Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 90

 

IIT-JEE 2008
STS V/PCM/P(I)/QNS
BRILLIANT’S
HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008
PAPER I

PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

QUESTION PAPER CODE 5


Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 25 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet.
3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic

SEAL
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the
space provided on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.
6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling the ORS
8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and
Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.
9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS.

C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.
D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

Name: . Enrollment No.:


SEAL

I have read all the instructions I have verified all the informations
and shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

............................................... ...............................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 1


2

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A particle of mass M and charge Q is attached to a string
of length L. It is whirled into a vertical circle in field E as
shown in Figure. What is the speed given to the particle
at point B, so that tension in the string when particle is
at A is ten times the weight of the particle?
1
QE 2
(A) 5gL (B) 5g + L
M
1 1

(D) 5g + QE
QEL 2 2
(C)
M ML
2. A circular table rotates about a vertical axis with a constant angular speed ω. A
circular pan rests on the turn table and rotates along with the table. The bottom
of the pan is covered with a uniform thick layer of ice which also rotates with the
pan. The ice starts melting. The angular speed of the turn table
(A) remains the same
(B) decreases
(C) increases
(D)may increase or decrease depending on the thickness of ice layer
3. Two particles P and Q describe S.H.M. of same amplitude ‘a’ and frequency ‘n’
along the same straight line. The maximum distance between two particles is
a 2. What is the initial phase difference between the particles?
π π π
(A) zero (B) (C) (D)
2 6 3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 2


3

4. A small object of linear dimension ‘x’ lies on the axis of a spherical mirror of focal
length ‘ f’ at a distance ‘a’ from the mirror. The linear dimension of the image is
2 1 1
f f 2 f a−f 2
(A) x (B) x (C) x (D) x
a−f a−f a−f f
5. A toy ship of mass m rests on a perfectly smooth surface. It is to be moved by
radiations falling on it from a monochromatic source of wattage W and
wavelength λ. If c is speed of light, the time taken by the toy to acquire a speed
‘ω’ m/s will be
2
W mc mc W
(A) (B) ω (C) ω (D) ω
mω W W 2
mc

6. A faulty thermometer reads the melting point of ice as − 10°C. It reads 60°C in
place of 50°C. The boiling point of water in this thermometer is
(A) 100°C (B) 140°C (C) 130°C (D) 150°C
7. A machine gun shoots a 40 g bullet at a speed of 1200 m/s. The man operating
the gun can exert an average force of 144 N at the most. The maximum number
of bullets shot per second is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
8. A cell has an e.m.f of 1.5 volt with internal resistance 2 ohm. The terminal of the
cell are connected by two wires of resistance 2 ohm and 4 ohm in parallel and the
current is allowed to flow for a while. A little later, in the wire of 2 ohm current is
cut-off. The potential difference between the ends of the terminals of the cell

2
(A) drop by a factor of 1 (B) increases by a factor of
2 3
5
(C) drop by a factor of (D) will remain the same
3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 3


4

9. Two capacitors P and Q are connected in series across a 100 V supply. The
potential difference across them is found to be 60 V and 40 V respectively. A
capacitor of 2 µF is connected in parallel with P. This results in the rise of
potential across Q to 20 V. What is the capacitance of P?
(A) 1.6 µF (B) 0.24 µF (C) 0.64 µF (D) 0.4 µF
SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
10. Statement 1: Two identical trains are moving on rails along the equator on
earth in opposite directions with same speed. They will exert the
same pressure on the rails.
because
Statement 2: Due to rotation of earth, the effective weight of a body of mass m
2
is equal to (g − ω r).
11. Statement 1: Steel is a highly elastic material.
because
Statement 2: It has a high modulus of elasticity.
12. Statement 1: The velocity of sound is generally greater in solids than in gases
at N.T.P.
because
Statement 2: Solids have a much higher coefficient of elasticity than gases at
N.T.P.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 4


5

13. Statement 1: The root mean square speed of molecules of different ideal gases
at the same temperature is the same.
because
Statement 2: The R.M.S. velocity varies inversely as the square root of the
mass of the molecule.
SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16
An electric circuit containing three resistances 3 Ω, 5 Ω and 6 Ω and two batteries
of 60 V (internal resistance 1 Ω) and 6 V (internal resistance 1 Ω) is shown in the
following Figure.

14. The total current flowing in the circuit is


(A) 6 A (B) 5 A (C) 3 A (D) 2 A
15. The terminal voltage of battery P is
(A) 54 V (B) 64 V (C) 44 V (D) 40 V
16. The terminal voltage of battery Q is
(A) 12 V (B) 8 V (C) 10 V (D) 6 V
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 5


6

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19


−6
A coil of 50 turns and 10 cm diameter is made out of a wire of resistivity 2 × 10 Ω cm
and radius 0.1 mm. The coil is connected to a source of e.m.f 10 volts and of negligible
internal resistance.
17. The current through the coil is
(A) 1 A (B) 2 A (C) 1.8 A (D) 2.5 A
18. The potential difference across the coil to nullify the earth’s magnetic field (H = 0.314
gauss) at the centre of the coil is
(A) 1 V (B) 0.8 V (C) 0.5 V (D) 0.6 V
19. In order to nullify the earth’s magnetic field,
(A) the plane of the coil should be parallel to the magnetic meridian.
(B) the plane of the coil should be normal to the magnetic meridian.
(C) the plane of the coil should make an angle of 45° to the magnetic meridian.
(D)can be placed in any position.
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 6


7

20. Column I Column II


Physical Quantities Units of these Physical Quantities
(A) Capacitance (p) Ohm-metre
−1
(B) Inductance (q) Coulomb volt
−1
(C) Magnetic induction (r) Volt-second ampere
−1
(D) Specific resistance (s) Newton (ampere metre )

21. Column I Column II


Physical Quantities Expressions
hc
(A) Cut-off wavelength of X-rays (p)
Ve
h
(B) Energy of photon (q)
mv

(C) Maximum K.E. of photoelectrons (r) hc − hc


λ λ
0

hc
(D) de Broglie wavelength of matter (s)
λ
22. Column I Column II
Physical Quantities Formula
(A) Mean K.E. of a molecule of gas (p) Ve
1 2 2
(B) Kinetic energy due to rotation (q) mk ω
2
3 R
(C) Angular momentum (r)
2 N
(D) K.E. of electron in electric field (s) mvr

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 7


8

PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
23. A solution containing 0.1 M of a metal chloride MCl requires 500 mL of 0.8 M
x
AgNO3 solution for complete precipitation. The value of x is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3


24. For the redox reaction,
2− + 3+ 2+
Cr O + H + Ni → Cr + Ni +H O
2 7 2

the correct coefficients of the reactants in the balanced equation are


2− +
Cr O Ni H
2 7
(A) 1 3 14
(B) 2 3 14
(C) 1 1 16
(D) 3 3 12
25. The effective nuclear charge for the 4s electron in zinc atom (Z = 30) is
(A) 4.35 (B) 5.2 (C) 6.7 (D) 2.8
26. A solid has a structure in which W atoms are at the corners of cubic lattice,
O atoms at the centre of the edges and Na atom at the centre of the cube. The
formula of the compound is
(A) NaWO2 (B) Na2WO3 (C) NaWO3 (D) NaWO4

27. Which one of the following is not a pseudohalide ion ?


(A) Selenocyanate ion (B) Azide ion
(C) Amide ion (D) Azido carbon disulphide ion
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 8


9

28. Pick out the wrong combination of the following:


(A) XeO Trigonal pyramidal
3

(B) XeF Square planar


4

(C) XeF2 Linear

(D)XeOF Tetrahedral
2

29. The product is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

30. . Product Y is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 9


10

31. Following is a sequence of reactions. The reagents involved are

X Y Z
(A) NH2 ⋅ NH2 HCN dil. HCl
2+
(B) Hg /H2O AgCN H2O
2+
(C) Hg /dil. H2SO4 HCN dil. acid
+
(D) Na/Hg HCN H O
3
SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation
for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

32. Statement 1: CN ion is often referred to as pseudohalide ion.
because
− − −
Statement 2: C2N2 + 2OH → CN + CNO + H2O

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 10


11

33. Statement 1: Addition of HBr to 1-butene gives two optical isomers.


because
Statement 2: 1-butene contains a double bond.
34. Statement 1: Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution more readily.
because
Statement 2: Carbon-halogen bond in aryl halides has partial double bond
character.
35. Statement 1: 50% neutralization of a solution of a weak monobasic acid (pK = 5)
a
with NaOH solution results in a solution having pH = 5.
because

Statement 2: Hendersen equation is, pH = pKa + log S


A
SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38
Three electrolytic cells A, B, C containing electrolytes of ZnSO4, AgNO3 and
CuSO4 respectively, were connected in series. A steady current of 1.50 ampere was
passed through them until 1.45 g of silver were deposited at the cathode of cell B.
36. The current is passed for
(A) 864 s (B) 1000 s (C) 600 s (D) 500 s
37. The weight of copper deposited is
(A) 0.5 g (B) 1.45 g (C) 1.0 g (D) 0.426 g
38. The weight of zinc deposited is
(A) 0.426 g (B) 0.440 g (C) 0.5 g (D) 1.0 g

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 11


12

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41


Amino acids contain both an − NH group and a − COOH group. These are classified
2
as α, β, γ etc., depending upon the position of − NH group with respect to − COOH
2
group. α-amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Except glycine, all amino
acids exist in d and l forms. Due to the presence of − NH2 and − COOH groups within
the same molecule, they exist as dipolar ions or Zwitter ions.
39. Mark the wrong statement about denaturation of proteins.
(A) The primary structure of protein does not change.
(B) Globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins.
(C) Fibrous proteins are converted into globular proteins.
(D)The biological activity of protein is destroyed.
40. Amino acids are least soluble in water
(A) at pH = 7 (B) at pH > 7
(C) at pH < 7 (D) at isoelectric point
41. Bring out the wrong statement regarding amino acids.
(A) All the amino acids derived from proteins have at least one chiral centre.
(B) All the amino acids except cysteine are found to possess (S) absolute
configuration.
(C) The configuration of (S) − phenylalanine and (L) − phenylalanine are as given
below.

(D)Amino acids are amphoteric in character.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 12


13

SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:
p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s
42. Column I Column II
(A) Aniline (p) NaNO2 + HCl (0°C)
(B) Phenol (q) Br2 in acetic acid
(C) C2H5OH (r) PCl5
(D) CH2 = CH2 (s) H2/Ni
43. Column I Column II
Metallurgy of Operation
(A) Gold (p) Cyanide process
(B) Silver (q) Smelting
(C) Copper (r) Thermite process
(D) Manganese (s) Froth floatation
44. Column I Column II
(A) Raoult’s Law (p) ideal solution
(B) Chlorobenzene + bromobenzene (q) ∆Hmixing = 0
(C) HCl + water (r) non-ideal solution
(D) Ethyl alcohol + water (s) ∆Hmixing ≠ 0

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 13


14

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2
45. A solution of 5 + sin 3x = sin x + 2 cos x is equal to
nπ nπ nπ
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
3 2 4
46. A line which makes an acute angle θ with the positive direction of x-axis is
drawn through the point A(4, 5) to meet x = 7 and y = 8 at B and C respectively.
AB
Then is equal to
AC
1 1 2
(A) tan θ (B) tan θ (C) tan θ (D) tan θ
2 3 3
47. If log cosec x + log sec x = 2, then 2x is
sec x cosec x

π π π π
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 6 12 3
2 2 2 2
a − ax + x − a + ax + x
48. If f(x) = x ≠ 0, then value of f(0) such that f(x) is
a+x− a−x
continous at x = 0 (where a > 0) is
1 1
(A) (B) − (C) a (D) − a
a a

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 14


15

49. The area bounded by the curve y = ln x, the x-axis and the line x = e is

1 1
(A) 1 + sq. units (B) 1 − sq. units
e e

(C) e sq. units (D) 1 sq. unit


50. If m tan (θ − 30°) = n tan (θ + 120°), then tan 2θ is equal to

2 2
m m +n
(A) (B)
n m+n

2 2 2 2
m +n
(C) (D) 3m + 3n − 10mn
2 2
m −n m+n

4 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2
51. If in ∆ABC, sin A + sin B + sin C = sin C sin A + 2 sin A sin B + 2sin B sin C,
then

B is equal to either  or 

(A) 45°, 135° (B) 30°, 150° (C) 60°, 120° (D) 40°, 140°

52. If a × b = c × d and a × c = b × d, b ≠ c , then a − d is

(A) parallel to b − c (B) perpendicular to b − c

(C) parallel to b + c (D) perpendicular to b + c


3 2
53. If the roots of 27x − 108x + 117x − 28 = 0 written in ascending are in A.P., then
the common difference is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 15


16

SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
54. Statement 1: The A.M. and G.M. between two positive numbers are 20 and 16
64
respectively. Then their H.M. is .
5
because
Statement 2: The A.M, G.M. and H.M between two positive numbers form a
decreasing G.P.
55. Statement 1: The area of a regular polygon of 2n sides inscribed in a circle is a
mean proportional between the areas of the regular inscribed
and circumscribed polygons of n sides.
because
1 2 2π 2 π
Statement 2: kr sin , kr tan
are the areas of a regular polygon of k
2 k k
sides inscribed and circumscribed respectively inside and on the
circle of radius r.
x y 2 2
56. Statement 1: If the line + = 1 is a tangent to xy = c , then ab = c .
a b
because
Statement 2: The slope of the tangent to y = f(x) at (x1, y1) is f ′(x) at (x1, y1) if
f′(x) exists at (x1, y1).

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 16


17

5 4 3
57. Statement 1: If y = x − 5x + 5x − 10, then y has a local minimum at x = 3.
because
2
5 4 3 dy d y
Statement 2: For y = x − 5x + 5x − 10, (i) = 0 at x = 3 is zero and (ii) 2
dx dx
at x = 3 is positive.
SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraphs, 3 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60
2 2
x y
y = mx, y = m′x are two diameters of the ellipse + = 1. They are called
2 2
a b
2
b
conjugate, if mm′ = − .
2
a
2 2
x y
58. For the ellipse + = 1, the diameter conjugate to y = − 3x is
36 9
(A) x = 9y (B) x = 36y (C) x = 12 y (D) x = y
2 2
x y
59. CP, CD are a pair of semiconjugate diameters of the ellipse + = 1, where C
16 9
is the centre of the ellipse. Then area of the triangle CPD is
(A) 8 sq. units (B) 6 sq. units (C) 16 sq. units (D) 9 sq. units

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 17


18

2 2
x y
60. CP, CD are a pair of semiconjugate diameters of + = 1, if CP is 7 units,
36 4
then CD is

(A) 33 (B) 6 (C) 31 (D) 30

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63

dy
The solution of the differential equation + Py = Q, (where P and Q are functions
dx
∫ Pdx ∫ Pdx ∫ Pdx
of x) is ye =∫Qe dx + c, where e is called the integrating factor.

dy y
61. The solution of = at (1,1) is
dx 3y + 4x

3 4 2
(A) 2y = x + y (B) 2y = x + y (C) 2y = x + y (D) 2y = x

dy 3
62. The integrating factor of the differential equation cos x + y sin x = sin x is
dx

(A) cos x (B) sin x (C) sec x (D) cosec x

63. The integrating factor of the differential equation x(x − 1) dy − y = x (x − 1) is


2 2
dx

x x x−1 x+1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x−1 x+1 x x

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 18


19

SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:
p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

64. Column I Column II

3 5 7
(A) Sum to infinity of + + + ... is (p) 25
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 +2 1 +2 +3

(B) If log2 x + log2 y ≥ 6, the least value of x + y is (q) 8

(C) The greatest value of the product of three positive (r) 16


numbers when the sum of the products of them taken
two by two is, 12.
2
(D) The least value of 4 sec θ + 9 cosec θ is
2 (s) 6

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 19


20

65. Column I Column II


1 1 1
log + + A ... ∞
2.5 2 3
3 3 3
(A) The value of 0.16 is (p) 30
2
x
(B) If f(x) = ∫ t − 1 dt 1 ≤ x ≤ 3, then the global maximum of (q) 16
x
f(x) is
2 5
(C) Tangents are drawn from ( − 2, 0) to y = 8x. Then the area (r)
of the triangle formed by these tangents and the chord 16
of contact is
(D) A fair coin on whose faces are marked numbers 5 and 3 (s) 4
is tossed 4 times, the probability of getting a sum less than
15 in 4 tosses is

66. Column I Column II


2 2
(A) If in ∆ABC, a + b = 2Rc, then C is (p) 30°

2 2 2 2
(B) If in ∆ABC, (b + c ) sin (B − C) = (b − c ) sin(B + C), (q) 60°
b ≠ c, then A can be

(C) If in ∆ABC, b = 1 and the perimeter is six times the (r) 90°
AM of the sines of the angle, then measure of B is

2 2
(D) A tangent to the ellipse x + 4y = 4 meets the ellipse (s) 45°
2 2
x + 2y = 6 at P and Q. Then, the angle between the
tangents at P and Q is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 20


21

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 21


Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format:


10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.
11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-
2 (Reason).
Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.
13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is
correct.
14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in
the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to
these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given
at the beginning of the section.
D. Marking scheme:
15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles
corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly
bubbled answer.

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 26


1
 

IIT-JEE 2008
STS V/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS
BRILLIANT’S
HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER I - SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS
SECTION I
1. (B) The force acting on the particle in positions A and B are shown in Figure.
2
Mv
B
+ QE = TB + Mg
L
2
Mv
TA + QE = Mg + A
L
By principle of conservation of energy,
1 2 2
v B v = (Mg − QE)2L
A B
2
Putting TA = 10 Mg and solving the equation,
2 QE
we get v A = 5g A L
M
2. (B) On melting, the ice spreads on the table. Hence (because of an increase in the
distance of ice particle from the axis of rotation, the moment of inertia of the
system increases) the angular speed of the turn table decreases (according to
the law of conservation of angular momentum).
3. (B) The instantaneous displacements of the two particles are
y1 = a sin 2πnt and y 2 = a sin (2πnt + φ), where φ is the initial phase difference.
y = y2 − y1
= a sin (2πnt + φ) − a sin 2πnt

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 1


2

φ φ
= 2a cos 2π nt A sin
2 2

φ
The maximum value of y is thus 2a sin
2
φ
2a sin =a 2
2
φ 1 φ π
sin = or =
2 2 2 4

π
φ=
2
1 1 1
4. (A) For a spherical mirror, A =
v u f
2
1 1 dv v
Differentiation, B dv B du = 0 ⇒ =B
2 2 du 2
v u u

Magnification, m = B v = f du = x
u f B u
2 2
f f
|dv| = size of image = du = x
f B u a B f
hc
5. (B) Energy of each photon =
λ

Number of photons emitted in one second from source = W =
hc hc
λ
h
Momentum of each photon =
λ
Wλ h W
Total momentum imparted to the toy in one second = ⋅ =
hc λ c

mω mωc mc
Hence, the required time = = = ω
W ⁄c W W
6. (C) If θ is the temperature reading in the faulty thermometer and n = number of
divisions and since −10°C is the melting point of ice, thus comparing this
with centigrade scale.

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 2


3

C B0 θ B B 10°
=
100 n
But when C = 50°, then θ = 60°
50 B 0 60 A 10
= or n = 140
100 n

C B0 θ A 10
=
100 140
Hence for C = 100°C, we have θ + 10 = 140
θ = 130°C
−3
7. (A) Mass of bullet = 40 × 10 kg
Velocity = 1200 m/s
−3
∴ momentum = 40 × 10 × 1200
Let x number of shot/second
1
Hence time for one shot = s
x
−3
The rate of change of momentum = x × 40 × 1200 × 10 = x × 4 × 12
This is equal to 144 N.
144
∴x= =3
48
8. (B) Let V be the potential difference between the terminals of the cell.
i1 = current through 2 ohm resistance
i2 = current through 4 ohm resistance
Total current i = i1 + i2

Combined resistance, 1 = 1 A 1 or R = 4
R 2 4 3
E 1.5 9
But i = = =
R A r 4 20
A2
3
9 4 3
Again V = iR = × = volt
20 3 5
When the current is cut-off in 2 ohm, we have an internal resistance 2 ohm
and a wire of 4 ohm only.
Then, E = iR + ir

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 3


4

E 1.5
We get i = = = 0.25
R A r 2 A 4
Hence potential difference = V = current × resistance = 0.25 × 4 = 1 volt.

Here V increases to 1 volt from 3 volts because of change in resistance.


5
3 2
Increase = 1 − =
5 5
3 2 2
x⋅ = ⇒x=
5 5 3
2
i.e., V increases by a factor of
3
9. (A) Let C1 and C2 be the capacitances of P and Q.
C 40
1 2
In the first case, = = ... (1)
C 60 3
2
C A2 3
1
In the second case, = ... (2)
C 2
2
Solving (1) and (2), we get C1 = 1.6 µF
SECTION II
10. (D) Due to rotation of earth, the effective weight of a body of mass m is equal to
m(g − ω2r). Let v be the effective velocity of the body located at a distance r
from the centre of earth. The velocity of earth will be added to velocity of one
of the trains in the same direction and it will be subtracted from the velocity
of second train. The effective value of the velocity will be different. This
results in the different value for the weight m(g − ω2r) and hence the
effective value of the pressure of rails will be different.
11. (A)
12. (A) Solids have a much higher coefficient of elasticity than gases at NTP.
13. (D)
SECTION III
14. (A) To find the total current, the circuit should first be simplified. The
combination of 3 Ω and 6 Ω gives
1 1 1 3 1
= A = = or R = 2 Ω
R 6 3 6 2
Now the entire circuit has a series
combination of 1 + 5 + 1 + 2 = 9 Ω.
Since the two batteries would send
charges in opposite direction, the net
e.m.f = (60 − 6) = 54 V

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 4


5

54
∴ current = =6A
9
We calculate the (iR) drop through internal resistances keeping in mind the
signs. The terminal potential difference of 60 V battery is (− 6 + 60) = 54 V
with F positive. Similarly the terminal potential difference of 6 V battery is
(6 + 6) = 12 V with C positive relative to D.
15. (A)
16. (A)
17. (A) Radius of coil = 5 cm
Length of wire = 2πr × 50 = 2π × 5 × 50 cm
Radius of wire = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm
−4
Area of cross section = π (0.01)2 = π × 10 cm2
B6
ρ ⋅l 2 × 10 × 2π × 5 × 50
Resistance of wire = R = = = 10 ohm
A B4
π × 10
E 10
Current = = =1A
R 10
µ 2π n i
0
18. (C) Magnetic induction at the centre of circular coil, B =
4π r
µ
0 −7 −1 −1 −2
= 10 Wb m A , r = 5 cm = 5 × 10 m

B7
10 × 2π × 50 × i
B=
B2
5 × 10
−4
Magnetic induction due to earth = 0.314 × 10 T
B7
10 × 2π × 50 × i −4
∴ B2
= 0.314 × 10
5 × 10
−2
i = 5 × 10 ampere
−2
∴ potential difference across the coil = iR = 5 × 10 × 10
= 0.5 volt
19. (B)
SECTION IV
20. (A) − (q), (B) − (r), (C) − (s), (D) − (p)
21. (A) − (p), (B) − (s), (C) − (r), (D) − (q)
22. (A) − (r), (B) − (q), (C) − (s), (D) − (p)

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 5


6

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I
23. (C) MClx + x AgNO3 → x AgCl + M(NO3)x

−3
Moles of AgNO3 required for precipitation = 500 × 0.8 × 10

= 0.4
Now 0.1 mole of MClx requires 0.4 mole of AgNO3.

∴ 1 mole of MClx requires 4 mole of AgNO3

Hence x = 4.
2B + − 3+
24. (A) Cr O + 14H + 6e → 2Cr + 7H2O
2 7


Ni → Ni2+ + 2e × 3
2B
Cr O + 14H+ + 3Ni → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni2+ + 7H2O
2 7

25. (A) Using Slater’s rule,

σ = 10 × 1 A 18 × 0.85 A 1 × 0.35 = 25.65


nB1 d nB1 nB2 ns

∴ Zeff = 30 − 25.65 = 4.35

26. (C) In the cube,

1
W at the corners = 8 × =1
8

1
O at the centre of edges = 12 × =3
4
Na at the centre of cube = 1 × 1 = 1
Formula is NaWO3

27. (C) Ions consisting of two or more electronegative atoms of which at least one is
nitrogen, that have properties similar to those of halide ions.
− B
Selenocyanate ion (SeCN ), azide ion N , azido carbon disulphide ion
3
B
SCSN are pseudohalide ions.
3

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 6


7

28. (D) XeOF2 is T-shaped and not tetrahedral.

XeOF2 (T-shaped), XeO3 (Trigonal pyramidal),


3 3
sp d hybridisation sp hybridisation

XeF4 (Square planar), XeF2 (Linear),


3 2 3
sp d hybridisation sp d hybridisation

29. (B)

30. (A)

31. (C)

SECTION II
32. (A) Cyanogen disproportionates upon treatment with strong base as do, Cl2, Br2
and I2 .

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 7


8

33. (B)

The product contains one asymmetric carbon, hence shows optical isomerism.
34. (D) Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with difficulty.
S = 5 + log 50 = 5
35. (A) For 50% neutralization, pH = pKa + log
A 50
SECTION III
36. (A) Cell B contains AgNO3 and the reaction is
B
AgNO3 → Ag+ + NO
3

Ag+ + e → Ag (at cathode)
108 g of silver is deposited by 96500 coulombs
96500 × 1.45
1.45 g of silver is deposited by = 1295.6 C
108
Q=C×t
1295.6 = 1.5 × t
1295.6
= 863.7 Y 864.0 s
t=
1.5
37. (D) According to Faraday’s II law of electrolysis, in cells B and C
Weight of Ag Equivalent weight of Ag 1.45 108
= = =
Weight of Cu Equivalent weight of Cu x 31.75
31.75 × 1.45
x= = 0.426 g
108
38. (B) Similarly in cells A and B,
Weight of Ag Equivalent weight of Ag 1.45 108
= = =
Weight of Zn Equivalent weight of Zn x 32.75
32.75 × 1.45
x= = 0.440 g
108
Weight of zinc deposited = 0.440 g
39. (C)
40. (D) The pH at which the amino acid is in electrically neutral form is known as
the isoelectric point. It lies halfway between pK a and pK a values of most of
1 2
the amino acids.
1
pH = pK A pK
a a
2 1 2

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 8


9

41. (A) With the exception of glycine, all the amino acids have a chiral centre.

(No chiral centre)

(glycine)

SECTION IV

42. (A) − (p), (q); (B) − (p), (q), (r), (s); (C) − (r); (D) − (q), (s)

(A)

(B)

Phenol with PCl5 forms triphenyl phosphate.

(C) Ethanol with PCl5 forms ethyl chloride.

(D)

43. (A) − (p); (B) − (p), (s); (C) − (q), (s); (D) − (r)

44. (A) − (p), (q); (B) − (p), (q); (C) − (r), (s); (D) − (r), (s)

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 9


10

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

1 2
45. (D) LHS = 5 1 A sin 3x
5

RHS = 5 sin x B α

LHS ≥ 5 ; RHS ≤ 5
Only possibility is equality.
In this case, sin 3x = 0
3x = nπ


x= , n∈Z
3


However, x = does not satisfy the equation. Hence there is no solution.
3

xB4 y B5
46. (C) The equation of the line is = =r
cos θ sin θ
Any point on this line is [4 + r cos θ, 5 + r sin θ]
∴ 4 + AB cos θ = 7; 5 + AC sin θ = 8
⇒ AB cos θ = 3 ; ⇒ AC sin θ = 3

AB cos θ AB
=1 ⇒ = tan θ
AC sin θ AC

log cosec x log sec x


47. (A) Reducing to a common base, A =2
log sec x log cosec x

⇒ (log cosec x)2 − 2 (log sec x) (log cosec x) + (log sec x)2 = 0

⇒ (log cosec x − log sec x)2 = 0


⇒ log cosec x = log sec x
⇒ tan x = 1

π
⇒x=
4

π
∴ 2x =
2

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 10


11

48. (D) f 0 = Lt f x
x→0

Applying the method of multiplication and division by conjugate,

2ax aAxA aBx a ⋅2 a


we get, Lt B =B
x→0 2x 2 2 2 2 2a
a B ax A x A a A ax A x

= B a

49. (D)

e
e
Required area = ∫ ln x dx = x ln x B x 1
1

= 1 sq. unit

m tan θ A 120° tan x


50. (D) = = (say), where x = θ + 120° ; y = θ − 30°
n tan θ B 30° tan y

= sin x ⋅ cos y
cos x sin y

mAn sin x A y sin 90° A 2θ


= =
mBn sin x B y sin 150°

cos 2θ
=
1⁄2

= 2 cos 2θ

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 11


12

mAn
cos 2θ =
2 mBn
2
sin 2θ 1 B cos 2θ
tan 2θ = =
cos 2θ cos 2θ
2 2
3m A 3n B 10mn
∴ tan 2θ =
mAn
51. (B) By sine rule, the equation is
4 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2
a + b + c = c a + 2a b + 2b c
i.e., a4 + b4 + c4 − 2a2 b2 − 2b2 c2 = c2 a2
2 2
Add 2c a to both sides, then

(a2 − b2 + c2)2 = 3c2 a2

(2 ca cos B)2 = 3c2 a2


2 2 2 2 2
4c a cos B = 3c a

2 3
cos B =
4

3
cos B = ±
2
∴ B is 30° or 150°
52. (A) Considering the first choice (A),
aBd × bBc =a×b Ba×cBd ×bAd×c
= c × d B b × d A b × d B c × d [because of given conditions]

=0

⇒ a B d is parallel to b B c
The other choices are not correct (verify).
53. (A) Let the roots be α − d, α, α + d
Sum = α − d + α + α + d

108
3α = =4
27

4
α=
3
◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 12
13

Product of the roots = α (α − d ) = 28


2 2
27

4 16 2 28
Bd =
3 9 27
2
This gives d = 1 ∴ d = 1
SECTION II
2
54. (A) G.M = (A.M) (H.M)
2
G.M 256 64
∴ H.M = = =
A.M 20 5
55. (A) Let ρ be the radius of the circle. ∆1, ∆ 2, ∆3 denote the areas of the three
polygons (i.e., an inscribed polygon of 2n sides, inscribed polygon of n sides
and circumscribed polygon of n sides).
Using statement 2 which is true

2 π n 2 2π 2 π
∆1 = nρ sin ; ∆2 = ρ sin ; ∆3 = nρ tan
n 2 n n
2 2 4 2 π 2 π 2 π π
∆ = n ρ sin = nρ tan nρ sin cos
1
n n n n
2 π n 2 2π
= nρ tan ⋅ ρ sin
n 2 n

2 ∆ ∆
1 3
∆ =∆ ∆ ⇒ =
1 2 3
∆ ∆
2 1
2
56. (D) xy = c
dy dy y
x A y =0 ⇒ =B
dx dx x

dy y
1
at x , y =B
1 1
dx x
1

b y
1
Using statement (2) which is correct, we get B =B
a x
1

x y x y
1 1 1 1
A
a b a b 1
= = =
1 1 2 2
◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 13
14

a b
⇒ x1 = ,y =
1
2 2

2 2 ab
But x1 y1 = c ⇒c =
4
Statement (1) is not correct.

dy 4 3 2
57. (A) = 5x − 20x + 15x
dx

= 5x2 (x2 − 4x + 3)

= 5x2 (x − 1) (x − 3)
2
d y
2
= 20x3 − 60x2 + 30x = 90 at x = 3 = positive.
dx

SECTION III

9 1
58. (C) mm′ = − =B
36 4

1 1
(− 3)m′ = − ⇒ m′ =
4 12

1
Conjugate diameter is y = x
12
∴ x = 12y
59. (B) Let P and D be (4 cos θ, 3 sin θ) and (4 cos φ, 3 sin φ)

9
Slope of CP⋅ Slope of CD = B
16

3 sin θ 3 sin φ 9
⋅ =B
4 cos θ 4 cos φ 16

cos θ cos φ + sin θ sin φ = 0

π
cos (φ − θ) = 0 ⇒ φ − θ =
2

π
⇒φ= +θ
2
∴ D is (− 4 sin θ, 3 cos θ)

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 14


15

1
Area of ∆CPD = [4 cos θ ⋅ 3 cos θ − ( − 4 sin θ) 3 sin θ]
2

1
= [12 (cos2 θ + sin2 θ)]
2

1
= ⋅12
2

= 6 sq. units
2 2
60. (A) Using the idea in answer 59, we can prove that CP + CD = 36 + 4 = 40
2 2
CD = 40 − CP = 40 − 7 = 33

CD = 33

dx 3y A 4x
61. (B) =
dy y
dx 4x
B = 3 is linear in x.
dy y

4
Here, P = B ,Q=3
y

∫ P dy = ∫B 4y dy = B 4 log y = log y B4

−4
Integrating factor = y

∫ Qe∫ P dy
dy = ∫3 1 4
dy = 3 B
1
3
=B
1
3
y 3y y

1 1
x⋅ =B Ac
4 3
y y

At (1, 1), 1 = − 1 + c ⇒ c = 2

x 1
=B A2
4 3
y y

x = − y + 2y4

2y4 = x + y
◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 15
16

3
62. (C) The equation is dy A sin x y = sin x
dx cos x cos x

∫ P dx = ∫ sin x
cos x
dx = B log cos x = log sec x

∫ P dx log sec x
e =e = sec x

dy y
63. (A) The equation is B = x x B1
dx x x B1

1 1 1
P=B = B
x x B1 x x B1

x
∫ P dx = log x − log (x − 1) = log
x B1
x

e
∫ P dx = e log x B 1 = x
x B1

SECTION IV
64. (A) − (s); B − (r); C − (q); D − (p)

(A) T = 2r A 1 6 1 1
= =6 B
r
r r A 1 2r A 1 r r A1 r r A1
6

1
T =6 1B
1
2

1 1
T =6 B
2
2 3

−−−−−
−−−−−

1 1
T =6 B
n
n n A1

1
S =6 1B
n
n A1

Sum to infinity = 6(1 − 0) = 6

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 16


17

(B) log2 xy ≥ 6 ⇒ xy ≥ 26 ⇒ xy ≥ 64

Now apply A.M ≥ G.M,


xAy
≥ xy
2

x + y ≥ 2 xy
x+y≥2×8
⇒ x + y ≥ 16
(C) Let the positive numbers be x, y, z.
Given xy + yz + zx = 12
xy A yz A zx 1⁄3
Apply A.M. ≥ G.M., ≥ xy ⋅yz ⋅zx
3
4 ≥ (x2 y2 z2)1/3
x2 y2 z2 ≤ 43
2 2 2
x y z ≤ 64
xyz ≤ 8
2 2 2
(D) E = 4(1 + tan θ) + 9(1 + cot θ) = 13 + (2 tan θ − 3 cot θ) + 12
= 25 + (2 tan θ − 3 cot θ)2
E ≥ 25
65. (A) − (s); (B) − (p); (C) − (q); (D) − (r)
1
1 1 1 3 1
(A) A A A ... A ∞ = =
3 32 33 1 2
1B
3
1 log 2 log 2 log 2
log =B =B =
2.5
2 log 2.5 1 log 0.4
log
0.4
log 2
log 0.4
Let x = 0.16
log 2 log 2
⇒ log x = log 0.16 = 2 log 0.4
log 0.4 log 0.4
= 2 log 2 = log 4
⇒x=4

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 17


18

(B) By Leibnitz rule, f′ (x) = (x2 − 1) 2x − (x − 1)


2
= (x − 1) [2x + 2x − 1]

2
1 3
= x B1 2 xA B
2 4

≥ 0 for all x in [1, 3]

⇒ f(x) is increasing in [1, 3]

∴ f(3) is the global maximum = ∫ t B 1 dt


3

9
2
tB1
= = 30
2 3

(C)

Now (− 2, 0) is a point on directrix.

∴ AP is perpendicular to BP.

Let A and B be ‘t1’ and ‘t2’.

Chord of contact is x = 2

∴ A = (2, 4)

Area of ∆PAB = 2 area of ∆ PSA

1
=2× × PS × SA
2

=4×4

= 16 sq. units

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 18


19

(D) Only possibilities are 5, 3, 3, 3 or 3, 3, 3, 3


4 4
4 1 1
Probability that getting a sum less than 15 = C A
3
2 2

1
= 4A1
16

5
=
16
66. (A) − (r); (B) − (r); (C) − (p); (D) − (r)
2 2
(A) a + b = 2Rc
2
c
i.e., a2 + b2 =
sin C

⇒ a2 + b2 ≥ c2
2 2 2
i.e., a + b − c ≥ 0
⇒ 2ab cos C ≥ 0
⇒ cos C ≥ 0
⇒ C ≤ 90° ... (1)
2 2
Also, sin A + sin B = sin C

1 − cos2 A + sin2 B = sin C


1 − sin C = cos (A + B) cos (A − B)
= − cos C cos (A − B)

sin C B 1
cos C = ≤0
cos A B B
C ≥ 90° ... (2)

From equations (1) and (2), we get C = 90°


2 2 2 2
(B) The expression = (sin B + sin C) sin (B − C) = (sin B − sin C) sin (B + C)
2
= sin (B + C) sin (B − C)

⇒ sin (B − C) [sin2 B + sin2 C − sin2 (B + C)] = 0


2 2 2
⇒ sin (B − C) [sin B + sin C − sin A] = 0

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 19


20

One possibility is sin2 B + sin2 C = sin2 A


2 2 2
i.e., b + c = a
∴ A can be 90°

sin A A sin B A sin C


(C) a A 1 A c = 6
3

a 1 c
=2 A A
2R 2R 2R

1
= aA1Ac
R
⇒R=1
b 1
= 2R ⇒ =2
sin B sin B
1
⇒ sin B =
2
∴ B = 30° or 150°
⇒ B = 30° since b = R = 1 ⇒ the triangle is right angled.
2 2
(D) II ellipse is x A y = 1
6 3
Chord of contact of tangents from (h, k) is
xh yk
A =1
6 3
h 3
y =Bx A
2k k
2 2
It is a tangent to the first ellipse x A y = 1
4 1
2
9 h
∴ =4 A1
2 2
k 4k
2
9 h
2
=
2
A1 ⇒ h 2 + k2 = 9
k k
∴ (h, k) lies on the director circle of the first ellipse.
∴ angle is 90°

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 20


 

IIT-JEE 2008
STS V/PCM/P(II)/QNS
BRILLIANT’S
HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008


PAPER II
PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE 4
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:

A. General
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 25 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page
(page no. 26) of this booklet.
3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the

SEAL
space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Filling the ORS
9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and
Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.
10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts.
11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in
box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this.
12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET.

C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.
D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

Name: . Enrollment No.:


SEAL

I have read all the instructions I have verified all the informations
and shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

............................................... ...............................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 1


2

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A frame of mass 200 g; when suspended from a certain coil spring, is found to
stretch the spring by 10 cm. A stone of mass 200 g is dropped from rest on the
pan of the frame from a height 30 cm (as shown in Figure). Find the maximum
distance moved by frame downwards.
(A) 20 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 40 cm
2. A cylindrical tank with a base area A is filled with water to a height H. A small
hole of area σ appear at the bottom of tank. Determine how long it takes the
H
level of water to be at a height ?
2

A 2H A 2H
(A) (B)
σ g 2σ g

2A 2H A H
(C) (D) 21
σ g σ g
3. A rod 1 metre long revolves at a constant angular velocity of 20 rad/s in a magnetic
−4
field of induction 500 × 10 Tesla. The axis of rotation passes through the end of
the rod and is parallel to magnetic field. Find the induced e.m.f at the ends of
rod.
(A) 1 V (B) 0.5 V (C) 1.5 V (D) 0.1 V

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 2


3

4. Three glass prisms A, B, C of same refractive index are placed in contact with
each other as shown in Figure. A monochromatic ray OP passes through the
assembly and emerges as QR. The condition for minimum deviation is satisfied in

(A) Prisms (A) and (C)

(B) Prisms (B) and (C)

(C) Prisms (A) and (B)

(D) Prisms (A), (B) and (C)

5. The Figure shows a current loop having two circular arcs joined by two radial
lines. What is the magnetic field at the common centre O?

µ iθ r  r µ iθ r  r
0 2 1 0 1 2
(A) (B)
4π r r 4π r r
1 2 1 2

µ iθ r  r µ iθ r  r
0 1 2 0 1 2
(C) (D)
2π r r r r
1 2 1 2

6. A person going out from a factory on his scooter at a speed of 36 km/hr hears the
sound from the siren of frequency 600 Hz. The wind is blowing along the
direction of the scooter at 36 km/hr. What is the frequency heard by the person in
the scooter? The speed of sound in still air is 340 m/s.

(A) 583 Hz (B) 650 Hz (C) 500 Hz (D) 600 Hz

7. A mass M is broken into two pieces m and (M − m). How are m and M related, so
that the force of gravitation between the parts is maximum?

M M M M
(A) m = (B) m = (C) m = (D) m =
2 3 4 5

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 3


4

8. A particle is fired vertically upwards with a speed of 9.8 km/s. Find the
maximum height attained by the particle if the radius of earth is 6400 km and g
2
on the surface of earth is 9.8 m/s .
(A) 27300 km (B) 20900 km
(C) 13650 km (D) 10450 km
9. An X-ray tube operates at 20 kV. A particular electron loses 5% of its kinetic
energy to emit an X-ray photon at the first collision. The wavelength
corresponding to this photon is
(A) 1 Å (B) 1.24 nm (C) 1.24 Å (D) 0.124 Å

SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

10. Statement 1: The total energy of a body in motion is equal to the work it can
do in being brought to rest.
because
Statement 2: The kinetic energy of a body in motion is equal to the work it can
do in being brought to rest.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 4


5

11. Statement 1: When water in a bucket is whirled fast overhead, the water does
not fall out at the top of the circular path.
because
Statement 2: The centripetal force in this position on water is less than the
weight of water .
12. Statement 1: The location of the centre of mass of a system of particles is
independent of the reference frame used to locate it.
because
Statement 2: The centre of mass depends only on the masses of the particles
and their positions relative to one another.
13. Statement 1: There is no change in the energy of a charged particle moving in
a magnetic field although a magnetic force is acting on it.
because
Statement 2: The charged particle moves in a magnetic field, when the
magnetic force is perpendicular to the path of the charged
particle.
SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16
A telescope has an objective of focal length 50 cm and an eyepiece of focal length
5 cm. The least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. The telescope is focussed for
distinct vision on a scale 200 cm away from the objective.
14. The separation between the objective and eyepiece is

425 425
(A) 25 cm (B) cm (C) cm (D) 150 cm
6 3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 5


6

15. The magnification produced by objective lens is

1 1 1 1
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
3 6 2 5
16. The final total magnification is
(A) − 2 (B) − 3 (C) − 4 (D) − 5

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19


In the circuit shown below, E1 = 3 V, E2 = 2 V and E3 = 1 V.

The values of R = r1 = r2 = r3 = 1 Ω.

17. The potential difference between the points A and B is


(A) 3 V (B) 2 V (C) 1 V (D) 2.5 V
18. The current in the branch PX is
(A) 1 A (B) 0 (C) 1.5 A (D) 2 A
19. If in the given circuit, r2 is short circuited and the point A is connected to point B,
then the current through E2 is

(A) 2 A (B) 1 A (C) 3 A (D) 0

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 6


7

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

20. Column I Column II


(Physical quantities) (Dimensional formula)
2 −3
(A) Energy (p) ML T
−1 −2
(B) Momentum (q) ML T
−1
(C) Power (r) MLT
2 −2
(D) Pressure (s) ML T

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 7


8

21. Column I Column II


(Physical Quantities) (Formulae)

B
(A) Cyclotron frequency (p)
µ
0

(B) Magnetic intensity in a magnetic field (q) e E  v × B


(C) Lorentz force (r) Blv
(D) Induced e.m.f in a rod moving in Be
magnetic field (s)
2π m

22. Column I Column II


(Changes introduced in (Changes in fringe pattern)
Young’s double slit experiment)
(A) If sodium light is replaced by (p) all fringes are coloured
red light of same intensity except central fringe.
(B) Monochromatic light is (q) fringe width will become
replaced by white light quadrupled.
(C) Distance between slits and (r) the bright fringe will become
screen is doubled and the distance less bright.
between slits is halved
(D) If one of the slits is covered by (s) the fringe width will increase.
cellophane paper

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 8


9

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type


This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

23. Which of the following compounds on reaction with ethyl magnesium iodide will
form 2-methyl-butan-2-ol?

(A) Formaldehyde (B) Acetaldehyde

(C) Acetone (D) Ethyl alcohol

24. Following is an important reaction industrially. Pick out the correct statement
regarding this reaction.

H+  (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2
2 CH C = CH → CH C  CH = C CH  H →
3 2 2 3 3 3 2

CH CCH C CH CH = C CH
3 3 2 3 2 32

2, 4, 4, 6, 6-pentamethyl-2-heptene

(A) The above reaction is called cationic trimerization.

(B) It is catalysed by H2SO4, H3PO4, AlCl3 or BF3.

(C) The sequence that the electron deficient carbocation adding to another
molecule of alkene, terminates when a proton is lost.

(D) All are correct.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 9


10

25. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH followed by acidification,
salicylaldehyde is got. Which of the following species is involved as an intermediate?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

26. 2.0 g of sulphur is burnt in an open vessel. The same amount of sulphur is burnt
in a closed vessel with sufficient oxygen. If ∆H in both the cases are ∆H1 and ∆H2
respectively, then
(A) ∆H1 = ∆H2 (B) ∆H1 > ∆H2

(C) ∆H1 < ∆H2 (D) cannot be predicted

27. An aqueous solution contains 10% by mass of urea and 5% by mass of glucose. If
−1
molal depression constant of water is 1.86° molal , the freezing point of the
solution is
(A) 4.27°C (B) − 4.27°C (C) 2.29°C (D) − 2.29°C.
28. Bring out the wrong statement.
(A) Generation of electric current by applying pressure on a crystal is called
piezoelectric effect.
(B) In an antifluorite structure, anions have CCP arrangement but cations
occupy all the tetrahedral voids.
(C) For a FCC cube, face diagonal = 2 × edge length.
1
(D) For a BCC arrangement of atoms, radius of atom r = × edge length.
4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 10


11

29. On boiling an aqueous solution of KClO 3 with I2, which reaction takes place?

(A) 2KClO3 + I2 → 2KIO3 + Cl2

(B) KClO3 + I2 + H2O → KCl + 2HIO2

(C) KClO + I + H O → KClO + 2HI


3 2 2 4

(D) No reaction takes place.

30. Bring out the wrong statement.

(A) The lattice energy of CaO(s) is − 3460 kJ/mol but for K2O it is − 2240 kJ/mol.

(B) NH3 is a gas but water is a liquid at room temperature because hydrogen
bond forces are stronger in water than in NH3.

(C) Graphite carbon is used as a lubricant.

(D) The first ionization energy of Mg is lesser than that of aluminium.

31. Following are some statements regarding the properties of some complexes.
Bring out the correct statement.

(A) The trans isomer of complex CoCl2(en)2 is optically inactive.

(B) Tetrahedral complexes do not show geometrical isomerism.

2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
(C) Amongst Cu , Ni , Co and Fe complexes, copper gives the most stable
complex.

(D) All are correct.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 11


12

SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation
for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
32. Statement 1: Fluorine shows an oxidation state of − 1 only, while other halogens
show oxidation states of + 1, + 3, + 5 and + 7 as well.
because
Statement 2: In fluorine, there is no d-orbital.
33. Statement 1: Pentahalides of phosphorous act as Lewis acids.
because
Statement 2: All the pentahalides exist as ionic in solid state.
34. Statement 1: α and β-particles are always emitted simultaneously in
radioactive transmutation.
because
4 0
Statement 2: α-particles are He and β-particles are e.
2 1

35. Statement 1: Amino acid units in a polypeptide are linked by peptide bond.
because
Statement 2: Lecithin is an example of β-amino acid.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 12


13

SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38
Two complexes are called stereoisomers, when they contain the same ligands in
their coordination sphere but differ in their spatial arrangement. Stereoisomerism is
classified as geometrical and optical isomerism. In geometrical isomerism, the similar
groups may be adjacent or opposite to each other. When they are adjacent, it is a cis
isomer, and when they are opposite it is a trans isomer. Optical isomerism is due to
the absence of elements of symmetry in the complex.
3
36. What is not true regarding Cr NH ion?
36

(A) The complex is paramagnetic.


(B) It is octahedral in nature.
2 3
(C) The hybridisation involved is d sp .
(D) It is an outer orbital complex.
37. The two complexes given below are

(A) geometrical isomers (B) position isomers


(C) optical isomers (D) identical
38. For the square planer complex (MABCD) (where M is the central metal atom, A, B, C
and D are monodentate ligands), the number of possible geometrical isomers are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 13


14

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41

A polymer is a compound of high molecular weight formed by the union of a large


number of molecules of one or more types of low molecular weights (known as
monomers). Monomers always contain a double or a triple bond. The process is called
polymerization.

Polymerization is of two types. (i) addition polymerization − simple polymers unite


without the loss of simple molecules like H2O, NH3, C2H5OH etc., (ii) condensation
polymerization − simple polymers unite with the loss of small molecules.

39. Teflon is a polymer of monomer


(A) difluoroethane
(B) monofluoroethane
(C) tetrafluoroethene
(D) trifluoroethane
40. What is not true of the following statements?
(A) Bakelite is a polymer of phenol and formaldehyde.
(B) Proteins are natural polymers.
(C) The monomeric unit of orlon molecule is CH2 = CH − CH2CN.

(D) F2C = CF2 is the monomer of teflon.

41. In the reaction,

Polymer X is
(A) Nylon-6 (B) Nylon-6,6 (C) Nylon-6,10 (D) None of these
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 14


15

SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

42. Column I Column II


..
(A) C5H5N (p) unidentate

(B) 2, 2′-bipyridyl (q) zero charge

(C) Ph3P (r) bidentate

(D) Ethylene diamine (s) basic character

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 15


16

43. Column I Column II

(A) R−C≡C−R (p) Peracetic acid

(B) CH3COCH3 (q) 50% NaOH

(C) CH CCHO (r) Anhydrous AlCl3


3 3

(D) (s) Na/liquid NH3

44. Column I Column II

(A) Hg (p) Superconductor at 4 K

(B) Fe (q) Conducts current in the solid


state

(C) Graphite carbon (r) Maximum ferromagnetism

(D) Ag (s) Sulphide ore

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 16


17

PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C), (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
3
45. If xyz = p , then the minimum value of (1 + x) (1 + y) (1 + z) where x, y, z are
positive is
3 3 3 2
(A) 1 + p (B) (1 + p) (C) 1 − p (D) (1 + p) (1 + p )
1
dx
46. ∫ is greater than or equal to
2 3
0 4B x B x
π π π π
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 2 6
2
d y dy
47. The solution of x A = log x, when y(1) = 1 and y′(1) = − 1, f(x) is equal to
2 dx
dx
2 2
(A) x log x − x + 3 (B) x log x + x + 3
(C) x log x − 2x + 3 (D) x log x + 3x − 2
2 2
x y
48. A normal to the ellipse A = 1 is inclined to major axis at an angle 45°.
2 2
a b
Also the normal meets the major and minor axes at P and Q. Then the area of the
triangle CPQ, where C is the centre of the ellipse is
2
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 a B b a B b a B b
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 4ab
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
a A b a A b 2
a A b

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 17


18

49. The tangent at points represented by the complex numbers a and b, on |z| = r
meet at z . Then z is
0 0

2ab ab 2ab ab
(A) (B) (C) (D)
aB b aB b aA b aA b
50. There are 10 coins out of which one coin is double headed. A coin is chosen at
random and tossed 4 times. Head appears on all the 4 times. The probability that
it is the double headed coin is
16 3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
25 5 5 2
51. The number of values of ‘k’ for which the system of equations (k + 1) x + 8ky = 4k,
kx + (k + 3)y = 3k − 1 has no solution is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite
T
7 10
52. If A is a skew symmetric matrix, then A A A is equal to
10 7 7 10 10 7 T T
(A) A +A (B) A − A (C) A −A (D) A + B
53. The number of positive integral solutions of the equation
−1 −1 y B1 3
tan x + cos = sin is
2 10
1A y
(A) zero (B) one (C) two (D) three

SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 18


19

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct


explanation for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
2 2
54. Statement 1: The minimum length of the chord of x + y = 4 through the
1
point 1, is 11 units.
2
because
Statement 2: Minimum length of the chord through an internal point (x1, y1)
of a circle is obtained, when (x1, y1) is the midpoint of the chord.

55. Statement 1: If a B b p A b B c q A c B a ⋅ p × q = 0, where a, b, c


are the lengths of the sides of a triangle, then the triangle is
equilateral.
because
Statement 2: If a, b,c are non-coplanar and xa A yb A zc = 0, where x, y, z
(not all zero) are scalars, then x = y = z = 0.
2
x
t 2
56. Statement 1: The equation of the tangent to the curve y = ∫e t A 1 dt
1
y
at x = 1 is x A = 1.
4e
because
f x
Statement 2: If y = ∫ F t dt, then dy = F f x f′ x B F g x g′ x .
g x dx

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 19


20

57. Statement 1: The set of all points (x, y) in I quadrant satisfying


|x − 3| + |y − 5| = |x| + |y| with x < 3 and y < 4, form a
triangle of area 8 sq. units with the coordinate axes.
because
Statement 2: If z is positive, |z| = z.
If z is negative, |z| = − z.
SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60
f(x) is a polynomial in x.
(1) If f(λ) and f(µ) are of opposite signs, then the equation f(x) = 0 has a real root
lying between the real numbers λ and µ.
(2) If f(x) = 0 has two real roots α and β, then f′(x) = 0 will have a real root lying
between α and β.
(3) If α is a double root of f(x) = 0, then α will be a root of f′( x) = 0.
3
58. A root of x + 4x − 6 = 0 lies in the interval
(A) (1, 2) (B) (2, 4) (C) (2, 3) (D) (0, 1)
2
59. If p +q + r = 0, then the equation 3px + 2qx + r = 0 has at least one root in
(A) (1, 2) (B) (2, 3) (C) (0, 1) (D) ( − 1, 0)
2 2
60. If 1 lies between the roots of the equation 3x − (3 sin α) x − 2 cos α = 0, then α
lies in the interval

π π π π 5π π π π 5π
(A) 0, (B) , (C) , (D) , ∪ ,
2 12 2 6 6 6 2 2 6

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 20


21

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63

The number of integral solutions of x + x + ... + x = n, where x ≥ 0, x ≥ 0, ..., x ≥ 0


1 2 r 1 2 r
(r + n − 1)
is C
n

The number of integral solutions of x1 + x2 + ... + xr = n, where x1 ≥ 1, x2 ≥ 1, ..., xr ≥ 1


(n − 1)
is Cr − 1

61. The positive integral solutions of x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 = 20, where x1 ≥ 0, x2 ≥ 1, x3 ≥ 3


x ≥ 5 is
4

(A) 14 (B) 91 (C) 3003 (D) 364

62. The integral solutions of x + x + x + x = 18, x + x = 4, where x ≥ 0 is


1 2 3 4 1 2 i

(A) 50 (B) 75 (C) 100 (D) 70

63. The positive integral solutions of 6 < x1 + x2 + x3 < 10 is

(A) 64 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 68

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 21


22

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:
p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

64. Column I Column II

(A) A box contains 3 red, 4 black and 5 (p) 242


green balls. The number of ways in
which three can be selected from the
box if at least one red ball is to be
included is

(B) A question paper contains 5 questions (q) 136


each having an alternative. The
number of ways in which an examinee
can attempt one or more questions is

(C) If one quarter of all four element (r) 50


subsets of the integers 1, 2, ..., n
contains the integer 7, then the value
of n is

(D) A regular polygon of 10 sides is (s) 16


constructed. The number of ways in
which 3 vertices are selected, so that no
two vertices are consecutive is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 22


23

65. Column I Column II


B1 9π
(A) cos cos equals (p) 0
8

B1 3π B1 π 2π
(B) sin sin B cos cos equals (q)
4 4 3
B1 4π B1 5π π
(C) tan tan A cos cos equals (r)
3 3 4
B1 1 B1 1 7π
(D) 2 tan A tan equals (s)
3 7 8
66. Column I Column II
1 B cos x B 1
3 2 2
x A 2x A x A 21 x B 1 1
(A) Lt is (p)
x → 1
2 12
x A 2x A 1

2 2
(B) Lt tan x 2sin x A 3 sin x A 4
(q) 16
π
x →
2

2
B sin x A 6 sin x A 2 is
(C) If f(a) = 3, f′(a) = 2, g(a) = − 2, g′(a) = 4, 5
(r) B
24
g x f a Bg a f x
then Lt is
x → a xBa
5
5cos x A x sin x B 5 5
(D) 2 (s)
Lt is 2
4
x → 0 x

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 23


24

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 24


25

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 25


Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format:


10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.
11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-
2 (Reason).
Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.
13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is
correct.
14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in
the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to
these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given
at the beginning of the section.
D. Marking scheme:
15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles
corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly
bubbled answer.

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 26


1
 

IIT-JEE 2008
STS V/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS
BRILLIANT’S
HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER II - SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS
SECTION I
1. (C) When the stone falls on the pan of the frame, the impact is completely
inelastic. At the instant of impact, the stone has a velocity = 2gh = 2g × 30 .
By principle of conservation of momentum, the stone plus frame will have a
velocity v given by

200 2gh 2gh


v = =
200 A 200 2

Kinetic energy of stone and pan = 1 × 400 × v


2

1 2gh
= × 400 × = 100gh
2 4
= 3000g
If the maximum stretching of spring due to impact is x, the work done in
spring to stretch it from elongation 10 cm to (10 + x) must be equal to kinetic
energy of (stone + frame) plus the loss of potential energy of (stone + frame).

If k is spring constant, work done = 1 k 10 A x 1


2 2
B k ⋅10
2 2

200
But k = × g = 20 g
10
◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 1
2

∴ 1 × 20 × g
2 2
10 A x B 10 = 3000g + 400 xg
2
x2 − 20x − 300 = 0
∴ x = 30 cm
2. (D) Let dh be the fall in level of water in a time dt s.
∴ water drained in this time = Adh

Since the velocity of effluent of water from hole is 2gh,

the water drained = 2gh σ ⋅dt

∴ Adh = 2gh dt ⋅σ
dh σ
= 2g ⋅ ⋅ dt
h A
H⁄ 2 T
dh σ
Integrating, ∫ =B 2g ⋅
A
∫ dt
H h 0

The minus sign indicates decrease in level.


H⁄2
1⁄ 2
h σ
=A 2g ⋅ ⋅T
1 A
2 H

1⁄ 2
1⁄ 2 H σ
2 H B = 2g ⋅T
2 A

A H
∴ T = 2 B 1
σ g
3. (B) Upon each revolution of rod, the magnetic flux which it intersects
2
= B ⋅ πl , where l is the length of rod. If the rod makes n revolutions per second,
2 2 ω
E = B⋅πl ⋅n = B⋅πl ⋅

where ω is the angular velocity.
B4 2
500 × 10 π × 1 × 20
E = = 0.5 V

4. (C) In the prisms A and B, the incident ray goes parallel to the phase of the
prism. Hence they undergo minimum deviation.

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 2


3

5. (A) As the point O is on the line AD, the magnetic field due to AD at O is zero.
The field at O due to BC is zero. The field at the centre of a circular current
µ i
loop is 0 .
2r
1

θ µ i
0
The field at the centre of a circular loop, BA = ⋅
2π 2r
1
The field is coming out of the plane of line.

θ µ i
0
The field due to circular arc, DC = ⋅ going into the plane of paper.
2π 2r
2

θ µ i θ µ i
0 0
The resultant field at O = 0 A 0 A ⋅ B ⋅
2π 2r 2π 2r
1 2

µ θi 1 1
0
= B
2π 2r 2r
1 2

µ θi r B r
0 2 1
=
4π r r
1 2
6. (A) The speed of sound in still air is 340 m/s. As both observer and wind are moving
at the same speed along the same direction with respect to ground, the observer
is at rest with respect to the medium. The source is moving with respect to the
wind at a speed of 36 km/hr or 10 m/s. As the source is going away from the
observer who is at rest with respect to the medium, the frequency heard is
v
n′ = × n
v A u
s

340
= × 600 = 583 Hz
340 A 10
G ⋅m m
7. (A) F = 1 2
2
r
F = k ⋅m m = k m M B m
1 2
2 2
M M 2
= k B A mM B m
4 4
2
2
M M
= k B B m
4 2

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 3


4

For F to be maximum, M B m = 0
2

M = 2m or m = M
2

8. (B) At the surface of earth, potential energy = B GMm


R

Kinetic energy = 1 mv where vo = 9.8 km/s.


2
0
2
At the maximum height, the kinetic energy is zero and
potential energy = B GMm
R A H

By principle of conservation of energy, B GMm = B GMm A 1 mv


2
0
R A H R 2
2
Putting GM = gR and dividing by m,
2
v 2
gR 0
B gR A =B
2 R A H
2
2 v
R
= R B 0
R A H 2g
2 2
R 6400 km
R A H = =
2 2
v 9.8 km⁄s
R B
0 6400 km B
2
2g 2 × 9.8 m⁄s
2
6400
= km
1500
= 27306 km
Height = 27306 − 6400 = 20906 km Y 20900 km

9. (B) Kinetic energy acquired by electron = eV


−19
= 1.6 × 10 × 20,000
3
Energy of photon = 0.05 × 20 × 10

= 103 eV

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 4


5

hc 3 hc
= 10 ⇒ λ =
λ 3
10
B 34 8
6.62 × 10 × 3 × 10
=
3 B 19
10 × 1.6 × 10
−9
= 1.24 × 10 m
λ = 1.24 nm

SECTION II
10. (D) It is not the total energy but only the kinetic energy that is used up, when
the body is brought to rest. We must therefore say that the kinetic energy of
a body in motion is equal to the work it can do in being brought to rest.
11. (A) The water does not fall from bucket when it is at the top of the circular path
because the centripetal force on water is less than its weight at this position.
12. (A) The centre of mass of a system of particles is given by
∑ mi r i
r =
∑ mi
and depends only on the masses of particles and their positions relative to
one another.
13. (A) A charged particle moves in a magnetic field when the magnetic force is
perpendicular to the path of the charged particle. Thus, there is no change in
the velocity or energy of the particle moving in a magnetic field although a
magnetic force is acting on it.

SECTION III
14. (B) W1 = − 200 cm, fo = + 50 cm, fe = + 5 cm, v2 = − 25 cm
Let the separation between objective and eyepiece be x.
x = v A u
1 2

1 1 1 1 1 3
= A = B =
v f u 50 200 200
1 o 1

200 cm
⇒ v =
1
3
1 1 1 1 1 6
= B =B B =B
u v f 25 5 25
2 2 o

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 5


6

25
⇒ u =B cm
2
6

25
u =
2
6

200 25 425 cm
∴ x = A =
3 6 6

200
v 3 1
1
15. (A) Magnification by objective = = =B
u B 200 3
1

Negative sign shows that the image is inverted.

16. (A) Final total magnification = mo × me

v v
200⁄3 B 25
1 2
= × = ×
u u B 200 B 25⁄6
1 2

=−2

17. (B) Let I1, I2, I3 be the currents through resistances r1, r2 and r3. Using Kirchhoff’s
law for loops PQRSP and PQRSYXP

Applying

I1r1 + I2r2 = E1 − E2 or I1 + I2 = 1 ... (1)

I1r1 + I3r3 = E1 − E3 or I1 + I3 = 2 ... (2)

Applying Kirchhoff’s Law at point P

we have I1 = I2 + I3 ... (3)

Solving equations (1), (2) and (3), we get

I1 = 1 amp. I2 = 0 amp. I3 = 1 amp

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 6


7

Potential difference between PQ via E1

V1 = E1 − I1 r1 = 3 − 1 × 1 = 2V

∴ potential difference between A and B = 2 V

18. (A)
19. (A) When r2 is short circuited, the potential difference across PS is still 2 V and
the current through R is 2 A. The current through E2 is 2 A and the currents
through E1 and E3 remain unchanged.

SECTION IV
20. A − (s); B − (r); C − (p); D − (q)

21. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); D − (r)


22. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); D − (r)

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 7


8

PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I

23. (C)

24. (D) (CH3)2C = CH2 + H+ → (CH3)3C+

+
H + (CH3)3 C(CH2) C(CH3)2 CH = C(CH3)2
2, 4, 4, 6, 6-pentamethyl-2-heptene
25. (B)

26. (A) S + O2(g) → SO2(g)

Since ∆n(g) = 0

∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT

∴ ∆H = ∆E
27. (B) Mass of solution = 100 g
Mass of glucose = 5 g
Mass of urea = 10 g
Mass of water (100 − 15) = 85

10 5
Total number of moles of solute = 
60 180
= 0.167 + 0.028 = 0.195 mol.
◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 8
9

0.195 × 1000
Effective molality = = 2.294
85

Now ∆Tf = Kf × m

= 1.86 × 2.294 = 4.27

Freezing point = 0 − 4.27 = − 4.27°C

28. (D) For a BCC arrangement

1
r = × Body diagonal
4

1
= × 3 × edge length
4

In an antifluorite structure, anions have CCP arrangement and cations


occupy all the tetrahedral voids. Coordination number is 4 : 8. e.g., Na2O.

29. (A) 2KClO3 + I2 → 2KIO3 + Cl2

2+ +
30. (D) • Ca is more highly charged than K , thus cation − oxygen bonds are stronger
in CaO.

• Graphite consists of two dimensional sheets of covalently bonded carbon


atoms. The attractive forces between layers are weak London forces, which
allow the sheets to slide easily over one another.

• The highest energy (outermost) electrons in Al is in a 3p-orbital, whereas


that electron in Mg is in a 3s-orbital. The 3p electron in Al is of higher energy
(is more shielded) than the 3s electron in Mg.

31. (D) • The trans isomer of CoCl2(en)2 has a plane of symmetry and can be divided
into two equal halves and hence optically inactive.

Trans isomer, optically inactive

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 9


10

• In tetrahedral complexes, the relative position of the ligands attached to the


central metal atom are the same with respect to each other.

• Amongst Cu2+, Ni2+ and Co2+ complexes, the size of the copper is the
smallest, therefore it gives the most stable complexes.

SECTION II
2 2 2 2 1
32. (A) Fluorine is 1s 2s 2p 2p 2p . It has only half-filled orbital and there is no
x y z
d-orbital available for excitation of electrons. Further, it is the most
electronegative element. Hence it shows the oxidation state − 1 only. In all
the other halogens, d-orbitals are available for excitation of electrons.
33. (B) In pentahalides, the central atom can easily accept the halide ion (due to the
presence of vacant d-orbital) and can extend their coordination number.
34. (D)

35. (C)

Lecithin

SECTION III

36. (D) 3d5 4s1 4p


Cr atom
3 4s 4p
3d

Cr3+ ion

[Cr (NH3)6]
3+ •• •• •• •• •• ••
144444424444443
d2sp3 hybridised

• Due to three unpaired electrons, it is paramagnetic.


• The hybridisation is d2sp3.
• The d-orbitals involved are (n − 1) d. Hence it is an inner orbital complex.

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 10


11

37. (D)

38. (D)

39. (C)
40. (C) The monomeric unit of orlon molecule is CH2 = CHCN (acrylonitrile).

41. (A)

SECTION IV
42. A − (p), (q), (s); B − (q), (r), (s); C − (p), (q); D − (q), (r), (s)
43. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); (D) − (r)

(A)

CH3 COOOH
(B) CH3COCH3 → CH3COOCH3 (Baeyer Villiger oxidation)

50% NaOH
(C) (CH3)3 CCHO → (CH3)3 C − COONa + (CH3)3 CCH2OH
Cannizaro reaction

(D)

44. A − (p), (s); B − (q), (r), (s); C − (q); D − (q), (s)

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 11


12

PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
1/3
45. (B) x, y, z are positive ⇒ x + y + z ≥ 3 (xyz)
i.e., ≥ 3p
2 2 2 1/3
xy + yz + zx ≥ 3(x y z )
2
≥ 3p
Now, (1 + x) (1 + y) (1 + z) = 1 + (x + y + z) + (xy + yz + zx) + xyz
2 3
≥ 1 + 3p + 3p + p
3
≥ (1 + p)
46. (D) In [0, 1], x3 is positive.
2 3 2
4−x −x ≤4−x
1 1
dx dx
∫ 2 3
≥ ∫ 2
0 4 B x B x 0 4 B x
1
B1 x
i.e., ≥ sin
2 0

π
i.e., ≥
6
d dy
47. (C) x = log x
dx dx
dy
x = x log x B x A c
dx
Applying the given conditions
−1=0−1+c
⇒c=0
dy
x = x log x B x
dx
dy
= log x B 1
dx
y = x log x − x − x + k
Applying the given conditions
1=0−2+k⇒k=3
y = x log x − 2x + 3

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 12


13

48. (C) Equation to the normal at “θ” to the ellipse is

ax by 2 2
B =a B b
cos θ sin θ

2 2 2 2
a B b a B b
∴ P is ⋅ cos θ, 0 ; Q is 0, B ⋅ sin θ
a b

C is (0, 0).
2 2 2
1 a B b
Area of ∆CPQ = B ⋅ cos θ sin θ
2 ab
2 2 2
1 a B b
= sin θ cos θ (numerically)
2 ab
Now, slope of normal

a sin θ
= =1
b cos θ

b
⇒ tan θ =
a
2 2 2
1 a B b b a
Area = ⋅ ⋅
2 ab 2 2 2 2
a A b a A b
2 2 2
1 a B b
=
2 2 2
a A b

z B a
0
49. (C) is purely imaginary.
a

z B a z B a
0 0
=B
a a

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 13


14

z z
0 0
B1=B A1
a a

z z
0 0
=B A2
a a

z z
0 0
Similarly =B A 2
b b
2 2
But, aa = r , b b = r ⇒ a = r , b = r
2 2

a b

z z
0 0
=B A2
a 2
r ⁄a

z z
0 0
=B A2
b 2
r ⁄b

b a
z B z = 0 A 2b B 2a
0 0
a b

2 2
b B a
z =2 b B a
0
ab

a A b
z =2
0
ab

2ab
⇒ z =
0
a A b

50. (A) E1 → the event that the coin is double headed;

E2 → the event that the coin is unbiassed.

1 9
P E = , P E =
1 2
10 10

A → the event that all the time is displayed head.

A A 1 1
P = 1, P = =
E E 4 16
1 2 2

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 14


15

By Baye’s theorem,

A
P E ⋅P
1
E E
1 1
P =
A A A
P E ⋅P A P E ⋅P
1 2
E E
1 2

1
⋅1
10
=
1 9 1
⋅1 A ⋅
10 10 16

16
=
25
51. (B) The system of equations has no solution.

k A 1 8 4k
⇒ = ≠
k k A 3 3k B 1
(k + 1) (k + 3) = 8k and ... (1)
8(3k − 1) ≠ 4k (k + 3) ... (2)

i.e., k2 − 4k + 3 = 0
k = 1, 3 out of which only k = 3 satisfies (2).
∴ k = 3 is the only solution.

52. (C) (A7)T = (A.A . . . 7 factors)T


T T
= A ⋅ A . . . 7 factors
= ( − A) (− A) ( − A) . . . 7 factors (Q A is skew symmetric)
7 7
= ( − A) = − A
10 T 10
Similarly, (A ) =A
10 7
Required expression = A −A

B1 B1 1 B1
53. (C) Given equation is tan x A tan = tan 3
y

B1 1 B1 B1
tan = tan 3 B tan x
y

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 15


16

B1 1 B1 3B x
tan = tan
y 1 A 3x

1 A 3x
⇒ y =
3 B x
x, y are positive integers.
When x = 1, y = 2
x = 2, y = 7
These are the only two solutions.

1
54. (A) M 1, is midpoint of chord AB.
2
Centre = (0, 0)
Radius CA = 2
2 1 5
CM = 1 A =
4 4
2 5 11
∴ AM = 4 B =
4 4

11
AM =
2
Length of the chord = AB = 2 AM

= 11
55. (A) p , q and p × q are non-coplanar and statement 2 is true.
∴ a − b = 0; b − c = 0; c − a = 0
⇒a=b=c
∴ the triangle is equilateral.
2
x
t 2
56. (D) y = ∫ e t A 1 dt
1

2
∴ dy = e
x 4
x A 1 2x B 0
dx
dy
at x = 1, e(2)2 = 4e
dx
Slope of the tangent = 4e

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 16


17

At x = 1, y = 0
Point (1, 0)
Equation to the tangent is y − 0 = 4e (x − 1)
y = 4ex − 4e
4ex − y = 4e

y
x B = 1
4e
57. (D) Because of the given condition ((x, y) in I quadrant)
|x − 3| + |y − 5| = x + y
x < 3 and y < 4, by statement (2) which is
true, the above equation becomes
3−x+5−y=x+y
x + y = 4,
which is a straight line segment AB.
Required area of the trapezium
1 15
= 4 A 1 × 3= sq. units
2 2
The given boundaries do not form a triangle.
58. (A) f(1) = − ve ; f(2) = + ve
Root lies between 1 and 2 and no roots lie in the other interval as f(x) is
increasing.
3 2
59. (C) Integrating the given expression, we get px + qx + rx
3 2
Let F(x) = px + qx + rx
F(0) = 0
F(1) = p + q + r = 0, by given condition
∴ 0 and 1 are roots of F(x) = 0
2
Now, f(x) = F′(x) = 3px + 2qx + r = 0 has at least one root in (0, 1)
60. (D) Let a, b be the roots.
f(x) = 3(x − a) (x − b)
f(1) = 3(1 − a) (1 − b)
= − ve, (Q a < 1 < b)

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 17


18

3 − 3 sin α − 2(1 − sin2 α) < 0


2
2 sin α − 3 sin α + 1 < 0
(2 sin α − 1) (sin α − 1) < 0
1
sin α lies between and 1
2

sin 30° = sin 150° = 1


2
π 5π π
α lies between to excluding , as sin α ≠ 1
6 6 2
61. (D) Put y1 = x1

y2 = x2 − 1

y3 = x3 − 3

y4 = x4 − 5
⇒ y1 ≥ 0, y2 ≥ 0, y3 ≥ 0, y4 ≥ 0

Equation becomes y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 + 9 = 20
y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 = 11
(4 + 11 − 1) 14
Required number of solutions = C11 = C11
14
= C3 = 364
62. (B) We get two sets, x3 + x4 = 14 ... (1)
x1 + x2 = 4 ... (2)
Number of solutions for (1) is
(2 + 14 − 1) 15
C14 = C14 = 15
Number of solutions for (2) is
(2 + 4 − 1) 5
C4 = C4 = 5

∴ the required number of solutions = 15 × 5 = 75


63. (A) x1 + x2 + x3 lies between 6 and 10.
There are 3 sets
x1 + x2 + x3 = 7
x1 + x2 + x3 = 8
x1 + x2 + x3 = 9

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 18


19

∴ the required number of solutions

= (7 − 1)C3 − 1 + (8 − 1)C3 − 1 + (9 − 1)C3 − 1

6 7 8
= C2 + C2 + C2

= 15 + 21 + 28
= 64
64. A − (q); B − (p); C − (s); D − (r)

(A) If there is no restriction, the number of ways = 12C3


9
Number of ways in which the red balls are excluded = C3
12 9
∴ the required number of ways = C3 − C3

= 220 − 84
= 136
(B) For each question there are 3 choices.
[He may not attempt or he may attempt any one of the alternative].
There are 5 questions.

Number of ways = 35
This includes the 1 way in which he will not attempt any question
5
∴ the required number of ways = 3 − 1
= 243 − 1 = 242
n
(C) Number of 4 element subsets = C4

(n − 1)
Omitting 7, the number of 3 element subsets = C3

To these subsets include 7


(n − 1)
∴ the number of subsets including 7 = C3

1 n n B 1
Given C = C
4 3
4

1 n n B 1 n B2 n B3 n B 1 n B 2 n B3
=
4 24 6
4 × 24
⇒ n = = 16
6

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 19


20

(D) The required number of selections = Number of selections without restriction


− (Number of selections in which 3 vertices are consecutive) − (Number of
selections when 2 vertices are consecutive).
Without restrictions = 10C3
3 consecutive vertices = A1 A2 A3 , A2 A3 A4 , . . . , A10 A1 A2
= 10
Number of selections when 2 vertices are consecutive = 10 × 6C1
(Q after selecting two consecutive vertices in 10 ways, the third can be
selected from 6 vertices)
10 6
∴ the required number of selections = C3 − 10 − 10 × C1
= 120 − 10 − 60
= 50
65. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); D − (r)
B1 9π B1 7π
(A) cos cos = cos cos 2π B
8 8
B1 7π 7π
= cos cos =
8 8


Q ∉ 0, π , whereas
8

∈ 0, π
8

B1 3π B1 1 π
(B) sin sin = sin =
4 2 4

B1 π π
and cos cos =
4 4

B1 3π B1 π
∴ sin sin B cos cos =0
4 4
B1 4π B1 π π
(C) tan tan = tan tan =
3 3 3
B1 5π B1 π B1 π π
cos cos = cos cos 2π B = cos cos =
3 3 3 3

Hence the required expression =
3

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 20


21

2
B1 1 B1 1 B1 3 B1 1
(D) 2 tan A tan = tan A tan
3 7 1 7
1B
9

B1 3 B1 1
= tan A tan
4 7

3 1
A
B1 4 7
= tan
3 1
1B ⋅
4 7

−1
= tan (1)

π
=
4
66. A − (s); B − (p); C − (q); D − (r)
3 2
(A) x A 2x A x A 21 25
Lt =
2 4
x→1 x A 2x A 1

1 B cos x B 1 1 B cos y
Lt = Lt
2 2
x → 1 x B1 y → 0 y
2 y
2 sin
2
= Lt 2
y → 0 y
2

y
sin
1 2
= Lt
y → 0
2 y
2

1
=
2
1⁄ 2
25 5
∴ required limit = =
4 2

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 21


22

2 2 2
sin x 2 sin x A 3 sin x A 4 B sin x A 6 sin x A 2
(B) Lt
2 2 2
π cos x 2 sin x A 3 sin x A 4 A sin x A 6 sin x A 2
x→
2

2
1 sin x
= Lt sin x B 2 sin x B 1
2
9 A 9 π 1 B sin x
x→
2

1 sin x B 2
= ⋅1 Lt
6 π
B sin x A 1
x →
2

1 1 B1 1
= =
6 B2 12
B2 3 B B2 3 0
(C) = form
a Ba 0
By L′ Hospital rule,

g′ x f a B g a f ′ x
Lt = g′(a) f(a) − g(a) f′(a)
x→a
1

= 4 × 3 − (− 2)2 = 12 + 4 = 16

5
5 cos x A x sin x B 5
2 0
Lt form
(D) 4 0
x→0 x

5 5
B 5 sin x A sin x A x cos x
= Lt 2 2
3
x→0 4x

5
x cos x B sin x
= Lt 2
3
x→0 4x

5 x sin x
= Lt B
2
x→0 2 12x

B5
=
24

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS V/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 22