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IIT-JEE 2008 STS VI/PCM/P(I)/QNS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008


PAPER I PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

Maximum Marks: 243

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. 8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. B. Filling the ORS 9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts. 11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this. 12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

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Enrollment No.:

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PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C), and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. The velocity of a projectile at any instant is u making an angle to the horizon. The time after which it will be moving at right angles to this direction is (A) u cosec g (B) u cos g (C) u sin g (D) u tan g

2. The number of possible overtones of air column in a closed pipe of length 83.2 cm and diameter 6 cm, whose frequencies lie below 1000 Hz will be (given the velocity of sound is 340 m/sec) (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 2

3. The current through 7 resistor of the circuit in amp is (A) 0.9 amp (B) 1.2 amp (C) 0.054 amp (D) 1 amp 4. In the arrangement shown in Figure the sleeve of mass m is fixed to a spring, whose spring constant is k. The sleeve can slide without friction over a horizontal bar AB. The arrangement rotates about a vertical axis passing through the middle of the bar. The natural length of the spring is l. The mass m has an elastic collision with plate P fixed at a distance r. If the mass m is displaced away from the plate at a distance r, what is the period of oscillation? SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(A) 3 (C)

k m k m +
2

(B)

2 k m k m
2 2

(D)

5. Three moles of an ideal monoatomic gas performed a cycle as shown in Figure. The gas temperature in different states are T = 400 K, T = 800 K, T = 2400 K, during the cycle, if the gas constant R = 8.314 J/mol K. (A) 19.953 kJ (C) 27.4 kJ (B) 9.8 kJ (D) 12.853 kJ T4 = 1200 K. Determine the work done by the gas
1 2 3

6. In the periodic table there are three consecutive elements a, b, c. The radioactive isotope a transforms into b which in turn transforms into c . The last element transforms into an isotope of a . The transformations are caused by (A) -decay, -decay, -decay (C) -decay, -decay, -decay from 10
10

(B) -decay, -decay, -decay (D) -decay, -decay, -decay

7. The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its de Broglie wavelength m to 0.5 10
10

m will be (C) 0.5 MeV (D) 100 eV

(A) 0.45 keV

(B) 1 MeV

8. If the surface of a photoelectric metal plate is successively exposed to radiation of wavelengths 350 nm and 540 nm, the maximum velocity of photoelectron will differ by a factor of 2. What is the work function of metal? (A) 1.884 eV (B) 2.2 eV (C) 0.8 eV (D) 2.8 eV

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9. A diver whose height is h is standing at the bottom of a reservoir at a depth H. The minimum distance he can see from the point, he stands to the point at the bottom due to internal reflection from water surface of water to (A) 3 7 2H h (B) 1 7 2H h (C) 2 7 2H h (D) 7 2H h 4 3 will be equal

SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 11. Statement 1: The refractive index is different for light of different colours. A charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field at an angle of 85 to the magnetic lines of force and the path of the particle is a circle. The path of the charged particle in a magnetic field will be a circle only if it moves at right angles to magnetic lines of force. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK The focal length of a lens is the same for light of all colours.

because Statement 2:

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12. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 13. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

The resistance of an incandescent lamp is greater when it is switched off.

The resistance depends upon the temperature of the filament which is greater when it is on. A point in space can have a non-zero potential even, when the electric field in the space is zero.

If V is constant in space the potential gradient in any direction is zero and the potential exists when there is no electric field. SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 A piece of copper having an internal cavity weighs 264 gm in air and 221 gm in water. The density of copper is 8.8 gm/c.c. 14. What is the volume of copper with cavity? (A) 43 c.c (A) 13 c.c (B) 21 c.c (B) 20 c.c (C) 64 c.c (C) 40 c.c (D) 51 c.c (D) 35 c.c 15. What is the volume of cavity? 16. When the copper piece in the problem is weighed in a liquid, it weighs 229.6 gm, what is the density of liquid? (A) 0.6 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.8 (D) 0.75

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 A hammer of mass M drops from a height h. It strikes a nail placed vertically on the ground and drives it into the ground through a distance d. 17. Calculate the average resistance offered by the ground assuming that hammer and nail remain stuck together after impact. (A) M gh M+m d M+m M
2 2

+ (M + m) g

(B)

M + m gh M
2 2

(C)

gh d

(D)

M+m M g dh

18. Calculate the time for which the nail is in motion. (A) M+m M M+m M d 2 gh (B) M M+m M+m M 2 1 gh d 2gh g

(C)

d gh

(D)

19. Calculate the loss in K.E in impact. (A) 1 Mm V


2

2 M+m
2

(B) 1 MV 2 M+m Mm (D) 1 2 V2 M + m

(C) 1 mV 2 M+m

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SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 20. Column I (A) Stress (B) Young s modulus (C) Poisson s ratio (D) Bulk modulus (p) (q) (r) (s) p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II Hydrostatic pressure Volume strain Lateral strain Longitudinal strain Tensile stress Longitudinal strain Force Area

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21.

Column I (A) Average kinetic energy of a molecule per degree of freedom (B) Molecular kinetic energy per unit volume of gas

Column II (p) 3 2 P 3P 3 2 1 2 RT

(q)

(C) Internal energy of one mole of an ideal gas (D) Root mean square velocity 22. (A) Column I Energy stored in a charged conductor

(r) (s)

kT

Column II (p) 1 4 1
0

q r q

(B)

Potential due to a point charge

(q)

4 r 2 0 2Ve m 1 2 QV
0

(C) (D)

Electric intensity due to a point charge Velocity of electron in a uniform electric field

(r)

(s)

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PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. A 400 mg iron capsule contains 100 mg of ferrous fumerate [(CHCOO)2 Fe]. The percentage of iron in the capsule is approximately (A) 33% (B) 25% (C) 14% (D) 8% 24. Equal volumes of two gases which do not react together are enclosed in separate vessels at 100 mm and 400 mm pressure respectively. If the two vessels are joined together at the same temperature, what will be the total pressure of the resulting mixture? (A) 125 mm (B) 500 mm (C) 1000 mm (D) 250 mm 25. Which one of the following is correct? (A) Schottky defect lowers the density. (B) Frenkel defect increases the dielectric constant of the crystals. (C) Stoichiometric defects make the crystals good electrical conductors. (D) All the above. 26. Relationship between molality (m), molecular weight of solvent (M ) and mole 1 fraction of solute (x2) is given by mM (A) x = 2
1 1 1

mM (B) x2 =

1 1 1

1 mM 1 mM mM
1

1 + mM

(C) x2 =

(D) x2 =

1 + mM mM
1

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27. An organic compound having the molecular formula C3H5N, on hydrolysis forms an acid which reduces Fehling solution. The compound is (A) ethane nitrile (C) ethyl carbylamine 28. Consider the following alcohols CH CH CH C H , 3 2 6 5 OH I CH2 CH2 CH2OH, C6H5 II (B) ethoxy ethane (D) propane nitrile OH CH2 CH CH3 C6H5 III

The correct sequence of decreasing order of reactivity of these alcohols in their reaction with HBr is (A) I > II > III (B) II > I > III 29. The final product Y is (C) I > III > II (D) II > III > I

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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30. Arrange the following in order of increasing acidity: H 3PO4, H2CO3, HCl and HI (A) H3PO4 < HCl < H2CO3 < HI (B) H3PO4 < H2CO3 < HCl < HI (C) H CO < H PO < HCl < HI 2 3 3 4 (D) H2CO3 < HI < HCl < H3PO4 31. White phosphorus + caustic soda phosphine + NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of (A) oxidation (C) neutralization (B) reduction (D) disproportionation SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: because Statement 2: Cassiterite being magnetic is attracted by magnetic field and forms a separate heap. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Wolframite impurities are electromagnetic separation. separated from cassiterite by

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12

33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 34. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

Crude common salt becomes damp on keeping in air. Common salt is hygroscopic. The conjugate base of formate ion [H COO ] is CO 2 .
2

The hydrogen atom in the formate ion H COO is not ionisable. The enzyme urease is a protein.

All proteins are enzymes. SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 Elbs persulphate oxidation consists of oxidation of monohydric phenols to dihydric phenols. The para isomer is generally formed. If para position is not free, then OH group will go to ortho position. This reaction is applicable to simple and substituted phenols, naphthols, coumarin and flavones. The reaction is carried out with 10% NaOH solution at 25C. The reaction mixture is kept overnight. The proposed mechanism of the reaction is C6H5 OH K2S2O8

C6H5 O + H 2K + S O
2 2 8

2 8

O C H
6 4

C6H5 O + S O
2

+ SO OSO
3

2 4

+H

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13

36. What happens when o-chlorophenol is treated with 10% NaOH solution and K S O at 25C and the reaction mixture is kept overnight? 2 2 8 The product formed is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

37.

The compound formed is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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14

38. 3-alkyl-2-naphthol is treated with K2S2O8 in the presence of 10% KOH. The product formed is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 Phosphorus forms a number of oxyacids in which phosphorus atom is in different oxidation states. They differ in basicity of the acid. Some of these acids have reducing nature while others do not. The anions have different geometry. 39. Oxidation state of P in H3PO4 and HPO3 are respectively (A) + 3, + 5 (C) + 3 in both cases (B) + 5, + 3 (D) + 5 in both cases

40. Which of the following does not have reducing property? (A) H PO 3 3 (B) H3PO4 (C) H3PO2 (D) none

41. Identify the false statement. (A) H3PO3 is tribasic, non-reducing agent (B) H3PO4 is tribasic, non-reducing agent (C) H4P2O7 is tetrabasic, non-reducing agent (D)HPO3 is monobasic, non-reducing agent SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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15

SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 42. Column I (A) SO2 (B) (C) PH3 PCl5 p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) sp (q) sp
3

(r) sp d (s) reducing agent Column II (p) H = + ve (q) H = ve (r) G = ve (s) Formation of water

(D) SO3 43. Column I (A) Combustion of hydrocarbon (B) Neutralisation (C) Ionisation of weak acids (D) E (forward) E (backward) is a a positive

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16

44.

Column I (A) (CH3)3C Cl (B) (CH3)3C OH


LiAlH 4

Column II (p) Oxidation

Cu 300C Zn(Hg) + conc. HCl

(q) CH3 COOH (r) CH3 C = CH2 CH3

(C) CH CO CH 3 3

(D) CH CO CH 3 3

(1) Br 2 and NaOH (2) H

(s) CH CH CH 3 2 3

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17

PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. If x, y, z are positive numbers such that x + y + z = 1, then is greater than or equal to (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 1 1 x 1 1 y 1 1 z 1

46. u1, u2, u3, ... are the terms of a sequence which are in G.P. such that and

i =1

u =3
i

i=1

u = 3. Then the 5th term of the G.P. is


i

(A)

3 16

(B)

3 32

(C)

3 8

(D)

3 4

47. (p tan , p), (p tan , p), (p tan , p), (p > 0) are the vertices of a triangle whose circumcentre is the origin, and circumradius is a . Then the orthocentre of the triangle is (A) ( a cos , a sin ) (C) ( a sin , a cos ) (B) ( a tan , 3a) (D) ( a sec , 3a)

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48. If the roots of x 4x + b = 0 are real and differ by a quantity less than 1, then b belongs to the interval (A) (0, 1)
1 2 3

(B) 1,

3 2

(C)

15 4

,4

(D) 5,

21 4

49. If z , z , z are non zero complex numbers whose reciprocals are in A.P., then they lie on (A) a line through the origin (B) a circle through the origin (C) a line, which form a triangle with the coordinate axes (D) a parabola through the origin 50. If cos + cos + cos = 0 and cos 3 + cos 3 + cos 3 = k cos cos cos , then k is equal to (A) 4 (B) 12 (C) 3
Lt

(D) 1 1 cos 4x is x
2

51. If f(x) is continuous and f(8) = 3 , then x 0 f 2 (A) 9 2 (B) 3 2


2

(C)

2 9 4 is

(D)

2 3

52. If f(0) = f (0) = 0 and f (x) = sin x, then f (A) 4 16


2

(B) 8 64

(C) + 8 64

(D) + 4 16

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53. If c = (A) 0

a b a a b ab
2

, then the scalar triple product c a b is (C) 2 SECTION II (D) 3

(B) 1

Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 55. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 56. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The maximum value of a cos + b sin is a SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
2

In ABC, cos A + cos B + cos C

3 2

In ABC, sin

A 2

sin

B 2

sin

C 2

1 8

101 102 103 ... 107 is divisible by 5040. The product of r consecutive positive integers is divisible by r The maximum value of 5 cos + 12 sin is 17.
2

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57. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

0 a

dx sin x cos x

=0

f x dx = f a x dx
0 0

SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 In ABC, D is any point on the base BC such that BD : DC = m : n, BAD = , DAC = , CDA = . Then (m + n) cot = m cot n cot = n cot B m cot C 58. In ABC, D, E are the points of trisection of the base BC, ADE = AED = . Then tan A is equal to (A) 3 tan tan 3 (C) 6 tan tan 9
2 2

(B)

tan tan 3
2

(D)

6 tan tan + 9
2

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59. In ABC, D is the midpoint of BC, and ADC = . Then cot is (A) R sin A 2 (C) R
2

(B) R sin B 2
2 2 2 (D) R sin A sin B 2

(A) 60 (B) 75 (C) 80

sin C sin B

60. From the Figure, is

(D) 120 Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 Symmetric form of the equation of a straight line is xx yy 1 = r, 1 = cos sin

where is the angle made by the straight line with the x-axis measured in the anticlockwise direction, r is the algebraic distance of general point (x, y) from the fixed point (x1, y1). If y > y1, r is considered as positive. If y < y1, r is considered as negative. This is a convention, we can take the other possibility also as a convention. 61. A straight line through A(1, 2) meet the coordinate axes in B and C such that AB = 4 units. Then AC is (A) 2 3 (B) 1 3 (C) 1 2 (D) 1

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62. Two circles of radii 5 touch at (1, 1) whose common tangent is 4x + 3y = 7. Then centre of one of the circles is (A) (4, 5) (B) ( 5, 4) (C) (4, 5) (D) ( 3, 2) 63. AB is a chord of y = 8x, midpoint of AB is (1, 3). Then the slope of AB is (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 1 (A) 4 3 4 8 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 64. Column I (A) If the roots of
2

q q q q q

r r r r r

s s s s s Column II (p) {2}

p p p p

a1 x +x+1 = a+1 x +x +1 are real and distinct, then the value of a does not belong to (B) If the roots of x 2x (1 + 3m) + 7 (3 + 2m) = 0 are (q) [ 2, 2] equal, then the set of values of m is (C) If the roots of the equation x + a = 8x + 6a are real, (r) ( 3, 3) then the value of a belongs to (D) If the roots of 9x + 4ax + 4 = 0 are imaginary, then (s) ( 2, 8) the value of a belongs to SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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65.

Column I
2

Column II

(A) If f(x) = x 5x + 6, then Right hand derivative (p) 4 Left hand derivative at x = 2 is (B) If f(x) = x , n being a non-negative integer, the (q) 1 value of n for which the equality f (a + b) = f (a) + f (b) is valid for all a, b > 0 is (C) If xe
xy n

= y + cos x, then
1 2 2

dy dx

at x = 0 is
2

(r) 2

(D) If y = sin 1x 66.


2

x x

+ cos dy is dx

x , then

(s) 3

d y
2

dx Column I (A) If Sn =

Column II S
n

r=1

r, n > 6, then S 7 n

is equal to (p) 4 (q) 4 11

(B) If a, b, c are unequal positive numbers which are in A.P., then or equal to (C) Let d f x dx = e a+b 2b a + c+b 2b c is greater than
2

sin x

, x > 0, then
1

2e

sin x

dx

(r) 5

= f() f(1). Then the possible value of is y x+y (D) dy + = 0 and y(1) = 1. Then y(2) is 2 dx x SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(s) 3

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.

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IIT-JEE 2008 STS VI/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS


PART A: PHYSICS SECTION I 1. (A) Initially the horizontal velocity component = u cos and the vertical component = u sin . After a time t the horizontal velocity component = u cos The vertical velocity component = u sin gt It is given in the problem that the two directions are mutually perpendicular. From the Figure,

v sin = Horizontal component after time t = u cos v cos = Vertical component after time t v cos = u sin gt and v cos = u sin . gt = u sin + v cos = u sin +
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u cos sin

cos
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 1

gt =

u sin

u cos

sin

u sin

= u cosec

t = u cosec g 2. (B) In a closed pipe = L = 4 + 3d

Only odd harmonics are present. 340 n0 = v = 4l 4 83.2 10 = 102 Hz The possible overtones below 1000 Hz are 3n0, 5n0, 7n0 and 9n0. 3. (C) Total current i = 2 9.45 1.55 = 0.18 A
2

Current in 7A is given by i1 =
2

13.5 31.5 13.5

0.18 = 0.054 A

4. (A) m d x = k m 2 x 2 dt or osc = k m
2

x = A sin (t + ) A = 2r, t = 0, x = 2r x = 2r cos t cos Now x = r, t =


1

1 2 = 3
2 k m

2 k m

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 2

5. (A) W12 + W34 = 0 As pressure is directly proportional to T. P T = constant =


3

3R V
2 4

W23 = P2 V V W41 = P1 V V
1

W = P2 V V
3

+ P1 V V
1

P1V1 = 3RT1 ; P1 V4 = 3RT4 P2V2 = 3RT2 ; P2V3 = 3RT3 W = 3RT3 3RT2 + 3RT1 3RT4 = 3R (T1 + T3 T2 T4) = 3 8.314 (400 + 2400 800 1200) = 3 8.314 800 = 19.953 kJ 6. (A) A shift to right by one place in the periodic table as a result of -decay. The mass number does not change but atomic number increases by one. A shift to the left by two places occurs in -decay. The mass number decreases by four while atomic number decreases by two. The mass number of resulting isotope of element therefore differs from original mass number by four. Z
a, A

-decay -decay -decay

A Z + 1b Z + 2c Z A

+ +

1 1

A Z + 1b Z + 2c A

A 4 + 2He4

7. (A) Let E and E be the energies of the photoelectron, when their wavelengths are and respectively. 2= E E = 2 E m 2Em , since = h 2Em

= 2 according to problem

E = 4E Energy to be added = E E = 3E, where 2Em = h


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E=

2 2

1 2m 3h
2

Energy to be added =

2 m

3 6.63 2 10
10 2

10

68 19

eV

9.1 1.6 10

= 0.45 keV
2 8. (A) By Einstein s photoelectric equation 1 mv = hc w, 2 2 where w is the work function, hc = 1 mv + w 2

hc
1

1 2 1

mv + w and
1

hc
2

1 2
2 2

mv + w
2

hc

1
2

= 1

mv 2

2 1

mv 2 =

3m v 2 3
2

2 2

, since v 1 = 2v2 + 1
2

w = hc hc 3
2

1
2

hc 3 hc 3

1
1

4
2

1
1

Joules 1 1.6 10
19

= hc 3

4
2

1
1

eV

Substituting for h, c, 1 and 2, we get w = 1.884 eV 9. (A) We have to find the distance L in the Figure. The diagram is self explanatory. = 1 sin C 2H h 1 since tan C = 3 7 sin C 1 sin C L= 2H h
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 4
2 2

L = h tan C + 2(H h) tan C = ,

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SECTION II 10. (D) 11. (D) The velocity of the charged particles due to the application of a uniform magnetic field at an angle of 85 to the field lines can be resolved into two components which are unequal in magnitude and are parallel and perpendicular to the line of force. The resultant path is hence not a circle. 12. (D) The resistance is greater when the lamp is on because the filament is at a higher temperature. 13. (A) Electric intensity at a given point is given by E = dV of V is constant in dx space, the potential gradient in any direction is zero and hence the intensity is zero. Thus potential can exist where there is no electric field. SECTION III 14. (A) Mass of copper in air = 264 gm Mass of copper in water = 221 gm Apparent loss of mass = 264 221 = 43 gm volume of copper piece with cavity = 43 c.c. 15. (A) Volume of copper only = 264 = 30 c.c 8.8 34.4 43

volume of cavity = 13 c.c. 16. (C) Density of liquid = Loss of weight in liquid Loss of weight in water = = 0.8

17. (A) If V is the speed of hammer when it strikes the nail is V = 2gh. If V is the speed of the combination after impact, then MV = (M + m) V, where m is the mass of nail. If FG is the average resistance (resistive force) offered by ground, the net upward force F on the hammer-nail combination is F = FG (M + m) g. 1 (M + m) V2 = F M + m g d G 2
2

The combination moves through a distance d against the upward force. Fd= 1 M+m 2 FG =

MV M+m M gh
2

= F M+m g d
G

M+m d

+ M+m g
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 5

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18. (A) Let the hammer-nail combination be moving for time t before coming to rest. If P is change in momentum, P t = FG (M + m) g

P = (M + m) V 0 = (M + m) = MV t = P F M+m g
G

MV M+m

= M

MV
2

gh

M+m d = M+m M d 2

+ M+m g M+m g

gh

19. (A) The kinetic energy of the hammer-nail combination just before the impact is 2 2 1 1 MV and after impact it is M + m V 2 2
2 2 Loss in kinetic energy = 1 MV 1 M + m V 2 2

= 1 MV 2 1 M V 2 2 M+m = 1 Mm 2 M+m V
2

SECTION IV 20. (A) (s), (B) (r), (C) (q), (D) (p) 21. (A) (s), (B) (p), (C) (r), (D) (q) 22. (A) (s), (B) (p), (C) (q), (D) (r)

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PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION II

23. (D) Molecular weight of (CHOO)2 Fe = 170 Iron present in 100 mg = 56 100 = 32.9 mg 170

This is present in 400 mg capsule. Hence percentage of iron in the capsule = 32.9 100 400 = 8.2% 8%

24. (D) Since volume is doubled after mixing the two gases, pressure of each gas becomes half of its original value. Hence the total pressure of the mixture, 100 400 + PT = = 250 mm. 2 2 25. (D) Schottky defect represents missing of equal number of cations and anions in an ionic crystal. This decreases the density. Frenkel defect represents the migration of an ion preferably cation from the lattice point to the interstitial site. This increases the dielectric constant of the ionic crystals. Generally stoichiometric defects make the crystal good electrical conductors. 26. (B) x2 = n
1 2 2

n +n

... (1)

Molality, m =

2 1

n
1

2 1

n M

or n2 = mn 1 M 1 Substituting (2) in (1), x2 =


H 2O

... (2) mn M
1 1 1 1 1

n + mn M

mM

1 1

1 + mM

27. (C) CH3 CH2 NC CH3 CH2 NH2 + HCOOH Ethyl carbylamine Formic acid reduces Fehling solution.
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Formic acid

IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 7

28. (C) In the reaction between alcohol and HBr, the carbocation is formed as intermediate. The reactivity of alcohol with HBr is therefore directly proportional to stability of carbocations. So the reactivity order is I > III > II. 29. (A) Hydration takes place. The addition is via syn mechanism. Anti-Markownikoff s product is formed. Hence the product is

30. (C) Strength of acid depends on strength of the bond between hydrogen atom and the other atom to which it is attached. Lesser the bond strength greater is the acidity. Thus H2CO3 < H3PO4 < HCl < HI. 31. (D) Formation of phosphine (PH3) and NaH2PO2 from white phosphorus involves both oxidation and reduction. Hence it is an example of disproportionation. SECTION II 32. (C) Cassiterite is non-magnetic and wolframite is magnetic. 33. (C) Common salt is not hygroscopic but the impurity present in it like MgCl2 is hygroscopic.

34. (D) The hydrogen atom in the formate ion H COO is not ionisable. 35. (C) The enzyme urease is a protein, but all proteins are not enzymes. SECTION III

36. (B)

Since para position with respect to phenolic group is free, the second OH goes to para position with respect to the first OH group.
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37. (C)

Since the temperature is low and KOH solution is dilute, OCH3 groups are not hydrolysed. OH group goes to p-position with respect to phenolic group.

38. (D) In -naphthol structure, para position is not free. Hence the OH group goes to ortho position with respect to phenolic OH group. 39. (D) In H3PO4 and HPO3, phosphorus is in + 5 state in both cases. 40. (B) H3PO3 and H3PO2 are reducing agents. But H3PO4 is not a reducing agent.

41. (A) H3PO4

tribasic, non-reducing

H4P2O7

tetrabasic, non-reducing

HPO3

monobasic, non-reducing

H3PO3

dibasic, reducing agent

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10

SECTION IV 42. (A) (q), (s); (B) (p), (s); (C) (r); (D) (q) (A) SO2 is a reducing agent having sp hybridised sulphur atom. (B) Phosphine is a reducing agent having sp3 hybridised phosphorus. (C) PCl5 has sp d hybridised phosphorus. (D) SO3 has sp hybridised sulphur atom. 43. (A) (q), (r), (s); (B) (q), (r), (s); (C) (p), (r); (D) (p) (A) Combustion of hydrocarbon is exothermic, H is negative and water is formed. G is also negative. (B) Neutralisation involves the reaction, H+ + OH
2 3 2

G is also negative.

H2O which is exothermic and hence H is negative.

(C) Ionisation of a weak acid is an endothermic reaction, H is positive. G is also negative. (D) In an endothermic reaction, Ea (forward) is greater than Ea (backward). Hence H is positive and it is an endothermic reaction. 44. (A) (r); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (p), (q) (A) (CH3)3 C Cl (B) (CH3)3 C OH (C) CH3 CO CH3 (D) (CH3) CO CH3 This is bromoform reaction. Acetone is oxidised to acetic acid. (CH3)2 C = CH2 (CH3)2 C = CH2 CH3 CH2 CH3 CH3 COOH + CHBr3

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11

PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I 45. (C) 1 x 1 1 y 1 1 z 1 = x+y+z x 1 x+y+z y x+y 1 x+y+z z 1

= Now apply A. M G.M,

y+z z+x xyz

y + z 2 yz z + x 2 zx x + y 2 xy

(y + z) (z + x) (x + y) 8 xyz i.e., y+z z+x xyz x+y 8

46. (B) Let r be the common ratio of the G.P. u


1

1r Also,

=3 u =3 1 r
1

u 1

2 1

=3
2

i.e.,

91r

1r 1+r 1+r =3

=3

91r

r= 1 2 u1 = 3 2
4

5th term =

3 1 2 2

3 32
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 11

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12

47. (C) The equation of the circumcircle is x2 + y2 = a2 (p tan , p) is a point on it. p2 (1 + tan2 ) = a2 p = a cos the vertices are (a sin , a cos ) (a sin , a cos ) (a sin , a cos ) centroid is

a sin , a cos
3 3

SG : GH = 1 : 2 H is [ a sin , a cos ] 48. (C) Roots are real and unequal 16 4b > 0 b<4 Let , be the roots. Given | | < 1 | | < 1 ( )2 < 1 16 4b < 1 15 < 4b b > 15 4 49. (B) 2 1 1 = + z z z
2 1 2

1 1 1 1 = z z z z
2 1 3

z z
1

z z
1

z z
2

2 1 2 2

z z
3

z z z z
3

z z

1 3

1 z z
3 1

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 12

13

amp

z z
1

2 2

z z
3 1

= amp ( 1) amp

z z

3 1

amp

z z z
3

2 2

z
3

+ amp

z z

3 1

z z z + z O z = 3 2 1
1

z1, z2, z3 pass through a circle through the origin. 50. (B) Let cos = a, cos = b, cos = c a+b+c=0 a + b + c = 3 abc cos + cos + cos = 3 cos cos cos 1 4 [cos 3 + 3 cos + cos 3 + 3 cos + cos 3 + 3 cos ] = 3 cos cos cos
3 3 3 3 3 3

cos 3 + cos 3 + cos 3 + 0 = 12 cos cos cos cos 3 + cos 3 + cos 3 = 12 cos cos cos 51. (B) Now
Lt

1 cos 4x x
2 2

x0 =
Lt

x0
Lt

2 sin 2x x
2 2

=2

x 0
Lt

sin 2x 4x
2

4
2

=8

x 0

sin 2x 2x

=8

f(8) = 3 2 52. (B) f (x) = sin x =


2

1 cos 2x 2

f(x) = x sin 2x + k 2 4
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14

f(0) = 0 k = 0 f(x) = f(x) = x sin 2x 2 4 x


2

cos 2x 8

+ k

f(0) = 0 k = 1 8 cos 2x 1 x f(x) = + 4 8 8 f 4 =


2 2

64

+0

1 8 = 8 64
2

53. (B) c =

a b a b a + a a b ab

ca=

a b a 0 + a a b a ab
2

a a b a b a + a a b a ab
2 2

c a b =

a a

b b a b a b
2 2 2

+0

= a

a b
2

a b = a b a b
2 2

=1 SECTION II

54. (A) In ABC, we know that cos A + cos B + cos C = 1 + 4 sin A sin B sin C 2 2 2 cos A + cos B + cos C 1 + 4 i.e., 3 8 2
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15

55. (A) The given expression is the product of 7 consecutive positive integers. it is divisible by 7 i.e., 5040 56. (D) Using statement (2), Maximum value of the given expression is 5 2 + 12 2 = 169 = 13
2 0

57. (A) I =

1 sin x 1 cos x sin x cos x

dx

2 0

dx

Hence I = 0 (since a = a a = 0) 58. (C) In ABE, 2 cot = 1 cot B 1 cot tan B = 1 tan 3

In ADC, 2 cot (180 ) = 1 cot 1 cot C tan C = 1 tan 3 tan A = tan 180 B + C = tan (B + C) 1 = 3 tan + 1 3 tan

1 2 = 3

2 1 tan 9

tan
2

9 tan 6 tan tan 9


2

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16

59. (C) 2 cot = cot B cot C = sin C B sin B sin C


2

= sin C B = 4R sin C B b c bc 2R 2R = 4R a sin C B abc = 4R 2R sin C + B sin C B 4R = R 2R


2 2 2

sin C sin B

cot =

sin C sin B

60. (B) PBA = 30 C PB = 45 30 = 15 (a + a) cot ( 30) = a cot 15 a cot 30 2 cot ( 30) = cot 15 cot 30 = cos 15 cos 30 sin 15 sin 30 = sin 30 15 sin 15 sin 30 = cot ( 30) = 1 sin 30 1 2 sin 30 =1

30 = 45 = 75
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17

61. (A) The symmetric form equation of the line is For B, y = 0 r = AB 2 sin = AB

x1 cos

y2 sin

=r

AB sin = 2 (sin cannot be ve) AB should be taken as ve 4 sin = 2 sin = 1 2 cos = 3 2 is obtuse cos = 3 2 For C, x = 0 r= 1 cos 1 cos =r 1 3 2

r = 2 AC = 2 3 3 62. (D) Since the radii are equal, the circles touch externally. Slope of the line of centres = 1 3 = 4 4 3

(i.e.,) tan =

3 4 cos = 4 5 sin = 3 5

Symmetric form equation to T is

x1 4 5

y1 3 5

=r

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18

Put r = 5, we get one centre x1 4 5 y1 3 5 =5 y1=3 y=4 =5 x1=4 x=5

centre is (5, 4) Put r = 5, we get another centre x1 4 5 y1 3 5 centre is ( 3, 2) 63. (A) The symmetric form equation of the chord is x1 cos = y3 sin =r =5 y1=3 y=2 =5 x1=4 x=3

Any point on it is {(r cos + 1), (r sin + 3)} If it lies on y2 = 8x, (r sin + 3) = 8 (r cos + 1) r sin + 2r (3 sin 4 cos ) + 1 = 0 This is a quadratic equation in r. Now (1, 3) is the midpoint of AB. r2 = r1 sum of the roots = 0 3 sin 4 cos = 0 tan = 4 3
2 2 2

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19

SECTION IV 64. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (p), (q), (s); (D) (p), (r) (A) Now, x4 + x2 + 1 = (x2 + 1)2 x2 = (x2 + 1 + x) (x2 + 1 x)
2

Now, (x + x + 1) = x + 1 2
2

3 0 for all real x. 4

we can cancel that factor from both the sides. (a 1) (x2 + x + 1) = (a + 1) (x2 x + 1) x2 ax + 1 = 0 It will have distinct real roots if a 4 > 0 (a + 2) (a 2) > 0 a [ 2, 2] Either a < 2 or a > 2 a can be 3 (B) 4 (1 + 3m)2 28 (3 + 2m) = 0 9m2 8m 20 = 0 (m 2) (9m + 10) = 0 m=2 (C) 64 4 (a 6a) > 0 a2 6a 16 < 0 (a + 2) (a 8) < 0 a lies between 2 and 8 a ( 2, 8) (D) 16a2 144 < 0 a2 9 < 0 a lies between 3 and 3 a ( 3, 3)
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2 2

20

65. (A) (r); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p) (A) RHD at x = 2, Lt
h 0

2+h

5 2 + h + 6 0 h

Lt
h0

h h h 2h

= Lt |h 1| = 1
h 0 2

LHD at x = 2,

Lt
h 0

5 2 h + 6 0 h

Lt
h0

h + h h

RHD LHD = 2 (B) f(a + b) = f(a) + f (b) n(a + b)n 1 = nan 1 + nbn 1 (a + b)n 1 = an 1 + bn 1 But, when n 1 > 1 LHS > RHS n=2 (C) Differentiating with respect to x, x exy x dy dx +y +e dy dx
at x = 0 xy

1 =

dy dx 0

2 cos x sin x

At x = 0,0 + 1 =

(D) y = (sin =
2 1

dy dx

is 1
at x = 0 1

x + cos
1

x) 2 sin 2 sin

x cos

2 sin

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 20

21

dy = dx 1x
2

1 1x dy dx
2

+ 2 2 sin

1 1x
2

= + 4 sin

Differentiating again with respect to x, 1x


2

d y dx
2

+
2

dy dx

dy dx

1 2 1x =4
2

2x = 4

1 1x
2

i.e., 1 x

d y dx
2

66. (A) (r); (B) (p); (C) (p); (D) (q) (A) S n = 1 = 873 S
n

2 76 5 7

4 7 8 6

76

7 8 6

........

..........

7 S

= 124
n

an integer 7 8 7 7 2 5 8 3 ..... 4 5 6 7 8 ..... 5 ......

7 7 S
n

= 124

= 868 = 1

= S

=5 a 2 c 2 c c 2c a 3c 2a
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 21

(B) 2b = a

c b = a a

c a 2 c a c c

c a

Expression = =
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a 3a

22

3 a 2 c

c a c a 1

1 2 1

1 2

3 a 2 c 3 2 2

i.e., 4 (C)

sin x

dx = f x
2

Consider, Put x2 = u

2e

sin x

dx

2x dx = du I =

1 x e

sin u

du x

sinu

u
4 1

du

= f u

= f(4) f(1) =4 (D) dy dx y = x 1 dy 2 y dx 1 y y x


2 2

1 = xy

1 x
2

Put z =

dz 1 dy = 2 dx dx y
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23

dz dx dz dx

z x

1 x
2

z 1 = 2 x x = = e log x = log x
log x
1

Pdx
e
Pdx

1 x
3

1 1 dx = x x2

1 x = 1 2 3 2 3 2

dx = 1 2x c
2

1 2x c
2

solution is

1 xy

y(1) = 1 1 = c= 1 xy 1 2x
2

when x = 2, 1 = 2y 1 8 3 2

1 11 = 2y 8 11 1 = y 4 y = 4 11

y 2 = 4 11

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BRILLIANT S
FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS

IIT-JEE 2008 STS VI/PCM/P(II)/QNS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATIONS, 2008


PAPER II PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

Maximum Marks: 243

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 28 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet. 3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet. 6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. 8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. B. Filling the ORS 9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts. 11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this. 12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

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PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains questions 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY one is correct. 1. Interference fringes of yellow light of wavelength 5890 are formed by Billet split lenses. The distance from the source to the lens is 25 cm. The focal length of the lens is 15 cm. The lens halves are separated by 0.08 mm. The distance of the source to the screen is 200 cm. The fringe width will be (A) 0.4 cm (B) 0.5 cm (C) 0.3 cm (D) 0.35 cm 2. An electric kettle has two heating elements. One brings it to boil in ten minutes and the other in fifteen minutes. If the two heating elements are connected in parallel, how much time will the water in the kettle take to boil? (A) 25 minutes (B) 5 minutes (C) 6 minutes (D) 8 minutes 3. A force F acts tangentially at the highest point of a sphere of mass m kept on a rough horizontal plane. If the sphere rolls without slipping, what is the acceleration at the centre of sphere? (A) 5F 7m (B) 10F 7m (C) 2F 3m (D) 2F 5m
2 2

4. A steel wire of length 1 m, mass 0.1 kg and uniform cross sectional area 10 m is rigidly fixed at both ends. The temperature of wire is lowered by 20C. If transverse waves are set up by plucking the wire in the middle. What will be the fundamental frequency emitted by it if the coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 1.21 10 /C and Young s modulus of steel = 2 10 (A) 11 Hz (B) 55 Hz (C) 34 Hz SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
5 11

N/m ?

(D) 22 Hz

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5. A closed cylinder of height h and area of cross section A contains an ideal gas at constant temperature. If 1 and 0 are the densities of the gas at the bottom and top respectively, what is the total mass of gas in cylinder? (A)
1 0

AP 1 g

(B)

1 0

A g

(C)

1 0

A g
0

(D)

A g

1 0

6. The equation of a wave is given by (all quantities expressed in M.K.S units) y = 5 sin 10 (t 0.01 x) along the x-axis. The phase difference between two points separated by a distance of 10 m along x-axis is (A) /2 (B) (C) 2 (D) /4

7. The value of resistance R in the circuit shown below so that the electric bulb consumes the rated power will be (A) 4 ohm (C) 8 ohm (B) 6 ohm (D) 10 ohm
3

8. A vessel containing water is put in a dry sealed room of volume 76 m at a temperature 15C. The S.V.P of water at 15C is 15 mm of Hg. What is the mass of water that will evaporate before it is in equilibrium with its vapour? (A) 1.14 kg (B) 1.9 kg (C) 2.5 kg (D) 1.25 kg

9. For making a capacitor two plates of copper, a mica sheet of thickness 0.1 mm and dielectric constant K = 6, a sheet of paraffin (thickness 1 cm, K = 2), a sheet of glass (thickness 2 mm, K = 7) are available. To obtain the largest capacitance which material you will choose to be placed between the plates? (A) Mica (B) Glass (C) Paraffin (D) No material

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SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The volume of given mass of water at the bottom of the lake will be smaller because of the pressure exerted by a volume of water 400 m high. The greater the mass of the pendulum bob the shorter is its period of oscillation. A water sample at the bottom of a lake 400 metre deep has the same density as at the surface.

11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

The time period of a pendulum is independent of the mass of the bob. A thermometer measures the amount of heat in a body.

The working of a thermometer is based on the principle of thermal expansion and hence measures the change in temperature of a body. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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13. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

Two adjacent conductors that carry the same positive charge can have a potential difference between them.

The potential to which a conductor is raised not only depends on the amount of charge but also on the geometry and size of the conductor. SECTION III

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 A wire of 9.8 10 kg mass per metre passes over a frictionless pulley fixed on the top of an inclined frictionless plane which makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal. Masses M1 and M2 are tied at the ends of the wire. The mass M1 rests on the plane and mass M2 hangs freely downwards. The whole system is in equilibrium. A transverse wave propagates along the wire with a velocity of 100 m/sec, g = 9.8/sec . 14. The value of M1 is (A) 20 kg (B) 25 kg (C) 30 kg (D) 27.5 kg
2 3

15. The value of M2 is (A) 10 kg (B) 12.5 kg (C) 7.5 kg (D) 8 kg

16. The tension in the wire is (A) 98 N (B) 49 N (C) 84 N (D) 70 N

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 Three capacitors A, B and C of capacitances 2 F, 3 F and 6 F respectively are connected in series with a 12 volt battery. All the connecting wires are disconnected. Now the three positive plates are connected together and the three negative plates are connected together 17. The charge on A after reconnection is (A) (B) 72 11 45 11 61 (C) 11 (D) 50 11 10 10 10 10
6

C C C C

18. The charge on B after reconnection is (A) (C) 60 11 11 10 10


6

C
6

(B) (D)

25 11 11

10 10

C
6

108

214

19. The charge on C after reconnection is (A) (C) 216 11 63 11 10


6 6

(B) (D)

132 11 95 11

10 10

10

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SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s

20.Match the following in Column I and Column II Column I (Physical Constants) (A) Gravitational constant (B) Planck s constant (C) Universal gas constant (D) Modulus of elasticity Column II (Dimensional Formulae) (p) ML T
2 1

(q) ML T

1 2

(r) ML T K (s) M L T

2 2 1

1 3 2

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21.

Column I (Physical Quantities)

Column II (Formulae for calculating the value) (p) GM R h


2

(A) Escape velocity from planet (B) Orbital velocity of satellite round the earth (C) Centrepetal acceleration (D) Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth

(q) GM/R (r) r (s)


2

2MG R

22.

Column I (Physical Quantity) (A) Compressibility (B) Stiffness constant (C) Elastic moduli (D) Pressure

Column II (S.I. Units) (p) Newton per metre (q) Newton per square metre (r) Pascal (s) Square metre per Newton

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PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. 3.0 g of oxide of a metal on complete conversion gave 5.0 g of its chloride. The equivalent weight of the metal is (A) 33.25 (B) 3.325 (C) 12.00 (D) 20.00 24. 5.0 litre of CO2 and 2.0 litre of unknown gas separately diffuse through the same orifice during the same time period under identical conditions. What is the molecular weight of unknown gas? (A) 70 (B) 11.2 (C) 275 (D) 4.48 25. Which of the following is ferroelectric compound? (A) BaTiO3 (B) K4[Fe(CN)6] (C) Pb2O3 (D) none of these
1

26. The relationship between molarity (M), molality (m), density (d) of solution (kg L ) and molecular weight of solute M2 (kg mol ) is given by (A) m = M d d MM MM
2 2

(B) m =

M d d MM
2 2

M M 27. Which of the following compounds is the most basic in aqueous medium? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(C) m =

(D) m =

MM

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10

28. Which of the following is the strongest acid?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

29. In the following reaction, product formed is

Product, the

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

30. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point? (A) H2O (B) H2S (C) H2Se (D) H2Te

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31. Correct order of solubility is (A) CaCO3 < KHCO3 < NaHCO3 (B) NaHCO < KHCO < CaCO
3 3 3

(C) KHCO3 < NaHCO3 < CaCO3 (D) CaCO < NaHCO < KHCO
3 3 3

SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: CrO
2 4

With copper sulphate solution, KCN forms K3[Cu(CN)4] complex.


2+ +

KCN reduces Cu

to Cu and then the complex is formed.

K2CrO4 is yellow due to charge transfer.

is tetrahedral in shape.

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12

34. Statement 1:

In titration between Ag and Cl , K CrO is used as precipitation indicator.


2 4

because Statement 2: Much less concentration of Ag is needed to precipitate AgCl than for the precipitation of Ag CrO .
2 4 +

35. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

Free radical reactions are fast reactions.

Free radicals are paramagnetic in nature. SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 Diels-Alder reaction involves the 1,4-addition of conjugated diene to a second unsaturated molecule called a dienophile to form a six membered ring. The dienes may be a cyclic, alicyclic, semicyclic compounds containing at least two double bonds in conjugation. The dienophiles are usually , -unsaturated carbonyl compounds, , -unsaturated acids, acid anhydrides and esters. In the dienophiles, instead of carbonyl groups, other I groups like NO2, Cl, CN may also be present. The product of the reaction is called adduct.

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13

36.

The adduct formed is (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

37. The product formed in the following reaction is ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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14

38. When a mixture of anthracene and phenanthrene is heated with maleic anhydride, (A) both form adduct. (B) anthracene alone forms adduct. (C) phenanthrene alone forms adduct. (D) both do not form adduct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41
4+

The basic chemical unit of silicates is [SiO4]


2

tetrahedron. The central silicon ion

Si is connected to four oxygen (O ) tetrahedrally. When the adjacent tetrahedra share oxygen atom between themselves, different types of silicates are formed. The silicate ion can have linear, cyclic or sheet structures. Three dimensional network structure is also formed. 39. [Si2O7]
6

is formed by
4

(A) sharing of one oxygen atom between two [SiO4]

tetrahedra. tetrahedra.

(B) sharing of two oxygen atoms between two [SiO4]

(C) sharing of three oxygen atoms between three tetrahedra. (D) sharing of two oxygen atoms by each tetrahedra resulting in simple chain structure. 40. Identify the correct statement: (A) Both pyroxene and amphibole have simple chain structures. (B) Pyroxene has simple chain structure and amphibole has double chain structure. (C) Both pyroxene and amphibole have double chain structures. (D) Pyroxene has double chain structure and amphibole has simple chain structure. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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41. SiO

6 3 3

is present in Ca Si O . It is formed by
3 3 9
4

(A) sharing of two oxygen atoms of

SiO
4

tetrahedra in one dimension forming linear chain. (B) sharing of two oxygen atoms of forming sheet structure. (C) sharing of three oxygen atoms of dimensional structure. (D)sharing of two oxygen atoms of SiO forming cyclic structure. Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s
4 4

tetrahedra with adjacent

SiO

tetrahedra in two dimensions


4

SiO

tetrahedra forming three

tetrahedra with neighbouring tetrahedra

SECTION IV

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42. (A)

Column I

Column II (p) conc. H2SO4

(B)

(q) Hg(CH3COO)2 in THF, NaBH4 and NaOH

(C)

(r) B2H6, H2O2, NaOH

(D)

(s) Hg

2+

and H2SO4

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43.

Column I (A) First order reaction (B) Second order reaction (C) Zero order reaction (D) Decomposition of H O

Column II (p) rate concentration (q) t1/2 concentration (r) t1/2 1 a


2 2

(s) s

44.

Column I (A) CrO


2 4

Column II (p) tetrahedral (q) oxidation number + 6 (r) oxidation number 4 (s) oxidation number 3

(B) CH4 (C) NH (D) SiO


4 4 4

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PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. If x , x are abscissae of two points on the curve f(x) = x x in the interval [0, 1],
1 2 2

then the maximum value of the expression (x1 + x2 ) x2


1

2 2

is

(A)

1 4

(B) 2

1 2

(C) 1

(D) 2

46. In ABC, C = the triangle is (A) a + b 47. If f(x) = 3x 5x 4 3

. Then 2 (R + r) where R is the circumradius, r is the inradius of

(B) b + c

(C) c + a f(x) + f f 1

(D) a + b + c x is

, then for every x 0 f (B) 1

(A) 2

(C) 2

(D) 0

48. The centre of the smallest circle through the origin lies on y = x + 2. Then the centre is (A) ( 1, 1) 49. In ABC, cos (A) 150 (B) ( 1, 1) B 2 (B) 135 C = 2 b (C) (1, 1) b
2

(D) ( 2, 0)

c c
2

. Then the value of B + C is bc (D) 90

(C) 120

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50. If f(x) satisfies |f(x1) f(x2)| (x1 x2) for all x1, x2 in the domain and the curve y = f(x) passes through (2, 4), then f(4) is (A) 4 (B) 2 x
2

(C) 0 y
2 2

(D) 1

51. P is a point on

a b circle. R is a point on the same side of Q as P such that QP : PR = 2 : 1. Then locus of R is (A) a straight line (C) a parabola (B) a circle (D) an ellipse

= 1 and Q is the corresponding point on the auxiliary

52. A tangent to the curve y = f(x) at any point P (x, y) cuts the x and y axes in the I quadrant at L and M respectively, such that MP : PL is 4 : 1 and curve passes through (1, 1). Then, which of the following is true? (A) x dy dx dy dx 1 x
5

5y = 0

(B) x

2y = 0

(C) y =

(D) The curve passes through 2 ,

1 16

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53. If f(x) =

1 x 2 2

x
2

dx and f(0) = 0, then f(1) is

(A) log

(B) log 1 4 (D) log 1 SECTION II

2 2 4

(C) log 1

Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: If a, b, c are lengths of the sides of a triangle (No two of them are equal), then because Statement 2: In a triangle, any side < sum of the other two sides. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK a
2 2 2

ab

bc

ca

< 2.

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55. Statement 1:

If z = + i, 0 and w 1 are complex numbers such that w z z is real, then |w| = 1. 1 w

because Statement 2: 56. Statement 1: because Statement 2: If x, y are positive,


2

If a complex number z is real, then = z. z If cos is positive, then the minimum value of sec + 7 cos is 8.
7

x 2 dx

xy.

57. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

The value of

sin x

is . 1

f x dx =

f
0

x dx.

SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 Let C be the centre of a circle whose radius is r. M is the midpoint of the chord AB of the circle. CM is perpendicular to AB. AB = 2 r
2

Also ACM = MCB 58. The equation to the chord AB of the circle x + y = 1 whose centre is C is ax + by = 1. Then ACB is (A) 4
1

(B) 1 a
2

2
1

(C) cos

(D) 2 cos

1 a
2

59. l1, l2 are the lengths of the intercepts made by two perpendicular tangents to the ellipse
2

x a

y b

2 2

= 1 on its auxiliary circle. Then l


2 2 2

2 1

l is
2

(A) 4a

(B) 4b

(C) 4a e

(D) 4e

(where e is the eccentricity of the ellipse.) 60. The chord y = mx + 3 subtends an angle 60 at the major segment of the circle x + y = 4. Then the value of m is (A) 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 3 (D) 2 3
2 2

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 The vector equation of a straight line passing through the point with position vector a and parallel to b is r = a t b, t is a scalar or r b = a b. The vector equation of a straight line passing through the points with position vectors a and b is r = 1 t a t b or r b a = a b. 61. The angle between the lines r = 3 i and r = i (A) 6 3j (B) 2k 4 3i 2j (C) cos 2j 4k 6k is
1

2i

2k

3 21

(D) cos

4 21

62. Let a = i j, b=2i and r b = a b is

k. Then the point of intersection of the lines r a = b a (C) ( 1, 1, 1) 3i 2j (D) (3, 1, 1) 4k are not coplanar. The 9 j 2k . P is a point on AB

(A) (1, 1, 1) (B) (3, 1, 1)

j k and CD = 63. The vectors AB = 3 i position vectors of A and C are 6 i 7 j (A) (C) 6 i (B) 6 i (D) 6i

4k and

and Q is a point on CD such that PQ is perpendicular to AB and CD. Then PQ is 6i 15 j 15 j 3k 3k 15 j 15 j 3k 3k

SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:

64.

Column I (A) The solution of |x 1|+ (x 1) + x (B) A solution of 2x


2 2 2 2
2

Column II 3x 3
2

2 = 0 is 5x 4 is

(p) 0 (q) 10 (r) 3

3x

2 = 4x
2

(C) If z, w are unimodular complex numbers such that z + w = 3, then z (D) If y = sec 65. Column I (A) If the normals at P, Q, R are concurrent on a point S on xy = c , then the centroid of PQR is (B) If the normals at (4, 1), 6, at 6, 11 6 2 3 , 8,
th 2
1

z
1

w x x 1 1

is dy dx is (s) 1 Column II (p) (0, 0)

x x

1 1

sin

, then

1 2

to xy = 4 intersect

(q)

1 4

1 36

, then the foot of the 4

normal is

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(C) If (9, 1), 12 , 3 , (3, 3) are the vertices of a triangle 4 inscribed in the rectangular hyperbola xy = 9, then the orthocentre is (D) A circle cuts xy = 16 at 12 , 4 , 16, 1 , 20 , 4 5 and

(r)

12 ,

1 3

3 (8, 2). Then the centre of the circle is Column I

(s)

28 ,

77 30

66.

Column II (p) 2 9

(A) The probability of happening of an event is the square of the probability of the second event, but odds against first is the cube of the odds against second. Then the chance of the happening of the first event is (B) A shopkeeper has 5 customers for whom he lends three cycles. The probability that a customer will hire a cycle 3 is . He charges Rs. 10 per cycle for a day. The 4 probability that he earns Rs. 30 per day is (C) The value of sin x + sin
2 2

(q)

135 512

+ cos x cos x

is

(r) (s)

5 4 1 9

(D) The digits 1, 2, 3, ..., 9 are written in random order to form a nine digit number. The probability that this number is divisible by 36 is

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 28

IIT-JEE 2008 STS VI/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS

BRILLIANT S
FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PART A : PHYSICS
SECTION I 1. (A)

AB = opening of lenses = 0.08 mm = 0.008 cm 1 v 1 u = 1 f 1 v 1 25 = 1 15 or v = 37.5 cm

From s S1S2S and ABS p u d u v = or d = p u u = v 25

0.008 37.5

25 D = 200 (25 + 37.5) = 137.5 cm Fringe width =


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= 0.02 cm

D d

137.5 5890 10 0.02

= 0.4 cm
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 1

2. (C) Heat developed in the electric circuit per sec = If R1 is resistance, Heat developed per sec =

RJ
2

E R Jt
1

1 2

If R2 is the resistance, Heat developed per sec = R R


1

E R Jt
2

If combined resistance is

heat developed per sec =


2

E R R
1

Jt
2

Substituting the values of t1 and t2 and solving the equation t3 = 6 minutes 3. (B) As the force F rotates the sphere the point of contact has a tendency to slip to the left so that the static friction f acts towards right as shown in Figure. Writing the equation for linear motion F + f = ma where a is linear acceleration For rotational motion about centre Fr fr = I where I is moment of inertia and is angular acceleration I= 2 5 mr
2

... (1)

= a/r r (F f) = Ff=
2 a 2 mr 5 r

2 ma 5 7 5 ma or a = 10F 7m

.. (2)

From (1) and (2) 2F = 4. (A) l0 = 1 m = 1.21 10 /C l = l0 (1 T) or


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5

T = 20C l = 20 1.21 10
5

IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 2

Stress = Y strain = Y

l l
0

Tension = stress area = Y l A = 48.4 N l


0

2l m Substitute the numerical values, n = 11 Hz P P P = 1 = 0 5. (A)


1 0

n =

dP =

PA + Ag (dh) = (P + dP) A P + g (dh) = dP + P g (dh) =


x

d P
P

0 0

dh =
0 0

0 0

1 g

x =

g
0

log

= exp

xg P
0 h gx
0

m=

Adx = A e
0 0 0

gh

dx =

A P
0

g
0

But x =

g
0
0

log

h =

g
0

log

1 0

gh

1 0

= e

m=

AP g

1 0

[Note: By dimensional method, we can eliminate the wrong options]


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6. (B) y = a sin 2

t T

= a sin

2 T

x v

Comparing this with y = 5 sin 10 (t 0.01 x) 2 T v = = 10 , 1 0.01 1 T = n, n = 5 Hz = v n = 100 5 = 20 m

= 100 m/sec

Phase difference = for path difference 10 m 7. (B) Resistance of bulb = E = 3 3 = 18 ohm W 0.5 Total resistance in circuit = Current = 6 18R 18 R 4.5 0.5 3 R R 18 R = 1 6 9 R 2 = 1 6 amp 18 R 18 R 4 0.5
2

= i

Current through bulb = It is also equal to 6 18R 18 R 4.5 iR 18

36 R = 18 R + 81 + R = 6 ohms

8. (A) Water will be in equilibrium with its vapour when the vapour gets saturated In this case the pressure of vapour = S.V.P = 15 mm of Hg = 15 10
3

13600 9.8
2

= 2000 N/m Using gas law PV = m = m RT M

PVM 18 2000 76 = = 1145 g = 1.14 kg RT 8.3 288


IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 4

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9. (A) For a parallel plate capacitor of dielectric K d As 0 and A are constants it is sufficient to find the ratio of K/d in order to estimate the relative magnitude of C For mica For glass K d K d = = 6 0.1 7 2 = 60 mm
1

Capacity C =

AK
0

= 3.5 mm

K 2 1 = = 0.2 mm d 10 It is clear to obtain maximum capacitance we must place mica. SECTION II For paraffin 10. 11. 12. 13. (D) (D) (D) (A) The potential to which a conductor is raised not only depends upon the charge but also on the geometry and size of the conductor. Hence the two conductors, when given the same charge may be at different potentials if they have different geometry and size. SECTION III 14. (A) Since the masses are in equilibrium. If T is the tension in the connecting string T = M1g sin = M1g sin 30 = T is also equal to M2g M g
1

M g
1

2 or M1 = 2 M2 Velocity of transverse wave = M g


2 2

= M2g

T m

where m is mass per unit length


3

v =

9.8 10 v2 = 103 M2
3

M 9.8 9.8 10
3

10 M

But v = 100 m/sec or M2 = 10 kg, M1 = 20 kg


IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 5

10000 = 10 M2
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15. (A) M2 = 10 kg 16. (A) We see from the above calculation T = M2g = 10 9.8 = 98 N 17. (A) When connected in series the equivalent capacity is given by 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 = = C = 1 F C 2 3 6 6 charge through each capacitor = 12 10
6 6

Coulomb

When connected in parallel the total capacity = 2 + 3 + 6 = 11 .F Total charge = 36 10 coulomb


6 6

Common potential = 36 10 11 10

36 Volt 11

Charge on 2 F capacitor = capacity common potential = 2 10


6

36 11

6 = 72 10 Coulomb 11

18. (C) The potential is same = Capacity = 3 10 charge = 36 11


6

36 Volt 11

Farad
6

3 10

108 10 11

Coulomb 36 Volt 11

19. (A) As in previous problem the common potential = Capacity = 6 10 charge =


6

Farad
6

36 6 10 11

216 6 10 Coulomb 11

SECTION IV 20. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (q) 21. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (q) 22. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r)
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PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I

23. (A) If E is the equivalent weight of the metal, equivalent weights of oxide and chloride are (E + 8) and (E + 35.5) respectively. Since, 3 g of oxide is converted into 5 g of its chloride, 3.0 E 8 = 5.0 E 35.5

5E + 40 = 3E + 106.5 2E = 66.5 or E = 33.25 24. (C) Velocity of diffusion = V


CO x 2

Volume of gas diffused Time

M M

x
2

CO

CO x

V 5 2

M M

x
2

CO

= 6.25 =

44

Mx = 44 6.25 = 275 Molecular weight of unknown gas = 275 25. (A) BaTiO3 is an example of ferroelectric compound. 26. (B) Density of solution = d kg/L Molarity of solution = M Molecular weight of solute = M2 Mass of one L of solution = d kg Mass of solute = MM2 kg Mass of solvent = (d MM2) kg Hence, molality = m = d M MM

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 7

27. (C) CH3CONH2 and

are neutral.

is more basic

as its carbonium ion has three resonance structures.

But

has two resonance structures.

28. (A) Ortho and para nitrophenolic compounds are more acidic than meta nitro phenolic compounds. In para nitrophenolic compound, the two CH3 groups push the nitro group out of plane. Hence acid. is the strongest

29. (C)

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 8

30. (C) Boiling point is related to the intermolecular attractive forces which depend on the size of molecules. Larger the size, higher is the boiling point. Thus, H2S has lowest boiling point. Boiling point of H2O is greater than that of H2S due to the presence of H bonding between H2O molecules. 31. (D) The correct order of solubility is CaCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3
SECTION II

32. (A) KCN reduces Cu Cu


2+

2+

to Cu and then the complex is formed.

+ 2CN Cu(CN)2

2Cu(CN)2 Cu2(CN)2 + (CN)2 6KCN + Cu2(CN)2 2K3[Cu(CN)4] 33. (B) In charge transfer mechanism, pair of electrons is donated from oxygen to vacant d-orbital of Cr+6 ion. 34. (A) Ksp of AgCl is less than that of Ag2CrO4. Hence lesser concentration of Ag+ is needed to precipitate AgCl than for Ag2CrO4. 35. (B) Free radicals are more energetic in the active state, so that the reaction takes place at a faster rate. They are paramagnetic in nature.
SECTION III

36. (A)

37. (C)

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 9

10

38. (B) In anthracene, the benzene rings are fused together in linear form. Hence it reacts with maleic anhydride forming adduct. Phenanthrene does not form adduct. 39. (A)

40. (B) Pyroxene has simple chain structure and amphibole has double chain strucutre. 41. (D) Ca3SiO9 has the anions of Si O
3 6 3

. The anion has cyclic structure.

SECTION IV 42. (A) (r); (B) (p), (q); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A)

(B)

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 10

11

(C)

(D)

43. (A) (p), (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p), (s) (A) For first order reaction, rate concentration of reactant and the rate 1 constant has the unit of s . (B) For second order reaction, half-life period is inversely proportional to initial concentration of the reactant. t
1/2

1 a

(C) For zero order reaction, t1/2 concentration. (D) Decomposition of H2O2 is an example of first order reaction. Hence rate concentration and rate constant has the unit of s . 44. (A) (p), (q); (B) (p), (r); (C) (p), (s); (D) (p) (A) CrO
2 4 1

has tetrahedral structure and oxidation number of Cr is + 6.

(B) CH4 has tetrahedral structure and oxidation number of carbon is 4. (C) NH (D) SiO
4 4 4

has tetrahedral structure and oxidation number of nitrogen is 3. has tetrahedral structure.
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 11

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12

PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
2

45. (B) The curve is x

1 2

1 4

It is a downward parabola. It passes through (0, 0) and (1, 0). Now E = y1 + y2 y1 1 , y2 1 4 4 E E 1 1 + 4 4 1 2 C 2 b 2 c c = a b 2 c

46. (A) c = 2R sin C = 2R r = (s c) tan r=sc= a

2r = a + b c 2R + 2r = c + a + b c = a + b 3 47. (C) f{f(x)} = 5 3x 5x 3x 5x 3 3 f f 1 x = 5 x 5 x 3 x 5 x


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4 3 4 3 4

4 = 3

29x =x 29

4 3 = 4 3 3

29 x 1 = 29 x

IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 12

13

f f x

f f 1 x

1 x 2

= x

1 and x 0 x

Hence x

48. (B) The equation of the circle is x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2gy = 0 f=g+2f=g2 Radius is smallest E = g2 + f 2 is minimum = g2 + (g 2)2 is minimum = 2g 4g + 4 is minimum = 2 (g 1) + 2 Minimum value is attained when g = 1 f=12=1 Centre is ( 1, 1) 49. (C) cos B 2 C = 2 b C 2 c c cot = A 2 b
2 2 2

c c
2

tan bc cot A 2 c c

B 2

3b b c

... (1)

Also tan B b b

b b =

c c

... (2)

Hence A 2

3 b b

= 30 A = 60

B + C = 120 50. (A) f x


1 1

f x x
2

Taking limit x2 x1 we get, f x


2

0 , where x2 is arbitrary

f (x) = 0 for all x


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14

f(x) = a constant = k f(2) = 4 k=4 f(x) = 4 f(4) = 4 51. (D) P is (a cos , b sin ) and Q is (a cos , a sin ) Let R be (h, k). 2h 2k a cos 3 a sin 3 = a cos = b sin

h = a cos ; 2k = (3b a) sin cos = h a


2 2

h a

; sin = 4k
2

2k 3b = 1
2 2

3b

locus of (h, k) is 52. (D) By the data L is

x a

4y 3b

= 1, which is an ellipse.

5x , 0 and M is (0, 5y) 4 5y 5x 4 = 4y x

Slope of LM =

But slope of LM = dy dx dy y = = 4y x 4dx x


4

dy dx

log y = log x
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+ k passes through (1, 1)


IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 14

15

0=0+k k=0 y=x


4

y= 1 4 x 1 x
4

Equation to the curve is y = 1 16 x 1


2

Evidently 2,

is a point on it. 1 x 1
2 2

53. (D) f x =

1 x
2

x dx

dx 1
2 1

x 1

x
2

dx 1 x tan

= log x f(0) = 0 k = 0 f(x) = log x f(1) = log 1

1 2

tan

54. (A) Because of statement 2 a < b + c a2 < ab + ac Similarly, b2 < bc + ba c < ca + cb a + b + c < 2 (ab + bc + ca) a ab
2 2 2 2 2

b bc

c <2 ca

55. (A) Because of statement (2) z 1 z z zw w z z = z 1 zw w z = 0 ww z 1

ww = 0
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 15

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16

z z, because 0 1 ww = 0 ww = 1 |w| = 1 |w| = 1 56. (B) Consider, sec and cos , cos ....... 7 times. They are all positive. A.M. G.M. sec 8
7 7 7 2

7 cos

(sec cos )

1/8

sec + 7 cos 8 Statement (2) is correct. 57. (A) I =

dx e
sinx

Because of statement (2) I =

dx e
sin x

= 1
sin x sin x

e 1

sin x

sin x

dx

I+I=

0 2 0

1 1

e e

dx

dx = 2

I= 58. (D) CM = Perpendicular from (0, 0) on ax + by = 1 = a cos ACM = a 1


2 2

b 1
2

b 1

= a

1
2

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IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 16

17

ACM = cos

1 a
2

2 1

ACB = 2 ACM = 2 cos

1 a
2

b
2

2 2 2

59. (C) Any tangent to the ellipse is y = mx


2 2

a m
2

... (1)

Auxiliary circle to the ellipse is x + y = a Centre (0, 0) Radius = a l1 = 2 a


2

a m 1

b m
2

= 2

b m
2 2

1 =2 1 a e

l =
1

4 a e 1

2 2

The other tangent is perpendicular to the former. l =


2 2

4a e 1

2 2 2

4a e m 1 m

2 2

1 m
2 2 2 2

l1

l =

4a e

1 m
2

= 4a2e2

60. (B) Let y = mx + 3 represent AB. Centre C is (0, 0) Given APB = 60 ACB = 2 60 = 120 ACM = 60, where M is midpoint of AB 3 cos 60 = CM = AC
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2

1 2

IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 17

18

1 2

= 2
2

3 1 m
2

1+m =9 m2 = 8 m= 2 2 61. (D) The angle between the two lines = The angle between the two vectors parallel to the lines i.e., angle between = cos = cos = cos 62. (B) Let r = x i Given r z 1 i
1

2i

2 k and 3 i

2j

6k

ab |a| |b| 4 9 49 4 21 yj z zk 1 j x y 2 k = 0

b a = 0

z = 1; x y = 2 Second is r y 1 i a b = 0 x 2z 1 j 2 y 1 k = 0

y = 1; x + 2z = 1 x = 3, y = 1, z = 1 Point (3, 1, 1) 63. (A) The equation to AB is r 6i 7j 4k = 3 i 3 i 3 i 4 7 j 2 k j 9 j 2 k 4 2 k 4 k position vector of a point P on AB is 6

Similarly, position vector of a point Q on CD is PQ = 6 3 3 i 2 16 j

Since PQ is perpendicular to both AB and CD, we get 11 + 7 + 4 = 0 and 7 + 29 = 22 Solving = 1, = 1 PQ = 6i 15 j 3k


IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 18

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19

64. A (s); B (s); C (q); D (p) (A) All the 3 terms of LHS is non-negative. each one of them must be zero. x 1 = 0; (x 1) = 0; x 3x + 2 = 0 x = 1; x = 1; x = 1, 2 Common root is x = 1 (B) Let l = 2x 1; m = 3x 2 4 ... (1) p = 4x 3 ; q = 5x l+m=p+q l m =1x p2 q2 = 1 x Some of the solutions is given by l m = p q l+m=p+q 2l = 2p l=p 2x 1 = 4x 3 x=1 x = 1 satisfies the equation. (C) z z
2 2 2 2 2 2

= z

z
2

2 2

123
2zz 2ww
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 19

= 3 + 3 + 2 |z| + 2 |w| [Because z and w are unimodular] = 6 + 2 + 2 = 10 (D) y = cos


1

x x

1 1

sin

x x

1 1

dy =0 dx 65. A (p); B (r); C (q); D (s) (A) Normal at t is xt3 yt ct4 + c = 0 Let it pass through ct , ct t
3 3

c t

c t 1

t 1

ct

c = 0 = 0

t t
3

t t

t t + 1 = 0, since t t
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20

The roots of the above are parameters of P, Q, R t1 + t2 + t3 = 0 [coefficient of t = 0] 1 t


1 2

1 t
2

1 t
3

t1 t 2
t t t
1 2 3

0 1

= 0 [coefficient of t = 0]

Now centroid of PQR is

c t 3 1

c 3

1 t

1 t

1 t

= (0, 0)

(B) c = 2, t1 = 2, t2 = 3, t3 = 4 and t4 be the feet of the four normals from 6, 11 6 Normal at t is 2t


4

6t

11 6

2=0

t1 + t2 + t3 + t4 = 3 2 + 3 + 4 + t4 = 3 t4 = 6 fourth foot 2 6, 2 6 = 12, 1 3

(C) c = 3, t1 = 3, t2 = 4, t3 = 1 By formula, orthocentre = c t t t 3 , 12 1 4 ,


1 2 3

ct t t

1 2 3

3 12

36
2

(D) Taking the general rectangular hyperbola xy = c . Any point on it is ct,


2

c t
2

Let the circle be x + y + 2gx + 2fy + k = 0


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21

Solving, c2t4 + 2gct3 + kt2 + 2fct + c2 = 0 t


1

t =
4

2g c 2f c 2f c

... (1) ... (2) ... (3)

t1 t2 t3 + t2 t3 t4 + t3 t4 t1 + t4 t1 t2 = t1 t2 t3 t4 = 1 Dividing (2) by (3), 1 t


1

1 t
2

1 t
3

1 t
4

Here, c = 4 t1 = 3, t2 = 4, t3 = 5, t4 = 2 3+4+5+2= 14 = 2g 4 g

2 g = 28 1 3 20 1 4 15 60 1 5 12 1 = 2 30 2f 4 = f 2 f 2 77 30

77 = 60 f= Centre is 28, 77 30

66. A (s); B (q); C (r); D (p) (A) Let the probability of the second event = p probability of the first event = p Given 1 p p= 1 3 1 9
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 21
2 3

p
2

1 p

probability of the first event =


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22

(B) Let E denote the event that a cycle is hired. P E = 3 1 P E = 4 4


3 2

He earns Rs.30 means he lends all the 3 cycles. probability that he earns Rs. 30 per day = = (C) The given Expression 1 cos 2x 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 4 cos 2x cos 2x 1 cos 2x 2 1 2 cos 2x cos 6 2 3 1 cos 2 2x 2 2x 3 cos cos 3 3
5

3
3

1 4

135 512

1 2 5 4 5 4 5 4

2 3 2x

2x

= = =

2sin cos 2x

sin

(D) Divisibility of 36 means divisibility by both 9 and 4. Sum of the digits = 45. Any 9 digit number formed is divisible by 9. divisibility by 4 alone is to be considered. Total number of arrangements = 9 For divisibility by 4, the number formed by its last two digits must be divisible by 4. Possible value of the pairs 12, 32, 52, 72, 92 24, 64, 84, 16, 36, 56, 76, 96 28, 48, 68, i.e., 16 in number Then other 7 digits can be arranged in 7 ways. the required probability =
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16 7 9

16 2 = 8 9 9
IIT/STS VI/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 22