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Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 90

IIT-JEE 2008

STS V/PCM/P(I)/QNS

BRILLIANTS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

FOR OUR STUDENTS

TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER I

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS:

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

A. General

1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 25 pages.

2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet.

3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be

provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic

SEAL

gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the

space provided on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B. Filling the ORS

8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and

Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.

9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS.

C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

SEAL

I have read all the instructions I have verified all the informations

and shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

............................................... ...............................................

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

2

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question

has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A particle of mass M and charge Q is attached to a string

of length L. It is whirled into a vertical circle in field E as

shown in Figure. What is the speed given to the particle

at point B, so that tension in the string when particle is

at A is ten times the weight of the particle?

1

QE 2

(A) 5gL (B) 5g + L

M

1 1

(D) 5g + QE

QEL 2 2

(C)

M ML

2. A circular table rotates about a vertical axis with a constant angular speed ω. A

circular pan rests on the turn table and rotates along with the table. The bottom

of the pan is covered with a uniform thick layer of ice which also rotates with the

pan. The ice starts melting. The angular speed of the turn table

(A) remains the same

(B) decreases

(C) increases

(D)may increase or decrease depending on the thickness of ice layer

3. Two particles P and Q describe S.H.M. of same amplitude a and frequency n

along the same straight line. The maximum distance between two particles is

a 2. What is the initial phase difference between the particles?

π π π

(A) zero (B) (C) (D)

2 6 3

3

4. A small object of linear dimension x lies on the axis of a spherical mirror of focal

length f at a distance a from the mirror. The linear dimension of the image is

2 1 1

f f 2 f a−f 2

(A) x (B) x (C) x (D) x

a−f a−f a−f f

5. A toy ship of mass m rests on a perfectly smooth surface. It is to be moved by

radiations falling on it from a monochromatic source of wattage W and

wavelength λ. If c is speed of light, the time taken by the toy to acquire a speed

ω m/s will be

2

W mc mc W

(A) (B) ω (C) ω (D) ω

mω W W 2

mc

6. A faulty thermometer reads the melting point of ice as − 10°C. It reads 60°C in

place of 50°C. The boiling point of water in this thermometer is

(A) 100°C (B) 140°C (C) 130°C (D) 150°C

7. A machine gun shoots a 40 g bullet at a speed of 1200 m/s. The man operating

the gun can exert an average force of 144 N at the most. The maximum number

of bullets shot per second is

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

8. A cell has an e.m.f of 1.5 volt with internal resistance 2 ohm. The terminal of the

cell are connected by two wires of resistance 2 ohm and 4 ohm in parallel and the

current is allowed to flow for a while. A little later, in the wire of 2 ohm current is

cut-off. The potential difference between the ends of the terminals of the cell

2

(A) drop by a factor of 1 (B) increases by a factor of

2 3

5

(C) drop by a factor of (D) will remain the same

3

4

9. Two capacitors P and Q are connected in series across a 100 V supply. The

potential difference across them is found to be 60 V and 40 V respectively. A

capacitor of 2 µF is connected in parallel with P. This results in the rise of

potential across Q to 20 V. What is the capacitance of P?

(A) 1.6 µF (B) 0.24 µF (C) 0.64 µF (D) 0.4 µF

SECTION II

Assertion-Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

10. Statement 1: Two identical trains are moving on rails along the equator on

earth in opposite directions with same speed. They will exert the

same pressure on the rails.

because

Statement 2: Due to rotation of earth, the effective weight of a body of mass m

2

is equal to (g − ω r).

11. Statement 1: Steel is a highly elastic material.

because

Statement 2: It has a high modulus of elasticity.

12. Statement 1: The velocity of sound is generally greater in solids than in gases

at N.T.P.

because

Statement 2: Solids have a much higher coefficient of elasticity than gases at

N.T.P.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

5

13. Statement 1: The root mean square speed of molecules of different ideal gases

at the same temperature is the same.

because

Statement 2: The R.M.S. velocity varies inversely as the square root of the

mass of the molecule.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple

choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

An electric circuit containing three resistances 3 Ω, 5 Ω and 6 Ω and two batteries

of 60 V (internal resistance 1 Ω) and 6 V (internal resistance 1 Ω) is shown in the

following Figure.

(A) 6 A (B) 5 A (C) 3 A (D) 2 A

15. The terminal voltage of battery P is

(A) 54 V (B) 64 V (C) 44 V (D) 40 V

16. The terminal voltage of battery Q is

(A) 12 V (B) 8 V (C) 10 V (D) 6 V

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

6

−6

A coil of 50 turns and 10 cm diameter is made out of a wire of resistivity 2 × 10 Ω cm

and radius 0.1 mm. The coil is connected to a source of e.m.f 10 volts and of negligible

internal resistance.

17. The current through the coil is

(A) 1 A (B) 2 A (C) 1.8 A (D) 2.5 A

18. The potential difference across the coil to nullify the earth’s magnetic field (H = 0.314

gauss) at the centre of the coil is

(A) 1 V (B) 0.8 V (C) 0.5 V (D) 0.6 V

19. In order to nullify the earths magnetic field,

(A) the plane of the coil should be parallel to the magnetic meridian.

(B) the plane of the coil should be normal to the magnetic meridian.

(C) the plane of the coil should make an angle of 45° to the magnetic meridian.

(D)can be placed in any position.

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

7

Physical Quantities Units of these Physical Quantities

(A) Capacitance (p) Ohm-metre

−1

(B) Inductance (q) Coulomb volt

−1

(C) Magnetic induction (r) Volt-second ampere

−1

(D) Specific resistance (s) Newton (ampere metre )

Physical Quantities Expressions

hc

(A) Cut-off wavelength of X-rays (p)

Ve

h

(B) Energy of photon (q)

mv

λ λ

0

hc

(D) de Broglie wavelength of matter (s)

λ

22. Column I Column II

Physical Quantities Formula

(A) Mean K.E. of a molecule of gas (p) Ve

1 2 2

(B) Kinetic energy due to rotation (q) mk ω

2

3 R

(C) Angular momentum (r)

2 N

(D) K.E. of electron in electric field (s) mvr

8

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each

question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

23. A solution containing 0.1 M of a metal chloride MCl requires 500 mL of 0.8 M

x

AgNO3 solution for complete precipitation. The value of x is

24. For the redox reaction,

2− + 3+ 2+

Cr O + H + Ni → Cr + Ni +H O

2 7 2

2− +

Cr O Ni H

2 7

(A) 1 3 14

(B) 2 3 14

(C) 1 1 16

(D) 3 3 12

25. The effective nuclear charge for the 4s electron in zinc atom (Z = 30) is

(A) 4.35 (B) 5.2 (C) 6.7 (D) 2.8

26. A solid has a structure in which W atoms are at the corners of cubic lattice,

O atoms at the centre of the edges and Na atom at the centre of the cube. The

formula of the compound is

(A) NaWO2 (B) Na2WO3 (C) NaWO3 (D) NaWO4

(A) Selenocyanate ion (B) Azide ion

(C) Amide ion (D) Azido carbon disulphide ion

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

9

(A) XeO Trigonal pyramidal

3

4

(D)XeOF Tetrahedral

2

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

30. . Product Y is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

10

X Y Z

(A) NH2 ⋅ NH2 HCN dil. HCl

2+

(B) Hg /H2O AgCN H2O

2+

(C) Hg /dil. H2SO4 HCN dil. acid

+

(D) Na/Hg HCN H O

3

SECTION II

Assertion-Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices

(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation

for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

−

32. Statement 1: CN ion is often referred to as pseudohalide ion.

because

− − −

Statement 2: C2N2 + 2OH → CN + CNO + H2O

11

because

Statement 2: 1-butene contains a double bond.

34. Statement 1: Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution more readily.

because

Statement 2: Carbon-halogen bond in aryl halides has partial double bond

character.

35. Statement 1: 50% neutralization of a solution of a weak monobasic acid (pK = 5)

a

with NaOH solution results in a solution having pH = 5.

because

A

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple

choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38

Three electrolytic cells A, B, C containing electrolytes of ZnSO4, AgNO3 and

CuSO4 respectively, were connected in series. A steady current of 1.50 ampere was

passed through them until 1.45 g of silver were deposited at the cathode of cell B.

36. The current is passed for

(A) 864 s (B) 1000 s (C) 600 s (D) 500 s

37. The weight of copper deposited is

(A) 0.5 g (B) 1.45 g (C) 1.0 g (D) 0.426 g

38. The weight of zinc deposited is

(A) 0.426 g (B) 0.440 g (C) 0.5 g (D) 1.0 g

12

Amino acids contain both an − NH group and a − COOH group. These are classified

2

as α, β, γ etc., depending upon the position of − NH group with respect to − COOH

2

group. α-amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Except glycine, all amino

acids exist in d and l forms. Due to the presence of − NH2 and − COOH groups within

the same molecule, they exist as dipolar ions or Zwitter ions.

39. Mark the wrong statement about denaturation of proteins.

(A) The primary structure of protein does not change.

(B) Globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins.

(C) Fibrous proteins are converted into globular proteins.

(D)The biological activity of protein is destroyed.

40. Amino acids are least soluble in water

(A) at pH = 7 (B) at pH > 7

(C) at pH < 7 (D) at isoelectric point

41. Bring out the wrong statement regarding amino acids.

(A) All the amino acids derived from proteins have at least one chiral centre.

(B) All the amino acids except cysteine are found to possess (S) absolute

configuration.

(C) The configuration of (S) − phenylalanine and (L) − phenylalanine are as given

below.

13

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

42. Column I Column II

(A) Aniline (p) NaNO2 + HCl (0°C)

(B) Phenol (q) Br2 in acetic acid

(C) C2H5OH (r) PCl5

(D) CH2 = CH2 (s) H2/Ni

43. Column I Column II

Metallurgy of Operation

(A) Gold (p) Cyanide process

(B) Silver (q) Smelting

(C) Copper (r) Thermite process

(D) Manganese (s) Froth floatation

44. Column I Column II

(A) Raoults Law (p) ideal solution

(B) Chlorobenzene + bromobenzene (q) ∆Hmixing = 0

(C) HCl + water (r) non-ideal solution

(D) Ethyl alcohol + water (s) ∆Hmixing ≠ 0

14

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each

question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

2

45. A solution of 5 + sin 3x = sin x + 2 cos x is equal to

nπ nπ nπ

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

3 2 4

46. A line which makes an acute angle θ with the positive direction of x-axis is

drawn through the point A(4, 5) to meet x = 7 and y = 8 at B and C respectively.

AB

Then is equal to

AC

1 1 2

(A) tan θ (B) tan θ (C) tan θ (D) tan θ

2 3 3

47. If log cosec x + log sec x = 2, then 2x is

sec x cosec x

π π π π

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2 6 12 3

2 2 2 2

a − ax + x − a + ax + x

48. If f(x) = x ≠ 0, then value of f(0) such that f(x) is

a+x− a−x

continous at x = 0 (where a > 0) is

1 1

(A) (B) − (C) a (D) − a

a a

15

49. The area bounded by the curve y = ln x, the x-axis and the line x = e is

1 1

(A) 1 + sq. units (B) 1 − sq. units

e e

50. If m tan (θ − 30°) = n tan (θ + 120°), then tan 2θ is equal to

2 2

m m +n

(A) (B)

n m+n

2 2 2 2

m +n

(C) (D) 3m + 3n − 10mn

2 2

m −n m+n

4 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2

51. If in ∆ABC, sin A + sin B + sin C = sin C sin A + 2 sin A sin B + 2sin B sin C,

then

(A) 45°, 135° (B) 30°, 150° (C) 60°, 120° (D) 40°, 140°

3 2

53. If the roots of 27x − 108x + 117x − 28 = 0 written in ascending are in A.P., then

the common difference is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

16

SECTION II

Assertion-Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

54. Statement 1: The A.M. and G.M. between two positive numbers are 20 and 16

64

respectively. Then their H.M. is .

5

because

Statement 2: The A.M, G.M. and H.M between two positive numbers form a

decreasing G.P.

55. Statement 1: The area of a regular polygon of 2n sides inscribed in a circle is a

mean proportional between the areas of the regular inscribed

and circumscribed polygons of n sides.

because

1 2 2π 2 π

Statement 2: kr sin , kr tan

are the areas of a regular polygon of k

2 k k

sides inscribed and circumscribed respectively inside and on the

circle of radius r.

x y 2 2

56. Statement 1: If the line + = 1 is a tangent to xy = c , then ab = c .

a b

because

Statement 2: The slope of the tangent to y = f(x) at (x1, y1) is f ′(x) at (x1, y1) if

f′(x) exists at (x1, y1).

17

5 4 3

57. Statement 1: If y = x − 5x + 5x − 10, then y has a local minimum at x = 3.

because

2

5 4 3 dy d y

Statement 2: For y = x − 5x + 5x − 10, (i) = 0 at x = 3 is zero and (ii) 2

dx dx

at x = 3 is positive.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraphs, 3 multiple

choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60

2 2

x y

y = mx, y = m′x are two diameters of the ellipse + = 1. They are called

2 2

a b

2

b

conjugate, if mm′ = − .

2

a

2 2

x y

58. For the ellipse + = 1, the diameter conjugate to y = − 3x is

36 9

(A) x = 9y (B) x = 36y (C) x = 12 y (D) x = y

2 2

x y

59. CP, CD are a pair of semiconjugate diameters of the ellipse + = 1, where C

16 9

is the centre of the ellipse. Then area of the triangle CPD is

(A) 8 sq. units (B) 6 sq. units (C) 16 sq. units (D) 9 sq. units

18

2 2

x y

60. CP, CD are a pair of semiconjugate diameters of + = 1, if CP is 7 units,

36 4

then CD is

dy

The solution of the differential equation + Py = Q, (where P and Q are functions

dx

∫ Pdx ∫ Pdx ∫ Pdx

of x) is ye =∫Qe dx + c, where e is called the integrating factor.

dy y

61. The solution of = at (1,1) is

dx 3y + 4x

3 4 2

(A) 2y = x + y (B) 2y = x + y (C) 2y = x + y (D) 2y = x

dy 3

62. The integrating factor of the differential equation cos x + y sin x = sin x is

dx

2 2

dx

x x x−1 x+1

(A) (B) (C) (D)

x−1 x+1 x x

19

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

3 5 7

(A) Sum to infinity of + + + ... is (p) 25

2 2 2 2 2 2

1 1 +2 1 +2 +3

numbers when the sum of the products of them taken

two by two is, 12.

2

(D) The least value of 4 sec θ + 9 cosec θ is

2 (s) 6

20

1 1 1

log + + A ... ∞

2.5 2 3

3 3 3

(A) The value of 0.16 is (p) 30

2

x

(B) If f(x) = ∫ t − 1 dt 1 ≤ x ≤ 3, then the global maximum of (q) 16

x

f(x) is

2 5

(C) Tangents are drawn from ( − 2, 0) to y = 8x. Then the area (r)

of the triangle formed by these tangents and the chord 16

of contact is

(D) A fair coin on whose faces are marked numbers 5 and 3 (s) 4

is tossed 4 times, the probability of getting a sum less than

15 in 4 tosses is

2 2

(A) If in ∆ABC, a + b = 2Rc, then C is (p) 30°

2 2 2 2

(B) If in ∆ABC, (b + c ) sin (B − C) = (b − c ) sin(B + C), (q) 60°

b ≠ c, then A can be

(C) If in ∆ABC, b = 1 and the perimeter is six times the (r) 90°

AM of the sines of the angle, then measure of B is

2 2

(D) A tangent to the ellipse x + 4y = 4 meets the ellipse (s) 45°

2 2

x + 2y = 6 at P and Q. Then, the angle between the

tangents at P and Q is

21

Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.

11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which only one is correct.

12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-

2 (Reason).

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of

STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of

STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be

answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is

correct.

14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in

the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to

these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given

at the beginning of the section.

D. Marking scheme:

15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles

corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly

bubbled answer.

1

IIT-JEE 2008

STS V/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS

BRILLIANTS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

FOR OUR STUDENTS

TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER I - SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

1. (B) The force acting on the particle in positions A and B are shown in Figure.

2

Mv

B

+ QE = TB + Mg

L

2

Mv

TA + QE = Mg + A

L

By principle of conservation of energy,

1 2 2

v B v = (Mg − QE)2L

A B

2

Putting TA = 10 Mg and solving the equation,

2 QE

we get v A = 5g A L

M

2. (B) On melting, the ice spreads on the table. Hence (because of an increase in the

distance of ice particle from the axis of rotation, the moment of inertia of the

system increases) the angular speed of the turn table decreases (according to

the law of conservation of angular momentum).

3. (B) The instantaneous displacements of the two particles are

y1 = a sin 2πnt and y 2 = a sin (2πnt + φ), where φ is the initial phase difference.

y = y2 − y1

= a sin (2πnt + φ) − a sin 2πnt

2

φ φ

= 2a cos 2π nt A sin

2 2

φ

The maximum value of y is thus 2a sin

2

φ

2a sin =a 2

2

φ 1 φ π

sin = or =

2 2 2 4

π

φ=

2

1 1 1

4. (A) For a spherical mirror, A =

v u f

2

1 1 dv v

Differentiation, B dv B du = 0 ⇒ =B

2 2 du 2

v u u

Magnification, m = B v = f du = x

u f B u

2 2

f f

|dv| = size of image = du = x

f B u a B f

hc

5. (B) Energy of each photon =

λ

Wλ

Number of photons emitted in one second from source = W =

hc hc

λ

h

Momentum of each photon =

λ

Wλ h W

Total momentum imparted to the toy in one second = ⋅ =

hc λ c

mω mωc mc

Hence, the required time = = = ω

W ⁄c W W

6. (C) If θ is the temperature reading in the faulty thermometer and n = number of

divisions and since −10°C is the melting point of ice, thus comparing this

with centigrade scale.

3

C B0 θ B B 10°

=

100 n

But when C = 50°, then θ = 60°

50 B 0 60 A 10

= or n = 140

100 n

C B0 θ A 10

=

100 140

Hence for C = 100°C, we have θ + 10 = 140

θ = 130°C

−3

7. (A) Mass of bullet = 40 × 10 kg

Velocity = 1200 m/s

−3

∴ momentum = 40 × 10 × 1200

Let x number of shot/second

1

Hence time for one shot = s

x

−3

The rate of change of momentum = x × 40 × 1200 × 10 = x × 4 × 12

This is equal to 144 N.

144

∴x= =3

48

8. (B) Let V be the potential difference between the terminals of the cell.

i1 = current through 2 ohm resistance

i2 = current through 4 ohm resistance

Total current i = i1 + i2

Combined resistance, 1 = 1 A 1 or R = 4

R 2 4 3

E 1.5 9

But i = = =

R A r 4 20

A2

3

9 4 3

Again V = iR = × = volt

20 3 5

When the current is cut-off in 2 ohm, we have an internal resistance 2 ohm

and a wire of 4 ohm only.

Then, E = iR + ir

4

E 1.5

We get i = = = 0.25

R A r 2 A 4

Hence potential difference = V = current × resistance = 0.25 × 4 = 1 volt.

5

3 2

Increase = 1 − =

5 5

3 2 2

x⋅ = ⇒x=

5 5 3

2

i.e., V increases by a factor of

3

9. (A) Let C1 and C2 be the capacitances of P and Q.

C 40

1 2

In the first case, = = ... (1)

C 60 3

2

C A2 3

1

In the second case, = ... (2)

C 2

2

Solving (1) and (2), we get C1 = 1.6 µF

SECTION II

10. (D) Due to rotation of earth, the effective weight of a body of mass m is equal to

m(g − ω2r). Let v be the effective velocity of the body located at a distance r

from the centre of earth. The velocity of earth will be added to velocity of one

of the trains in the same direction and it will be subtracted from the velocity

of second train. The effective value of the velocity will be different. This

results in the different value for the weight m(g − ω2r) and hence the

effective value of the pressure of rails will be different.

11. (A)

12. (A) Solids have a much higher coefficient of elasticity than gases at NTP.

13. (D)

SECTION III

14. (A) To find the total current, the circuit should first be simplified. The

combination of 3 Ω and 6 Ω gives

1 1 1 3 1

= A = = or R = 2 Ω

R 6 3 6 2

Now the entire circuit has a series

combination of 1 + 5 + 1 + 2 = 9 Ω.

Since the two batteries would send

charges in opposite direction, the net

e.m.f = (60 − 6) = 54 V

5

54

∴ current = =6A

9

We calculate the (iR) drop through internal resistances keeping in mind the

signs. The terminal potential difference of 60 V battery is (− 6 + 60) = 54 V

with F positive. Similarly the terminal potential difference of 6 V battery is

(6 + 6) = 12 V with C positive relative to D.

15. (A)

16. (A)

17. (A) Radius of coil = 5 cm

Length of wire = 2πr × 50 = 2π × 5 × 50 cm

Radius of wire = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm

−4

Area of cross section = π (0.01)2 = π × 10 cm2

B6

ρ ⋅l 2 × 10 × 2π × 5 × 50

Resistance of wire = R = = = 10 ohm

A B4

π × 10

E 10

Current = = =1A

R 10

µ 2π n i

0

18. (C) Magnetic induction at the centre of circular coil, B =

4π r

µ

0 −7 −1 −1 −2

= 10 Wb m A , r = 5 cm = 5 × 10 m

4π

B7

10 × 2π × 50 × i

B=

B2

5 × 10

−4

Magnetic induction due to earth = 0.314 × 10 T

B7

10 × 2π × 50 × i −4

∴ B2

= 0.314 × 10

5 × 10

−2

i = 5 × 10 ampere

−2

∴ potential difference across the coil = iR = 5 × 10 × 10

= 0.5 volt

19. (B)

SECTION IV

20. (A) − (q), (B) − (r), (C) − (s), (D) − (p)

21. (A) − (p), (B) − (s), (C) − (r), (D) − (q)

22. (A) − (r), (B) − (q), (C) − (s), (D) − (p)

6

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

23. (C) MClx + x AgNO3 → x AgCl + M(NO3)x

−3

Moles of AgNO3 required for precipitation = 500 × 0.8 × 10

= 0.4

Now 0.1 mole of MClx requires 0.4 mole of AgNO3.

Hence x = 4.

2B + − 3+

24. (A) Cr O + 14H + 6e → 2Cr + 7H2O

2 7

−

Ni → Ni2+ + 2e × 3

2B

Cr O + 14H+ + 3Ni → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni2+ + 7H2O

2 7

nB1 d nB1 nB2 ns

1

W at the corners = 8 × =1

8

1

O at the centre of edges = 12 × =3

4

Na at the centre of cube = 1 × 1 = 1

Formula is NaWO3

27. (C) Ions consisting of two or more electronegative atoms of which at least one is

nitrogen, that have properties similar to those of halide ions.

− B

Selenocyanate ion (SeCN ), azide ion N , azido carbon disulphide ion

3

B

SCSN are pseudohalide ions.

3

7

3 3

sp d hybridisation sp hybridisation

3 2 3

sp d hybridisation sp d hybridisation

29. (B)

30. (A)

31. (C)

SECTION II

32. (A) Cyanogen disproportionates upon treatment with strong base as do, Cl2, Br2

and I2 .

8

33. (B)

The product contains one asymmetric carbon, hence shows optical isomerism.

34. (D) Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with difficulty.

S = 5 + log 50 = 5

35. (A) For 50% neutralization, pH = pKa + log

A 50

SECTION III

36. (A) Cell B contains AgNO3 and the reaction is

B

AgNO3 → Ag+ + NO

3

−

Ag+ + e → Ag (at cathode)

108 g of silver is deposited by 96500 coulombs

96500 × 1.45

1.45 g of silver is deposited by = 1295.6 C

108

Q=C×t

1295.6 = 1.5 × t

1295.6

= 863.7 Y 864.0 s

t=

1.5

37. (D) According to Faradays II law of electrolysis, in cells B and C

Weight of Ag Equivalent weight of Ag 1.45 108

= = =

Weight of Cu Equivalent weight of Cu x 31.75

31.75 × 1.45

x= = 0.426 g

108

38. (B) Similarly in cells A and B,

Weight of Ag Equivalent weight of Ag 1.45 108

= = =

Weight of Zn Equivalent weight of Zn x 32.75

32.75 × 1.45

x= = 0.440 g

108

Weight of zinc deposited = 0.440 g

39. (C)

40. (D) The pH at which the amino acid is in electrically neutral form is known as

the isoelectric point. It lies halfway between pK a and pK a values of most of

1 2

the amino acids.

1

pH = pK A pK

a a

2 1 2

9

41. (A) With the exception of glycine, all the amino acids have a chiral centre.

(glycine)

SECTION IV

42. (A) − (p), (q); (B) − (p), (q), (r), (s); (C) − (r); (D) − (q), (s)

(A)

(B)

(D)

43. (A) − (p); (B) − (p), (s); (C) − (q), (s); (D) − (r)

44. (A) − (p), (q); (B) − (p), (q); (C) − (r), (s); (D) − (r), (s)

10

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

1 2

45. (D) LHS = 5 1 A sin 3x

5

RHS = 5 sin x B α

LHS ≥ 5 ; RHS ≤ 5

Only possibility is equality.

In this case, sin 3x = 0

3x = nπ

nπ

x= , n∈Z

3

nπ

However, x = does not satisfy the equation. Hence there is no solution.

3

xB4 y B5

46. (C) The equation of the line is = =r

cos θ sin θ

Any point on this line is [4 + r cos θ, 5 + r sin θ]

∴ 4 + AB cos θ = 7; 5 + AC sin θ = 8

⇒ AB cos θ = 3 ; ⇒ AC sin θ = 3

AB cos θ AB

=1 ⇒ = tan θ

AC sin θ AC

47. (A) Reducing to a common base, A =2

log sec x log cosec x

⇒ (log cosec x)2 − 2 (log sec x) (log cosec x) + (log sec x)2 = 0

⇒ log cosec x = log sec x

⇒ tan x = 1

π

⇒x=

4

π

∴ 2x =

2

11

48. (D) f 0 = Lt f x

x→0

we get, Lt B =B

x→0 2x 2 2 2 2 2a

a B ax A x A a A ax A x

= B a

49. (D)

e

e

Required area = ∫ ln x dx = x ln x B x 1

1

= 1 sq. unit

50. (D) = = (say), where x = θ + 120° ; y = θ − 30°

n tan θ B 30° tan y

= sin x ⋅ cos y

cos x sin y

= =

mBn sin x B y sin 150°

cos 2θ

=

1⁄2

= 2 cos 2θ

12

mAn

cos 2θ =

2 mBn

2

sin 2θ 1 B cos 2θ

tan 2θ = =

cos 2θ cos 2θ

2 2

3m A 3n B 10mn

∴ tan 2θ =

mAn

51. (B) By sine rule, the equation is

4 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2

a + b + c = c a + 2a b + 2b c

i.e., a4 + b4 + c4 − 2a2 b2 − 2b2 c2 = c2 a2

2 2

Add 2c a to both sides, then

2 2 2 2 2

4c a cos B = 3c a

2 3

cos B =

4

3

cos B = ±

2

∴ B is 30° or 150°

52. (A) Considering the first choice (A),

aBd × bBc =a×b Ba×cBd ×bAd×c

= c × d B b × d A b × d B c × d [because of given conditions]

=0

⇒ a B d is parallel to b B c

The other choices are not correct (verify).

53. (A) Let the roots be α − d, α, α + d

Sum = α − d + α + α + d

108

3α = =4

27

4

α=

3

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 12

13

2 2

27

4 16 2 28

Bd =

3 9 27

2

This gives d = 1 ∴ d = 1

SECTION II

2

54. (A) G.M = (A.M) (H.M)

2

G.M 256 64

∴ H.M = = =

A.M 20 5

55. (A) Let ρ be the radius of the circle. ∆1, ∆ 2, ∆3 denote the areas of the three

polygons (i.e., an inscribed polygon of 2n sides, inscribed polygon of n sides

and circumscribed polygon of n sides).

Using statement 2 which is true

2 π n 2 2π 2 π

∆1 = nρ sin ; ∆2 = ρ sin ; ∆3 = nρ tan

n 2 n n

2 2 4 2 π 2 π 2 π π

∆ = n ρ sin = nρ tan nρ sin cos

1

n n n n

2 π n 2 2π

= nρ tan ⋅ ρ sin

n 2 n

2 ∆ ∆

1 3

∆ =∆ ∆ ⇒ =

1 2 3

∆ ∆

2 1

2

56. (D) xy = c

dy dy y

x A y =0 ⇒ =B

dx dx x

dy y

1

at x , y =B

1 1

dx x

1

b y

1

Using statement (2) which is correct, we get B =B

a x

1

x y x y

1 1 1 1

A

a b a b 1

= = =

1 1 2 2

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 13

14

a b

⇒ x1 = ,y =

1

2 2

2 2 ab

But x1 y1 = c ⇒c =

4

Statement (1) is not correct.

dy 4 3 2

57. (A) = 5x − 20x + 15x

dx

= 5x2 (x2 − 4x + 3)

= 5x2 (x − 1) (x − 3)

2

d y

2

= 20x3 − 60x2 + 30x = 90 at x = 3 = positive.

dx

SECTION III

9 1

58. (C) mm′ = − =B

36 4

1 1

(− 3)m′ = − ⇒ m′ =

4 12

1

Conjugate diameter is y = x

12

∴ x = 12y

59. (B) Let P and D be (4 cos θ, 3 sin θ) and (4 cos φ, 3 sin φ)

9

Slope of CP⋅ Slope of CD = B

16

3 sin θ 3 sin φ 9

⋅ =B

4 cos θ 4 cos φ 16

π

cos (φ − θ) = 0 ⇒ φ − θ =

2

π

⇒φ= +θ

2

∴ D is (− 4 sin θ, 3 cos θ)

15

1

Area of ∆CPD = [4 cos θ ⋅ 3 cos θ − ( − 4 sin θ) 3 sin θ]

2

1

= [12 (cos2 θ + sin2 θ)]

2

1

= ⋅12

2

= 6 sq. units

2 2

60. (A) Using the idea in answer 59, we can prove that CP + CD = 36 + 4 = 40

2 2

CD = 40 − CP = 40 − 7 = 33

CD = 33

dx 3y A 4x

61. (B) =

dy y

dx 4x

B = 3 is linear in x.

dy y

4

Here, P = B ,Q=3

y

∫ P dy = ∫B 4y dy = B 4 log y = log y B4

−4

Integrating factor = y

∫ Qe∫ P dy

dy = ∫3 1 4

dy = 3 B

1

3

=B

1

3

y 3y y

1 1

x⋅ =B Ac

4 3

y y

At (1, 1), 1 = − 1 + c ⇒ c = 2

x 1

=B A2

4 3

y y

x = − y + 2y4

2y4 = x + y

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 15

16

3

62. (C) The equation is dy A sin x y = sin x

dx cos x cos x

∫ P dx = ∫ sin x

cos x

dx = B log cos x = log sec x

∫ P dx log sec x

e =e = sec x

dy y

63. (A) The equation is B = x x B1

dx x x B1

1 1 1

P=B = B

x x B1 x x B1

x

∫ P dx = log x − log (x − 1) = log

x B1

x

e

∫ P dx = e log x B 1 = x

x B1

SECTION IV

64. (A) − (s); B − (r); C − (q); D − (p)

(A) T = 2r A 1 6 1 1

= =6 B

r

r r A 1 2r A 1 r r A1 r r A1

6

1

T =6 1B

1

2

1 1

T =6 B

2

2 3

−−−−−

−−−−−

1 1

T =6 B

n

n n A1

1

S =6 1B

n

n A1

17

(B) log2 xy ≥ 6 ⇒ xy ≥ 26 ⇒ xy ≥ 64

xAy

≥ xy

2

x + y ≥ 2 xy

x+y≥2×8

⇒ x + y ≥ 16

(C) Let the positive numbers be x, y, z.

Given xy + yz + zx = 12

xy A yz A zx 1⁄3

Apply A.M. ≥ G.M., ≥ xy ⋅yz ⋅zx

3

4 ≥ (x2 y2 z2)1/3

x2 y2 z2 ≤ 43

2 2 2

x y z ≤ 64

xyz ≤ 8

2 2 2

(D) E = 4(1 + tan θ) + 9(1 + cot θ) = 13 + (2 tan θ − 3 cot θ) + 12

= 25 + (2 tan θ − 3 cot θ)2

E ≥ 25

65. (A) − (s); (B) − (p); (C) − (q); (D) − (r)

1

1 1 1 3 1

(A) A A A ... A ∞ = =

3 32 33 1 2

1B

3

1 log 2 log 2 log 2

log =B =B =

2.5

2 log 2.5 1 log 0.4

log

0.4

log 2

log 0.4

Let x = 0.16

log 2 log 2

⇒ log x = log 0.16 = 2 log 0.4

log 0.4 log 0.4

= 2 log 2 = log 4

⇒x=4

18

2

= (x − 1) [2x + 2x − 1]

2

1 3

= x B1 2 xA B

2 4

3

9

2

tB1

= = 30

2 3

(C)

∴ AP is perpendicular to BP.

Chord of contact is x = 2

∴ A = (2, 4)

1

=2× × PS × SA

2

=4×4

= 16 sq. units

19

4 4

4 1 1

Probability that getting a sum less than 15 = C A

3

2 2

1

= 4A1

16

5

=

16

66. (A) − (r); (B) − (r); (C) − (p); (D) − (r)

2 2

(A) a + b = 2Rc

2

c

i.e., a2 + b2 =

sin C

⇒ a2 + b2 ≥ c2

2 2 2

i.e., a + b − c ≥ 0

⇒ 2ab cos C ≥ 0

⇒ cos C ≥ 0

⇒ C ≤ 90° ... (1)

2 2

Also, sin A + sin B = sin C

1 − sin C = cos (A + B) cos (A − B)

= − cos C cos (A − B)

sin C B 1

cos C = ≤0

cos A B B

C ≥ 90° ... (2)

2 2 2 2

(B) The expression = (sin B + sin C) sin (B − C) = (sin B − sin C) sin (B + C)

2

= sin (B + C) sin (B − C)

2 2 2

⇒ sin (B − C) [sin B + sin C − sin A] = 0

20

2 2 2

i.e., b + c = a

∴ A can be 90°

(C) a A 1 A c = 6

3

a 1 c

=2 A A

2R 2R 2R

1

= aA1Ac

R

⇒R=1

b 1

= 2R ⇒ =2

sin B sin B

1

⇒ sin B =

2

∴ B = 30° or 150°

⇒ B = 30° since b = R = 1 ⇒ the triangle is right angled.

2 2

(D) II ellipse is x A y = 1

6 3

Chord of contact of tangents from (h, k) is

xh yk

A =1

6 3

h 3

y =Bx A

2k k

2 2

It is a tangent to the first ellipse x A y = 1

4 1

2

9 h

∴ =4 A1

2 2

k 4k

2

9 h

2

=

2

A1 ⇒ h 2 + k2 = 9

k k

∴ (h, k) lies on the director circle of the first ellipse.

∴ angle is 90°

IIT-JEE 2008

STS V/PCM/P(II)/QNS

BRILLIANTS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

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TOWARDS

PAPER II

PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

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2

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question

has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A frame of mass 200 g; when suspended from a certain coil spring, is found to

stretch the spring by 10 cm. A stone of mass 200 g is dropped from rest on the

pan of the frame from a height 30 cm (as shown in Figure). Find the maximum

distance moved by frame downwards.

(A) 20 cm

(B) 10 cm

(C) 30 cm

(D) 40 cm

2. A cylindrical tank with a base area A is filled with water to a height H. A small

hole of area σ appear at the bottom of tank. Determine how long it takes the

H

level of water to be at a height ?

2

A 2H A 2H

(A) (B)

σ g 2σ g

2A 2H A H

(C) (D) 21

σ g σ g

3. A rod 1 metre long revolves at a constant angular velocity of 20 rad/s in a magnetic

−4

field of induction 500 × 10 Tesla. The axis of rotation passes through the end of

the rod and is parallel to magnetic field. Find the induced e.m.f at the ends of

rod.

(A) 1 V (B) 0.5 V (C) 1.5 V (D) 0.1 V

3

4. Three glass prisms A, B, C of same refractive index are placed in contact with

each other as shown in Figure. A monochromatic ray OP passes through the

assembly and emerges as QR. The condition for minimum deviation is satisfied in

5. The Figure shows a current loop having two circular arcs joined by two radial

lines. What is the magnetic field at the common centre O?

µ iθ r r µ iθ r r

0 2 1 0 1 2

(A) (B)

4π r r 4π r r

1 2 1 2

µ iθ r r µ iθ r r

0 1 2 0 1 2

(C) (D)

2π r r r r

1 2 1 2

6. A person going out from a factory on his scooter at a speed of 36 km/hr hears the

sound from the siren of frequency 600 Hz. The wind is blowing along the

direction of the scooter at 36 km/hr. What is the frequency heard by the person in

the scooter? The speed of sound in still air is 340 m/s.

7. A mass M is broken into two pieces m and (M − m). How are m and M related, so

that the force of gravitation between the parts is maximum?

M M M M

(A) m = (B) m = (C) m = (D) m =

2 3 4 5

4

8. A particle is fired vertically upwards with a speed of 9.8 km/s. Find the

maximum height attained by the particle if the radius of earth is 6400 km and g

2

on the surface of earth is 9.8 m/s .

(A) 27300 km (B) 20900 km

(C) 13650 km (D) 10450 km

9. An X-ray tube operates at 20 kV. A particular electron loses 5% of its kinetic

energy to emit an X-ray photon at the first collision. The wavelength

corresponding to this photon is

(A) 1 Å (B) 1.24 nm (C) 1.24 Å (D) 0.124 Å

SECTION II

Assertion-Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

10. Statement 1: The total energy of a body in motion is equal to the work it can

do in being brought to rest.

because

Statement 2: The kinetic energy of a body in motion is equal to the work it can

do in being brought to rest.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

5

11. Statement 1: When water in a bucket is whirled fast overhead, the water does

not fall out at the top of the circular path.

because

Statement 2: The centripetal force in this position on water is less than the

weight of water .

12. Statement 1: The location of the centre of mass of a system of particles is

independent of the reference frame used to locate it.

because

Statement 2: The centre of mass depends only on the masses of the particles

and their positions relative to one another.

13. Statement 1: There is no change in the energy of a charged particle moving in

a magnetic field although a magnetic force is acting on it.

because

Statement 2: The charged particle moves in a magnetic field, when the

magnetic force is perpendicular to the path of the charged

particle.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple

choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

A telescope has an objective of focal length 50 cm and an eyepiece of focal length

5 cm. The least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. The telescope is focussed for

distinct vision on a scale 200 cm away from the objective.

14. The separation between the objective and eyepiece is

425 425

(A) 25 cm (B) cm (C) cm (D) 150 cm

6 3

6

1 1 1 1

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 6 2 5

16. The final total magnification is

(A) − 2 (B) − 3 (C) − 4 (D) − 5

In the circuit shown below, E1 = 3 V, E2 = 2 V and E3 = 1 V.

The values of R = r1 = r2 = r3 = 1 Ω.

(A) 3 V (B) 2 V (C) 1 V (D) 2.5 V

18. The current in the branch PX is

(A) 1 A (B) 0 (C) 1.5 A (D) 2 A

19. If in the given circuit, r2 is short circuited and the point A is connected to point B,

then the current through E2 is

7

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

(Physical quantities) (Dimensional formula)

2 −3

(A) Energy (p) ML T

−1 −2

(B) Momentum (q) ML T

−1

(C) Power (r) MLT

2 −2

(D) Pressure (s) ML T

8

(Physical Quantities) (Formulae)

B

(A) Cyclotron frequency (p)

µ

0

(C) Lorentz force (r) Blv

(D) Induced e.m.f in a rod moving in Be

magnetic field (s)

2π m

(Changes introduced in (Changes in fringe pattern)

Young’s double slit experiment)

(A) If sodium light is replaced by (p) all fringes are coloured

red light of same intensity except central fringe.

(B) Monochromatic light is (q) fringe width will become

replaced by white light quadrupled.

(C) Distance between slits and (r) the bright fringe will become

screen is doubled and the distance less bright.

between slits is halved

(D) If one of the slits is covered by (s) the fringe width will increase.

cellophane paper

9

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each

question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

23. Which of the following compounds on reaction with ethyl magnesium iodide will

form 2-methyl-butan-2-ol?

24. Following is an important reaction industrially. Pick out the correct statement

regarding this reaction.

H+ (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2

2 CH C = CH → CH C CH = C CH H →

3 2 2 3 3 3 2

CH CCH C CH CH = C CH

3 3 2 3 2 32

2, 4, 4, 6, 6-pentamethyl-2-heptene

(C) The sequence that the electron deficient carbocation adding to another

molecule of alkene, terminates when a proton is lost.

10

25. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH followed by acidification,

salicylaldehyde is got. Which of the following species is involved as an intermediate?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

26. 2.0 g of sulphur is burnt in an open vessel. The same amount of sulphur is burnt

in a closed vessel with sufficient oxygen. If ∆H in both the cases are ∆H1 and ∆H2

respectively, then

(A) ∆H1 = ∆H2 (B) ∆H1 > ∆H2

27. An aqueous solution contains 10% by mass of urea and 5% by mass of glucose. If

−1

molal depression constant of water is 1.86° molal , the freezing point of the

solution is

(A) 4.27°C (B) − 4.27°C (C) 2.29°C (D) − 2.29°C.

28. Bring out the wrong statement.

(A) Generation of electric current by applying pressure on a crystal is called

piezoelectric effect.

(B) In an antifluorite structure, anions have CCP arrangement but cations

occupy all the tetrahedral voids.

(C) For a FCC cube, face diagonal = 2 × edge length.

1

(D) For a BCC arrangement of atoms, radius of atom r = × edge length.

4

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

11

29. On boiling an aqueous solution of KClO 3 with I2, which reaction takes place?

3 2 2 4

(A) The lattice energy of CaO(s) is − 3460 kJ/mol but for K2O it is − 2240 kJ/mol.

(B) NH3 is a gas but water is a liquid at room temperature because hydrogen

bond forces are stronger in water than in NH3.

31. Following are some statements regarding the properties of some complexes.

Bring out the correct statement.

2+ 2+ 2+ 2+

(C) Amongst Cu , Ni , Co and Fe complexes, copper gives the most stable

complex.

12

SECTION II

Assertion-Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices

(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation

for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

32. Statement 1: Fluorine shows an oxidation state of − 1 only, while other halogens

show oxidation states of + 1, + 3, + 5 and + 7 as well.

because

Statement 2: In fluorine, there is no d-orbital.

33. Statement 1: Pentahalides of phosphorous act as Lewis acids.

because

Statement 2: All the pentahalides exist as ionic in solid state.

34. Statement 1: α and β-particles are always emitted simultaneously in

radioactive transmutation.

because

4 0

Statement 2: α-particles are He and β-particles are e.

2 1

35. Statement 1: Amino acid units in a polypeptide are linked by peptide bond.

because

Statement 2: Lecithin is an example of β-amino acid.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

13

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple

choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38

Two complexes are called stereoisomers, when they contain the same ligands in

their coordination sphere but differ in their spatial arrangement. Stereoisomerism is

classified as geometrical and optical isomerism. In geometrical isomerism, the similar

groups may be adjacent or opposite to each other. When they are adjacent, it is a cis

isomer, and when they are opposite it is a trans isomer. Optical isomerism is due to

the absence of elements of symmetry in the complex.

3

36. What is not true regarding Cr NH ion?

36

(B) It is octahedral in nature.

2 3

(C) The hybridisation involved is d sp .

(D) It is an outer orbital complex.

37. The two complexes given below are

(C) optical isomers (D) identical

38. For the square planer complex (MABCD) (where M is the central metal atom, A, B, C

and D are monodentate ligands), the number of possible geometrical isomers are

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3

14

number of molecules of one or more types of low molecular weights (known as

monomers). Monomers always contain a double or a triple bond. The process is called

polymerization.

without the loss of simple molecules like H2O, NH3, C2H5OH etc., (ii) condensation

polymerization − simple polymers unite with the loss of small molecules.

(A) difluoroethane

(B) monofluoroethane

(C) tetrafluoroethene

(D) trifluoroethane

40. What is not true of the following statements?

(A) Bakelite is a polymer of phenol and formaldehyde.

(B) Proteins are natural polymers.

(C) The monomeric unit of orlon molecule is CH2 = CH − CH2CN.

Polymer X is

(A) Nylon-6 (B) Nylon-6,6 (C) Nylon-6,10 (D) None of these

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

15

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

..

(A) C5H5N (p) unidentate

16

3 3

state

17

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each

question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C), (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

3

45. If xyz = p , then the minimum value of (1 + x) (1 + y) (1 + z) where x, y, z are

positive is

3 3 3 2

(A) 1 + p (B) (1 + p) (C) 1 − p (D) (1 + p) (1 + p )

1

dx

46. ∫ is greater than or equal to

2 3

0 4B x B x

π π π π

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 4 2 6

2

d y dy

47. The solution of x A = log x, when y(1) = 1 and y′(1) = − 1, f(x) is equal to

2 dx

dx

2 2

(A) x log x − x + 3 (B) x log x + x + 3

(C) x log x − 2x + 3 (D) x log x + 3x − 2

2 2

x y

48. A normal to the ellipse A = 1 is inclined to major axis at an angle 45°.

2 2

a b

Also the normal meets the major and minor axes at P and Q. Then the area of the

triangle CPQ, where C is the centre of the ellipse is

2

2 2 2 2 2 2

1 a B b a B b a B b

(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 4ab

2 2 2 2 2 2 2

a A b a A b 2

a A b

18

49. The tangent at points represented by the complex numbers a and b, on |z| = r

meet at z . Then z is

0 0

2ab ab 2ab ab

(A) (B) (C) (D)

aB b aB b aA b aA b

50. There are 10 coins out of which one coin is double headed. A coin is chosen at

random and tossed 4 times. Head appears on all the 4 times. The probability that

it is the double headed coin is

16 3 1 1

(A) (B) (C) (D)

25 5 5 2

51. The number of values of k for which the system of equations (k + 1) x + 8ky = 4k,

kx + (k + 3)y = 3k − 1 has no solution is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite

T

7 10

52. If A is a skew symmetric matrix, then A A A is equal to

10 7 7 10 10 7 T T

(A) A +A (B) A − A (C) A −A (D) A + B

53. The number of positive integral solutions of the equation

−1 −1 y B1 3

tan x + cos = sin is

2 10

1A y

(A) zero (B) one (C) two (D) three

SECTION II

Assertion-Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

19

explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

2 2

54. Statement 1: The minimum length of the chord of x + y = 4 through the

1

point 1, is 11 units.

2

because

Statement 2: Minimum length of the chord through an internal point (x1, y1)

of a circle is obtained, when (x1, y1) is the midpoint of the chord.

are the lengths of the sides of a triangle, then the triangle is

equilateral.

because

Statement 2: If a, b,c are non-coplanar and xa A yb A zc = 0, where x, y, z

(not all zero) are scalars, then x = y = z = 0.

2

x

t 2

56. Statement 1: The equation of the tangent to the curve y = ∫e t A 1 dt

1

y

at x = 1 is x A = 1.

4e

because

f x

Statement 2: If y = ∫ F t dt, then dy = F f x f′ x B F g x g′ x .

g x dx

20

|x − 3| + |y − 5| = |x| + |y| with x < 3 and y < 4, form a

triangle of area 8 sq. units with the coordinate axes.

because

Statement 2: If z is positive, |z| = z.

If z is negative, |z| = − z.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60

f(x) is a polynomial in x.

(1) If f(λ) and f(µ) are of opposite signs, then the equation f(x) = 0 has a real root

lying between the real numbers λ and µ.

(2) If f(x) = 0 has two real roots α and β, then f′(x) = 0 will have a real root lying

between α and β.

(3) If α is a double root of f(x) = 0, then α will be a root of f′( x) = 0.

3

58. A root of x + 4x − 6 = 0 lies in the interval

(A) (1, 2) (B) (2, 4) (C) (2, 3) (D) (0, 1)

2

59. If p +q + r = 0, then the equation 3px + 2qx + r = 0 has at least one root in

(A) (1, 2) (B) (2, 3) (C) (0, 1) (D) ( − 1, 0)

2 2

60. If 1 lies between the roots of the equation 3x − (3 sin α) x − 2 cos α = 0, then α

lies in the interval

π π π π 5π π π π 5π

(A) 0, (B) , (C) , (D) , ∪ ,

2 12 2 6 6 6 2 2 6

21

1 2 r 1 2 r

(r + n − 1)

is C

n

(n − 1)

is Cr − 1

x ≥ 5 is

4

1 2 3 4 1 2 i

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

22

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

green balls. The number of ways in

which three can be selected from the

box if at least one red ball is to be

included is

each having an alternative. The

number of ways in which an examinee

can attempt one or more questions is

subsets of the integers 1, 2, ..., n

contains the integer 7, then the value

of n is

constructed. The number of ways in

which 3 vertices are selected, so that no

two vertices are consecutive is

23

B1 9π

(A) cos cos equals (p) 0

8

B1 3π B1 π 2π

(B) sin sin B cos cos equals (q)

4 4 3

B1 4π B1 5π π

(C) tan tan A cos cos equals (r)

3 3 4

B1 1 B1 1 7π

(D) 2 tan A tan equals (s)

3 7 8

66. Column I Column II

1 B cos x B 1

3 2 2

x A 2x A x A 21 x B 1 1

(A) Lt is (p)

x → 1

2 12

x A 2x A 1

2 2

(B) Lt tan x 2sin x A 3 sin x A 4

(q) 16

π

x →

2

2

B sin x A 6 sin x A 2 is

(C) If f(a) = 3, f′(a) = 2, g(a) = − 2, g′(a) = 4, 5

(r) B

24

g x f a Bg a f x

then Lt is

x → a xBa

5

5cos x A x sin x B 5 5

(D) 2 (s)

Lt is 2

4

x → 0 x

24

25

Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.

11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which only one is correct.

12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-

2 (Reason).

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of

STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of

STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be

answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is

correct.

14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in

the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to

these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given

at the beginning of the section.

D. Marking scheme:

15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles

corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly

bubbled answer.

1

IIT-JEE 2008

STS V/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS

BRILLIANTS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

FOR OUR STUDENTS

TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER II - SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

1. (C) When the stone falls on the pan of the frame, the impact is completely

inelastic. At the instant of impact, the stone has a velocity = 2gh = 2g × 30 .

By principle of conservation of momentum, the stone plus frame will have a

velocity v given by

v = =

200 A 200 2

2

1 2gh

= × 400 × = 100gh

2 4

= 3000g

If the maximum stretching of spring due to impact is x, the work done in

spring to stretch it from elongation 10 cm to (10 + x) must be equal to kinetic

energy of (stone + frame) plus the loss of potential energy of (stone + frame).

2 2

B k ⋅10

2 2

200

But k = × g = 20 g

10

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 1

2

∴ 1 × 20 × g

2 2

10 A x B 10 = 3000g + 400 xg

2

x2 − 20x − 300 = 0

∴ x = 30 cm

2. (D) Let dh be the fall in level of water in a time dt s.

∴ water drained in this time = Adh

∴ Adh = 2gh dt ⋅σ

dh σ

= 2g ⋅ ⋅ dt

h A

H⁄ 2 T

dh σ

Integrating, ∫ =B 2g ⋅

A

∫ dt

H h 0

H⁄2

1⁄ 2

h σ

=A 2g ⋅ ⋅T

1 A

2 H

1⁄ 2

1⁄ 2 H σ

2 H B = 2g ⋅T

2 A

A H

∴ T = 2 B 1

σ g

3. (B) Upon each revolution of rod, the magnetic flux which it intersects

2

= B ⋅ πl , where l is the length of rod. If the rod makes n revolutions per second,

2 2 ω

E = B⋅πl ⋅n = B⋅πl ⋅

2π

where ω is the angular velocity.

B4 2

500 × 10 π × 1 × 20

E = = 0.5 V

2π

4. (C) In the prisms A and B, the incident ray goes parallel to the phase of the

prism. Hence they undergo minimum deviation.

3

5. (A) As the point O is on the line AD, the magnetic field due to AD at O is zero.

The field at O due to BC is zero. The field at the centre of a circular current

µ i

loop is 0 .

2r

1

θ µ i

0

The field at the centre of a circular loop, BA = ⋅

2π 2r

1

The field is coming out of the plane of line.

θ µ i

0

The field due to circular arc, DC = ⋅ going into the plane of paper.

2π 2r

2

θ µ i θ µ i

0 0

The resultant field at O = 0 A 0 A ⋅ B ⋅

2π 2r 2π 2r

1 2

µ θi 1 1

0

= B

2π 2r 2r

1 2

µ θi r B r

0 2 1

=

4π r r

1 2

6. (A) The speed of sound in still air is 340 m/s. As both observer and wind are moving

at the same speed along the same direction with respect to ground, the observer

is at rest with respect to the medium. The source is moving with respect to the

wind at a speed of 36 km/hr or 10 m/s. As the source is going away from the

observer who is at rest with respect to the medium, the frequency heard is

v

n′ = × n

v A u

s

340

= × 600 = 583 Hz

340 A 10

G ⋅m m

7. (A) F = 1 2

2

r

F = k ⋅m m = k m M B m

1 2

2 2

M M 2

= k B A mM B m

4 4

2

2

M M

= k B B m

4 2

4

For F to be maximum, M B m = 0

2

M = 2m or m = M

2

R

2

0

2

At the maximum height, the kinetic energy is zero and

potential energy = B GMm

R A H

2

0

R A H R 2

2

Putting GM = gR and dividing by m,

2

v 2

gR 0

B gR A =B

2 R A H

2

2 v

R

= R B 0

R A H 2g

2 2

R 6400 km

R A H = =

2 2

v 9.8 km⁄s

R B

0 6400 km B

2

2g 2 × 9.8 m⁄s

2

6400

= km

1500

= 27306 km

Height = 27306 − 6400 = 20906 km Y 20900 km

−19

= 1.6 × 10 × 20,000

3

Energy of photon = 0.05 × 20 × 10

= 103 eV

5

hc 3 hc

= 10 ⇒ λ =

λ 3

10

B 34 8

6.62 × 10 × 3 × 10

=

3 B 19

10 × 1.6 × 10

−9

= 1.24 × 10 m

λ = 1.24 nm

SECTION II

10. (D) It is not the total energy but only the kinetic energy that is used up, when

the body is brought to rest. We must therefore say that the kinetic energy of

a body in motion is equal to the work it can do in being brought to rest.

11. (A) The water does not fall from bucket when it is at the top of the circular path

because the centripetal force on water is less than its weight at this position.

12. (A) The centre of mass of a system of particles is given by

∑ mi r i

r =

∑ mi

and depends only on the masses of particles and their positions relative to

one another.

13. (A) A charged particle moves in a magnetic field when the magnetic force is

perpendicular to the path of the charged particle. Thus, there is no change in

the velocity or energy of the particle moving in a magnetic field although a

magnetic force is acting on it.

SECTION III

14. (B) W1 = − 200 cm, fo = + 50 cm, fe = + 5 cm, v2 = − 25 cm

Let the separation between objective and eyepiece be x.

x = v A u

1 2

1 1 1 1 1 3

= A = B =

v f u 50 200 200

1 o 1

200 cm

⇒ v =

1

3

1 1 1 1 1 6

= B =B B =B

u v f 25 5 25

2 2 o

6

25

⇒ u =B cm

2

6

25

u =

2

6

200 25 425 cm

∴ x = A =

3 6 6

200

v 3 1

1

15. (A) Magnification by objective = = =B

u B 200 3

1

v v

200⁄3 B 25

1 2

= × = ×

u u B 200 B 25⁄6

1 2

=−2

17. (B) Let I1, I2, I3 be the currents through resistances r1, r2 and r3. Using Kirchhoffs

law for loops PQRSP and PQRSYXP

Applying

7

V1 = E1 − I1 r1 = 3 − 1 × 1 = 2V

18. (A)

19. (A) When r2 is short circuited, the potential difference across PS is still 2 V and

the current through R is 2 A. The current through E2 is 2 A and the currents

through E1 and E3 remain unchanged.

SECTION IV

20. A − (s); B − (r); C − (p); D − (q)

22. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); D − (r)

8

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

23. (C)

+

H + (CH3)3 C(CH2) C(CH3)2 CH = C(CH3)2

2, 4, 4, 6, 6-pentamethyl-2-heptene

25. (B)

Since ∆n(g) = 0

∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT

∴ ∆H = ∆E

27. (B) Mass of solution = 100 g

Mass of glucose = 5 g

Mass of urea = 10 g

Mass of water (100 − 15) = 85

10 5

Total number of moles of solute =

60 180

= 0.167 + 0.028 = 0.195 mol.

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 8

9

0.195 × 1000

Effective molality = = 2.294

85

Now ∆Tf = Kf × m

1

r = × Body diagonal

4

1

= × 3 × edge length

4

occupy all the tetrahedral voids. Coordination number is 4 : 8. e.g., Na2O.

2+ +

30. (D) • Ca is more highly charged than K , thus cation − oxygen bonds are stronger

in CaO.

atoms. The attractive forces between layers are weak London forces, which

allow the sheets to slide easily over one another.

that electron in Mg is in a 3s-orbital. The 3p electron in Al is of higher energy

(is more shielded) than the 3s electron in Mg.

31. (D) • The trans isomer of CoCl2(en)2 has a plane of symmetry and can be divided

into two equal halves and hence optically inactive.

10

central metal atom are the same with respect to each other.

• Amongst Cu2+, Ni2+ and Co2+ complexes, the size of the copper is the

smallest, therefore it gives the most stable complexes.

SECTION II

2 2 2 2 1

32. (A) Fluorine is 1s 2s 2p 2p 2p . It has only half-filled orbital and there is no

x y z

d-orbital available for excitation of electrons. Further, it is the most

electronegative element. Hence it shows the oxidation state − 1 only. In all

the other halogens, d-orbitals are available for excitation of electrons.

33. (B) In pentahalides, the central atom can easily accept the halide ion (due to the

presence of vacant d-orbital) and can extend their coordination number.

34. (D)

35. (C)

Lecithin

SECTION III

Cr atom

3 4s 4p

3d

Cr3+ ion

[Cr (NH3)6]

3+ •• •• •• •• •• ••

144444424444443

d2sp3 hybridised

• The hybridisation is d2sp3.

• The d-orbitals involved are (n − 1) d. Hence it is an inner orbital complex.

11

37. (D)

38. (D)

39. (C)

40. (C) The monomeric unit of orlon molecule is CH2 = CHCN (acrylonitrile).

41. (A)

SECTION IV

42. A − (p), (q), (s); B − (q), (r), (s); C − (p), (q); D − (q), (r), (s)

43. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); (D) − (r)

(A)

CH3 COOOH

(B) CH3COCH3 → CH3COOCH3 (Baeyer Villiger oxidation)

50% NaOH

(C) (CH3)3 CCHO → (CH3)3 C − COONa + (CH3)3 CCH2OH

Cannizaro reaction

(D)

12

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

1/3

45. (B) x, y, z are positive ⇒ x + y + z ≥ 3 (xyz)

i.e., ≥ 3p

2 2 2 1/3

xy + yz + zx ≥ 3(x y z )

2

≥ 3p

Now, (1 + x) (1 + y) (1 + z) = 1 + (x + y + z) + (xy + yz + zx) + xyz

2 3

≥ 1 + 3p + 3p + p

3

≥ (1 + p)

46. (D) In [0, 1], x3 is positive.

2 3 2

4−x −x ≤4−x

1 1

dx dx

∫ 2 3

≥ ∫ 2

0 4 B x B x 0 4 B x

1

B1 x

i.e., ≥ sin

2 0

π

i.e., ≥

6

d dy

47. (C) x = log x

dx dx

dy

x = x log x B x A c

dx

Applying the given conditions

−1=0−1+c

⇒c=0

dy

x = x log x B x

dx

dy

= log x B 1

dx

y = x log x − x − x + k

Applying the given conditions

1=0−2+k⇒k=3

y = x log x − 2x + 3

13

ax by 2 2

B =a B b

cos θ sin θ

2 2 2 2

a B b a B b

∴ P is ⋅ cos θ, 0 ; Q is 0, B ⋅ sin θ

a b

C is (0, 0).

2 2 2

1 a B b

Area of ∆CPQ = B ⋅ cos θ sin θ

2 ab

2 2 2

1 a B b

= sin θ cos θ (numerically)

2 ab

Now, slope of normal

a sin θ

= =1

b cos θ

b

⇒ tan θ =

a

2 2 2

1 a B b b a

Area = ⋅ ⋅

2 ab 2 2 2 2

a A b a A b

2 2 2

1 a B b

=

2 2 2

a A b

z B a

0

49. (C) is purely imaginary.

a

z B a z B a

0 0

=B

a a

14

z z

0 0

B1=B A1

a a

z z

0 0

=B A2

a a

z z

0 0

Similarly =B A 2

b b

2 2

But, aa = r , b b = r ⇒ a = r , b = r

2 2

a b

z z

0 0

=B A2

a 2

r ⁄a

z z

0 0

=B A2

b 2

r ⁄b

b a

z B z = 0 A 2b B 2a

0 0

a b

2 2

b B a

z =2 b B a

0

ab

a A b

z =2

0

ab

2ab

⇒ z =

0

a A b

1 9

P E = , P E =

1 2

10 10

A A 1 1

P = 1, P = =

E E 4 16

1 2 2

15

By Bayes theorem,

A

P E ⋅P

1

E E

1 1

P =

A A A

P E ⋅P A P E ⋅P

1 2

E E

1 2

1

⋅1

10

=

1 9 1

⋅1 A ⋅

10 10 16

16

=

25

51. (B) The system of equations has no solution.

k A 1 8 4k

⇒ = ≠

k k A 3 3k B 1

(k + 1) (k + 3) = 8k and ... (1)

8(3k − 1) ≠ 4k (k + 3) ... (2)

i.e., k2 − 4k + 3 = 0

k = 1, 3 out of which only k = 3 satisfies (2).

∴ k = 3 is the only solution.

T T

= A ⋅ A . . . 7 factors

= ( − A) (− A) ( − A) . . . 7 factors (Q A is skew symmetric)

7 7

= ( − A) = − A

10 T 10

Similarly, (A ) =A

10 7

Required expression = A −A

B1 B1 1 B1

53. (C) Given equation is tan x A tan = tan 3

y

B1 1 B1 B1

tan = tan 3 B tan x

y

16

B1 1 B1 3B x

tan = tan

y 1 A 3x

1 A 3x

⇒ y =

3 B x

x, y are positive integers.

When x = 1, y = 2

x = 2, y = 7

These are the only two solutions.

1

54. (A) M 1, is midpoint of chord AB.

2

Centre = (0, 0)

Radius CA = 2

2 1 5

CM = 1 A =

4 4

2 5 11

∴ AM = 4 B =

4 4

11

AM =

2

Length of the chord = AB = 2 AM

= 11

55. (A) p , q and p × q are non-coplanar and statement 2 is true.

∴ a − b = 0; b − c = 0; c − a = 0

⇒a=b=c

∴ the triangle is equilateral.

2

x

t 2

56. (D) y = ∫ e t A 1 dt

1

2

∴ dy = e

x 4

x A 1 2x B 0

dx

dy

at x = 1, e(2)2 = 4e

dx

Slope of the tangent = 4e

17

At x = 1, y = 0

Point (1, 0)

Equation to the tangent is y − 0 = 4e (x − 1)

y = 4ex − 4e

4ex − y = 4e

y

x B = 1

4e

57. (D) Because of the given condition ((x, y) in I quadrant)

|x − 3| + |y − 5| = x + y

x < 3 and y < 4, by statement (2) which is

true, the above equation becomes

3−x+5−y=x+y

x + y = 4,

which is a straight line segment AB.

Required area of the trapezium

1 15

= 4 A 1 × 3= sq. units

2 2

The given boundaries do not form a triangle.

58. (A) f(1) = − ve ; f(2) = + ve

Root lies between 1 and 2 and no roots lie in the other interval as f(x) is

increasing.

3 2

59. (C) Integrating the given expression, we get px + qx + rx

3 2

Let F(x) = px + qx + rx

F(0) = 0

F(1) = p + q + r = 0, by given condition

∴ 0 and 1 are roots of F(x) = 0

2

Now, f(x) = F′(x) = 3px + 2qx + r = 0 has at least one root in (0, 1)

60. (D) Let a, b be the roots.

f(x) = 3(x − a) (x − b)

f(1) = 3(1 − a) (1 − b)

= − ve, (Q a < 1 < b)

18

2

2 sin α − 3 sin α + 1 < 0

(2 sin α − 1) (sin α − 1) < 0

1

sin α lies between and 1

2

2

π 5π π

α lies between to excluding , as sin α ≠ 1

6 6 2

61. (D) Put y1 = x1

y2 = x2 − 1

y3 = x3 − 3

y4 = x4 − 5

⇒ y1 ≥ 0, y2 ≥ 0, y3 ≥ 0, y4 ≥ 0

Equation becomes y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 + 9 = 20

y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 = 11

(4 + 11 − 1) 14

Required number of solutions = C11 = C11

14

= C3 = 364

62. (B) We get two sets, x3 + x4 = 14 ... (1)

x1 + x2 = 4 ... (2)

Number of solutions for (1) is

(2 + 14 − 1) 15

C14 = C14 = 15

Number of solutions for (2) is

(2 + 4 − 1) 5

C4 = C4 = 5

63. (A) x1 + x2 + x3 lies between 6 and 10.

There are 3 sets

x1 + x2 + x3 = 7

x1 + x2 + x3 = 8

x1 + x2 + x3 = 9

19

6 7 8

= C2 + C2 + C2

= 15 + 21 + 28

= 64

64. A − (q); B − (p); C − (s); D − (r)

9

Number of ways in which the red balls are excluded = C3

12 9

∴ the required number of ways = C3 − C3

= 220 − 84

= 136

(B) For each question there are 3 choices.

[He may not attempt or he may attempt any one of the alternative].

There are 5 questions.

Number of ways = 35

This includes the 1 way in which he will not attempt any question

5

∴ the required number of ways = 3 − 1

= 243 − 1 = 242

n

(C) Number of 4 element subsets = C4

(n − 1)

Omitting 7, the number of 3 element subsets = C3

(n − 1)

∴ the number of subsets including 7 = C3

1 n n B 1

Given C = C

4 3

4

1 n n B 1 n B2 n B3 n B 1 n B 2 n B3

=

4 24 6

4 × 24

⇒ n = = 16

6

20

− (Number of selections in which 3 vertices are consecutive) − (Number of

selections when 2 vertices are consecutive).

Without restrictions = 10C3

3 consecutive vertices = A1 A2 A3 , A2 A3 A4 , . . . , A10 A1 A2

= 10

Number of selections when 2 vertices are consecutive = 10 × 6C1

(Q after selecting two consecutive vertices in 10 ways, the third can be

selected from 6 vertices)

10 6

∴ the required number of selections = C3 − 10 − 10 × C1

= 120 − 10 − 60

= 50

65. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); D − (r)

B1 9π B1 7π

(A) cos cos = cos cos 2π B

8 8

B1 7π 7π

= cos cos =

8 8

9π

Q ∉ 0, π , whereas

8

7π

∈ 0, π

8

B1 3π B1 1 π

(B) sin sin = sin =

4 2 4

B1 π π

and cos cos =

4 4

B1 3π B1 π

∴ sin sin B cos cos =0

4 4

B1 4π B1 π π

(C) tan tan = tan tan =

3 3 3

B1 5π B1 π B1 π π

cos cos = cos cos 2π B = cos cos =

3 3 3 3

2π

Hence the required expression =

3

21

2

B1 1 B1 1 B1 3 B1 1

(D) 2 tan A tan = tan A tan

3 7 1 7

1B

9

B1 3 B1 1

= tan A tan

4 7

3 1

A

B1 4 7

= tan

3 1

1B ⋅

4 7

−1

= tan (1)

π

=

4

66. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); D − (r)

3 2

(A) x A 2x A x A 21 25

Lt =

2 4

x→1 x A 2x A 1

1 B cos x B 1 1 B cos y

Lt = Lt

2 2

x → 1 x B1 y → 0 y

2 y

2 sin

2

= Lt 2

y → 0 y

2

y

sin

1 2

= Lt

y → 0

2 y

2

1

=

2

1⁄ 2

25 5

∴ required limit = =

4 2

22

2 2 2

sin x 2 sin x A 3 sin x A 4 B sin x A 6 sin x A 2

(B) Lt

2 2 2

π cos x 2 sin x A 3 sin x A 4 A sin x A 6 sin x A 2

x→

2

2

1 sin x

= Lt sin x B 2 sin x B 1

2

9 A 9 π 1 B sin x

x→

2

1 sin x B 2

= ⋅1 Lt

6 π

B sin x A 1

x →

2

1 1 B1 1

= =

6 B2 12

B2 3 B B2 3 0

(C) = form

a Ba 0

By L′ Hospital rule,

g′ x f a B g a f ′ x

Lt = g′(a) f(a) − g(a) f′(a)

x→a

1

= 4 × 3 − (− 2)2 = 12 + 4 = 16

5

5 cos x A x sin x B 5

2 0

Lt form

(D) 4 0

x→0 x

5 5

B 5 sin x A sin x A x cos x

= Lt 2 2

3

x→0 4x

5

x cos x B sin x

= Lt 2

3

x→0 4x

5 x sin x

= Lt B

2

x→0 2 12x

B5

=

24

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