 2 p

T=

3 4 r p 3

3 G SECTION II

10. (A) P = i R = 11. (A)

. Since R varies directly as the length, the heat produced varies R inversely as the length of the wire.

12. (D) A filament lamp emits light of different wavelengths and random phases. The phases change rapidly with time. The phase remains constant only during a short time interval of the order of 10 13. (A) The reduced mass of electron, =
4

to 10

10

second.

being dependent on the mass of the m M nucleus, the Rydberg constant also varies with mass number of given element.
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 4

mM

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SECTION III 14. (A) If I is the moment of inertia of the two bugs about an axis passing through centre, then I = (10 ) 2 + (10 ) 2 = 0.8 kg-m
1 2 1 2 2

The angular momentum of system = I = 0.8 5 = 4 SI units 15. (A) When the bugs reduce the separation between them to 3 m, the moment of inertia of system, I = 2 10
1

(1.5) = 4.5 10

kg-m = 0.45 kg-m

As the bugs move along the rod, the torque applied to the system is zero and hence the angular momentum should be conserved. L = L = I I = 0.8 5 0.45 rad s K K
1

= 8.89 rad s I
2 2

16. (B) Ratio of rotational kinetic energy,

0.8 5

2 2

= 0.56

0.45 8.89

17. (A) We consider the mass at the instant when it has slide down a distance x along the inclined plane. Net downward force at this instant = mg sin F = mg sin R = mg sin (0 x) mg cos = mg (sin 0 x cos ) The instantaneous acceleration = mg sin x cos
0

= g (sin 0 x cos ) 18. (C) a = dv dt =


2 dv dx dv 1 d = v = v dx dt dx 2 dx

2 1 d v = g sin 2 dx

x cos
0

d(v2) = 2g (sin 0 x cos ) dx


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Let S be the distance covered by the mass before its stops again

d v = 2g sin
2 0 0

x cos dx
0 S

0 = 2g sin x

S 0

2g cos
0 2

2 0

2g sin S 2g 0 (cos )

S =0 2

Since S 0, 2 sin = 0 cos S S= 2


0

tan

19. (A) The maximum velocity is attained at the instant, the instantaneous acceleration becomes zero. This happens for a value x0 of x for which, g (sin 0 x cos ) = 0. x =
0 v

1
0

sin cos
x
0

tan
0

d v = 2g
2 0 0

max

sin

x cos dx
0 2 0

2 max

= 2g sin x

g cos x
0

Substituting the value of x0 = g


0

tan
0

, we get

max

sin tan SECTION IV

20. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r) 21. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) 22. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (q); (D) (p)
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PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I 23. (A) Equivalent weight of FeSO4 (NH4)2 SO4 6H2O = 392 Normality = 3.92 392 1000 100
4

= 0.1 N

20 0.1 = 18 N N =
4

KMnO

KMnO

20 0.1 1 = N 18 9

Equivalent weight of KMnO4 (in acid medium) = Equivalent mass 5 = 31.6 Amount of KMnO4 in 500 mL = 1 31.6 = 1.755 g 9 2 24. (B) PV = PV = 4 40 4 RT 50 50 1.75 g

0.8 R T 40

3.2 4 RT = R T 40 40 0.1T = 0.08T + 4 T = 200 K 25. (B) H


reaction

= H

CO

H O
2

CO

= 110.5 + ( 241.8) [ 393.5 + 0] = 41.2 kJ 26. (C) NO2 contains three electron bond and in NO removed.

odd (unpaired) electron is

Peroxides O

2 2

do not have unpaired electron, as the antibonding

molecular orbitals acquired one more electron each for pairing.

AlO

which does not contain unpaired electron.


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is obtained by the interaction of Al

3+

(2s 2p ) and O

ions each of

Superoxide O
2+ 5

orbital and is hence paramagnetic. 27. (A) Mn Co (25): 3d , 4s (5 unpaired e )


7 0 0

has one unpaired electron in antibonding molecular

2+

(27): 3d , 4s (3 unpaired e )

Co3+ (27): 3d6, 4s0 (4 unpaired e ) Fe2+ (26): 3d6, 4s0 (4 unpaired e ) 28. (C)

29. (A) Since gas X decolourises Br2 water, it indicates that it has a double bond. On reduction, it takes up one equivalent of H2 which indicates that there is only one double bond (C = C). Gas X on reduction gives n-butane, X is either butene-1 or butene-2.

So X is butene-2 and dibasic acid is

30. (C)

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31. (D)

SECTION II 32. (A) o-substituted benzoic acids are usually stronger acids than benzoic acids regardless of nature of substituent. This is called ortho effect. Intramolecular H-bonding stabilises the o-substituted benzoate ion thereby increasing the Ka value, i.e., salicylic acid is stronger than benzoic acid.

33. (D) Noble gases are diamagnetic in nature since they contain completed shells. 34. (B) 35. (B) In the reaction, the same element is present in different oxidation states +1 and +2, and hence it is a disproportionation reaction. SECTION III

36. (A)

37. (B) Increasing order of stability of alkyl cations

In alkyl carbocations, C-atoms adjacent to positively charged carbon can be stabilised via hyperconjugation.
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10

38. (B)

Since cis > trans, trans-2-butene (II) is more stable than cis-2-butene (I). cis-2-butene gives 2 carbocation (less stable) while isobutylene (III) gives a 3 carbocation (more stable).

Hence III is more stable than I and II. the correct order of stability is 39. (A) 22.4 L g of H2 at STP weighs = 2 g 2.24 L of H2 at STP weighs = 2 2.24 = 0.2 g 22.4 Similarly, amount of D2 = 1.12 4 = 0.2 g 22.4 Amount of D2 present after opening the stop cock = 0.10 g Amount of D2 diffused = 0.2 0.10 = 0.1 g Volume of D2 diffused = 0.1 22.4 = 0.56 L 4 40. (B) Let the volume of H2 diffused from first bulb be x L. According to Graham s law, Rate, r = v t

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11

r H

x t

and r D x

0.56 t

r H r D

2 2

t 0.56 t M D M H
2 2

r H r D x

2 2

4 2

t 4 = = 2 0.56 2 t x = 0.56 2 = 0.792 L Amount of D2 in the second bulb = 0.1 g Amount of H2 in the second bulb = 0.792 2 = 0.0707 g 22.4 Total amount of gases = 0.1 + 0.0707 = 0.1707 g 0.171 g 41. (A) Percentage of H2 gas = 0.0707 100 0.1707 = 41.2 Percentage of D2 gas = 100 41.2 = 58.8 SECTION IV 42. (A) (q), (r); (B) (q), (r); (C) (p), (s); (D) (p) 43. (A) (q), (s); (B) (p), (q); (C) (p), (q), (r); (D) (q), (r), (s) 44. (A) (p), (q); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (p), (q), (s)
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12

PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I 45. (B) The circle on AP and AQ as diameters are x x and x x at
2 1 2 2

y y y y

2at

1 2

=0 =0

at

2at

where t1 and t2 are parameters of P and Q chord AR is x (t1 + t2) + 2y = 0 Slope of AR = t


1

t 2

= tan

Slope of the tangent at t1 = 1 = tan 1 t


1

Slope of the tangent at t2 =

1 t
2

= tan 2

cot 1 + cot 2 = (t1 + t2) = 2 tan 46. (D) z2 = z + i = 0 + i = i


1 2

z3 = i2 + i = 1 + i z4 = ( 1 + i)2 + i = i z5 = ( i)2 + i = 1 + i z2n = i ; n > 1 z2n + 1 = 1 + i |z1008 z1005| = | i ( 1 + i)| = | i + 1 i| = |1 2i| = 1 = 5


2x 2 2

47. (B) The equation is

1 2
2x

= x
2x

The graphs of
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1 2

and

1 2

are shown in the next page.


IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 12

13

The line y = x cuts the curve


2x

y=

1 2
2x

at x =

1 2

The line y = x cuts the curve y= 1 2 at x = 1 2

The number of solutions is 2. x= 1 1 and x = satisfy the equation. 2 2 sin BE sin DC = = sin B AE sin C AD

48. (B) In ABE, In ADC,

sin ( + ) sin ( + ) = From ABD, From AEC, sin sin = 1 2 49. (C) I = gives sin B sin C BE DC AE AD BD sin EC = = sin B AD sin C AE ... (2) =
7

... (1)

sin

sin B sin C BD EC AD AE sin sin sin = BE DC BD EC x 2


3

sin
4

2BD 2BD BD BD dx

=4

x
7

1 3 x
2 2

dx = 1 x
6 6

x
2

3x

Put u = 2 3x du = (6x = 6(x

+x

6x

) dx

x ) dx
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 13

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14

du I=

6u = 1 du = 1 6 u 3
= = 1 3 2

c 3x 3 x
2 2

1 2 3

1 x 3x
6 4

c 1 c

6 = 1 2x 3 3x

50. (C) (2 cos 1) (cos 3) > 0 cos > 3 or cos < 1 2 cos > 3 is not possible

5 , 3 3

51. (C) Required probability = 1 P {he hits at none of the four shots} =1 =1 1 6 10 1 4 10 1 2 10 1 1 10

4 689 =1 10000 = =

1728 10000

4136 5000 517 625

52. (C) f(x) =

2 f x

3 tan f a g a

x; g(x) = 2 tan 0 form 0

x
1 1

xa

Lt

g x

3 tan 2 tan

3 tan 2 tan 3
2

1 1

By L Hospital rule, required limit =

1 2 1

a a

=
2

3 2

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 14

15

n 53. (C) 2 n 2 a a

2a 2a n 2 n 2 n

n n 1 1

1 d = 1 d d = d 1 =6
7 7

n n

1 3

n n

1 3

Putting

2 T T

a a

6d 6d

13 13

1 14 7 = = 3 16 8

SECTION II 54. (A) Because of statement 2, P P Dividing 55. (B) tan


1

A B

1 4

P AB P B

B 1 P AB = = A 2 P A

1 2

P A P B
1 1

x + tan

(1 x) = tan

9 7
1

Here x > 0, 1 x > 0 and x(1 x) < 1 we get, tan tan


2 1

x 1 1

1 x 1 1 x x

x x
2

= tan
1

9 7

= tan

9 7

9x 9x + 9 7 = 0 9x2 9x +2 = 0 (3x 1) (3x 2) = 0 x= x 1 2 , 3 3 x =


2

1 3

2 =1 3
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 15

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16

56. (A) f x = Lt
h 0

f x

h h

f x

= Lt f x f h h h 0 = Lt f x
h 0

f x

because of the rule

f h h f h h

1 Q by rule, f(0 + 0) = f(0) f(0) f(0) {f(0) 1} = 0 f(0) 0 , f(0) = 1

= f x

Lt
h0

f 0

= f(x) f(0) = f(x) 2 = 2f(x) S2 S1 57. (B) The equation is a 1 cos B 2 b 1 cos A 2 = 3c 2

a + b + (a cos B + b cos A) = 3c a + b + c = 3c [By projection formula, a cos B + b cos A = c] a + b = 2c a, c, b are in A.P. S1 is true and S2 is true but S2 does not necessarily imply S1. SECTION III 58. (B) Probability (second box is selected and a blue ball drawn from it) = n=6 probability (fourth box is selected and a green ball drawn) = 59. (D) Required probability = 60. (A) Required probability = = 1 7 6 8 1 1 6 8 1 21 6 8 1 3 10 5 = = 6 8 48 24 2 8 = 7 16
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 16

1 n 2 2 1 n 1 = = n n 2 n n 2 8 1 4 1 = 6 6 9

3 8

4 8

5 8

6 8

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17

61. (C) tr = Sr Sr 1 = 1 t
r

1 12 4

(r + 1) (r + 2) [r + 3 r] = 1 r 4 2

1 r

1 r

Let it be ur, vr = 4 r 2 r r 1 r 1 r 2 2 = ( 4) ur

vr vr 1 = 4

ur = 1 [vr vr 1] 4 u1 = 1 [v1 v0] 4 u2 = 1 [v2 v1] 4

un = 1 [un un 1] 4 S =
n

1 v 4 n

1 4

4 n 4 4 2 2

4 2 n 2 2

= S = Lt 1 2
1

2 n

n 0

4 n

1 2 2r

62. (B) u r = tan

1
1

r r
2

1 r 1

r r

1 1

r r

= tan

1 r
2

r
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 17

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18

= tan

(r2 + 1 + r) tan
1 1

(r2 + 1 r)

u1 = tan u2 = tan

3 tan 7 tan

1 1

1 3

un = tan Sn = tan S = 2

(n + 1 + n) tan
2

(n + 1 n)

(n + 1 + n) tan 4

63. (D) vr = (3r + 1) (3r + 4) (3r + 7) vr vr 1 = (3r + 1) (3r + 4) (3r + 7) (3r 2) (3r + 1) (3r + 4) = (3r + 1) (3r + 4) (9) = 9ur ur = 1 [vr vr 1] 9 u1 = 1 [v1 v0] 9 u2 = 1 [v2 v1] 9 u3 = 1 [v3 v2] 9

u10 = 1 [v10 v9] 9 S10 = = 1 [v v ] 10 0 9 1 9 3134 37 28

= 4330
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19

SECTION IV 64. (A) (q); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (r) (A) Any point on the line 2x + y = 1 is (x1, 1 2x1). Equation of the chord of contact of the circle is xx1 + y(1 2x1) 2(x + x1) 8 = 0 x1 (x 2y 2) + (y 2x 8) = 0 It passes through the intersection of x 2y = 2, 2x y = 8 Solving, the point is ( 6, 4) (B) PQ, PR are perpendicular chords through P(2, 4). Let Q and R be [2 t , 4t1] [2 t , 4t2]
1 2 2 2

Slope of PQ Slope of PR = 1 4 2 2 1 t
1

4t 2t
2 1

4 2 2 =
2

4t 2t
2 2

(1 t1) (1 t2) = 4 1 (t1 + t2) + t1t2 = 4 t1t2 = 5 + (t1 + t2) QR is the chord through the other extremities. Equation of QR is y(t1 + t2) = 2x + 4(t1t2) Substituting equation (1), y(t1 + t2) = 2x + 4 [ 5 + (t1 + t2)] (t1 + t2) [y 4] 2x + 20 = 0 It passes through the intersection of y 4 = 0 y=4 Point is (10, 4) (C) Any point on the line is (3, y1) The director circle x + y = 25 Q (3, y1) lies on the circle
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2 2

... (1)

2x + 20 = 0 2x = 20 x = 10 ... (1) ... (2)

20

9 + y = 25
1

y = 16
1

y1 = 4 One point is (3, 4) (D) x 9


2 2

y =1 4 4 = 9(1 e ) 1e = e2 = e=
2 2

4 9 5 9 5 3

H is [ 5 , 0] and H = [ 5 , 0] Let P be (x1, y1) Area of HPH = 1 [x1 (0 0) + 5 (0 y1) 5 (y1 0)] = 10 2 5 y = 10
1

y =
1 2

10 5

= 2

4 x 1 + 9 2 = 36 4 x 1 = 18 x =
1 2 2

9 2 3 2

x =
1

Point is

3 2

, 2

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 20

21

65. (A) (q); (B) (s); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A)

k =1

m=1

k=1

k k
2

1 2k 6

k =1

k 2k
n

3k 6
n

2
n

1 3

k =1 2

k n

1 2 1
2

k=1

1 3

k=1

k
1 1 n n 3 2 1 6

n = 1 3 =n A= 1 12
4

1 n n
3

1 2n n 4

4 1 12 n 3

3n 6

(B) This is an identity in x. Put x = 0 0 1 3 1 0 4 3 4 =e 0 0=e e=0 (C) 3 cos x + sin x = 3 cos y sin y LHS Put r cos = 3; r sin = 1 r = 10; r = 10 10 cos (x ), where tan = 3 RHS r cos = 3; r sin = 1 r = 10; r = 10 10 cos (y + ) = 10 cos (y + ) cos (x ) = cos (y + ) x = (y + ) x = (y + ) x=y+2
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2 2

1( 12) + 3(4) = e

tan = 3 =

x=y; x=y

22

x = y satisfies the given relation, 2x = 2y sin 2x = sin ( 2y) = sin 2y sin 2x + sin 2y = 0 (D) 52n = (52)n = (25)n = (1 + 24)n = 1 + C1 (24) + C2 (24) + ... + Cn (24)
n n 2 n n

= 1 + nC1 8 3 + nC2 82 32 + ... + nCn 8n 3n 1 5 = + integer 8 8 5


2n 2n

8
3

1 8

66. (A) (q); (B) (s); (C) (s); (D) (p) (A) (1 + z) (1 + z ) = 0 Roots are 1, 1, 1 3i 2 1 2
2

Distinct roots are 1,

3 2

i,

1 2

3 2

1, , ( is a cube roots of unity) Length of a side = |1 2| = |2| | 1| = | 1| II side = |2 | = || | 1| = | 1| III side = | 1| Equilateral triangle of side is Area = 3
2

1 2

3 i 2

1 = 3

3 4

3 3 4

(B) (z i) (z + 2iz 2) = 0 z = i, 2i 4i 2 i, 1 i, 1 i Points are (0, 1) (1, 1) ( 1, 1) Area = 2 sq. units


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2

23

(C) Solutions of the equations are the points of intersection of the curves y = tan x and y = x + 1.

There are two points of intersections. There are two solutions.


2

(D) cos2 45 = cos2 90 = 0

1 2

1 2

5, 10, ..., 40, 50, ..., 85 cos2 5 + cos2 85 = cos2 5 + sin2 5 = 1 cos2 10 + cos2 80 = cos2 10 + sin2 10 = 1 There are eight such pairs. Required value = 8 + 1 1 17 =8 = 2 2 2

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BRILLIANT S
FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS

IIT-JEE 2008 STS VII/PCM/P(II)/QNS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES


IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
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A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 24 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. 6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling the ORS 8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

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4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains questions 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A resistance is in the form of a truncated cone. The end radii are a and b and the altitude is l. If the taper is small and its specific resistance is , what is its resistance between plane surface? (A) (C) l ab l b (B) (D) l b l b a a

2. A copper wire of resistivity 1 and an iron wire of resistivity 2 have the same length and same potential difference is applied to their ends. If the current in them are to be equal, what should be the ratio of their radii? (A) r r r r
1 2 1 2

(B)

r r

1 2 1 2

1 2

2 2 1

(C)

(D)

r r

1 2

3. A mass m is fastened to one end of a massless spring of natural length a and spring constant k. Holding the other end, a person whirls the apparatus in a horizontal circle at an angular velocity . The radius of the circle is (A) k k
2

(B) k

m ka

(C) k

ka m
2

(D)

ka m
2

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4. A body of density is released from rest at a height h into a lake of water (density ) where > . Neglecting all dissipative forces, calculate the maximum depth to which the body sinks before returning to float on the surface. (A) h (B) h (C) h (D) h

5. In a coil having an inductance, a change in current from 5 to 10 amp taking place is 0.1 second induces a voltage of 10 volts. The change in the magnetic energy of the coil will be (A) 15 J (B) 7.5 J (C) 10 J (D) 20 J 6. An equilateral triangle of side a is formed from a piece of uniform resistance wire. The current enters in one corner and leaves out of the other. The magnetic field at the centre O due to current in the loop will be

(A)

3 i
0

4a

(B)

i
0

2a

(C) zero

(D)

3 i
0

2a

7. When a bright source is placed 30 cms in front of a lens, there is an erect image 7.5 cm from lens. Find the focal length of the lens. (A) 30 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 10 cm
3 3

(D) 30 cm
4 3

8. 12 g of a gas is occupying a volume 4 10

m at a temperature of 7C. After the g/cm .

gas is heated at constant pressure, its density becomes equal to 6 10 The temperature to which the gas has been heated will be equal to (A) 1127C (B) 300 K (C) 1157 K (D) 2000 K

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9. A wire shaped to a regular hexagon of side 2 cm carries a current of 2 amp. The magnetic induction at the centre of the hexagon is (A) 2.93 10 (C) 4 10
5 5

Wb/m
2

(B) 6.93 10 (D) 12 10

Wb/m
2

Wb/m

Wb/m

SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: During -decay of a nucleus we get the product nucleus the -particle and another particle which may be a neutrino or an anti-neutrino. This is in accordance with the principle of conservation of energy and momentum. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted by a photoelectric surface depends on the intensity of radiation. The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons changes only with the change in frequency of the incident radiation. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

because Statement 2: 11. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

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12. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

The e.m.f of a cell is greater than the potential difference between its terminals as measured by a voltmeter. When current is drawn from the cell the potential difference across the internal resistance is to be taken into account and the e.m.f will be greater than the potential difference measured by voltmeter. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic ideal gas. The molar specific heat at constant volume is 2R, where R is molar gas constant.

13. Statement 1:

because Statement 2: For a monoatomic gas C =


v

3 2

R and for a diatomic gas C =


v

5 2

R.

SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 A metal sphere of mass one kg is heated by means of a heater of capacity 20 W in a room at 20C. The temperature of the sphere becomes steady at 50C. 14. What is the rate of loss of heat of the surrounding, when the ball is at 50C? (A) 20 W (B) 15 3 W (C) 50 3 W (D) 40 3 W

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15. Assuming Newton s law of cooling, calculate the rate of loss of heat to the surroundings, when the ball is at 30C. (A) 20 3 W (B) 10 3 W (C) 20 7 W (D) 10 7 W

16. What is the specific heat capacity of the metal sphere? Assuming that the temperature of ball rises uniformly from 20C to 30C in five minutes. (A) 500 J/kg-K (C) 400 J/kg-K (B) 250 J/kg-K (D) 200 J/kg-K

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 Blocks A and B shown in the Figure are connected with a bar of negligible weight. A and B each weighs 170 kg, the coefficient of friction between A and the plane is 0.2 and that between B and the plane is 0.4 (g = 10 m/sec )
2

17. What is the total force of friction between the blocks and plane? (A) 900 N 35 17
2

(B) 700 N 25 17
2

(C) 600 N 15 17
2

(D) 300 N 5 17
2

18. What is the acceleration of the system? (A) msec (B) m sec (C) m sec (D) msec

19. What is the force acting on the connecting bar? (A) 150 N (B) 100 N (C) 75 N (D) 95 N SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s

20. Column I gives statements regarding the placement and combination and Column II gives the corresponding changes in behaviour and focal length. Column I Column II (A) A lens is placed in a medium for which is less than that of the lens (B) A lens is placed in a medium for which is equal to that of the lens (C) A convex lens and concave lens of equal focal length are combined (D) A lens of focal length f is cut into two equal halves parallel to the principal axis (p) The intensity of image is decreased (q) Focal length increases and power decreases (r) Focal length becomes infinity and power becomes zero (s) It acts like a glass state

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21. Column I gives the different conductors carrying current and Column II gives the magnetic induction due to current passing through them. Match them. Column I (A) Infinitely long straight conductor at a distance r from the wire At a point x >> r on the axis of a circular coil carrying current where number of turns is N, area of cross section is A At the centre of a circular coil carrying current A long wire with semi-circular loop of radius r (p) Column II
0

2 Ni r 2 Ni A x
3

4
0

(B)

(q)

(C)

(r)

i
0

4r
0

(D)

(s)

2i

4 r

22. Column I lists the series observed in Hydrogen spectrum and Column II lists the position in the spectrum. Match them. Column I Column II (A) Lyman series (p) Visible region (B) Balmer series (C) Pfund series (D) Paschan series (q) Ultraviolet region (r) Infrared region (s) Far-infrared region SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. Calculate the energy in the reaction 2 H
1 1 1 0 4

2 n He
2

(Given H = 1.00813 amu; n = 1.00897 amu; He = 4.00388 amu) (A) 931 Mev (B) 28.2 MeV (C) 100 MeV (D) 92 MeV 24. Ligands in a complex salt are (A) anions linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion. (B) cations linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion. (C) molecules linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion. (D)ions or molecules linked to a central atom or ion by coordinate bonds. 25. PbBr4 and PbI4 do not exist because (A) they are of high molecular masses. (B) they are not soluble in water. (C) Pb
4+

is a strong oxidising agent and Br and I are strong reducing agents. x m

(D)all the above. 26. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of log slope equal to (A) k (B) log k (C) n Vs log p is linear with the 1 n

(D)

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27. An exothermic reaction X Y, has E = 30 kJ mol . If energy change E during the reaction is 20 kJ, then the activation energy for the reverse reaction is (A) 30 kJ (B) 20 kJ (C) 50 kJ (D) 10 kJ
a

28. Which statement about Na2S4O6 is correct? (A) Oxidation state of all the atoms is 2.5. (B) Two S atoms have oxidation state + 2, while the other two have oxidation state + 3. (C) Three S atoms have oxidation state + 3, the fourth S atom has oxidation state + 4. (D)Two S atoms have oxidation state + 5, while the other two S atoms have oxidation state zero. 29. Compound X, C8H8O can be oxidised with KMnO4 to Y having molecular formula C8H6O4. Y is dicarboxylic acid but does not give an anhydride on heating. Y gives only one monobromide (Z) with Fe/Br2, Z has the formula C8H5BrO4. Compound X is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) B and C

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30. Following are two reactions (i) (CH ) CBr + NaOEt


33

(ii) C H Br + NaO t-Bu


2 5

To prepare methyl-t-butyl ether, the correct method is (A) (i) (C) both (i) and (ii) 31. (B) (ii) (D) none . Y is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) SECTION II

Assertion Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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32. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 34. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

CH O C H boils at low temperature than its isomer C H OH.


3 2 5 3 7

CH O C H is less miscible with water than C H OH.


3 2 5 3 7

Benzaldehyde undergoes aldol condensation with dilute alkali.

Benzaldehyde has no -hydrogen atom. Lead (Pb ) is placed in the first as well as second group of qualitative analysis.
2+

Both PbCl2 and PbS are not very much soluble in water. When HCl gas is passed through a saturated solution of common salt, pure NaCl is precipitated.

NaCl is insoluble in water. SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 When 1-pentyne (X) is treated with strong alcoholic KOH at 175C, it is converted into an equilibrium mixture of 1.3% of 1-pentyne (X) and 95.2% of 2-pentyne (Y) and 3.5% of 1, 2-pentadiene (Z). The equilibrium is maintained at 175C. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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36. G for the equilibrium Y


1

X, is (B) 16.0 kJ mol


1 1

(A) 16.0 kJ mol

1 1

(C) 12.3 kJ mol


o 2

(D) 12.3 kJ mol Z, is (B) 16.0 kJ mol

37. G for the equilibrium Y (A) 12.3 kJ mol


1 1

1 1

(C) 16.0 kJ mol (A) X > Y > Z

(D) 12.3 kJ mol (C) Z > X > Y

38. Stability order of X, Y and Z is (B) Y > Z > X (D) Y > X > Z

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 Oxidation states of elements of group-13: According to electronic configuration of valence shell, ns p of these elements these should show +1 and +3 oxidation states. Boron shows only + 3 state but other elements show +1 to +3 states. The + 1 oxidation state becomes more and more stable on moving down the group from B to Tl. Thus Tl(I) compounds are more stable than that of Tl(II). 39. The wrong statement about boric acid is (A) It is a very weak acid. (B) It is a tribasic acid since formula of boric acid is H3BO3. (C) It is not a proton donor but behaves as a Lewis acid. (D)When heated with ethanol, it forms highly volatile ethyl borate. 40. Which of the following statements about aluminium is not correct? (A) It liberates hydrogen from acids as well as alkalies. (B) It liberates hydrogen from acids and not from alkalies. (C) It liberates hydrogen from hot alkali solution. (D)It liberates hydrogen from boiling water. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
2 1

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41. BX3 are known but BH3 is not known because (A) in BH , hydrogen atoms have no free electrons.
3

(B) boron hydrides are covalent in nature and chances of p-p back bonding are least. (C) boron has incomplete octet and hence BH3 dimerizes to form B2H6. (D)all the above. SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 42. Column I (A) Carbon (B) Lead (C) Silicon (D) Germanium p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) group 14 element (q) sp hybridisation (r) allotropy (s) strong catenation SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
3

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43. (A)

Column I

Column II (p) Litmus test

(B) (C)

(q) Effervescence with NaHCO3 (r) Reaction with NaOH solution

(D) 44. Column I (A) KCN solution (B) 0.01 M NaOH (D) BaSO solution
4

(s) Anhydrous ZnCl2 /HCl (conc) Column II (p) h = K


b w

K c

(q) pH < 7 (s) pH > 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(C) (CH3COOH + CH3COONa) (r) Buffer

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PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. Let f(x) be a function whose domain is [ 3, 9]. Let g(x) = |2x + 7|. Then the domain of fg(x) is (A) [0, 1] (B) [ 6, 1] (C) [ 8, 1] (D) [3, 4] k x 2 (D) 9 , then the value of k is

46. If the line joining (0, 4) and (7, 3) is a tangent to y = (A) 1


n

(B) 3
n+2

(C) 4

47. Let f(n) = 10 + 3 4 f(n) for all n is (A) 5

+ 5, n N. The greatest value of the integer which divides (C) 9 a b c d


2 2

(B) 3

(D) 27

48. If a, b, c, d are real numbers and A = (A) 2ad


2 2

and A (a + d)A + I = 0, then is (D) ad + bc


2 2

(B) 2bc

(C) ad bc
2

49. The area bounded by the circles x + y = 1 and x + y = 4 and the rays given by 2x 3xy 2y = 0, y > 0 is (A) 50. In ABC if A = (A) ab (B) 4 9 2 2 9 (C)
2

3 4
2

(D) 2

, B=

, then a b is (C) ca (D) a


2

(B) bc

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51. The position vector of 3 points are 3 i j 2k, i j respectively. ABC is equilateral, then R is such that (A) it is equal to 3 (C) it is equal to 52. The value of (A) 2 27 2 1 x cot 4
7

3k, 4i

3j

(B) it is equal to 1 (D) it has no value x 1 x dx is

1 2

(B)

(C) 2

(D) 0

53. The intercept made by a variable line on |x| = a, subtends a right angle at (2a, 0). Then the line is a tangent to a fixed (A) circle (B) parabola (C) ellipse SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. (D) hyperbola

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54. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 55. Statement 1:

0 2

sin

x 2

dx =

3 8

sin x dx =

n n

1 2

. where n is even cos 5 cos 2 i sin 5 i sin 2 is

The value of

cos 4 cos 3

i sin 4 i sin 3

(cos + i sin ) because Statement 2: 56. Statement 1: If n is an integer, (cos + i sin ) = cos n + i sin n If a, b , c are non-zero vectors such that they are pairwise noncollinear and a 2b is collinear with c and b 3c is collinear with a, then a 2b 6c = 0 If x and y are collinear, then x = t y where t is a scalar. Solution to sin x + cos y + 2 = 4 sin x cos y is sin x = cos y
2 2 2 4 4 n

because Statement 2: 57. Statement 1: because Statement 2: If a + b + c = 0, then each of a, b, c is zero. SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 If n is an integer, then (cos + i sin ) = cos n + i sin n All the values of (cos + i sin ) where k = 0, 1, 2, 3, . . . , n 1 58. The product of all the values of (1 + i) (A) 1
3 1/5 1/n n

are given by cos

2k n

i sin

2k n

is (D) 1 i
3 3

(B) 2

(C) 1 + i

59. If z 1 = 0 has , as non-real roots, then the value of (1 + 3 + ) (5 + 5 + 7) is (A) 0 (B) 5 1 3 (A) 6 (B) 3 i
8

(C) 5 is

(D) 7

60. The amplitude of

(C)

2 3

(D)

2 3

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 ax + bx + c is a quadratic expression. Case I: a > 0 and D > 0 Then ax + bx + c > 0 if and only if x lies outside the interval [, ] where , are the roots of ax + bx + c = 0, ax + bx + c < 0 if and only if x lies between the roots of 2 ax + bx + c = 0 Case II: D < 0 If a is positive, ax + bx + c > 0 for all real x if discriminant D = b 4ac < 0. If a is negative, then ax + bx + c < 0 for all real x, if D = b 4ac < 0 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

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61. The number of integral values of x for which 5x 1 < (x + 1) < 7x 3 is (A) 0 (B) 1
2

(C) 3

(D) infinite

62. The solution set of log1/3 (x + x + 1) > 1 is (A) R, set of reals (C) ( 2, 1) 63. If x
2 2

(B) [ 1, 2) (D) ( , 1) (1, )

kx x

1 1

< 2 holds for all real x, then k belongs to (B) (7, 8) (C) (8, 10) SECTION IV (D) ( 2, 0)

(A) (0, 4)

Matrix - Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s

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64.

Column I (A) If , are the roots of x 2x + 3 = 0, then the equation whose roots are 3 + 5 2 and + + 5 is (B) The roots of the quadratic equation 8x 10x + 3 = 0 are and , > the equation whose roots are ( + i ) and ( i )
100 2 2
2

Column II
3 2

(p) x 2x + 49 = 0

(q) x 52x + 576 = 0 1 2


100

. Then

is
2 2

(C) If , are the roots of x + 6x + 5 = 0, then the equation whose roots are ( + ) and ( ) is (D) The quadratic equation whose one root is square 8 3 is root of 47 65. Column I (A) The value of 1 +
10 2

(r) x + x + 1 = 0

(s) x 3x + 2 = 0 Column II

C1 +

11

C2 +

12

C3 +

13

C4 is

(p) 495 (q) 1001

(B) The number of positive integral solutions of x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 13 is

(C) ABCD is a convex quadrilateral and 2, 3, 4, 5 (r) 420 points are marked on the sides AB, BC, CD, DA respectively. The number of triangles with vertices on different sides excluding A, B, C, D is (D) There are 7 alphabets out of which A is repeated (s) 154 twice, and B is repeated thrice (and the other two are distinct). Then the number of arrangements of them is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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66. (A) 4

Column I The maximum value of 1 sin cos 4


2

Column II (p) is
1

2 3

(B)

The numerical value of sec (tan + cosec (cot


2 1

2)

(q)

3) is (r) 15

(C)

If in ABC, a = 5, b = 4 and 1 A B = tan , then c is 2 3 7

(s) (D) The area of the triangle formed by the positive x-axis, the normal and the tangent to the circle x
2

+y

= 4 at 1,

3 is

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 24

IITJEE 2008 STS VII/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS BRILLIANT S HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PART A: PHYSICS
SECTION I 1. (A) Consider an elementary disc of radius r and thickness dx at a distance x from the truncated end and symmetrical about the axis. a x l Resistance of this volume element r=a+ dR = dx r dy = (b a) dx dR = l
2 2 2

= la

l dx b a x
2

Set y = la + (b a) x dy b
bl

=
2

l dy b a y
2 2 2

R=

dR =
al

l dy b a y l ab

l b

1 a al

1 bl

On simplification R =
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2. (A) Resistance =

p.d. current l
2

Since p.d. and current are the same, their resistances are equal. R1 = l
1

2 1

; R2 =

2 2

Since R1 = R2 l
1

r r r
1 2

2 1

l
2

r
1 2

2 2

r r

2 1

2 1

3. (C) Tension in spring = k(r a) where (r a) is extension. This supplies the necessary normal force. k(r a) = m2r kr ka = m2r r= ka k m
2

4. (C) The speed just before entering the water is given by 2gh. The buoyant force is greater than the weight of the body since > . If a is the acceleration ma = B W = gV gV Va = Vg ( ) a= g

using v2 = u2 + 2as 0 = ( 2gh) 2g s= 2gh 2g =


2

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 2

5. (B) e = L L= e

di dt

where L is the self inductance = 10 10 0.1 5 = 1 Henry 5


2 1

didt

Change in energy = = =

1 2

Li

1 2 i

Li
2 2

2 2

2 1 L i 1 2

2 1 1 10 2 5

= 7.5 Joules 6. (C) We note that the wires A and B are in series and the wire C is in parallel with them. Since each segment has the same resistance iC = 2i and iA = i = i B 3 3

The point O is equidistant from sides A, B and C. Hence wires A and B make contributes of equal magnitude to the field at O. According to right hand rule their contributes are directed into page. Further C makes a contribute to the field at O where magnitude is twice that of A or B. The right hand rule implies that contribution from C is directed up of the page and hence it cancels the other two contributions due to A and B. The net field at O is hence zero. 7. (C) Considering the image formed by lens, since the image is erect, it is a concave lens. u = 30 cm, v = 7.5 cm 1 v 1 7.5 1 u = 1 f

1 1 = or f = 10 cm 30 f
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 3

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8. (A) Volume at 7C = 4 10 Let it be heated to xK Volume = 12 6 10


4

m3

cm3 or 2 10
3

m3 2 10 x
2

Since V = constant 4 10 T 280 x= 2 10


2

280
3

4 10

= 1400 K or 1127C 9. (B) Let each side of the hexagon be b and the corners at a distance a from the centre. Magnetic induction B at O due to side AB = I
0

sin

sin R

4 a 3 2

where GO = R

R = GO =

Total induction =

6 i
0

3 4 a 2 6 i
0

[sin 30 + sin 30]

4a

3 2
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 4

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3 i
0

a 1.732 4 10 2 10
5 7 2 2

= 6.93 10

Wb/m

SECTION II 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) E = V + ir where V is voltmeter reading and r is the internal resistance. 13. (A) Since the mixture has two moles, the value of Cv for mixture = 1 2 3 2 R 5 2 R = 2R.

SECTION III 14. (A) Since the temperature is steady at 50C, the rate of loss of heat to the surroundings should be equal to the heat supplied to the sphere by the heater. Hence heat lost to the surroundings is 20 W. 15. (A) Rate of cooling is proportional to the excess of temperature between the body and surroundings. In the case at 50C, the rate of cooling is 20 W is proportional to (50 20) or 20 W = k(50 20) where k is a constant. Rate of cooling at 30C = k (30 20) = k 10 But k = 20 30 W 20 30 10 = 20 3 W

Rate of loss of heat =

16. (A) Since it takes 5 minutes to raise the temperature from 20C to 30C, the total heat supplied by heater = 20 300 = 6000 Joules. Out of this, the heat lost to the surrounding is 1000 J The remaining 6000 J 1000 J = 5000 J is used up for raising the temperature ms = 5000
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1 s 10 = 5000 s = 500 J/kg-K 17. (A) From the figure tan = 8 15 , cos = 15 17 , sin = 15 17 8 17

Normal reaction = Mg cos = 170 10

= 1500 N

Force of friction between first block and plane = Mg cos = 0.4 1500 = 600 N Force of friction between second block and plane = 0.2 1500 = 300 N total force of friction between blocks and plane = 900 N 18. (A) Considering the motion of first block, the net force causing motion down the plane = Mg sin T Mg cos = M acceleration Considering the motion of second block the net force causing motion = T + Mg sin Mg cos = M acceleration. Mg sin T Mg cos = Ma T + Mg sin Mg cos = Ma 2Mg sin Mg cos ( + ) = 2 Ma 2 8 10 17 a= 15 0.6 10 = 2a 17 ... (1) ... (2)

2 35 ms 17

19. (A) Substituting the values of a, b and M in any of the above equations, we get T = 150 N. SECTION IV 20. (A) (q); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (p) 21. (A) (s); (B) (q); (C) (p); (D) (r) 22. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r)

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 6

PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I

23. (B) Loss in mass in the given nuclear reaction = 2 (1.00813 + 1.00897) 4.00388 = 0.03032 amu 1 amu = 931 MeV Energy released = 0.03032 931 = 28.2 MeV 24. (D)
4+ 25. (C) Pb cannot coexist in the presence of Br and I ions. It is converted to Pb2+ by halide ions.

26. (D) x = kc n m log x m = log k 1 n 1 n log c

y = c + mx slope = 27. (C)

Progress of reaction E = Ea (forward) Ea (reverse) 20 = 30 Ea (reverse) Ea (reverse) = 50 kJ

28. (D)

Oxidation state of S2 and S3 is 0. Oxidation state of S1 and S4 is + 5.


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29. (A)

30. (B) Tertiary halides on treating with sodium alkoxide give only alkenes. Hence method (ii) to be followed.

31. (C)

SECTION II 32. (B) Though ether is polar, due to the absence of H bonding, it possesses lower boiling point than alcohol. 33. (D) It is the -hydrogen that adds on the aldehydic group. Benzaldehyde has no -hydrogen, hence does not undergo aldol condensation.

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 8

34. (B) PbCl2 is partly soluble in water and hence Pb2+ ions pass to the first group filtrate. i.e., to the II group.
+

35. (C) The ionic product of [Na ] [Cl ] exceeds the solubility product of NaCl.

SECTION III 36. (A) G = 2.303 RT log


1

Product Reactant

For, Y

X 1.3 95.2

G = 2.303 8.314 448 log 1

= 15.998 37. (D) Y Z

16.0 kJ mol

G = 2.303 8.314 448 log 2

3.5 95.2

= 12.305

12.3 kJ mol

38. (B) Stability order is Y > Z > X. 39. (B) H3BO3 is a very weak acid and ionizes as a monobasic acid. It is not a proton donor but behaves as a Lewis acid i.e., it can accept a lone pair of electrons from OH ion. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO2 + 2H2O With ethyl alcohol: H3BO3 + 3C2H5OH (C2H5)3BO3 + 3H2O ethyl borate 40. (B) 2Al + 6H2O 2Al(OH)3 + 3H2 2Al + 6HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O 2NaAlO2 + 3H2 41. (D)
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10

SECTION IV 42. (A) (p), (q), (r), (s); (B) (p); (C) (p), (q), (r); (D) (p), (r) All are group 14 elements viz., carbon family. Only C and Si shows tetracovalency by sp3 hybridisation. Excepting Pb, all show allotropy. Only C shows very strong catenation. 43. (A) (s); (B) (p), (r); (C) (s); (D) (p), (q), (r) A mixture of conc. HCl/ZnCl2 is called Lucas reagent.
2 ROH + HCl RCl + H2O

ZnCl

The formation of alkyl halide is shown by the appearance of turbidity in the mixture. The order of reactivity in alcohols, tertiary > secondary > primary. 44. (A) (s); (B) (s); (C) (q), (r); (D) (p), (q) In 0.01 M NaOH, [OH ] = 10 [H+] = 10
2 12

; pH = 12

KCN is a salt of strong base and weak acid. KCN + H2O KOH + HCN strong base

pH = 7 + 1 pKa + 1 log c; pH > 7 2 2 BaSO4 is a salt of strong acid and weak base. pH = 7 1 pKb 1 log c; pH < 7 2 2 h= K K
w

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 10

11

PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I 45. (C) f{g(x)} = f(|2x + 7|) 3 |2x + 7| 9, because domain of f is [ 3, 9] |2x + 7| 9 [the other is not possible] 9 2x + 7 9 16 2x 2 8x1 Required domain is [ 8, 1] 46. (D) Equation to the chord is x + y 4 = 0 dy dx = k x 2
2

Let the point of contact be (, ). +4=0 k 2


2

= 1;

k k 2

+2= k k
2 2 2 2

=1

k=
2

(4 ) = k = ( + 2) 4 = ( + 2) 4=+2 2 = 2 = 1 k = (1 + 2) = 9 47. (C) f(n) = 10 1 + 3 4 = (10 1) (10 = 9(10


n1 n 2

n+2

+6
n2

n1

+ 10

+ ... + 10 + 1) + 6 [2

2n + 3

+ 1]
2n + 1

+ 10

n2

+ .... + 10 + 1) + 6 3 [2

2n + 2

+ ... 2 + 1]

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 11

12

10n 1 + 10n 2 + ... + 10 + 1 is odd which is not divisible by any odd number. 2 2 number.
2 2n + 2 2n + 1

... 2 + 1 is also odd and which is also not divisible by any odd

f(n) is divisible by 9 48. (C) A (a + d) A = a


2

bc ab cd ad 0 bc 1 0 0 1 bc 0

bd d
2

ac bc

ad ab cd ad

bd d
2

ac

ad

= (bc ad)

= ad bc 49. (C) The two lines are y = 2x, y = 1 x 2 2

They are perpendicular and AOB =

Required area = Area of sector of outer circle Area of quadrant of inner circle = 1 2 4 4 2 = 3 4 1 4 1
2

=
2 2

50. (B) a b = (a + b) (a b) = 2R [sin A + sin B] 2R [sin A sin B] = 2R 2 sin A 2 B cos A 2 B 2R cos A 2 B sin A 2 B

= 2R sin (A + B) 2R sin (A B) = 2R sin C 2R sin 2 9

= 2R sin C 2R sin B = c b = bc
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13

3 51. (D) The scalar triple product = 1 4


2

1 3

2 3 =0

+ 3 + 7 = 0 discriminant is ve no real root 52. (D) Put t = x dt = 1 dt 1 dx x 1 x = x dt 1 x


2

1 x 1 x
2

dx

dx =

= x dt t
2

dt
2

1 x

=
3 2

I=

cot t t

dt
2

3 2

= 0 because the integrand is an odd function. 53. (D) Let the equation of a variable line be y = mx + c. Let it intersect |x| = a at A, B respectively. Then A is [a, ma + c] and B is [ a, ma + c] Let L be (2a, 0). Given Slope of LA Slope of LB = 1 ma a
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ma 3a

=1

IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 13

14

m2 a2 c2 = 3a2 c = m a 3a
2 2 2 2

This is the condition for y = mx + c to touch the hyperbola

x a

2 2

2 2

3a

=1

SECTION II 54. (A) Putting y =

x 2

I=2 =2 =

sin 4 y dy
0

3 1 4 2 2

3 8
4 3 5 2

55. (D) The expression = cos cos cos cos i sin i sin i sin i sin cos cos i sin i sin

= 56. (A) a b

=1

2 b = tc, t, a scalar 3c = sa , s, a scalar 2b 2b 6c = a 6c = a 2b 2 b 6c = tc 3c = a 6c = t 2sa = 1 6 c 2s a ... (i) ... (ii)

Now a Also a

From (i) and (ii), (t + 6) c = 1 2s a

Because c and a are non-collinear, only zero representation is possible. t + 6 = 0 = 1 + 2s In any case a
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2b

6c = 0
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 14

15

57. (A) sin4 x + 1 + cos4 y + 1 4 sin x cos y = 0 (sin x 1) + (cos y 1) + 2 [sin x + cos y 2 sin x cos y] = 0 (sin2 x 1)2 + (cos2 y 1)2 + 2 [sin x cos y]2 = 0 sin x cos y = 0 sin x = cos y SECTION III 58. (C) 1 + i = 2 cos 4 i sin
1/5 2 2 2 2 2 2

All the values of (1 + i)

is 4 5 i sin 2k 5 4 , where k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4

1 5

2k cos

Required product
15 5

cos

20 20

9 20 9 20

17 20 17 20 85 20

25 20 25 20

33 20 33 20

i sin

cos

85 20 17 4 4

i sin

= 2

cos

i sin

17 4 4
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 15

= 2

cos

i sin 4

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16

= 2 =1+i

cos

i sin

59. (A) 1, , are the roots of z3 1 They are cube roots of unity. = 2 1++ =0 The expression = (1 + + + 2) {5 (1 + + ) + 2 } = 83 86 =88 =0 3 4 2 4
8 8 8 8 2 3 2 23 2

60. (C) The expression =

cos
8

i sin

1 2
8

cos

4 3 2 3

i sin

4 3 2 3

1 2

cos

i sin

(Q amplitude should satisfy < ) amplitude =


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2 3
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 16

17

61. (B) 5x 1 < x2 + 2x + 1 x2 3x + 2 > 0 x < 1 or x > 2 The other is x 5x + 4 < 0 x (1, 4) x = 3 is the only integral solution satisfying I and II 62. (C) The inequality is
1 2

... (I)

... (II)

x +x+1< 1 3
2

x2 + x + 1 < 3 x2 + x 2 < 0 (x + 2) (x 1) < 0 x ( 2, 1) 63. (A) x2 + x + 1 is always positive. Coefficient of x2 > 0 and discriminant< 0. 2 (x2 + x + 1) < x2 + kx + 1 < 2 (x2 + x + 1) 3x2 + (k + 2) x + 3 > 0 x + (2 k) x + 1 > 0 for all real x From (I), discriminant = (k + 2) 36 < 0 i.e., 8 < k < 4 From (II), discriminant = (2 k) 4 < 0 i.e., 0 < k < 4 Common interval is 0 < k < 4 SECTION IV 64. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p) (A) 2 + 3 = 0 2 + 3 = 0 = 2 3 One root = 2 3 3 + 5 2 = ( 2) 2 = ( 3) 2 = 1
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2 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 2 2

... (I) ... (II)

18

Other root = 22 3 2 + + 5 = 2 + 5 =3+5=2 Required equation is x 3x + 2 = 0 (B) Roots are = 1 1 3 , 2 4 Q >


2 2 2

; 2 = 3 2 4 = 3 2

1 2

+ i = 1 2 ( + i)
100

3 i = e 2 =e
i 100 3

=e =

33 i 3 i

Similarly, ( i ) Sum = 2 cos Product = 1 3

100

e 2

1 2

Required equation is x + x + 1 = 0 (C) + = 6 ; = 5 ( + )2 = 36 ( )2 = ( + )2 4 = 36 20 = 16 ( ) = 16 Required equation is x 52 x + 576 = 0 (D) 47 + 8 3 = a ib


2 2

a2 b2 = 47; 2iab = 8 3 i
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19

a = 1; b = 4 3 One root = 1 + i 4 3 Other root = 1 i4 3 Sum = 2 Product = 1 16 3( 1) = 49 Required equation is x 2x + 49 = 0 65. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) Expression = =
10 2

C0 + C1 +

10

C1 + C2 +

11

C2 + C3 +

12

C3 + C4

13

C4

[ Cr + Cr 1 =

(n + 1)

Cr]

11

11

12

13

= 12C2 + 12C3 + 13C4 = 13C3 + 13C4 = 14C4 = 1001 (B) By the formula, (Total 1)CNumber of variables 1 The required positive integral solution = 12C4 = 495 (C) Vertices from AB, BC, CD or BC, CD, DA or CD, DA, AB or DA, AB, BC Number of triangles = 2C1 3C1 4C1 + 3C1 4C1 5C1 + 4C1 5C1 2C1 + 5C1 2C1 3C1 = 24 + 60 + 40 + 30 = 154 (D) The required number of arrangements = 7 2 3

= 420
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20

66. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p) (A) Expression = 1 + 1 2 cos 1 2 sin 1 2 cos 1 2 sin

= 1 + 2 cos = 1 + 2 cos Maximum value of cos

sin 4 4 is 1

maximum value of expression = 3 (B) Let tan


1 1

2 = sec = 5 3 = cosec = 10 5
2

and cot

required expression is (C) tan A 2 1 3 7 cot tan tan Now s = sa= sb= sc= 5 9 2 9 2 9 2 c c
2

10

= 15

a a

b C cot b 2

1 C cot 9 2

C 3 = 2 7 C 2 C 2 4 2 c = = 7 3 7 9 c = 9 2 9 9 9 2
IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 20

c c 2 c 2 c 8 10

5 = 4 = c =

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21

tan

C 2

= 9

a s s

s c 9 9 2

7 9

c 2 9 2

10 c

c 2 c

7 9

1 c
2 2

81
2

567 7c = 9c 9 16c = 576 c2 = 36 c=6 (D) Tangent at 1, x + 3y = 4 Solve with y = 0 x = 4 A is (4, 0) O is (0, 0) and P is 1, 3 Required area = 1 4 3 =2 3 2 3
2

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IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 21

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