MBLEx Practice Exams

Medical Massage Cares
FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEx Practice Exams
Philip Martin McCaulay Medical Massage Care Authority, LLC
Medical Massage Cares FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEx Practice Exams
Copyright 2008. All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopy, recording, or any information storage or retrieval system, without permission in written form from the publisher. Permission may be sought by contacting Medical Massage Care Authority, LLC: E-mail: martinmccaulay@hotmail.com Published in Cary, North Carolina, USA ISBN: 978-0-557-03730-8 Library of Congress Control Number: 2008912239
Table of Contents
Exam 1 Exam 2 Exam 3 Exam 4 Exam 5 Exam 6 Exam 7 Exam 8 Exam 9 Exam 10 Exam 11 Exam 12 Exam 13 Exam 14 Exam 15 Exam 16 Exam 17 Exam 18 Exam 19 Exam 20 Reference List 1 14 27 40 53 66 79 92 105 118 131 144 157 170 183 196 209 222 235 248 262
Preface
Medical Massage Cares FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEx Practice Exams will help massage therapy students pass the Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination (MBLEx) administered by the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards (FSMTB). This book includes twenty complete 125-question practice exams, for a total of 2,500 questions. The questions on the practice exams have the same percentage weights as the content of the FSMTB MBLEx exam.
Content Anatomy & Physiology Kinesiology Pathology, Contraindications, Areas of Caution, and Special Populations Benefits and Physiological Effects of Techniques that Manipulate Soft Tissue Client Assessment, Reassessment & Treatment Planning Overview of Massage & Bodywork History / Culture / Modalities Ethics, Boundaries, Laws, and Regulations Guidelines for Professional Practice Total
Percent of Exam 14 percent 11 percent 13 percent
Number of Questions 18 14 16
Question Numbers 1-18 19-32 33-48
17 percent
21
49-69
17 percent
21
70-90
5 percent 13 percent 10 percent 100 percent
6 16 13 125
91-96 97-112 113-125 1-125
After taking the practice exams and identifying areas of content that require further study, students are encouraged to focus on those sections from Medical Massage Cares FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEx Study Guide. It is estimated that exam candidates will need a score of at least 70%, or 88 correct answers out of the 125 questions, to successfully complete the MBLEx.
Exam 1 1. Which refers to the microscopic study of tissues? A. Histology B. Pathophysiology C. Neuromuscular therapy D. Reflexology 2. What is the order of the levels of organization in the body, from smallest to largest? A. Cellular, chemical, atom, organ, systemic, body B. Chemical, cellular, organ, tissue, systemic, earth C. Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, systemic, body D. Cellular, chemical, organ, tissue, body, systemic 3. What is an increase in the size of cells without cell division? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Atrophy D. Hypertrophy 4. What is the order of the layers of skin from most superficial to most deep? A. Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous B. Epidermis, arteries, dermis C. Dermis, epidermis, bone D. Dermis, epidermis, hypodermis 5. Which type of epithelial membrane are the pleura? A. Mucous B. Serous C. Autoimmune D. Synovial 6. What type of cartilage is rigid and made of dense fibrous tissue, such as the cartilage in intervertebral disks? A. Osteoporosis B. Axial C. Fibrocartilage D. Elastic cartilage 7. What is the order of these major structures of the brain stem, starting with most superior / cranial? A. Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, diencephalons B. Midbrain, diencephalons, metastasis, pons C. Diencephalons, mandible, medulla oblongata, pons D. Diencephalons, midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata 8. Which is a function of the autonomic nervous system under parasympathetic control? A. Increased heartbeat B. Constricted blood vessels C. Increased peristalsis D. Decreased secretion of digestive juices 9. Which is a gland the size of a grape? A. Thymus B. Pituitary C. Mastoid D. Patella
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10. What receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Aorta C. Right atrium D. Left atrium 11. What is a hormone secreted by the pyloric area of the stomach and duodenum? A. Gastrin B. Melatonin C. Trigger point D. Fissure lesion 12. A. B. C. D. Which connects two bones? Tendons Fascia Ligaments Bursa
16. Which actions occur in the sagittal plane? A. Flexion and extension B. Adduction and abduction C. Rotation and circumduction D. Supination and pronation 17. A. B. C. D. Where is the cervical region? Head Temples Neck Shoulders
13. What is a section of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve? A. Dorsal root ganglion B. Reflex mechanism C. Dermatome D. Myotome 14. Which means closer to the trunk or point of origin? A. External B. Internal C. Proximal D. Distal 15. Where is the ulna relative to the radius? A. Proximal B. Distal C. Medial D. Lateral
18. Which energetic manipulation technique involves the liver meridian beginning at the great toe, ending at the chest, and being associated with the flow of ki? A. Acupressure B. Shiatsu C. Acupuncture D. All of the above 19. When the elbow extends, what is the biceps? A. Agonist B. Antagonist C. Synergist D. Prime mover 20. Which of these muscles originates at the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus? A. Flexor carpi radialis B. Palmaris longus C. Extensor carpi radialis longus D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
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21. Where is the medial longitudinal arch? A. First metatarsal to fifth metatarsal B. Calcaneus to first metatarsal C. Calcaneus to fifth metatarsal D. Calcaneus to malleolus 22. How many phalanges does the foot have? A. 5 B. 8 C. 14 D. 15 23. What best describes the shape of pectoralis major? A. Parallel B. Convergent C. Multi-belly D. Bipennate 24. What movement occurs at the radioulnar joint? A. Rotation B. Abduction C. Adduction D. Elevation 25. Which muscle flexes the elbow, supinates the forearm, and flexes the shoulder? A. Triceps brachii B. Deltoid C. Trapezius D. Biceps brachii 26. Which muscle originates at the posterior iliac crest? A. Deltoid B. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Quadratus lumborum
27. Which muscle of the right forearm would be used to turn a screwdriver clockwise? A. Brachialis B. Pronator teres C. Supinator D. Gluteus minimus 28. Which muscle extends and laterally rotates the hip, and flexes the knee? A. Rectus femoris B. Biceps femoris C. Gluteus minimus D. Palmaris longus 29. What type of contraction occurs when one lowers a book onto a table? A. Concentric B. Reciprocal inhibition C. Eccentric D. Isometric 30. Which muscle would predominantly have fast twitch fibers? A. Erector spinae B. Soleus C. Deltoid D. Transversospinalis 31. What happens in an isotonic muscle contraction? A. The length of the muscle changes B. The length of the muscle does not change C. The muscle lengthens but does not shorten D. The muscle shortens but does not lengthen
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32. Which is a ball and socket joint? A. Hip B. Thumb C. Knee D. Elbow 33. What is inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon? A. Tenosynovitis B. Mitosis C. Fibrosis D. Edema 34. What is a congenital disease? A. A disease that deteriorates B. A disease spread by mold or yeast C. A disease with no known cause D. A disease present at birth 35. What refers to a disease of short duration? A. Malignant B. Chronic C. Acute D. Metastatic 36. What is the expected outcome of a disease? A. Diagnosis B. Prognosis C. Pathology D. Etiology 37. What refers to the decreasing size of tissue? A. Atrophy B. Entrainment C. Hypertrophy D. Ambulatory
38. Which rhythms repeat themselves every 24 hours? A. Circadian rhythms B. Biological rhythms C. Ultradian rhythms D. Seasonal rhythms 39. What is the growth of a calcium deposit in soft tissues, which is always a local contraindication for massage? A. Fibromyalgia B. Muscular dystrophy C. Myositis ossificans D. Shin splints 40. What are amphetamines, adrenergic medications, anticonvulsants, and antiparkinson agents? A. Hormones B. Anti-infectives C. Antineoplastics D. Central nervous system medications 41. What is the order of the five stages of acute fracture healing after hematoma formation and before remodeling? A. Callus formation, ossification, strain B. Cellular proliferation, callus formation, ossification C. Ossification, cellular proliferation, callus formation D. Callus formation, sprain, ossification
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42. What results in the popping sound of the temporomandibular joint? A. Whiplash B. Subluxation C. Dislocation D. Fracture 43. What kind of fracture involves an incomplete break in the bone causing it to split, common in children? A. Greenstick fracture B. Depressed fracture C. Impacted fracture D. Spondylitis 44. What is whiplash? A. Tennis elbow B. Spasm in SCM causing head to tilt C. Frozen shoulder D. Cervical accelerationdeceleration injury 45. What is plantar fasciitis? A. Pain and inflammation from calcaneus to metatarsals B. Spasm in SCM causing head to tilt C. Frozen shoulder D. Whiplash 46. What is a lateral curvature of the spine? A. Scoliosis B. Gibbus C. Kyphosis D. Lordosis
47. Which area is associated with the cephalic vein and the nerves of the brachial plexus? A. Posterior triangle of the neck B. Anterior triangle of the neck C. Axillary area D. Oblique plane 48. What are the sides of the anterior triangle of the neck endangerment site? A. Mandible, clavicle, and trachea B. SCM, mandible, and trachea C. Frontal, sagittal, and transverse D. Mandible, trachea, and trapezius 49. What is a reflex effect of massage? A. Normalizing system function B. Increased mental clarity C. Pain reduction D. All of the above 50. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Reduces hyperthermia B. Reduces cortisol levels C. Dilates blood vessels D. Reduces superficial keloid formation 51. If a client is functioning from parasympathetic nervous system dominance, what would be an appropriate initial stroke? A. Gentle rocking B. Kneading C. Brisk effleurage D. Tapotement
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52. What is the external application of cold for therapeutic purposes? A. Hydrotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Thermotherapy D. Hunting response 53. What is the R.I.C.E.S. First Aid principle? A. Rest, Immersion, Compression, Elevation and Sponging B. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Stabilization C. Rest, Ice, Compression, Energy and Sponging D. Resistance, Immersion, Contrasting, Elevation and Sponging 54. What is the maximum temperature that the skin can tolerate for a hot bath? A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0 degrees Celsius B. 77 degrees Fahrenheit or 25 degrees Celsius C. 115 degrees Fahrenheit or 46 degrees Celsius D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60 degrees Celsius 55. Which is the best transition stroke? A. Friction B. Tapotement C. Petrissage D. Effleurage 56. A. B. C. D. Which reduces scar tissue? Kneading Gliding Cross fiber friction Cupping
57. What is a physical effect of massage? A. Relieves muscle cramps and spasms B. Improves circulation of blood and lymph C. Enhances removal of metabolic waste D. All of the above 58. What is a direct physical effect of massage? A. Reflexive effect B. Mechanical effect C. Psychological effect D. All of the above 59. What is an effect of massage on the skin? A. Reddening and warming of skin B. Decreased activity of sweat and oil glands C. Decreased circulation to the skin D. All of the above 60. What has beneficial effects similar to exercise? A. Active joint movements B. Passive joint movements C. Friction D. Effleurage 61. What stimulates the sympathetic nervous system? A. Pre-event sports massage B. 15-minute chair massage C. Short, invigorating massage D. All of the above
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62. Which stroke is generally applied first? A. Vibration B. Superficial gliding C. Percussion D. Friction 63. Which stroke is appropriate for treating a baseball pitcher with a sore arm? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Cross-fiber friction D. Percussion 64. Which stroke is not a type of friction? A. Transverse B. Cross fiber C. Cupping D. Circular 65. Which stretching technique has the client stretch into resistance and apply light contraction? A. Ballistic stretching B. Unassisted static stretching C. Assisted static stretching D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) 66. What technique on the leg would create mobility at the hip joint? A. Effleurage B. Rocking C. Reiki D. Gliding 67. Which stroke would be best for a ticklish client? A. Light effleurage B. Nerve strokes C. Feather strokes D. Compression
68. Which is not advisable for pregnancy massage in the second and third trimesters? A. Light effleurage B. Lying prone C. Side-lying position D. Supine position 69. What is initially induced by cryotherapy? A. Vasodilation B. Rest C. Diathermy D. Vasoconstriction 70. What is appropriate for a client with chronic constipation? A. Stimulate peristaltic contraction of the large intestine B. Prescribe herbal remedies C. Reschedule the massage D. Perform the massage but avoid the abdomen 71. If a client has a forward head position, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen and stretch SCM and anterior scalene B. Lengthen and stretch upper trapezius and splenius C. Lengthen and stretch adductors and iliotibial tract D. Shorten erector spinae 72. If a client has toeing out when walking, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch the metatarsophalangeal joints B. Stretch the plantar flexor muscles C. Stretch the biceps femoris D. Stretch the latissimus dorsi
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73. What is done if a client has thoracic outlet syndrome? A. Lengthen serratus anterior and soleus B. Lengthen latissimus dorsi and teres major C. Lengthen scalenes, SCMs, pecs, and neck extensors D. Lengthen biceps and triceps brachii 74. What would trigger points along the psoas, quadratus lumborum, and hamstrings contribute to? A. Brachial plexus impingement B. Sciatica C. Tension headaches D. Low back pain 75. Where on the SOAP chart are referrals documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 76. Which is outside the scope of practice of a massage therapist? A. Postural assessment B. Prescribing treatment C. Manipulating soft tissues D. Homework 77. What is the joint movement that requires the therapist to move the relaxed client? A. Active range of motion B. Compensation pattern C. Passive range of motion D. Range of motion
78. A tight and short psoas would decrease the function of which muscle? A. Rectus abdominis B. Gluteus maximus C. Pectineus D. Erector spinae 79. What would most likely make the pelvis tilt forward? A. Tight hamstrings B. Weak low back muscles C. Weak abdominal muscles D. Flexed knees 80. If a client has lordotic posture, which muscles are most likely short and strong? A. Anterior abdominals B. Hamstrings C. Low back D. Medial rotators of hip 81. If a client complains of tension headaches and tight muscles in the back of the neck, what posture is most likely the cause? A. Lordotic posture B. Flat back C. Flexed knees D. Forward head and round upper back 82. Regarding faulty posture of the feet, what happens with a low longitudinal arch? A. Flat foot B. Slue-footed C. Pigeon-toed D. Calluses under ball of foot
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83. Which are short and strong with the right hip adducted and medially rotated and left hip abducted? A. Right lateral trunk muscles, right hip adductors and left hip abductors B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior C. Left flexor hallucis longus and left flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 84. What is the appropriate incline for the back of a chair for good alignment in sitting posture? A. 0 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 90 degrees 85. How does a therapist test the left arm flexors? A. Client holds left arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds left arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure D. Client holds right arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure 86. What should be obtained during the client consultation? A. Availability for next appointment B. Payment in cash C. Informed consent D. Referrals
87. What type of assessment involves temperature, texture, tenderness, and tone? A. Palpation B. Gait C. Needs D. Functional 88. What is an acceleration/deceleration injury to the head and neck? A. Frozen shoulder B. Migraine C. Plantar fasciitis D. Whiplash 89. A. B. C. D. What is tennis elbow? Trigger finger Lateral epicondylitis Medial epicondylitis Golfer's elbow
90. What is an increase in the normal thoracic kyphotic curve? A. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. Hyperkyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Iliotibial band contracture 91. What light massage technique did Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr. Estrid Vodder develop? A. Neuromuscular therapy B. Manual lymph drainage C. Reflexology D. Ayurveda 92. What type of sports massage is used for severe injuries? A. Pre-event massage B. Recovery massage C. Chair massage D. Rehabilitation massage
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93. Who developed Touch for Health? A. Dr. Milton Trager B. Dr. Ida Rolf C. Dr. John Thie D. Per Henrik Ling 94. Which massage system uses effleurage, petrissage, vibration, friction, and tapotement? A. Swedish B. German C. French and English D. All of the above 95. What involves an energy flow along a nerve tract? A. Countertransference B. Proprioceptor C. Synergist D. Meridians or channels 96. Which massage system uses acupressure? A. Chinese and Japanese B. Swedish C. Greek D. Indian and Hindu 97. What are service limits and boundaries as determined by legal, educational, competency, and accountability factors? A. Code of ethics B. Informed consent C. Scope of practice D. Deductions 98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Misleading claims C. Right of refusal D. Contract
99. What is sexual touch from a professional bodyworker to a client considered? A. Appropriate B. Erotic C. Hostile D. Touch technique 100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Exploiting the power differential B. Working on a minor with parental consent C. Informed consent violations D. Misleading claims 101. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Confidentiality B. Scope of practice C. Client-centered actions and words D. All of the above 102. What are lines that separate, limits, barriers, borders, and edges? A. Informed consent B. Boundaries C. Medical advice D. None of the above 103. What is needed before working on a minor? A. Psychological counseling B. Parental consent C. Contract D. None of the above 104. What is name-dropping? A. Confidentiality violation B. Practicing beyond scope of practice C. Violation of law D. None of the above
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105. What is appropriate for a therapist to do when seeing a client in a public place? A. Ask how the last massage was B. Do not bring up anything about the massage C. Ask when the therapist can expect payment D. None of the above 106. What is appropriate when a client says they are going to stop taking their prescription medication now? A. Suggest the client discuss it with their primary care provider B. Tell the client it is OK to stop taking the medication C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 107. Massaging a family member involves what type of issue? A. Financial impropriety B. Scope of practice C. Dual relationship D. None of the above 108. Who licenses? A. The government B. Associations C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 109. Guidance on which topic is typically not found in a code of ethics? A. Client relationships B. Professionalism C. Tax D. Scope of practice
110. What is appropriate for the therapist to discuss with the client? A. Finances B. Gossip C. Personal issues D. That the therapist has a cold 111. What is the most appropriate response if a client asks to be touched in a sexual manner? A. Act as if nothing happened B. Call 911 C. Remain professional and explain the services D. Provide a referral 112. What is inappropriate activity during a massage session that would be considered misconduct involving sexual contact? A. Touching breasts for nontherapeutic purposes B. Intercourse C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. A therapist having discomfort in what area would indicate the massage table is probably too high? A. Upper back B. Arms C. Shoulders D. All of the above 114. What are the main reasons for using lubricants? A. Reduce risk of disease B. Reduce friction and increase comfort C. Warmth and modesty D. Safety and sanitation
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115. Which is a noninfectious disease? A. Athlete's foot B. HIV C. Hepatitis B D. Diabetes 116. Which first aid kit item would be used to clean a wound? A. Antibiotic B. Antiseptic C. Aspirin D. Hydrocortisone 117. What uses leverage and structural alignment to prevent fatigue? A. Asymmetric B. Body mechanics C. Laterally recumbent D. Symmetric 118. Which stance is best for deep effleurage? A. Asymmetric B. Seated C. Laterally recumbent D. Symmetric 119. What are the main reasons for draping? A. Reduce risk and prevent disease B. Reduce friction and increase comfort C. Warmth and modesty D. Safety and sanitation
120. Which vitamin is synthesized by ultraviolet radiation? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Saw palmetto 121. What are advantages of self-employment? A. Can focus on massage B. Can set own schedule C. Steady income D. All of the above 122. What would be used as a road map to achieve goals? A. Business plan B. Resume C. Marketing material D. Financial records 123. What is barter income? A. Reportable to the IRS B. Tax deductible C. Both A and B D. None of the above 124. Which protects against an adverse reaction to a lotion? A. General liability insurance B. Product liability insurance C. Professional liability insurance D. Premises fire damage insurance for renters 125. What is deductible as a business expense? A. Royalties B. Barter income C. Tips D. Continuing education expenses
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Exam 1 Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. D 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. C 31. A 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. A D A A C B D C A B B C D C D B A A D B C C B B D B D A B B C D D B C B C C D A A B 85. C 86. C 87. A 88. D 89. B 90. B 91. B 92. D 93. C 94. D 95. D 96. A 97. C 98. B 99. C 100. D 101. D 102. B 103. B 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. C 108. A 109. C 110. D 111. C 112. C 113. D 114. B 115. D 116. B 117. B 118. A 119. C 120. B 121. B 122. A 123. A 124. B 125. D
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Exam 2 1. Which is the study of how body parts work? A. Hellerwork B. Embryology C. Reflexology D. Physiology 2. Which level in the organization of the body structure consists of related organs with a common function? A. Molecular level B. System level C. Tissue level D. Atomic level 3. What is the name for nuclear division that distributes two sets of chromosomes to two separate nuclei? A. Mitosis B. Mitochondria C. DNA D. The S phase 4. What is the passive movement of ions from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration? A. Phospholipid layer B. Diffusion C. Filtration D. Golgi apparatus 5. Which classification of epithelia has many layers? A. Shiatsu B. Lymph C. Columnar D. Stratified 6. What is a thin membrane of connective tissue lining marrow cavity of a bone containing cells for growth and repair? A. Periosteum B. Epidermis C. Infraspinatus D. Endosteum 7. What is usually the more moveable bone? A. Origin B. Insertion C. Prime mover D. Antagonist 8. Which component of the peripheral nervous system controls smooth and cardiac muscle? A. Autonomic B. Reflex arc C. Somatic D. Cervical 9. What secretes human growth hormones? A. Anterior pituitary gland B. Thymus C. Hypogastric nerve D. Right atrium 10. What happens in pulmonary circulation? A. Blood unloads carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen B. Blood unloads oxygen and picks up carbon dioxide C. Blood unloads carbon dioxide and oxygen D. Blood picks up oxygen and carbon dioxide
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11. Which system includes the nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, diaphragm, and pharynx? A. Gastrointestinal B. Circulatory C. Endocrine D. Respiratory 12. Which cranial suture is the articulation of the occipital and parietal bones? A. Umbilical B. Sagittal C. Squamous D. Lambdoidal 13. Which are nutrients that the body requires an extremely small amount to function normally? A. Plant and animal proteins B. Fat and carbohydrates C. Lipids and fiber D. Magnesium and zinc 14. Which means on or to the side? A. Dorsal B. Lateral C. Medial D. Ventral 15. Where are the phalanges relative to the carpals? A. Proximal B. Distal C. Superficial D. Deep 16. Which body cavity is posterior to the diaphragm? A. Cranial B. Abdominal C. Cervical D. Vertebral
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the deltoid region? Armpit Between elbow and shoulder Neck Shoulders
18. Which method involves the kidney meridian beginning at the foot, ending at the thorax, and being associated with the impetus to move? A. Acupuncture B. Acupressure C. Shiatsu D. All of the above 19. Which muscle fibers are pale, large in diameter, with few capillaries? A. Fast twitch B. Slow twitch C. Intermediate D. All of the above 20. Which of these muscles originates at the lateral epicondyle of the humerus? A. Flexor carpi radialis B. Soleus C. Multifidi D. Extensor carpi ulnaris 21. Where is the latitudinal arch? A. First metatarsal to fifth metatarsal B. Calcaneus to first metatarsal C. Humerus to fifth metacarpal D. Ulna to radius 22. How many phalanges does the hand have? A. 5 B. 8 C. 14 D. 15
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23. What describes the shape of extensor digitorum longus? A. Circular B. Convergent C. Unipennate D. Hinge 24. What is the thick, lubricating substance secreted by a joint cavity membrane that reduces friction? A. Joint capsule B. Synovial joint C. Synovial fluid D. Suture 25. Which muscle crosses two joints? A. Tibialis anterior B. Frontalis C. Gastrocnemius D. Peroneus longus 26. Which is an action of teres minor? A. Flex the elbow B. Medially rotate the shoulder C. Horizontally abduct the shoulder D. Adduct the wrist 27. Which muscle flexes, laterally rotates, and abducts the hip; and flexes and medially rotates the knee? A. Psoas major B. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Brachialis 28. What stabilizes the ulna during flexion and supination? A. Metacarpophalangeal joints B. Deltoid C. Bicipital aponeurosis D. Radial carpal joint
29. Which extends the vertebral column? A. Iliacus B. Rectus abdominis C. Quadratus lumborum D. Extensor carpi ulnaris 30. What is a contraction in which the length of the muscle does not change? A. Concentric B. Isotonic C. Eccentric D. Isometric 31. Which muscles have a higher percentage of fast-twitch white fibers? A. Soft tissues B. Postural muscles C. Connective tissue D. Phasic muscles 32. What happens in an isometric muscle contraction? A. The length of the muscle changes B. The length of the muscle does not change C. The muscle lengthens but does not shorten D. None of the above 33. A. B. C. D. What is the study of disease? Anthropology Diagnosis Pharmacology Pathology
34. What is a degenerative disease? A. Disease that deteriorates B. Disease spread by mold or yeast C. Disease with no known cause D. Disease present at birth
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35. What is nonmalignant or not progressive? A. Benign B. Metastatic C. Cancer D. Somatic 36. What is the categorization of a disease by a licensed medical professional? A. Diagnosis B. Prognosis C. Pathology D. Etiology 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for chronic fatigue syndrome? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. A medical diagnosis is required before a massage 38. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for an open wound? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 39. Which is true regarding Hepatitis B? A. It is 100 times more contagious than HIV B. Vaccines are not effective C. It accounts for 100% of all new hepatitis cases D. It is transmitted through contaminated food and water
40. What are non-narcotic pain relievers and narcotics? A. Analgesics B. Anti-inflammatory medications C. Antineoplastics D. Central nervous system medications 41. What are the implications for massage for a client taking analgesics? A. Watch for bruising B. Pain perception is inhibited C. Massage can help with constipation D. All of the above 42. What is used for coughs and inflammation of the pharynx? A. Peppermint B. Ma-huang C. Ginseng D. St. John's Wort 43. What kind of fracture involves the bone in skull being driven inward? A. Greenstick fracture B. Depressed fracture C. Comminuted fracture D. Stress fracture 44. A. B. C. D. What is lateral epicondylitis? Tennis elbow Golfer's elbow Pitcher's elbow Frozen shoulder
45. What is the result of an injury to the ulnar nerve? A. List B. Loss of function of wrist and fingers C. Plantar fasciitis D. Frozen shoulder
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46. What is associated with kyphotic-lordotic posture? A. Flat back B. Forward head C. Normal anterior curve D. All of the above 47. Which area is associated with the ulnar nerve? A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus B. Medial epicondyle of the humerus C. Pelvic cavity D. Sciatic notch 48. Which of the following is a component of the axillary area endangerment site? A. Vagus nerve B. Coccyx C. Cephalic vein D. Ulnar nerve 49. What are venous return, lymph flow, and breaking adhesions examples of? A. Mechanical effects B. Physiological effects C. Reflex effects D. Placebo effects 50. Which is an effect of massage processed through the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A. The body / mind effect B. The placebo effect C. Entrainment D. All of the above
51. What is an effect of massage on the skin? A. Reduces heart rate B. Stimulates sudoriferous gland activity C. Increases serotonin levels D. Empty end feel 52. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Tonsillitis C. Tuberculosis D. All of the above 53. Which is decreased as one of the effects of massage? A. Dopamine B. Endorphins C. Cortisol D. Red blood cells 54. Which hydrotherapy application uses friction? A. Baths B. Packs C. Sponging D. Compresses 55. Which involves high frequency hand movements? A. Deep fiber friction B. Superficial friction C. Tapotement D. Vibration 56. Which stroke would be best to use to finish with a client having trouble sleeping? A. Friction B. Tapotement C. Petrissage D. Effleurage
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57. What is another name for proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)? A. Muscle guarding B. Stretching C. Trigger point therapy D. Muscle energy techniques 58. What is not a physical effect of massage? A. Decreases in muscle cramps and spasms B. Increases circulation of blood and lymph C. Increases removal of metabolic waste D. Reduces anxiety 59. What is a psychological effect of massage? A. Increases anxiety B. Helps clients become aware of where there is muscle tension C. Relieves muscle cramps D. Increases circulation 60. What is initiated by stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Reduced heart rate B. Blood diverted to muscles C. Elimination and digestion inhibited D. All of the above 61. What massage movement causes a contraction of the blood vessels which tend to relax as the movement is continued? A. Light percussion B. Light stroking C. Deep stroking D. All of the above
62. Which is a percussion movement? A. Hacking B. Kneading C. Gliding D. Friction 63. Which stroke is a kneading technique? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Fulling D. Friction 64. Which stroke is not a type of percussion? A. Beating B. Gliding C. Slapping D. Tapping 65. How can position release techniques be done? A. Isometric contraction B. Isotonic contraction C. Isokinetic contraction D. All of the above 66. Which stroke breaks down scar tissue? A. Effleurage B. Friction C. Deep tissue D. Percussion 67. What is a guideline for massaging persons with cancer? A. Take a complete medical history B. Consult the physician C. Develop a treatment plan D. All of the above
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68. A. B. C. D.
Which method applies cold? Hydrotherapy Cryotherapy Cross-fiber friction Percussion
69. What is the "E" in the R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? A. End feel B. Elevate C. Exacerbate D. Excite 70. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen psoas major and upper trapezius B. Lengthen biceps femoris and SCM C. Lengthen soleus and gastrocnemius D. Shorten iliacus and rectus capitis posterior major 71. If a client has a prominent or high right hip, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch knee flexors and hip flexors B. Stretch hip medial rotators C. Stretch right lateral trunk and left lateral thigh muscles D. Stretch serratus anterior 72. What is done if a client has retracted shoulders? A. Stretch serratus anterior B. Stretch rhomboids C. Stretch rectus femoris D. Stretch extensor digitorum longus
73. Which muscles are overactive if a client has shoulder pain, low back pain, and a headache when flexing the shoulders? A. Abdominal complex B. Erector spinae, psoas, and rectus abdominis C. Upper trapezius and ipsilateral quadratus lumborum D. Gluteus maximum and gastrocnemius 74. What would be a more comfortable position for clients with allergies and coldrelated respiratory congestion? A. Supine B. Prone C. Side-lying D. Recumbent 75. What are the SOAP headings? A. Synopsis, objective, assessment, plan B. Subjective, origin, analysis, plan C. Subjective, objective, assessment, prognosis D. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan 76. Which would generally be included on an intake form? A. Code of ethics B. Range of motion assessment C. Health history and contact information D. Financial records
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77. What occurs when there is no physical restriction to movement other than the pain expressed by the client? A. Soft tissue dysfunction B. Abnormal end feel C. Protective muscle contraction D. Normal end feel 78. Which muscles would become dominant to compensate for a weak gluteus medius? A. Tensor fasciae latae and adductors B. Gracilis and biceps femoris C. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus D. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris 79. What happens in the forward head position? A. Short and strong neck extensors B. Long anterior vertebral neck flexors C. Weak anterior vertebral neck flexors D. All of the above 80. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, which muscles are most likely short and strong? A. Erector spinae B. Neck extensors C. External obliques D. Hamstrings
81. What happens to the feet when standing in heels or walking fast? A. Less tendency towards pigeon-toes B. Increase in out-toeing C. Feet tend to become parallel D. Feet are more outward rotating 82. Which are long and weak with the pelvis laterally tilted and high left, left hip adducted and medially rotated, and right hip abducted? A. Right lateral trunk muscles, left hip abductors and right hip adductors B. Left peroneus longus and brevis and right tibialis posterior C. Right flexor hallucis longus and right flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 83. Regarding faulty posture of the feet, what happens when the ankle rolls out? A. Pronation B. Knock-knees C. Bowlegs D. Supination
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84. How does a therapist test the left arm extensors? A. Client holds left arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds left arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure D. Client holds right arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure 85. What is the first step of the client consultation? A. Discuss fees B. Greet client C. Formulate treatment plan D. SOAP chart 86. Where on the SOAP chart would the massage treatment given be documented? A. Subjective B. Observation C. Assessment D. Plan 87. What is an overuse condition resulting in inflammation in the foot? A. Frozen shoulder B. Migraine C. Plantar fasciitis D. Whiplash 88. What is inflammation of the common extensor tendon? A. Trigger finger B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Medial epicondylitis D. Golfer's elbow
89. What is a painful significant restriction of range of motion at the shoulder? A. Tendonitis B. Whiplash C. Frozen shoulder D. Bursitis 90. What is an increase in the normal lumbar lordotic curve? A. Hyperlordosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Iliotibial band contracture 91. What did James Cyriax develop in his work on soft tissue manipulation? A. Swedish massage B. Manual lymph drainage C. Reflexology D. Deep transverse friction 92. Which applies pressure to points on the hands and feet? A. Reflexology B. Neuromuscular therapy C. Deep transverse friction D. Hellerwork 93. How does aromatherapy work? A. Thermal properties B. Stimulates olfactory nerve C. Distraction D. Placebo response 94. Who is considered the father of physical therapy? A. Per Henrik Ling B. Joseph Heller C. Boris Chaitow D. Stanley Leif
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95. Which early massage system described an ascete as a person who exercises the mind and body? A. Greek B. German C. Chinese D. Indian 96. What is the path or way to sustain energy? A. Marketing B. Tao C. Acupressure D. Trigger point 97. What occurs when a client's expectations and behaviors are moved to the therapist? A. Client-centered B. Dual relationships C. Transference D. Ethics 98. Which section of a standards of practice would contain guidance on advertising and fees? A. DBA B. Confidentiality C. Business practices D. Prevention of sexual misconduct 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Contract B. Right of refusal C. Dating a client D. Informed consent
100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Right of refusal B. Advertising C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above 101. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Spiritual advice B. Social needs C. Personal needs D. All of the above 102. What is an example of a boundary? A. Barrier B. Palpation assessment C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. Who can provide consent to working on a minor? A. A legal guardian B. Any relatives C. A Friend D. All of the above 104. Charging different fees if the client pays in cash or with insurance is what type of unethical behavior? A. Misrepresentation of educational status B. Financial impropriety C. Practicing beyond the scope of practice D. None of the above
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105. What is the issue if a client asks for information about another client who they saw in the office? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Confidentiality 106. What is outside the scope of practice? A. Psychological advice B. Soft tissue manipulation C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 107. What is an issue if a teacher and massage school student start dating and it leads to gossip and tension? A. Transference B. Countertransference C. Scope of practice D. Dual relationship 108. Which is unethical? A. Advertising B. Professionalism C. Sexual misconduct D. All of the above 109. What is the appropriate action if a client constantly complains about stress and other people's problems? A. Suggest the client seek counseling for the stress B. Prescribe medication to reduce stress C. Leave the room and ask the client to stop complaining D. Offer psychological advice
110. What is needed if a client asks for personal information the therapist does not want to share such as a home phone number? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Direct communication 111. What is the most appropriate response if a client asks for a happy ending? A. Act as if nothing happened B. Call 911 C. Remain professional and explain the services D. Provide a referral 112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Sexual jokes B. Maintain a professional appearance and demeanor C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is the loading capacity of a good-quality massage table? A. 100 to 125 pounds or more B. 175 to 225 pounds or more C. 300 to 450 pounds or more D. 600 to 750 pounds or more 114. What would be done if a therapist drops a sheet on the floor during a massage? A. Review proper draping procedures B. Proceed with massage C. Advise client on proper sanitation procedures D. Put sheet in hamper and wash hands
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115. The following are standard precautions for preventing transmission of pathogens except: A. Proper draping B. Proper hand hygiene C. Proper sanitation procedures D. Proper disposal techniques 116. What is a universal precaution? A. Wash hands with bleach before and after contact with every client B. Use disposable paper towels after washing hands C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 117. What increases the strength and power available in a movement? A. Sanitation B. Draping C. Body mechanics D. Gloves 118. In the asymmetric stance, the angle between the humerus and the side of the body should not exceed how many degrees? A. 45% B. 90% C. 135% D. 180% 119. What is the process of keeping a client covered while performing a massage? A. Draping B. Body mechanics C. Protective gear D. Assessment
120. What draping method requires a minimum size of 72 inches long and 36 inches wide? A. Top cover method B. Full sheet method C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 121. What amount of water is needed by the body per day? A. 2 to 3 liters B. 3 to 4 gallons C. 4 to 5 gallons D. 5 to 6 gallons 122. What are advantages of working in self-employment? A. Benefits B. Tax forms C. Hours schedule D. FICA tax 123. What would the sum of fees collected be? A. Start-up costs B. Overhead C. Net income D. Gross income 124. What is typically requested by an employer or landlord? A. Additional insured endorsement B. Legal defense coverage C. Professional liability insurance D. Premises fire damage insurance for renters 125. How is a brochure used? A. Licensing B. Tax C. Marketing D. Insurance
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Exam 2 Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. D 21. A 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. D 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. A 36. A 37. A 38. C 39. A 40. A 41. D 42. A 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B A B B B C A D B A C C D D D D B A A A C B D B D B B A C B C A D C B A D B C D D A 85. B 86. C 87. C 88. B 89. C 90. A 91. D 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. C 98. C 99. C 100. D 101. D 102. A 103. A 104. B 105. D 106. A 107. D 108. C 109. A 110. D 111. C 112. B 113. C 114. D 115. A 116. B 117. C 118. B 119. A 120. A 121. A 122. C 123. D 124. A 125. C
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Exam 3 1. Which refers to the structures of the body? A. Anatomy B. Ortho-bionomy C. Histology D. Pathophysiology 2. Which level in the organization of the body structure contains atoms and molecules? A. Sub-atomic level B. Chemical level C. Organism level D. Tissue level 3. What are lysosomes, ribosomes, and centrosomes examples of? A. Cells B. Cytoplasm C. Oils D. Organelles 4. Which surrounds the nucleus and contains organelles? A. Atom B. Cytoplasm C. Golgi apparatus D. Feedback loop 5. Which epithelium is found where absorption or secretion takes place? A. Simple B. Cuboidal C. Dermis D. Ellipsoid 6. What is a connective tissue structure covering bones providing for nutrition, growth, and attachments? A. Periosteum B. Piezoelectric C. Femoral region D. Endosteum 7. What type of muscle tissue is the heart? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Elastic D. Smooth 8. Which is a function of the autonomic nervous system under sympathetic control? A. Slow heartbeat B. Constricted blood vessels C. Increased peristalsis D. Increased secretion of digestive juices 9. Which component of the peripheral nervous system is working if the client starts to breathe more slowly? A. Somatic B. Gastric C. Sympathetic D. Parasympathetic 10. What receives oxygenated blood from the left ventricle? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Aorta C. Right atrium D. Kidney
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11. Which system provides oxygen and removes carbon dioxide? A. Lymphatic B. Gastrointestinal C. Urinary D. Respiratory 12. What is required by nerve cells and muscle cells to conduct electricity? A. Vitamin C B. Sodium and potassium C. Aloe D. Vitamin D 13. What is required for tissue repair and essential for blood clotting? A. Vitamin C B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Aloe 14. Which means within the body? A. External B. Internal C. Proximal D. Superficial 15. Where is the heart relative to the liver? A. Superior B. Inferior C. Plantar D. Volar 16. Which plane divides the body into sections for a lateral view? A. Frontal plane B. Sagittal plane C. Oblique plane D. Coronal plane
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the axillary region? Armpit Between elbow and shoulder Neck Shoulders
18. Which method involves the small intestine meridian beginning at the little finger, ending at the ear, and being associated with assimilation? A. Craniosacral therapy B. Acupressure C. Trigger point therapy D. All of the above 19. Which muscle is considered an accessory muscle of respiration rather than a primary muscle of respiration? A. Diaphragm B. Temporalis C. Pectoris major D. Sternocleidomastoid 20. Which of these muscles originates at the medial epicondyle of the humerus? A. Flexor carpi radialis B. Biceps femoris C. Levator scapula D. Extensor carpi ulnaris 21. What are the tendons that pass by the medial malleolus, in order starting with the most anterior? A. Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior, teres minor B. Popliteus, sartorius, rectus abdominis C. Soleus, quadratus plantae, adductor digiti minimi D. Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum, flexor hallucis
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22. How many metacarpals does the hand have? A. 5 B. 8 C. 14 D. 15 23. What best describes the shape of biceps brachii? A. Bipennate B. Saddle C. Unipennate D. Convergent 24. What is a freely moving joint allowing movement in one or more planes of action? A. Joint capsule B. Synovial joint C. Synovial fluid D. Suture 25. The squamous suture is the articulation of which bones? A. Two phalanges B. Humerus and ulna C. Parietal and temporal bones D. Occipital and mandible bones 26. Which is an action of infraspinatus? A. Abduct the leg B. Medially rotate the shoulder C. Horizontally abduct the shoulder D. Flex the arm 27. Which muscle inserts on the proximal, medial shaft of the tibia at the pes anserinus tendon? A. Platysma B. Biceps brachii C. Sartorius D. Quadratus lumborum
28. Which is an action of palmaris longus? A. Adducts scapula B. Flexes wrist and elbow C. Extends leg D. Extends wrist and elbow 29. Which muscle rotates the vertebral column to the same side? A. Vastus medialis B. Internal oblique C. Peroneus longus D. Rotatores 30. What is the type of contraction in which muscle lengthens? A. Concentric B. Reciprocal inhibition C. Eccentric D. Isometric 31. Which muscles have a higher percentage of slow-twitch red fibers? A. Soft tissues B. Postural muscles C. Connective tissue D. Phasic muscles 32. What kind of joint is described by diathrosis? A. Freely moveable B. Slightly moveable C. Immoveable D. Suture 33. What is the formation of scar tissue? A. Edema B. Tenosynovitis C. Mitosis D. Fibrosis
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34. What is a fungal disease? A. A disease that deteriorates B. A disease spread by mold or yeast C. A disease with no known cause D. A disease present at birth 35. A. B. C. D. What means growing worse? Benign Chronic Cancer Malignant
40. What are antianginals, vasodilators, antihypertensive agents, and beta blockers? A. Cardiovascular medications B. Gastrointestinal medications C. Hormones D. Anti-infectives 41. What are the implications for massage for a client taking central nervous system medications? A. Massage can increase or decrease the impact of the medication B. Work with supervision from the physician C. Massage can help with constipation D. All of the above 42. What is used for asthma and hay fever? A. Peppermint B. Ma-huang C. Ginseng D. St. John's Wort 43. What kind of fracture involves a crack in the bone often caused by repeated mechanical stress and strain? A. Spiral fracture B. Impacted fracture C. Comminuted fracture D. Stress fracture 44. What is torticollis? A. Tennis elbow B. Spasm in SCM causing head to tilt C. Frozen shoulder D. Subluxation
36. What is the study of all of the factors involved in causing a disease? A. Pathology B. Epidemiology C. Etiology D. Pharmacology 37. Which is a local contraindication for massage? A. Bell's palsy B. Acne C. Erysipelas D. Bronchitis 38. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for plantar fasciitis? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 39. Which is true regarding HIV? A. It is impossible to spread through breast milk B. Its favorite target is the T4 cell C. It is the same as AIDS D. Coughing expels a large quantity of HIV
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45. What is a cervical acceleration-deceleration injury? A. Torticollis B. Spasm in SCM causing head to tilt C. Frozen shoulder D. Whiplash 46. What is associated with kyphotic-lordotic posture? A. Increased flexion of thoracic spine B. Forward head C. Hyperextended lumbar spine D. All of the above 47. Which muscle does the femoral nerve pierce? A. Psoas B. Trapezius C. Supinator D. Teres minor 48. Which of the following is a component of the anterior triangle of the neck endangerment site? A. Jugular vein B. Femoral artery C. Cephalic vein D. Patellar region 49. What is a mechanical effect of massage? A. Venous return B. Lymph flow C. Breaking adhesions D. All of the above
50. Which effect of massage processed through the autonomic nervous system involves an altered state of consciousness? A. The body / mind effect B. Counterirritation C. Gate control theory D. Mechanical methods 51. Which condition can benefit by massage? A. High blood pressure B. Cerebral palsy C. Chronic fatigue syndrome D. All of the above 52. How do inactive muscles benefit greatly from massage? A. The skin is warmed B. Synovial fluid is produced C. Oxygen and nutrients are delivered D. Oxytocin is decreased 53. What involves scrubbing the body with a brush dipped in warm, soapy water? A. Sponging B. Body shampoo C. Tonic friction D. Salt rub 54. What is the temperature of a hot bath? A. Below 32 degrees Fahrenheit B. 77 to 80 degrees Fahrenheit or 25 to 27 degrees Celsius C. 100 to 110 degrees Fahrenheit or 38 to 43 degrees Celsius D. Above 100 degrees Celsius
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55. What strokes are done on the abdomen if a client has chronic constipation? A. Tapotement B. Deep clockwise strokes C. Gliding counterclockwise strokes D. Gliding clockwise strokes 56. Which stroke would be best for local deep massage of soft tissue? A. Cryotherapy B. Tapotement C. Percussion D. Deep effleurage 57. Which is best for breaking up areas of fibrosis? A. Tapotement B. Friction or deep effleurage C. Craniosacral therapy D. Rolfing 58. What is a psychological effect of massage? A. Increases muscle cramps and spasms B. Decreases circulation of blood and lymph C. Increases removal of metabolic waste D. Calms the nervous system 59. What is an effect of massage on the muscular system? A. Decreased supply of blood to muscles B. Storage of waste products C. Helps nourish tissues D. Reddening of skin
60. What moves joints with resistance or assistance on the part of the client? A. Active joint movements B. Passive joint movements C. Friction D. Effleurage 61. What massage movement affects blood and lymph channels? A. Stroking B. Light percussion C. Friction D. All of the above 62. Which stroke is applied in a transverse direction? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Cross-fiber friction D. Circular friction 63. A. B. C. D. Which is gliding? Effleurage Petrissage Cryotherapy Tapotement
64. Which stroke is not petrissage? A. Hacking B. Kneading C. Skin rolling D. Fulling 65. Which stretching technique is very useful for reducing muscle cramping? A. Ballistic stretching B. Unassisted static stretching C. Assisted static stretching D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
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66. What stoke usually requires lubricant? A. Effleurage B. Jostling C. Percussion D. Compression 67. Which condition can benefit from pregnancy massage? A. Pre-eclampsia B. Back strain C. Both A and B D. None of the above 68. Is massage for the critically ill indicated or contraindicated? A. Indicated for gentle work B. Indicated for deep work C. Contraindicated for touch therapy D. Always contraindicated 69. What is a secondary effect of applying cold? A. Increased local circulation B. Contrast method C. Decreased local circulation D. Vasoconstriction 70. What refers symptoms to other areas of the body? A. Tender point B. Trigger point C. Target muscle D. Muscle guarding 71. What is appropriate if a client has a prominent or high left hip? A. Stretch left lateral trunk and right lateral thigh muscles B. Stretch right lateral trunk and left lateral thigh muscles C. Stretch temporalis D. Stretch trapezius
72. What is done if a client has a flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation deformity of the hip, with flexion of the knee? A. Lengthen deltoid B. Lengthen teres major C. Lengthen sartorius D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris 73. Which muscles are weak if a client has shoulder pain, low back pain, and a headache when flexing the shoulders? A. Abdominal complex B. Erector spinae, psoas, and rectus abdominis C. Levator scapula D. Gluteus maximum and gastrocnemius 74. What is the best way to turn a client? A. Hold edge of sheet and have client turn towards therapist B. Client gets off table feet first C. Client holds sheet and therapist turns client D. Seated 75. Where on the SOAP chart are the massage treatment applications including techniques, duration, and location recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan
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76. Which is within the scope of practice of a massage therapist? A. Diagnosis B. Intentional joint manipulation C. Skeletal realignment D. Soft tissue manipulation 77. What is the most appropriate action if a client comes in with enlarged lymph nodes? A. Massage around the enlarged lymph nodes B. Manual lymphatic drainage C. Diagnose the condition as lymphatic edema D. Refer the client to a primary care provider immediately 78. When assessing the function of the shoulder, where is resistance applied? A. Distal end of the humerus B. At the wrist C. On the scapula D. The end of the radius 79. What happens in the forward head position? A. Short and strong neck extensors B. Short anterior vertebral neck flexors C. Strong anterior vertebral neck flexors D. All of the above 80. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, which muscles are strong and may or may not develop shortness? A. Erector spinae B. Neck flexors C. External obliques D. Low back
81. Which muscles are short and strong with sway-back posture? A. Upper fibers of the internal obliques B. One-joint hip flexors C. Neck flexors D. All of the above 82. Which are short and strong with the right hip joint adducted and medially rotated, left hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Left lateral trunk muscles, right hip abductors and left hip adductors B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior C. Right flexor hallucis longus and right flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 83. What is a characteristic of good alignment of the feet and knees? A. The patella face forward B. The feet are pronated C. The feet are supinated D. Knock-kneed position 84. What happens when the armrests of a chair are too low? A. The hips are flexed B. The shoulders will be pushed upward C. The arms will not have proper support D. Neck and back strain
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85. How does a therapist test the right arm extensors? A. Client holds left arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds left arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure D. None of the above 86. What is the next step of the client consultation after the initial greeting and determining the client's needs? A. Explain procedures and state policies B. Perform massage C. Formulate treatment plan D. SOAP chart 87. What causes pain during palpation of the calcaneus? A. Plantar fasciitis B. Whiplash C. Torticollis D. Migraine 88. What is the frozen phase of frozen shoulder? A. Acute B. Subacute C. Third stage D. Chronic 89. What involves nerve compression in the area of the scalenes and pec minor? A. Torticollis B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Frozen shoulder D. Whiplash
90. What is swayback posture? A. Scoliosis B. C-curve C. Hyperlordosis D. Hyperkyphosis 91. With what soft tissue method are Boris Chaitow and Stanley Leif associated? A. Neuromuscular therapy B. Ayurveda C. Reflexology D. Deep transverse friction 92. In polarity therapy, what are points along an energy current that connect with other points along that current? A. Ether, air, fire, water, and earth B. Reflexes C. Chakras D. Doshas 93. Who developed the Trager method? A. Dr. Milton Trager B. Dr. Ida Rolf C. Dr. John Thie D. Dr. John Upledger 94. Which early massage system included Ayurveda and Tschanpua? A. Greek B. Swedish C. Chinese D. Indian 95. What is a life force or energy? A. Chi or Qi or Ki B. Marketing C. Acupressure D. Soft tissue manipulation
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96. Which uses doshas such as vata, pitta, and kapha? A. Tapotement B. Ayurveda C. Acupressure D. Acupuncture 97. What occurs when a therapist's expectations and behaviors are moved to the client? A. Client-centered B. Dual relationships C. Professionalism D. Countertransference 98. What is considered a protection process for the consumer? A. Informed consent B. Power differential C. DBA D. Dual role 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Exploiting the power differential B. Right of refusal C. Informed consent D. All of the above 100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Dating a client C. Working on a minor without parental consent D. All of the above 101. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Contract B. Rights as professionals C. Right of refusal D. All of the above
102. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Informed consent B. Consistency C. Spiritual advice D. All of the above 103. What is an example of a type of boundary? A. Health history form B. Intellectual C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 104. What is appropriate if a minor requests a massage without parental consent? A. Perform the massage if a cousin says it is OK B. Do not perform the massage C. Answers A and B are correct D. None of the above 105. Treating a client when the therapist is sick is what type of unethical behavior? A. Confidentiality violation B. Practicing beyond scope of practice C. Contraindication violation D. None of the above 106. When can what a client says or does be revealed to others without the client's consent? A. When required by law or a court order B. When required to protect the public C. Answers A and B are correct D. None of the above
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107. What should the therapist do if a client asks for herbs to replace prescription medication? A. Suggest an herb to replace the prescription medication B. Tell the client to consult with their primary care provider before stopping to take any prescription medication C. Suggest an alternative prescription medication D. Recommend that the client stop taking the medication first before trying herbs 108. Massaging an associate involves what type of issue? A. Dual relationship B. Consent C. Scope of practice D. None of the above 109. Guidance on which topic is typically not found in a code of ethics? A. Insurance B. Income and expense measurement C. Tax D. All of the above 110. What are the feelings of the client toward the therapist? A. Dual relationships B. Transference C. Confidentiality D. Countertransference
111. What is any action or verbalization of an inappropriate sexual nature towards a client? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Sexual misconduct 112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Continue education in ethics B. Treat all clients equally C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What might a client with hypothyroidism most likely need to be comfortable? A. Referral B. Warm room temperature C. Unrestricted access D. Massage mat 114. What is the most common width for massage table tops? A. 18 to 22 inches B. 27 to 30 inches C. 36 to 40 inches D. 72 to 76 inches 115. In what manner are used linens handled, according to the CDC? A. Single-use linens are recommended B. Put in a private room C. In a manner that prevents skin and mucous exposure D. Place in appropriate puncture-proof container
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116. The following are steps for proper handwashing, according to the CDC, except: A. Wet hands and apply liquid soap or clean bar soap B. Rub hands vigorously for at least one minute C. Rinse well and dry hands with disposable towel D. Use cloth towel to turn off faucet 117. What removes pathogens from implements and surfaces? A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 118. What is a client safety practice regarding sanitation? A. Use clean linens with each client B. Wash hands before and after each client C. Provide sanitary bathrooms D. All of the above 119. Which stance is best for petrissage? A. Asymmetric B. Seated C. Archer stance D. Horse stance 120. What is for the client's comfort, warmth, and modesty? A. Draping B. Body mechanics C. Protective gear D. Assessment
121. A deficiency of which vitamin would interfere with growth and reduce immunity? A. Vitamin A B. Lavender C. Camphor D. Vitamin D 122. What would primarily include numbers such as income and expenses? A. Business plan B. Resume C. Marketing material D. Financial records 123. What form is used for the net profit from a business? A. Schedule C of Form 1040 B. Form 1099 C. Form W-2 D. Form 2106 124. What involves mutually beneficial business relationships? A. Corporation B. Networking C. DBA D. Sole proprietorship 125. Costs for what could be deductible as a business expense? A. Business cards B. Linens C. Both A and B D. None of the above
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Exam 3 Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. D 22. A 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. A 39. B 40. A 41. D 42. B 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. D B D D A A D A D C B C D D B D C A D C A A D A B A A B A C C A B D D A A D A C A C 85. B 86. A 87. A 88. B 89. B 90. C 91. A 92. B 93. A 94. D 95. A 96. B 97. D 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. D 102. C 103. B 104. B 105. C 106. C 107. B 108. A 109. D 110. B 111. D 112. C 113. B 114. B 115. C 116. D 117. C 118. D 119. D 120. A 121. A 122. D 123. A 124. B 125. C
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Exam 4 1. What does physiology refer to? A. Soft tissue manipulation B. Functions of the body C. Disease D. Tissues 2. Which level in the organization of the body structure contains the basic structural and functional units of an organism? A. Cellular level B. System level C. Microscopic level D. Tissue level 3. What is the name for reproductive cell division in which the number of chromosomes is reduced by half? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Apoptosis D. Cytokinesis 4. Which are vesicles filled with digestive enzymes that form the Golgi complex? A. Lysosomes B. DNA C. Connective tissue D. Microvilli 5. Which type of serous membrane covers the heart? A. Pleura B. Pericardium C. Cutaneous D. Jejunum 6. What is an air cavity within a bone? A. Fissure B. Foramen C. Meatus D. Sinus 7. What structure receives stimulus directly from the receptor organ in the reflex arc? A. Sensory neuron B. Effector organ C. Efferent neuron D. Lymphocyte 8. Which is the main function of the endocrine system? A. Secretion of chemicals B. Defense against infection C. Circulation D. Gas exchange 9. Which system includes glands such as the parathyroid, pineal, adrenal, pancreas, and gonads? A. Endocrine B. Lymphatic C. Gastrointestinal D. Urinary 10. What taste goes with the spleen? A. Bitter B. Acid C. Sweet and sour D. Salty
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11. In what order of the colons does food pass through the large intestine, before reaching the sigmoid colon? A. Descending, transverse, jejunum B. Ascending, protracting, transverse C. Ascending, transverse, descending D. Descending, ascending, transverse 12. The sagittal suture is the articulation of which bones? A. Two parietal bones B. Frontal and parietal bones C. Patellar and ulnar bones D. Occipital and parietal bones 13. A deficiency of which vitamin would result in digestive disturbances, enlargement of the liver, and disturbance of the thyroid? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B complex C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 14. A. B. C. D. Which means exterior? External Internal Proximal Superficial
16. Which plane passes through the body at an angle between the transverse plane and either the sagittal or frontal plane? A. Cross-sectional plane B. Oblique plane C. Median plane D. Coronal plane 17. A. B. C. D. Where is the brachial region? Armpit Between elbow and shoulder Neck Shoulders
18. Which method involves the gallbladder meridian beginning at the head, ending at the toe, and being associated with the flow of ki? A. Bindegewebmassage B. Ayurveda C. Shiatsu D. All of the above 19. When the elbow extends, what is the triceps? A. Agonist B. Antagonist C. Origin D. Insertion 20. Where does the subclavius insert? A. Scapula B. Clavicle C. Humerus D. Radius 21. How many carpals does the hand have? A. 5 B. 8 C. 14 D. 15
15. Where is the stomach relative to the lungs? A. Superior B. Inferior C. Anterior D. Posterior
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22. Where is the peroneus tertius? A. Between the patella and the head of the fibula B. Anterior to the ribs C. Directly medial from olecranon process D. Posterior to the skull 23. What best describes the shape of rectus femoris? A. Isometric B. Convergent C. Unipennate D. Bipennate 24. What is a connective tissue structure that indirectly connects the bony components of a joint? A. Joint capsule B. Synovial joint C. Synovial fluid D. Suture 25. Which are critical for proper muscle contraction? A. Vitamins B and E B. Sodium and aloe C. Calcium and magnesium D. None of the above 26. Which muscle extends the vertebral column and head? A. Multifidi B. Rotatores C. Semispinalis D. Hamstrings 27. Which muscle originates at the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)? A. Extensor digitorum B. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Quadratus lumborum
28. Which muscle abducts, flexes, extends, medially and laterally rotates, and horizontally adducts and abducts the shoulder? A. Triceps brachii B. Deltoid C. Trapezius D. Biceps femoris 29. Which muscle assists in extending the thumb? A. Abductor pollicis longus B. Pronator teres C. Biceps brachii D. Flexor pollicis longus 30. What type of lever has the fulcrum in the middle? A. First class lever B. Second class lever C. Saddle D. Hinge 31. What describes a joint with excessive range of motion? A. Hypermobility B. Hypomobility C. Close-packed position D. Loose-packed position 32. What happens in an eccentric muscle contraction? A. The muscle relaxes B. The length of the muscle does not change C. The muscle lengthens D. The muscle shortens 33. What is the scientific field of study of all factors involved in causing a disease? A. Etiology B. Diagnosis C. Prognosis D. Homeostasis
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34. What are generally the most acceptable methods to strengthen the healing process? A. Denial B. Recreational drugs C. Therapeutic applications D. Marketing 35. What refers to the spreading or change in location of a disease? A. Benign B. Chronic C. Cancer D. Metastatic 36. What refers to the problems of a disease as described by a patient? A. Diagnosis B. Prognosis C. Referral D. Symptoms 37. Which is a contraindication for massage while in the acute stage? A. Bell's palsy B. Acne C. Erysipelas D. Bronchitis 38. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for warts? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. None of the above 39. What exercise is most beneficial for osteoporosis? A. Weight bearing B. Stretching C. Aerobic D. Endurance
40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking vasodilators? A. The medication may increase the effect of the massage B. Stop the massage if the heart rate slows to below 90 beats per minute C. Avoid energetic massage methods D. All of the above 41. What type of medication might be used to help someone stop smoking? A. Antibiotics B. Antidepressants C. Antihistamines D. Anti-inflammatory 42. What natural supplement improves physical stamina? A. NSAIDs B. Ma-huang C. Ginseng D. St. John's Wort 43. What fracture involves the broken ends of bone being jammed into each other? A. Greenstick fracture B. Impacted fracture C. Spiral fracture D. Stress fracture 44. A. B. C. D. 45. A. B. C. D. What is adhesive capsulitis? Tennis elbow Golfer's elbow Pitcher's elbow Frozen shoulder What is ringing in the ears? Torticollis Tinnitus Tendonitis Whiplash
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46. What is associated with flat back posture? A. Forward head B. Flexed or straight lumbar spine C. Posterior pelvic tilt D. All of the above 47. Which muscle does the greater occipital nerve pierce? A. Psoas B. Trapezius C. Supinator D. Teres minor 48. Which is close to the SCM, splenius capitis, trapezius, and scalenes? A. Femoral artery B. Carotid artery C. Kidneys D. Inguinal region 49. What is a mechanical effect of massage? A. Venous return B. Parasympathetic nervous system activation C. Release of endorphins D. All of the above 50. What is a reflex effect of massage? A. Venous return B. Lymph flow C. Increased mental clarity D. All of the above 51. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Soft end feel B. Increases heart rate and pulse rate C. Decreases red blood cell count D. Increases stroke volume
52. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Anemia B. Appendicitis C. Autoimmune diseases or acute inflammatory processes during flare-up D. All of the above 53. When should hydrotherapy be avoided? A. Infectious skin condition B. Diabetes C. Kidney infection D. All of the above 54. At what temperature can water cause tissue damage? A. Below 30 degrees Fahrenheit B. Over 124 degrees Fahrenheit C. Below 0 degrees Celsius or above 51 degrees Celsius D. All of the above 55. Which stroke is a variation of light effleurage? A. Deep fiber friction B. Superficial friction C. Tapotement D. Vibration 56. What is a PNF technique in which the muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are used to relax a hypertonic muscle? A. Direct manipulation (DM) B. Positional release (PR) C. Post-isometric contraction (PIR) D. Tapotement 57. A. B. C. D. Which is Swedish massage? Rolfing Petrissage Polarity therapy Reflexology
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58. What is a physical effect of massage? A. Decreases metabolism B. Slows healing C. Reduces tension and anxiety D. Improves functions of lymphatic system 59. What is a massage technique with a sedative effect? A. Gentle stroking B. Strong percussion for a short period C. Friction D. All of the above 60. What is holding pressure on a sensitive trigger point? A. Ischemic compression B. Slapping C. Shaking D. All of the above 61. What massage movement increases the permeability of the capillary beds? A. Light percussion B. Light stroking C. Light massage D. Friction 62. Which stroke is a rhythmic pressing movement? A. Vibration B. Compression C. Cross-fiber friction D. Percussion 63. A. B. C. D. Which is stoking? Effleurage Petrissage Cryotherapy Tapotement
64. What is the change in the quality of movement from the first sense of resistance? A. End feel B. Active joint movement C. Passive joint movement D. Tapping 65. What is shaking? A. Effleurage B. Vibration C. Slapping D. Tapping 66. Which stroke would restore pliability to connective tissue? A. Light effleurage B. Skin rolling C. Feather strokes D. Compression 67. What is contraindicated for massaging persons with cancer? A. Deep pressure B. Circulatory massage C. Fever D. All of the above 68. What is a partial immersion bath where the water is agitated? A. Whirlpool bath B. Full body steam bath C. Diathermy D. Cryotherapy 69. What is the "S" in the R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? A. Secure B. Stabilize C. Sensitivity D. Sufficiency
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70. In which muscles would a client who had recently ruptured an Achilles tendon most likely have spasms and pain? A. Gastrocnemius and soleus B. Tibialis anterior and deltoid C. Biceps brachii and pectineus D. Tensor fasciae latae and piriformis 71. If a client has hammer toes and a low metatarsal arch, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch the metatarsophalangeal joints B. Stretch the knee flexors C. Stretch the low back muscles D. Stretch the fascia lata 72. What is done if a client has decreased range of motion in horizontal abduction and lateral rotation of the shoulder? A. Lengthen upper fibers of pectoralis major B. Lengthen biceps brachii C. Lengthen serratus anterior D. Refer to emergency room immediately 73. What is done if a client has the hip in a flexed position and a knock-knee position? A. Lengthen pectoralis major B. Lengthen extensor digitorum longus C. Lengthen tensor fasciae latae D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris
74. What is a recommendation for activities between sessions? A. Ergonomics B. Referral C. Self help D. Treatment plan 75. What would you massage on an athlete who complains of pain in the patella after an event? A. Quadriceps B. Tibialis anterior C. Gluteus minimus D. Psoas major 76. Where on the SOAP chart is a list of prioritized health concerns or goals for the session recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 77. When the range of motion of a joint allows 0 to 90 degrees of flexion, what is anything less? A. Relaxed B. Hypomobile C. Hypermobile D. Tensed 78. What is the most appropriate action if a client's pulse is strong on one side of the body and weak on the other? A. Massage the side with the weak pulse B. Perform the regular massage C. Massage the side with the strong pulse D. Refer the client to a primary care provider
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79. When assessing extension of the hip, where is resistance applied? A. Distal end of the tibia B. At the ankle C. On the sacrum D. The end of the femur 80. What happens in the forward head position? A. Long neck extensors B. Weak neck extensors C. Long and weak anterior vertebral neck flexors D. All of the above 81. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, which muscles are most likely elongated and weak? A. Low back B. Upper back erector spinae C. Lateral rotators of hip D. Hip flexors 82. Which muscles are short and strong with sway-back posture? A. External obliques B. One-joint hip flexors C. Hamstrings D. All of the above 84. What is a characteristic of good alignment of the feet and knees? A. Medial rotation of the femurs B. The feet are not pronated C. The feet are supinated D. Knock-kneed position
83. Which are short and strong with the pelvis laterally tilted and high right, right hip adducted and medially rotated, and left hip abducted? A. Right lateral trunk muscles, right hip adductors and left hip abductors B. Left peroneus longus and brevis and right tibialis posterior C. Right flexor hallucis longus and right flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 85. How does a therapist test the right arm flexors? A. Client holds left arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure B. Client holds right arm position against. therapist's inferior/caudal pressure C. Client holds left arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure D. None of the above 86. Where on the SOAP chart would the therapist's suggestion for a return visit in two weeks be documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 87. What is inflammation of the common extensor tendon? A. Medial epicondylitis B. Golfer's elbow C. Trigger finger D. Tennis elbow
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88. Which is a treatment for frozen shoulder? A. Ice in the acute stage B. Deep moist heat in the subacute stage C. Deep moist heat in the chronic stage D. All of the above 89. What includes anterior scalene syndrome, pectoralis minor syndrome, and costoclavicular syndrome? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Frozen shoulder D. Whiplash 90. What involves a C-curve or Scurve of the spine? A. Scoliosis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Hyperlordosis D. Hyperkyphosis 91. What method did Eunice Ingram develop based on Asian roots? A. Neuromuscular therapy B. Manual lymph drainage C. Reflexology D. Shiatsu 92. What does polarity therapy attempts to locate and release? A. Tissues B. Lymph C. Energy D. Joints
93. Which is effective for flexibility during sports massage? A. Vibration B. Compression C. Active joint movements D. Gliding 94. What is based on about 360 points of energy? A. Chi or Qi or Ki B. Tao C. Acupressure D. Meridians or channels 95. Which traditional Japanese massage technique comes from a Chinese word for calming by rubbing? A. Ayurveda B. Amma C. Acupressure D. Tapotement 96. Which massage system uses Shiatsu? A. Greek B. Indian C. Chinese D. Japanese 97. What are rules and procedures for professional conduct and quality of care to be followed by members of a profession? A. Insurance B. Informed consent C. Scope of practice D. Standards of practice
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98. If a male client requests a female bodyworker, what type of issue is most likely present? A. Professional B. Cultural C. Gender D. Age 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Client-centered actions and words B. Dating a client C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above 100. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Practicing beyond the scope of practice B. Sexual misconduct C. Misrepresentation of educational status D. All of the above 101. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Right of refusal B. Scope of practice C. Client-centered actions and words D. None of the above 102. What occurs when a therapist for the first time suddenly gives a regular client a big hug after the session? A. Projection B. Boundary crossing C. Dual relationship D. Networking
103. Doing medical treatments without the proper training is what type of unethical behavior? A. Informed consent violation B. Confidentiality C. Practicing beyond the scope of practice D. None of the above 104. Guaranteeing that pain will be gone is what type of unethical behavior? A. Misleading claims of curative abilities B. Financial impropriety C. Exploiting the power differential D. None of the above 105. What if a therapist cannot assess a condition? A. Try to diagnose the condition B. Suggest the client discuss it with their primary care provider C. Prescribe medication D. None of the above 106. What is an issue if a therapist agrees to trade massages for artwork to be created in the future? A. Transference B. Countertransference C. Scope of practice D. Dual relationship 107. What are guidelines for morally acceptable and professional behavior? A. Dual relationships B. Advertising C. Networking D. Code of ethics
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108. Guidance on which topic is typically found in a code of ethics? A. Image/advertising claims B. Client relationships C. Appropriate techniques D. All of the above 109. What is making personal and professional contacts for sharing information? A. Dual relationships B. Advertising C. Networking D. None of the above 110. What helps the therapist have a dialogue with the client regarding goals, treatments, and outcomes? A. Dual relationships B. Communication skills C. Networking D. Code of ethics 111. What if a client says that a prior therapist who is a respected associate made sexual advances during the massage? A. Ignore the information B. Report the therapist to the massage board C. Contact the therapist to discuss the issue D. Tell the client that they are imagining things 112. What is sexual harassment? A. Demand for sexual favors in exchange for job benefits B. Hostile work environment including unwelcome acts or visual displays C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
113. What is the most common length for massage table tops? A. About 4 feet B. About 5 feet C. About 6 feet D. About 8 feet 114. Which is the proper storage procedure for laundry? A. Soiled sheets on the floor, clean sheets in a hamper B. Soiled sheets in a hamper, clean sheets on the floor C. Soiled sheets on the floor, clean sheets off the floor D. Soiled sheets in a hamper, clean sheets off the floor 115. What is recommended for handwashing, according to the CDC? A. Wash hands before gloves are removed B. Use plain non-antimicrobial soap C. Wash hands with bleach D. Dry with used linens 116. What is the most complete process of decontamination? A. Disinfection B. Sterilization C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 117. What is a safety practice regarding housekeeping and sanitation? A. Dry hands with cloth towels B. Disinfect tubs, steam cabinets, shower stalls and wet tables between each use C. Sterilize all entryways, floors and surfaces D. Commercially launder linens
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118. What is the order of the first aid emergency action steps? A. Call, check, care B. Care, check, call C. Check, call, care D. Alarm, resistance, exhaustion 119. Which stance has both feet in line with the massage table? A. Asymmetric B. Body mechanics C. Archer stance D. Horse stance 120. Which is true regarding draping? A. It is required under federal law B. It is required under the code of ethics C. You must not use draping if the client does not want it D. It is for the client's comfort and warmth 121. How many grams of protein are recommended for adults per day? A. About 3 to 4 grams B. About 4 to 6 grams C. About 16 to 28 grams D. About 45 to 63 grams 122. What are advantages of being an employee? A. Keep more of fee collected B. Flexible hours C. Stable income D. Variable compensation
123. What must be included in income reported to the IRS? A. Wages B. Barter income C. Tips D. All of the above 124. Where are wages recorded? A. Form 1099-MISC B. Form 5498 C. Form W-2 D. Schedule K-1 125. What is a business with a single owner who is also the only employee? A. S-Corporation B. LLC C. Partnership D. Sole proprietorship
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Exam 4 Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. C 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. A 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. D 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B D B D B B A C D A D D B A B D A A D B A A B B D A B A A A C C A A B D D C B C B D 85. B 86. D 87. D 88. D 89. B 90. A 91. C 92. C 93. C 94. C 95. B 96. D 97. D 98. C 99. B 100. D 101. D 102. B 103. C 104. A 105. B 106. D 107. D 108. D 109. C 110. B 111. C 112. C 113. C 114. D 115. B 116. B 117. B 118. C 119. D 120. D 121. D 122. C 123. D 124. C 125. D
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Exam 5 1. Which literally means to cut up and was first studied by dissection? A. Reflexology B. Pathophysiology C. Anatomy D. Ortho-bionomy 2. Which level in the organization of the body structure has groups of cells working together to perform a particular function? A. Environmental level B. System level C. Organ level D. Tissue level 3. What is a decrease in the size of cells? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Atrophy D. Hypertrophy 4. What is the forcing of fluid across a semipermeable membrane? A. Mitochondria B. Diffusion C. Filtration D. Conductivity 5. What type of membrane lines joints and contains connective tissue but no epithelium? A. Mucous B. Serous C. Cutaneous D. Synovial 6. What type of cartilage is semitransparent, flexible and insensitive, such as the cartilage in the nose? A. Hyaline cartilage B. White fibrocartilage C. Elastic cartilage D. Isotonic 7. What type of muscle tissue is attached to bones by tendons? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Reticular D. Smooth 8. Which component of the peripheral nervous system controls skeletal muscle contractions? A. Autonomic B. Cervical C. Somatic D. Parasympathetic 9. Which system alters the activity of muscle and alters the activity of the immune system? A. Gastrointestinal B. Urinary C. Endocrine D. Respiratory 10. What does the right side of the heart do? A. Pumps oxygenated blood to all tissues except the lungs B. Pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs C. Pumps deoxygenated blood to all tissues except lungs D. Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs
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11. Which system initiates gas exchange? A. Gastrointestinal B. Respiratory C. Circulatory D. Urinary 12. The coronal suture is the articulation of which bones? A. Two parietal bones B. Frontal and parietal bones C. Patellar and ulnar bones D. Occipital and parietal bones 13. What adds bulk to food and helps with bowel movements? A. Plant proteins B. Fat C. Insoluble carbohydrates D. Animal proteins 14. Which means on or toward the surface? A. Deep B. Internal C. Proximal D. Superficial 15. Where is the esophagus relative to the trachea? A. Medial B. Lateral C. Anterior D. Posterior 16. What are structures close to the sagittal plane? A. Medial B. Distal C. Lateral D. Deep
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the lumbar region? Top of head Shoulder blade Lower back Buttocks
18. Which method describes the liver as a yin meridian? A. Ayurveda B. Acupressure C. Polarity theory D. All of the above 19. Which actions occur in the frontal plane? A. Flexion and extension B. Adduction and abduction C. Rotation and circumduction D. Supination and pronation 20. Which of these muscles inserts on the proximal medial shaft of the tibia at the pes anserinus tendon? A. Pronator teres B. Psoas major C. Supraspinatus D. Gracilis 21. Where does tibialis posterior insert? A. Ulna B. Phalanges C. Metacarpal D. Tarsals and metatarsals 22. What is the attachment site for gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and the deep rotator muscles? A. Iliac tubercle B. Greater trochanter of femur C. Lamina groove of cervicals D. Greater tubercle of the humerus
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23. What muscle originates at the external occipital protuberance, the nuchal line, and C-7 through T-12? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Trapezius C. Serratus anterior D. Plantaris 24. Which connects bones together, has uneven collagen fibers, and will remain taut? A. Tendons B. Joints C. Ligaments D. Bursae 25. What type of joint is between the axis and atlas? A. Pivot B. Saddle C. Ball and socket D. Gliding 26. Which extends, rotates and laterally flexes the head and neck and elevates, depresses, adducts and upwardly rotates the scapula? A. Triceps brachii B. Soleus C. Trapezius D. Biceps brachii 27. Which muscle originates on the ischial tuberosity and the lateral lip of the linea aspera? A. Psoas major B. Biceps femoris C. Latissimus dorsi D. Trapezius
28. Which muscles are synergists for adduction of the wrist? A. Pronator teres, brachialis B. Flexor carpi radialis, extensor digitorum C. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus D. Extensor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi ulnaris 29. Which muscle rotates the vertebral column? A. Multifidi B. Soleus C. Spinalis D. Trapezius 30. What type of contraction occurs when one tries to lift a weight that does not move? A. Concentric B. Isotonic C. Eccentric D. Isometric 31. Postural muscles have a higher percentage of what kind of fibers? A. Slow-twitch red fibers B. Retinaculum C. Fusiform D. Fast-twitch red fibers 32. What kind of joint is described by amphiarthrosis? A. Freely moveable B. Slightly moveable C. Immoveable D. Suture
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33. What is chronic pain? A. Referred pain B. A short lived and localized unpleasant feeling C. An unpleasant sensation from an internal organ D. An unpleasant feeling that lasts over 6 months 34. What is the reproduction of abnormal cells that fail to mature into specialized cell types? A. Homeostasis B. Syndrome C. Anaplasia D. Malignant 35. What refers to a disease of long duration? A. Benign B. Chronic C. Acute D. Metastatic 36. What refers to the evidence of a disease as observed by a health professional? A. Informed consent B. Contraindication C. Signs D. Dysfunction 37. Which is generally indicated for massage at all stages? A. Bell's palsy B. Lice C. Erysipelas D. Bronchitis
38. Which rhythms repeat themselves every few hours, which are on a 24-hour clock, and which are annual, in that order? A. Alarm, resistance, exhaustion B. Proliferation, ossification, remodeling C. Ultradian, seasonal, and biological rhythms D. Ultradian, circadian, and seasonal rhythms 39. What is the last stage of osteoarthritis? A. Bony adaptation B. Cartilage damage C. Bony adaptation D. Atrophy 40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking antianginals? A. The medication may increase the effect of the massage B. Prescribe alternative medications C. Stop the massage if the heart rate increases above 50 beats per minute D. Avoid Swedish massage methods 41. What type of prescription medication might be used to reduce swelling and pain? A. Saw palmetto B. Antidepressants C. Antihistamines D. Anti-inflammatory
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42. What natural supplement is used for mild depression? A. Peppermint B. Antihistamine C. Ginseng D. St. John's Wort 43. What is tennis elbow, caused by repetitive extension of the wrist or pronation and supination of the forearm? A. Bursitis B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Medial epicondylitis D. Adhesive capsulitis 44. A. B. C. D. 45. A. B. C. D. What is athlete's foot? Whiplash Tinnitus A fungus Pandemic What is a tear to a ligament? Sprain Strain Tinnitus Tinea cruris
48. What is in danger of being compressed in the lateral epicondyle of the humerus endangerment site? A. Ulnar nerve B. Radial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Hara 49. What is a mechanical effect of massage? A. Lymph flow B. Activation of parasympathetic nervous system C. Pain reduction D. All of the above 50. Which is an effect of massage that can be processed through the autonomic nervous system? A. Body/mind effect B. Toughening/hardening C. Placebo effect D. All of the above 51. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Fibromyalgia B. Headaches C. High blood pressure D. All of the above 52. What is a broad category of hydrotherapy application that involves partial or complete immersion in water? A. Bath B. Pack C. Compress D. Fomentations
46. What is associated with flat back posture? A. Hips and knees in neutral position B. Flexed or straight lumbar spine C. Anterior pelvic tilt D. All of the above 47. Which area is associated with the femoral nerve? A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus B. Medial epicondyle of the humerus C. Inguinal triangle D. Occipital region
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53. What is considered neutral water temperature? A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0 degrees Celsius B. 50 to 55 degrees Fahrenheit or 40 to 45 degrees Celsius C. 92 to 93 degrees Fahrenheit or 32 to 33 degrees Celsius D. 212 degrees Fahrenheit or 100 degrees Celsius 54. Why are cold applications not used for prolonged periods? A. Inflammation B. Slight analgesia C. Depressing effects D. Deterioration of lung disease 55. How long must pressure on a trigger point typically be maintained until the tissue releases? A. 5 to 10 seconds B. 30 to 45 seconds C. 1 to 2 minutes D. 3 to 4 minutes 56. Which stroke involves temporarily stopping blood flow to an area, then releasing to allow greater blood flow? A. Compression B. Friction C. Effleurage D. Petrissage 57. Which addresses adhesions in tendinous tissue? A. Kneading B. Gliding C. Friction D. Cupping
58. What is not a physical effect of massage? A. Reduces muscle cramps and spasms B. Increases circulation of blood and lymph C. Increases removal of metabolic waste D. Reduces stress 59. What is an effect of massage on the muscular system? A. Easier, pain-free movement B. Improved posture C. More flexibility D. All of the above 60. What maintains homeostasis? A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Both A and B D. Spinal nervous system 61. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Stress B. Pain C. Joint immobility D. All of the above 62. Which is a percussion movement? A. Deep effleurage B. Kneading C. Tapping D. Cross fiber friction 63. Which stroke uses a back and forth movement of both hands? A. Gliding B. Compression C. Wringing D. Percussion
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64. A. B. C. D.
What is lifting and grasping? Tapping Light stroking Kneading Pressing
65. Which stroke is not a type of friction? A. Transverse B. Cross fiber C. Pummeling D. Circular 66. What is contraction without joint movement? A. Isometric contraction B. Isotonic contraction C. Isokinetic contraction D. Reciprocal inhibition 67. How is the pressure during effleurage? A. Variable B. Even C. From light to deep D. From deep to light 68. Which is appropriate for pregnancy massage? A. Light effleurage B. Supine position C. Side-lying position D. All of the above 69. What is a method of applying ice massage? A. Ice in a paper or Styrofoam cup B. Ice pack C. Ice in a plastic bag D. All of the above
70. What is done if a client has the knee flexed along with posterior tilting of the pelvis and a flattening of the lumbar spine? A. Lengthen soleus B. Lengthen hamstrings C. Lengthen pronator teres D. Refer to a primary care provider immediately 71. If a client has a medially rotated femur, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch the sternocleidomastoid B. Stretch the knee flexors C. Stretch the hip medial rotators D. Stop the massage, a medially rotated femur is contraindicated 72. What is done if a client has a flexion deformity of the distal phalanges of the lateral four toes? A. Lengthen deltoid B. Lengthen extensor hallucis longus C. Lengthen flexor digitorum longus D. Lengthen temporalis 73. Which muscle is weak if a client has pain in the low back, buttocks, sacroiliac joint, lateral knee, and anterior knee? A. Gluteus medius B. Quadratus lumborum C. Platysma D. Upper trapezius
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74. What would be a good position for massaging the biceps femoris? A. Supine B. Prone C. Side-lying D. Seated 75. Where on the SOAP chart are the therapist's visual observations documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 76. What is the end-to-end distance of a specific joint movement that is structurally possible? A. Active range of motion B. Compensation pattern C. Passive range of motion D. Range of motion 77. Massaging what type of muscles could add to muscle imbalance? A. Tight but long functioning muscle areas B. Shortened tight muscles C. Shortened weak muscles D. Trigger points 78. When assessing flexion of the knee, where is resistance applied? A. Distal end of the tibia B. At the ankle C. On the sacrum D. The end of the femur
79. What would most likely allow the pelvis to tilt forward? A. Tight hamstrings B. Weak low back muscles C. Weak abdominal muscles D. Flexed knees 80. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, which muscles are slightly elongated but may or may not be weak? A. Hip flexors B. Medial rotators of hip C. Neck extensors D. Hamstrings 81. Which muscles are elongated and weak with sway-back posture? A. External obliques and upper back extensors B. One-joint hip flexors C. Neck flexors D. All of the above 82. Which are long and weak with the pelvis laterally tilted and high right, right hip adducted and medially rotated, and left hip abducted? A. Left lateral trunk muscles, right hip abductors and left hip adductors B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior C. Left flexor hallucis longus and left flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above
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83. Which is an area where the body is balanced in gravity? A. Axis B. Atlas C. Feet D. Hands 84. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in right handed individuals? A. Splenius capitis B. Left soleus C. Right hip lateral rotators D. Frontalis 85. What is good alignment of the feet and knees? A. Medial rotation of the femurs B. The feet are pronated C. The feet are not supinated D. Knock-kneed position 86. What is generally the first step when a client arrives for an initial massage session? A. Perform massage B. Update SOAP chart and client records C. Get referrals D. Intake and medical history forms 87. What may be caused by occupations such as plumbing and meat cutting? A. Rotator cuff tendinitis B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Medial epicondylitis D. Golfer's elbow 88. What is the thawing phase of frozen shoulder? A. Second stage B. Chronic C. Acute D. Subacute
89. What is treated by decreasing the compression on the median nerve? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Frozen shoulder D. Whiplash 90. What involves a posterior pelvic tilt and hip extension? A. Hyperlordosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Flat-back posture 91. What approach did Paul St. John use when developing his nervous or reflexive method? A. Trigger points B. Myofascial approach C. Neuromuscular approach D. Shiatsu 92. Which has a primary goal of releasing energy? A. Post isometric relaxation B. Trigger point therapy C. Myofascial release D. Polarity therapy 93. Who called a system of movements medical gymnastics? A. Per Henrik Ling B. Dr. John Georg Mezger C. Dr. George H. Taylor D. Elizabeth Dicke 94. Who developed craniosacral therapy? A. Dr. Milton Trager B. Dr. Ida Rolf C. Dr. John Thie D. Dr. John Upledger
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95. What code of ethics for physicians is from the Greeks? A. Shiatsu B. Ayurveda C. Tschanpua D. Hippocratic Oath 96. What describes reactive points? A. Conception Vessel B. Ayurveda C. Tsubos D. Antagonist 97. What are commonly accepted guidelines or principles of conduct that govern professional conduct? A. Code of ethics B. Informed consent C. Scope of practice D. Power differential 98. Which section of a standards of practice would contain guidance on peer review and the scope of practice? A. Professionalism B. Accounting C. Dual roles D. Prevention of sexual misconduct 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Confidentiality C. Ignoring contraindications D. All of the above 100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Misleading claims C. Bigotry D. Inappropriate advertising
101. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Medical advice B. Social needs C. Personal needs D. None of the above 102. What are types of boundaries? A. Interpersonal B. Physical and emotional C. Sexual and intellectual D. All of the above 103. Watching a client undress is what type of unethical behavior? A. Accessibility violation B. Sexual misconduct C. Practicing beyond the scope of practice D. None of the above 104. Refusing to work on a client due to race, religion, size, or sexual orientation is what type of unethical behavior? A. Misleading claims of curative abilities B. Accessibility violation C. Bigotry D. None of the above 105. What is appropriate for a therapist to do when seeing a client in the grocery store? A. Ask how the last massage was B. Do not bring up anything about the massage C. Ask when the therapist can expect payment D. None of the above
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106. What is respect for the client's privacy? A. Dual relationships B. Communication skills C. Confidentiality D. Code of ethics 107. What is an issue if a client has a condition that the therapist cannot access? A. Transference B. Countertransference C. Scope of practice D. Dual relationship 108. What describes the situation when a therapist is also the client's friend, relative, or associate? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Discrimination 109. Who would put restrictions on business operated from a home? A. Local governments B. Professional massage associations C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 110. What is the appropriate action if a new client asks the therapist if the therapist is married? A. Do not give out personal information B. Provide as much information as the client requests C. Answer and ask the client if they are married D. None of the above
111. What is unethical behavior from therapists in a professional relationship? A. Sexual talk B. Sexual relations C. Sexual acts and activities D. All of the above 112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Watch the client get undressed B. Ask the client for a date during the massage C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is appropriate for the massage environment? A. Strong scents and flowering plants B. Indirect or natural light C. Loud fast music D. Two therapists in an 8' x 8' room 114. What is recommended for handwashing, according to the CDC? A. Wash hands after gloves are removed B. Use scented antimicrobial soap C. Wash in a manner that prevents skin and mucous exposure D. Use the one-handed scoop technique 115. What destroys bacterial spores? A. Disinfection B. Sterilization C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
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116. What is designed to protect from exposure to blood or bodily fluids? A. Universal precautions B. Strategic planning C. Contraindication D. Scope of practice 117. Which are not appropriate for draping? A. Sheets B. Towels C. Pillowcases D. Light, see-through colors 118. What fat-soluble vitamin is a strong anti-oxidant and immune supporter? A. St. John's Wort B. Ma-huang C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E 119. What are advantages of working as an employee? A. Control B. Flexibility C. Can focus on massage D. Maximize income 120. What is like working as an employee while being selfemployed? A. Independent contractor B. DBA C. LLC D. S-Corporation 121. What is generally the best form of advertising for a massage therapist? A. Phone books B. Magazines C. Radio D. Word of mouth
122. What is a barter exchange? A. An arrangement that provides an informal exchange of similar services on a noncommercial basis B. An independent contractor C. An organization with members who trade services D. A corporation 123. What is a statement of purpose? A. Mission statement B. Business card C. Brochure D. Media 124. Which protects against a lawsuit? A. Liability insurance B. Life insurance C. Health insurance D. Flood insurance 125. What is maintaining the office and keeping a budget an example of? A. Licensing B. Tax C. Marketing D. Management
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Exam 5 Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. D 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. D 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B C A B C B A D D A C C B A C D D C D C C C C A B D D B C C A B B D A A C D D D B C 85. C 86. D 87. B 88. B 89. A 90. D 91. C 92. D 93. A 94. D 95. D 96. C 97. A 98. A 99. C 100. A 101. D 102. D 103. B 104. C 105. B 106. C 107. C 108. A 109. A 110. A 111. D 112. D 113. B 114. A 115. B 116. A 117. D 118. D 119. C 120. A 121. D 122. C 123. A 124. A 125. D
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Exam 6 1. What does anatomy refer to? A. Structures of the body B. Soft tissue manipulation C. Disease D. Tissues 2. Which level in the organization of the body structure has different types of tissues joined together? A. Atomic level B. System level C. Organ level D. Cellular level 3. What is adenosine triphosphate or ATP? A. A substance used to identify crime victims B. Oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen C. A double helix D. Energy currency 4. What type of tissue protects and supports the body and holds organs together? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Cardiac D. Patellar 5. What is a general term for sweat glands? A. Sudoriferous glands B. Dermis C. Apocrine glands D. Ulcers 6. What classification of bones includes the larger bones with a shaft and medullary cavity such as the arm bones? A. Sesamoid B. Sutural C. Long D. Short 7. Which is part of the nervous system? A. Skull B. Spinal cord C. Joints D. Sacrum 8. Which is a function of the autonomic nervous system under parasympathetic control? A. Increased heartbeat B. Constricted blood vessels C. Decreased peristalsis D. Increased secretion of digestive juices 9. Which is the main function of the cardiovascular system? A. Secretion of chemicals B. Defense against infection C. Circulation D. Gas exchange 10. Which system is most closely associated with the immune system? A. Lymphatic B. Endocrine C. Respiratory D. Circulatory
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11. Which system helps with the sense of smell? A. Lymphatic B. Gastrointestinal C. Urinary D. Respiratory 12. Which is a simple sugar that is the end-product of carbohydrate digestion? A. Amino acid B. Glucose C. Triglyceride D. Enzyme 13. The Lambdoidal suture is the articulation of which bones? A. Three parietal bones B. Sacral and lumbar bones C. Parietal and temporal bones D. Occipital and parietal bones 14. Which means situated away from the trunk or midline? A. External B. Internal C. Proximal D. Distal 15. Where is the sternum relative to the head? A. Medial B. Lateral C. Anterior D. Posterior 16. Which region of the trunk has five vertebrae fused into one? A. Sacral B. Cervical C. Lumbar D. Thoracic
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the gluteal region? Top of head Shoulder blade Lower back Buttocks
18. Which method describes the small intestine as a yang meridian? A. Swedish gymnastics B. Movement cure C. Acupressure D. All of the above 19. Which of these muscles inserts on the head of the fibula? A. Triceps brachii B. Psoas major C. Frontalis D. Biceps femoris 20. Where does extensor hallucis longus insert? A. Phalanx B. Femur C. Clavicle D. Tarsals and metatarsals 21. What is the boundary of the origins of the tensor fasciae latae and gluteus medius? A. Iliac tubercle B. Greater trochanter of femur C. Olecranon process D. Greater tubercle of the humerus 22. What originates at the vertebrae, the ribs, and iliac crest and inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Gastrocnemius C. Soleus D. Pectoralis major
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23. Which attaches muscle to bone, has parallel collagen fibers, and can be taut or slack? A. Tendons B. Joints C. Ligaments D. Aponeurosis 24. What type of joint is between the carpals? A. Pivot B. Saddle C. Ball and socket D. Gliding 25. Which inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus? A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres minor D. All of the above 26. Which muscle flexes the elbow and assists to pronate and supinate the forearm? A. Triceps brachii B. Deltoid C. Brachioradialis D. Biceps femoris 27. What movement occurs at the distal radius? A. Depression B. Extension C. Radial deviation D. Ulnar deviation 28. Which muscle inserts on the transverse process of the atlas? A. Rectus capitis posterior minor B. Pectoralis major C. External oblique D. Oblique capitis inferior
29. What is the general type of contraction in which the length of the muscle changes? A. Reciprocal inhibition B. Isotonic C. Elasticity D. Isometric 30. Which muscle would predominantly have slow twitch fibers? A. Erector spinae B. Pronator teres C. Deltoid D. Biceps brachii 31. What describes the positioning in which a joint is free to move without causing motion at another joint? A. Closed kinematic chains B. Open kinematic chains C. Close-packed position D. Loose-packed position 32. Which muscle horizontally abducts the shoulder? A. Supinator B. Vastus intermedius C. Infraspinatus D. Levator scapula 33. What is somatic pain? A. Persistent chronic pain B. A short lived and localized unpleasant feeling C. Homeostasis D. Atrophy 34. What is uncontrolled cell division? A. Hyperplasia B. Inflammation C. Anaplasia D. Malignant
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35. A. B. C. D.
What is malignant neoplasia? Trauma Inflammation Carbuncle Cancer
36. Which is more likely to be a mode of HIV transmission? A. Handshake B. Toilet seat C. Breast milk D. Cough 37. Which is a systematic contraindication for massage? A. Bell's palsy B. Acne C. Erysipelas D. Bronchitis 38. Which rhythms repeat themselves every few hours? A. Acute B. Biological rhythms C. Ultradian rhythms D. Inflammation 39. What is a progressive skin condition that destroys motor neurons in the spinal cord? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Lou Gehrig's disease C. Plantar fasciitis D. HIV 40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking beta blockers? A. The client may be susceptible to cold B. The medication may result in dizziness after the massage C. Massage may help with constipation D. All of the above
41. What type of medication might be used to treat a bacterial infection? A. Antibiotics B. Antidepressants C. Lavender D. Anti-inflammatory 42. What is used for skin inflammation? A. Scabicide B. Brewer's yeast C. Antihistamine D. Chamomile 43. A. B. C. D. What is frozen shoulder? Bursitis Lateral epicondylitis Medial epicondylitis Adhesive capsulitis
44. What is a disease that affects the entire world? A. Isolated B. Sudden onset C. Acute D. Pandemic 45. A. B. C. D. What is a sprain? Injury to muscle Tear to ligament Fungus Tinea cruris
46. What position of the pelvis is associated with lordosis? A. Anterior tilt B. Neutral position C. Posterior tilt D. Lateral tilt
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47. Which muscles is the radial nerve associated with? A. Psoas and quadratus lumborum B. Trapezius and scalene C. Supinator and triceps D. Teres major, temporalis, and triceps 48. What is an endangerment site? A. An exaggerated lumbar curve B. A keloid C. An area where nerves and blood vessels could be compressed D. Pressure points 49. What is a mechanical effect of massage? A. Therapeutic touch B. Breaking adhesions C. Pain reduction D. All of the above 50. Which is an effect of massage that can be processed through the somatic nervous system? A. Sympathetic activation and stress B. Parasympathetic patterns and conservation withdrawal C. Reduction of impingement D. All of the above 51. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Reduces ischemia B. Decreases white blood cell count C. Ballistic stretching D. Decreases stroke volume
52. Which group can benefit from massage? A. Individuals with HIV B. Hospitalized and hospice patients C. Infants D. All of the above 53. What is the hydrotherapy application that combines heat and cold? A. Contrast method B. Cryotherapy C. Thermotherapy D. Ice massage 54. Which is not Swedish massage? A. Tapotement B. Friction C. Vibration D. All of the above are Swedish massage 55. Which is an effect of effleurage? A. Stimulate sympathetic nervous system B. Decrease adhesions C. Repair scar tissue D. Improve health of ischemic tissues 56. Which is effective for reducing adhesions during sports massage? A. Vibration B. Effleurage C. Active joint movements D. Cross fiber friction 57. A. B. C. D. Which is a form of vibration? Wringing Skin rolling Jostling Percussion
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58. What is a psychological effect of massage? A. Relieves fatigue B. Reduces tension and anxiety C. Calms the nervous system D. All of the above 59. What is a massage technique that tends to anesthetize the local nerves? A. Rolling B. Strong percussion for a short period C. Prolonged percussion D. All of the above 60. What is initiated by stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Adrenal secretions increased B. Sweat glands activated C. Body is more alert and attentive D. Relaxation/restoration response 61. What elevates the mood when increased? A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Endorphins and enkephalins D. All of the above 62. A. B. C. D. Which is a type of vibration? Jostling Compression Kneading Percussion
64. A. B. C. D.
What breaks up adhesions? Effleurage Friction Slapping Tapotement
65. Which is appropriate for massage for the critically ill? A. Abbreviated length of session B. Extended length of session C. Methods that stimulate circulation D. Methods that stir up wastes 66. What is contraindicated for massaging persons with cancer? A. Deep pressure B. Site of incision first 4 weeks after surgery C. Massage on lower limbs postsurgery D. All of the above 67. What is the initial feeling from applying ice? A. Uncomfortable cold B. Total numbness C. Increased local circulation D. Vasodilation 68. Which is a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique? A. Reciprocal Inhibition B. Petrissage C. Reiki D. Effleurage 69. Which stroke is not a type of percussion? A. Beating B. Cross fiber C. Pummeling D. Tapping
63. Which stroke is not effleurage? A. Superficial gliding B. Deep gliding C. Percussion D. Aura stroking
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70. If a client has lordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen sartorius and adductors B. Lengthen psoas major and multifidi C. Lengthen external obliques and semitendinosus D. Refer to a primary care provider immediately 71. If a client has left torticollis, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen erector spinae and transversospinalis B. Lengthen left biceps brachii and triceps C. Lengthen left splenius capitis and right upper trapezius D. Lengthen right splenius capitis and left upper trapezius 72. What is done if a client has an abduction deformity that may be seen as a lateral pelvic tilt? A. Lengthen gluteus medius B. Lengthen hamstrings C. Lengthen rectus abdominis D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris 73. Where would a trigger point on orbicularis oculi refer pain? A. Above eyelid, sinuses B. Down the lateral side of the arm C. Hip and down lateral side of leg D. Posterior axillary area, scapula, and ulnar side of arm
74. What is a recommendation to see a specific professional? A. Ergonomics B. Referral C. Self help D. Treatment plan 75. Where on the SOAP chart is written information that clients share regarding health history documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 76. What is the joint movement that requires the client to use their own energy? A. Active range of motion B. Compensation pattern C. Passive range of motion D. Range of motion 77. What is the muscle being treated in a therapeutic technique? A. Tender point B. Trigger point C. Target muscle D. Muscle guarding 78. If a client says an area is stiff, what type of issue is it usually? A. Muscle tone issue B. Connective tissue or fluid retention issue C. Joint issue D. Chakra issue
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79. What is happening when the pelvis maintains its ideal alignment? A. The abdominal muscles pull upward B. The back muscles pull downward C. The SCM pulls upward D. The arm flexors pull upward 80. If a client has lordotic posture, which muscles are most likely elongated and weak? A. Anterior abdominals B. Lateral rotators of hip C. Low back D. Frontalis and SCM 81. If a client complains of difficulty with stair climbing and walking up an incline, what muscle is most likely weak? A. Quadriceps femoris B. Soleus C. Trapezius D. Semitendinosus 82. Which are long and weak with the right hip adducted and medially rotated, left hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Left lateral trunk muscles, right hip abductors and left hip adductors B. Left deltoid and right pronator teres C. Right flexor hallucis longus and right flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above
83. What is the effect on the feet from walking with lateral rotation of the legs? A. Medial rotation of the ulna B. The feet are pronated C. The feet are supinated D. Strain on longitudinal arches 84. Which muscles usually work against gravity? A. Internal rotators B. External rotators C. Extensors and abductors D. Flexors and adductors 85. How does a therapist test the left leg extensors? A. Client holds left leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds left arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure D. Client holds right leg position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure 86. What is generally the next step in a massage session after the consultation? A. Perform massage B. Update SOAP chart and client records C. Get referrals D. Medical history forms 87. What is a synovial cyst that usually appears on the lateral side of the popliteal space? A. Bunion B. Baker's cyst C. Tendonitis D. Trigger finger
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88. Which is a treatment for frozen shoulder? A. Ice in the acute stage B. Treat compensating structures C. Mobilize hypomobile joints D. All of the above 89. What is treated by applying techniques to pronator teres? A. Frozen shoulder B. Whiplash C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Thoracic outlet syndrome 90. What is a characteristic of flat-back posture? A. Tight abdominals B. Tight hamstrings C. Posterior pelvic tilt D. All of the above 91. With what approach is Janet Travel associated? A. Trigger points B. Myofascial approach C. Neuromuscular approach D. Structural integration 92. Which method associates the stomach with a point on the medial side of the foot in between the waist line and diaphragm line? A. Swedish B. Trigger point therapy C. Bindegewebmassage D. Reflexology 93. A. B. C. D. Who developed Rolfing? Dr. Milton Trager Dr. Ida Rolf Dr. John Thie Dr. John Upledger
94. Who developed manual lymph drainage? A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr. Estrid Vodder B. James Cyriax C. Elizabeth Dicke D. Joseph Heller 95. What is the art of rubbing a body part upward? A. Anatripsis B. Ayurveda C. Tschanpua D. Hippocratic Oath 96. What are earth, metal, water, wood, and fire? A. Chakras B. The Five Elements C. Doshas D. Trigger points 97. What occurs when personal and professional roles overlap? A. Client-centered B. Dual relationships C. Balance D. Countertransference 98. If a client reenacts abuse while on the massage table by crying and shaking, what is an appropriate action by the therapist? A. Encourage the response B. Stop the response C. Terminate the massage D. Be calm and accepting 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Violations of confidentiality C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above
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100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent violations B. Dating a client C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above 101. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Other business deals B. Contract C. Right of refusal D. All of the above 102. What might be appropriate for a client who does not want to fill out a health intake form? A. Take the information verbally B. Suggest filling out a shorter version of the form C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. Doing spinal adjustments without the proper training is what type of behavior? A. Unethical B. Practicing beyond the scope of practice C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 104. Presenting misleading qualifications in a brochure is what type of unethical behavior? A. Sexual misconduct B. Accessibility violation C. Inappropriate advertising D. None of the above
105. What is appropriate when a client says they are going to stop their medical treatment now? A. Suggest the client discuss it with their primary care provider B. Tell the client it is OK to stop the medical treatment C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 106. What is an issue if a therapist hires a client to do renovations then is disappointed in the work? A. Transference B. Dual relationship C. Countertransference D. Scope of practice 107. What can state and local governments do? A. Require licensing B. Restrict what businesses may be operated from a home C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. What supports a higher level of professionalism? A. Sexual misconduct B. Continuing education C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 109. What occurs when a therapist gets angry because a client talks too much? A. Transference B. Dual relationship C. Boundaries D. Countertransference
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110. What could make it difficult for a therapist to communicate with a client if the therapist feels the client is more powerful? A. Power differential B. Transference C. Safety practices D. Clinical reasoning 111. What is a sexual misconduct boundary violation? A. Sexual demeaning comments B. Sexual demeaning gestures C. Sexual demeaning expressions D. All of the above 112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Diffuse any hints or signs of sexual arousal B. Keep accurate records of questionable events C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is the proper height for a table for general relaxation massage? A. 17 inches B. Middle of the therapist's thighs C. At or above the therapist's waist D. 34 inches 114. What removes pathogens from implements and surfaces? A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
115. What must be made available within 10 days for employees with occupational exposure? A. Hepatitis B vaccination B. Employer-provided protective clothing and equipment C. Engineering and work practice controls D. SHARPS injury control program 116. What is the primary infection precaution? A. Hand washing with 10% bleach B. Hand washing with soap C. Use of latex gloves with oil D. Washing linens in cold water 117. What is a universal precaution? A. Wash hands with soap and water before and after contact with every client B. Gloves must be worn if the therapist's skin is not intact C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 118. When must clean linens be used? A. Daily B. For each client C. Each time the client turns over D. None of the above
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119. What is a fire safety practice? A. Maintain functioning smoke and carbon dioxide detectors B. Be familiar with location of fire extinguishers C. Clearly indicate fire exits and have an evacuation procedure D. All of the above 120. What is appropriate first aid care when a person is not breathing or unconscious? A. Cool the body B. Move the person to an area of fresh air C. Tilt the head back and lift the chin D. Move the person to a warm place 121. What protects the practitioner's hands? A. Stay on top of the massage movement rather than in front B. Avoid excessive wrist angles C. Hyperextend the wrist D. Do not use the forearms and elbows for deep pressure 122. What are the main reasons for draping? A. Legal requirements B. Gender issues C. Establish trust and modesty D. Cultural issues 123. Which vitamin is necessary for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus? A. NSAIDs B. Thiamine C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
124. What shows assets and liabilities? A. Balance sheet B. Income and expense statement C. Budget D. Marketing 125. What protects against monetary loss for damage to a building or equipment? A. Unemployment insurance B. Disability insurance C. Liability insurance D. Property insurance
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Exam 6 Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. C 19. D 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. D 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. A 42. D 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. D D B A C C B C A D A C D D C D C D D A C B A D A A B B C A A B A A C B A A A A D D 85. A 86. A 87. B 88. D 89. C 90. D 91. A 92. D 93. B 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. B 98. D 99. B 100. C 101. A 102. C 103. C 104. C 105. A 106. B 107. C 108. B 109. D 110. A 111. D 112. C 113. B 114. C 115. A 116. B 117. C 118. B 119. D 120. C 121. B 122. C 123. D 124. A 125. D
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Exam 7 1. Which refers to the functions of the body? A. Craniosacral therapy B. Physiology C. Histology D. Anthropology 2. What does myelin act as? A. A spinal cord analgesic B. A dermatome C. An electrical insulator D. A catalyst for actin and myosin 3. What involves a cell replicating its DNA? A. Atrophy B. Hypertrophy C. Reflex arc D. Interphase 4. What type of tissue generates the physical force necessary for movement? A. Epithelial B. Cranial C. Skeletal D. Muscular 5. What are glands along the shaft of the hair? A. Rosacrea B. Sudoriferous glands C. Stratum germinativum D. Sebaceous glands 6. What classification of bones includes bones such as the ribs that are less round? A. Flat B. Irregular C. Long D. Short 7. Which system is responsible for the processes of intelligence, memory, and emotion? A. Nervous B. Reproductive C. Endocrine D. Cardiovascular 8. Which is a function of the autonomic nervous system under sympathetic control? A. Increased heartbeat B. Slow heartbeat C. Increased peristalsis D. Increased secretion of digestive juices 9. Which system includes the heart, arteries, veins, and capillaries? A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular C. Nervous D. Gastrointestinal 10. Fluid flowing into lymph capillaries is derived from what? A. Fibrin B. Pericardium C. Blast cells D. Blood plasma 11. Which system is the gateway for nutrients? A. Respiratory B. Reproductive C. Urinary D. Gastrointestinal
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12. What is a small fluid-filled sac that reduces friction between two structures? A. Bursa B. Superficial fascia C. Deep fascia D. Retinaculum 13. Which cranial suture is the articulation of two parietal bones? A. Coronal B. Sagittal C. Synovial D. Lambdoidal 14. Which means higher than or above? A. Anterior B. Inferior C. Posterior D. Superior 15. Which means the ends are bent outward, or bent toward the wall: <>, bowlegged? A. Valgus deformity B. Varus deformity C. Plantar D. Volar 16. What is the order of the body cavities from the most superior to the most inferior, after the cranial cavity? A. Vertebral, thoracic, abdominal, pelvic B. Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic, vertebral C. Thoracic, pelvic, umbilical, vertebral D. Vertebral, posterior, thoracic, abdominal
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the sacral region? Top of head Shoulder blade Below lower back Buttocks
18. Which method describes the stomach as a yang meridian? A. Shiatsu B. Acupressure C. Acupuncture D. All of the above 19. What action occurs in the transverse plane? A. Flexion B. Adduction C. Rotation D. Supination 20. Which of these muscles has the occiput as one of its origins? A. Rhomboid major B. Trapezius C. Soleus D. Deltoid 21. Where does flexor digitorum longus insert? A. Pelvis B. Phalanges C. Metacarpal D. Calcaneus 22. Where is the greater tubercle of the humerus? A. Anterior to the lateral malleolus B. Inferior and lateral to acromion C. Distal to iliac crest on side of hip D. Directly medial from coccyx
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23. What muscle originates at the clavicle, sternum, and the ribs, and inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus? A. Biceps femoris B. Trapezius C. Serratus anterior D. Pectoralis major 24. Which connects muscle to bone? A. Bursae B. Fascia C. Ligaments D. Tendons 25. What type of joint is the elbow? A. Planar B. Hinge C. Ball and socket D. Ellipsoidal 26. What group includes biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembrinosis? A. Quadriceps B. Hamstrings C. Adductors D. Abductors 27. Which muscle medially rotates the shoulder? A. Subscapularis B. Infraspinatus C. Tibialis anterior D. Biceps femoris 28. Which muscle extends the elbow, adducts the shoulder, and extends the shoulder? A. Triceps brachii B. Vastus lateralis C. Splenius capitis D. Biceps brachii
29. Which muscle laterally tilts the pelvis and laterally flexes the vertebral column? A. Occipitofrontalis B. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Quadratus lumborum 30. What movement occurs at the distal ulna? A. Depression B. Extension C. Radial deviation D. Ulnar deviation 31. Which muscle plantar flexes the ankle and everts the foot? A. Triceps brachii B. Deltoid C. Vastus lateralis D. Peroneus longus 32. What type of joint allows flexion / extension and abduction / adduction? A. Gliding B. Ellipsoid C. Hinge D. Amphiarthrosis 33. What is persistent chronic pain? A. Intractable pain B. Atrophy C. Referred pain D. Acute pain 34. Which is increased in the elderly? A. Immune response to vaccines B. Incidence of autoimmune diseases C. Natural killer cell activity D. Number of T lymphocytes
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35. What means founded on actual observations and treatment? A. Clinical B. Ambulatory C. Anomaly D. Stages of lifecycle 36. Which is least likely to be a mode of HIV transmission? A. Blood B. Semen C. Vaginal secretions D. Saliva 37. Which is a contraindication for massage while in the acute stage? A. Herpes zoster B. HIV C. Stress D. Renal failure 38. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for meningitis? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 39. What type of disease shows either little change or slow progression? A. Acute B. Sub-acute C. Chronic D. Depression
40. What is a hole or rip in the abdominal wall or inguinal ring through which the small intestine may protrude? A. Hernia B. Ganglion cyst C. Spondylosis D. Diverticulitis 41. What are the implications for massage for a client taking antihyperlipidemics? A. Occasional muscle and joint pain can occur B. The medication may result in dizziness after the massage C. Massage may help with constipation D. All of the above 42. What is an example of an herbal supplement? A. Antihistamine B. Saw palmetto C. Bee pollen D. Muscle relaxant 43. What kind of fracture involves a break in the skin and torn soft tissues, where the bone protrudes through skin? A. Incomplete fracture B. Compound or open fracture C. Simple fracture D. Chronic 44. What is the result of compression of the median nerve of the brachial plexus? A. Tennis elbow B. Golfer's elbow C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Frozen shoulder
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45. A. B. C. D.
What is a strain? Injury to muscle Tear to ligament Fungus Carpal tunnel syndrome
46. What is an overdeveloped lumbar curve? A. Lordosis B. Scoliosis C. Kyphosis D. All of the above 47. Which area is associated with the SCM, clavicle, and trapezius? A. Posterior triangle of the neck B. Anterior triangle of the neck C. Axillary area D. Sacral region 48. Which of the following is a component of the posterior triangle of the neck endangerment site? A. Carotid artery B. Femoral region C. Subclavian artery D. Vagus nerve 49. What are the activation of the parasympathetic nervous system and the release of endorphins examples of? A. Homeostasis B. Physiological effects C. Placebo effects D. Mind-body effects 50. Which massage effect can be processed through the somatic nervous system? A. Neuromuscular mechanisms B. Hyperstimulation analgesia C. Counterirritation D. All of the above
51. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Decreases oxygen saturation in blood B. Increases white blood cell count C. Decreases red blood cell count D. Sweat glands activated 52. If a client is functioning from sympathetic nervous system dominance, what would be an appropriate initial stroke? A. Gentle rocking B. Slow effleurage C. Feather strokes D. Tapotement 53. What is a sitting bath with the water coming up to the navel? A. Steam bath B. Sauna C. Sitz bath D. Paraffin bath 54. What are reduced inflammation, reduced swelling, and reduced muscle spasm effects of? A. Tonic friction B. Heat C. Cold D. Shampoos 55. A. B. C. D. Which stroke is kneading? Friction Tapotement Petrissage Effleurage
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56. What is a PNF technique that involves holding and waiting for the nervous system to trigger relaxation? A. Compression B. Positional release (PR) C. Post-isometric contraction (PIR) D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) 57. What is a physical effect of massage? A. Relieves muscle cramps and spasms B. Decreases circulation of blood and lymph C. Reduces removal of metabolic waste D. Calms the nervous system 58. What is a psychological effect of massage? A. Relieves fatigue B. Increases tension and anxiety C. Relieves muscle cramps D. Increases circulation 59. What is an effect of massage on the muscular system? A. Release fascial restrictions B. Reduce thickening of connective tissue (hyperplasia) C. More flexibility D. All of the above 60. What is increased by massage? A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Endorphins D. All of the above
61. Which is a percussion movement? A. Deep effleurage B. Kneading C. Beating D. Cross fiber friction 62. Which stroke is appropriate for treating tendonitis? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Cross-fiber friction D. Percussion 63. A. B. C. D. What is kneading? Tapping Light stroking Lifting and grasping Pressing
64. What is a bone against bone feeling? A. Hard end feel B. Soft end feel C. Empty end feel D. Active joint movement 65. What is most appropriate for breaking up adhesions in the muscle belly? A. Effleurage B. Kneading C. Percussion D. Tapotement 66. What is a virus that can potentially destroy the immune system? A. AIDS B. HIV C. T-cell D. Kaposi's sarcoma
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67. A. B. C. D.
What is a Russian bath? Whirlpool bath Full body steam bath Diathermy All of the above
68. What is the "C" in the R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? A. Cold B. Circulation C. Compression D. Cryotherapy 69. Which is a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique? A. Hydrotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Cross-fiber friction D. Positional Release 70. What would be a good position to start a massage for first-time clients to make them feel more comfortable and safer? A. Supine B. Prone C. Side-lying D. Lateral 71. If a client has a forward head position, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen and stretch rectus capitis posterior major B. Shorten upper trapezius and splenius C. Lengthen and stretch oblique capitis inferior D. Lengthen and stretch spinalis
72. If a client has lordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Shorten tensor fasciae latae and longissimus thoracis B. Lengthen rectus abdominis and biceps femoris C. Lengthen iliacus and iliocostalis lumborum D. Lengthen internal obliques and semimembranosus 73. If a client has right torticollis, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen erector spinae and transversospinalis B. Lengthen left biceps brachii and triceps C. Lengthen left splenius capitis and right upper trapezius D. Lengthen right splenius capitis and left upper trapezius 74. What is done if a client has a supinated position of the heel with forefoot varus? A. Lengthen flexor digitorum longus B. Lengthen extensor digitorum longus C. Lengthen tibialis posterior D. Lengthen tibialis anterior 75. What would be used to find tender areas within muscles resulting from a postural deviation? A. Rapport B. Care plan C. Assessment D. Palpation
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76. Where on the SOAP chart are palpation findings documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 77. Which areas must be identified in an assessment so that correction can be applied to those areas? A. Concentrically contracted shortened areas B. Concentrically contracted lengthened areas C. Isometrically contracted lengthened areas D. Assessments are outside the scope of practice 78. What happens to postural muscles if posture is not balanced? A. They jump into action and tire more quickly B. They must function more like ligaments and bones C. They have more fast-twitch white fibers D. Atrophy of the temporalis 79. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, which muscles are most likely elongated and weak? A. Hip flexors B. Low back C. External obliques D. Frontalis and soleus
80. Which muscles are elongated and weak with flat back posture? A. Hamstrings B. One-joint hip flexors C. Muscles of the face D. All of the above 81. Where does the standard side-view line of reference through the ankle pass? A. Anterior to the axis of the elbow joint B. Posterior to the knee joint C. Posterior to the outer malleolus and through the apex of the arch D. Anterior to the outer malleolus and through the apex of the arch 82. Which muscles need to be exercised when the shoulders are depressed and the scapulae abducted? A. Platysma B. Rectus abdominis C. Upper trapezius D. Lower trapezius 83. Which is a correct set up for proper ergonomics at a computer workstation? A. Phone on shoulder B. Feet propped on chair legs C. Monitor at or below eye level D. Computer in a corner on a platform 84. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in right handed individuals? A. Gluteus maximum B. Right tibialis anterior C. Left flexor hallucis longus D. Occipitofrontalis
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85. When would a therapist need to postpone a massage for an athlete? A. Immediately prior to an athletic event B. During a break in the competition C. After an athletic event D. If the athlete has heat exhaustion 86. What is not part of the treatment for plantar fasciitis? A. Apply cold in the acute and chronic stages B. Cross fiber friction on adhesions C. Treat the shortened gastrocnemius and soleus D. Thumb kneading on foot 87. What is excessive bone growth at the first metatarsophalangeal joint capsule? A. Trigger finger B. Bunion C. Baker's cyst D. Tendonitis 88. What type of range of motion is painful with frozen shoulder? A. Active only B. Passive only C. Active and passive D. None of the above 89. What is a condition that results from compression of the median nerve at the wrist? A. Trigger finger B. Piriformis syndrome C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Thoracic outlet syndrome
90. What is treated by stretching the erector spinae and quadratus lumborum when prone? A. Hyperlordosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Flat-back posture 91. Who developed Swedish massage and is considered the Father of Swedish Massage? A. Per Henrik Ling B. Dr. John Georg Mezger C. Dr. George H. Taylor D. Dr. John Harvey Kellogg 92. Which is a non-invasive neuromuscular approach with roots in osteopathy? A. Ortho-bionomy B. Craniosacral therapy C. Reflexology D. Polarity therapy 93. Which modality developed by Dr. John Upledger uses the principles of unwinding? A. Post isometric relaxation B. Shiatsu C. Hydrotherapy D. Craniosacral therapy 94. Who developed deep transverse friction? A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr. Estrid Vodder B. James Cyriax C. Elizabeth Dicke D. Joseph Heller 95. What was developed in India? A. Anatripsis B. Ayurveda C. Anma D. Lomi lomi
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96. Which is an energy technique? A. Esalen massage B. Reiki C. Trigger point therapy D. All of the above 97. What are professional classifications of touch? A. Mechanical or expressive touch B. German or French method C. Hostile or aggressive touch D. Sexual or erotic touch 98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Bigotry B. Right of refusal C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above 99. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Client-centered actions and words B. Dating a client C. Ignoring contraindications D. Informed consent violations 100. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Personal needs B. Scope of practice C. Social needs D. All of the above 101. What is an example of a boundary? A. Written data collection B. Edge C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
102. What is a duty of health professionals? A. Do no harm B. Do positive good C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. What occurs when a therapist who is angry assumes that a client is angry? A. Projection B. Power differential C. Dual relationship D. Networking 104. What should the therapist do if a minor asks for an exception to getting parental consent for a massage? A. Do the massage if a friend says it is OK B. Do not do the massage C. Do the massage if the minor promises to get permission later D. Do the massage but decrease the duration 105. What is gathering information about a condition? A. Dual relationship B. Assessment C. Countertransference D. Diagnosis 106. What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? A. Safe use of equipment and supplies B. Dating C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
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107. What is more common at the local government level rather than the state government level? A. Licensing requirements B. Restrictions on businesses operated from a home C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. Guidance on which topic is typically found in a code of ethics? A. Scope of practice B. Tax C. Insurance D. All of the above 109. What are the feelings of the therapist towards the client? A. Dual relationships B. Transference C. Confidentiality D. Countertransference 110. What should a therapist do after making a mistake? A. Admit the mistake B. Act like nothing happened C. Blame the client D. Deny making a mistake 111. What could be considered a sexual misconduct boundary violation by failing to ensure a client's privacy? A. Improper draping B. Not providing a gown C. Watching a client undress D. All of the above
112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Be mindful of body contact during session B. Use appropriate draping C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is a guideline for the massage table? A. 78 to 84 inches long B. 24 to 25 inches wide C. 1 to 2 inches of high density foam padding D. All of the above 114. All of the following are advantages of massage oils over lotions except: A. Oils do not degrade with heat B. Oils spread easily C. A little oil goes a long way D. Oils helps slide over hair 115. What is mandatory for sheets with blood stains? A. Biohazard label B. Red container C. Commercial laundry D. No label needed if universal precautions are used 116. What decontaminates? A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. All of the above 117. Why would diaper draping be used? A. Trust, warmth and modesty B. Legal requirements, safety and sanitation C. Massaging a newborn D. Massaging a toddler
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118. What uses one full-size double flat sheet to cover the table and wrap the client? A. Top cover method B. Full sheet method C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 119. How many calories are needed by the body per day? A. About 600 to 700 B. About 800 to 1000 C. About 1000 to 1200 D. About 1600 to 2800 120. What is the recommended number of servings per day of the meat, poultry, fish, dried beans, and nuts group? A. Use sparingly B. 2 to 3 servings C. 6 to 7 servings D. 9 to 11 servings 121. What are advantages of being an employee? A. Set own schedule B. Employer provides facilities and supplies C. Flexible hours D. All of the above 122. Costs for what could be deductible as a business expense? A. Advertising B. Professional clothes C. Insurance D. All of the above 123. What promotes the business? A. Credentials B. DBA C. Marketing D. Ledger
124. What is the doing business as name? A. SSN B. TIN C. DBA D. LLC 125. What is a business arrangement with one or more owners and limited liability? A. Corporation B. Networking C. Partnership D. Sole proprietorship
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Exam 7 Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. B 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. D 37. A 38. D 39. C 40. A 41. D 42. B 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B C A A A C B D B D C C C B A A D D C C C A B B B C D B A C D C D B A B C B D C C C 85. D 86. A 87. B 88. C 89. C 90. A 91. A 92. A 93. D 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. A 100. B 101. B 102. C 103. A 104. B 105. B 106. B 107. B 108. A 109. D 110. A 111. D 112. C 113. C 114. A 115. D 116. D 117. A 118. B 119. D 120. B 121. B 122. D 123. C 124. C 125. A
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Exam 8 1. Which refers to the study of anatomical landmarks through visualization and palpation? A. Endocrinology B. Anthropology C. Surface anatomy D. Ortho-bionomy 2. Which level in the organization of the body structure is the largest level including all the body systems and parts? A. Chemical level B. Organismal level C. Tissue level D. Atomic level 3. What is the large central fluid-filled cavity of a mitochondrion, enclosed by the inner mitochondrial membrane? A. Polyribosome B. Cytoplasm C. Synovial joint D. The matrix 4. What type of tissue detects changes in condition and responds by generating action potentials? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Nervous D. Muscular 5. What are large glands in the axillary region? A. Arrector pili B. Phasic muscles C. Apocrine glands D. Seborrhea 6. What classification of bones includes the small bones found in the hands and feet? A. Sesamoid B. Irregular C. Long D. Short 7. Which system includes the brain, spinal cord, and special sense organs? A. Nervous B. Musculoskeletal C. Lymphatic D. Integumentary 8. Which is a function of the autonomic nervous system under sympathetic control? A. Increased heartbeat B. Decreased peristalsis C. Decreased secretion of digestive juices D. All of the above 9. Which system includes the pancreas and the thymus? A. Lymphatic B. Endocrine C. Respiratory D. Circulatory 10. What is the order of these major lymph nodes, starting with most superior / cranial? A. Parotid, spleen, thymus, cisterna chyli, iliac, inguinal B. Parotid, thymus, spleen, cisterna chyli, iliac, inguinal C. Parotid, spleen, thymus, adrenal, inguinal, iliac D. Parotid, thyroid, cisterna chyli, spleen, inguinal, iliac
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11. Which system includes the mouth, tongue, teeth, salivary glands, and esophagus? A. Respiratory B. Digestive C. Nervous D. Endocrine 12. Which cranial suture is the articulation of the frontal and parietal bones? A. Coronal B. Sagittal C. Axial D. Lambdoidal 13. What has a great variety of amino acids? A. Plant proteins B. Fat C. Insoluble carbohydrates D. Animal proteins 14. Which means behind or in the back? A. Anterior B. Inferior C. Posterior D. Superior 15. Where are the lungs relative to the heart? A. Proximal B. Distal C. Medial D. Lateral 16. Which body cavities are in the dorsal region? A. Cranial and vertebral B. Thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic C. Thoracic, pelvic, and vertebral D. Cranial, vertebral, and pelvic
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the scapular region? Top of head Shoulder blade Lower back Buttocks
18. Which method describes the pericardium as a yin meridian? A. Acupuncture B. Trager method C. Manual lymph drainage D. All of the above 19. What type of muscle found in the heart has branched muscle fibers, striations, intercalated disks, and autonomic nerves? A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Smooth D. Fusiform 20. Which of these muscles inserts on the calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon? A. Biceps femoris B. Gastrocnemius C. Brachialis D. Trapezius 21. Where does the sternocleidomastoid insert? A. Femur B. Radius C. Occiput D. Mandible 22. Where is the brachial plexus? A. Left lumbar region B. Junction between manubrium and sternum C. C5 to T1, scalenes, clavicle D. T2, T4 and T10 of vertebral column
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23. What originates at the surface of 8 or 9 ribs and inserts on the anterior surface of the medial border of the scapula? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Trapezius C. Serratus anterior D. Peroneus longus 24. What surrounds muscle bellies? A. Bursa B. Aponeurosis C. Deep fascia D. Retinaculum 25. What type of joint is the wrist? A. Planar B. Hinge C. Ball and socket D. Ellipsoidal 26. What is the general adaptation syndrome in response to? A. Stress B. Resistance C. Alarm D. Exhaustion 27. Which is an action of supraspinatus? A. Abduct the shoulder B. Medially rotate the shoulder C. Adduct the leg D. Extend the wrist 28. What is the action of the platysma? A. Flex arms B. Assist in depression of the mandible C. Laterally flex head and neck D. Flex the shoulder
29. Which is an action of the deltoid? A. Lateral rotation B. Adduction C. Elevation D. Depression 30. Where would a therapist put a pillow to work on a client's pectoralis minor? A. Under patella B. Under head and neck C. Under abducted bent elbow, laying supine D. Under adducted bent elbow, laying prone 31. Which muscle extends the knee? A. Triceps brachii B. Sartorius C. Vastus lateralis D. Peroneus longus 32. Which proprioceptors respond to tension and send a signal to the antagonist? A. Joint kinesthetic receptors B. Golgi tendon organs C. Somatic reflex arcs D. Muscle spindles 33. What is a disease present at birth? A. Degenerative B. Fungal C. Idiopathic D. Congenital 34. What could cause inflammation? A. A tissue injury B. Heat and redness C. Abnormal tissue growth D. Cells that fail to mature
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35. What means able to walk or not confined to bed? A. Clinical B. Ambulatory C. Anomaly D. Atrophy 36. What psychological disorder has to do with exaggerated irrational fears? A. Anorexia B. Anxiety C. Rickets and scurvy D. Chemical dependency 37. Which is indicated for massage for people who have survived the condition for five years? A. Herpes zoster B. Scabies C. Leukemia D. Renal failure 38. Which rhythms repeat themselves annually? A. Idiopathic B. Biological rhythms C. Ultradian rhythms D. Seasonal rhythms 39. What is a chronic autoimmune disease in which antibodies attack various types of tissue throughout the body? A. Bronchitis B. Tinnitus C. Fever D. Lupus
40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking antihypertensives and diuretics? A. The client may be susceptible to cold B. The medication may result in dizziness after the massage C. Massage may help with constipation D. All of the above 41. What is an example of a nonherbal natural supplement? A. Antihistamine B. Saw palmetto C. Bee pollen D. Muscle relaxant 42. What natural supplement is used for the common cold? A. Diuretic B. Brewer's yeast C. Aloe D. Antiulcer medication 43. What is inflammation of a tendon? A. Tendonitis B. Tenosynovitis C. Greenstick fracture D. Ischemic necrosis 44. A. B. C. D. What is acute? Widespread Gradual onset Short duration Long duration
45. What is an injury to a muscle? A. Sprain B. Strain C. Tinnitus D. Tinea cruris
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46. What is overdeveloped thoracic curve? A. Gibbus B. Scoliosis C. Kyphosis D. All of the above 47. Which area is associated with the subclavian artery and the brachiocephalic artery? A. Posterior triangle of the neck B. Anterior triangle of the neck C. Axillary area D. Pelvic cavity 48. Which of the following is a component of the anterior triangle of the neck endangerment site? A. Carotid artery B. Brachiocephalic artery C. Frontal chakra D. Soleus 49. What is a reflexive effect of massage? A. Muscle relaxation B. Increased mental clarity C. Pain reduction D. All of the above 50. What is an effect of massage on the nervous and endocrine systems? A. Creates hyperthermia B. Reduces cortisol levels C. Decreases serotonin levels D. Reduces superficial keloid formation
51. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Increases oxygen saturation in blood B. Decreases white blood cell count C. Decreases red blood cell count D. Decreases stress 52. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Skin conditions such as mild dryness B. Stress and anxiety C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. All of the above 53. A. B. C. D. When should ice be avoided? Inflammation Spasms Pain Circulatory problems
54. What reduces inflammation, swelling, and muscle spasms? A. Tonic friction B. Heat C. Ice D. Shampoos 55. What is a benefit of a contrast bath? A. Increase in pulse rate B. Reduce swelling C. Alternating vasoconstriction and vasodilation D. Reduced inflammation 56. A. B. C. D. Which is effleurage? Kneading Gliding Cross fiber friction Cupping
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57. Which is best for tight bands of muscle fibers? A. Trigger point therapy B. Touch therapy C. Gliding D. Effleurage 58. What is not a physical effect of massage? A. Increases metabolism B. Hastens healing C. Relaxes and refreshes the muscles D. Rebuilds a positive selfimage 59. What is light rubbing, rolling or wringing? A. Vibration B. Percussion C. Friction D. Ischemic compression 60. The effects of massage on the autonomic nervous system are mostly what type? A. Reflexive B. Mechanical C. Placebo D. Direct 61. Which is a rapid striking movement? A. Vibration B. Kneading C. Percussion D. Friction 62. When is oil usually first applied? A. Effleurage B. Petrissage C. Percussion D. Tapotement
63. Which stroke is not effleurage? A. Superficial gliding B. Deep gliding C. Skin rolling D. Aura stroking 64. What is a cushioned limitation? A. Hard end feel B. Soft end feel C. Empty end feel D. Active joint movement 65. What promotes vasodilation? A. Massage of the vascular system B. Cryotherapy C. Ice D. Reiki 66. Which is not advisable for pregnancy massage? A. Light effleurage B. Percussion C. Side-lying position D. Supine position 67. Which is not appropriate for massage for the critically ill? A. Abbreviated length of session B. Slow, gentle strokes C. Methods that move toxins D. Energy work 68. What is a method of applying ice massage? A. Ice in a paper or Styrofoam cup B. Ice in a towel C. Ice in a plastic bag D. All of the above
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69. Which is a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique? A. Post-isometric contraction B. Petrissage C. Reiki D. Effleurage 70. What would be a good position to start a massage for a pregnant client? A. Supine B. Prone C. Side-lying D. Face down 71. If a client has a forward head position, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen and stretch anterior scalene B. Lengthen and stretch quadratus lumborum C. Lengthen and stretch rectus capitis posterior minor D. Shorten rectus capitis posterior major 72. If a client has flat back posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Shorten semitendinosus B. Lengthen upper trapezius C. Lengthen biceps femoris D. Lengthen iliacus 73. What is done if a client has an adducted and elevated scapula? A. Lengthen serratus anterior B. Lengthen trapezius C. Lengthen latissimus dorsi D. Lengthen teres major
74. Which muscles are overactive if a client has low back pain, buttock pain, and hamstring shortening when flexing the trunk? A. Gluteus maximum and gastrocnemius B. Abdominal complex C. Erector spinae, psoas, and rectus abdominis D. Upper trapezius and ipsilateral quadratus lumborum 75. What would involve client goals and a time frame? A. Business plan B. Care plan C. Assessment D. Palpation 76. Where on the SOAP chart are self care recommendations documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 77. What exists when a tight muscle decreases nervous stimulation to its antagonist, causing it to reduce activity? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Muscle testing C. Reciprocal inhibition D. Inflammation 78. If a client says an area is stuck, what type of issue is it usually? A. Endangerment site issue B. Connective tissue or fluid retention issue C. Joint issue D. Ligament issue
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79. What is happening when the pelvis maintains its ideal alignment? A. The brachialis pulls upward B. The abdominal muscles pull downward C. The back muscles pull upward D. The posterior hip flexors pull upward 80. Which muscles are elongated and weak with lordotic posture? A. Hip flexors B. Frontalis and temporalis C. Anterior abdominals D. All of the above 81. As feet are influenced by shoes with heels, what tends to increase with heel height? A. Abduction B. Slight out-toeing C. Tendency toward parallel position from out-toeing D. Outward rotating 82. Which are long and weak with the right hip adducted and medially rotated, left hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Right lateral trunk muscles, left hip abductors and right hip adductors B. Platysma and trapezius C. Left flexor hallucis longus and left flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above
83. What is a characteristic of knees in hyperextension? A. The plumb line passes slightly anterior to the axis of the knee joint B. Genu valgum C. The ankle joint is in plantar flexion D. Genu varum 84. What is like anatomical position with the hands facing the body and the forearms in between pronation and supination? A. Sagittal plane B. Center of gravity C. Longitudinal axis D. Zero position 85. How does a therapist test the right leg flexors? A. Client holds left leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds posterior gluteal line against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure D. Client holds right leg position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure 86. What may be caused by occupations such as drywall hanging? A. Rotator cuff tendinitis B. Plantar fasciitis C. Whiplash D. Torticollis
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87. What are symptoms of bursitis? A. Heat B. Swelling C. Redness D. All of the above 88. When is frozen shoulder most frequently painful? A. Gliding B. Circumduction C. Abduction and external rotation D. Flexion and extension 89. What results from sciatic nerve compression? A. Whiplash B. Piriformis syndrome C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Thoracic outlet syndrome 90. What is treated by stretching iliopsoas, rectus femoris, tensor fascia lata, and adductors when supine? A. Hyperlordosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Flat-back posture 91. Who standardized massage terminology and brought massage to the scientific community? A. Dr. John Upledger B. Dr. John Georg Mezger C. Dr. Milton Trager D. Dr. John Harvey Kellogg 92. What type of sports massage is used for minor injuries? A. Pre-event massage B. Chair massage C. Remedial massage D. Rehabilitation massage
93. Which is the most noninvasive? A. Therapeutic touch B. Reciprocal inhibition C. Deep transverse friction D. Hellerwork 94. What would an aromatherapy bath or massage oil of orange blossom, neroli, patchouli and lavender be used for? A. Postural assessment B. Moisturizing C. Stimulating D. Injury prevention 95. What is a Hindu technique of massage in the bath? A. Acupressure B. Tschanpua C. Anma D. Tapotement 96. What is an area of excessively strong ki in Shiatsu? A. Proprioceptor B. Dosha C. Jitsu D. Chakra 97. What refers to guiding principles for distinguishing between right and wrong? A. Marketing B. Confidentiality C. Ethics D. Overhead 98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Rights as professionals B. Right of refusal C. Misleading claims of curative abilities D. Informed consent
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99. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Dating a client B. Misleading claims C. Advertising D. All of the above 100. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Spiritual advice B. Informed consent C. Psychological counseling D. All of the above 101. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Consistency B. Rights as professionals C. Confidentiality D. None of the above 102. What should the therapist do if a client reveals that they abuse their children? A. Contact the child welfare authorities where required by law B. Do nothing C. Tell the client not to reveal that information D. Recommend prescription medication 103. What is needed before working on a minor? A. Parental consent B. Contract C. Medical advice D. None of the above 104. What protects a client's information? A. HIPPA B. Confidentiality C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
105. What is the scope of practice? A. Advertising B. Dual relationship C. Boundaries D. Practice parameters 106. What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? A. Soft tissue techniques B. Interactions between students and school personnel C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 107. What is the difference between a license and a credential? A. Governments issue licenses B. Associations issue credentials C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. Guidance on which topic is typically found in a code of ethics? A. Professionalism B. Client relationships C. Scope of practice D. All of the above 109. What occurs when a therapist gives psychological advice to the client to solve personal problems? A. Transference B. Scope of practice violation C. Boundaries D. Countertransference
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110. What happens if a client grimaces in pain while saying that the pressure is fine? A. Dual relationship B. Boundary crossing C. Countertransference D. Nonverbal communication 111. What is misconduct involving sexual contact? A. Encouraging the client to masturbate B. Masturbation by the practitioner C. Intercourse D. All of the above 112. What is appropriate for addressing erections in clients if the client shows signs of discomfort? A. Establish and maintain appropriate boundaries B. The therapist should consider talking to the client C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is the safest equipment for massaging a 6month old baby? A. Table B. Chair C. Mat D. Supports 114. What is mandatory for contaminated sheets sent to a facility that does not use universal precautions? A. Medical record B. Use washer and dryer of employer C. Biohazard label or red container D. None of the above
115. What is a universal precaution? A. Gloves shall be worn if there is potential for direct contact with body fluids B. Hands must be washed after removing gloves C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 116. What is a safety practice regarding housekeeping and sanitation? A. Keep all halls and walkways clear B. Keep all carpets vacuumed and sanitized C. Keep all solid floors cleaned and sanitized D. All of the above 117. What is a safety practice regarding housekeeping and sanitation? A. Commercially wash linens or wash in hot water with bleach B. Dry linens in a hot dryer C. Store clean linens in a closed cabinet D. All of the above 118. What is a therapist personal safety practice? A. Know contraindications B. Perform outside the scope of practice C. Do not give out contact information to an associate when leaving to perform inhouse massage D. All of the above
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119. What protects the practitioner's hands? A. Use the fingertips for deep pressure B. Stay in front of the massage movement rather than on top C. Hyperextend the wrist D. Avoid using the forearms and elbows for deep pressure 120. What draping method uses a table covering along with a top covering large enough to cover the body? A. Top cover method B. Full sheet method C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 121. What vitamin is found in citrus fruits? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B complex C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 122. Which is included in the vitamin B complex? A. Thiamine B. Niacin C. Riboflavin D. All of the above 123. What would monthly rent be considered? A. Start-up costs B. Overhead C. Net income D. Gross income
124. Which is property insurance? A. General liability insurance B. Product liability insurance C. Professional liability insurance D. Premises fire damage insurance for renters 125. What is a way to explain services in detail to prospective clients? A. Mission statements B. Brochures C. Resumes D. Advertising
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Exam 8 Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. D 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. A C B C A A D B A D D C C B A D C A C A C B A B C D A C C C B C B D C C C C C C C D 85. D 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. B 90. A 91. B 92. C 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. C 97. C 98. C 99. C 100. B 101. D 102. A 103. A 104. C 105. D 106. B 107. C 108. D 109. B 110. D 111. D 112. C 113. C 114. C 115. C 116. D 117. D 118. A 119. B 120. A 121. C 122. D 123. B 124. D 125. B
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Exam 9 1. Which refers to the anatomy of specific areas such as the head or chest? A. Cardiovascular physiology B. Regional anatomy C. Biology D. Systemic anatomy 2. Which organization is primarily focused on supporting research? A. National Institute of Health Office of Alternative and Complementary Medicine B. American Massage Therapy Association C. National Certification Board D. Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals 3. What are specialized substances within a cell that have characteristic shapes and perform specific functions? A. Organelles B. Plasma C. Golgi apparatus D. Tissues 4. Which type of epithelial membrane is the peritoneum? A. Cardiac B. Serous C. Cutaneous D. Synovial 5. What classification of bones includes complex shaped bones such as the vertebrae? A. Flat B. Irregular C. Long D. Short 6. What is the order of these major structures of the central nervous system, starting with most superior / cranial? A. Cerebrum, medulla, cervical plexus, spinal cord B. Cerebrum, cerebellum, spinal cord, medulla C. Cerebrum, cerebellum, medulla, spinal cord D. Cerebellum, cerebrum, medulla, sinus 7. What are the components of the autonomic nervous system? A. Somatic and sympathetic B. Somatic and parasympathetic C. Sympathetic and parasympathetic D. Cholinergic and adrenergic 8. What receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Spleen C. Right ventricle D. Left atrium 9. What is the largest lymphoid organ? A. Thymus B. Spleen C. Liver D. Parotid 10. Which system includes the stomach, small and large intestines, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas? A. Digestive B. Urinary C. Lymphatic D. Endocrine
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11. Which fibers consist of collagen in fine bundles and provide support in walls of blood vessels? A. Reticular B. Mast cells C. Dense irregular D. Adipocytes 12. Which are organic catalysts that change the rate of a chemical reaction? A. Amino acids B. Carbohydrates C. Triglycerides D. Enzymes 13. Which cranial suture is the articulation of the parietal and temporal bones? A. Coronal B. Sagittal C. Squamous D. Thoracic 14. Which means lower than or below? A. Anterior B. Inferior C. Posterior D. Superior 15. Where are the ribs relative to the chest and back? A. Proximal B. Distal C. Superficial D. Deep 16. What is the relationship of the frontal, transverse, and sagittal planes to each other? A. They are at right angles B. They are the same C. They are parallel D. They are unrelated
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the patellar region? Knee Thigh Groin Abdomen
18. Which method involves the stomach meridian beginning at the orbital cavity, ending at the second toe, and being associated with food intake? A. Swedish massage B. Hellerwork C. Shiatsu D. All of the above 19. What type of muscle in the bladder has fusiform muscle fibers and autonomic nerves? A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Smooth D. All of the above 20. Which of these muscles has the anterior part of the iliac crest as one of its insertions? A. External obliques B. Trapezius C. Temporalis D. Erector spinae 21. Where does the platysma insert? A. Pelvis B. Sacrum C. Skin on edge of occiput D. Skin on edge of mandible 22. Which are tarsals? A. Malleolus, talus, phalanges B. Cuboid, cuneiforms, navicular C. Acromion process, spine of scapula, clavicle D. Lunate, pisiform, hamate
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23. What is the origin of the short head of the biceps brachii? A. Scapula B. Coracoid process C. Pubic crest D. Ischial tuberosity 24. What is immediately deep to the skin and covers the entire body? A. Bursa B. Superficial fascia C. Deep fascia D. Retinaculum 25. What are the rotator cuff muscles? A. Deltoid, infraspinatus, teres major, and subscapularis B. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis C. Sternocleidomastoid, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis D. Trapezius, infraspinatus, teres minor, and serratus anterior 26. Which muscle inserts on the tuberosity of the radius? A. Biceps brachii B. Plantaris C. Deltoid D. Trapezius 27. Which muscle of the right forearm would be used to turn a screwdriver clockwise? A. Brachialis B. Pronator teres C. Supinator D. Gastrocnemius
28. Which muscles are used when riding a bike? A. Multifidi B. Rotatores C. Quadriceps D. Longissimus thoracis 29. What type of joint only allows small shifting movements? A. Gliding B. Ellipsoid C. Hinge D. Ball and socket 30. Which muscle would predominantly have fast twitch fibers? A. Erector spinae B. Soleus C. Transversospinalis D. Biceps brachii 31. What happens in a concentric muscle contraction? A. The muscle relaxes B. The length of the muscle does not change C. The muscle lengthens D. The muscle shortens 32. Which muscle originates on the lumbar vertebrae and inserts on the lesser trochanter? A. Psoas major B. Biceps femoris C. Deltoid D. Quadratus lumborum
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33. What are organisms that cause disease only when immunity is low? A. Virulent B. Fungal C. Opportunistic pathogens D. Transmission by inhalation 34. What is hyperplasia? A. Abnormal tissue growth from uncontrolled cell division B. Cells that fail to mature into specialized cells C. Displacement of bones D. A group of signs and symptoms 35. What means a deviation from normal? A. Clinical B. Ambulatory C. Anomaly D. Idiopathic 36. What is a psychological mood disorder that can result in feelings of hopelessness? A. Anorexia B. Inflammation C. Depression D. Chemical dependency 37. What refers to the increase in the size of cells without cell division? A. Atrophy B. Entrainment C. Hypertrophy D. Ambulatory
38. What refers to the internal periodic timing components of an organism and can be circadian, ultradian, or seasonal? A. Entrainment B. Biological rhythms C. Etiology D. Homeostasis 39. What is a highly contagious airborne disease from a bacterial infection that usually begins in the lungs? A. Edema B. Cystic fibrosis C. Tuberculosis D. Gastroesophageal reflux disorder 40. What are amphetamines, adrenergic medications, anticonvulsants, and antiparkinson agents? A. Hormones B. Anti-infectives C. Antineoplastics D. Central nervous system medications 41. What is the formation of bony spurs? A. Subluxation B. Tenosynovitis C. Tuberculosis D. Spondylosis 42. What natural supplement is used to heal burns? A. NSAID B. Brewer's yeast C. Aloe D. Steroid
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43. What is the complete displacement of bones of a joint? A. Whiplash B. Dislocation C. Hernia D. Subluxation 44. What is the order of the response to stress under the general adaptation syndrome? A. Exhaustion, resistance, alarm B. Ultradian, circadian, seasonal C. Alarm, exhaustion, resistance D. Alarm, resistance, exhaustion 45. A. B. C. What is athlete's foot? Sprain Strain A fungus on the feet and toes D. Plantar fasciitis
48. Which of the following is a component of the posterior triangle of the neck endangerment site? A. Brachial artery B. Brachiocephalic artery C. Oblique plane D. Vagus nerve 49. What is a physiological effect of massage? A. Cures terminal illnesses B. Activation of parasympathetic nervous system C. Increases keloid formation D. None of the above 50. Which category of the physiological effects of massage refers to applying force such as bending and compression? A. Biofield methods B. Reflexive methods C. Mechanical methods D. Energetic methods 51. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Stops release of acetylchlorine and histamine B. Decreases white blood cell count C. Decreases red blood cell count D. Increases platelet count 52. How much time does it usually take before massage activates the parasympathetic nervous response? A. Less than 2 minutes B. 10 to 15 minutes C. 60 to 75 minutes D. More than 90 minutes
46. What is there in the back with an anterior tilt of the pelvis? A. Flat back B. Lordosis C. Normal anterior curve D. All of the above 47. Which area is associated with the SCM, mandible, and trachea? A. Posterior triangle of the neck B. Anterior triangle of the neck C. Axillary area D. Sacral region
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53. What is friction with a saline solution? A. Tonic friction B. Salt rub C. Sponging D. Shampoo 54. For which condition could cold be applied? A. Stretch weak muscles B. Impaired circulation C. Swelling D. Arthritis 55. Which stroke kneads soft tissue? A. Compression B. Grounding C. Effleurage D. Petrissage 56. How would a therapist finish a massage for a client with insomnia? A. Kneading B. Gliding C. Cross fiber friction D. Cupping 57. Which is a form of tapotement? A. Wringing B. Skin rolling C. Jostling D. Percussion 58. What is an indirect physical effect of massage? A. Reflexive effect B. Mechanical effect C. Decreased circulation D. All of the above
59. What is an effect of massage on the skin? A. Improved posture B. Decreased activity of sweat and oil glands C. Increased circulation to the skin D. Reduction in dopamine 60. What massage movement produces a hyperemia? A. Petrissage or kneading B. Light massage C. Compression D. All of the above 61. Which is an effleurage movement? A. Compression B. Skin rolling C. Aura stroking D. Petrissage 62. Which is done with long, smooth strokes? A. Vibration B. Aura stroking C. Percussion D. Friction 63. When is effleurage typically used during a session? A. Only at the beginning B. Only at the end C. To apply lubricant D. In the middle 64. What is an abrupt limitation to a joint movement? A. Hard end feel B. Soft end feel C. Empty end feel D. Passive joint movement
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65. What gives the best information about connective tissue? A. Percussion B. Vibration C. Friction D. Tapotement 66. A. B. C. D. What contributes to AIDS? Opportunistic infection HIV Low T-cell count All of the above
71. If a client has flat back posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen semitendinosus B. Shorten semimembranosus C. Lengthen psoas D. Lengthen splenius 72. What is done if a client has the knee flexed along with posterior tilting of the pelvis and a flattening of the lumbar spine? A. Lengthen soleus B. Lengthen hamstrings C. Lengthen tibialis anterior D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris 73. What is done if a client has thoracic outlet syndrome? A. Lengthen serratus anterior and trapezius B. Lengthen latissimus dorsi and teres major C. Lengthen scalenes, SCMs, pecs, and neck extensors D. Lengthen biceps and triceps brachii 74. What is an appropriate consideration for self-care? A. Maximize the assignments B. Introduce a vigorous exercise program C. Support the client in achieving their goals D. Recommend a radical change in diet 75. Which is more of a part of developing a plan than an objective observation? A. Gait assessment B. Needs assessment C. Posture assessment D. Palpation
67. What is the application of oscillating electromagnetic fields to tissue? A. Whirlpool bath B. Full body steam bath C. Diathermy D. Cryotherapy 68. What is the "I" in the R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? A. Injury B. Infection C. Ice D. Inflammation 69. Which is a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique? A. Hydrotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Direct Manipulation D. Petrissage 70. If a client has a forward head position, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen anterior scalene B. Lengthen and stretch upper trapezius and splenius C. Lengthen oblique capitis inferior D. Shorten SCM
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76. Where on the SOAP chart is the initial gait analysis documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 77. What is the dysfunction in which muscles compensate for a weak prime mover to produce the movement? A. Muscle guarding B. Muscle testing C. Inflammation D. Synergistic dominance 78. What could cause a cold area? A. Inflammation B. Diminished blood flow C. Muscle spasm D. Hyperactivity 79. What is happening when the pelvis maintains its ideal alignment? A. The abdominal muscles pull downward B. The anterior hip flexors pull downward C. The posterior hip flexors pull upward D. The hyoid bone pulls downward 80. Which muscles are short and strong with flat back posture? A. Hamstrings B. One-joint hip flexors C. Neck flexors D. All of the above
81. What is associated with ideal alignment in the posterior view? A. Level shoulders B. Medial borders of scapulae parallel C. Feet parallel or slight outtoeing D. All of the above 82. Which muscles are weak when the scapula is rotated so the axillary border is more horizontal than normal? A. Serratus anterior and trapezius B. Digastric and psoas C. Platysma and scalenes D. Rectus abdominis and SCM 83. What is a characteristic good alignment for sitting posture? A. A position that requires effort to maintain B. A slightly horizontal position C. The position requires the least expenditure of muscle energy D. The low back is in lordosis 84. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in left handed individuals? A. Right hip abductors B. Right flexor hallucis longus C. Digastric D. Hyoid 85. Where on the SOAP chart would observations about the way a client walks be documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan
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86. Where would the client give a rating to measure the level of discomfort? A. Pain questionnaire B. Insurance form C. SOAP chart D. Client record 87. What inflammation of a small fluid-filled friction-reducing sac caused by overuse of surrounding structures? A. Trigger finger B. Whiplash C. Frozen shoulder D. Bursitis 88. What is an abnormal positioning of the head and neck relative to the body? A. Frozen shoulder B. Bursitis C. Torticollis D. Scoliosis 89. What is treated by decreasing compression on the sciatic nerve? A. Piriformis syndrome B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Torticollis 90. What is characterized by weak supra-hyoids, infrahyoids, longus capitis, and longus cervicis? A. Flat-back posture B. Hyperlordosis C. Hyperkyphosis D. Scoliosis
91. Who popularized the Movement Cure in America, introducing the Swedish movements in the mid 19th century? A. Dr. Ida Rolf B. Dr. John Georg Mezger C. Dr. George H. Taylor D. Elizabeth Dicke 92. Which method associates the diaphragm with a line across the ball of the foot? A. Reflexology B. Shiatsu C. Ayurveda D. Acupressure 93. What would an aromatherapy bath or massage oil of rosemary, thyme, pine and cypress be used for? A. Trigger point therapy B. Moisturizing C. Stimulating D. Marketing 94. Who developed a connective tissue massage technique called Bindegewebmassage? A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr. Estrid Vodder B. James Cyriax C. Elizabeth Dicke D. Joseph Heller 95. What is a Greek word for a person who exercises the mind and body? A. Tsubo B. Tschanpua C. Anma D. Ascete
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96. What is an area of deficient and weak ki in Shiatsu? A. Dosha B. Kyo C. Trigger point D. Governing vessel 97. What refers to the quality of accepting the consequences of one's actions? A. Accountability B. Confidentiality C. Barter D. Networking 98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Sexual misconduct B. Right of refusal C. Informed consent D. All of the above 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Lack of accessibility B. Bigotry C. Inappropriate advertising D. All of the above 100. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Contract B. Other business deals C. Medical advice D. All of the above 101. What is an example of a type of boundary? A. Sexual B. Skeletal system C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
102. What are examples of how boundaries are created, managed, and changed? A. Location and language B. Proprioceptors and joint structure C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. Working on a minor without parental consent is what type of behavior? A. Informed consent violation B. Unethical C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 104. Telling a spouse details about their partner's session is what type of unethical behavior? A. Confidentiality violation B. Practicing beyond scope of practice C. Exploiting the power differential D. None of the above 105. What relates to client information? A. Financial statement B. Confidentiality C. Dual relationship D. None of the above 106. What is within the scope of practice for massage therapists? A. Spinal manipulations B. Assessment C. Prescribing medication D. Diagnosis
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107. What is typically done by a primary care provider and not a massage therapist? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? A. Sexual activity B. Family C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 109. How may laws restrict massage therapists? A. Restrictions on the use of titles B. Restrictions on scope of practice C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 110. Guidance on which topic is typically not found in a code of ethics? A. Fee structure B. Scope of practice C. Professionalism D. All of the above 111. A therapist being uncomfortable massaging a client with an infectious disease involves what type of issue? A. Dual relationship B. Therapist's right of refusal C. Scope of practice D. None of the above
112. What occurs if a therapist begins a sexual relationship with a client? A. Projection B. Sexual misconduct C. Transference D. Networking 113. What is a way to determine the proper height of the massage table? A. Standing straight with hands flat on table B. Standing straight with fingertips touching table C. No more than knee high D. At least chest high 114. All of the following would be appropriate for lubricant storage except: A. Pump dispenser B. Flip-top bottle C. Open container D. Squeezable tube 115. What should be done with rancid linens? A. Wash in ethyl alcohol B. Hang out to dry C. Wash in cold water D. Discard 116. When are hands washed? A. Immediately before gloves are removed B. Between client contacts C. After handling clean linens D. To transfer microorganisms
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117. What is a universal precaution? A. Linens soiled with blood must be placed in a leakproof bag for transportation to the laundry B. Bleach can be added to the laundry for contaminated linens C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 118. Which stance is also known as the archer stance? A. Asymmetric B. Body mechanics C. Laterally recumbent D. Symmetric 119. What is the purpose of draping? A. Warmth and modesty B. Assessment C. To comply with federal law D. None of the above 120. What vitamin is found in brewer's yeast? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B complex C. Camphor D. Eucalyptus 121. What are disadvantages of being an employee? A. Less steady income B. Responsible for own taxes C. Must pay for own facilities and supplies D. None of the above
122. What would be found in a brochure? A. Business plan B. Types of massages C. Tax information D. Start up costs 123. What would determine profit? A. Start-up costs B. Overhead C. Net income D. Gross income 124. Where are barter exchange transactions recorded? A. Schedule K-1 B. Form W-2 C. Form 1099-B D. Form 1098 125. What is the purpose of an S corporation? A. Avoid income tax B. Avoid estimated tax C. Avoid double taxation D. All of the above
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Exam 9 Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. D 42. C 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B D C B B B B C D B B C D B D A C C C B C C C D C C C B A B C C B B D B B A D A C B 85. B 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. A 90. C 91. C 92. A 93. C 94. C 95. D 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. D 100. A 101. A 102. A 103. C 104. A 105. B 106. B 107. B 108. C 109. C 110. A 111. B 112. B 113. A 114. C 115. D 116. B 117. C 118. A 119. A 120. B 121. D 122. B 123. C 124. C 125. C
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Exam 10 1. Which refers to the study of structures that can be examined without a microscope? A. Gross anatomy B. Reflexology C. Immunology D. Systemic anatomy 2. Which is the smallest unit of matter that participates in chemical reactions? A. Cell B. Ion pump C. Atom D. Tissue 3. What is a thin flexible sheet of tissue? A. Organelle B. Cytoplasm C. The matrix D. Membrane 4. What are the four basic types of tissue in the body? A. Stratified, squamous, epithelial, and connective B. Epithelial, cardiac, smooth, and muscle C. Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous D. Stratified, squamous, epithelial, and glandular 5. What classification of bones includes the bones found in the skull? A. Long B. Flat C. Cubed-shaped D. Short 6. Which system is responsible for skeletal movement, moves blood, and generates heat? A. Nervous B. Muscular C. Endocrine D. Skeletal 7. Which component of the peripheral nervous system is working if the client is sweating? A. Somatic B. Pneumonic C. Sympathetic D. Parasympathetic 8. What receives deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Aorta C. Right atrium D. Liver 9. What are the components of the lymphatic system? A. Lymphatic capillaries, lymphatics, arterioles, venules B. Lymph vessels, lymph, arterioles, venules C. Lymph vessels, lymph, lymphoid organs, lymphoid tissue D. Lymph vessels, blood, intestine, liver 10. Which system uses the teeth to break food down into small particles? A. Respiratory B. Reproductive C. Urinary D. Gastrointestinal
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11. What vitamin helps the eyes adjust to darkness? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E 12. Which type of epithelial membrane is the pericardium? A. Mucous B. Serous C. Cervical D. Synovial 13. Which is necessary for hemoglobin? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Iron D. Calcium 14. Which means in front of or toward the front? A. Anterior B. Inferior C. Posterior D. Superior 15. Where are the ribs relative to the lungs? A. Proximal B. Distal C. Superficial D. Deep 16. Which body cavities are generally more superior to the diaphragm? A. Cranial and pelvic B. Thoracic and abdominal C. Thoracic and pelvic D. Cranial and thoracic
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the femoral region? Knee Thigh Groin Abdomen
18. Which method involves the spleen meridian beginning at the great toe, ending in the intercostal space, and being associated with digestion? A. Acupuncture B. Acupressure C. Shiatsu D. All of the above 19. What type of muscle attached to bone has cylindrical muscle fibers, striations, and motor neurons? A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Smooth D. All of the above 20. Which of these muscles inserts on the cartilage of the fifth, sixth, and seventh ribs and the xiphoid process? A. Pectoris major B. Deltoid C. Rectus abdominis D. Erector spinae 21. Where does splenius cervicis insert? A. Hyoid B. Vertebrae C. Occiput D. Mandible
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22. Which are carpals? A. Olecranon process, trochlear notch, styloid B. Cuboid, cuneiforms, navicular C. Acromion process, spine of scapula, clavicle D. Lunate, pisiform, hamate 23. What best describes the organization of the muscle fibers of the deltoid? A. Parallel B. Fusiform C. Circular D. Triangular 24. What is a transverse thickening of connective tissue that straps tendons down? A. Bursa B. Superficial fascia C. Deep fascia D. Retinaculum 25. Which muscle can bring the shoulder to 90 degrees? A. Supraspinatus B. Sternocleidomastoid C. Teres minor D. Vastus medialis 26. Which muscle originates on the lateral one-third of the clavicle, acromion, and spine of the scapula? A. Biceps brachii B. Rectus femoris C. Deltoid D. Trapezius
27. Which muscle originates on the bodies and transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae? A. Psoas major B. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Brachialis 28. What does the tibialis anterior do? A. Plantar flexes and everts foot B. Dorsiflexes and inverts foot C. Flexion of the toes D. Extension of the wrist 29. Which muscle flexes the hip and extends the knee? A. Rectus femoris B. Biceps brachii C. Gluteus minimus D. Psoas major 30. What type of joint allows movement in every plane? A. Gliding B. Ellipsoid C. Hinge D. Ball and socket 31. What are accessory movements of the articulating surfaces of bones at joint surfaces? A. Hypermobility B. Joint play C. Arthrokinematics D. Osteokinematics 32. What kind of joint is described by synarthrosis? A. Freely moveable B. Slightly moveable C. Immoveable D. Ellipsoidal
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33. What is an idiopathic disease? A. A disease with no known cause B. A disease present at birth C. A disease that deteriorates D. A disease spread by mold or yeast 34. What is anaplasia? A. Abnormal tissue growth from uncontrolled cell division B. Cells that fail to mature into specialized cells C. A tissue injury D. Redness, swelling, and heat 35. What occurs as the result a violent or disruptive action or a severe emotional shock? A. Subluxation B. Dysfunction C. Rickets and scurvy D. Trauma 36. Which is generally contraindicated for massage? A. Osteomyelitis B. Sprains C. Joint stiffness D. Headaches 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for lice? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 38. Which adds to the risk of skin cancer? A. Naturally dark skin B. Excessive sun exposure C. Little time outdoors D. Strong immunity
39. What are antianxiety medications, sedatives, antipsychotics, tranquilizers and antidepressants? A. Hormones B. Natural supplements C. Antineoplastics D. Central nervous system medications 40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking respiratory medications? A. Avoid heat hydrotherapy B. The client may be dizzy after the massage C. The massage could produce a skin reddening D. All of the above 41. What natural supplement is used for memory problems? A. Antihistamine B. Bee pollen C. Ginkgo D. Lavender 42. What kind of fracture involves more than one fracture line, with several fragments resulting and much soft tissue damage? A. Greenstick fracture B. Depressed fracture C. Comminuted fracture D. Torticollis 43. What is a developmental problem in which the bones are deformed and fragile as a result of demineralization? A. Gibbus B. Cleft palate C. Clubfoot or talipes D. Osteogenesis imperfect
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44. What is the first stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A. The fight-or-flight response B. The body's initial reaction C. Alarm D. All of the above 45. What is dislocation? A. Tennis elbow B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow C. Displacement of bones of a joint D. Frozen shoulder 46. What is there in the back in a neutral position of the pelvis? A. Flat back B. Lordosis C. Normal anterior curve D. All of the above 47. Which area is associated with the piriformis? A. Cranial cavity B. Anterior triangle of the neck C. Axillary area D. Sciatic notch 48. What are the sides of the posterior triangle of the neck endangerment site? A. Mandible, clavicle, and trachea B. Teres major, mandible, and trachea C. SCM, clavicle, and trapezius D. Mandible, plantaris, and trapezius 49. What is a physiological effect of massage? A. Increased blood clots B. Increasing adhesions C. Release of endorphins D. None of the above
50. Which category of the physiological effects of massage refers to the stimulation of the nervous and endocrine systems? A. Biofield methods B. Reflexive methods C. Mechanical methods D. Energetic methods 51. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Stimulates release of acetylchlorine and histamine for vasodilatation B. Decreases white blood cell count C. Decreases red blood cell count D. Decreases platelet count 52. When should heat be avoided? A. Edema B. Spasms C. Pain D. Circulatory problems 53. What is the temperature of a warm bath? A. Below 32 degrees Fahrenheit B. 95 to 100 degrees Fahrenheit or 35 to 38 degrees Celsius C. 115 degrees Fahrenheit or 43 degrees Celsius D. Above 100 degrees Celsius 54. Which would be most effective in increasing extensibility of collagen tissue? A. Heat B. Cryotherapy C. Ice massage D. Vapocoolant spray
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55. Which uses slow, gliding strokes? A. Compression B. Grounding C. Effleurage D. Petrissage 56. A. B. C. D. Which reduces scar tissue? Petrissage Superficial friction Cross fiber friction Tapotement
61. Which is done with light pressure and long, flowing strokes? A. Vibration B. Feather stroking C. Percussion D. Friction 62. Which stroke is appropriate for treating a tennis player with a sore arm? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Cross-fiber friction D. Percussion 63. Which are strokes that knead? A. Effleurage B. Petrissage C. Percussion D. Tapotement 64. How many types of Swedish massage strokes are there? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 65. Which stroke is used for tapping a large area of the body? A. Effleurage B. Rocking C. Deep tissue D. Percussion 66. Which stroke is most appropriate for the elderly? A. Effleurage B. Friction C. Deep tissue D. Percussion
57. What is a physical effect of massage? A. Increases in muscle cramps and spasms B. Increases circulation of blood and lymph C. Decreases removal of metabolic waste D. Reduces anxiety 58. What is a mechanical effect of massage? A. Reflexive effect B. Indirect physical effect C. Psychological effect D. Direct physical effect 59. What moves joints with no resistance on the part of the client? A. Active joint movements B. Passive joint movements C. Friction D. Effleurage 60. What is a stimulating massage technique? A. Vibration B. Strong percussion for a short period C. Friction D. All of the above
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67. Which is a contraindication for pregnancy massage? A. Toxemia B. Back strain C. Second or third trimester D. Pregnancy is always contraindicated 68. What is a benefit of massage for the critically ill? A. Bring comfort, pleasure and relaxation B. Control pain C. Reduce isolation D. All of the above 69. What does the contrast method use? A. Ice packs B. Cold only C. Heat and cold D. Heat only 70. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Shorten adductor longus and oblique capitis superior B. Lengthen gluteus maximus and longus capitis C. Lengthen biceps femoris and SCM D. Lengthen iliacus and rectus capitis posterior major 71. If a client has tight muscles from holding a telephone on the right shoulder, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Shorten right splenius B. Lengthen right upper trapezius C. Lengthen left upper trapezius D. Lengthen spinalis
72. Which muscles are overactive if a client has low back pain, buttock pain, and hamstring strains when extending the trunk? A. Gluteus maximum and gastrocnemius B. Abdominal complex C. Erector spinae and hamstrings D. Upper trapezius and ipsilateral quadratus lumborum 73. What is done if a client has the foot pulled into forefoot varus with the big toe abducted? A. Lengthen abductor hallucis B. Lengthen adductor hallucis C. Lengthen flexor digitorum longus D. Lengthen tibialis anterior 74. If a client only has 30 minutes for a massage instead of the usual hour, what would be adjusted? A. Depth of pressure B. Duration C. Speed D. Rhythm 75. Regarding faulty posture of the feet, what happens when the toes are in while walking? A. Pronation B. Slue-footed C. Pigeon-toed D. Supination 76. A. B. C. D. Which is more objective? Interviewing Listening Client history Physical assessment
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77. What could be the result of inefficient joint movement during walking that could lead to tissue shortening? A. Homeostasis B. Balance C. Protective muscle contraction D. Normal end feel 78. Which muscles are about 25% to 30% stronger than their antagonists? A. Flexors, internal rotators, and adductors B. Adductors and abductors C. Extensors, external rotators, and abductors D. Mylohyoid and stylohyoid 79. If a client has a forward head position, what is most likely to be true? A. The neck extensors are short B. The neck extensors are weak C. The anterior vertebral neck flexors are short D. The tibial shaft is strong 80. If a client has lordotic posture, which muscles are most likely short and strong? A. Supinators B. Hamstrings and Occipitofrontalis C. Anterior abdominals D. Hip flexors 81. What is associated with ideal alignment in the posterior view? A. Level pelvis B. Straight spine C. Feet parallel or slight outtoeing D. All of the above
82. What is the assessment when the shoulders are elevated and the scapulae adducted? A. Weak serratus anterior B. Tight upper trapezius C. Weak peroneus longus D. Tight quadratus lumborum 83. What is the appropriate angle for the hip and knees for good alignment in sitting posture? A. 0 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 135 degrees 84. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in left handed individuals? A. Sacrum B. Coccyx C. Right flexor digitorum longus D. Left lateral trunk muscles 85. Where on the SOAP chart would the therapist's visual observations of muscle guarding be documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 86. What would not require treatment for whiplash? A. Shoulder B. Neck C. SCM D. Hamstrings
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87. What is the swelling of the tendons in a finger due to overuse? A. Trigger finger B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Medial epicondylitis D. Tennis elbow 88. Which is a treatment for frozen shoulder? A. Reduce fascial restrictions B. Increase range of motion C. Reduce hypertonicity and trigger points D. All of the above 89. What involves painful degenerative changes to the articular cartilage on the kneecap? A. Piriformis syndrome B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Patellofemoral syndrome 90. What is treated by stretching the pecs, subclavius, serratus anterior, and the anterior intercostals? A. Flat-back posture B. Hyperlordosis C. Hyperkyphosis D. Scoliosis 91. What did Elizabeth Dicke develop because she was suffering from impaired circulation in the leg? A. Acupuncture B. Manual lymph drainage C. Reflexology D. Connective tissue massage
92. Which method associates the waist with a line across the metatarsals? A. Reflexology B. Swedish C. Ayurveda D. Trigger point therapy 93. Which is best for removing waste? A. Manual lymphatic drainage B. Reciprocal inhibition C. Deep transverse friction D. Hellerwork 94. Who developed a structural integration technique called Hellerwork? A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr. Estrid Vodder B. James Cyriax C. Elizabeth Dicke D. Joseph Heller 95. What is the primary technique of neuromuscular therapy? A. Acupressure B. Gliding C. Tapotement D. All of the above 96. What are energy forces used in Indian and Hindu methods? A. Doshas B. Synergists C. Acupuncture points D. Acupressure points 97. What is the standard of conduct, goals, and qualities of workers in the same field? A. Budget B. Confidentiality C. Ledger D. Professionalism
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98. What would describe the relationship when an experienced therapist with a PhD performs a massage on a new therapist? A. Informed consent B. Power differential C. Right of refusal D. Dual role 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Working on a minor without parental knowledge B. Informed consent C. Client-centered actions and words D. Right of refusal 100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Bigotry B. Inappropriate advertising C. Confidentiality D. Lack of accessibility 101. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Confidentiality B. Medical advice C. Social needs D. All of the above 102. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Client-centered actions and words B. Social needs C. Scope of practice D. All of the above
103. What are boundaries? A. Limits, barriers, borders, edges B. Time, location, language C. Clothing, space, touch, money D. None of the above 104. What is needed before working on a minor? A. Psychological counseling B. Parental consent C. Contract D. All of the above 105. Dating a client is what type of unethical behavior? A. Financial impropriety B. Bigotry C. Dual relationship violation D. None of the above 106. What is appropriate for a therapist to do when seeing a client in a restaurant? A. Ask how the last massage was B. Do not bring up anything about the massage C. Ask for a referral D. None of the above 107. What is outside the scope of practice for a massage therapist? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? A. Client/practitioner reversal B. Body mechanics C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
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109. What is done by governments rather than associations? A. Licensing B. Credentialing C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 110. Which is unethical? A. Advertising B. Business cards C. Discrimination based on race or religion D. None of the above 111. What is a client's right to stop any part of treatment? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Right of refusal 112. What is appropriate for addressing erections in clients if the client shows no signs of discomfort? A. Establish and maintain appropriate boundaries B. It is not necessary to mention it if the therapist is comfortable C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is the proper room temperature for a general relaxation massage? A. 55 to 60 degrees B. 66 to 68 degrees C. 72 to 74 degrees D. 78 to 80 degrees
114. Handwashing with soap and water is an example of what level of decontamination? A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. All of the above 115. All of the following are organisms that can cause disease in other organisms except: A. Pathogen B. Pathogenic microorganism C. Cornstarch D. Germs 116. What are standard infection precautions designed to do? A. Improve mobility B. Control pain C. Prevent blood and other body secretions from entering practitioner's body D. All of the above 117. What reduces the risk of injury to the practitioner from positioning? A. Body mechanics B. Gloves C. Sanitation D. Draping 118. Which stance is known as the horse stance? A. Asymmetric B. Body mechanics C. Laterally recumbent D. Symmetric
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119. What is in butter, egg yolks and yellow vegetables? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B complex C. Aloe D. Vitamin D 120. Who gets W-2 forms? A. Independent contractors B. Employer C. Employees D. The massage board 121. How is a business card used? A. Licensing B. Tax C. Marketing D. Insurance 122. What would the cost of obtaining credentials and a business license be? A. Start-up costs B. Overhead C. Net income D. Gross income 123. Where are fees for subcontractors recorded? A. Schedule K-1 B. Form 1099-MISC C. Form 1098 D. Form W-2 124. What could be limited by keeping accurate records? A. Liability B. Marketing C. Insurance D. Barter income
125. What is a relationship between two or more persons to carry on a trade or business? A. S Corporation B. Partnership C. Sole proprietorship D. LLC
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Exam 10 Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. C 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. D 40. D 41. C 42. C 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. D D C C D C C B A A B A C C B D B D B C B C D A A D C D B C A B C D C A A D D B C C 85. B 86. D 87. A 88. D 89. D 90. C 91. D 92. A 93. A 94. D 95. B 96. A 97. D 98. B 99. A 100. C 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. B 105. C 106. B 107. B 108. A 109. A 110. C 111. D 112. C 113. C 114. A 115. C 116. C 117. A 118. D 119. A 120. C 121. C 122. A 123. B 124. A 125. B
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Exam 11 1. Which refers to the study of functional or physiologic changes in the body that result from various disease processes? A. Craniosacral therapy B. Anatomic pathology C. Clinical reasoning D. Pathophysiology 2. Which is the process of breaking down substances and releasing energy? A. Catabolism B. Assessment C. Exchange D. Reversible reaction 3. What is one of the most abundant tissues in the body that binds together other tissues? A. Ground tissue B. Epithelial tissue C. Connective tissue D. Muscular tissue 4. What are the most common sweat glands? A. Eccrine glands B. Bursitis C. Apocrine glands D. Hair follicles 5. Which bones are included in the axial skeleton? A. Pelvic girdle, bones of lower and upper limbs B. Skull, hands, ribs, sacrum, and shoulder C. Skull, vertebrae, feet, shoulder, and hyoid bone D. Skull, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, and hyoid bone 6. What is usually the stationary bone? A. Origin B. Insertion C. Prime mover D. Synergist 7. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for detecting impulses from touch? A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Femoral D. Mastoid 8. What is the order of these major endocrine glands, starting with most superior / cranial? A. Pineal, pituitary, thyroid, thymus, pancreas B. Pituitary, pineal, thymus, thyroid, patella C. Pineal, pituitary, cervical, thyroid, thymus D. Pituitary, pineal, pancreas, thymus, thyroid 9. Which system includes vessels, nodes, the spleen, tonsils, thymus gland, and bone marrow? A. Cardiovascular B. Lymphatic C. Respiratory D. Gastrointestinal 10. Which system helps regulates blood volume and blood pressure? A. Lymphatic B. Respiratory C. Gastrointestinal D. Urinary
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11. What are the parts of the small intestine, in order starting with the part leading off from the stomach? A. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum B. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum C. Jejunum, ileum, dura matter D. Jasmine, duodenum, ileum 12. What regulates blood coagulation? A. Zinc B. Vitamin K C. Mugwort D. Lavender 13. A deficiency of which vitamin prolongs bloodclotting time and causes bleeding? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K 14. Which means the palm side of the hand? A. Varus B. Valgus C. Plantar D. Volar 15. Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions? A. Frontal or coronal plane B. Parasagittal plane C. Oblique plane D. All of the above 16. Which means inside or away from the surface? A. Deep B. Internal C. Proximal D. Superficial
17. A. B. C. D.
Where is the inguinal region? Knee Thigh Groin Abdomen
18. Under what theory does water correspond to the kidney and bladder? A. Yin and yang B. Five elements C. Ayurveda D. Yoga 19. Which of these muscles inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur? A. Psoas major B. Biceps femoris C. Gracilis D. Rectus femoris 20. A. B. C. D. Where does sartorius insert? Femur Tibia Fibula Calcaneus
21. What is the attachment site for the hamstrings, adductor magnus, and the sacrotuberous ligament? A. Sternum B. Occiput C. Ischial tuberosity D. Greater tubercle of the humerus 22. A. B. C. D. What type of joint is the hip? Pivot Saddle Ball and socket Gliding
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23. Which muscles attach to the coracoid process? A. Pectoralis minor, coracobrachialis, biceps B. Latissimus dorsi, teres major, supraspinatus C. Biceps brachii, triceps, deltoid D. Genohyoid, stylohyoid, thyrohyoid 24. Which is superficial with a medial portion deep to the trapezius and a lateral portion deep to the deltoid? A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Biceps femoris D. Piriformis 25. Which muscle inserts on the lateral one-third of the clavicle, acromion, and spine of the scapula? A. Deltoid B. Trapezius C. Biceps brachii D. Psoas major 26. Which muscle inverts the foot and dorsiflexes the ankle? A. Tibialis anterior B. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Trapezius 27. Which muscle should be stretched for kyphosis? A. Platysma B. Pectoralis major C. Scalenes D. Adductors
28. Which muscle is associated with spasmodic torticollis? A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Rectus abdominis C. Erector spinae D. Iliopsoas 29. Flexing the arm is an example of what type of lever? A. First class lever B. Second class lever C. Third class lever D. Fulcrum 30. What is a joint in which a thin layer of hyaline growth cartilage connects two bones such as the first sternocostal joint? A. Fusiform B. Synovial C. Ball and socket D. Synchondrosis 31. What occurs moving sideways from the sagittal plane in a coronal direction? A. Circumduction B. Plantar flexion C. Abduction and adduction D. Flexion and extension 32. Which would predominantly have slow twitch fibers? A. Supinator B. Soleus C. Deltoid D. Biceps brachii 33. What kind of disease involves the breakdown of tissues? A. Degenerative B. Fungal C. Idiopathic D. Congenital
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34. What is characterized by heat, redness, swelling, and pain? A. Hyperplasia B. Inflammation C. Anaplasia D. Malignant 35. When is homeostasis most optimal? A. Infancy B. Senopia C. Adolescence D. Senescence 36. What involves the reexperiencing of flashback memory? A. Panic B. Dysfunction C. Posttraumatic stress disorder D. Trauma 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for irritable bowel syndrome? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 38. What is maintained by the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems working together? A. Entrainment B. Toughening / hardening C. Conservation withdrawal D. Homeostasis
39. What are antitussives, expectorants, decongestants, bronchodilators, and antihistamines? A. Central nervous system medications B. Analgesics C. Anti-inflammatory medications D. Respiratory medications 40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking thyroid medications? A. Changes in stress level may affect the dose B. Avoid draping the client C. Avoid Swedish massage methods D. Massage may help with constipation 41. What is a rheumatoid inflammatory disorder in which spinal ligaments ossify? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Spondylolisthesis C. Tinnitus D. Torticollis 42. A. B. C. D. What has a calming scent? Saw palmetto Bee pollen Ginkgo Lavender
43. What is the general adaptation syndrome? A. Alarm, resistance, exhaustion B. Heat, redness, swelling, pain C. Pain-spasm-pain cycle D. Increase in pain as a result of muscle exertion
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44. What is one's opinion of one's self? A. Self-concept B. Emotions C. Behavior D. Denial 45. A. B. C. What is subluxation? Tennis elbow Golfer's or pitcher's elbow Partial displacement of bones of a joint D. Frozen shoulder
50. Which is an effect of massage that can be processed through the autonomic nervous system? A. Sympathetic activation and stress B. Parasympathetic patterns and conservation withdrawal C. Entrainment D. All of the above 51. What includes reflexive methods and mechanical methods? A. Neuroendocrine interaction B. Homeostasis C. Ischemia D. Physiological effects of massage 52. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Anemia C. Asthma D. All of the above 53. What uses hot vapors in a confined area for temperatures from 105 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit with 100% humidity? A. Steam bath B. Sauna C. Whirlpool D. Shower or spray 54. Which stroke would be best for bronchitis? A. Friction B. Tapotement C. Petrissage D. Effleurage
46. What is a lateral tilt of the spine? A. Kyphosis B. List C. Sprain D. Lordosis 47. Which nerve is associated with the heart, lungs, kidneys, and the gastrointestinal tract? A. Ulnar B. Vagus C. Transverse D. Radial 48. What is in danger of being compressed in the inguinal triangle endangerment site? A. Femoral nerve B. Radial nerve C. Cranial cavity D. Tibial nerve 49. What is the result of physical forces such as compression, stretching, shearing, broadening, and vibration of tissues? A. Mechanical effects B. Physiological effects C. Entrainment D. Mind-body effects
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55. Which focuses on pain and explores the soft tissue components of pain? A. Cross fiber friction B. Energetic methods C. Reflexology D. Neuromuscular therapy 56. Which stroke involves a slight trembling of the hand? A. Vibration B. Cupping C. Kneading D. Gliding 57. What is a PNF technique in which the client contracts the antagonist to the target muscle? A. Direct manipulation (DM) B. Petrissage C. Post-isometric contraction (PIR) D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) 58. What is not a physical effect of massage? A. Increases metabolism B. Speeds healing C. Reduces tension and anxiety D. Improves functions of lymphatic system 59. A. B. C. D. What is shaking or trembling? Vibration Percussion Friction Ischemic compression
61. What stimulates the sympathetic nervous system? A. Pre-event sports massage B. Long massage C. Relaxation massage D. All of the above 62. A. B. C. D. Which stroke is effleurage? Vibration Deep gliding Percussion Friction
63. Which stroke is not a type of friction? A. Transverse B. Cross fiber C. Skin rolling D. Circular 64. What stretching technique involves bobbing or bouncing during the stretch? A. Ballistic stretching B. Positional release (PR) C. Post-isometric contraction (PIR) D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) 65. Yoga is an example of which stretching technique? A. Unassisted static stretching B. Ballistic stretching C. Assisted static stretching D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) 66. What stoke is usually performed to end a massage? A. Effleurage B. Petrissage C. Percussion D. Tapotement
60. What is initiated by sympathetic stimulation? A. Accelerated heart rate B. Blood diverted to muscles C. Elimination and digestion inhibited D. All of the above
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67. Which stroke would not require lubricant? A. Light effleurage B. Nerve strokes C. Feather strokes D. Compression 68. Which is not advisable for pregnancy massage? A. Light effleurage B. Abdominal massage C. Side-lying position D. Supine position 69. What would benefit from the R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? A. Sprains and strains B. Circulatory problems C. Infectious diseases D. Cancer 70. If a client has a prominent or high right hip, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch right lateral trunk muscles B. Stretch low back muscles C. Stretch shoulder adductors D. Stretch hamstrings 71. If a client has tight muscles from holding a telephone on the left shoulder, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Shorten left gluteus maximus B. Lengthen right upper trapezius C. Lengthen semitendinosus D. Lengthen left splenius 72. What is done if a client has hallux valgus? A. Lengthen teres major B. Lengthen adductor hallucis C. Lengthen temporalis D. Lengthen tibialis anterior
73. Which muscle is weak if a client has low back pain, buttock pain, and hamstring strains when extending the trunk? A. Gluteus maximum B. Gastrocnemius C. Tibialis anterior D. Upper trapezius 74. What would be a good position to start a massage for clients with back pain and tension? A. Supine B. Prone C. Side-lying D. Horizontal 75. What are the last three SOAPIER headings? A. Inflammation, evaluation, referral B. Intervention, e-mail, record C. Integrity, exceptions, revisions D. Intervention, evaluation, revisions 76. Which involves observing basic body movements of walking to recognize dysfunctional and inefficient patterns? A. Gait assessment B. Needs assessment C. Posture assessment D. Palpation 77. Which tend to shorten and increase in tension when under strain? A. Postural muscles B. Mover muscles C. Phasic muscles D. Soft tissues
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78. If a client has a forward head position, what is most likely to be true? A. The neck extensors are long B. The neck extensors are weak C. The anterior vertebral neck flexors are short D. The anterior vertebral neck flexors are weak 79. Which muscles are elongated and weak with kyphoticlordotic posture? A. Neck extensors B. Upper back erector spinae C. Hip flexors D. All of the above 80. What is associated with lordotic posture? A. Hyperextended lumbar spine B. Flexed knees C. Posterior pelvic tilt D. All of the above 81. Where are the feet in standard posture? A. Heels 3 inches apart and angle of out-toeing 8 to 10 degrees from the midline B. Heels 3 inches apart and angle of in-toeing 8 to 10 degrees from the midline C. Posterior to the outer malleolus and through the apex of the arch D. Anterior to the outer malleolus and through the apex of the arch
82. Which muscles are tight when the shoulders are elevated and the scapulae adducted? A. Platysma B. Rectus abdominis C. Upper trapezius D. Lower trapezius 83. A. B. C. D. What is genu valgum? Knee hyperextension Knock-knees Bowlegs Genu varum
84. Where is the gravity line in the back view of standing posture? A. Coronal plane B. Midsagittal plane C. Transverse plane D. Zero position 85. What is the obtained before performing a massage? A. Availability for next appointment B. Payment in cash C. Intake form D. Referrals 86. What assessment involves observing the client walk? A. Palpation B. Gait C. Needs D. Functional 87. What is characterized by forward head posture and an increase in the cervical lordotic curve? A. Plantar fasciitis B. Whiplash C. Frozen shoulder D. Migraine
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88. Which is a treatment for frozen shoulder? A. Heat in the acute stage B. Heat in the freezing phase C. Increase range of motion D. All of the above 89. What involves a thickening of the muscle that provides lateral support at the knee? A. Piriformis syndrome B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 90. What involves protracted scapulae and head-forward posture? A. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. Scoliosis C. Hyperkyphosis D. Iliotibial band contracture 91. In polarity therapy, what are the five major body currents? A. Doshas B. Chakras C. Air, wind, earth, sun, and moon D. Ether, air, fire, water, and earth 92. Which method uses a heel line across the calcaneus? A. Swedish B. Shiatsu C. Trigger point therapy D. Reflexology 93. What is the appropriate duration of pressure on a trigger point? A. 1 to 2 seconds B. 8 to 12 seconds C. 30 to 40 seconds D. 3 to 4 minutes
94. What is responsible for all yang meridians? A. Contraindication B. Governing vessel C. Ayurveda D. Marketing 95. What are the seven centers of the Prana used in Indian or Hindu practices? A. The Five Elements B. Transference C. Range of motion D. Chakras 96. Which massage system uses the stimulation of acupuncture points to regulate chi, the life force energy? A. Greek B. Indian C. Chinese D. Swedish 97. Which section of a standards of practice would contain guidance on client files and sharing information? A. Insurance B. Tax C. Confidentiality D. Business practices 98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Exploiting the power differential C. Right of refusal D. Working on a minor with parental knowledge
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99. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Right of refusal B. Practicing beyond the scope of practice C. Sexual misconduct D. Misrepresentation of educational status 100. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Consistency B. Informed consent C. Right of refusal D. All of the above 101. What can be interpersonal, physical, emotional, sexual or intellectual? A. Informed consent B. Boundaries C. Consumer rights D. None of the above 102. What is needed before working on a minor? A. Parental consent B. Contract C. Medical advice D. All of the above 103. Hugging a client in a sexual manner is what type of unethical behavior? A. Accessibility violation B. Sexual misconduct C. Practicing beyond the scope of practice D. None of the above
104. What is the issue if a therapist mentions the name of a famous client without permission? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Confidentiality violation 105. What is appropriate for a therapist to do when seeing a client in a public place? A. Ask how the last massage was B. Do not bring up anything about the massage C. Ask when the therapist can expect payment D. All of the above 106. What is appropriate when a client says they are going to stop taking their prescription medication now? A. Suggest the client discuss it with their primary care provider B. Tell the client it is OK to stop taking the medication C. Prescribe a different medication D. All of the above 107. Massaging a friend involves what type of issue? A. Financial impropriety B. Scope of practice C. Dual relationship D. None of the above 108. Who issues credentials? A. The government B. Associations C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above
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109. Which is unethical? A. Advertising B. Professionalism C. Bigotry D. All of the above 110. What is an appropriate interview technique? A. Discussing finances B. Gossiping C. Discussing personal issues D. Listening 111. What is the most appropriate response if a caller asks if the massage includes a happy ending? A. Schedule an appointment B. Call 911 C. Remain professional and explain the services D. Provide a referral 112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Clarify intentions towards clients B. Sexual innuendo C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. How should massage oil, cream, or lotion be removed from a container? A. With the fingers B. Without touching the product C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 114. What can disinfect floors, surfaces and restrooms? A. Warm water B. Cresol or Lysol C. Cold water D. All of the above
115. What is a universal precaution? A. Gloves shall be worn if there is potential for direct contact with body fluids B. Hands must not be washed after removing gloves C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 116. How often should hydrotherapy tubs, steam cabinets, shower stalls and wet tables be disinfected? A. Every hour B. Between each use C. Daily D. Weekly 117. What is a safety practice regarding equipment? A. Check all stools and tables for stability B. Maintain electrical cords C. Store equipment and linens properly D. All of the above 118. Which first aid kit item would be used to treat an external rash? A. Antibiotic B. Antiseptic C. Aspirin D. Hydrocortisone 119. What prevents muscle strain and overuse injuries when used properly? A. Gloves B. Draping C. Body mechanics D. All of the above
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120. Which stance is best for effleurage? A. Symmetric B. Seated C. Archer stance D. Horse stance 121. Which fat-soluble vitamin is formed within the body from alpha, beta, and gamma carotene? A. Vitamin A B. Niacin C. Vitamin C D. Aloe 122. What are disadvantages of self-employment? A. Less steady income B. Flexibility C. Keep greater portion of fees D. All of the above 123. How much of barter income must be reported to the IRS? A. 40% B. 50% C. 100% D. 0% 124. What form is used for depreciation? A. Schedule K-1 B. Form 1099 C. Form W-2 D. Form 4562 125. What is deductible as a business expense? A. Royalties B. Cost of equipment C. Tips D. Barter income
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Exam 11 Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. C 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. A 41. A 42. D 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. A A C B B A A D D D A B D A D C A D A B C A A A D B A A D B A B D A A D B A A C B B 85. C 86. B 87. B 88. C 89. B 90. C 91. D 92. D 93. B 94. B 95. D 96. C 97. C 98. B 99. A 100. D 101. B 102. A 103. B 104. D 105. B 106. A 107. C 108. B 109. C 110. D 111. C 112. A 113. B 114. B 115. A 116. B 117. D 118. D 119. C 120. C 121. A 122. A 123. C 124. D 125. B
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Exam 12 1. Which refers to the study of the nature and causes of disease as related to structure and function of the body? A. Pathology B. Anatomy C. Swedish massage D. Metabolism 2. Which is the process of building up potential energy? A. Lordosis B. Anabolism C. Joint movement D. Reversible reaction 3. Which is the first line of defense for the body? A. Fibroblasts B. Lymph nodes C. The skin D. The heart 4. Which type of serous membrane covers the lungs? A. Pleura B. Pericardium C. Craniosacral D. Lavender 5. Which system includes the skin, hair, and nails? A. Nervous B. Musculoskeletal C. Lymphatic D. Integumentary 6. What are the three types of muscle tissue? A. Striated, cardiac, and smooth B. Skeletal, axial, and appendicular C. Skeletal, cardiac, and digestive D. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth 7. Which is the "fight or flight" nervous system? A. Reflex arc B. Sympathetic C. Somatic D. Parasympathetic 8. What receives deoxygenated blood from the body? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Right atrium C. Pulmonary veins D. Left atrium 9. What moves lymph? A. Ion pumps B. Muscles C. Gravity D. Osmosis 10. What is the order of these parts of the urinary system, starting with the part connected to the renal artery and vein? A. Bladder, ureter, urethra, spleen B. Kidney, liver, bladder, ureter C. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra D. Kidney, ulnar nerve, ureter, urethra
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11. In what order of the colons does food pass through the large intestine? A. Descending, transverse, ascending, serous B. Ascending, sigmoid, descending, transverse C. Ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid D. Ascending, descending, neurological, sigmoid 12. Which vitamin is necessary for the formation of red blood cells? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B-12 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 13. What is the relationship of the skin to the muscles? A. Deep B. Internal C. Proximal D. Superficial 14. Which plane divides the body into equal left and right sides? A. Midsagittal or median plane B. Sagittal or parasagittal plane C. Oblique plane D. All of the above 15. Which body cavity contains the psoas major? A. Distal B. Pelvic C. Thoracic D. Abdominal 16. A. B. C. D. Which group is more medial? Abductors Adductors Hamstrings Quadriceps
17. Under what theory does wood correspond to the liver and gallbladder? A. Lomi lomi B. Yin and yang C. Five elements D. Acupressure 18. Under what theory does metal correspond to the lung and large intestine? A. Positional release B. Yin and yang C. Myofascial approach D. Five elements 19. Which of these muscles inserts on the anterior surface of the medial border of the scapula? A. Pectoralis major B. Rotatores C. Serratus anterior D. Deltoid 20. A. B. C. D. Where does the soleus insert? Femur Tibia Mandible Calcaneus
21. What is the spherically shaped attachment site for the tendons of the wrist and hand flexors? A. Coccyx B. Greater trochanter of femur C. Medial epicondyle of the humerus D. Nuchal line of the occiput
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22. What bony landmark locates the proximal end of the ulna? A. Lamina groove B. Coracoid process C. Pubic crest D. Olecranon process 23. A. B. C. D. Which is found near C-6? Deltoid ligament Carotid tubercle Metatarsals Medial malleolus
28. Which group is primarily responsible for flexing the knee? A. Abductors B. Adductors C. Hamstrings D. Quadriceps 29. Which muscle flexes, extends, medially and laterally rotates, and abducts the hip? A. Digastric B. Biceps femoris C. Gluteus minimus D. Psoas major 30. What type of lever has effort applied at a point between the load and the fulcrum? A. Ball and socket B. Second class lever C. Third class lever D. Isotonic 31. What is the movement of bones by action of the muscles? A. Hypermobility B. Hypomobility C. Anatomy D. Osteokinematics 32. What is the structural limit on the range of motion? A. Anatomic range of motion B. Physiologic range of motion C. Hypermobility D. Pathologic range of motion 33. What is temporary pain after an operation? A. Intractable pain B. Phantom pain C. Referred pain D. Acute pain
24. What is the functional class of the joints between the tibia and fibula? A. Synarthrosis B. Gomphosis C. Diathrosis D. Amphiarthrosis 25. Which is a small muscle high on the axilla? A. Supraspinatus B. Tibialis anterior C. Teres minor D. Adductor pollicis 26. Which muscles are responsible for depression or protraction of the scapula? A. Deltoid and pronator teres B. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor C. Biceps brachii and triceps brachii D. Rectus femoris and vastus lateralis 27. Which muscle originates on the proximal lateral surface of the tibia? A. Tibialis anterior B. Biceps femoris C. Extensor digitorum D. Tibialis posterior
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34. A. B. C. D.
What is a neoplasm? Cells that fail to mature Ringing in the ears An infectious disease A tumor resulting from hyperplasia
35. What is a condition in which all functions are normally active and a state of complete well-being? A. Pathogenicity B. Entrainment C. Health D. Stages of lifecycle 36. What describes the vague uneasiness when a client does not remember the details of abuse? A. Degenerative B. Detachment C. Reenactment D. Congenital 37. Which can be indicated for massage at all stages, except for circulatory massage? A. Herpes zoster B. HIV C. Leukemia D. Renal failure 38. What is an injury or disease that is a short-term condition that resolves through normal healing processes and care? A. Acute B. Sub-acute C. Chronic D. Debilitating
39. What are calcium channel blockers, antiarrhythmics, diuretics, cardiac glycerides, anticoagulants, and antihyperlipidemics? A. Cardiovascular medications B. Gastrointestinal medications C. Hormones D. Anti-infectives 40. What are the implications of massage for a client taking anticholinergics and narcotics? A. The relaxation effects of massage may be altered B. Recommend alternative medications C. Stop massage if heart rate drops below 120 beats per minute D. Avoid energetic massage methods 41. What is the moving forward of one vertebra onto another? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Spondylolisthesis C. Whiplash D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 42. What is the inflammatory response? A. Alarm, resistance, exhaustion B. Heat, redness, swelling, pain C. Pain-spasm-pain cycle D. Increase in pain as a result of muscle exertion 43. What is inflammation of a tendon sheath? A. Tendonitis B. Tenosynovitis C. Calcific tendonitis D. Fracture
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44. What is a way of coping with stress by ignoring stressors? A. Relaxation B. Denial C. Breathing D. Anxiety 45. A. B. C. What is tendonitis? Inflammation of a tendon Hernia Partial displacement of bones of a joint D. Full displacement of bones of a joint
50. What is the result of improving the flow of energy within or around the body? A. Mechanical effects B. Energetic effects C. Reflex effects D. Stretching 51. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder B. Autism C. Burn victims D. All of the above 52. When should hydrotherapy be avoided? A. Extremely high or low blood pressure B. Lung disease C. Cardiac impairment D. All of the above 53. What involves streams of water under pressure? A. Immersion bath B. Shower or spray C. Whirlpool D. Sauna 54. What is the maximum temperature that the skin can tolerate for steam vapor? A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0 degrees Celsius B. 95 to 100 degrees Fahrenheit or 35 to 38 degrees Celsius C. 100 to 115 degrees Fahrenheit or 38 to 46 degrees Celsius D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60 degrees Celsius
46. What is associated with lordotic posture? A. Normal cervical spine B. Normal thoracic spine C. Anterior pelvic tilt D. All of the above 47. Which nerve is associated with the hand and wrist flexors? A. Ulnar B. Vagus C. Axillary D. Sagittal 48. What is in danger of being compressed in the popliteal fossa endangerment site? A. Femoral nerve B. Radial nerve C. Sacral region D. Tibial nerve 49. What are the relaxation response and anxiety reduction examples of? A. Mechanical effects B. Hard end feel C. Reflex effects D. Mind-body effects
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55. What is produced when muscles are kneaded? A. Slip B. Grounding C. Centering D. Heat 56. A. B. C. D. Which reduces scar tissue? Effleurage Gliding Stretching or pulling Percussion
61. What massage movement hastens the flow of blood through the superficial veins? A. Light percussion B. Light stroking C. Light massage D. Friction 62. Which is a percussion movement? A. Slapping B. Kneading C. Gliding D. Friction 63. Which stroke presses one layer against another? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Fulling D. Friction 64. Which stroke is not a type of percussion? A. Hacking B. Kneading C. Slapping D. Tapping 65. Which stroke is appropriate for constipation? A. Counterclockwise effleurage B. Clockwise effleurage C. Slapping D. Tapping 66. Which stroke tones weak muscles? A. Effleurage B. Nerve strokes C. Gliding D. Tapotement
57. Which is a Muscle Energy Technique? A. Touch therapy B. Rolfing C. Reciprocal inhibition D. Trigger point therapy 58. What is a reflexive effect of massage? A. Mechanical effect B. Indirect physical effect C. Psychological effect D. Direct physical effect 59. A. B. C. D. What is kneading? Vibration Percussion Petrissage Ischemic compression
60. What is initiated by stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Reduced heart rate B. Blood diverted to internal organs C. Increased elimination and digestion D. All of the above
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67. What is a guideline for massaging persons with cancer? A. Deep pressure, shorter sessions B. Light to moderate pressure, shorter sessions C. Light to moderate pressure, longer sessions D. Deep pressure, longer sessions 68. What is the eventual feeling from applying ice? A. Uncomfortable cold B. Total numbness C. Inflammation D. Spasm 69. Which hydrotherapy application would benefit chronic muscle spasms most? A. Ice bath B. Contrast method C. Diathermy D. Cryotherapy 70. If a client has a flexed knee, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch the knee flexors B. Stretch the low back muscles C. Stretch the fascia lata D. Stretch the metatarsophalangeal joints 71. If a client has the wrist flexed to the radial side, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen flexor carpi radialis B. Lengthen flexor carpi ulnaris C. Lengthen occipitofrontalis D. Lengthen vastus lateralis
72. What is done if a client has restricted flexion of the knee? A. Lengthen latissimus dorsi B. Lengthen deltoid C. Lengthen tibialis anterior D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris 73. Where would a trigger point on the deltoid refer pain? A. Head and face, occipital regions, ear, forehead B. Down the lateral side of the arm C. Sacroiliac region, buttock and down posterior thigh D. Popliteal region and ulnar side of arm 74. What are self care recommendations? A. Diagnosis B. Suggestions C. Prescriptions D. Referrals 75. Where on the SOAP chart are functional outcomes recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 76. Which involves observing the client's gravitation line, balance and symmetry? A. Gait assessment B. Needs assessment C. Posture assessment D. Palpation 77. Which jump into action quickly and tire quickly? A. Postural muscles B. Stabilizer muscles C. Phasic muscles D. Soft tissues
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78. In which muscles can tension be felt? A. Weak muscles B. Atrophied muscles C. Concentrically short or eccentrically long muscles D. Eccentrically short or concentrically long muscles 79. What is there in the back with a posterior tilt of the pelvis? A. Lateral pelvic tilt B. Lordosis C. Sway back or flat back D. All of the above 80. Which muscles are elongated and weak with sway-back posture? A. Upper fibers of the internal obliques B. One-joint hip flexors C. Hamstrings D. All of the above 81. Which are short and strong with the right hip joint adducted and medially rotated, left hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Left lateral trunk muscles, right hip abductors and left hip adductors B. Left peroneus longus and brevis and right tibialis posterior C. Left flexor hallucis longus and left flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above
82. What is the assessment when the scapula is rotated so the axillary border is more horizontal than normal? A. Weak serratus anterior B. Tight upper trapezius C. Tight SCM D. Weak quadratus lumborum 83. What happens when the armrests of a chair are too high? A. The hips are flexed B. The shoulders will be pushed upward C. The arms will not have proper support D. Neck and back strain 84. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in right handed individuals? A. Left hip abductors B. Right tibialis anterior C. Left flexor digitorum longus D. Right lateral trunk muscles 85. What is the next step of the client consultation after the initial greeting? A. Determine client's needs and expectations B. Perform massage C. Formulate treatment plan D. SOAP chart 86. Where on the SOAP chart would the changes due to the massage be documented? A. Subjective B. Observation C. Assessment D. Plan
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87. What causes pain in the toeoff stage of gait? A. Plantar fasciitis B. Whiplash C. Frozen shoulder D. Migraine 88. What would require treating and stretching the affected sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Torticollis B. Tennis elbow C. Frozen shoulder D. Bursitis 89. What is treated by stretching the tensor fascia lata and gluteus maximus? A. Whiplash B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 90. What involves an increased anterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion? A. Hyperlordosis B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Scoliosis D. Iliotibial band contracture 91. In polarity therapy, what does the left side represent? A. Negative receptive energy B. Meridian C. Chakra D. Heel line 92. Which method associates the brain with the great toe? A. Swedish B. Reflexology C. Shiatsu D. Ayurveda
93. Who was an English surgeon who practiced chirurgy, or healing with the hands? A. Per Henrik Ling B. Dr. John Georg Mezger C. Dr. George H. Taylor D. John Grosvenor 94. What technique of neuromuscular therapy uses the thumb to move across tissues? A. Acupressure B. Gliding C. Tapotement D. All of the above 95. What is responsible for all yin meridians? A. Conception Vessel B. Antagonist C. Protective gear D. Strategic planning 96. Which uses doshas such as vata, pitta, and kapha? A. Swedish massage B. Trigger point therapy C. Shiatsu D. Ayurveda 97. What is most likely involved when a client makes a decision based on whether the therapist is male or female? A. Hostile touch B. Influence of age on touch C. Cultural influences D. Gender issues 98. What means a client can stop treatment? A. Informed consent B. Power differential C. Right of refusal D. Dual role
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99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Misrepresenting educational status B. Right of refusal C. Informed consent D. All of the above 100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Right of refusal B. Dating a client C. Working on a minor without parental consent D. All of the above 101. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Medical advice B. Psychological counseling C. Other business deals D. All of the above 102. What is an example of a boundary? A. Border B. Tissue injury and repair C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. What might make a client reluctant to make special requests while on the massage table? A. Power differential B. Business records C. Principles D. Body mechanics 104. Working on a minor without parental consent is what type of unethical behavior? A. Informed consent violation B. Outside scope of practice C. Contraindication violation D. None of the above
105. Asking a professional for advice during the session is what type of unethical behavior? A. Professionalism B. Financial impropriety C. Exploiting the power differential D. None of the above 106. Treating an injury without permission is what type of unethical behavior? A. Informed consent violation B. Misleading claims of curative abilities C. Contraindication violation D. None of the above 107. When can what a client says or does be revealed to others without the client's consent? A. When required by law B. When required under a court order C. When necessary to protect the public D. All of the above 108. What is appropriate if a client needs treatment outside the scope of practice? A. Schedule more appointments B. Charge more C. Offer to provide the treatment at no charge D. Provide a referral to another professional
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109. What is an issue if a teacher hires a massage school student as a babysitter and they end up getting upset with each other? A. Transference B. Countertransference C. Scope of practice D. Dual relationship 110. Guidance on which topic is typically not found in a code of ethics? A. Client relationships B. Image/advertising claims C. Insurance D. Appropriate techniques 111. What is an appropriate way to improve the quality of massages, retain clients, and get referrals? A. Effective communication B. Dating a client C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Provide informed consent B. Choose appropriate music C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is a guideline for the massage table? A. 72 to 76 inches long B. 27 to 30 inches wide C. 1 to 2 inches of high density foam padding D. All of the above
114. When should sheets be changed? A. Daily B. Weekly C. After each massage D. After being soiled 115. How can a table be cared for if contaminated with blood? A. Clean and sanitize with soap and water B. Clean and sanitize with 10% bleach solution C. Clean with latex gloves and oil D. The table must be discarded 116. What is a universal precaution? A. Wash hands with bleach before and after contact with every client B. Use cloth towels after washing hands C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 117. What is a safety practice regarding housekeeping and sanitation? A. Sanitize all restrooms and bathing facilities B. Make sure all floors in wet areas are slip proof C. Sanitize all equipment that comes in contact with clients D. All of the above
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118. What is a client safety practice? A. Check to see if clients are allergic to products B. Use clean linens weekly C. Never assist clients on and off massage table D. All of the above 119. Which first aid kit item would be used against infection? A. Antibiotic B. Antiseptic C. Aspirin D. Hydrocortisone 120. What is the observation of body postures in relation to safe and efficient movement? A. Sanitation B. Draping C. Body mechanics D. All of the above 121. What draping method requires a minimum sheet width of 80 inches? A. Top cover method B. Full sheet method C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 122. What vitamin is in milk? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B complex C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 123. What are advantages of self-employment? A. Control B. Flexibility C. Keep greater portion of fees D. All of the above
124. What form is used for employee business expenses? A. Form 1099-MISC B. Form 5498 C. Form W-2 D. Form 2106 125. What would be found in a brochure? A. Business plan B. Qualifications C. Tax information D. Start up costs
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Exam 12 Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. D 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. A 39. A 40. A 41. B 42. B 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B B A D A D D B D D B D D C C B C D D A D B B D B B B A A D B B C C C C C B B A B C 85. A 86. C 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. A 91. A 92. B 93. D 94. B 95. A 96. D 97. D 98. C 99. A 100. A 101. D 102. A 103. A 104. A 105. C 106. A 107. D 108. D 109. D 110. C 111. A 112. C 113. D 114. C 115. B 116. D 117. D 118. A 119. A 120. C 121. B 122. D 123. D 124. D 125. B
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Exam 13 1. Which refers to the examination of tissues removed from cadavers or living people for the purpose of studying disease? A. Reflexology B. Anatomic pathology C. Ortho-bionomy D. Pathophysiology 2. Which is a high-energy compound stored in the body? A. DNA B. ATP C. AB D. RNA 3. Which is connective tissue? A. Nerve tissue B. Glandular secretions C. Saliva D. Blood 4. Which type of epithelial membrane is the skin? A. Molecular B. Serous C. Cutaneous D. Synovial 5. Which bones are included in the appendicular skeleton? A. Shoulder and pelvic girdle, lower and upper limbs B. Pelvic girdle, ribs, lower and upper limbs C. Pelvic girdle, vertebrae, feet D. Skull, vertebrae, ribs, and hyoid bone 6. What bony landmarks are processes to which tendons and ligaments attach? A. Fissure, foramen, meatus, sinus B. Canal, fossa, groove, notch C. Condyle, head, facet, process, trochlea D. Crest, epicondyle, line, spine, trochanter, tuberosity 7. What carries out the response in the reflex arc? A. Effector organ B. Eccrine gland C. Afferent neuron D. Epidermis 8. Which is part of the endocrine system? A. Nails B. Hair C. Adrenal glands D. Sweat glands 9. Which system returns excess fluid and produces cells for defense? A. Lymphatic B. Respiratory C. Gastrointestinal D. Urinary 10. What specific type of immunity can result from antibodies transferred from the mother to the fetus? A. Innate B. Diarthrotic C. Active D. Passive
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11. In what order of the colons does food pass through the large intestine, after the ascending colon? A. Descending, transference, sigmoid B. Sigmoid, descending, transverse C. Transverse, descending, sigmoid D. Descending, fibrin, transverse 12. What prevents night blindness? A. Zinc B. Vitamin K C. Mugwort D. Vitamin A 13. A. B. C. D. Which means to the front? Dorsal Ventral Medial Peripheral
16. Where is the distal ulna in anatomical position? A. Medial wrist B. Lateral wrist C. Medial knee D. Lateral elbow 17. Which method involves the heart meridian from the axilla to the little finger, and being associated with emotions? A. Shiatsu B. Ayurveda C. Five elements D. All of the above 18. Under what theory does the earth correspond to the spleen and the stomach? A. Esalen massage B. Reflexology C. Five elements D. All of the above 19. Which of these muscles inserts on the tuberosity of the radius? A. Biceps brachii B. Triceps brachii C. Tibialis anterior D. Piriformis 20. A. B. C. D. What is the zygomatic bone? Cheek bone Wrist Ankle Heel bone
14. Which means standing erect and facing forward? A. Anatomical position B. Supine position C. Prone position D. Laterally recumbent position 15. What is the order of the regions of the trunk from the most superior to the most inferior, after the cervical region? A. Thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx B. Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic, vertebral C. Lumbar, cervical, sacral, coccyx D. Vertebral, pelvic, thoracic, abdominal
21. What is the attachment site for trapezius and splenius capitis? A. Lateral malleolus B. Greater trochanter of femur C. Medial epicondyle of the humerus D. Nuchal line of the occiput
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22. Does extension increase or decrease the angle between bones? A. Increase B. Decrease C. Either increases or decreases D. None of the above 23. What is a broad flat tendon that attaches muscle to bone? A. Ligament B. Bursae C. Joint D. Aponeurosis 24. What type of joint is attached to the thumb? A. Pivot B. Saddle C. Ball and socket D. Gliding 25. Which is deep to the upper trapezius? A. Supraspinatus B. Scalenes C. Teres minor D. Deltoid 26. Which muscles are responsible for abduction of the scapula? A. Deltoid and trapezius B. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor C. Biceps brachii and triceps brachii D. Trapezius and hamstrings 27. Which muscle inserts on the medial cuneiform and the base of the first metatarsal? A. Tibialis anterior B. Biceps brachii C. Sartorius D. Teres major
28. Which is responsible for extending the knee? A. Abductors B. Adductors C. Hamstrings D. Quadriceps 29. Which muscle flexes, laterally rotates, and adducts the hip? A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Biceps femoris C. Gluteus minimus D. Psoas major 30. What type of lever has the effort applied at one end and the fulcrum at the other end, like a wheelbarrow? A. First class lever B. Second class lever C. Isotonic D. Concentric 31. What describes a joint with a range of motion of less than what it normally would be? A. Hypermobility B. Hypomobility C. Close-packed position D. Loose-packed position 32. What is the limit on the range of motion that prevents movement to the point where injury could occur? A. Sagittal plane B. Physiologic range of motion C. Hypomobility D. Pathologic range of motion 33. A. B. C. D. What is acute pain? Pain with no known cause Pain with a long duration Chest pain Temporary pain
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34. What describes a group of signs and symptoms that identify a condition? A. An epidemic B. A syndrome C. Exacerbation D. Systemic 35. What refers to the wasting effect of advancing age? A. Atrophy B. Entrainment C. Stress D. Ambulatory 36. What describes the manner in which abuse is recalled? A. State-dependent memory B. Confidentiality C. Right of refusal D. Integration 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for an aneurysm? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 38. Which is a feature of melanoma but not a mole? A. Symmetrical B. Borders are irregular C. One color D. Less than 6 cm in diameter 39. What are NSAIDS and adrenocorticosteroids? A. Analgesics B. Anti-inflammatory medications C. Antineoplastics D. Central nervous system medications
40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking antiulcer medications? A. The stress reduction capacity of massage may enhance the effectiveness B. Prescribe alternative medication C. Advise the client to contact their primary care provider immediately D. All of the above 41. How do recreational drugs impact the hypothalamus? A. They have no impact B. They reduce inflammation C. They become a constructive subconscious habit D. They interact with feel-good neurotransmitters 42. What is characterized by rapid shallow breaths that require the use of the accessory muscles of inspiration? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Anxiety C. Emphysema D. Peritonitis 43. What is the partial displacement of the bones of a joint? A. Whiplash B. Subluxation C. Dislocation D. Fracture 44. What are feelings driven by thoughts? A. Self-concept B. Emotions C. Behavior D. Coping
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45. What is tenosynovitis? A. Inflammation of a tendon sheath B. Hernia C. Fracture D. Full displacement of bones 46. What is an angular deformity of a collapsed vertebra? A. List B. Gibbus C. Kyphosis D. Tinnitus 47. Which area is associated with the radial nerve? A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus B. Medial epicondyle of the humerus C. Temporal region D. Sciatic notch 48. What is in danger of being compressed in the axillary area endangerment site? A. Hypogastric region B. Radial nerve C. Nerves of the brachial plexus D. Ulnar nerve 49. What is the result of the interplay of body, mind, and emotions in health and disease processes? A. Mechanical effects B. Post-isometric contraction C. Reflex effects D. Mind-body effects 50. What are muscle relaxation and pain reduction? A. Mechanical effects B. Assisted static stretching C. Swedish massage D. Reflexive effects
51. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Increases ischemia B. Increases heart rate and pulse rate C. Increases red blood cell count D. Decreases stroke volume 52. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Appendicitis C. Autoimmune diseases D. All of the above 53. What applies heat for therapeutic purposes? A. Hydrotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Thermotherapy D. Hunting response 54. What involves the client sitting in a tub? A. Immersion bath B. Shower C. Spray D. Sauna 55. Which stroke uses localized pressure to break up adhesions? A. Deep fiber friction B. Superficial friction C. Tapotement D. Vibration 56. Which stroke is effective for applying pressure during sports massage? A. Vibration B. Compression C. Jostling D. Gliding
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57. What is another name for positional release? A. Strain / counterstrain B. Stretching C. Trigger point therapy D. Swedish massage 58. What is a psychological effect of massage? A. Promotes sense of relaxation and renewed energy B. Increases tension and anxiety C. Relieves muscle cramps D. Increases circulation 59. What is an effect of massage on the muscular system? A. Heals injured muscle tissue more quickly B. Relieves stiffness and soreness of muscles C. More quickly restore muscles fatigued by exercise D. All of the above 60. What is an effect of passive joint movements? A. Increases movement of blood and lymph B. Nourishes the skin C. Relaxes and lengthens muscles D. All of the above 61. What massage movement affects blood and lymph channels? A. Petrissage or kneading B. Light massage C. Compression D. All of the above
62. Which stroke is preferred for rehabilitation of tissue injuries? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Cross-fiber friction D. Percussion 63. A. B. C. D. What is knuckling? Effleurage Vibration Slapping Tapping
64. Which stroke is not petrissage? A. Active joint movement B. Kneading C. Skin rolling D. Fulling 65. Which stretching technique is a slow gentle movement to lengthen muscles when resistance is minimal? A. Ballistic stretching B. Passive stretching C. Assisted static stretching D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) 66. Which is a tapotement stroke appropriate for the face? A. Effleurage B. Rocking C. Tapping D. Pummeling 67. Which condition can benefit from pregnancy massage? A. Pre-eclampsia B. Strained leg muscles C. Pre-eclampsia D. Pregnancy is always contraindicated
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68. What should massage for the critically ill do? A. Stimulate circulation B. Rehabilitate C. Sooth and add comfort D. Remove toxins 69. What is an effect of R.I.C.E.S. treatment? A. Vasodilation B. Increased inflammation C. Increased swelling D. Vasoconstriction 70. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen semimembranosus and platysma B. Lengthen rectus femoris and splenius C. Shorten palmar aponeurosis D. Lengthen semitendinosus and anterior scalene 71. If a client has knock-knees, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch the levator scapula B. Stretch the low back muscles C. Stretch the fascia lata D. Stretch the metatarsophalangeal joints 72. If a client has the wrist flexed to the ulnar side, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen flexor carpi radialis B. Lengthen flexor carpi ulnaris C. Lengthen tibialis anterior D. Refer to a primary care provider immediately
73. Where would a trigger point on the sternocleidomastoid refer pain? A. Head and face, occipital regions, ear, forehead B. Down the lateral side of the arm C. Sacroiliac region, buttock and down posterior thigh D. Posterior axillary area, scapula, and ulnar side of arm 74. In general, about how many stretches should be recommended for homework? A. None B. One or two C. Five or six D. Ten or more 75. Where on the SOAP chart are test recommendations documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 76. What measures the efficiency of coordinated movement? A. Exercise B. Functional assessment C. Gait D. Compensation pattern 77. Which usually weaken in response to postural muscle shortening? A. Slow-twitch fibers B. Stabilizer muscles C. Phasic muscles D. Soft tissues
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78. What is the general muscle firing pattern? A. Prime movers, then synergists, then stabilizers B. Prime movers, then stabilizers, then synergists C. Stabilizers, then prime movers, then synergists D. Stabilizers, then synergists, then prime movers 79. What is there in the back with a posterior tilt of the pelvis? A. Flat back or sway back B. Lordosis C. Normal anterior curve D. All of the above 80. Which muscles are short and strong with lordotic posture? A. Low back and hip flexors B. Hamstrings C. Anterior abdominals D. All of the above 81. What happens to the feet when the foot speed increases from walking to sprinting? A. The heels do not contact the ground B. The weight is borne on the anterior side of the foot C. There is a tendency for intoeing D. All of the above
82. Which are short and strong with the pelvis laterally tilted and high left, left hip adducted and medially rotated, and right hip abducted? A. Left lateral trunk muscles, right hip abductors and left hip adductors B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior C. Left flexor hallucis longus and left flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 83. Regarding faulty posture of the feet, what happens when the toes are out while walking? A. Pronation B. Slue-footed C. Pigeon-toed D. Supination 84. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in right handed individuals? A. Right hip abductors B. Right tibialis anterior C. Right flexor digitorum longus D. Right lateral trunk muscles 85. What is the next step of the client consultation after determining the client's needs and explaining procedures and policies? A. Schedule next appointment B. Perform preliminary assessment C. Formulate treatment plan D. SOAP chart
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86. What is part of the treatment for plantar fasciitis? A. Apply heat in the acute stage B. Apply cold in the chronic stage C. Treat the shortened gastrocnemius and soleus D. Treat the shortened SCM 87. What could cause frozen shoulder? A. Unrestricted range of motion B. Painful abduction and external rotation C. Hypermobility D. All of the above 88. What is the contracture of one sternocleidomastoid muscle resulting in an abnormal head position? A. Bursitis B. Congenital torticollis C. Trigger finger D. Frozen shoulder 89. What is treated by stretching the hamstrings and abdominals? A. Whiplash B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Flat-back posture 90. What is a lateral rotary deviation of the spine? A. Hyperlordosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Whiplash
91. Which method associates the heart with a point proximal to the great toe and medial to the ball of the foot? A. Shiatsu B. Ayurveda C. Polarity therapy D. Reflexology 92. Which is a muscle energy technique that uses active movement? A. Post isometric relaxation B. Touch for Health C. Therapeutic touch D. Polarity therapy 93. What uses thermal properties to temporarily overwhelm sensors and decrease sensation to a skin area? A. Aromatherapy B. Topical anesthetics C. Muscle relaxants D. NSAIDs 94. Who developed reflexology based on Asian roots? A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr. Estrid Vodder B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and Eunice Ingram C. Elizabeth Dicke D. Paul St. John 95. What is the light, energetic aspect of the universe? A. Amma B. The Five Elements C. Yin D. Yang
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96. Which Japanese massage technique comes from a word for finger pressure? A. Hara B. Kata C. Shiatsu D. Ayurveda 97. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Lack of accessibility B. Right of refusal C. Rights as professionals D. All of the above 98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Dating a client B. Ignoring contraindications C. Informed consent violations D. All of the above 99. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Sexual misconduct B. Dating a client C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above 100. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Spiritual advice B. Medical advice C. Consistency D. All of the above 101. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Informed consent B. Psychological counseling C. Right of refusal D. All of the above
102. What are examples of how boundaries are created, managed, and changed? A. Power differences, space, and clothing B. Time and money C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. What is appropriate if a minor requests a massage without parental consent? A. Perform the massage if another relative says it is OK B. Do not perform the massage C. Answers A and B are correct D. None of the above 104. Ignoring signs or conditions that preclude physical contact is what type of unethical behavior? A. Confidentiality violation B. Practicing beyond scope of practice C. Contraindication violation D. None of the above 105. When can information about a client be revealed to others without the client's consent? A. When required by law B. When required under a court order C. When necessary to protect the public D. All of the above 106. What is assuming more than one role in relation to the same person? A. Dual relationships B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Discrimination
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107. What should the therapist do if a client says that because of the massage they are going to stop taking prescription medication? A. Tell the client to consult with their primary care provider before stopping to take any prescription medication B. Suggest an herb to replace the prescription medication C. Suggest an alternative prescription medication D. Nod and agree with the client 108. Guidance on which topic is typically not found in a code of ethics? A. Professionalism B. Income and expense measurement C. Scope of practice D. All of the above 109. What is often based on fantasy or feelings towards another person in the past? A. Dual relationships B. Transference C. Confidentiality D. Countertransference 110. What is the most appropriate response if a caller asks if the massage includes sex? A. Schedule an appointment B. Call 911 C. Remain professional and explain the services D. Provide a referral
111. What is the appropriate action if a new client who was asked to get under the covers is naked and on top of the covers? A. Refer the client to another practitioner B. Proceed with the massage C. Leave the room and ask the client to get under the covers D. None of the above 112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Sexual comments about the client's body B. Treat all clients equally C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is a guideline for the massage room? A. Minimum 24 feet by 30 feet B. 80 to 85 degrees C. Proper ventilation D. All of the above 114. What is the best way to launder linens? A. Warm water and soap B. 70% ethyl alcohol solution C. Cold water and bleach D. Hot water and bleach 115. How are hands washed and sanitized? A. Soap and warm water B. Bleach C. Sodium hypochlorite D. All of the above
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116. What removes pathogens from implements and surfaces? A. Sanitation B. Sterilization C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 117. What is a universal precaution? A. Wash hands with soap and water before and after contact with every client B. Cleaning of walls, floors, and surfaces should be done using products effective for sanitation C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 118. What equipment should be sanitized? A. Electrical cords B. Electrical outlets C. All equipment that comes in contact with clients D. Table locks and hinges 119. What is a client safety practice regarding sanitation? A. Use clean linens daily B. Wash hands once a day C. Do not practice massage when sick or contagious D. All of the above 120. Which first aid kit item would be used for symptoms of a heart attack? A. Antibiotic B. Antiseptic C. Aspirin D. Hydrocortisone
121. What is the minimum size sheet for the top cover method of draping? A. 36 inches by 36 inches B. 72 inches by 36 inches C. 72 inches by 72 inches D. 144 inches by 72 inches 122. What is a recommended calorie distribution for a diet with less than 30% of calories from fats? A. 50%-60% carbohydrates, 12%15% proteins B. 60%-70% carbohydrates, 2%5% proteins C. 30% minerals, 40% proteins D. 35% vitamins, 35% proteins 123. What must be included in income reported to the IRS? A. Overhead B. Barter income C. Marketing expenses D. The value of referrals 124. What pays attorney's fees? A. Additional insured endorsement B. Legal defense coverage C. Professional liability insurance D. Premises fire damage insurance for renters 125. Costs for what could be a deductible business expense? A. Barter income B. Licensing C. Both A and B D. None of the above
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Exam 13 Answer Key 1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. A 21. D 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. D 30. B 31. B 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. A 41. D 42. B 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B B A B A C D D C A C A A B A A D D D C A A B C B C D B C B A B D B C B A A D D B A 85. B 86. C 87. D 88. B 89. D 90. C 91. D 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. D 96. C 97. A 98. D 99. C 100. C 101. B 102. C 103. B 104. C 105. D 106. A 107. A 108. B 109. B 110. C 111. C 112. B 113. C 114. D 115. A 116. C 117. C 118. C 119. C 120. C 121. B 122. A 123. B 124. B 125. B
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Exam 14 1. Which refers to laboratory medicine? A. Polarity therapy B. Anatomic pathology C. Clinical pathology D. Transverse friction 2. The bones of the skull protecting the brain are an example of what? A. Histology B. The structure of a part related to function C. The level of structural organization D. Mitosis 3. What is a flat sheet of pliable tissue that covers or lines a part of the body? A. Spongy bone B. Blood vessel C. Lymph node D. Membrane 4. Which system is a supporting framework and protects organs? A. Lymphatic B. Respiratory C. Endocrine D. Skeletal 5. What is the quality in which bones deform slightly and vibrate when current passes through them? A. Periosteum B. Piezoelectric C. Cancellous D. Spongy 6. What type of muscle tissue is the bladder? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Elastic D. Smooth 7. Which is a function of the autonomic nervous system under parasympathetic control? A. Slow heartbeat B. Constricted blood vessels C. Decreased peristalsis D. Decreased secretion of digestive juices 8. What does the left side of the heart do? A. Pumps oxygenated blood to all tissues except the lungs B. Pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs C. Pumps deoxygenated blood to all tissues except the lungs D. Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs 9. What is the general term for immunity not present at birth? A. Innate B. Acquired C. Active D. Terminal
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10. What is the order of these parts of the respiratory system, starting with the upper respiratory tract? A. Trachea, larynx, pharynx, bronchi B. Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi C. Larynx, leukocyte, trachea, bronchi D. Larynx, trachea, pharynx, jejunum 11. Which are types of connective tissue fibers? A. Loose, ground, and dense B. Cellular, protein, and adipose C. Collagen, reticular, and elastic D. Mucous, respiratory, and smooth 12. Which are the building blocks of protein? A. Amino acids B. Glucose C. Vitamins and minerals D. Enzymes 13. Which means relating to the middle? A. Dorsal B. Ventral C. Medial D. Peripheral 14. Which means lying on the side? A. Erect position B. Supine position C. Prone position D. Laterally recumbent position
15. A. B. C. D.
What is the thoracic region? Sacrum Hips Chest Neck
16. Where is the distal radius in anatomical position? A. Medial wrist B. Medial knee C. Lateral elbow D. Lateral wrist 17. Which method involves the bladder meridian, from the head to the little toe, being associated with purification? A. Ayurveda B. Feldenkrais C. Acupressure D. All of the above 18. Under what theory does fire correspond to the heart and small intestine? A. Five elements B. Reflexology C. Aromatherapy D. All of the above 19. Which of these muscles inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna? A. Biceps femoris B. Triceps brachii C. Vastus lateralis D. Deltoid 20. A. B. C. D. Where does piriformis insert? Femur Tibia Ribs Calcaneus
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21. What is the attachment site for supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor? A. Greater tubercle of the humerus B. Greater trochanter of femur C. Cervical lamina groove D. Nuchal line of the occiput 22. Does flexion increase or decrease the angle between bones? A. Increase B. Decrease C. Either increases or decreases D. Does not increase or decrease 23. What protects against medial stress to the talocrural joint? A. Deltoid ligament B. Carotid tubercle C. Subscapularis D. Clavicle 24. Which muscle is on the scapula's anterior surface? A. Supraspinatus B. Palmaris longus C. Triceps brachii D. Subscapularis 25. Which muscles are responsible for adduction of the scapula? A. Biceps brachii and triceps brachii B. Trapezius and rhomboids C. Deltoid and flexor carpi ulnaris D. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
26. Which muscle inverts the foot and plantar flexes the ankle? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Biceps brachii C. Sartorius D. Tibialis posterior 27. Phasic muscles have a higher percentage of what kind of fibers? A. Slow-twitch red fibers B. Bipennate C. Fast-twitch white fibers D. Fusiform 28. What is the range of motion that could be greater than or less than the normal range of motion? A. Joint play B. Anatomic range of motion C. Concentric D. Pathologic range of motion 29. What is the positioning in which the movement of one joint moves another joint? A. Closed kinematic chains B. Open kinematic chains C. Isometric contraction D. Cartilaginous joint 30. What occurs about a sagittal axis in a coronal direction? A. Circumduction B. Lateral flexion C. Gliding D. Flexion and extension 31. What functional class are the joints between the vertebrae? A. Saddle B. Multi-belly C. Diathrosis D. Amphiarthrosis
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32. What is the type of contraction in which muscle shortens? A. Concentric B. Hypertonia C. Eccentric D. Isometric 33. What is example of phantom pain? A. Pain from an amputated limb B. Chest pain C. Temporary pain D. Degenerative 34. What describes an infectious disease that attacks many people at the same time? A. An epidemic B. A syndrome C. Exacerbation D. Systemic 35. What refers to the physiological mechanics of aging? A. Ambulatory B. Entrainment C. Stress D. Stages of lifecycle 36. Which is generally contraindicated for massage? A. Arthritis B. Strains C. Fibrositis D. Thrombophlebitis 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for bulimia? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage
38. A. B. C. D.
What is like hibernation? Entrainment Biological rhythms Conservation withdrawal Homeostasis
39. What are anticholinergics and antiulcer medications? A. Cardiovascular medications B. Gastrointestinal medications C. Hormones D. Anti-infectives 40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking antidiabetic medications? A. Changes in stress level may impact the dose B. The client's physician should monitor the dose C. Avoid vigorous massage D. All of the above 41. What depletes or inhibits the natural production of feelgood transmitters in the hypothalamus? A. Beta-blockers B. Recreational drugs C. Aspirin D. Melatonin 42. What is an inflamed mucous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Anxiety C. Emphysema D. Peritonitis 43. What is caused by deficiency of a Vitamin C? A. Osteoporosis B. Fracture C. Scurvy D. Rickets
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44. What is what we do in response to feelings? A. Self-concept B. Emotions C. Behavior D. Denial 45. What causes the popping sound of the temporomandibular joint? A. Tennis elbow B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow C. Partial displacement of bones of a joint D. Frozen shoulder 46. What is associated with sway-back posture? A. Forward head B. Increased flexion in thoracic spine C. Posterior pelvic tilt D. All of the above 47. Which area is associated with the tibial nerve? A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus B. Medial epicondyle of the humerus C. Pectoral region D. Popliteal fossa 48. What is in danger of being compressed in the medial epicondyle of the humerus endangerment site? A. Radial nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Mastoid
49. What is a mind-body effect of massage? A. Venous return B. Lymph flow C. Anxiety reduction D. All of the above 50. Which effect of massage processed through the autonomic nervous system involves the influence of the treatment itself? A. Toughening / hardening B. The placebo effect C. Neuroendocrine interactions D. Hydrotherapy 51. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Constipation B. Diabetes C. Eating disorders D. All of the above 52. What involves the client sitting in a tub and receiving jets of water against the skin? A. Whirlpool B. Shower C. Spray D. Sauna 53. Water at what temperature would raise the body temperature to a dangerous level after a prolonged period? A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0 degrees Celsius B. 98 degrees Fahrenheit or 37 degrees Celsius C. 110 degrees Fahrenheit or 43 degrees Celsius D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60 degrees Celsius
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54. A. B. C. D.
Which is Swedish massage? Post isometric relaxation Trigger point therapy Rolfing Effleurage
55. Which is best for breaking up areas of hard tissue build up? A. Polarity therapy B. Hellerwork C. Tapotement D. Friction or deep effleurage 56. What is immune response process of destroying foreign cells? A. Homeostasis B. Inflammation C. Vasodilatation D. Phagocytosis 57. What is a physical effect of massage? A. Increases in muscle cramps and spasms B. Decreases circulation of blood and lymph C. Increases removal of metabolic waste D. Reduces stress 58. What is an effect of massage on the skin? A. Cooling of skin B. Decreased activity of sweat and oil glands C. Decreased circulation D. Nutrition to the skin is improved 59. What is a massage technique with a sedative effect? A. Holding pressure B. Gentle stroking C. Light friction and petrissage D. All of the above
60. What massage movement stimulates the flow of blood through the deeper arteries and veins? A. Petrissage or kneading B. Light massage C. Light stroking D. All of the above 61. What massage movement produces an increased flow of interstitial fluid? A. Light percussion B. Light stroking C. Polarity theory D. Friction 62. Which is a petrissage movement? A. Compression B. Skin rolling C. Gliding D. Effleurage 63. Which stroke is a rapid back and forth movement? A. Gliding B. Compression C. Rolling D. Percussion 64. A. B. C. D. Which are strokes that glide? Effleurage Petrissage Percussion Tapotement
65. What promotes joint flexibility? A. Effleurage B. Friction C. Slapping D. Tapotement
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66. Which is uncomfortable and dangerous for pregnancy massage in the second and third trimesters? A. Light effleurage B. Lying prone C. Side-lying position D. Supine position 67. What is contraindicated for massaging persons with cancer? A. Deep pressure B. Area of tumor C. Area of lymph nodes D. All of the above 68. What is the application of cold to reduce swelling? A. Sitz bath B. Contrast method C. Antiedemic D. Vasoconstriction 69. What most likely results in increased range of motion? A. Ice bath B. R.I.C.E.S C. Thermotherapy D. Cryotherapy 70. If a client has lordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Shorten extensor digitorum longus B. Lengthen brachialis C. Lengthen external obliques and semitendinosus D. Lengthen tensor fasciae latae and longissimus thoracis
71. If a client has over flexed knees, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch knee flexors and hip flexors B. Stretch hip medial rotators C. Stretch left lateral trunk and right lateral thigh muscles D. Stretch platysma 72. What is done if a client has an extended great toe, with the head of the first metatarsal driven downward? A. Lengthen supinator B. Lengthen extensor hallucis longus C. Lengthen flexor digitorum longus D. Lengthen external oblique 73. Where would a trigger point on the piriformis refer pain? A. Above eyelid, sinuses B. Down the lateral side of the arm C. Sacroiliac region, buttock and down posterior thigh D. Posterior axillary area, scapula, and ulnar side of arm 74. What is the best way to turn a client? A. Feet first B. Head first C. Shoulders first D. Hold edge of sheet and have client turn towards therapist
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75. How would a client stretch the pectoralis major? A. Abduct and laterally rotate the arm B. Pronate and supinate the forearm C. Flex and extend the neck D. Elevate the scapulae 76. Where on the SOAP chart are activities that aggravate or relieve the symptoms recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 77. A. B. C. Which is more subjective? Assessing range of motion Muscle testing Client says they did not sleep well D. Pain in left lumbar when palpated
80. What position of the pelvis is associated with a flat back? A. Anterior tilt B. Neutral position C. Posterior tilt D. Lateral tilt 81. Which muscles are short and strong with kyphotic-lordotic posture? A. Neck extensors B. External obliques C. Upper back erector spinae D. All of the above 82. Where are the scapulae in good alignment? A. Winged B. Adducted and elevated C. Flat against the upper back about 4 inches apart D. Abducted 83. Which are short and strong with the left hip adducted and medially rotated, right hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Left lateral trunk muscles, right hip abductors and left hip adductors B. Left peroneus longus and brevis and right tibialis posterior C. Right flexor hallucis longus and right flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 84. In how many dimensions must the body be balanced to withstand the forces of gravity? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three
78. What is generally the appropriate massage technique for shortened muscles? A. Strengthen B. Exercise C. Lengthen and stretch D. Reduce activity 79. When a jointed area moves into flexion and the joint angle is decreased, what do the fixators do? A. Concentrically contract B. Eccentrically contract while lengthening C. Isometrically contract and stabilize D. Eccentrically contract while shortening
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85. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in right handed individuals? A. Right flexor digitorum longus B. Left lateral trunk muscles C. Left hip abductors D. Right tibialis anterior 86. What is generally the first step in the massage process? A. Make initial appointment B. Perform massage C. Update SOAP chart D. Get referrals 87. Where on the SOAP chart would the therapist's observations during the massage of deep muscle thickening be documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 88. What is inflammation of the common flexor tendon? A. Medial epicondylitis B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Trigger finger D. Tennis elbow 89. What postural condition may accompany flat-back posture? A. Torticollis B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Hyperkyphosis 90. What is treated by lengthening a short latissimus dorsi? A. Scoliosis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Hyperlordosis D. Hyperkyphosis
91. Which method associates the shoulder with a point proximal to the great toe and lateral to the ball of the foot? A. Shiatsu B. Acupressure C. Reflexology D. Acupuncture 92. Which increases flexibility? A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation B. Relaxation massage C. Craniosacral therapy D. Polarity therapy 93. Who developed a neuromuscular approach, a nervous or reflexive method? A. Dr. Emil Vodder B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and Eunice Ingram C. Paul St. John D. Joseph Heller 94. What is the dark, dense, deep aspect of the universe? A. Yin B. Yang C. Marketing D. The Five Elements 95. What is a sequence of movements in Shiatsu? A. Effleurage B. Petrissage C. Chakra D. Kata 96. Which massage system is based on Western concepts of anatomy and physiology? A. Greek B. Indian C. Chinese D. Swedish
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97. Where are guidelines for sexual conduct found? A. Tax forms B. Insurance forms C. Code of ethics and standards of practice D. Ledger 98. A. B. C. D. What is inappropriate touch? Mechanical touch Expressive touch Therapeutic touch Sexual touch
103. Massage or counseling without the proper training is what type of unethical behavior? A. Accessibility B. Confidentiality C. Practicing beyond the scope of practice D. None of the above 104. Refusing to adapt an office for clients with physical challenges is what type of unethical behavior? A. Misleading claims of curative abilities B. Accessibility violation C. Exploiting the power differential D. None of the above 105. What if a therapist cannot assess a condition? A. Try to diagnose the condition B. Suggest the client discuss it with their primary care provider C. Both A and B D. None of the above 106. What is an issue if a therapist treats a friend and the friend is disappointed in the results? A. Transference B. Countertransference C. Scope of practice D. Dual relationship
99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Violations of laws C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above 100. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Financial impropriety B. Exploiting the power differential C. Misrepresentation of educational status D. All of the above 101. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Contract B. Informed consent C. Right of refusal D. None of the above 102. What might be occurring in the mind of a client who does not want to fill out a health intake form? A. Projection B. Boundary crossing C. Dual relationship D. Networking
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107. What if a therapist is aware of someone practicing massage therapy without a license? A. Ignore the issue B. File a complaint with the massage board C. Contact the unlicensed therapist to discuss the issue D. Tell the unlicensed therapist's clients 108. What are guiding principles by which professionals should conduct themselves? A. HIPPA B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Standards of practice 109. Guidance on which topic is typically found in a code of ethics? A. Professionalism B. Tax C. Insurance D. All of the above 110. What if a client wants to discuss personal matters? A. Just listen and be compassionate B. Refer the client to another therapist C. Discuss the personal issues D. Tell the client to be quiet 111. What is inappropriate behavior from clients? A. Sexual innuendos B. Provocative jokes C. Aggression D. All of the above
112. What is a possible explanation for an inadvertent sexual response during a massage? A. Stimulation of nerves in lumbar and sacral plexuses B. Parasympathetic nervous system response C. Influence of limbic system D. All of the above 113. What is a guideline for the massage table? A. 54 to 58 inches long B. 27 to 30 inches wide C. 5 to 6 inches of high density foam padding D. All of the above 114. How can linens be disinfected? A. Wash in hot water and bleach and dry in hot dryer B. Wash in hot water and bleach and hang out to dry C. Wash in cold water and bleach and hang out to dry D. Wash in cold water and bleach and dry in hot dryer 115. What is done with soap and water? A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. All of the above 116. What removes pathogens from implements and surfaces? A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. All of the above
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117. What is a safety practice regarding housekeeping and sanitation? A. Dry hands with paper towels B. Hang linens out to dry C. Sterilize all entryways, floors and surfaces D. Commercially launder all linens 118. What is a client safety practice? A. Check to see if clients are allergic to products B. Provide safe and clear entryways and passages C. Do no harm D. All of the above 119. What is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain? A. Hemostasis B. Inflammation C. Vasodilatation D. Phagocytosis 120. What is the minimum width sheet for the full sheet method of draping? A. 36 inches wide B. 48 inches wide C. 80 inches wide D. 160 inches wide 121. Which fat-soluble vitamin is found in fats, grains, and fishmeal? A. Eucalyptus B. Melatonin C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K
122. What one-page document would include the career objective? A. Business plan B. Resume C. Marketing material D. Financial records 123. What is a business with one owner and employee? A. Corporation B. Networking C. Partnership D. Sole proprietorship 124. What would be the most appropriate method for giving a referral? A. Refer the client to the Internet B. Provide contact information for a friend or relative C. Provide a list of practitioners D. Request a fee for the referral 125. What would be protected under general premises liability insurance? A. Slips and falls B. Malpractice C. Marketing D. Start up costs
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Exam 14 Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. C 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. A 34. A 35. D 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. D 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. C C C D D B C B D A C D D D C D D A D B C A B B D C C D A B C D A A C C C C A C A D 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. D 90. A 91. C 92. A 93. C 94. A 95. D 96. D 97. C 98. D 99. B 100. D 101. D 102. B 103. C 104. B 105. B 106. D 107. B 108. D 109. A 110. A 111. D 112. D 113. B 114. A 115. A 116. D 117. A 118. D 119. B 120. C 121. D 122. B 123. D 124. C 125. A
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Exam 15 1. Which refers to the study specific body structures such as the nervous or respiratory systems? A. Endocrinology B. Neurophysiology C. Trigger point therapy D. Systemic anatomy 2. The bones of the finger being loose to allow more movement are an example of what? A. Smooth muscle fibers B. Catabolism C. The structure of a part related to function D. The level of structural organization 3. Which are fat cells? A. Fibroblasts B. Adipocytes C. Mesenchymal D. Lymphocytes 4. Which type of serous membrane covers the abdominal organs? A. Pleura B. Lymph C. Cutaneous D. Peritoneum 5. Which system is a reservoir for minerals and is where blood cells are manufactured? A. Lymphatic B. Muscular C. Endocrine D. Skeletal 6. What is an opening in a bone through which nerves pass? A. Fissure B. Foramen C. Meatus D. Synovial 7. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex contains the auditory and olfactory areas? A. Femoral B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal 8. Which system helps maintain the body temperature? A. Gastrointestinal B. Respiratory C. Circulatory D. Urinary 9. Which is the main function of the lymphatic system? A. Secretion of chemicals B. Defense against infection C. Circulation D. Gas exchange 10. What are crystallized mineral chunks that develop in the urinary tract? A. Body lice B. Urinary tract infection C. Cystitis D. Renal calculi
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11. In what order of the colons does food pass through the large intestine, before reaching the sigmoid colon? A. Ascending, descending, transverse B. Ascending, transverse, descending C. Descending, ascending, jejunum D. Descending, transference, ascending 12. Which chemical substances includes sugars and starches that only contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen? A. Proteins B. Fats or triglycerides C. Vitamins and minerals D. Carbohydrates 13. Which means away from the center? A. Dorsal B. Ventral C. Medial D. Peripheral 14. A. B. C. D. 15. A. B. C. D. 16. A. B. C. D. Which means standing up? Erect position Supine position Prone position Laterally recumbent position What is the lumbar region? Loin Chest Head Neck What is the popliteal region? Back of knee Thigh Navel Abdomen
17. Which method involves the large intestine meridian beginning at the first finger, ending in the nostril, and being associated with the process of elimination? A. Chakra B. Acupuncture C. Dosha D. All of the above 18. Under what theory does fire correspond to the pericardium and the triple heater? A. Aromatherapy B. Trager method C. Touch for Health D. Five elements 19. What kind of muscle fibers are red, small in diameter, with abundant capillaries? A. Fast twitch B. Slow twitch C. Intermediate D. Isotonic 20. Where does the pectoralis minor insert? A. Scapula B. Clavicle C. Calcaneus D. Radius 21. Where is the tibial tubercle? A. Between the patella and the head of the fibula B. Anterior to the lateral malleolus C. Posterior to the thoracic vertebra D. Directly medial from olecranon process
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22. What is between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process? A. Carotid artery B. Patella C. Ulnar nerve D. Radial nerve 23. What is the shape of orbicularis oris muscle? A. Parallel B. Fusiform C. Multipennate D. Circular 24. What is a synarthrotic joint in which two bony components are held together by dense fibrous tissue? A. Joint capsule B. Synovial joint C. Synovial fluid D. Suture 25. Which inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus? A. Subscapularis B. Supraspinatus C. Gastrocnemius D. Erector spinae 26. Which muscles are responsible for retraction of the scapula? A. Biceps and triceps brachii B. Trapezius and rhomboids C. Deltoid and piriformis D. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor 27. Which muscle medially rotates the shoulder? A. Iliotibial tract B. Subscapularis C. Supinator D. Teres major
28. A. B. C. D.
Which group is more lateral? Abductors Adductors Hamstrings Quadriceps
29. Which muscle flexes and medially rotates the knee? A. Tibialis anterior B. Sartorius C. Coracobrachialis D. Gluteus minimus 30. Standing on one's toes is an example of what type of lever? A. First class lever B. Second class lever C. Bipennate D. Fulcrum 31. What describes the unlocked position of a joint? A. Closed kinematic chains B. Synovial C. Close-packed position D. Loose-packed position 32. What occurs moving forward and backward from the coronal plane in a sagittal direction? A. Circumduction B. Lateral flexion C. Abduction and adduction D. Flexion and extension 33. What is a disease with no known cause? A. Degenerative B. Fungal C. Idiopathic D. Congenital
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34. What describes the increase in the severity of a disease? A. An epidemic B. A syndrome C. Exacerbation D. Systemic 35. What refers to the process of growing old or the period of old age? A. Sensate B. Senopia C. Sensitivity D. Senescence 36. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for deep vein thrombosis? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for a bunion? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 38. What is the tendency for oscillating bodies to move in a harmonic motion, or coordination or synchronization to a rhythm? A. Entrainment B. Exhaustion C. Conservation withdrawal D. Toughening/hardening
39. What are antidiabetic medications, estrogens, progesterones, androgens, steroids, and thyroid medications? A. Cardiovascular medications B. Gastrointestinal medications C. Hormones D. Anti-infectives 40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking sex hormones? A. Blood clotting abilities may be changed B. Fluid retention may increase C. Emotional states may fluctuate D. All of the above 41. What natural supplement is a peptide hormone produced by the pineal gland that influences sleep-wake cycles? A. Neurotransmitter B. Dopamine C. Norepinephrine D. Melatonin 42. What results in a decreased ability to exhale, with the diaphragm and intercostals not able to work efficiently? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Anxiety C. Emphysema D. Peritonitis 43. What is a form of necrosis in which the cartilage and adjacent bone separate from the bone itself? A. Legg-Calve'-Perthes disease B. Torticollis C. Greenstick fracture D. Osteochondritis dissecans
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44. What is the way the body responds to stressors? A. Emotions B. Defense measures C. Demands D. Relaxation 45. What can be caused by repetitive extension of the wrist? A. Tennis elbow B. Golfer's elbow C. Pitcher's elbow D. Frozen shoulder 46. What is pain and inflammation from the calcaneus to the metatarsals? A. Torticollis B. Tinnitus C. Plantar fasciitis D. Whiplash 47. Which would become entrapped from pressure on the back of the knee? A. Radial nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Peroneal nerve D. Coronal chakra 48. What is in danger of being compressed in the inguinal triangle endangerment site? A. Femoral nerve B. Radial nerve C. Transverse plane D. Tibial nerve 49. What is a mind-body effect of massage? A. Venous return B. Relaxation response C. Breaking adhesions D. All of the above
50. Which is an effect of massage processed through the somatic nervous system (ANS)? A. Neuromuscular mechanisms B. Hyperstimulation analgesia C. Reduction of impingement D. All of the above 51. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Increases ischemia B. Decreases heart rate and pulse rate C. Decreases red blood cell count D. Pain reduction 52. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Appendicitis B. Anemia C. Cardiac arrest D. All of the above 53. What uses hot air from 170 to 210 degrees Fahrenheit with 10% to 20% humidity? A. Steam bath B. Sauna C. Whirlpool D. Shower or spray 54. What is the concept that the suppression of emotions causes muscular tension? A. The invisible body and mind B. Character armor C. Body-centered therapy D. Denial 55. A. B. C. D. Which reduces scar tissue? Kneading Gliding Cross fiber friction Cupping
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56. What is the name for the widening of the blood vessels? A. Hemostasis B. Inflammation C. Vasodilatation D. Phagocytosis 57. What is a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique that uses active movement to lengthen the muscle? A. Transverse friction B. Petrissage C. Post-isometric contraction (PIR) D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) 58. What creates a pumping action that moves blood and lymph? A. Petrissage B. Kneading C. Compression D. All of the above 59. What is initiated by stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Adrenal secretions increased B. Sweat glands activated C. Body is more alert and attentive D. Reduced heart rate 60. What massage movement stimulates the flow of blood through the deeper arteries and veins? A. Petrissage or kneading B. Light stroking C. Deep stroking D. All of the above
61. Which is an effleurage movement? A. Compression B. Skin rolling C. Gliding D. Petrissage 62. Which is a push and release movement? A. Rocking B. Compression C. Wringing D. Percussion 63. Which stroke is appropriate for treating a golfer with a sore arm? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Cross-fiber friction D. Percussion 64. Variations of which stroke includes one handed, the "C" hand position, and the "V" hand position? A. Effleurage B. Petrissage C. Percussion D. Tapotement 65. What is contraction with joint movement? A. Isometric contraction B. Isotonic contraction C. Isokinetic contraction D. Palpation 66. Which is not appropriate for a pregnant client? A. Effleurage B. Feather stroking C. Gliding D. Tapotement
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67. What is contraindicated for massaging persons with cancer? A. Deep pressure B. Polarity therapy C. Reiki D. All of the above 68. What initially induces vasoconstriction? A. Whirlpool bath B. Full body steam bath C. Diathermy D. Cryotherapy 69. What does strain/counterstrain use? A. Trigger points B. Vibration C. Slapping D. Tapping 70. Which muscles are overactive if a client has pain in the low back, buttocks, sacroiliac joint, lateral knee, and anterior knee? A. Gluteus maximum and splenius capitis B. Adductors, tensor fasciae latae, and quadratus lumborum C. Erector spinae, psoas, and rectus abdominis D. Upper trapezius and ipsilateral quadratus lumborum
71. If a client has lordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen rectus femoris and quadratus lumborum B. Lengthen internal obliques and semimembranosus C. Shorten peroneus longus and soleus D. Refer to a primary care provider immediately 72. What is done if a client has decreased overhead range of motion in flexion and abduction of the shoulder? A. Lengthen tibialis anterior B. Lengthen lower fibers of pectoralis major C. Lengthen serratus anterior D. Lengthen biceps brachii 73. What is done if a client has the thigh in a position of abduction and medial rotation, with a lateral pelvic tilt? A. Lengthen gluteus minimus B. Lengthen hamstrings C. Lengthen occipitofrontalis D. Lengthen biceps femoris 74. Where would a trigger point on tensor fasciae latae refer pain? A. Posterior axillary area, scapula, and ulnar side of arm B. Down the lateral side of the arm C. Hip and down lateral side of leg D. Posterior axillary area, scapula, and ulnar side of arm
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75. Where on the SOAP chart is the patient's response to the massage documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 76. Where is the place for a massage therapist to report functional outcomes? A. Diagnosis B. Gross income C. Assessment D. Prescription 77. What is the joint movement that requires the therapist to move the relaxed client? A. Active range of motion B. Compensation pattern C. Passive range of motion D. Range of motion 78. When a jointed area moves into flexion and the joint angle is decreased, what do the antagonists do? A. Concentrically contract B. Eccentrically contract while lengthening C. Isometrically contract and stabilize D. Eccentrically contract while shortening 79. What position of the pelvis is associated with a normal anterior curve of the low back? A. Anterior tilt B. Neutral position C. Posterior tilt D. Lateral tilt
80. Which muscles are short and strong with kyphotic-lordotic posture? A. Neck flexors B. Hip flexors C. Sartorius and vastus medialis D. All of the above 81. Where does the standard side-view line of reference through the lower extremities pass? A. Posterior to the cervical region B. Anterior to the outer malleolus and through the apex of the arch C. Posterior to the center of the hip joint and anterior to the axis of the knee joint D. Anterior to the center of brachial region 82. Which are short and strong with the left hip adducted and medially rotated, right hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Right lateral trunk muscles, left hip abductors and right hip adductors B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior C. Right brachialis and right pectoralis minor D. All of the above 83. Regarding faulty posture of the feet, what happens when the ankle rolls in? A. Pronation B. Knock-knees C. Bowlegs D. Supination
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84. How does a therapist test the left leg flexors? A. Client holds left leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds left leg position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure D. Client holds right arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure 85. What may be caused by throwing sports such as baseball? A. Plantar fasciitis B. Whiplash C. Torticollis D. Rotator cuff tendinitis 86. What is inflammation of the common flexor tendon? A. Tennis elbow B. Golfer's elbow C. Lateral epicondylitis D. Trigger finger 87. What is a symptom of frozen shoulder? A. Restricted range of motion B. Painful abduction and external rotation C. Hypomobility D. All of the above 88. What is a painful unilateral shortening or spasm of neck muscles resulting in an abnormal head position? A. Tendonitis B. Acute acquired torticollis C. Lordosis D. Frozen shoulder
89. What postural condition may accompany sway-back posture? A. Torticollis B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Hyperkyphosis 90. What involves a posterior pelvic tilt and tight abdominals and hamstrings? A. Hyperlordosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Flat-back posture 91. What method is for the purpose of locating blocked energy and releasing it? A. Ortho-bionomy B. Craniosacral therapy C. Bindegewebmassage D. Polarity therapy 92. Which method associates the sinuses with the four lateral toes? A. Shiatsu B. Reflexology C. Swedish D. Ayurveda 93. Which uses scented oils and lotions? A. Aromatherapy B. Trigger point therapy C. Therapeutic touch D. Polarity therapy
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94. Who developed neuromuscular therapy, a soft tissue approach? A. Dr. Emil Vodder B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and Eunice Ingram C. Boris Chaitow and Stanley Leif D. Joseph Heller 95. What NMT technique can be active or passive? A. Ischemic compression B. Skin rolling C. Stretching D. All of the above 96. Which was developed in India? A. Ayurveda B. Shiatsu C. Amma D. Acupressure 97. What refers to keeping information private? A. Dual role B. Scope of practice C. Confidentiality D. Transference 98. What are classifications of touch technique? A. Mechanical or expressive touch B. Self-employed or employee C. Symmetric or asymmetric D. Sexual or erotic touch 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent violations B. Confidentiality C. Not working on contraindicated areas D. All of the above
100. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Exploiting the power differential B. Misrepresentation of educational status C. Consistency D. Financial impropriety 101. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Spiritual advice B. Psychological counseling C. Other business deals D. None of the above 102. What is an example of a boundary? A. Lines that separate B. Limits C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. What occurs when a person has uncomfortable feelings and projects them onto another person? A. Power differential B. Projection C. Dual relationship D. Body mechanics 104. Watching a client undress is what type of behavior? A. Unethical B. Sexual misconduct C. Answers A and B are correct D. None of the above 105. What is treating a person unfairly due to race, gender or ethnicity? A. Dual relationships B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Discrimination
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106. What is appropriate for a therapist to do when seeing a client in the grocery store? A. Ask how the last massage was B. Ask when the therapist can expect payment C. Do not bring up anything about the massage D. All of the above 107. What is legislation that involves the security and privacy of health information? A. HIPPA B. Code of Ethics C. Standards of Practice D. All of the above 108. What is an issue if a client asks for a recommendation on prescription medication? A. Transference B. Countertransference C. Dual relationship D. Scope of practice 109. What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? A. Socializing B. Group affiliation C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 110. Who might require a permit for a business operated from a home? A. Local governments B. Professional massage associations C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above
111. What is a barrier if a comment about a client's tense muscles resulted in the client feeling put down and humiliated? A. Fee structure B. Communication C. Safety practices D. Clinical reasoning 112. What is unethical behavior from therapists in a professional relationship? A. Sexual pleasures B. Sexual intercourse C. Being involved in a sexual manner D. All of the above 113. What is a guideline for the massage room? A. Minimum 10 feet by 12 feet B. 72 to 74 degrees C. Soothing music D. All of the above 114. How can be used as a rinse to sanitize the hands? A. Mild ethyl alcohol solution B. Bleach C. Sodium hypochlorite D. None of the above 115. What is nearly as effective as sterilization but does not destroy bacterial spores? A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
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116. What must be freshly laundered and sanitary? A. Top cover only B. Table cover only C. Any material coming in contact with the client's skin D. None of the above 117. What is a safety practice regarding housekeeping and sanitation? A. Maintain handwashing facilities with bleach B. Wash linens in cold water C. Maintain handwashing facilities with germicidal soap D. All of the above 118. What is the recommended number of servings per day of the bread, cereal, rice, and pasta group? A. Use sparingly B. 1 to 2 servings C. 3 to 4 servings D. 6 to 11 servings 119. What are disadvantages of self-employment? A. Less steady income B. Responsible for own taxes C. Must pay for own facilities and supplies D. All of the above 120. Who files tax forms for an independent contractor? A. The independent contractor B. The employer C. The IRS D. The massage board
121. When is revenue from a gift certificate reportable as income? A. When it is redeemed B. When the buyer uses it for a gift C. When it is purchased D. When it is barter income 122. What is a company with two or more persons with ownership and personal liability? A. Corporation B. Networking C. Partnership D. Sole proprietorship 123. What describes the goals and purpose of a business? A. Mission statement B. Resume C. Marketing material D. Financial records 124. Which protects against malpractice? A. Liability insurance B. Life insurance C. Health insurance D. Flood insurance 125. What is keeping track of income and expenses and verifying credentials an example of? A. Licensing B. Tax C. Marketing D. Management
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Exam 15 Answer Key 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. B 31. D 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. D 42. C 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. D B A C C A B D B B B B C C C D D A C A C B B D A D A B A B A C B C C B B B C B A C 85. D 86. B 87. D 88. B 89. D 90. D 91. D 92. B 93. A 94. C 95. C 96. A 97. C 98. A 99. A 100. C 101. D 102. C 103. B 104. C 105. D 106. C 107. A 108. D 109. C 110. A 111. B 112. D 113. D 114. A 115. B 116. C 117. C 118. D 119. D 120. A 121. C 122. C 123. A 124. A 125. D
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Exam 16 1. What is knowing something without going through a conscious process of thinking? A. Centering B. Art C. Hypothesis D. Intuition 2. What is an example of how the structure of a part is related to its function? A. Thin air sacs in lung move oxygen rapidly B. Catabolism C. Exercise physiology D. Dissection 3. Which is the packaging center of the cell? A. Nervous tissue B. Infra-hyoid C. Reticular fibers D. Golgi apparatus or complex 4. Which type of epithelial membrane lines a body cavity that opens directly to the exterior? A. Mucous B. Striated C. Cutaneous D. Synovial 5. Which system includes bones, ligaments, tendons, and joints? A. Nervous B. Musculoskeletal C. Lymphatic D. Integumentary 6. What is a tunnel or canal within a bone? A. Connective tissue B. Foramen C. Meatus D. Sinus 7. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for visual reception? A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal 8. Which system controls growth? A. Endocrine B. Cardiovascular C. Lymphatic D. Reproductive 9. What happens in systemic circulation? A. Blood unloads carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen B. Blood unloads oxygen and picks up carbon dioxide C. Blood unloads carbon dioxide and oxygen D. Blood picks up oxygen and carbon dioxide 10. What specific type of immunity is produced when an individual is exposed to a foreign organism? A. Innate B. Pandemic C. Active D. Passive
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11. If the ovum lives for about 72 hours and the sperm live for about 48 hours, how long is the fertile period? A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. 72 hours D. 120 hours 12. Which are essential nutrients that can serve as coenzymes or cofactors in an essential metabolic process? A. Vitamins and minerals B. Proteins C. Fats or triglycerides D. Carbohydrates 13. Which means toward the tail or posterior? A. Cephalad B. Caudad C. Plantar D. Volar 14. Which means lying face down? A. Erect B. Supine C. Prone D. Laterally recumbent 15. A. B. C. D. What is the cervical region? Sacrum Loin Chest Neck
17. Which method involves the heart constrictor meridian beginning at the thorax, ending at the middle finger, and being associated with circulation? A. Shiatsu B. Reflexology C. Aromatherapy D. All of the above 18. Which chakra is located between the eyebrows? A. Patellar B. Frontal C. Deltoid D. Cervical 19. Where does the pectoralis major insert? A. Scapula B. Calcaneus C. Humerus D. Radius 20. Where is the pes anserinus? A. Distal to the mandible B. Anterior to the lateral malleolus C. Medial to the tibial tuberosity D. Posterior to the skull 21. What muscle originates at the external surface of the ilium and inserts at the greater trochanter? A. Rhomboids B. Deltoid C. Gluteus medius D. Piriformis
16. In which cavity does the spinal cord lie? A. Vertebral B. Caudal C. Thoracic D. Pelvic
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22. What classification of joint has a cavity with fluid? A. Fibrous B. Connective C. Synovial D. Cartilaginous 23. Which muscle abducts the shoulder? A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Vastus lateralis D. Semimembranosus 24. Which is an action of teres minor? A. Abduct the leg B. Medially rotate the shoulder C. Adduct the shoulder D. Flex the knee 25. Which muscle inserts at the last rib and the transverse processes of the first through fourth lumbar vertebrae? A. Trapezius B. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Quadratus lumborum 26. Which muscle contracts for abdominal inhalation? A. Platysma B. Diaphragm C. Internal costals D. External costals 27. Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle and inverts the foot? A. Tibialis anterior B. Brachialis C. Vastus lateralis D. Deltoid
28. Lifting the head is an example of what type of lever? A. First class lever B. Second class lever C. Isometric D. Fulcrum 29. What describes the locked position of a joint? A. Closed kinematic chains B. Fusiform C. Close-packed position D. Loose-packed position 30. What is a fibrous joint that joins bones with a ligament, cord, or membrane, such as the joint of the tibula and fibula? A. Syndesmosis B. Synovial C. Isotonic D. Unipennate 31. What is the movement of the scapula an example of? A. Circumduction B. Lateral flexion C. Gliding D. Flexion and extension 32. What best describes the shape of the stylohyoid muscle? A. Parallel B. Multi-belly C. Diathrosis D. Circular 33. What kind of disease is a caused by molds or yeast? A. Degenerative B. Fungal C. Idiopathic D. Congenital
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34. What refers to the body as a whole? A. Infectious B. Bacterial C. Viral D. Systemic 35. What is a stimulus that causes a psychological imbalance? A. Homeostasis B. Entrainment C. Stress D. Stages of lifecycle 36. What arrangements would be needed for a client with cystitis? A. Hydrotherapy B. Aromatherapy C. Barrier free access D. Frequent bathroom breaks 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for a cyst? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 38. What are antibodies, antivirals, antifungals, anthelmintics, scabicides, and pediculicides? A. Natural supplements B. Gastrointestinal medications C. Hormones D. Anti-infectives
39. What are the implications for massage for a client taking steroids? A. Changes in stress level may impact the dose B. The client's physician should monitor the dose C. Avoid massage methods that may produce inflammation D. All of the above 40. What do depressants such as alcohol block? A. Neurotransmitters and beta blockers B. Dopamine and norepinephrine C. Norepinephrine and melatonin D. Melatonin and lavender 41. What kind of fracture is a break that does not go across the entire bone? A. Incomplete fracture B. Compound fracture C. Topical D. Open fracture 42. What is also known as ischemic necrosis in which the blood supply to a bone is diminished or cut off? A. Malignant neoplasia B. Scheuermann's disease C. Osteonecrosis D. Hepatitis B 43. What is the reaction to repeated exposure to stimuli that explains the autonomic reaction to massage? A. Inflammation B. Toughening / hardening C. Biological rhythm D. Homeostasis
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44. What involves the reexperiencing of flashback memory or state-dependent memory? A. Posttraumatic stress disorder B. Trauma C. Integration D. Denial 45. What is the third stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A. The fight-or-flight response B. Visceral pain C. Alarm reaction D. Exhaustion reaction 46. What is jock itch? A. Tennis elbow B. Spasm in SCM causing head to tilt C. Frozen shoulder D. Tinea cruris 47. Which area is associated with sartorius, adductor longus, and the inguinal ligament? A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus B. Cranial cavity C. Inguinal triangle D. Popliteal fossa 48. Which endangerment site includes the aorta? A. Area of the sternal notch and anterior throat B. Umbilicus area C. Twelfth rib, dorsal body D. Oblique plane
49. What are muscle relaxation, increased mental clarity, pain reduction, and normalizing system function examples of? A. Mechanical effects B. Active joint movements C. Reflexive effects D. Muscle energy techniques 50. Which refers to healing energy and the subtle energy fields around the body? A. Biofields or energetic methods B. Valid research C. Science D. General adaptation syndrome 51. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Injuries B. Insomnia C. Low back pain D. All of the above 52. What is a name for hot packs? A. Empty end feel B. Fomentations C. Baths D. Wraps 53. What are increased blood flow, increased metabolism, reduced pain, and increased range of motion effects of? A. Tonic friction B. Heat C. Cold D. Ice
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54. What is an example of cryotherapy? A. Contrasting hot and cold applications B. Application of heat C. Ice massage D. Immersion 55. Which establishes a boundary between the therapist and the client? A. Compression B. Grounding C. Effleurage D. Petrissage 56. A. B. C. D. Which is petrissage? Cross fiber friction Cupping Kneading Gliding
60. What stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Pre-event sports massage B. 15-minute chair massage C. Longer, relaxing massage D. Percussion 61. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Reduces hyperthermia B. Reduces cortisol levels C. Increases systolic stroke volume D. Reduces superficial keloid formation 62. Which is a shaking or trembling movement? A. Vibration B. Compression C. Kneading D. Percussion 63. A. B. C. D. Which is not effleurage? Superficial gliding Deep gliding Kneading Aura stroking
57. Which stroke would be best for the mandibular region? A. Circular friction B. Cupping C. Kneading D. Gliding 58. What is a psychological effect of massage? A. Reduces aversion to touch for sexual abuse victims B. Increases tension and anxiety C. Relieves muscle cramps D. Increases circulation 59. What is a massage technique with a sedative effect? A. Ischemic compression B. Slapping C. Shaking D. All of the above
64. What stretching technique is not recommended due to the possibility of muscle strain or tear? A. Unassisted static stretching B. Ballistic stretching C. Post-isometric contraction (PIR) D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI) 65. What is most appropriate for reducing blood pressure? A. Effleurage B. Friction C. Slapping D. Tapotement
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66. Which is not appropriate for massage for the critically ill? A. Abbreviated length of session B. Slow, gentle strokes C. Methods that stimulate circulation D. Energy work 67. What is contraindicated for massaging persons with cancer? A. Deep pressure B. Scar massage 4 to 6 weeks after surgery with doctor approval C. Reiki D. All of the above 68. Which hydrotherapy application would improve circulation most? A. Ice bath B. Contrast method C. Diathermy D. Cryotherapy 69. A. B. C. D. What treats trigger points? Strain/counterstrain Percussion Slapping Tapping
71. What is done if a client has arm pain and a depressed coracoid process of the scapula? A. Lengthen pectoralis major B. Lengthen pectoralis minor C. Lengthen pronator teres D. Lengthen triceps brachii 72. What is done if a client has dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, with inversion of the foot? A. Lengthen flexor digitorum longus B. Lengthen extensor digitorum longus C. Lengthen tibialis posterior D. Lengthen tibialis anterior 73. Which muscles is weak if a client has achilles tendinitis and pain behind the knee when flexing the knee? A. Gluteus medius B. Quadratus lumborum C. Psoas D. Hamstrings 74. Where would a trigger point on latissimus dorsi refer pain? A. Above eyelid, sinuses B. Down the lateral side of the arm C. Hip and down lateral side of leg D. Posterior axillary area, scapula, and ulnar side of arm 75. What is the development of relationship based on mutual trust and harmony? A. Rapport B. Care plan C. Assessment D. Palpation
70. If a client has a prominent or high right hip, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch SCMs B. Stretch low back muscles C. Stretch left lateral thigh muscles D. Stretch hamstrings
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76. Where on the SOAP chart are the short-term goals based on the activities of daily living recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 77. What is a desired result following a massage after identifying short tissues? A. Functional assessment B. Muscle testing C. Lengthen and stretch tight areas D. Compression 78. When a jointed area moves into flexion and the joint angle is decreased, what do the prime mover and synergists do? A. Concentrically contract B. Eccentrically contract while lengthening C. Isometrically contract and stabilize D. Repair injured cells 79. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, which muscles are most likely elongated and weak? A. Neck flexors B. Neck extensors C. Lateral rotators of flexed knee D. Temporalis and soleus 80. What is natural when standing barefoot? A. Slight in-toeing B. Slight out-toeing C. Parallel D. Outward rotating
81. If a client has flat back posture, which muscles are likely elongated and weak? A. Arm flexors B. Hamstrings C. Abdominals D. Hip flexors 82. Regarding faulty posture of the feet, what happens with a low metatarsal arch? A. Flat foot B. Slue-footed C. Pigeon-toed D. Calluses under ball of foot 83. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in right handed individuals? A. Right peroneus longus and brevis B. Temporalis C. Transverse abdominis D. Left peroneus longus and brevis 84. Which are short and strong with the left hip adducted and medially rotated, right hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Right lateral trunk muscles, left and right hip abductors B. Deltoid and trapezius C. Left flexor hallucis longus and left flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 85. What is generally the next step in a massage session after performing the massage? A. Obtain informed consent B. Update SOAP chart and client records C. Get referrals D. Medical history forms
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86. What inflammation of a bursa caused by overuse of surrounding structures? A. Trigger finger B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Tennis elbow D. Bursitis 87. What could cause frozen shoulder? A. Intrinsic muscle trauma B. Trigger points in subscapularis C. Hyperkyphosis D. All of the above 88. What is a condition that involves compression of the brachial plexus and its artery? A. Frozen shoulder B. Bursitis C. Torticollis D. Thoracic outlet syndrome 89. What is treated by focusing on the muscle that provides lateral support at the knee? A. Piriformis syndrome B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 90. What is a characteristic of flat-back posture? A. Weak abdominals B. Tight hamstrings C. Anterior pelvic tilt D. All of the above 91. Which is a structural and postural integration approach? A. Reflexology B. Craniosacral therapy C. Bindegewebmassage D. Ayurveda
92. Which is based on a balance flow of energy as an important element for a healthy body? A. Polarity therapy B. Reciprocal inhibition C. Deep transverse friction D. Myofascial release 93. Who developed a method that uses trigger points? A. Dr. Emil and Dr. Estrid Vodder B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and Eunice Ingram C. Boris Chaitow and Stanley Leif D. Janet Travel 94. Which massage system uses many of the Swedish movements? A. Chinese B. English C. Greek D. Indian 95. Which early massage system included anatripsis, the art of rubbing a body part upward? A. Chinese B. French C. Greek D. German 96. What NMT technique involves digital pressure directly into a trigger point? A. Ischemic compression B. Skin rolling C. Stretching D. All of the above
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97. Which section of a standards of practice would contain guidance on insurance and accounting? A. Communication B. Legal and Ethical Requirements C. Confidentiality D. Business practices 98. What is an agreement to participate in an activity after the purpose has been explained? A. Code of ethics B. Informed consent C. Marketing D. Standards of practice 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Confidentiality C. Working on a minor without parental consent D. All of the above 100. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Rights as professionals B. Contract C. Right of refusal D. None of the above 101. What might explain a therapist taking on symptoms and conditions experienced by clients? A. Excessive permeable boundary B. Passive range of motion C. Dual relationship D. Networking
102. Doing spinal adjustments without the proper training is what type of unethical behavior? A. Informed consent violation B. Confidentiality C. Practicing beyond the scope of practice D. None of the above 103. Hugging a client in a sexual manner is what type of behavior? A. Unethical B. Sexual misconduct C. Answers A and B are correct D. None of the above 104. Using a provocative picture in a brochure is what type of unethical behavior? A. Misleading claims of curative abilities B. Accessibility violation C. Inappropriate advertising D. None of the above 105. What is appropriate when a client says they are going to stop their medical treatment now? A. Tell the client it is OK to stop the medical treatment B. Suggest the client discuss it with their primary care provider C. Prescribe a different medical treatment D. None of the above
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106. What is an issue if a therapist agrees to trade massages for taking care of a pet, then the pet is injured? A. Scope of practice B. Dual relationship C. Transference D. Countertransference 107. What is more common at the state government level rather than the local government level? A. Licensing requirements B. Restrictions on businesses operated from a home C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. What supports professional ethics? A. Sexual misconduct B. Continuing education C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 109. What occurs when a therapist gets angry because a client complains about personal problems? A. Transference B. Dual relationship C. Boundaries D. Countertransference 110. What is more important during the pre-massage interview if a client felt treated as an object while filling out forms in the waiting room? A. Dual relationships B. Scope of practice C. Laws and regulations D. Sincere and clear communication
111. What is a sexual misconduct boundary violation? A. Sexual comments about the client's body B. Sexual jokes C. Failure to ensure a client's privacy D. All of the above 112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Sexual arousal B. Inform clients of their rights C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is the main factor in determining the proper height of the massage table? A. Therapist's height B. Client's height C. Therapist's experience D. All of the above 114. How can electrodes and implements be sanitized? A. Warm water B. 70% ethyl alcohol solution C. Cold water D. All of the above 115. What is the secondary infection precaution? A. Hand washing with 10% bleach B. Hanging linens out to dry C. Use of latex gloves D. Washing linens in cold water
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116. What is a therapist personal safety practice? A. Use proper body mechanics B. Maintain first aid and CPR certification C. Give contact information to an associate when leaving to perform in-house massage D. All of the above 117. What is the first step when responding to a first aid emergency? A. Call 911 B. Check the scene and the victim C. Provide care for the victim D. Stop the bleeding 118. What protects the practitioner's hands? A. Hyperextend the wrist B. Use the forearms and elbows for deep pressure C. Use the heel of the hand for deep pressure D. Stay on top of the massage movement rather than in front 119. In which stance is the therapist facing the massage table with the toes in a line, pointed forward? A. Asymmetric B. Body mechanics C. Symmetric D. Laterally recumbent 120. Which stance is best for deep effleurage? A. Asymmetric B. Seated C. Laterally recumbent D. Symmetric
121. What is the purpose of draping? A. Warmth B. Modesty C. Comfort D. All of the above 122. Which vitamin can be synthesized by the body? A. Ginseng B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E 123. What is the purpose of Schedule K-1 of Form 1065-B? A. Sole proprietor's income or loss B. Partner's share of income or loss C. Corporation's income or loss D. Deductible expenses 124. What is similar to a corporation but with the partners having limited personal liability? A. S Corporation B. Partnership C. Sole proprietorship D. LLC 125. What are systems of mass communication? A. Mission statements B. Business cards C. Resumes D. Media
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Exam 16 Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C 21. C 22. C 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. C 36. D 37. C 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. A 42. C 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B A D D C B C A D B B C B C A A A C C A C B A C A B A C B D D D A C C A A B D D A C 85. B 86. D 87. D 88. D 89. B 90. B 91. C 92. A 93. D 94. B 95. C 96. A 97. D 98. B 99. C 100. D 101. A 102. C 103. C 104. C 105. B 106. B 107. A 108. B 109. D 110. D 111. D 112. B 113. A 114. B 115. C 116. D 117. B 118. B 119. C 120. A 121. D 122. C 123. B 124. D 125. D
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Exam 17 1. What is the intellectual process of using all resources available to better understand and predict natural phenomena? A. Science B. Centering C. Art D. Marketing 2. What is an example of how the structure of a part is related to its function? A. Thick air sacs in lung move oxygen slowly B. Loose skull bones C. Thick bladder lining prevents urine from escaping into pelvic cavity D. Cardiovascular physiology 3. Which fibers are very strong and resist pulling forces but are not stiff? A. Collagen B. Loose C. Chakra D. Fibrillin 4. Which type of epithelial membrane lines the digestive, respiratory, and reproductive tracts? A. Mucous B. Cerebral C. Cutaneous D. Synovial 5. What bone structure has little space between tissues? A. Compact bone B. Spongy bone C. Endoskeleton D. Cancellous bone 6. What part of a muscle attaches to bone? A. Aponeurosis B. Perimysium C. Tendon D. Belly 7. Why are behaviors such as substance abuse, gambling, eating, and thrill seeking potentially addictive? A. Reticular activation system B. The pleasure center in the midbrain and pons release feel-good neurotransmitters C. Homeostasis D. The pleasure center in the hypothalamus releases feelgood neurotransmitters 8. Which system produces hormones? A. Lymphatic B. Respiratory C. Endocrine D. Urinary 9. What receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium? A. Jejunum B. Aorta C. Right atrium D. Left ventricle 10. Which system includes the kidneys, ureter, bladder, and urethra? A. Digestive B. Lymphatic C. Reproductive D. Urinary
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11. Which system controls testosterone secretion? A. Circulatory B. Lymphatic C. Reproductive D. Urinary 12. What nutrient is a component of enzymes required for synthesis of ATP? A. Lavender B. Saw palmetto C. Magnesium D. Vitamin A 13. Which means toward the head? A. Cephalad B. Caudad C. Plantar D. Volar 14. A. B. C. D. Which means lying face up? Erect Supine Prone Laterally recumbent
17. Which method involves the chest meridian beginning in the chest, ending in the thumb, and being associated with the intake of ki? A. Acupressure B. Pin and stretch C. Soft tissue release D. All of the above 18. Which chakra is located at the base of the spine? A. Root B. Cranium C. Umbilical D. Popliteal 19. What is the action of a muscle to shorten and thicken? A. Expansion B. Striation C. Contractility D. Spasm 20. Where does the flexor carpi ulnaris insert? A. Humerus B. Radius C. Tibia D. Carpal 21. Where is the tibial tuberosity? A. Anterior to the lateral malleolus B. Posterior to the clavicle C. Directly medial from olecranon process D. Distal to the patella on the shaft of the tibia
15. Which region of the trunk has four vertebrae fused into one? A. Coccyx B. Cervical C. Lumbar D. Thoracic 16. What refers to movement around a longitudinal axis in a transverse plane? A. Circumduction B. Lateral flexion C. Gliding D. Rotation
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22. What muscle originates at the coccyx, sacrum and iliac crest and inserts at the gluteal tuberosity and IT tract? A. Gluteus maximus B. Piriformis C. Tibialis anterior D. Serratus anterior 23. What is the shape of the digastric muscle? A. Convergent B. Fusiform C. Multi-belly D. Circular 24. What is the functional class of a slightly moveable joint? A. First class lever B. Isotonic C. Diathrosis D. Amphiarthrosis 25. What is the zebra striped pattern called? A. Dorsal root ganglion B. Reflex mechanism C. Dermatome D. Myotome 26. What group includes rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius? A. Quadriceps B. Hamstrings C. Adductors D. Abductors 27. Which originates on the superior half of the lateral border of the scapula? A. External oblique B. Infraspinatus C. Teres minor D. All of the above
28. What are the actions of the sternocleidomastoid? A. Flex knee and hip B. Assist in depression of the mandible C. Laterally flex and rotate head and neck, flex neck D. Flex the shoulder 29. Which muscles adduct, elevate, and downwardly rotate the scapula? A. Levator scapula, brachialis B. Levator scapula, rectus femoris C. Latissimus dorsi, teres major D. Rhomboid major and minor 30. What does the tibialis posterior do? A. Plantar flexes and inverts the foot B. Dorsiflexes and everts the foot C. Flexion of the arm D. Extension of the wrist 31. Which muscle flexes the neck? A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Rectus capitis posterior major C. Trapezius D. Levator scapula 32. Which proprioceptors are stretch receptors that respond to sudden and excessive lengthening? A. First class levers B. Golgi tendon organs C. Synovial joints D. Muscle spindles
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33. What is pain? A. An unpleasant subjective sensation B. Hyperplasia C. An unpleasant sensation from an internal organ D. Endangerment site 34. What means capable of being transmitted with or without contact? A. Infectious B. Bacterial C. Viral D. Syndrome 35. What is a prognosis? A. The categorization of a disease B. The expected outcome of a disease C. The observed evidence of a disease D. A pandemic disease 36. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for a hematoma? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Indicated in the acute stage 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for gastroenteritis? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage
38. What is a condition in which the arteries become inelastic and brittle? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Anemia C. Hepatitis B D. HIV 39. What are the implications for massage for a client taking calcium channel blockers? A. The client may be susceptible to cold B. The medication may result in dizziness after the massage C. Massage may help with constipation D. All of the above 40. What type of medication might be used for allergies? A. Melatonin B. Antidepressants C. Antihistamines D. Anti-inflammatory 41. What is a natural supplement used for warts and cold sores? A. Camphor B. Brewer's yeast C. Anticoagulant D. NSAID 42. What is golfer's or pitcher's elbow, caused by repetitive flexion of the wrist as in throwing? A. Bursitis B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Medial epicondylitis D. Adhesive capsulitis
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43. What involves degeneration and necrosis at the head of the femur? A. Legg-Calve'-Perthes disease B. Scoliosis C. Malignant melanoma D. Osteochondritis dissecans 44. What occurs as a result of physical injury by violent or disruptive action? A. Conservation withdrawal B. Trauma C. Integration D. Denial 45. A deficiency of which vitamin would cause beriberi? A. Vitamin A B. Thiamine C. Vitamin C D. Aloe 46. A. B. C. D. What is acute? Widespread Sudden onset Mild Long duration
49. What is the result of pressure or movement on one part of the body having an effect in another part? A. Mechanical effects B. Physiological effects C. Reflexive effects D. Mind-body effects 50. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Creates hyperthermia B. Reduces cortisol levels C. Constricts blood vessels D. Reduces superficial keloid formation 51. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Lung disease B. Lymphedema C. Multiple sclerosis D. All of the above 52. What is a bag or sack used to apply heat or cold? A. Bath B. Pack C. Hydrocollator D. Cryotherapy 53. What is the neurological state in which painful stimuli are moderated? A. Vasoconstriction B. Inflammation C. Slight analgesia D. Cryotherapy 54. Which is a type of superficial effleurage? A. Resting stroke B. Grounding C. Nerve stroke D. Centering
47. Which nerve pierces the psoas major muscle? A. Greater occipital B. Femoral C. Axillary D. Chakra 48. Which endangerment site includes the location of the kidney? A. Area of the sternal notch and anterior throat B. Umbilicus area C. Twelfth rib, dorsal body D. Occipital region
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55. Which is more effective without oil? A. Cross fiber friction B. Petrissage C. Kneading D. Gliding 56. Which uses a grasping and lifting action to pull tissue from bone? A. Effleurage B. Petrissage C. Cross fiber friction D. Tapotement 57. What is the body's automatic response to stop blood loss? A. Hemostasis B. Inflammation C. Vasodilatation D. Phagocytosis 58. What is a psychological effect of massage? A. Increases aversion to touch for sexual abuse victims B. Reduces depression and anxiety C. Relieves muscle cramps D. Increases circulation 59. What is an effect of massage on the muscular system? A. Fresh supply of blood to muscles B. Removal of waste products C. Helps nourish tissues D. All of the above 60. What is light tapping or slapping? A. Vibration B. Percussion C. Friction D. Ischemic compression
61. What is initiated by sympathetic stimulation? A. Adrenal secretions increased B. Sweat glands activated C. Body is more alert and attentive D. All of the above 62. What is reduced by massage? A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Endorphins D. Pain 63. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Decreases serotonin B. Reduces dopamine levels C. Decreases systolic stroke volume D. Dilates capillary beds 64. Which is not Swedish massage? A. Effleurage B. Petrissage C. Cryotherapy D. Tapotement 65. A. B. C. D. What is not kneading? Skin rolling Light stroking Lifting Grasping
66. What is a vigorous rhythmic movement? A. Effleurage B. Gliding C. Friction D. Nerve strokes
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67. What is the causative agent for AIDS? A. Herpes B. HIV C. T-cell D. Kaposi's sarcoma 68. What induces vasoconstriction? A. Effleurage B. Cryotherapy C. Friction D. Nerve strokes 69. What would benefit from the contrast method? A. Infectious diseases B. High blood pressure C. Acute muscle spasms D. Chronic muscle spasms 70. If a client has lordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch right lateral trunk muscles B. Stretch left lateral thigh muscles C. Stretch low back muscles D. Stretch hamstrings 71. What is done if a client has limited range of motion in lateral rotation and abduction of the shoulder? A. Lengthen rhomboid major B. Lengthen trapezius C. Lengthen teres minor D. Lengthen teres major 72. What is the treatment if a client walks with the toes out? A. Stretch gluteus medius B. Stretch plantar flexors C. Stretch gluteus maximus D. Stretch psoas
73. Which muscles is overactive if a client has Achilles tendinitis and pain behind the knee when flexing the knee? A. Gluteus medius B. Gastrocnemius C. Psoas D. Hamstrings 74. What includes all recommendations for future treatment? A. Ergonomics B. Referral C. Self help D. Treatment plan 75. Where on the SOAP chart is range-of-motion testing documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 76. What is the limit on the range of motion of a joint? A. Soft tissue dysfunction B. Inflammation C. Protective muscle contraction D. Normal end feel 77. What involves a hypertonic muscle stabilizing or splinting an area? A. Antagonist B. Trigger point C. Target muscle D. Muscle guarding
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78. If a client says an area is tight, what type of issue is it usually? A. Muscle tone issue B. Connective tissue or fluid retention issue C. Joint issue D. An issue that requires an immediate referral to a primary care provider 79. What is happening when the pelvis maintains its ideal alignment? A. The arm flexors pull upward B. The back muscles pull downward C. The abdominal muscles pull downward D. The posterior hip flexors pull downward 80. If a client has lordotic posture, which muscles are most likely somewhat elongated and may or may not be weak? A. Lateral flexors of neck B. Hamstrings C. Muscles of feet D. Hip flexors 81. What is the normal position of the foot in relation to the lower leg? A. Slight in-toeing B. Slight out-toeing C. Parallel D. Outward rotating
82. Which are long and weak with the right hip adducted and medially rotated, left hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Right lateral trunk muscles, left and right hip abductors B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior C. Right deltoid and right triceps brachii D. All of the above 83. What is a characteristic of good alignment of the knees? A. The plumb line passes slightly anterior to the axis of the knee joint B. The plumb line passes slightly posterior to the axis of the knee joint C. The ankle joint is in plantar flexion D. Genu varum 84. Where is the center of gravity with ideally aligned posture? A. Slightly anterior to the first or second sacral segment B. Atlas C. Axis D. Knees 85. How does a therapist test the right leg extensors? A. Client holds left foot position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds left leg position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure D. None of the above
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86. What is not part of the treatment for plantar fasciitis? A. Apply cold in the acute stage B. Apply heat in the chronic stage C. Treat the lengthened gastrocnemius and soleus D. Cross fiber friction on adhesions 87. What is a treatment for bursitis? A. Compression on the bursa B. Joint play for hypomobile joints C. Heat in the acute stage D. Cold in the chronic stage 88. What is most frequently painful in abduction and external rotation? A. Frozen shoulder B. Bursitis C. Trigger finger D. Whiplash 89. What results in numbness and tingling in the lateral three and one-half digits? A. Trigger finger B. Piriformis syndrome C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Thoracic outlet syndrome 90. What is characterized by weak abdominals, gluteus maximus, and hamstrings? A. Hyperlordosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Flat-back posture
91. What type of approach is Hellerwork which was developed by Joseph Heller? A. Trigger point therapy B. Myofascial approach C. Energetic method D. Structural integration 92. What type of sports massage is given after an event when there are no injuries present? A. Pre-event massage B. Recovery massage C. Chair massage D. Rehabilitation massage 93. Who formalized a myofascial approach focusing on connective tissue? A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr. Estrid Vodder B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and Eunice Ingram C. John F. Barnes D. Janet Travel 94. What was developed in Hawaii? A. Shiatsu B. Ayurveda C. Anma D. Lomi lomi 95. Which uses doshas such as vata, pitta, and kapha? A. Sushumna B. Effleurage C. Ayurveda D. Petrissage 96. Which is an energy technique? A. Polarity therapy B. Reiki C. Touch for Health D. All of the above
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97. Which section of a standards of practice would contain guidance on hygiene and draping? A. Professionalism B. Legal Requirements C. Informed consent D. Accounting 98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Client-centered actions and words B. Inappropriate advertising C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above 99. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent B. Misleading claims C. Inappropriate advertising D. All of the above 100. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Personal needs B. Medical advice C. Client-centered actions and words D. All of the above 101. What is an example of a type of boundary? A. Interpersonal B. Physical C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
102. Which duty of health professionals is more compelling if they are in conflict? A. Do no harm B. Do positive good C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. What occurs when a therapist who is sad assumes that a client is sad? A. Projection B. Power differential C. Dual relationship D. Networking 104. What should the therapist do if a child under 18 asks for an exception to getting parental consent for a massage? A. Do the massage if a friend says it is OK B. Do not do the massage C. Do the massage if the minor promises to get permission later D. Do the massage but decrease the duration 105. What is beyond the scope of practice for massage therapists? A. Soft tissue techniques B. Assessment C. Bodywork D. Diagnosis 106. What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? A. Self-care B. Friendship C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
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107. What is more common at the local government level rather than the state government level? A. Zoning B. Restrictions on businesses operated from a home C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. Guidance on which topic is typically found in a code of ethics? A. Fee structure B. Tax C. Insurance D. None of the above 109. What is the response of the therapist's unconscious towards the client? A. Dual relationships B. Transference C. Confidentiality D. Countertransference 110. What happens if a therapist asks a client about their sex life? A. Dual relationship B. Boundary crossing C. Countertransference D. Sincere and clear communication 111. What is a sexual misconduct boundary violation? A. Strong interest in or disapproval of client's sexual orientation B. Comments about sexual performance C. Conversations about sexual preferences or fantasies D. All of the above
112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Use appropriate language B. Use appropriate draping C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What keeps massage oil, cream, or lotion from being contaminated? A. Remove from containers with the fingers B. Remove from containers without touching the product C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 114. Where is the best place to store clean linens? A. Floor B. Hamper C. Dryer D. Closed cabinet 115. What is used on surgical instruments in hospitals? A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. All of the above 116. What is a system of infection control? A. Universal precautions B. Strategic planning C. Contraindication D. Scope of practice
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117. What is a client safety practice? A. Understand paths of infection B. Provide safe and clear entryways and passages C. Assist clients on and off massage table D. All of the above 118. In which stance does the therapist have one foot in front of the other with the back foot laterally rotated? A. Symmetric B. Body mechanics C. Laterally recumbent D. Asymmetric 119. What draping method can be used with a large bath sheet towel or one half of a full or double sheet? A. Top cover method B. Full sheet method C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 120. Which helps in the formation of teeth and bones? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Iron D. Calcium 121. What are advantages of being an employee? A. Keep more of fee collected B. Flexible hours C. Steady income D. All of the above
122. Costs for what could be deductible as a business expense? A. Linens B. Licensing C. Memberships D. All of the above 123. What is promoting a business? A. Insurance B. Marketing C. Mission statement D. Start up costs 124. What protects against lawsuits for claims of professional misconduct? A. Unemployment insurance B. Disability insurance C. Liability insurance D. Property insurance 125. What is a simple way to provide contact information? A. Mission statements B. Business cards C. Resumes D. Advertising
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Exam 17 Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. A 32. D 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. D 40. C 41. A 42. C 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. A B B B B C C A D B C C A B A B D B D D D C B C B B D C D B B D B D D A D B B B A A 85. B 86. C 87. B 88. A 89. C 90. A 91. D 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. C 96. D 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. C 101. C 102. A 103. A 104. B 105. D 106. B 107. A 108. D 109. D 110. B 111. D 112. C 113. B 114. D 115. A 116. A 117. D 118. D 119. A 120. D 121. C 122. D 123. B 124. C 125. B
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Exam 18 1. What is not a science but a craft, skill, technique, or talent? A. Anatomy B. Art C. Hypothesis D. Diagnosis 2. Which are two or more atoms joined together? A. Cells B. Organs C. Systems D. Molecules 3. Which fibers are smaller in diameter than collagen and join together to form a network within a tissue? A. Fibroblasts B. Lymph C. Hyaline cartilage D. Elastic 4. Which type of epithelial membrane lines a body cavity that does not open directly to the exterior? A. Mitosis B. Serous C. Cutaneous D. Synovial 5. What bone structure has larger spaces between cells, producing lighter bones? A. Compact bone B. Spongy bone C. Dense bone D. Irregular bone 6. What classification of bones includes the round bones embedded in joints and tendons such as the patella? A. Sesamoid B. Sutural C. Flat D. Irregular 7. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for speech and thought? A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Femoral D. Frontal 8. Which system initiates gradual changes in the body that last a long time? A. Nervous B. Muscular C. Endocrine D. Cardiovascular 9. What receives oxygenated blood from the lungs? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Right atrium C. Pulmonary veins D. Liver 10. Which is part of the urinary system? A. Pancreas B. Esophagus C. Small Intestine D. Kidney
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11. Which system includes the ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina? A. Lymphatic B. Reproductive C. Urinary D. Circulatory 12. What is the range of the length of the phase of healing in which the remodeling of the tissue is completed? A. Less than 24 hours B. 1-2 days C. 2-3 days to 1 week D. 6 weeks to one year or longer 13. A. B. C. D. Which means to the back? Dorsal Lateral Medial Peripheral
17. Which method involves the triple heater meridian beginning at the middle finger, ending at the eyebrow, and being associated with protection? A. Craniosacral therapy B. Shiatsu C. Swedish massage D. All of the above 18. Which chakra is located on the top of the head? A. Gluteal B. Lumbar C. Coronal D. Kidney 19. What is usually the proximal attachment of a muscle? A. Insertion B. Origin C. Belly D. Spindle 20. Where does the anconeus insert? A. Clavicle B. Scapula C. Ulna D. Metacarpal 21. Where is the iliac tubercle? A. Anterior to the lateral malleolus B. Posterior to the iliac crest C. Distal to the ulna D. Distal to the patella on the shaft of the tibia
14. Which plane divides the body into left and right sides? A. Midsagittal B. Sagittal C. Median D. All of the above 15. Which region of the trunk has seven vertebrae? A. Sacral B. Cervical C. Lumbar D. Gastric 16. What are structures farthest away from the transverse plane? A. Anterior or posterior B. Cranial or caudal C. Medial or lateral D. Frontal or sagittal
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22. Which muscles are shortened by wearing high heeled shoes? A. Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior B. Latissimus dorsi and teres major C. Gastrocnemius and soleus D. Geniohyoid and stylohyoid 23. What best describes the shape of the rectus abdominis muscle? A. Convergent B. Fusiform C. Multi-belly D. Circular 24. What is the functional class of a freely moveable joint? A. Synarthrosis B. Gomphosis C. Diathrosis D. Third class lever 25. What is a sensory segment of the skin supplied by a specific nerve root? A. Myelin B. Rhodopsin C. Dermatome D. Myotome 26. Which muscles laterally rotate, adduct, extend, and horizontally abduct the shoulder? A. Splenius capitis and infraspinatus B. Infraspinatus and teres minor C. Teres minor and vastus lateralis D. Supraspinatus and subscapularis
27. Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna? A. Triceps brachii B. Deltoid C. Trapezius D. Biceps femoris 28. Which muscle flexes, laterally rotates, and abducts the hip? A. Psoas major B. Biceps femoris C. Sartorius D. Deltoid 29. What movement occurs at the radioulnar joint? A. Depression B. Rotation C. Radial deviation D. Ulnar deviation 30. A. B. C. D. Which is a hip flexor? Splenius capitis Rectus abdominis Erector spinae Iliopsoas
31. What type of joint only allows flexion and extension? A. Gliding B. Ellipsoid C. Hinge D. Ball and socket 32. Which proprioceptors are found in joints and respond to pressure and joint movement? A. Joint kinesthetic receptors B. Golgi tendon organs C. Somatic reflex arcs D. Muscle spindles
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33. What is visceral pain? A. Persistent chronic pain B. Trauma C. An unpleasant sensation from an internal organ D. Neoplasm 34. What means caused by a pathogen that can grow after infecting a host cell? A. Trauma B. Bacterial C. Viral D. Systemic 35. What is a diagnosis? A. The categorization of a disease B. The expected outcome of a disease C. Exacerbation of a disease D. A syndrome 36. Which is generally indicated for massage? A. Lymphangitis B. Sprains C. Acutely inflamed joints D. Acute burns 37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for influenza? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 38. Which is true regarding the goal of massaging clients with a terminal illness? A. Focus on the cure B. Recommend alternative medicine C. Provide comfort D. Do not grieve upon death
39. What are cancer treatment agents? A. Hormones B. Bee pollen C. Antineoplastics D. Central nervous system medications 40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking anti-infectives? A. Recommend changes in the dose B. Avoid exposing the client to a cold C. Avoid energetic massage methods D. Do not perform the massage 41. What is the inflammation of more than one vertebra? A. Hepatitis B B. Lupus C. Spondylitis D. Torticollis 42. What kind of fracture involves a break in a bone that does not break the skin or injure soft tissue? A. Ossification B. Compound fracture C. Open fracture D. Simple or closed fracture 43. What is caused most commonly by necrosis or inflammation of a bone or disk in the thoracic vertebrae? A. Legg-Calve'-Perthes disease B. Scheuermann's disease C. Lateral epicondylitis D. Hernia
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44. In general, for which client would massage be appropriate? A. Terminally ill client B. Unaccompanied minor child C. Athlete with an acute fracture D. Client under the influence of non-prescribed drugs 45. In which phase of stress do vital systems collapse? A. Exhaustion B. Resistance C. Alarm D. All of the above 46. What can be caused by repetitive flexion of the wrist? A. Tennis elbow B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow C. Peritonitis D. Frozen shoulder 47. Which nerve emerges through the space bounded by the teres major, teres minor, long head of the triceps and humerus? A. Greater occipital B. Femoral C. Axillary D. Transverse 48. Which endangerment site includes a nerve under the piriformis muscle? A. Lumbar region B. Umbilicus area C. Twelfth rib, dorsal body D. Sciatic notch
49. What are organic processes of the body on cellular, tissue, or organ system levels? A. Hard end feel B. Physiological effects C. Placebo effects D. Mind-body effects 50. What are the two categories of physiological effects of massage? A. Art and intuition B. Reflexive methods and mechanical methods C. The mind/body effect and the placebo effect D. Stress and the general adaptation syndrome 51. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Nerve entrapment B. Poor circulation C. Pregnancy and postpartum D. All of the above 52. What is a wet cloth with water wrung from it that is applied to the skin's surface? A. Compress B. Pack C. Bath D. Cryotherapy 53. What is a bath with salt? A. Steam bath B. Sauna C. Saline bath D. Paraffin bath 54. A. B. C. D. Which stroke is skin rolling? Vibration Cupping Kneading Gliding
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55. Which stroke applies pressure to soft tissues to squeeze them together without any slip? A. Compression B. Grounding C. Effleurage D. Petrissage 56. Which is true regarding the application of petrissage? A. Stay in the same spot B. Start with maximum pressure and gradually decrease the pressure C. Keep the fingers apart D. Use a rhythm of about one stroke per second 57. What is a physical effect of massage? A. Increases metabolism B. Hastens healing C. Relaxes and refreshes the muscles D. All of the above 58. What is an effect of massage on the skin? A. Improved posture B. Increased activity of sweat and oil glands C. Decreased circulation to the skin D. Reduction in serotonin 59. What is an effect of passive joint movements? A. Increases movement of blood and lymph B. Sooths the nerves C. Lubricates the joints D. All of the above
60. What massage movement produces an instantaneous temporary dilation of the capillaries? A. Petrissage or kneading B. Light stroking C. Deep stroking D. All of the above 61. Which is a petrissage movement? A. Percussion B. Fulling C. Gliding D. Friction 62. Which lifts, squeezes and presses the tissues? A. Deep effleurage B. Kneading C. Tapping D. Cross fiber friction 63. When is effleurage typically used during a session? A. Only at the beginning B. Only at the end C. At the beginning and the end D. In the middle 64. Which stroke is not petrissage? A. Superficial gliding B. Kneading C. Skin rolling D. Fulling 65. What reduces the intensity of deep tissue techniques? A. Percussion B. Vibration C. Friction D. Tapotement
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66. Which is not advisable for pregnancy massage? A. Light effleurage B. Deep tissue massage C. Side-lying position D. Supine position 67. What is the purpose massage for the critically ill? A. Bring comfort and relaxation B. Remove toxins C. Stimulate circulation D. It is contraindicated 68. A. B. C. D. Where is HIV rarely found? Blood Semen and vaginal secretions Saliva Mother's milk
72. What is done if a client has an everted or valgus position of the foot? A. Lengthen soleus B. Lengthen peroneus brevis C. Lengthen tibialis posterior D. Lengthen gastrocnemius 73. Which muscles is overactive if a client has plantar tendinitis and knee pain under the patella when extending the knee? A. Gluteus medius B. Vastus medius C. Vastus lateralis D. Hamstrings 74. What coordinates activities with work equipment? A. Ergonomics B. Referral C. Self help D. Treatment plan 75. Where on the SOAP chart are the long-term goals based on the activities of daily living recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 76. When the range of motion of a joint normally allows 0 to 90 degrees of flexion, what is anything more? A. Relaxed B. Hypomobile C. Hypermobile D. Tensed
69. What most likely results in decreased joint stiffness? A. Ice bath B. R.I.C.E.S C. Thermotherapy D. Cryotherapy 70. What is appropriate for sway-back posture? A. Stretch right lateral trunk muscles B. Stretch left lateral thigh muscles C. Stretch low back muscles D. Stretch hamstrings 71. If a client has a C-curve of the back, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen erector spinae B. Lengthen short lateral internal and external obliques C. Lengthen left internal and right external obliques D. Lengthen hamstrings
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77. What is a likely characteristic of a tense muscle? A. Too strong B. Inhibited C. Too weak D. Atrophy 78. What change in muscle size do massage methods usually produce? A. Smaller muscles B. Larger muscles C. Shorter muscles D. Longer muscles 79. Which muscles are elongated and weak with kyphoticlordotic posture? A. Neck flexors B. Upper back erector spinae C. External obliques D. All of the above 80. If a client has flat back posture, which muscles are most likely short and strong? A. Neck flexors B. Hamstrings C. Splenius capitis and deltoid D. Hip flexors 81. What is associated with ideal alignment in the posterior view? A. Elevated shoulders B. Medial borders of scapulae parallel C. In-toeing D. All of the above
82. Which are long and weak with the left hip adducted and medially rotated, right hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Occipitofrontalis and temporalis B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior C. Right flexor hallucis longus and right flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 83. Which is an incorrect set up considering ergonomics at a computer workstation? A. Phone headset B. Chair has armrests C. Monitor at or below eye level D. Computer in a corner on a platform 84. Which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in right handed individuals? A. Posterior superior iliac spine B. Left tibialis anterior C. Ischial tuberosity D. Right lateral trunk muscles 85. What paperwork is completed before the massage to help the therapist develop a treatment plan? A. Assessment B. SOAP chart C. Informed consent D. Intake and medical history forms
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86. What may be caused by occupations requiring hammering or using a screwdriver? A. Rotator cuff tendinitis B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Medial epicondylitis D. Tennis elbow 87. Which is not a treatment for bursitis? A. Cold in the acute stage B. Deep moist heat in the chronic stage C. Compression on the bursa D. Joint play for hypomobile joints 88. What is a symptom of frozen shoulder? A. Unrestricted range of motion B. Painful abduction and external rotation C. Hypermobility D. All of the above 89. What refers pain down the posterior thigh? A. Torticollis B. Piriformis syndrome C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Thoracic outlet syndrome 90. What is treated by stretching the SCM, upper trapezius, suboccipitals, levator scapulae, and scalenes? A. Flat-back posture B. Hyperlordosis C. Hyperkyphosis D. Scoliosis
91. What approach focusing on connective tissue was formalized by John F. Barnes? A. Trigger points B. Myofascial approach C. Acupressure D. Structural integration 92. What method developed by Dr. John Upledger is for the purpose of manipulating the rhythmic flow of the cerebrospinal fluid? A. Ortho-bionomy B. Craniosacral therapy C. Bindegewebmassage D. Polarity therapy 93. What would an aromatherapy bath or massage oil of lavender, clary sage, melissa, ylang ylang, bergamot and chamomile be used for? A. Relaxing B. Assessment C. Stimulating D. Draping 94. Which early system of massage uses anmo techniques including rubbing, pressing, and manipulation? A. Chinese B. Swedish C. German D. French 95. Which massage system uses many of the Swedish movements? A. Chinese B. French C. Greek D. Indian
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96. What was developed in California? A. Shiatsu B. Ayurveda C. Esalen massage D. Lomi lomi 97. Which section of a standards of practice would contain guidance on violations and complaints? A. Power differential B. Legal and Ethical Requirements C. Confidentiality D. Overhead 98. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Informed consent violations B. Misleading claims C. Exploiting the power differential D. All of the above 99. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Dating a client B. Misleading claims of curative abilities C. Working on a minor with parental consent D. All of the above 100. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Right of refusal B. Other business deals C. Psychological counseling D. All of the above
101. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Spiritual advice B. Confidentiality C. Scope of practice D. All of the above 102. What should the therapist do if a client reveals that they abuse their children on a regular basis? A. Do nothing B. Contact the child welfare authorities where required by law C. Tell the client not to reveal that information D. Recommend prescription medication 103. Implying that attending a workshop is the same as having an advanced degree is what type of unethical behavior? A. Misrepresentation of educational status B. Sexual misconduct C. Practicing beyond the scope of practice D. None of the above 104. What relates to privacy? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. HIPPA 105. What is the knowledge base and practice parameters of a profession? A. Advertising B. Dual relationship C. Boundaries D. Scope of practice
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106. What is an issue if a health care professional loses a client after a referral to a massage therapist friend? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Therapist hygiene 107. What is a way for governments to keep track of practitioners? A. Registration B. Credentialing C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. Guidance on which topic is typically found in a code of ethics? A. Image/advertising claims B. Client relationships C. Scope of practice D. All of the above 109. What occurs when client gives the therapist gifts that show affection? A. Transference B. Dual relationship C. Boundaries D. Countertransference 110. What is advising clients of a policy of charging for missed appointments? A. Dual relationship B. Boundary crossing C. Countertransference D. Proactive communication
111. What is misconduct involving sexual contact? A. Rape B. Masturbation C. Inappropriate work D. All of the above 112. What is appropriate for addressing erections in clients if the client displays sexual intent? A. Establish and maintain appropriate boundaries B. The therapist is obligated to talk to the client and intervene C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. What is a guideline for the massage room? A. Minimum 6 feet by 8 feet B. 55 to 65 degrees C. Indirect lighting D. All of the above 114. How are surfaces and implements disinfected? A. Warm water B. 10% bleach solution C. Cold water D. All of the above 115. What is a universal precaution? A. Wash hands with soap and water before and after contact with every client B. Gloves shall be worn if there is potential for direct contact with body fluids C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
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116. When must clean linens be used? A. For each client B. When the linens are soiled C. If the client requests clean linen D. Daily 117. What is a safety practice regarding auxiliary heating devices? A. Use only UL-approved devices B. Regularly inspect devices C. Turn off when not in use D. All of the above 118. What is a therapist personal safety practice? A. Wash hands before and after every treatment B. Perform within the scope of practice C. Give contact information to an associate when leaving to perform in-house massage D. All of the above 119. What protects the practitioner's hands? A. Use the palmar sides of the fingers and thumbs when applying pressure B. Use the heel of the hand for deep pressure massage movement rather than on top C. Hyperextend the wrist D. Avoid using the forearms and elbows for deep pressure
120. Which stance has the practitioner's shoulders at an angle to the table? A. Symmetric B. Body mechanics C. Archer stance D. Horse stance 121. What uses the top cover method or the full sheet method? A. Protective gear B. Assessment C. Draping D. Body mechanics 122. What is the recommended number of servings per day of the vegetable group? A. Use sparingly B. 1 to 2 servings C. 3 to 5 servings D. 10 to 11 servings 123. What is a limited liability corporation? A. SSN B. EIN C. DBA D. LLC 124. What taxes is an S corporation liable for? A. Income tax B. Estimated tax C. Employment tax D. All of the above 125. What is a component of wellness? A. Sleep B. Denial C. Posttraumatic stress disorder D. Trauma
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Exam 18 Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. D 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. B A A B C D B B D A C C A D D B D B B B C A B B A C C D B B C A C C A D D B B C D B 85. D 86. C 87. C 88. B 89. B 90. C 91. B 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. C 97. B 98. D 99. C 100. A 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. D 105. D 106. A 107. A 108. D 109. A 110. D 111. D 112. C 113. C 114. B 115. C 116. A 117. D 118. D 119. A 120. C 121. C 122. C 123. D 124. D 125. A
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Exam 19 1. What is tested through experiments? A. Objective B. Art C. Hypothesis D. Intuition 2. Which is the sum of all chemical processes in the body including catabolism and anabolism? A. Responsiveness B. Metabolism C. Movement D. Homeostasis 3. What type of tissue covers body surfaces and forms glands? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Axial D. Muscular 4. Which is a function of the epithelia? A. Heat B. Gas exchange C. Memory D. Protection 5. What describes an inside bone support structure? A. Periosteum B. Piezoelectric C. Endoskeleton D. Endosteum 6. What bony landmarks are processes that form joints? A. Condyle, head, facet, process, trochlea B. Crest, epicondyle, line, spine, trochanter, tuberosity C. Fissure, foramen, meatus, sinus D. Canal, fossa, groove, notch 7. How can massage replace potentially addictive behaviors such as substance abuse and gambling? A. Reticular activation system B. The pleasure center in the midbrain and pons release feel-good neurotransmitters C. Homeostasis D. The pleasure center in the hypothalamus releases feelgood neurotransmitters 8. Which system helps with the regulation of body fluids, metabolism, energy production, and the reproductive system? A. Lymphatic B. Respiratory C. Endocrine D. Cardiovascular 9. What is the universal donor blood type? A. AB positive B. RH negative C. O positive D. O negative
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10. Which system eliminates waste products and conserves nutrients? A. Lymphatic B. Respiratory C. Urinary D. Nervous 11. Which system includes the testes, penis, prostate gland, seminal vesicles, and spermatic ducts? A. Reproductive B. Urinary C. Endocrine D. Lymphatic 12. What is the range of the length of the phase of healing in which tissue regeneration occurs? A. Less than 24 hours B. 1-2 days C. 2-3 days to 6 weeks D. 2 months to one year or longer 13. Which body cavities are in the ventral region? A. Cranial and vertebral B. Thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic C. Thoracic, pelvic, and vertebral D. Cranial, abdominal, and pelvic 14. Which means the sole of the foot? A. Varus B. Valgus C. Plantar D. Volar
15. Which plane divides the body into upper and lower portions? A. Transverse B. Horizontal C. Cross-sectional D. All of the above 16. Which body cavities are generally more inferior to the diaphragm? A. Cranial and vertebral B. Abdominal and pelvic C. Thoracic and vertebral D. Vertebral and thoracic 17. Which chakra is located at the front of the throat? A. Gluteal B. Frontal C. Lumbar D. Laryngeal 18. Which dermatome is located at the skull cap, the most superior? A. C2 B. T1 C. S1 D. L5 19. Which of these muscles inserts on the humerus? A. Rectus femoris B. Trapezius C. Serratus anterior D. Deltoid 20. Where does the pronator teres insert? A. Mandible B. Radius C. Ulna D. Metacarpal
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21. Where is the greater trochanter of the femur? A. Anterior to the lateral malleolus B. Posterior to the ribs C. Distal to iliac crest on side of hip D. Distal to the patella on the shaft of the tibia 22. Where does the sciatic nerve pass through the hip? A. Lamina groove B. Coracoid process C. Synovial joint D. Ischial tuberosity and greater trochanter of the femur 23. Where is the deltoid ligament? A. Medial malleolus, talus, navicular B. Cuboid, talus, cuneiforms C. C5 to T1, scalenes, clavicle D. Junction between manubrium and sternum 24. What is the functional class of an immoveable joint? A. Synarthrosis B. Gomphosis C. Diathrosis D. Multi-belly 25. Which is an action of subscapularis? A. Abduct the shoulder B. Medially rotate the shoulder C. Adduct the hip D. Extend the leg
26. Which muscle flexes and laterally rotates the knee, extends and laterally rotates the hip, and tilts the pelvis? A. Psoas major B. Biceps femoris C. Serratus posterior inferior D. Quadratus lumborum 27. Which muscles are complete synergists? A. Biceps brachii, pronator teres B. Supinator, pronator C. Latissimus dorsi, teres major D. Brachioradialis, vastus lateralis 28. Which is an action of the external oblique? A. Depression B. Extension C. Lateral flexion D. Elevation 29. Which muscles flex the first toe? A. Extensor hallucis longus and abductor hallucis B. Flexor hallucis longus and abductor hallucis C. Tibialis anterior and abductor digiti minimi D. Erector spinae 30. Which proprioceptors protect a muscle from contracting with excess force and speed? A. Joint kinesthetic receptors B. Golgi tendon organs C. Somatic reflex arcs D. Muscle spindles
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31. What is a joint with thin layers of hyaline cartilage over bone separated by fibrocartilage such as the two pubic bones? A. Convergent B. Synovial C. Symphysis D. Bipennate 32. What is only possible with ball-and-socket joints? A. Circumduction B. Lateral flexion C. Gliding D. Flexion and extension 33. What is chest pain from a heart attack an example of? A. Hypermobility B. Phantom pain C. Referred pain D. Denial 34. What means caused by tiny cells that secrete toxins, eat body cells, or form colonies? A. Infectious B. Bacterial C. Malignant D. Epidemic 35. What are signs of a disease? A. Congenital disease B. The expected outcome of a disease C. The observed evidence of a disease D. Pathology 36. Which is generally contraindicated for massage? A. Contusions B. Back pain C. Muscle spasm D. Acute dermatitis
37. Is massage indicated or contraindicated for irritable bowel syndrome? A. Indicated B. Contraindicated C. Local contraindication D. Contraindicated in the acute stage 38. Which is an aggressive form of cancer that spreads through the lymph nodes? A. Actinic keratosis B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Malignant melanoma 39. What are tranquilizers, antidepressants, amphetamines, and adrenergic medications? A. Hormones B. Natural supplements C. Antineoplastics D. Central nervous system medications 40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking antineoplastics? A. Recommend changes to the dose B. Avoid chair massage C. Avoid energetic massage methods D. Work under the direct supervision of the client's physician 41. What natural supplement is used for urination problems? A. Saw palmetto B. Bee pollen C. Anticonvulsant D. Lavender
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42. What is a break in which the bone is twisted apart? A. Impacted fracture B. Comminuted fracture C. Spiral fracture D. Scoliosis 43. What is a developmental problem in which the vertebral arches do not fuse into the spinous processes? A. Spina bifida B. Cleft palate C. Clubfoot or talipes D. Osteogenesis imperfect 44. What is required for physically challenged individuals? A. Barrier free access B. Referral C. Boundaries D. Interpretation of touch 45. In which phase of stress is the response triggered by the sympathetic nervous system? A. Exhaustion B. Acute C. Alarm D. All of the above 46. What can be caused by repetitive pronation and supination of the forearm? A. Tennis elbow B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Frozen shoulder 47. Which nerve pierces the trapezius? A. Greater occipital B. Femoral C. Axillary D. Cranial
48. Which endangerment site includes the nerves and vessels to the thyroid gland and the vagus nerve? A. Area of the sternal notch and anterior throat B. Umbilicus area C. Abdominal cavity D. Sciatic notch 49. How does massage support the treatment of addictive behaviors? A. Stimulates the release of feel-good neurotransmitters B. Replaces destructive manner of mood alteration with constructive method C. Stimulates the release of feel-good hormones D. All of the above 50. What is an effect of massage on the nervous and endocrine systems? A. Reduces heart rate B. Increases cortisol levels C. Increases serotonin levels D. Reduces superficial keloid formation 51. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Premenstrual syndrome B. Psychiatric patients C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. All of the above 52. When should heat be avoided? A. Inflammation B. Spasms C. Pain D. Circulatory problems
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53. Which are hydrotherapy applications? A. Baths B. Packs C. Frictions D. All of the above 54. Which would be most effective in reducing spasticity? A. Deep heat B. Whirlpool-type heat C. Heat pack D. Cold 55. Which is a fast rhythmic stroke? A. Deep fiber friction B. Superficial friction C. Tapotement D. Vibration 56. Which stroke would be best for removing waste? A. Knuckling B. Nerve strokes C. Kneading D. Gliding 57. What is not a physical effect of massage? A. Relieves muscle cramps and spasms B. Increases circulation of blood and lymph C. Increases removal of metabolic waste D. Calms the nervous system 58. What is hyperplasia? A. Scarring B. Thickening of connective tissue C. Flexibility D. Improved posture
59. What is the most effective massage for reducing adhesions and excessive scarring? A. Kneading B. Percussion C. Friction D. Effleurage 60. What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? A. Decreases serotonin B. Reduces work load on heart C. Decreases systolic stroke volume D. Decreases number of red and white blood cells 61. Which is a percussion movement? A. Cupping B. Kneading C. Gliding D. Friction 62. Which moves one layer of tissue over another? A. Deep effleurage B. Kneading C. Tapping D. Friction 63. When is petrissage typically used during a session? A. Only at the beginning B. Only at the end C. To apply lubricant D. In the middle 64. Which is a variation of petrissage? A. One handed B. The "C" hand position C. The "V" hand position D. All of the above
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65. What is the most appropriate stroke for massaging the intercostals? A. Percussion B. Compression C. Friction D. Tapotement 66. A. B. C. D. How is HIV transmitted? Blood Semen and vaginal secretions Mother's milk All of the above
71. If a client has tight muscles from holding a telephone on the left shoulder, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Shorten left upper trapezius B. Lengthen right upper trapezius C. Lengthen quadratus lumborum D. Lengthen left splenius 72. What is done if a client has hallux valgus? A. Lengthen abductor hallucis B. Lengthen adductor hallucis C. Lengthen flexor digitorum longus D. Lengthen tibialis anterior 73. Which muscle is weak if a client has low back pain, buttock pain, and hamstring strains when extending the trunk? A. Gluteus maximum B. Gastrocnemius C. Erector spinae D. Upper trapezius 74. What is also called sidelying? A. Asymmetric B. Body mechanics C. Laterally recumbent D. Symmetric 75. Where on the SOAP chart are symptoms related to the current health concerns recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan
67. What is the application of ice? A. Whirlpool bath B. Full body steam bath C. Diathermy D. Cryotherapy 68. What is the "R" in the R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle? A. Rest B. Recover C. Rehabilitate D. Run 69. Which is a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique? A. Hydrotherapy B. Positional Release C. Reiki D. Effleurage 70. If a client has flat-back posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Stretch right lateral trunk muscles B. Stretch left lateral thigh muscles C. Stretch shoulder adductors D. Stretch hamstrings
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76. How many degrees of motion is anatomic position considered? A. 0 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 180 degrees 77. When a muscle contracts with too much force, what does it usually overpower? A. Flexors B. Abductors C. Antagonist group D. Synergists 78. If a client has a forward head position, what is most likely to be true? A. The hamstrings are long B. The neck extensors are strong C. The neck rotators are long D. The neck rotators are strong 79. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, which muscles are most likely short and strong? A. Hip flexors B. Neck flexors C. External obliques D. Stylohyoid 80. As feet are influenced by shoes with heels, what tends to increase with heel height? A. Abduction B. Slight out-toeing C. Tendency away from parallel position D. In-toeing
81. Which are long and weak with the left hip adducted and medially rotated, right hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Right lateral trunk muscles, left hip abductors and right hip adductors B. Right peroneus longus and brevis and left tibialis posterior C. Left mylohyoid and left flexor digitorum longus D. All of the above 82. A. B. C. D. What is genu varum? Knee hyperextension Knock-knees Bowlegs Genu valgum
83. What is used as a reference when viewing a standing posture? A. Plumb line B. Tilt C. Rotation D. Zero position 84. How does a therapist test leg adductors? A. Client holds left leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right arm position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds position against therapist's lateral pressure on legs D. Client holds right foot position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure
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85. Where on the SOAP chart would the client's descriptions of pain be documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 86. What is inflammation of a tendon due to overuse? A. Plantar fasciitis B. Whiplash C. Tendonitis D. Migraine 87. What is the freezing phase of frozen shoulder? A. Acute B. Subacute C. Second stage D. Chronic 88. What is a condition that involves nerve compression? A. Frozen shoulder B. Bursitis C. Torticollis D. Thoracic outlet syndrome 89. What is treated by applying techniques to the IT band, hamstrings, adductors, and quadriceps? A. Piriformis syndrome B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Patellofemoral syndrome 90. What is characterized by weak rhomboids, middle trapezius, and thoracic erector spinae? A. Scoliosis B. Flat-back posture C. Hyperlordosis D. Hyperkyphosis
91. What therapy changes a movement pattern and improves posture? A. Feldenkrais B. Reflexology C. Polarity therapy D. Swedish gymnastics 92. Which identifies tender spots on muscle tissues that can refer pain to other parts of the body? A. Hellerwork B. Craniosacral therapy C. Trigger point therapy D. Rolfing 93. Which massage system uses effleurage, petrissage, vibration, friction, and tapotement? A. Greek B. Indian C. Chinese D. Swedish 94. Which early massage system used a gymnasium as a center for exercise and massage? A. Chinese B. French C. Greek D. German 95. What NMT technique is a variation of kneading? A. Ischemic compression B. Skin rolling C. Stretching D. All of the above
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96. What uses long flowing strokes to connect the body as a whole? A. Trigger point therapy B. Aromatherapy C. Esalen massage D. Reiki 97. Which section of a standards of practice would most likely contain guidance on breast massage? A. Tax B. Business practices C. Insurance D. Prevention of sexual misconduct 98. What is most likely to be a consideration regarding geriatric massage? A. Hostile touch B. Influence of age on touch C. Cultural influences D. Gender issues 99. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Financial impropriety B. Right of refusal C. Informed consent D. All of the above 100. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Dating a client B. Violations of laws C. Violations of confidentiality D. All of the above 101. What is in the therapeutic relationship? A. Social needs B. Rights as professionals C. Medical advice D. All of the above
102. What is an example of a type of boundary? A. Emotional B. Passive range of motion C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 103. What are examples of how boundaries are created, managed, and changed? A. Dual relationships B. Self-disclosure C. Touch D. All of the above 104. Massaging a minor involves what type of issue? A. Dual relationship B. Scope of practice C. Parental consent D. None of the above 105. What is the issue if a client asks for information about another client who is their former partner? A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Confidentiality 106. When can information about a client be revealed to others without the client's consent? A. When required by law or a court order B. When required to protect the public C. Answers A and B are correct D. None of the above
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107. What is within the scope of practice for massage therapists? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 108. What is assigning a name or label to a certain group of signs or symptoms? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 109. What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? A. Bartering B. Protective gear C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 110. A therapist being uncomfortable massaging a client with hepatitis involves what type of issue? A. Dual relationship B. Therapist's right of refusal C. Scope of practice D. None of the above 111. What is appropriate if sexual arousal occurs during a massage? A. Establish and maintain appropriate boundaries B. Do not mention it under any circumstances C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
112. What provides a safe experience for clients? A. Allow privacy for client while changing B. Sexual harassment C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 113. A therapist having discomfort in what area would indicate the massage table is probably too low? A. Upper back B. Lower back C. Shoulders D. Arms 114. What should be done with rancid linens? A. Wash in ethyl alcohol B. Hang out to dry C. Discard D. Save for undesirable clients 115. What should be used to rinse the hands if there is suspicion of bacterial contamination? A. Mild ethyl alcohol solution B. Bleach C. Sodium hypochlorite D. None of the above 116. What is the first step when administering first aid after a person has had a heart attack? A. Call 911 B. Loosen restrictive clothing C. Assist with prescribed medication D. Have the person stop activity and rest
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117. What are components of wellness? A. Nutrition and breathing B. Relaxation and sleep C. Exercise and stretching D. All of the above 118. Which archer stance is best for which stroke? A. Petrissage B. Effleurage C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 119. What is the purpose of draping? A. The client feels safe and comfortable B. To make assessment easier C. To comply with federal law D. None of the above 120. What is the recommended number of servings per day of the fruit group? A. Use sparingly B. 1 to 2 servings C. 3 to 5 servings D. 11 to 12 servings 121. What are advantages of being an employee? A. Steady income B. Employer calculates and withholds taxes C. Employer provides facilities and supplies D. All of the above 122. What would be found in a brochure? A. Qualifications B. Types of massages C. Fees D. All of the above
123. What is gross income minus expenses? A. Start-up costs B. Overhead C. Net income D. Marketing 124. Which protects against slips and falls? A. General premise liability insurance B. Product liability insurance C. Professional liability insurance D. Premises fire damage insurance for renters 125. Where is the code for massage therapy for insurance billing? A. Business plan B. Form 1099 C. 97000 series D. Schedule K-1
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Exam 19 Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. B 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. A A C A A A D C D A D D C C D B C B A D D B B D D A B D D B A C A A C B A D A C A C 85. A 86. C 87. A 88. D 89. D 90. D 91. A 92. C 93. D 94. C 95. B 96. C 97. D 98. B 99. A 100. D 101. B 102. A 103. D 104. C 105. D 106. C 107. C 108. B 109. A 110. B 111. A 112. A 113. B 114. C 115. A 116. D 117. D 118. B 119. A 120. C 121. D 122. D 123. C 124. A 125. C
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Exam 20 1. How is research validated? A. Further research to replicate findings B. Publication C. Revised hypothesis D. Internet search 2. What are the heart, liver, and lungs? A. Tissues B. Organs C. Systems D. Organelles 3. What consists of elongated cells that can use ATP to generate force? A. Nervous tissue B. Muscle tissue C. Elastic fibers D. Blood 4. Which system includes sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and breasts? A. Reproductive B. Musculoskeletal C. Lymphatic D. Integumentary 5. What is the fleshy part in the middle of the muscle? A. Perimysium B. Belly C. Tendon D. Aponeurosis 6. Which is the "rest and digest" nervous system? A. Gastric B. Sympathetic C. Somatic D. Parasympathetic 7. What are irregular small bony plates found at the end of long bones and in the center of other bones? A. Periosteum B. Piezoelectric C. Trabeculae D. Endoskeleton 8. Which system includes glands such as the hypothalamus, hypophysis, thyroid, and thymus? A. Gastrointestinal B. Urinary C. Endocrine D. Respiratory 9. What is the universal recipient blood type? A. AB positive B. AB negative C. RH positive D. O negative 10. What type of immunity is genetically determined? A. Innate B. Acquired C. Active D. Pandemic 11. Which system controls sex hormones and includes the female mammary glands? A. Circulatory B. Lymphatic C. Reproductive D. Urinary
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12. What is the range of the length of the phase of healing in which the bleeding stops and inflammation occurs? A. Less than 24 hours B. 2-3 days to 2-3 weeks C. 5 to 6 weeks D. 6 weeks to one year or longer 13. Which region of the trunk has twelve vertebrae? A. Dorsal B. Cervical C. Lumbar D. Thoracic 14. Which means the ends are bent inward, or bent toward the midline: ><, knock-kneed? A. Varus deformity B. Valgus deformity C. Plantar D. Volar 15. Where is the humerus relative to the radius? A. Proximal B. Distal C. Superficial D. Deep 16. Which region of the trunk has five vertebrae? A. Synovial B. Cervical C. Lumbar D. Thoracic 17. What is the belly referred to in the Shiatsu method? A. Hara B. Cervical region C. Occipital region D. Intercostal area
18. Which dermatome is located by the toes, the most inferior? A. C2 B. T12 C. S5 D. L5 19. Which of these muscles inserts on the clavicle? A. Subclavius B. Rhomboid major C. Soleus D. Pec minor 20. Shin splints are pain in what bone? A. Humerus B. Tibia C. Ulna D. Metacarpal 21. Where is the medial epicondyle of the humerus? A. Anterior to the lateral malleolus B. Inferior and lateral to acromion C. Distal to iliac crest on side of hip D. Directly medial from olecranon process 22. What progresses down the spine? A. Lamina groove B. Coracoid process C. Pubic crest D. Ischial tuberosity
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23. Where are the jugular notch, sternal angle, and xiphoid process? A. Medial malleolus, talus, navicular B. Left lumbar region C. C5 to T1, scalenes, clavicle D. T2, T4 and T10 of vertebral column 24. What is the functional class of the joints where the bones of skull meet? A. Synarthrosis B. Gomphosis C. Ball and socket D. Biceps 25. Which is an action of infraspinatus? A. Abduct the arm B. Medially rotate the shoulder C. Adduct the shoulder D. Flex the knee 26. Which muscle inserts on the head of the fibula? A. Psoas major B. Biceps femoris C. Pectoralis major D. Quadratus lumborum 27. Which muscle pronates and supinates? A. Deltoid B. Supinator C. Pronator teres D. Brachioradialis 28. Which muscle decreases the space of the thoracic cavity? A. Trapezius B. Internal oblique C. Internal intercostals D. External intercostals
29. What is an eccentric contraction of the biceps femoris? A. Sit ups B. Deep knee bends C. Squats D. All of the above 30. Which proprioceptors send impulses to the central nervous system that lead to muscle relaxation? A. Joint kinesthetic receptors B. Golgi tendon organs C. Somatic reflex arcs D. Muscle spindles 31. What are small movements essential for proper joint function? A. Hypomobility B. Joint play C. Arthrokinematics D. Osteokinematics 32. A. B. C. D. Which is a hinge joint? Hip Thumb Wrist Elbow
33. What is pain from an amputated limb? A. Intractable pain B. Phantom pain C. Referred pain D. Acute pain 34. What is a physical injury or wound caused by external force or violence? A. Trauma B. Inflammation C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Neoplasm
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35. What is the relative constant state maintained by the physiology of the body? A. Homeostasis B. Feedback loop C. Stress D. Stages of lifecycle 36. Which is generally indicated for massage? A. Infectious diseases B. Hematoma C. Joint stiffness D. Vertigo 37. What refers to the tendency for oscillating bodies to move in a synchronized, harmonic manner? A. Entrainment B. Biological rhythms C. Acute D. Homeostasis 38. What is a progressive inflammatory condition that may affect any part of the GI tract? A. Cirrhosis B. Crohn's disease C. Hepatitis B D. Pneumonia 39. What are the implications for massage for a client taking anticoagulants? A. Prescribe alternative medications B. Stop the massage if the heart rate slows to below 100 beats per minute C. Avoid massage methods that can lead to bruising, including compression D. All of the above
40. What are the implications for massage for a client taking anti-inflammatory medications? A. Avoid techniques that could cause inflammation B. Feedback mechanisms are not accurate C. The massage could reduce muscle spasms D. All of the above 41. What natural supplement is used for coughs? A. Eucalyptus B. Bee pollen C. NSAID D. Lavender 42. What is mainly caused by a Vitamin D deficiency? A. Osteoporosis B. Greenstick fracture C. Scurvy D. Rickets 43. What are symptoms of a disease? A. The study of a disease B. The expected outcome of a disease C. An idiopathic disease D. The described problems of a disease 44. What are internal perceptions or external stimuli that demand a change in the body? A. Circadian rhythms B. Denial C. Demands D. Stressors
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45. What is the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A. The fight-or-flight response B. Resistance reaction C. Alarm reaction D. Pain 46. What is medial epicondylitis? A. Tennis elbow B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow C. Dislocation D. Frozen shoulder 47. Which nerve is associated with both the supinator and the lateral head of the triceps? A. Greater occipital B. Femoral C. Axillary D. Radial 48. Where is the inguinal triangle endangerment site? A. Between the biceps and triceps B. SCM, mandible, and trachea C. SCM, clavicle, and trapezius D. Sartorius, adductor longus, inguinal ligament 49. What is a reflexive effect of massage? A. Venous return B. Lymph flow C. Pain reduction D. All of the above 50. What is an effect of massage on the skin? A. Reduces heart rate B. Reduces gland activity C. Increases serotonin levels D. Reduces superficial keloid formation
51. Which condition can benefit from massage? A. Skin conditions such as mild dryness B. Stress and anxiety C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. All of the above 52. Which is increased as one of the effects of massage? A. Lactic acid B. Number of red and white blood cells C. Cortisol D. Substance P 53. What are body polishes, cold mittens, dry brush massages, ice massages, salt glows, and shampoos examples of? A. Baths B. Packs C. Frictions D. All of the above 54. For which condition could cold be applied? A. Frostbite B. Cold allergy C. Swelling D. Arthritis 55. Which is best for moving from one stroke to another? A. Effleurage B. Connective tissue massage C. Jostling D. Petrissage 56. Which stroke would be best for bronchitis? A. Cross fiber friction B. Cupping C. Kneading D. Gliding
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57. What is not a physical effect of massage? A. Relieves muscle cramps and spasms B. Improves circulation of blood and lymph C. Enhances removal of metabolic waste D. Reduced stress 58. What is a psychological effect of massage? A. Increases anxiety B. Reduces stress C. Relieves muscle cramps D. Increases circulation 59. What is a stimulating massage technique? A. Gentle stroking B. Strong percussion for a short period C. Prolonged percussion D. All of the above 60. What massage movement brings about a dilation and flushing of the massaged area? A. Reiki B. Light stroking C. Deep stroking D. All of the above 61. Which is a petrissage movement? A. Percussion B. Kneading C. Gliding D. Friction 62. Which is a trembling or shaking movement? A. Vibration B. Kneading C. Tapping D. Friction
63. Which stroke is appropriate for tendonitis? A. Vibration B. Deep gliding C. Deep-transverse friction D. Percussion 64. A. B. C. D. Which lifts muscles off bone? Effleurage Petrissage Percussion Tapotement
65. Which stroke is best for insomnia? A. Effleurage B. Rocking C. Deep tissue D. Percussion 66. Which is a contraindication for pregnancy massage? A. Pre-eclampsia B. Back strain C. Second or third trimester D. Pregnancy is always contraindicated 67. What is a benefit of massage for the critically ill? A. Improve mobility B. Control pain C. Allow for a more positive attitude D. All of the above 68. When should heat therapy be avoided? A. Pain B. Stiffness in joints C. Acute stage of injury D. Chronic muscle spasms
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69. What is not an effect of R.I.C.E.S. treatment? A. Vasodilation B. Reduced inflammation C. Reduced swelling D. Vasoconstriction 70. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen gluteus maximus and longus capitis B. Shorten rectus femoris and splenius C. Lengthen adductor longus and oblique capitis superior D. Lengthen semimembranosus and internal intercostals 71. If a client has a tendency towards kyphosis and a depressed chest, what is the most appropriate treatment? A. Lengthen erector spinae B. Lengthen left internal and right external obliques C. Lengthen anterior internal and external obliques D. Lengthen hamstrings 72. What is done if a client has the knee in a flexed position with medial rotation of the leg on the thigh? A. Lengthen soleus B. Lengthen peroneus brevis C. Lengthen tibialis posterior D. Lengthen popliteus
73. What would trigger points along the lateral neck flexors, horizontal arm abductors, internal arm rotators contribute to? A. Brachial plexus impingement B. Sciatica C. Tension headaches D. Low back pain 74. What would be a good position for performing on-site corporate massage? A. Supine B. Prone C. Side-lying D. Seated 75. What is the use of touch to examine? A. Gait assessment B. Needs assessment C. Posture assessment D. Palpation 76. Where on the SOAP chart is verbal information that clients share documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 77. Which are relatively slow to respond? A. Postural muscles B. Mover muscles C. Phasic muscles D. Soft tissues 78. What could cause a hot area? A. Increased connective tissue formation B. Diminished blood flow C. Muscle spasm D. Inactivity
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79. Which muscles are elongated and weak with kyphoticlordotic posture? A. Neck extensors B. External obliques C. Arm flexors D. All of the above 80. As feet are influenced by shoes with heels, what tends to increase with heel height? A. In-toeing B. Pigeon-toes C. Tendency toward parallel position from out-toeing D. All of the above 81. Which are long and weak with the left hip adducted and medially rotated, right hip abducted and feet pronated? A. Left lateral trunk muscles, right hip abductors and left hip adductors B. Left peroneus longus and brevis and right tibialis posterior C. Tibia and fibula D. All of the above 82. What is the assessment when the shoulders are depressed and the scapulae abducted? A. Tight serratus anterior B. Tight soleus C. Weak upper trapezius D. Weak quadratus lumborum 83. Where is the gravity line in the side view of standing posture? A. Coronal plane B. Sagittal plane C. Popliteal region D. Zero position
84. How does a therapist test arm adductors? A. Client holds left leg position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure B. Client holds right hand position against therapist's superior/cephalad pressure C. Client holds position against therapist's lateral pressure on arms D. Client holds right arm position against therapist's inferior/caudal pressure 85. What is the next step of the client consultation after performing a preliminary assessment? A. Schedule next appointment B. Perform massage C. Formulate treatment plan D. SOAP chart 86. Where on the SOAP chart would the therapist's suggestions for stretches be documented? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan 87. What would not require treatment for whiplash? A. Infra-hyoid B. Supra-hyoid C. SCM D. Quadriceps 88. What is golfer's elbow? A. Trigger finger B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Medial epicondylitis D. Tennis elbow
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89. Which is a treatment for bursitis? A. Cold in the acute stage B. Deep moist heat in the chronic stage C. Joint play for hypomobile joints D. All of the above 90. What involves a thickening of the IT band? A. Piriformis syndrome B. Iliotibial band contracture C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Patellofemoral syndrome 91. In polarity therapy, what does the right side represent? A. Tschanpua B. Positive expanding energy C. The five elements D. Yin and yang 92. What was developed by Boris Chaitow and Stanley Leif to relieve tender muscle tissue and compressed nerves that refer pain? A. Reflexology B. Neuromuscular therapy C. Deep transverse friction D. Hellerwork 93. What would an aromatherapy bath or massage oil of chamomile, jasmine, geranium, and rose be used for? A. Injury prevention B. First aid C. Stimulating D. Soothing
94. Which massage system uses many of the Swedish movements? A. Chinese B. German C. Greek D. Indian 95. What is associated with neuromuscular therapy? A. Ischemic compression B. Skin rolling C. Stretching D. All of the above 96. Which is an energy technique? A. Trager method B. Therapeutic touch C. Trigger point therapy D. All of the above 97. What would exist when a therapist sold products to a client? A. Informed consent B. Power differential C. Right of refusal D. Dual role 98. A. B. C. D. What is appropriate touch? Hostile touch Erotic touch Therapeutic touch Sexual touch
99. Which section of a standards of practice would contain guidance on personal limitations and relationships? A. Power differential B. Accounting C. Roles and boundaries D. Prevention of insurance fraud
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100. What is a consideration regarding touch when giving chair massages at an international airport for foreign tourists? A. Hostile touch B. Influence of age on touch C. Cultural influences D. Gender issues 101. What is an example of a violation of a code of ethics? A. Consistency B. Right of refusal C. Working on a minor without parental knowledge D. Informed consent 102. What is not a violation of a code of ethics? A. Violations of confidentiality B. Scope of practice C. Dating a client D. Violations of laws 103. What is out of the therapeutic relationship? A. Client-centered actions and words B. Consistency C. Personal needs D. All of the above 104. How are boundaries created, managed, and changed? A. Power differences, dual relationships, self-disclosure B. Time, location, language C. Clothing, space, touch, money D. All of the above
105. Who can provide consent to working on a minor? A. Parents B. Any relatives C. A Friend D. All of the above 106. Practicing from home without the required permits is what type of unethical behavior? A. Financial impropriety B. Practicing beyond scope of practice C. Violation of law D. None of the above 107. What is appropriate for a therapist to do when seeing a client in a restaurant? A. Ask how the last massage was B. Do not bring up anything about the massage C. Ask for a referral D. All of the above 108. What is the therapist doing when observing tight muscles? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 109. What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? A. Employment B. Pathologies C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above
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110. What is done by associations rather than governments? A. Licensing B. Credentialing C. Answer A and B are correct D. None of the above 111. Which is unethical? A. Marketing B. Business cards C. Discrimination based on gender or sexual orientation D. None of the above 112. A recently licensed therapist working under the supervision of an experienced professional involves what type of issue? A. Dual relationship B. Power differential C. Scope of practice D. None of the above 113. What is a guideline for the massage table? A. 72 to 76 inches long B. 20 to 24 inches wide C. 5 to 6 inches of high density foam padding D. All of the above 114. What uses phenols, bleach, or alcohol? A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. All of the above
115. What is a safety practice regarding housekeeping and sanitation? A. Store clean linens in a closed cabinet B. Store soiled linens in a closed container C. Maintain handwashing facilities with germicidal soap D. All of the above 116. What is a first aid safety practice? A. Keep a first aid kit on the premises B. Learn first aid and CPR C. Keep emergency information in plain view D. All of the above 117. What reduces strain on the practitioner's neck? A. Use the palmar sides of the fingers and thumbs when applying pressure B. Keep the head up and the shoulders down and relaxed C. Hyperextend the wrist D. Use the forearms and elbows for deep pressure 118. Which horse stance is best for which stroke? A. Effleurage B. Petrissage C. Both A and B are correct D. None of the above 119. What ensures that the client stays warm and feels safe and comfortable? A. Protective gear B. Assessment C. Draping D. Body mechanics
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120. What is the recommended number of servings per day of the milk, yogurt and cheese group? A. Use sparingly B. 2 to 3 servings C. 5 to 6 servings D. 6 to 11 servings 121. Who prepares W-2 forms? A. Independent contractors B. Employer C. Employees D. The massage board 122. How are donated services used? A. Marketing B. Insurance C. Licensing D. Tax 123. What is the initial cost of beginning a business? A. Business plan B. Form 1099 C. Mission statement D. Start up costs 124. Which protects against malpractice? A. Life insurance B. Product liability insurance C. Professional liability insurance D. Premises fire damage insurance for renters 125. What should be most important for therapeutic massage and bodywork professionals? A. Deductions B. Overhead C. Caring D. Balance sheet
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Exam 20 Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. D 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. D D B B D D C D D B C C A B D B B C B A C B A A D C A C C D A D D A A C B D B C A C 85. C 86. D 87. D 88. C 89. D 90. B 91. B 92. B 93. D 94. B 95. D 96. B 97. D 98. C 99. C 100. C 101. C 102. B 103. C 104. D 105. A 106. C 107. B 108. A 109. A 110. B 111. C 112. B 113. A 114. B 115. D 116. D 117. B 118. B 119. C 120. B 121. B 122. A 123. D 124. C 125. C
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About the Author

Philip Martin McCaulay is the President of Medical Massage Care Authority LLC and a graduate of Bodymechanics School of Myotherapy and Massage in Olympia, Washington. His other massage publications include Medical Massage Cares Therapeutic Massage National FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEx Study Guide, Medical Massage Cares Therapeutic Massage National Certification Practice Exams 2008 Edition and Medical Massage Cares Therapeutic Massage National Certification Exam Study Guide. Martin has also written and published practice exam books and study guides for licensing and certification exams in the pension, investment, and real estate fields. With a B.A. in Mathematics from Indiana University, Martin is a Fellow of the Society of Actuaries (FSA), a Fellow of the Conference of Consulting Actuaries (FCA), a Member of the American Academy of Actuaries (MAAA), and an Enrolled Actuary (EA). Martin serves on the Education and Examination Committee of the Society of Actuaries.
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Reference List
Ashley, Martin. Massage: A Career at Your Fingertips. 3rd Edition. Barrytown, New York: Station Hill Press, 1998 Benjamin, Ben and Cherie Sohnen-Moe. The Ethics of Touch. Tucson: Sohnen-Moe Associates, Inc., 2004. Beck, Mary F. Theory and Practice of Therapeutic Massage. 4th Edition. Clifton Park, New York: Thompson Delmar Learning, 2006. Biel, Andrew. Trail Guide to the Body. 3rd Edition. Boulder, Colorado: Books of Discovery, 2005. Braun, Mary Beth and Stephanie Simonson. Introduction to Massage Therapy. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2005. Clemente, Carmine. Anatomy: A Regional Atlas of the Human Body. 4th Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 1997. Fritz, Sandy. Fundamentals of Therapeutic Massage. 3rd Edition. St. Louis: Mosby, 2004. Fritz, Sandy and M. James Grosenbach. Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage: Anatomy, Physiology, Biomechanics and Pathology. 2nd Edition. St. Louis: Mosby, 2004. Kendall, Florence Peterson, Elizabeth Kendall McCreary, Patricia Geise Provance, Mary McIntyre Rodgers, and William Anthony Romani. Muscles: Testing and Function with Posture and Pain. 5th Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2005. McIntosh, Nina. The Educated Heart: Professional Boundaries for Massage Therapists, Bodyworkers, and Movement Teachers. 2nd Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2005. Premkumar, Kalyani. The Massage Connection: Anatomy and Physiology. 2nd Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2004. Rattay, Fiona and Linda Ludwig. Clinical Massage Therapy: Understanding, Assessing and Treating Over 70 Conditions. Ontario: Talus, Inc., 2000.. Salvo, Susan. Massage Therapy: Principles and Practices. Philadelphia: W.B. Saunders Company, 1999. Sohnen-Moe, Cherie. Business Mastery. 3rd Edition. Tucson: Sohnen-Moe Associates, Inc., 2005. Tappan, Frances M. and Patricia J. Benjamin. Handbook of Healing Massage Techniques. 4th Edition. Connecticut: Appleton and Lange, 2005. Sohnen-Moe, Cherie M. Business Mastery. 3rd Edition. Rochester, VT: Healing Arts Press, 1997. Thomas, C.L., ed. Tabers Cyclopedic Medical Dictionary. 19th Edition. Philadelphia: Davis Co., 2001. Thompson, Diana L. Hands Heal, Communication, Documentation, and Insurance Billing for Manual Therapists. 3rd Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2006. Tortora, Gerald, and Sandra Reynolds Grabowski. Principles of Anatomy and Physiology. 10th Edition. New York: Harper and Collins Publishers, Inc., 2004. Werner, Ruth. A Massage Therapists Guide to Pathology. 2nd Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2002. Wible, Jean. Pharmacology for Massage Therapy. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2005.
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Medical Massage Cares

FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEx Practice Exams

Philip Martin McCaulay Medical Massage Care Authority, LLC

Percent of Exam 14 percent 11 percent 13 percent

Question Numbers 1-18 19-32 33-48

5 percent 13 percent 10 percent 100 percent

91-96 97-112 113-125 1-125

Which method applies cold? Hydrotherapy Cryotherapy Cross-fiber friction Percussion

What is lifting and grasping? Tapping Light stroking Kneading Pressing

What is malignant neoplasia? Trauma Inflammation Carbuncle Cancer

What breaks up adhesions? Effleurage Friction Slapping Tapotement

45. What is an injury to a muscle? A. Sprain B. Strain C. Tinnitus D. Tinea cruris

Where is the patellar region? Knee Thigh Groin Abdomen

Where is the femoral region? Knee Thigh Groin Abdomen

Where is the inguinal region? Knee Thigh Groin Abdomen

What is the thoracic region? Sacrum Hips Chest Neck

What is like hibernation? Entrainment Biological rhythms Conservation withdrawal Homeostasis

65. What promotes joint flexibility? A. Effleurage B. Friction C. Slapping D. Tapotement

Which group is more lateral? Abductors Adductors Hamstrings Quadriceps

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