AIEEE-12-PT1 PT4 Qns

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AIEEE/PET/Obj/PMC/Qns - 1

BRILLIANTS
PROGRESSIVE TEST
FOR STUDENTS OF
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSES
TOWARDS
ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2012

Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 360
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters) :_____________________________________________

Roll Number: in figures

: in words ___________________________________________________________

Examination Centre Number:

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters): ________________________________________

Candidates Signature: ____________________ Invigilators Signature:___________________
PHYSICS MATHEMATICS CHEMISTRY
1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
2. There are three parts in the questions paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and
Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted
4(four) marks for each correct response.
3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 2 for correct response of
each question. (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item
in the answer sheet.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in
each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be
deducted accordingly as per instruction 3 above.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking response on side-1 and
side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device etc; except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall/room.
7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This
space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet.
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AIEEE 2012
PT1 (ONE YEAR)
PT4 (TWO YEAR)
07.08.2011

2
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. AIEEE/PET/Obj/PMC/Qns - 2
1. In a vernier calipers, 9 main scale divi-
sions are divided into 10 equal parts on
the vernier. The diameter of 7 cm met-
allic rod is measured with this instrument.
The main scale reading was 21 mm and
the 6th division on the vernier scale
coincided with a main scale division. The
mass of the rod is 215.69 gm. The density
of the material of the rod is (Express your
answer in correct number of significant
figures).
(1) 8.36 (2) 8.218
(3) 8.41 (4) 8.924
2. The greatest distance to which one can
throw a cricket ball is 126.0 m. The
maximum height reached by the ball
during its flight is (ignore air resistance)
(1) 31.5 m (2) 30.8 m
(3) 30.1 m (4) 29.6 m
3. A body traverses 3 m in the first two
seconds and 3.6 m in the next 4 seconds.
Its velocity after 8 seconds from the start
of motion is
(1) 0.5 ms
1
(2) 0.3 ms
1

(3) 0.2 ms
1
(4) 0.1 ms
1

4. A steamer is sailing due west at 15 km/h
relative to the water current which flows
at 5 km/h due south west. On a road
near the bank, a motorcyclist is travelling
due north at 50 km/h. To a passenger on
the steamers deck, the direction and
speed does the motorcyclist appear to
travel is
(1) 55.84 km/h at 19.6 south west
(2) 56.66 km/h at 19 east of north
(3) 58.42 km/h at 17.6 north east
(4) 59.75 km/h at 18.2 south west
5. A toy aeroplane is tied to the end of an
unstretched string of length . When
revolved, the toy plane moves in a
horizontal circle of radius 2 with time
period T. When the toy plane is speeded
up until it moves in a horizontal circle of
radius 3 with a period T. (Hookes law,
Force extension is obeyed throughout)
then.
(1) T = T (2) =
3
T T
2

(3) =
3
T T
2
(4) =
3
T T
2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
PART A: PHYSICS
3
Question numbers 6 and 7 are based on the
following passage.
A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 with a
velocity of 10.0 j
m/s and moves in the x-y

plane with a constant acceleration of
+

(9.0 i 4.0 j) ms
2
.
6. The y-coordinate of the particle at the
time when its x-coordinate 16 m is
(1) 28 m (2) 26 m (3) 24 m (4) 22 m
7. The speed of the particle at the time is
(1) 30.18 ms
1
(2) 31.46 ms
1

(3) 32.25 ms
1
(4) 33.64 ms
1

8. A force of 500 N acting horizontally
pushes up block placed on a rough
inclined plane which makes an angle of
45 with the horizontal. The acceleration
experienced by the block is 0.8 ms
2
.
The coefficient of sliding friction between
the block and the incline is (g = 10 ms
2
)
45
2
5
k
g

(1) 0.24 (2) 0.26
(3) 0.28 (4) 0.3
9. An energy of 968 J is spent in increasing
the speed of flywheel from 90 rpm to
360 rpm. The moment of inertia of the
flywheel is
(1) 1.2 kg m
2
(2) 1.5 kg m
2

(3) 1.6 kg m
2
(4) 1.8 kg m
2

10. A balloon with mass M is descending
down with an acceleration where
< g. The mass m of its contents that
must be removed so that it starts moving
up with an acceleration is
(1)
2 Mg
g +
(2)
2 mg
g +

(3)
2 M
g

+
(4)
g
mg
+

11. Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 6 kg are
connected by a string which hangs over
a frictionless pulley at the top of a
frictionless inclined plane of slope 1 in 4,
the first body hanging vertically and the
second body resting on the plane. The
system is released from rest. The velocity
of the system when the first body has
descended 5 m is (g = 10 ms
2
)
6
k
g
4 kg

(1) 5 ms
1
(2) 4.5 ms
1

(3) 4 ms
1
(4) 3 ms
1

4
12. The wheel of a motor bike completes 900
rotations per minute. On pressing the
accelerator of the bike, the wheel makes
3600 rotations per minute after 10 sec.
The number of rotations made in
10 seconds is
(1) 375 (2) 360
(3) 345 (4) 330
13. A monkey is desending from the branch
of a tree with constant acceleration. If
the breaking strength is 80% of the weight
of the monkey, then the maximum
acceleration with which the monkey can
slide down without breaking the branch
is (g = 10 ms
2
)
(1) 1.5 ms
2
(2) 1.75 ms
2

(3) 2.0 ms
2
(4) 2.25 ms
2

14. The acceleration due to gravity at a
height of
1
th
20
of the radius of the earth
above the surface of the earth is 9 ms
2
.
The value of the acceleration due to
gravity at an equal depth below the
surface of the earth is
(1) 9.7 ms
2
(2) 9.5 ms
2

(3) 9.3 ms
2
(4) 9.1 ms
2

15. Eight equal drops of water fall through air
with a steady velocity of 6 cm/s. When
the drops combine to form a single drop,
its terminal velocity will be
(1) 20 cm/s (2) 22 cm/s
(3) 24 cm/s (4) 26 cm/s
Question number 16, 17 and 18 are based on
the following passage.
A car approaching a tall wall at a speed of
50 km/hr sounds the horn of frequency 400 Hz
when it is at a distance of 1 km away from the
wall. Wind blows at a speed of 30 km/hr in the
direction of motion of the car. (Velocity of
sound in air = 1200 km/hr)
16. The frequency of the horn as heard by
an observer standing by the side of the
wall is
(1) 402 Hz (2) 407 Hz
(3) 412 Hz (4) 417 Hz
17. The distance from the wall at which the
echo from the wall heard by the car
driver is
(1) 915 m (2) 920 m (3) 925 m (4) 930 m
18. The frequency of the horn echo as heard
by the driver of the car is
(1) 435 Hz (2) 430 Hz
(3) 425 Hz (4) 420 Hz
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
5
19. A metallic hollow sphere filled with water
having a small hole at the bottom is used
as the bob of the simple pendulum. The
period of oscillation of such a pendulum
(1) decreases with time
(2) increases with time
(3) first increases and then decreases to
reach the original value
(4) remains constant
20. Water flows steadily through a horizontal
pipe of non-uniform cross-section. When
the pressure of water is 5 10
4
Nm
2
at a
point where cross-section is 0.02 m
2
and
velocity of flow is 2.5 ms
1
, the pressure
at a point where cross-section is 0.01 m
2

is
(1) 61.8 10
3
Pa (2) 60.7 10
3
Pa
(3) 59.4 10
3
Pa (4) 58.2 10
3
Pa
21. A steel wire of length 5.2 m and cross-
section 2.0 10
5
m
2
stretched by the
same amount as a copper wire of length
4.0 m and cross-section 3 10
5
m
2
under
a given load. The ratio of the Youngs
modulus Y of steel to copper is
(1) 1.95 (2) 1.86 (3) 1.79 (4) 1.72
22. Two identical conducting rods are first
connected independently in two vessels,
one containing boiling water at 100C
and the other containing ice at 0C.
Later, the rods are joined end to end and
connected to the same vessels. Let q
1

and q
2
be the rates of cooling of ice in
two cases respectively. The ratio
1
2
q
q
is
(1)
1
2
(2)
4
1
(3)
2
1
(4)
1
4

23. A rectangular block of mass m and area
of cross-section a floats in a liquid of
density . When the block is given a small
vertical displacement from equilibrium, it
oscillates with a time period T. Then its
value is proportional to
(1)
1
m
(2)
1
(3) (4)
1
a

24. A quantity of water of mass 20 g at 0C is
mixed with 40 g of water at 10C. The
final temperature of mixture is (sp. heat
capacity of water is 1) Ignore the heat
changes in the container.
(1) 7.8C (2) 6.67C
(3) 0C (4) 4.85C
25. A Carnots engine takes 3.2 10
6
cals of
heat from a reservoir at 727C and
transfer it to a sink at 127C. The work
done by the engine is (1 calorie = 4.2 J)
(1) 8.064 10
6
J (2) 7.54 10
6
J
(3) 8.064 10
5
J (4) 7.54 10
5
J
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
6
26. If f be the number of degrees of freedom
of a gas molecules, then the ratio of the
specific heats
p
v
C
C
is given by
(1) +
1
1
f
(2)
1
1
f
(3) +
2
1
f
(4)
2
1
f

27. Let A and B be two points on a uniform
metal ring whose centre is C. The angle
ACB = . A and B are maintained at
240C and 40C respectively. When
= 180 the rate of total heat flow from A
to B is 4.2 W. When = 90 this rate will be
(1) 5.2 W (2) 5.6 W (3) 6.0 W (4) 6.4 W
28. A simple pendulum has time period T
1
.
The point of suspension is now moved
upward according to the relation y = kt
2

(k = 2 ms
2
) where y is the vertical
displacement. The time period now bec-
omes T
2
. The ratio of
2
1
2
2
T
T
is (g = 10 ms
2
)
(1)
7
5
(2)
5
7
(3)
2
2
7
5
(4)
2
2
5
7

Question number 29 and 30 contain Statement 1
and Statement 2. Of the four choices given
after the statements, choose the one that best
describes the two statements.
29. Statement 1 : It is difficult to move a
bicycle with its brakes on.
Statement 2 : Rolling friction is conver-
ted into sliding friction,
which is comparatively
larger.
(1) Statement 1 is true; statement 2 is
true; statement 2 is the correct
explanation of statement 1
(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
true; statement 2 is not the correct
(3) Statement 1 is false; statement 1 is
true
false
30. Statement 1 : The length of a simple
pendulum is increased by
4%. The corresponding de-
crease in time period will
be 2%
Statement 2 : Time period of oscillation
of simple pendulum
the length of the

pendulum

true; statement 2 is the correct expla-
nation of statement 1
true; statement 2 is not the correct
(3) Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is
true
false
7
31. If x
(
(

5 5
, ,
2 2
the greatest positive
solution of 1 + sin
4
x = cos
2
3x is
(1) (2) 2 (3)
5
2
(4)
3
2

32. A quadratic equation whose roots are
cosec
2
and sec
2
can be
(1) x
2
2x + 2 = 0 (2) x
2
3x + 3 = 0
(3) x
2
5x + 5 = 0 (4) x
2
x + 1 = 0
33. The complex numbers given by 1 3i,
4 + 3i and 3 + i represent the vertices of
(1) a right angled triangle
(2) an isosceles triangle
(3) an equilateral triangle
(4) None of these
34. If x, y, z are in A.P., then e
x
, e
y
and e
z

are in
(1) A.P.
(2) G.P.
(3) A.G.P
(4) no definite sequence
35. If f(x) = x
2
+ 2bx + 2c
2
and
g(x) = x
2
2cx + b
2
are such that
min. f(x) > max. g(x), then the relation
between b and c, is
(1) no relation
(2) 0 < c <
b
2

(3) |c| < 2 |b|
(4) |c| > 2 |b|
36. The point (4, 1) undergoes the following
transformation successively
(i) reflection about the line y = x
(ii) translation through a distance of 2
units along the positive direction of
the x-axis
(iii) rotation through an angle
4
about
the origin in this counterclockwise
direction.
The final position of the point
(1)
| |
|
\
1 7
,
2 2
(2)
( )
2, 7 2
(3)
| |
|
\
1 7
,
2 2
(4)
( )
2, 7 2

PART B: MATHEMATICS
8
37. The number of 5-digit numbers that can
be made using the digits 1 and 2 and in
which at least one digit is different, is
(1) 30 (2) 31
(3) 32 (4) None of these
38. The sum of the series
=

n
r 1 n
r
r 1
( 1) C (a r) is equal to
(1) n 2
n 1
+ a (2) 0
(3) a (4) 1
Question number 39 to 41 are Assertion-Reason
type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements: Statement 1 (Asser-
tion) and Statement 2 (Reason). Mark your
responses from the following options.
(1) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is
true.
true, statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.
true, statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
false.
39. Statement 1: The total number of three
digit numbers, the sum of
whose digits is even, is
equal to 900.
Statement 2: The number of non-nega-
tive integer solutions of
x
1
+ x
2
+ + x
n
= r is
+
n r 1
n 1
C
40. Statement 1:
1 1 1
1 3 3 5 5 7
+ + +

to n terms =
+
n
2n 1
.
Statement 2: P(1): =
+
1 1
;
3 2 1

P(n) P(n + 1)
41. Statement 1: The number of numbers in
the first 1000 natural num-
bers which are divisible
either by 5 or by 2 is 700.
Statement 2: The number of natural
numbers 1000, divisible
by 2 is 500 and the num-
ber of numbers 1000,
divisible by 5 is 200.
42. If the tangent at P on the circle
x
2
+ y
2
+ 6x + 6y 2 = 0 meets the straight
line 5x 2y + 6 = 0 at Q on the y-axis, then
the length PQ =
(1) 4 (2) 2 5
(3) 5 (4) 3 5
9
43. The angle between the tangents drawn
from the point (1, 4) to the parabola
y
2
= 4x is
(1)
6
(2)
4
(3)
3
(4)
2

44. In a polygon, no three diagonals are
concurrent. If the total number of points
of intersection of diagonals interior to the
polygon be 70, then the number of
diagonals of the polygon is
(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 8 (4) 20
45. If z
2
+ z + 1 = 0, where z is a complex
number, then the value of
| | | | | |
+ + + + + +
| | |
\ \ \
2 2 2
2 3
2 3
1 1 1
z z z
z
z z

| |
+ +
|
\
2
6
6
1
z
z
is
(1) 18 (2) 54 (3) 6 (4) 12
46. a, b, c are three distinct real numbers
and they are in G.P. If a + b + c = xb,
then
(1) x 1 or x 3 (2) x < 1 or x > 3
(3) x 1 or x > 3 (4) x < 3 or x > 2
47. Number of real roots of the equation
(27)
1/x
+ (12)
1/x
=
x
3
1
2
+ is
(1) zero (2) one
(3) two (4) infinite
48. The greatest common divisor of
20 20 20
1 3 9
C , C , , C is
(1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 10
49. If in triangle ABC,
2
2
2
1 sinA sin A
1 sinB sin B 0
1 sinC sin C
= ,
then the triangle is
(1) equilateral or isosceles
(2) equilateral or right angled
(3) right angled or isosceles
(4) None of these
50. A tower standing at right angles to the
ground subtends angles sin
1

1
3
and
sin
1

1
5
at two points A and B situated
in a line through the foot of the tower
and on the opposite sides. If AB = 50
units, then the height of the tower is
(1) 25 2 (2) 25( 2 1)
(3) 50( 6 2) (4) 50
10
51. If and are the roots of the equation
ax
2
+ bx + c = 0 and
4
and
4
are the
roots of the equation x
2
+ mx + n = 0,
then the roots of the equation
a
2
x
2
4acx + 2c
2
+ a
2
m = 0 are
(1) always positive
(2) always non-real
(3) opposite in sign
(4) negative
52. If
2
1
2
2
z 2 z 4
log 0,
2 z 1
+ +
<
+
then the region
traced by z is
(1) |z| < 3 (2) 1 < |z| < 3
(3) |z| > 1 (4) |z| < 2
53. The last two digits of the number 3
400
are
(1) 39 (2) 01 (3) 29 (4) 43
54. If the roots of
a(b c)x
2
+ b(c a)x + c(a b) = 0
are equal, then
1 1 1
, ,
a b c
are in
(1) A.P. (2) G.P.
(3) A.G.P. (4) None of these
55. If A is a skew symmetric matrix, and n is a
positive integer, then A
n
is a
(1) symmetric matrix
(2) skew symmetric matrix
(3) diagonal matrix
(4) None of these
56. If A, B are symmetric matrices of the
same order, then AB BA is a
(1) symmetric matrix
(2) skew symmetrix matrix
(3) diagonal matrix
(4) None of these
57. A root of the equation
+ + + +
+ =
+ + + +
a c b c 2(a b c)
x a x b x a b
is
(1) a (2) b
(3) c (4) a + b + c
58. The number of ways in which 5 boys and
5 girls can be seated in a row so that all
the girls sit together is
(1) 86400 (2) 14400
(3) 7200 (4) 12600
59. If one latus rectum of a hyperbola
subtends a right angle at the other focus
of the hyperbola, then its eccentricity is
(1) + 3 1 (2) + 2 1
(3) + 3 2 (4) 2
60. cos
| |
=
|
\
1
12
sin
13

(1)
12
13
(2)
5
13
(3)
4
13
(4)
3
13

11
61. Which of the following statements about
an orbital is correct?
(1) An orbital is a definite trajectory
around the nucleus in which electron
can move
(2) An orbital always has spherical
trajectory
(3) It is the region where there is a 90 to
95% of probability of finding all
electrons
(4) An orbital is characterised by three
distinct quantum numbers n, and m
62. Starting with one mole of O
2
and two
moles SO
2
, the equilibrium for the
formation of SO
3(g)
was established at
720 K. If V L is the volume of the vessel
and 2x is the number of moles of SO
3
in
the equilibrium mixture, the equilibrium
constant will be
(1)
2
3
x V
(1 x)
(2)
2
4x
(2 x)(1 x)

(3)
3
(1 x)
2V
(4)
2
x
(2 x)(1 x)

63. (A)
=
2 4
(1) con H SO
3 2
(2) dil acid
CH CH CH
(B)
2 5
(1)C H Mg
2
(2) Acid
CH O
I

(C)
3
(1)CH Mg
3
(2) Acid
CH CHO
I

(D)
4
KMnO
3 2
neutral
CH CH CH =
2-propanol can be obtained from
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D (4) A and C
64. The heat of combustion of a reaction
does not depend on
(1) physical state of the substance
(2) temperature at which combustion is
carried out
(3) amount of excess of oxygen present
(4) whether the reaction is carried out in
a open or closed vessel
65. The vapour pressure of a liquid depends
on
(1) the amount of the liquid taken
(2) the temperature of the liquid
(3) both on the amount as well as
temperature
(4) neither the amount, the tem-
perature nor the nature of liquid

PART C: CHEMISTRY
12
66. Consider the acidity of carboxylic acids
COOH
A
COOH
B
2
NO
COOH
D
2
NO
COOH
2
NO
C

Which of the following order is correct ?
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > D > C > A
(3) B > D > A > C (4) B > C > D > A
67. Which of the following molecules does
not involve with sp
3
d hybridisation ?
(1) XeF
2
(2) SF
4

(3) XeF
4
(4) ClF
3

68. The increasing order of stability of the
carbocations shown as (A to E) given
below;
(A)
3 2
Cl CCH
+

(B)
+
2
CH
Cl

(C)
3 3
CH C CH
3
CH
+

(D)
3 2 2 3
Cl CCH CH CH CH
+

(E)
+
CH

(1) A < B < C < D < E
(2) A < B < E < D < C
(3) B < A < E < D < C
(4) B < E < A < C < D
69. The tendency of BF
3
, BCl
3
and BBr
3
to
behave as Lewis acid decrease in the
sequence is
(1) BCl
3
> BF
3
> BBr
3

(2) BBr
3
> BCl
3
> BF
3

(3) BBr
3
> BF
3
> BCl
3

(4) BF
3
> BCl
3
> BBr
3

13
70. Identify the correct statement :
(1) Plaster of Paris can be obtained by
hydration of gypsum.
(2) Plaster of Paris can be obtained by
partial oxidation of gypsum.
(3) Gypsum contain a higher percent-
tage of calcium than Plaster of Paris.
(4) Gypsum is used in bandaging and in
portland cement manufacture.
71. The correct statement about the
compound with structure A, B and C
H OH
H OH
COOH
3
COOCH
A
H OH
H OH
3
COOCH
COOH
B
H OH
HO
H
3
COOCH
COOH
C

(1) A and B are identical
(2) A and B are diastereomers
(3) A and C are enantiomers
(4) A and B are enantiomers
72. For the electrochemical cell,
(aq) (aq)
M M X X,
+
E (M |M) 0.44 V
+
=
and E (X|X ) 0.33 V
= . From this data

one can deduce that
(1) E
cell
= 0.11 V
(2) E
cell
= 0.77 V
(3) M + X M
+
+ X

is the sponta-
neous reaction
(4) M
+
+ X

M + X is the spontane-
ous reaction
73. A solution of a salt gives a red coloured
precipitate with aqueous NH
4
CNS, and
on treatment with potassium ferrocya-
nide gives blue colouration. The red and
blue colours respectively are
(1) Ni (SCN)
2
and Ni
2
[Fe (CN)
6
]
(2) Fe (SCN)
3
and Fe
4
[Fe(CN)
6
]
3

(3) CO (SCN)
2
and CO
2
[Fe(SCN)
2
]
(4) Fe (SCN)
2
and Fe
2
[Fe(CN)
6
]
74. The correct order of soubility of sulphates
of alkaline earth metals in water is
(1) Be > Ca > Mg > Ba > Sr
(2) Mg > Be > Ba > Ca > Sr
(3) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
(4) Mg > Ca > Br > Be > Sr
75. The compound that will not react with
ammoniacal silver nitrate solution is
(1) HCHO (2) CH
3
C CH
(3) CH
3
COCH
3
(4) HCOOH
76. How much energy is released when
6 moles octane is burnt in air ? Given
Hf for CO
2(g)
, H
2
O
()
and C
8
H
18()

respectively are 490, 240 and
+ 160 kJ mole
1

(1) 6.2 MJ (2) 37.4 MJ
(3) 35.5 MJ (4) 20.7 MJ
14
77. If the concentration of
2
4
CrO
ions in a
saturated aqueous solution of silver
chromate is 2 10
4
M. What is the
solubility product of silver chromate ?
(1) 4 10
8
(2) 8 10
12

(3) 16 10
12
(4) 32 10
12

78. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30C is
121.8 mm of Hg. When 15 g of non
volatile solid is dissolved in 250 g of
benzene, its vapour pressure is decre-
ased to 120.2 mm. The molar mass of
solute is
(1) 35.679 (2) 356.3
(3) 432.8 (4) 502.7
79. Passage of three faraday of charge
through aqueous solutions of AgNO
3
,
CuSO
4
and Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
respectively will
deposit the metals in the molar ratio of
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 6 : 3 : 3
(3) 3 : 1.5 : 1 (4) 3 : 2: 2
80. A solid liberates a brown gas with dilute
acid and a colourless alkaline gas with
hot aqueous NaOH. On heating it gives a
colourless non-reacting gas, steam
leaving no solid residue. The solid mass is
(1) NaNO
2
(2) NaNO
3

(3) NH
4
NO
2
(4) NH
4
NO
3

81. Fluorine is the most reactive among all
the halogens, because of its
(1) small size
(2) low dissociation energy of F F bond
(3) high electronegativity
(4) high dissociation energy of F F
bond
82. Dipole moment of HX is 2.59 10
30

Coulomb-metre. Bond length of HX is
1.39. The percentage of ionic character
of HX is
(1) 80% (2) 25%
(3) 11.65% (4) 16%
83. Addition of dilute aqueous solution of
AgNO
3
to excess of dilute aqueous KI
gives
(1) AgI solution
(2) + ve sol of AgI
(3) ve sol of AgI
(4) neutral sol of Ag
84. If a stands for the edge length the
cubic crystal system: simple cubic, body
centred cube and face centred cubic,
then the ratio of radii of the spheres in
these systems will be respectively
(1)
a a 3 a 2
: :
2 2 2
(2) 2a: 3a: 2a
(3)
a a 3 a
: :
2 4 2 2
(4)
a a
: 3a:
2 2

15
85. Highly electropositive metals cannot be
extracted by carbon reduction process
because these
(1) metal oxides are not reduced by
carbon
(2) metals combine with carbon to form
carbides
(3) metals do not react with carbon
(4) metals become metallic carbonate
86. True statement among the following is
(1) NH
3
is less soluble than PH
3
in water
(2) NH
3
is a stronger base and stronger
reducing agent than PH
3

(3) NH
3
has a higher boiling point than
PH
3

(4) PH
3
is stronger reducing agent than
NH
3

87. The reaction
3
CH ONa
3 3
(CH ) CCl
3 2
(CH ) CH = CH
2
is an example of
(1) E
1
elimination (2) E
2
elimination
(3)
N
S 1reaction (4)
N
S 2 reaction
88. Consider the following reaction

A
(i)R MgX(B)
2
(ii)H O/H
+
3
CH C OH
2 5
C H
6 5
C H

In the above reaction (A) and (B) will
respectively be
(1) C
2
H
5
CO C
2
H
5
and C
6
H
5
MgBr
(2) CH
3
COC
6
H
5
and CH
3
MgBr
(3) C
2
H
5
COC
6
H
5
and CH
3
MgBr
(4) All of these
89. In the given reaction CH
3
CH
2
COOH
2
Br
3
RedP
(A) NH excess (B) +
The intermediate compound A would be
(1) CH
3
CH
2
COBr
(2) CH
3
CHNH
2
COOH
(3) CH
3
CHBr COOH
(4) BrCH
2
CH
2
COOH
90.
OH
+
6 5
NaOH
C H COCl
product

Product is
(1)
6 5 6 5
C H COC H
(2)
6 5 2 5
C H COOC H
(3)
6 5 6 5
C H COOC H
(4)
6 5 6 5
C H O C H
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
16
17
18
19

20

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

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(Side- -- -1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
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Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be
deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no
response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
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for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided.
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All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test
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