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NURSING PRACTICE I FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING PRACTICE SITUATION 1: Nursing is a profession.

. The nurse should have a background on the theories and foundation of nursing as it influenced what is nursing today. 1. Nursing is the protection, promotion and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of the individuals, families, communities and the population. This is the most accepted definition of nursing as defined by the: a. PNA b. ANA c. Nightingale d. Hernderson 2. Advancement in Nursing leads to the development of the Expanded Career Roles. Which of the following is NOT an expanded career role for nurses? a. Nurse practitioner b. Clinical nurse specialist c. Nurse researcher d. Nurse anesthesiologist 3. The Board of Nurses regulated the Nursing profession in the Philippines and is responsible for the maintenance o the quality of nursing in the country. Powers and duties o the board of nursing are the following EXCEPT: a. issue, suspend, revoke certificates of registration b. issue subpoena duces tecum, ad testificandum c. open and close colleges of nursing d. supervise and regulate the practice of nursing 4. A nursing student or a beginning staff nurse who has not yet experienced enough real situations to make judgments about them is in what stage of Nursing Expertise? a. Novice b. Newbie c. Advanced beginner d. Competent 12. You attended a pulse oximeter to the client. You know that the purpose is to: a. Determine if the clients hemoglobin level is low and if he needs blood transfusion b. Check the level of clients tissue perfusion c. Measure the efficacy of the clients anti=hypertensive medications d. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops 13. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, the client is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be: a. Inconsistent b. Low systolic and high diastolic c. Higher than what the reading should be d. Lower than what the reading should be 14. Through the clients health history, you gather that the patient smokes and drinks coffee. When taking the blood pressure of a client who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should the nurse wait before taking the clients blood pressure for accurate reading? a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 5 minutes 15. While the client has pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that sunlight is shining on the area where the oximeter is. Your action will be to: a. Set and turn on the alarm of the oximeter b. Do nothing since there is no identified problem c. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bed sheet d. Change the location of the sensor every four hours 16. The nurse finds it necessary to recheck the blood pressure reading. In case of such reassessment, the nurse should wait for a period of: a. 15 seconds b. 1 to 2 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes 17. If the arm is said to be elevated when taking the blood pressure, it will create a: a. False high reading b. False low reading

c. True false reading d. Indeterminate 18. You are to assess the temperature of the client the next morning and found out that he ate ice cream. How many minutes should you wait before assessing the clients oral temperature? a. 10 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes 19. When auscultating the clients blood pressure, the nurse hears the following: from 150 mmHg to 130 mmHg: silence, then, a thumping sound continuing down to 100 mmHg: muffled sound continuing down to 80 mmHg, and then silence. What is the clients blood pressure? a. 130/80 b. 150/100 c. 100/80 d. 150/100 20. In a client with a previous blood pressure of 130/80 4 hours ago, how long will it take to release the blood pressure cuff to obtain an accurate reading? a. 10-20 seconds b. 30-45 seconds c. 1-1.5 seconds d. 3-3.5 seconds Situation 4: Oral care is an important part of hygienic practices and promoting client comfort. 21. An elderly client, 84 years old, is unconscious. Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive dryness and presence of sores. Which of the following is BEST to use for oral care? a. lemon glycerine b. hydrogen peroxide c. mineral oil d. normal saline solution 22. When performing oral care to an unconscious client, which of the following is a special consideration to prevent aspiration of fluids into the lungs? a. put the client on a side lying position with head of bed lowered b. keep the client dry by placing towel under the chin c. wash hands and observe appropriate infection control d. clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful and an orderly progression 23. The advantages of oral care for a client include all of the following EXCEPT: a. decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth b. reduces need to use commercial mouthwash which irritate the buccal mocosa c. improves client's appearance and self-confidence d. improves appetite and taste of food 24. A possible problem while providing oral care to unconscious clients is the risk of fluid aspiration to lungs. This can be avoided by: a. cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs soaked with mouthwash to avoid rinsing the buccal cavity b. swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips, tongue and gums with dry cotton swabs c. use fingers wrapped with wet cotton washcloth to rub inside the cheeks, tongue, lips and gums d. suctioning as needed while cleaning the buccal cavity 25. Your client has difficulty of breathing and is mouth breathing most of the time. This causes dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral hygiene is recommended fro the client and in addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by using: a. salt solution b. water c. petroleum jelly d. mentholated ointment Situation 5 Ensuring safety before, during and after a diagnostic procedure is an important responsibility of the nurse. 26. To help Fernan better tolerate the bronchosopy, you should instruct him to practice which of the following prior to the procedure? a. clenching his fist every 2 minutes b. breathing in and out through the nose with his mouth open c. tensing the shoulder muscles while lying on his back d. holding his breath periodically for 30 seconds 27. Following a bronchoscopy, which of the following complains to Fernan should be noted as a possible complication? a. nausea and vomiting

b. shortness of breath and laryngeal stridor c. blood tinged sputum and coughing d. sore throat and hoarseness 28. Immediately after bronchoscopy, you instructed Fernan to: a. exercise the neck muscles b. breathe deeply c. refrain from coughing and talking d. clear his throat 29. Thoracentesis may be performed for cytologic study of pleural fluid. As a nurse, your most important function during the procedure is to: a. keep the sterile equipment from contamination b. assist the physician c. open and close the three-way stopcock d. observe the patient's vital signs 30. Right after thoracentesis, which of the following is most appropriate intervention? a. instruct the patient not to cough or deep breathe for 2 hours b. observe for symptoms of tightness of chest or bleeding c. place an ice pack to the puncture site d. remove the dressing to check for bleeding Situation 6: Knowledge of the acid-base disturbance and the functions of the electrolytes is necessary to determine appropriate intervention and nursing actions. 31. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 644 mg/dl. The nurse interprets that this client is at most risk for the development of which type of acid-base imbalance? a. respiratory acidosis b. metabolic acidosis c. respiratory alkalosis d. metabolic alkalosis 32. In a client in the health care clinic, arterial blood gas analysis gives the following results: pH 7.45, pCO2 32 mmHg, PO2 94 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. The nurse interprets that the client has which acid base disturbance? a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis 33. A client has an order for ABG analysis on radial artery specimens. The nurse ensures that which of the following has been performed or tested before the ABG specimens are drawn? a. Guthrie test b. Allen's test c. Romberg's test d. Weber's test 34. A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client and notes that he pH is 7.31, PCO2 is 50 mmHg, and the bicarbonate is 27 mEq/L. The nurse concludes that which acid base disturbance is present in this client? a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis 35. Allen's test checks the patency of the: a. Ulnar artery b. radial artery c. carotid artery d. brachial artery 37. After IVP a renal stone was confirmed, a left nephrectomy was done. Her post operative order includes daily urine specimen to be sent to the laboratory. Eileen has a foley catheter attached to a urinary drainage system. How will you collect the urine specimen? a. remove urine from drainage tube with sterile needle and syringe and empty urine from the syringe into the specimen container b. empty a sample urine from the collecting bag into the specimen container c. disconnect the drainage tube from the indwelling catheter and allow urine to flow from catheter into the specimen container d. disconnect the drainage from the collecting bag and allow the urine to flow from the catheter into the specimen container 38. Where would the nurse tape Eileen's indwelling catheter in order to reduce urethral irritation? a. to the patient's inner thigh

b. the patient's lower thigh c. to the patient's buttocks d. to the patient's lower abdomen 39. Which of the following menu is appropriate for one with low sodium diet? a. instant noodles, fresh fruits and ice tea b. ham and cheese sandwich, fresh fruits and vegetables c. white chicken sandwich, vegetable salad and tea d. canned soup, potato salad, and diet soda 40. How will you prevent ascending infection to Eileen who has an indwelling catheter? a. see to it that the drainage tubing touches the level of the urine b. change the catheter every eight hours c. see to it that the drainage tubing does not touch the level of the urine d. clean catheter may be used since urethral meatus is not a sterile area Situation 7: Hormones are secreted by the various glands in the body. Basic knowledge of the endocrine system is necessary. 41. Somatotropine or the Growth hormone releasing hormone is secreted by the: a. hypothalamus b. anterior pituitary gland c. posterior pituitary gland d. thyroid gland 42. All of the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland except: a. somatotropin/growth hormone b. follicle stimulationg hormone c. thyroid stimulating hormone d. gonadotropin hormone realeasing hormone 43. All of the following hormones are hormones secreted by the Posterior pituitary gland except: a. vasopressin b. oxytocin c. anti-diuretic hormone d. growth hormone 44. Calcitonin, a hormone necessary for calcium regulation is secreted in the: a. thyroid gland b. hypothalamus c. parathyroid gland d. anterior pituitary gland 45. While parathormone, a hormone that negates the effect of calcitonin is secreted by the: a. thyroid gland b. hypothalamus c. parathyroid d. anterior pituitary gland Situation 8: The staff nurse supervisor requests all the staff nurses to "brainstorm" and learn ways to instruct diabetic clients on self-administration of insulin. She wants to ensure that there are nurses available daily to do health education classes. 46. The plan of the nurse supervisor is an example of a. in service education process b. efficient management of human resources c. increasing human resources d. primary prevention 47. When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the clients care to one nurse aide who is an unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra: a. makes the assignment to teach the staff member b. is assigning the responsibility to the aide but not the accountability for those tasks c. does not have to supervise or evaluate the aide d. must know how to perform task delegated 48. Connie, the new nurse appears tired and sluggish and lacks the enthusiasm she had six weeks ago when she started the job. The nurse supervisor should a. empathize with the nurse and listen to her b. tell her to take the day off c. discuss how she is adjusting to her new job d. ask about her family 49. Process of normal negotiations of working conditions between a group of registered nurses and employer is

a. grievance b. arbitration c. collective bargaining d. strike 50. You are attending a certification on cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and required by the hospital employing you. This is a. professional course towards credits b. in service education c. advance training d. continuing education Situation 9: As a nurse, you are aware that proper documentation in the patient chart is your responsibility. 51. Which of the following is not a legally binding document but nevertheless very important in the care of all patients in any health care setting? a. bill of rights as provided in the Philippine Constitution b. Scope of nursing practice as defined by RA 9173 c. Board of nursing resolution adopting the Code of Ethics d. Patient's Bill of Rights 52. A nurse gives a wrong medication to the client. Another nurse employed by the same hospital as a risk manager will expect to receive which of the following communication? a. incident report b. oral report c. nursing kardex d. complain report 53. Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of an informed consent can lead to which of the following charges? a. fraud b. assault and battery c. harassment d. breach of confidentiality 54. Which of the following is the essence of informed consent? a. it should have a durable power of attorney b. it should have coverage from an insurance company c. it should respect the client's freedom from coercion d. it should disclose previous diagnosis, prognosis and alternative treatments available for the client 55. Delegation is the process of assigning tasks that can be performed by a subordinate. The RN should always be accountable and should not lose his accountability. Which of the following is a role included in delegation? a. the RN must supervise all delegated tasks b. After the task has been delegated, it is no longer a responsibility of the RN c. The RN is responsible and accountable for the delegated task in adjunct with the delegate d. follow up with a delegated task necessary only if the assistive personnel is not trustworthy Situation 10: When creating your lesson plan for cerebrovascular disease or STROKE. It is important to include the risk factors of stroke. 56. The most important risk factor is: a. cigarette smoking b. hypertension c. binge drinking d. heredity 57. Part of your lesson plan is to talk about etiology or cause of stroke. The types of stroke based on cause are the following EXCEPT: a. embolic stroke b. hemorrhagic stroke c. diabetic stroke d. thrombotic stroke 58. Hemorrhagic stroke occurs suddenly usually when the person is active. All are causes of hemorrhage EXCEPT: a. phlebitis b. trauma c. damage to blood vessel d. aneurysm 59. The nurse emphasizes that intravenous drug abuse carries a high risk of stroke. Which drug is closely linked to this? a. amphetamines

b. cocaine c. shabu d. Demerol 60. A participant in the STROKE class asks what is a risk factor of stroke. Your best response is: a. "more red blood cells thicken blood and make clots more possible" b. "increased RBC count is linked to high cholesterol" c. "more red blood cell increases hemoglobin content" d. "high RBC count increases blood pressure" Situation 11: Recognition of normal values is vital in assessment of clients with various disorders. 61. A nurse is reviewing he laboratory test results for a client with a diagnosis of severe dehydration. The nurse would expect the hematocrit level for this client to be which of the following? a. 60% b. 47% c. 45% d. 32% 62. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.6 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result of this laboratory value? a. ST depression b. inverted T wave c. prominent U wave d. tall peaked T waves 63. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result of this laboratory value? a. U waves b. absent P waves c. Elevated T waves d. Elevated ST segment 64. Dorothy underwent diagnostic test and the result of the blood examination are back. On reviewing the result the nurse notices which of the following as abnormal finding? a. neutrophils 60% b. white blood cells (WBC) 9000/mm c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 39 mm/hr d. iron 75 mg/100 ml 65. Which of the following laboratory test result indicate presence of an infectious process? a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/hr b. white blood cells (WBC) 18,000/mm3 c. iron 90g/100ml d. neutrophils 67% Situation 12: Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. 66. Which of the following is a finding that the nurse will be able to assess in a client with pleural effusion? a. reduced or absent breath sound at the base of the lungs, dyspnea, tachypnea and shortness of breath b. hypoxemia, hypercapnea and respiratory acidosis c. noisy respiration, crackles, stridor and wheezing d. tracheal deviation towards the affected side, increased fremitus and loud breath sounds 67. Thoracentesis is performed to the client with effusion. The nurse knows that the removal of fluid should be slow. Rapid removal of fluid in thoracentesis might cause: a. pneumothorax b. pleurisy or pleuritis c. cardiovascular collapse d. hypertension 68. 3 days after thoracentesis, the client again exhibited respiratory distress. The nurse will know the pleural effusion has reoccurred when she noticed a sharp stabbing pain during inspiration. The physician ordered a closed tube thoracotomy for the client. The nurse knows that the primary function of the chest tube is to: a. restore positive intrathoracic pressure b. restore negative intrathoracic pressure c. to visualize the intrathoracic content d. as a method of air administration via ventilator 69. The chest tube is function properly if: a. there is an oscillation b. there is no bubbling in the drainage bottle c. there is a continuous bubbling in the water seal

d. the suction control bottle has a continuous bubbling 70. In a client with pleural effusion, the nurse is instructing appropriate breathing technique. Which of the following is included in the teaching? a. breathe normally b. hold the breath after each inspiration for 1 full minute c. practice abdominal breathing d. inhale slowly and hold the breath for 3 to 5 seconds after each inhalation SITUATION 13: Health care delivery system affects the health status of every Filipino. As a nurse, knowledge of this system is expected to ensure quality of life. 71. When should rehabilitation commence? a. the day before discharge b. when the patient desires c. upon admission d. 24 hours after discharge 72. What exemplified the preventive and promotive programs in the hospital? a. hospital as a center to prevent and control infection b. program for smokers c. program for alcoholics and drug addicts d. Hospital Wellness Center 73. Which makes nursing dynamic? a. every patient is a unique physical, emotional, social, and spiritual being b. the patient participate in the overall nursing care plan c. nursing practice is expanding in the light of modern developments that takes place d. the health status of the patient is constantly changing and the nurse must be cognizant and responsive to these changes 74. Prevention is an important responsibility of the nurse in: a. hospitals b. community c. workplace d. all of the above 75. This form of Health Insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees for a fixed periodic payment: a. health Maintenance Organization b. Medicare c. Philippine Health Insurance Act d. Hospital Maintenance Organization Situation 14: Nursing ethics is an important part of the nursing profession. As the ethical situation arises, so is the need to have an accurate and ethical decision making 76. The purpose of having a nurse's code of ethics is: a. delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice b. Identify nursing action recommended for specific health care situations 91. Health care reports have different purposes. The availability of patients record to all health team members demonstrates which of the following purposes? a. legal documentation b. education c. research d. vehicle for communication 92. When a nurse commits medication error, she should accurately document client's response and her corresponding action. This is very important for which of the following purposes? a. research b. nursing audit c. legal documentation d. vehicle for communication 93. POMR has been widely used in many teaching hospitals. One of its unique features is SOAPIE charting. The P in SOAPIE charting should include: a. prescription of the doctor to the patient's illness b. plan of care for patient c. patient's perception of one's illness d. nursing problem and nursing diagnosis 94. The medical records that are organized into separate section from doctors or nurses has more disadvantages than advantages. This is classified as what type of recording? a. POMR

b. SOAPIE c. Modified POMR d. SOMR 95. Which of the following is the advantage of SOMR or traditional recording? a. Increases efficiency b. reinforces the use of the nursing process c. the caregiver can easily locate proper section for making charting entries d. enhances effective communication among the health care team members SITUATION 17: June is a 24 year old client with symptoms of dyspnea, absent breath sounds on the right lung and chest x-ray revealed pleural effusion. The physician will perform thoracentesis. 96. Thoracentesis is useful in treating all of the following pulmonary disorders except: a. hemothorax b. tuberculosis c. hydrothorax d. empyema 97. Which of the following psychological preparation is not relevant for him? a. telling him that the gauge of the needle and anesthesia to be used b. telling him to keep still during the procedure to facilitate the insertion of the needle in the correct place c. allow June to express his feelings and concerns d. physicians explanation on the purpose of the procedure and how it will be done 98. Before thoracentesis, the legal consideration you must check is: a. Consent is signed by the client b. Medicine preparation is correct c. position of the client is correct d. consent is signed by relative and physician 99. As a nurse, you know that the position for June before thoracentesis is: a. orthopneic b. knee-chest c. low fowlers d. sidelying position on the affected side 100. Which of the following anesthetic drug is used for thoracentesis? a. procaine 2% b. valium 250 mg c. Demerol 75mg d. Phenobarbital 50mg

ANSWER KEY: 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D 8.A 9.C 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. C 16. B 17.B 18.C 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. B

27. B 28. B 29. D 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. C 41. A 42. D 43. D 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. B 51. D 52. A 53. B

54. C 55. C 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. A 61. A 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. B 66. A 67. C 68. B 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. D 73. D 74. D 75. A 76. C 77. D 78. A 79. A 80. D

81. B 82. D 83. B 84. D 85. D 86. D 87. A 88. A 89. A 90. C 91. D 92. C 93. B 94. D 95. C 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. A 100. A

NURSING PRACTICE II Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child Situation 1: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who has been married for 6 months. She consults you for guidance in relation with her menstrual cycle and her desire to get pregnant. 1. She wants to know the length of her menstrual period. Her previous menstruation is October 22 to 26. Her LMB is November 21. Which of the following number of days will be her correct response? a. 29 b. 28 c. 30 d. 31 2. You advised her to observe and record the signs of Ovulation, which of the following signs will she likely not down? 1. A 1 degree Fahrenheit rise in basal body temperature 2. Cervical mucus becomes copious and clear 3. One pound increase in weigh 4. Mittelscmerz a. 1, 2, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 3, 4 3. You instruct Mariah to keep record of her basal temperature every day. Which of the following instructions in incorrect? a. If coitus has occurred, this should be reflected in the client b. It is best to have coitus on the evening following a drop in BBT to become pregnant c. Temperature should be taken immediately after waking and before getting out of bed d. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase 4. She reports an increase in BBT on December 16. Which hormone brings about this change in her BBT? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. gonadotropine d. follicle stimulating hormone 5. The following month, Mariah suspects she is pregnant. Her uterine is positive for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin. Which structure produces HCG? a. Pituitary gland b. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo c. Uterine deciduas d. Ovarian follicles Situation 2: Mariah came back and she is now pregnant. 6. At 5 months gestation, which of the following fetal development would probably be achieved? a. Fetal movement are felt by Mariah b. Vernix caseosa covers the entire body c. Viable if delivered within this period d. Braxton hicks contraction are observed 7. The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah. Now at 5 month gestation, what level of the abdomen can the fundic height be palpated? a. Symphysis pubis b. Midpoint between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process c. Midpoint between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus d. Umbilicus 8. She worries about her small breasts thinking that she probably will not be able to breastfeed her baby. Which of the following responses of the nurse is correct? a. the size of your breast will not affect your lactation b. you can switch to bottle feeding c. you can try to have exercise to increase the size of your breast d. Manual expression of milk is possible 9. She tells the nurse that she does not take milk regularly. She claims that she does not want to gain too much weight during her pregnancy. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is the priority? a. Potential self esteem disturbance related to physiologic changes in pregnancy b. Ineffective individual coping related to physiologic changes in pregnancy c. Fear related to the effects of pregnancy d. Knowledge deficit regarding nutritional requirements of pregnancies related to lack of information sources 10. Which of the following interventions will likely ensure compliance of Mariah? a. Incorporate her food preferences that are adequately nutritious in her meal plan b. Consistently counsel toward optimum nutritional intake c. Respect her right to reject dietary information if she chooses

d. Inform her of the adverse effects of inadequate nutrition to her fetus Situation 3: Susan is a patient in the clinic where you work. She is inquiring about pregnancy. 11. Susan tells you she is worried because she develops breasts later than most of her friends. Breast development is termed as: a. Adrenarche b. Mamarche c. Thelarche d. Menarche 12. Kevin, Susans husband tells you that he is considering vasectomy after the birth of their new child. Vasectomy involves the incision of which organ? a. The testes b. The vas deferens c. The epididymis d. The scrotum 13. On examination, Susan has been found of having a cystocele. A cystocele is a. A sebaceous cyst arising from the vulvar fold b. Protrusion of intestines into the vagina c. Prolapsed of the uterus into the vagina d. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal wall 14. Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34 days. She told you she had coitus on days 5, 10, 15, ad 20 of her menstrual cycle. Which is the day on which she is most likely to conceive? a. 8th day b. 10th day c. Day 15 d. Day 20 15. While talking with Susan, 2 new patients arrived and they are covered with large towels and the nurse noticed that there are many cameramen and news people outside of the OPD. Upon assessment the nurse noticed that both of them are still nude and the male clients penis is still indie the female clients vagina and the make client said that I cant pull it. Vaginismus was your first impression. You know that the psychological cause of vaginismus is related to: a. The male client inserted the penis too deeply that it stimulates vaginal closure. b. The penis was too large thats why the vagina triggered its defense to attempt to close it. c. The vagina does not want to be penetrated. d. It is due to learning patterns of the female client where she views her as bad or sinful. Situation 4: Overpopulation is one problem in the Philippines that causes economic drain. Most Filipinos are against legalizing abortion. As a nurse, mastery of contraception is needed to contribute to the society and economic growth. 16. Supposed that Dana, 17 years old, tells you she wants to use fertility awareness method of contraception. How will she determine her fertile days? a. She will notice that she feels hot as if she has an elevated temperature b. She should assess whether her cervical mucus is thin, copious, clear and watery c. She should monitor her emotions for sudden anger or crying d. She should assess whether her breasts feel sensitive to cool air 17. Dana chooses to use COC as her family planning method. What is the danger sign of COC you would ask her to report? a. A stuffy or runny nose b. Arthritis like symptoms c. Slight weight gain d. Migraine headache 18. Dana asks about subcutaneous implants and she asks how long the implants will be effective. Your best answer is: a. One month b. Twelve months c. Five years d. 10 years 19. Dana asks about female condoms. Which of the following is true with regards to female condoms? a. The hormone the condom releases might cause mild weigh gain b. She should insert the condom before any penile penetration c. She should coat the condom with spermicide before use d. Female condoms, unlike male condoms, are reusable 20. Dana has asked about GIFT procedure. What makes her a good candidate for GIFT? a. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized ova can be implanted on them b. She is RH negative, a necessary stipulation to rule out RH incompatibility

c. She has normal uterus, so the sperm can be injected through the cervix into it d. Her husband is taking sildenafil, so all sperms will be motile Situation 5: Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS and INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this particular population group. 21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer? a. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm b. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked c. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked d. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to go 22. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when: a. The woman has no uterus b. A woman has no children c. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year d. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months 23. Another client named Lilia is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes with fertility because a. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes b. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen c. The ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen d. Pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased FSH levels 24. Lilia is scheduled to have a hysterosalphingogram. Which of the following instructions would you give her regarding this procedure? a. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months after the procedure b. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present c. Many women experience mild bleeding as an after effect d. She may feel some cramping when the dye is inserted 25. Lilias cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Lorenas specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena? a. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix b. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary c. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal pregnancy d. The husbands sperm is administered intravenously weekly Situation 6: You are assigned to take care of a group of patients across the lifespan. 26. Pain in the elder persons require careful assessment because they a. Experience reduced sensory perception b. Have increased sensory perception c. Are expected to experience chronic pain d. Have a decreased pain threshold 27. Administration of analgesics to the older persons requires careful patient assessment because older people a. Are more sensitive to drugs b. Have increased hepatic, renal and gastrointestinal function c. Have increased sensory perception d. Mobilize drugs more rapidly 28. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary incontinence because of a. Increased glomerular filtration b. Diuretic use c. Decreased bladder capacity d. Dilated urethra 29. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly? a. Decreased breath sounds with crackles b. Fever c. Pain d. Change in mental status 30. Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma patient: a. Circulation, airway, breathing b. Disability (neurologic), airway, breathing c. Airway, breathing, disability (neurologic) d. Airway, breathing, circulation 31. Preschoolers are able to see things from which of the following perspectives? a. Their peers

b. Their own and their caregivers c. Their own and their mothers d. Only their own 32. In conflict management, the win-win approach occurs when a. There are two conflicts and the parties agree to each one b. Each party gives in on 50% of the disagreements making up the conflict c. Both parties involved are committed resolving the conflict d. The conflict is settled out of court so the legal system and the parties win 33. According to the social intersectional perspective of child abuse and neglect, four factors place the family members at risk for abuse. These risk factors are the family itself, the caregiver, the child and a. The presence of family crisis b. Genetics c. The national emphasis on sex d. Chronic poverty 34. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you most likely find when assessing an infant with Arnold-Chiari malformation? a. Weakness of the leg muscles, loss of sensation in the legs, and restlessness b. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex, and respiratory distress c. Difficulty sleeping, hyper-vigilant, and an arching of the back d. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting 35. A parent calls you and frantically reports that her child has gotten into her famous ferrous sulfate pills and ingested a number of these pills. Her child is now vomiting, has bloody diarrhea, and is complaining of abdominal pain. You will tell the mother to a. Call emergency medical services (EMS) and get the child to the emergency room b. Relax because these symptoms will pass and the child will be fine c. Administer syrup of ipecac d. Call the poison control center 36. A client says she heard from a friend that you stop having periods once you are on the pill. The most appropriate response would be: a. The pill prevents the uterus from making such endometrial lining that is why periods may often be scant or skipped occasionally. b. If your friend has missed her period, she should stop taking the pills and get a pregnancy test as soon as possible. c. The pill should cause a normal menstrual period every month. It sounds like your friend has not been taking the pills properly. d. Missed period can be very dangerous and may lead to the formation of precancerous cells. 37. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during their hospital stay after birth will notice which of the following symptoms as a primary manifestation of Hirschsprungs disease? a. A fine rash over the trunk b. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth c. The skin turns yellow and then brown over the first 48 hours of life d. High-grade fever 38. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been diagnosed as having a partial placenta previa. She is stable and has minimal spotting and is being sent home. Which of these instructions to the client may indicate a need for further teaching? a. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges b. Avoid intercourse for three days c. Call if contractions occur d. Stay on left side as much as possible when lying down 39. A woman has been rushed to the hospital with ruptured membrane. Which of the following should the nurse check first? a. Check for the presence of infection b. Assess for prolapsed of the umbilical cord c. Check the maternal heart rate d. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid 40. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-coated diaper is a topical medication were to be prescribed and it were to go on the stomachs or buttocks, the nurse would teach the caregivers to a. Avoid covering the area of the topical medication with the diaper b. Avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper c. Put the diaper on as usual d. Apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the diaper 41. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the success of relationships used in delivering nursing care? a. Type of illness of the client b. Transference and counter-transference

c. Effective communication d. Personality of the participants 42. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from automobile accident. Why are lacerations of lower extremities potentially more serious among pregnant women than other? a. Lacerations can provoke allergic responses due to gonadotropic hormone release b. A woman is less able to keep the laceration clean because of her fatigue c. Healing is limited during pregnancy so these will not heal until after birth d. Increased bleeding can occur from uterine pressure on leg veins 43. In working with the caregivers of a client with an acute or chronic illness, the nurse would a. Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a return demonstration just before discharge b. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex and respiratory distress c. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant, and arching of the back d. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea, and vomiting 44. Which of the following roles BEST exemplifies the expanded role of the nurse? a. Circulating nurse in surgery b. Medication nurse c. Obstetrical nurse d. Pediatric nurse practitioner 45. According to De Rosa and Kochuras (2006) article entitled Implement Culturally Competent Health Care in your Workplace, cultures have different patterns of verbal and nonverbal communication. Which difference does NOT necessarily belong? a. Personal behavior b. Eye contact c. Subject matter d. Conversational style 46. You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with acute glomerulonephritis. By following the prescribed treatment regimen, the child experiences a remission. You are now checking to make sure the child does not have a relapse. Which finding would most lead you to the conclusion that a relapse is happening? a. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing complete blood count (CBC) with differential b. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more for days or the child found to have 3-4+ proteinuria plus edema c. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine output, and a moon face d. A temperature of 37.6 degrees (100 degrees F), flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on voiding, and cloudy urine 47. The nurse is working with an adolescent who complains of being lonely and having a lack of fulfillment in her life. This adolescent shies away from intimate relationships at times yet at other times she appears promiscuous. The nurse will likely work with this adolescent in which of the following areas? a. Isolation b. Loneliness c. Lack of fulfillment d. Identity 48. The use of interpersonal decision making, psychomotor skills, and application of knowledge expected in the role of a licensed health care professional in the context of public health welfare and safety is an example of a. Delegation b. Supervision c. Responsibility d. Competence 49. The painful phenomenon known as back labor occurs in a client whose fetus in what position? a. Brow position b. Right occipito-anterior position c. Breech position d. Left occipito-posterior position 50. FOCUS methodology stands for a. Focus, organize, clarify, understand and solution b. Focus, opportunity, continuous, utilize, substantiate c. Focus, organize, clarify, understand, substantiate d. Focus, opportunity, continuous (process), understand, solution Situation 7: The infant and child mortality rate in the low to middle income countries is ten times higher than industrialized countries. In response to this, the WHO and UNICEF launched the protocol Integrated Management of childhood Illnesses to reduce the morbidity and mortality against childhood illnesses.

51. If a child with diarrhea registers two signs in the yellow row in the IMCI chart, we can classify the patient as a. Moderate dehydration b. Some dehydration c. Severe dehydration d. No dehydration 52. Celeste has had diarrhea for 8 days. There is no blood in the stool, he is irritable, his eyes are sunken, the nurse offers fluid to Celeste and he drinks eagerly. When the nurse pinched the abdomen, it goes back slowly. How will you classify Celestes illness? a. Moderate dehydration b. Some dehydration c. Severe dehydration d. No dehydration 53. A child who is 7 weeks has had diarrhea for 14 days but has no sign of dehydration classified as a. Persistent diarrhea b. Sever dysentery c. Dysentery d. Severe persistent diarrhea 54. The child with no dehydration needs home treatment. Which of the following is not included in the rules for home treatment in this case? a. Forced fluids b. When to return c. Give vitamin A supplement d. Feeding more 55. Fever as used in IMCI includes a. Axillary temperature of 37.5C or higher b. Rectal temperature of 38 or higher c. Feeling hot to touch d. All of the above e. A and C only Situation 8: Prevention of Dengue is an important nursing responsibility and controlling its spread is a priority once outbreak has been observed. 56. An important role of the community health nurse in the prevention and control of Dengue H-fever includes a. Advising the elimination of vectors by keeping water containers covered b. Conducting strong health education drives/campaign directed towards proper garbage disposal c. Explaining to the individuals, families, groups and community the nature of the disease and its causation d. Practicing residual spraying with insecticides 57. Community health nurses should be alert in observing a Dengue suspect. The following is NOT an indicator for hospitalization of H-fever suspects? a. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and vomiting b. Increasing hematocrit count c. Cough of 30 days d. Persistent headache 58. The community health nurses primary concern in the immediate control of hemorrhage among patients with dengue is a. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet b. Providing warmth through light weight covers c. Observing closely the patient for vital signs leading to shock d. Keeping the patient at rest 59. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as truly positive signs indicative of Dengue H-fever? a. Prolonged bleeding time b. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1cm square c. Steadily increasing hematocrit count d. Fall in the platelet count 60. Which of the following is the most important treatment of patients with Dengue H-fever? a. Give aspirin for fever b. Replacement of body fluids c. Avoid unnecessary movement of patient d. Ice cap over the abdomen in case of melena Situation 9: Health education and Health promotion is an important part of nursing responsibility in the community. Immunization is a form of health promotion that aims at preventing the common childhood illnesses. 61. In correcting misconceptions and myths about certain diseases and the management, the health worker should first

a. Identify the myths and misconceptions prevailing in the community b. Identify the source of these myths and misconceptions c. Explain how and why these myths came about d. Select the appropriate IEC strategies to correct them 62. How many percent of measures are prevented by immunization at 9 months of age? a. 80% b. 90% c. 99% d. 95% 63. After TT3 vaccination, a mother is said to be protected to tetanus by around a. 80% b. 85% c. 99% d. 90% 64. If ever convulsions occur after administering DPT, what should the nurse best suggest to the mother? a. Do not continue DPT vaccination anymore b. Advise mother to comeback after 1 week c. Give DT instead of DPT d. Give pertussis of the EPT and remove DT 65. These vaccines are given 3 doses at one month intervals a. DPT, BCG, TT b. DPT, TT, OPV c. OPV, Hep B, DPT d. Measles, OPV, DPT Situation 10: With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative to treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The following conditions apply. 66. Which among the following is the primary focus of prevention of Cancer? a. Elimination of conditions causing cancer b. Diagnosis and treatment c. Treatment at early stage d. Early detection 67. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the following activities is the most important function of the community health nurse? a. Conduct community assemblies b. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with symptoms of cancer c. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters in our process of detection, control and treatment modalities d. Teach woman about proper/correct nutrition 68. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of care for cancer cases? a. Those under early case detection b. Those under post case treatment c. Those scheduled for surgery d. Those undergoing treatment 69. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of care for cancer cases? a. Those under early treatment b. Those under supportive care c. Those under early detection d. Those scheduled for surgery 70. In Community Health Nursing, despite the availability and use of many equipment and devices to facilitate the job of the community health nurse, the best tool any nurse should be prepared to apply is a scientific approach. This approach ensures quality of care given at the community setting. This is nursing parlance is nothing less than the a. Nursing diagnosis b. Nursing protocol c. Nursing research d. Nursing process Situation 11: Two children were brought to you. One with chest indrawing and the other has diarrhea. The following questions apply: 71. Using Integrated Management and Childhood Illness (IMCI) approach, how would you classify the 1st child? a. Bronchopneumonia b. No pneumonia: cough or cold c. Severe pneumonia

d. Pneumonia 72. The 1st child who is 13 months has fast breathing. Using IMCI parameters, he has: a. 40 breaths per minute or more b. 50 breaths per minute c. 30 breaths per minute or more d. 60 breaths per minute 73. Nina, the 2nd child has diarrhea for 5 days. There is no blood in the stool. She is irritable, and her eyes are sunken. The nurse offered fluids and the child drinks eagerly. How would you classify Ninas illness? a. Some dehydration b. Dysentery c. Severe dehydration d. No dehydration 74. Ninas treatment should include the following EXCEPT: a. Reassess the child and classify him for rehydration b. For infants under 6 months old who are not breastfed, give 100-300 ml clean water as well during this period c. Give in the health center the recommended amount of ORS for 4 hours d. Do not give any other foods to the child for home treatment 75. While on treatment, Nina 18 months old weighed 18 kg. and her temperature registered at 37 degrees C. Her mother says she developed cough 3 days ago. Nina has no general danger signs. She has 45 breaths per minute, no chest in-drawing, no stridor. How would you classify Ninas manifestation? a. No pneumonia b. Severe pneumonia c. Pneumonia d. Boronchopneumonia 76. Carol is 15 months old and weighs 5.5 kg and it is her initial visit. Her mother says that Carol is not eating well and unable to breastfeed, he has no vomiting, has no convulsion and not abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Her temperature is 38.9 C. Using the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness or IMCI strategy, if you were the nurse in charge of Carol, how will you classify her illness? a. A child at a general danger sign b. Very severe febrile disease c. Severe pneumonia d. Severe malnutrition 77. Why are small for gestational age newborns at risk for difficulty maintaining body temperature? a. Their skin is more susceptible to conduction of cold b. They are preterm so are born relatively small in size c. They do not have as many fat stored as other infants d. They are more active than usual so they throw off comes 78. Oxytocin is administered to Rita to augment labor. What are the first symptoms of water intoxication to observe for during this procedure? a. Headache and vomiting b. A swollen tender tongue c. A high choking voice d. Abdominal bleeding and pain 79. Which of the following treatment should NOT be considered if the child has severe dengue hemorrhagic fever? a. Use plan C if there is bleeding from the nose or gums b. Give ORS if there is skin petechiae, persistent, vomiting, and positive tourniquet test c. Give aspirin d. Prevent low blood sugar 80. In assessing the patients condition using the IMCI approach strategy, the first thing that a nurse should do is to: a. Ask what are the childs problem b. Check the patients level of consciousness c. Check for the four main symptoms d. Check for the general danger signs 81. A child with diarrhea is observed for the following EXCEPT: a. How long the child has diarrhea b. Skin petechiae c. Presence of blood in the stool d. Signs of dehydration 82. The child with no dehydration needs home treatment. Which of the following is NOT indicated in the care for home management at this case? a. Give drugs every 4 hours

b. Continue feeding the child c. Give the child more fluids d. Inform when to return to the health center 83. Ms. Jordan, RN, believes that a patient should be treated as individual. This ethical principle that the patient referred to a. Beneficence b. Nonmaleficence c. Respect for person d. Autonomy 84. When patients cannot make decisions for themselves, the nurse advocate relies on the ethical principle of a. Justice and beneficence b. Fidelity and nonmaleficence c. Beneficence and nonmaleficence d. Fidelity and justice 85. Being a community health nurse, you have the responsibility of participating in protecting the health of people. Consider this situation: Vendors selling bread with their bare hands. They receive money with these hands. You do not see them washing their hands. What should you do? a. miss, may I get the bread myself because you have not washed your hands b. All of these c. Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps /bread tong d. Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands first before getting the bread Situation 12: The following questions refer to common clinical encounters experienced by an entry level nurse. 86. A female client asks the nurse about the use of a cervical cap. Which statement is correct regarding the use of the cervical cap? a. It may affect Pap smear results b. It does not need to be fitted by the physician c. It does not require the use of spermicide d. It must be removed within 24 hours 87. The major components of the communication process are a. Verbal, written, and non-verbal b. Speaker, listener and reply c. Facial expression, tone of voice and gestures d. Message, sender, channel, receiver, and feedback 88. The extent of burns in children are normally assessed and expressed in terms of a. The amount of body surface that is unburned b. Percentages of total body surface area (TSBA) c. How deep the deepest burns are d. The severity of the burns on a 1 to 5 burn scale 89. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes is always hungry, has no lunch money, and is always tired. When the nurse asks the boy his tiredness, he talks of playing outside until midnight. The nurse will suspect that this child is: a. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence quotient (IQ) b. An orphan c. A victim of child neglect d. The victim of poverty 90. Which of the following indicates the type(s) of acute renal failure? a. Four types: hemorrhagic with and without clotting, and non-hemorrhagic with and without clotting b. One type: acute c. Three types: pre-renal, intrarenal and post-renal d. Two types: acute and subacute Situation 13: Mike, 16 years old, has been diagnosed to have AIDS. He worked as an entertainer in a cruise ship. 91. Which method of transmission is common to contract AIDS? a. Syringe and needles b. Body fluids c. Sexual contact d. Transfusion 92. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the following: a. fungus b. bacteria c. retrovirus d. parasites

93. You are assigned in a private room of Mike. Which procedure should be of outmost importance? a. Alcohol wash b. Universal precaution c. Washing isolation d. Gloving technique 94. What primary health teaching would you give to Mike? a. Daily exercise b. Prevent infection c. Reverse isolation d. Proper nutrition 95. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect health workers dealing with the AIDS patients. Which among these must be done as priority? a. Boil used syringe and needles b. Use gloves when handling specimens c. Label personal belonging d. Avoid accidental wound Situation 14: Michelle is a 6 year old pre-schooler. She was reported by her sister to have measles but she is at home because of fever, upper respiratory problem and white spots in her mouth. 96. Rubeola is an Arab term meaning Red. The rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior to eruption behind the ears. As a nurse, your physical examination must determine complication especially: a. Otitis media b. Bronchial pneumonia c. Inflammatory conjunctiva d. Membranous laryngitis 97. To render comfort measure is one of the priorities which includes care of the skin, eyes, ears, mouth and nose. To clean the mouth, your antiseptic solution is in some form of which one below? a. Water b. Sulfur c. Alkaline d. Salt 98. As a public health nurse, you teach mother and family members the prevention of complication of measles. Which of the following should be closely watched? a. Temperature fails to drop b. Inflammation of the conjunctive c. Inflammation of the nasopharynx d. Ulcerative stomatitis 99. Source of infection of measles is secretion of nose and throat of infected person. Filterable virus of measles is transmitted by a. Water supply b. Droplet c. Food ingestion d. Sexual contact 100. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure to an infected person. Nursing responsibility for rehabilitation of patient includes the provision of a. Terminal disinfection b. Injection of gamma globulin c. Immunization d. Comfort measures

ANSWER KEY: 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. C 12. B

13. D 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. A

27. A 28. C 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. A

41. C 42. D 43. A 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. B 52. B 53. D 54. C

55. D 56. C 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. B 61. A 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. C 66. A

67. A 68. A 69. B 70. D 71. C 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. C 76. B 77. C 78. A

79. C 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. C 84. C 85. C 86. A 87. D 88. B 89. C 90. C

91. C 92. C 93. B 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. D 98. C 99. B 100. D

NURSING PRACTICE III CARE OF THE CLIENT WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS Situation I: Leo lives in the squatter area. He goes to nearby school. He helps his mother gather molasses after school. One day, he was absent because of fever, malaise, anorexia, and abdominal discomfort.

1. Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission has the infection agent taken? a. Fecal oral b. Droplet c. Airborne d. Sexual contact 2. Which of the following is concurrent disinfection in the case of Leo? a. Investigation of contact b. Sanitary disposal of feces, urine and blood c. Quarantine of the sick individual d. Removing all detachable objects in the room, cleaning lighting and air duct surfaces in the ceiling and cleaning everything downward to the floor 3. Which of the following must be emphasized during mothers class to Leos mother? a. Administration of immunoglobulin to families b. Thorough had washing before and after eating and toileting c. Use of attenuated vaccines d. Boiling of food especially meat 4. Disaster control should be undertaken when there are 3 or more hepatitis A cases. Which of these measures is a priority? a. Eliminate fecal contamination from foods b. Mass vaccination of uninfected individuals c. Health promotion and education to families and opportunities about the disease, its cause and transmission d. Mass administration of Immunoglobulin 5. What is the average incubation period of Hepatitis A? a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 50 days d. 14 days Situation 2: As a nurse researcher, you must have a very good understanding of the common terms of concept used in research. 6. The information that an investigator collects from the subjects or participants in a research study is usually called a. Hypothesis b. Data c. Variable d. Concept 7. Which of the following usually refers to the independent variables in doing research? a. Result b. Cause c. Output d. Effect 8. The recipients of experimental treatment is an experimental design or the individuals to be observed in a non-experimental design are called a. Setting b. Subjects c. Treatment d. Sample 9. The device or techniques an investigator employs to collect data is called a. Sample b. Instrument c. Hypothesis d. Concept 10. The use of another persons ideas or workings without giving appropriate credit results from inaccurate or incomplete attribution of materials to its sources. Which of the following is referred to when another persons idea is inappropriately credited as ones own? a. Plagiarism b. Quotation c. Assumption d. Paraphrase Situation 3: Mrs Pichay is admitted to your ward. The MD ordered prepare for thoracentesis this pm to remove excess air from the pleural cavity. 11. Which of the following nursing responsibilities is essential in Mrs. Pichay who will undergo thracentesis?

a. Support and reassure client during the procedure b. Ensure that informed consent has been signed c. Determine if client has allergic reaction to local anesthesia d. Ascertain if chest x-rays and other tests have been prescribed and completed 12. Mrs. Pichay who is for thoracentesis is assigned by the nurse to which of the following positions? a. Trendelenburg position b. Supine position c. Dorsal recumbent position d. Orthopneic position 13. During thoracentesis, which of the following nursing intervention will be most crucial? a. Place patient in a quiet and cool room b. Maintain strict aseptic technique c. Advise patient to sit perfectly still during needle insertion until it has been withdrawn from the chest d. Apply pressure over the puncture site as soon as the needle is withdrawn 14. To prevent leakage of fluid in the thoracic cavity, how will you position the client after thoracentesis? a. Place flat in bed b. Turn on the unaffected side c. Turn on the affected side d. On bed rest 15. Chest x-ray was ordered after thoracentesis. When your client asks what is the reason for another chest x-ray, you will explain a. To rule out pneumothorax b. To rule out any possible perforation c. To decongest d. To rule out any foreign body Situation 4: A computer analyst, Mr. Ricardo J. Santos, 25, was brought to the hospital for diagnostic workup after he had experienced seizure in his office. 16. Just as the nurse was entering the room, the patient who was sitting on his chair begins to have a seizure. Which of the following must the nurse do first? a. Ease the patient to the floor b. Lift the patient and put him on the bed c. Insert a padded tongue depressor between his jaws d. Restrain patients body movement 17. Mr. Santos is scheduled for CT Scan for the next day, noon time. Which of the following is the correct preparation as instructed by the nurse? a. Shampoo hair thoroughly to remove oil and dirt b. No special preparation is needed. Instruct the patient to keep his head still and steady c. Give a cleansing enema and give fluids until 8AM d. Shave scalp and securely attach electrodes to it 18. Mr. Santos is placed on seizure precaution. Which of the following would be contraindicated? a. Obtain his oral temperature b. Encourage to perform his own personal hygiene c. Allow him to wear his own clothing d. Encourage him to be out of bed 19. Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided? a. Most comfortable walking and moving about b. Becomes restless and agitated c. Sleeps for a period of time d. Say he is thirsty and hungry 20. Before, during and after seizure, the nurse knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what position? a. Low fowlers b. Modified trendelenburg c. Side lying d. Supine Situation 5: Mrs. Damian, an immediate post-op cholecystectomy and choledocholithotomy patient, complained of severe pain at the wound site. 21. Choledocholithotomy is a. The removal of the gallbladder b. The removal of the stones in the gallbladder c. The removal of the stones in the common bile duct d. The removal of the stones in the kidney 22. The simplest pain relieving technique is a. Distraction

b. Taking aspirin c. Deep breathing exercise d. Positioning 23. Which of the following statement on pain is TRUE: a. Culture and pain are not associated b. Pain accompanies acute illness c. Patients reaction to pain varies d. Pain produces the same reaction such as groaning and moaning 24. In pain assessment, which of the following condition is a more reliable indicator? a. Pain rating scale of 1 to 10 b. Facial expression and gestures c. Physiological responses d. Patients description of the pain sensation 25. When a client complains of pain, your initial response is: a. Record the description of pain b. Verbally acknowledge the pain c. Refer the complaint to the doctor d. Change to a more comfortable position Situation 6: You are assigned at a surgical ward and clients have been complaining of post pain at varying degrees. Pain as you know is very subjective. 26. A one-day post-operative abdominal surgery client has been complaining of severe throbbing abdominal pain described as 9 in a 1-10 pain rating. Your assessment reveals bowel sound on all quadrants and the dressing is dry and intact. What nursing intervention would you take? a. Medicate client as prescribed b. Encourage client to do imagery c. Encourage deep breathing and turning d. Call surgeon stat 27. Pentoxidone 5mg IV every 8 hours was prescribed for post-abdominal pain. Which will be your priority nursing action? a. Check abdominal dressing for possible swelling b. Explain he proper use of PCA to alleviate anxiety c. Avoid overdosing to prevent dependence/tolerance d. Monitor VS, more importantly RR 28. The client complained of abdominal distention and pain. Your nursing intervention that can alleviate pain is? a. Instruct client to go to sleep and relax b. Advise the client to close the lips and avoid deep breathing and talking c. Offer hot and clear soup d. Turn to sides frequently and avoid too much talking 29. Surgical pain might be minimized by which nursing action in the O.R.? a. Skill of surgical team and lesser manipulation b. Appropriate preparation for the scheduled procedure c. Use of modern technology in closing the wound d. Proper positioning and draping of clients 30. Inadequate anesthesia is said to be one the common cause of pain both in intra and post op patients. If general anesthesia is desired, it will involve loss of consciousness. Which of the following are the 2 general types of GA? a. Epidural and spinal b. Subarachnoid block and intravenous c. Inhalation and regional d. Intravenous and inhalation Situation 7: Nurses attitudes toward the pain influence the way they perceive and interact with clients in pain. 31. Nurses should be aware that older adults are at risk of underrated pain. Nursing assessment and management of pain should address the following beliefs EXCEPT: a. Older patients seldom tend to report pain than the younger ones b. Pain is a sign of weakness c. Older patients do not believe in analgesics, they are tolerant. d. Complaining of pain will lead to being labeled a bad patient 32. Nurses should understand that when a client responds favorable to a placebo, it is known as the placebo effect. Placebos do not indicate whether or not a client has a. Conscience b. Real pain

c. Disease d. Drug tolerance 33. You are the nurse in the pain clinic where you have client who has difficulty specifying the location of pain. How can you assist such clients? a. The pain is vague b. By charting it hurts all over c. Identify the absence and presence of pain d. Ask the client to point to the painful area by just one finger 34. What symptom more distressing than pain should the nurse monitor when giving opioids especially among elderly clients who are in pain? a. Forgetfulness b. Constipation c. Drowsiness d. Allergic reaction like pruritus 35. Physical dependence occurs in anyone who takes opioid over a period of time. What do you tell a mother of a dependent when asked for advice? a. Start another drug and slowly lessen the opioid dosage b. Include in recreational outdoor activities c. Isolate opioid dependent to a restful resort d. Instruct slow tapering of the drug dosage and alleviate physical withdrawal symptoms Situation 8: The nurse is performing health education activities for Janevi Segovia, a 30 year-old dentist with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus. 36. Janevi is preparing a mixed dose of insulin. The nurse is satisfied with her performance when she a. Draw insulin from the vial of clear insulin first b. Draw insulin from the vial of the intermediate acting insulin first c. Fill both syringes with the prescribed insulin dosage then shake the bottle vigorously d. Withdraw the intermediate acting insulin first before withdrawing the short acting insulin first 37. Janevi complains of nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis and headache. Which of the following nursing intervention are you going to carry out first? a. Withhold the clients next insulin injection b. Test the clients blood glucose level c. Administer Tylenol as ordered d. Offer fruit juice, gelatin and chicken bouillon 38. Janevi administers regular insulin at 7 am and the nurse should instruct Jane to avoid exercising at around a. 9 11 am b. After 8 hours c. Between 8 am to 9 am d. In the afternoon after taking lunch 39. Janevi was brought at the emergency room after four months because she fainted in her clinic. The nurse should monitor which of the following test to evaluate the overall therapeutic compliance of a diabetic patient? a. Glycosylated hemoglobin b. Fasting blood glucose c. Ketone levels d. Urine glucose levels 40. Upon the assessment of Hba1c of Mrs. Segovia, the nurse has been informed of a 9% Hba1c result. In this case, she will teach the patient to: a. Avoid infection b. Take adequate food and nutrition c. Prevent and recognize hyperglycemia d. Prevent and recognize hypoglycemia 41. The nurse is teaching a plan of care for Jane with regards to proper foot care. Which of the following should be included in the plan? a. Soak feet in hot water b. Avoid using mild soap on the feet c. Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet but not between the toes d. Always have a podiatrist to cut your toe nails. Never cut them yourself 42. Another patient was brought to the emergency room in an unresponsive state and a diagnosis of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar non-ketotic syndrome is made. The nurse immediately prepared to initiate which of the following anticipated physicians order? a. Endotracheal intubation b. 100 units of NPH insulin c. Intravenous infusion of normal saline

d. Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate 43. Jane eventually developed DKA and is being treated in the emergency room. Which finding would the nurse expect to note as confirming this diagnosis? a. Comatose state b. Decreased urine output c. Increased respiration and an increase in pH d. Elevated blood glucose level and low plasma bicarbonate level 44. The nurse teaches Jane to know the difference between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. Jane demonstrates understanding of the teaching by stating that glucose will be taken if which of the following symptoms develops? a. Polyuria b. Shakiness c. Blurred vision d. Fruit breath odor 45. Jane has been schedule to have a FBS taken in the morning. The nurse tells Jane not to eat or drink after midnight. Prior to taking the blood specimen, the nurse noticed that Jane is holding a bottle of distilled water. The nurse asked Jane if she drank any, and she said yes. Which of the following is the best nursing action? a. Administer syrup of ipecac to remove the distilled water from the stomach b. Suction the stomach content using NGT prior to specimen collection c. Advise to physician to reschedule to diagnostic examination next day d. Continue as usual and have the FBS analysis performed and specimen be taken Situation 9: Elderly clients usually produce unusual signs when it comes to different diseases. The aging process is a complicated process and the nurse should understand that it is an inevitable fact and she must be prepared to care for the growing elderly population. 46. Hypoxia may occur in the older patients because of which of the following physiologic changes associated with aging? a. Ineffective airway clearance b. Decreased alveolar surfaced area c. Decreased anterior-posterior chest diameter d. Hyperventilation 47. The older patient is at higher risk for incontinence because of a. Dilated urethra b. Increased glomerular filtration rate c. Diuretic use d. Decreased bladder capacity 48. Merle, age 86, is complaining of dizziness when she stands up. This may indicate: a. Dementia b. A visual problem c. Functional decline d. Drug toxicity 49. Cardiac ischemia in an older patient usually produces: a. ST-T wave changes b. Very high creatinine kinase level c. Chest pain radiating to the left arm d. Acute confusion 50. The most dependable sign of infection in the older patient is: a. Change in mental status b. Fever c. Pain d. Decreased breath sounds with crackles Situation 10: in the OR, there are safety protocols that should be followed. The OR nurse should be well versed with all these to safeguard the safety and quality of patient delivery outcome. 51. Which of the following should be given highest priority when receiving patient in the OR? a. Assess level of consciousness b. Verify patient identification and informed consent c. Assess vital signs d. Check for jewelry, gown, manicure, and dentures 52. Surgeries like I and D (incision and drainage) and debridement are relatively short procedures but considered dirty cases. When are there procedures best scheduled? a. Last case b. In between cases c. According to availability of anesthesiologist

d. According to the surgeons preference 53. OR nurses should be aware that maintaining the clients safety is the overall goal of nursing care during the intraopertive phase. As the circulating nurse, you make certain that throughout the procedure a. The surgeon greets his client before induction of anesthesia b. The surgeon and anesthesiologist are in tandem c. Strap made of strong non-abrasive materials are fastened securely around the joints of knees and ankles and around the 2 hands around an arm board d. Client is monitored throughout the surgery by the assistant anesthesiologist 54. Another nursing check that should not be missed before the induction of general anesthesia is a. Check for presence of underwear b. Check for presence of dentures c. Check patients ID d. Check baseline vital signs 55. Some lifetime habits and hobbies affect post-operative respiratory function. If you client smokes 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past 10 years, you will anticipate increased risk for a. Perioperative anxiety and stress b. Delayed coagulation time c. Delayed wound healing d. Post-operative respiratory infection Situation 11: Sterilization is the process of removing ALL living microorganism. To be free of ALL living microorganism is sterility. 56. There are 3 general types of sterilization used in the hospital. Which one is not included? a. Steam sterilization b. Chemical sterilization c. Sterilization d. Sterilization by boiling 57. Autoclave of steam under pressure is the most common method of sterilization in the hospital. The nurse knows that the temperature and time is set to the optimum level to destroy not only the microorganism, but also the spores. Which of the following is the ideal setting of the autoclave machine? a. 10,000 degrees Celsius for 1 hour b. 5,000 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes c. 37 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes d. 121 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes 58. It is important that before a nurse prepares the material to be sterilized, a chemical indicator strip should be placed above the package, preferable Muslin sheet. What is the color of the stripe produced after autoclaving? a. Black b. Blue c. Gray d. Purple 59. Chemical indicators communicate that a. The items are sterile b. That the items had undergone sterilization process but not necessarily sterile c. The items are disinfected d. That the items had undergone disinfection process but not necessarily disinfected 60. If a nurse will sterilize a heat and moisture labile instrument, it is according the AORN recommendation to use which of the following method of sterilization? a. Ethylene oxide gas b. Autoclaving c. Flash sterilizer d. Alcohol immersion Situation 22: Nurses hold a variety of roles when providing care to a perioperative patient. 61. Which of the following role would be the responsibility of the scrub nurse? a. Assess the readiness of the client prior to surgery b. Ensure that the airway is adequate c. Account for the number of sponges, needles, supplies used during the surgical procedure d. Evaluate the type of anesthesia appropriate for the surgical client 62. As a peiroperative nurse, how can you best meet the safety need of the client after administering preoperative narcotic? a. Put side rails up and ask the client not to get out of bed b. Send the client to OR with the family c. Allow client to get up to go to the comfort room d. Obtain consent form

63. It is the responsibility of the pre-op nurse to do skin prep for patient undergoing surgery. If hair at the operative site is not shaved, what should be done to make suturing easy and lessen chance of incision infection? a. Drape b. Pulled c. Clipped d. Shampooed 64. It is also the nurses function to determine when infection is developing in the surgical incision. The perioperative nurse observe for what signs of impending infection? a. Localized heat and redness b. Serosanguinous exudates and skin blanching c. Separation of the incision d. Blood clots and scar tissue are visible 65. Which of the following nursing interventions is done when examining the incision would and changing the dressing? a. Observe the dressing and type and odor of drainage if any b. Get patients consent c. Wash hands d. Request the client to expose the incision wound Situation 13: The pre-operative nurse collaborates with the client significant others, and healthcare providers. 66. To control environmental hazards in the OR, the nurse collaborates with the following departments EXCEPT: a. Biomedical division b. Chaplaincy services c. Infection control committee d. Pathology department 67. An air crash occurred near the hospital leading to a surge of trauma patient. One of the last patients will need surgical amputation but there are no sterile surgical equipments. In this case, which of the following will the nurse expect? a. Equipments needed for surgery need not be sterilized if this is an emergency necessitating life saving measures b. Forwarding the trauma client to the nearest hospital that has available sterile equipments is appropriate c. The nurse will need to sterilize the item before using it to the client using the regular sterilization setting at 121 degree Celsius in 15 minutes d. In such cases, flash sterilizer will be used at 132 degrees Celsius in 3 minutes 68. Tess, the PACU nurse, discovered that Malou, who weighs 110 lbs. prior to surgery, is in severe pain 3 hours after cholecystectomy. Upon checking the chart, Malou found out that she has an order of Demerol 100mg I.M. prn for pain. Tess should verify the order with a. nurse supervisor b. anesthesiologist c. surgeon d. intern on duty 69. Rosie, 57, who is diabetic, is for debridement for incision of wound. When the circulating nurse checked the present IV fluid, she found out that there is no insulin incorporated as ordered. What should the circulating nurse do? a. Double check the doctors order and call the attending MD b. Communicate with the ward nurse to verify if insulin was incorporated or not c. Communicate with the client to verify if insulin was incorporated d. Incorporate insulin as ordered 70. The documentation of all nursing activities performed is legally and professionally vital. Which of the following should NOT be included in the patients chart? a. Presence of prosthetoid devices such as dentures, artificial limbs, hearing aid, etc b. Baseline physical, emotional, and psychosocial data c. Arguments between nurses and payments regarding treatments d. Observed untoward signs and symptoms and interventions including contaminant intervening factors Situation 14: Team effort is the best demonstrated in the OR. 71. If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling surgical cases, what important information do you need to ask the surgeon? a. Who is your internist? b. Who is your assistant and anesthesiologist, and what is your preferred time and type of surgery? c. Who are your anesthesiologist, internist and assistant? d. Who is your anesthesiologist?

72. In the OR< the nursing tandem for every surgery is: a. Instrument technician and circulating nurse b. Nurse anesthetist, nurse assistant, and instrument technician c. Scrub nurse and nurse anesthetist d. Scrub and circulating nurses 73. While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we should limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Who comprises this team? a. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly b. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist c. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist d. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse 74. Who usually act as an important part of the OR personnel by getting the wheelchair or stretcher, and pushing them towards the operating room? a. Orderly/clerk b. Nurse supervisor c. Circulating nurse d. Anesthesiologist 75. The breakdown in teamwork is often times a failure in a. Electricity b. Inadequate supply c. Leg work d. Communication Situation 15: Basic knowledge on Intravenous solutions in necessary for care of clients with problems with fluid and electrolytes. 76. A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse anticipates which of the following intravenous solutions will most likely be prescribed to increase intravascular volume, replace immediate blood loss and increase blood pressure? a. 0.45% sodium chloride b. Normal saline solution c. 0.33% sodium chloride d. Lactated ringers solution 77. The physician orders the nurse to prepare an isotonic solution. Which of the following IV solution would the nurse expect the intern to prescribe? a. 5% dextrose in water b. 10% dextrose in water c. 0.45% sodium chloride d. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride 78. The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess if the condition of assigned clients. The nurse notes that the clients IV site is cool, pale, and swollen and the solution is not infusing. The nurse concludes that which of the following complications has been experienced by the client? a. Infection b. Phlebitis c. Infiltration d. Thrombophlebitis 79. A nurse reviews the clients electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value? a. U waves b. Absent P waves c. Elevated T waves d. Elevates ST segment 80. One patient had a runaway IV of 50% dextrose. To prevent temporary excess of insulin or transient hyperinsulin reaction, what solution you prepare in anticipation of the doctors order? a. Any iv solution available to KVO b. Isotonic solution c. Hypertonic solution d. Hypotonic solution 81. An informed consent is required for a. Closed reduction of a fracture b. Insertion of intravenous catheter c. Irrigation of the external ear canal d. Urethral catheterization 82. Which of the following is not true with regards to the informed consent?

a. It should describe different treatment alternatives b. It should contain a thorough and detailed explanation of the procedure to be done c. It should describe the clients diagnosis d. It should give an explanation of the clients prognosis 83. You know that the hallmark of nursing accountability is the a. Accurate documentation and reporting b. Admitting your mistakes c. Filling an incidence report d. Reporting a medication error 84. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients medical records, the nurse determined that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume? a. The client taking diuretics b. The client with renal failure c. The client with an ileostomy d. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning 85. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for deficient fluid volume? a. A client with colostomy b. A client with congestive heart failure c. A client with decreased kidney function d. A client receiving frequent wound irrigation Situation 16: As a perioperative nurse, you are aware of the correct processing methods for preparing instruments and other devices for patient use to prevent infection. 86. As an OR nurse, what are your foremost considerations for selecting chemical agent for disinfection? a. Material compatibility and efficiency b. Odor and availability c. Cost and duration of disinfection process d. Duration of disinfection and efficiency 87. Before you use a disinfected instrument, it is essential that you a. Rinse with tap water followed by alcohol b. Wrap the instrument with sterile water c. Dry the instrument thoroughly d. Rinse with sterile water 88. You have a critical heat labile instrument to sterilize and are considering to use high level disinfectant. What should you do? a. Cover the soaking vessel to contain the vapor b. Double the amount of high level disinfectant c. Test the potency of the high level disinfectant d. Prolong the exposure time according to manufactures direction 89. To achieve sterilization using disinfectants, which of the following is used? a. Low level disinfectants immersion in 24 hours b. Intermediate level disinfectants immersion in 12 hours c. High level disinfectants immersion in 1 hour d. High level disinfectant immersion in 10 hours 90. Bronchoscope, thermometer, endoscope, ET tube, cytoscope are all BEST sterilized using which of the following? a. Autoclaving at 121 degree Celsius in 15 minutes b. Flash sterilizer at 132 degree Celsius in 3 minutes c. Ethylene oxide gas aeration for 20 hours d. 2% glutaraldehyde immersion for 10 hours Situation 17: The OR is divided into three zones to control traffic flow and contamination. 91. What OR attires are worn in the restricted area? a. Scrub suit, OR shoes, head cap b. Head cap, scrub suit, mask, OR shoes c. Mask, OR shoes, scrub suit d. Cap, mask, gloves, shoes 92. Nursing intervention for a patient on low dose IV insulin therapy includes the following EXCEPT: a. Elevation of serum ketones to monitor ketosis b. Vital signs including BP c. Estimates serum potassium d. Elevation of blood glucose levels 93. The doctor ordered to incorporate 1000 u insulin to the remaining on going IV. The strength is 500/ml.

How much should you incorporate into the IV solution? a. 10 ml b. 2 ml c. 0.5 ml d. 5 ml 94. Multiple vial-dose-insulin when in use should be a. Kept at room temperature b. Kept in the refrigerator c. Kept in narcotic cabinet d. Store in freezer 95. Insulins using insulin syringe are given using how many degrees of needle insertion? a. 45 b. 180 c. 90 d. 15 Situation 18: Maintenance of sterility is an important function a nurse should perform in any OR setting. 96. Which of the following is true with regards to sterility? a. Sterility is time related. Items are not considered sterile after a period of 30 days of being not used b. For 9 months, sterile items are considered sterile as long as they are covered with sterile muslin cover and stored in a dust proof covers c. Sterility is event related, not time related d. For 3 weeks, items double covered with muslin are considered sterile as long as they have undergone the sterilization process 97. 2 organizations endorsed that sterility are affected by factors other than the time itself. These are: a. The PNA and the PRC b. AORN and JCAHO c. ORNAP and MCNAP d. MMDA and DILG 98. All of this factors affect the sterility of the OR equipments. These are the following except: a. The material used for packaging b. The handling of the materials as well as its transport c. Storage d. The chemical or process used in sterilizing the material 99. When you say sterile, it means: a. The material is clean b. The material as well as the equipments are sterilized and had undergone a rigorous sterilization process c. There is a black stripe on the paper indicator d. The material has no microorganism nor spores present that might cause an infection 100. In using liquid sterilizer versus autoclave machine, which of the following is true? a. Autoclave is better in sterilizing OR supplies versus liquid sterilizer b. They are both capable of sterilizing the equipments, however, it is necessary to soak supplies in the liquid sterilizer for a longer period of time c. Sharps are sterilized using autoclave and not cidex d. If liquid sterilizer is used, rinsing it before using is not necessary

ANSWER KEY: 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A 11.D 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. B

18. A 19. C 20. C 21. C 22. D 23.C 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. D 29.B 30. D 31.C 32. B 33.D 34. D 35.D 36. A

37. B 38.A 39. A 40. C 41.C 42.C 43. D 44.B 45.D 46.B 47.D 48.C 49.D 50.C 51. B 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. D

56. D 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. A 61. C 62. A 63. C 64. A 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. C 69. A 70. C 71. B 72. D 73. B 74. A

75. D 76. D 77. A 78. C 79. A 80. C 81. A 82. B

83. A 84. B 85. A 86. A 87. D 88. D 89.D 90. D

91. B 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. A 96. C 97. B 98. D

99. D 100. B

NURSING PRACTICE IV CARE OF THE CLIENT WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS PART B Situation 1: After an abdominal surgery, the circulating and scrub nurses have critical responsibility about sponges and instrument count. 1. Counting is performed thrice: during the pre-incision phase, the operative phase and closing phase. Who

counts the sponges, needle and instruments? a. The scrub nurse only b. The circulating nurse only c. The surgeon and the assistant surgeon d. The scrub nurse and the circulating nurse 2. The layer of the abdomen is divided into 5. Arrange the following from the first layer going to the deepest layer. 1. Fascia 2. Muscle 3. Peritoneum 4. Subcutaneous/fat 5. Skin a. 5,4,3,2,1 b. 5,4,2,1,3 c. 5,4,1,3,2 d. 5,4,1,2,3 3. When is the first sponge instrument count reported? a. Before closing the subcutaneous layer b. Before peritoneum is closed c. Before closing the skin d. Before the fascia is sutured 4. Like any nursing interventions, counts should be documented. To whom does the scrub nurse report any discrepancy of counts so that immediate and appropriate action is instituted? a. Anesthesiologist b. Surgeon c. OR nurse supervisor d. Circulating nurse 5. Which of the following are 2 interventions of the surgical team when an instrument was confirmed missing? a. MRI and incidence report b. CT Scan, MRI, Incidence report c. XRAY and incidence report d. CT Scan and incidence report Situation 2: An entry level nurse should be able to apply theoretical knowledge in the performance of the basic nursing skills. 6. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter and she is suspected of having urinary infection. How should you collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity? a. Clamp tubing for 60 minutes and insert a sterile needle into the tubing above the clamp to aspirate urine b. Drain urine from the drainage bag into the sterile container c. Disconnect the tubing from the urinary catheter and let urine flow into a sterile container d. Wipe the self sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and insert a sterile needle into the self sealing port 7. To obtain specimen for sputum culture and sensitivity, which of the following instruction is best? a. Upon waking up, cough deeply and expectorate into container b. Cough after pursed lip breathing c. Save sputum for two days in covered container d. After respiratory treatment, expectorate into a container 8. The best time for collecting the sputum specimen for culture is a. Before retiring at night b. Upon waking up in the morning c. Anytime of the day d. Before meals 9. When suctioning the endotracheal tube, the nurse should a. Explain procedure to patient. Insert catheter gently applying suction. Withdraw using twisting motion b. Insert catheter until resistance is met then withdraw slightly, applying suction c. Hyperoxygenate client. Insert catheter using back and forth motion d. Insert suction catheter four inches into the tube. Suction 30 seconds using twisting motion as catheter is withdrawn. 10. The purpose of NGT IMMEDIATELY after an operation is: a. For feeding or gavage b. For gastric decompression c. For lavage, or the cleansing of stomach content d. For the rapid return of peristalsis

Situation 3: Mr. Santos, 50, is to undergo cystoscopy due to multiple problems liles scantly urination, hematuria and dysuria. 11. You are the nurse in charge of Mr. Santos. When asked what are the organs to be examined during cystoscopy, you will enumerate as follows: a. Urethra, kidney, bladder, urethra b. Urethra, bladder wall, trigone, ureteral opening c. Bladder wall, uterine wall, and urethral opening d. Urethral opening, ureteral opening bladder 12. In the OR, you will position Mr. Santos who is undergoing cystoscopy in: a. Supine b. Lithotomy c. Semi-fowler d. Trendelenburg 13. After cystoscopy, Mr. Santos asked you to explain why there is no incision of any kind. What do you tell him? a. Cystoscopy is direct visualization and examination by urologist. b. cystoscopy is done by x-ray visualization of the urinary tract. c. Cystoscopy is done by using lasers on the urinary tract. d. Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure of the urinary tract. 14. Withing 24-48 hours post cystoscopy, it is normal to observe one of the following: a. Pink-tinged urine b. Distended bladder c. Signs of infection d. Prolonged hematuria 15. Leg cramps are NOT uncommon post-cystoscopy. Nursing intervention includes: a. Bed rest b. Warm moist soak c. Early ambulation d. Hot sitz bath Situation 4: Mang Felix, a 79 year old man who is brought to the surgical unit form PACU after a transurethral resection. You are assigned to receive him. You noted that he has a 3 way indwelling urinary catheter for continuous fast drip bladder irritation which is connected to a straight drainage. 16. Immediately after surgery, what would you expect his urine to be? a. Light yellow b. Amber c. Bright red d. Pinkish to red 17. The purpose of the continuous bladder irrigation is to: a. Allow continuous monitoring of the fluid output status b. Provide continuous flushing of clots and debris from the bladder c. Allow for proper exchange of electrolytes and fluid d. Ensure accurate monitoring of intake and output 18. Mang Felix informs you that he feels some discomfort on the hypogastric area and he has to void. What will be your most appropriate action? a. Remove his catheter then allow him to void on his own b. Irrigate his catheter c. Tell him to go ahead and void. You have an indwelling catheter. d. Assess color and rate of outflow if there is a change, refer to urologist for possible irrigation 19. You decided to check on Mang Felixs IV fluid infusion. You noticed a change in flow rae, pallor and coldness around the insertion site. What is your assessment finding? a. Phlebitis b. Infiltration to subcutaneous tissue c. Pyrogenic rection d. Air embolism 20. Knowing that proper documentation of assessment findings and interventions are important responsibilities of the nurse during first post operative day, which of the following is the LEAST relevant to document in the case of Mang Felix? a. Chest pain and vital signs b. Intravenous infusion rate c. Amount, color, and consistency of bladder irrigation drainage d. Activities of daily living started Situation 5: Melamine contamination in milk has brought worldwide crisis both in the milk production sector as well as the health and economy. Being aware of the current events is one quality that a nurse should

possess to prove that nursing is a dynamic profession that will adapt depending on the patients needs. 21. Melamine is a synthetic resin used for whiteboards, hard plastics and jewelry box covers due to its fire retardant properties. Milk and food manufacturers add melamine in order to: a. It has a bacteriostatic property leading to increase food and milk life as a way of preserving the foods b. Gives a glazy and more edible look on foods c. Make milks tasty and creamy d. Create an illusion of a high protein content on their product 22. Most of the milks contaminated by Melamine came from which country? a. India b. China c. Philippines d. Korea 23. Which government agency is responsible for testing the melamine content of foods and food products? a. DOH b. MMDA c. NBI d. BFAD 24. Infants are the most vulnerable to melamine poisoning. Which of the following is NOT a sign of melamine poisoning? a. Irritability, back ache, urolithiasis b. High blood pressure, fever c. Anuria, oliguria or hematuria d. Fever, irritability and large output of diluted urine 25. What kind of renal failure does melanin poising cause? a. Chronic, pre-renal b. Acute, post-renal c. Chronic, intrarenal d. Actue, pre-renal Situation 6: Leukemia is the most common type of childhood cancer. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia is the cause of almost 1/3 of all cancer that occurs in children under age 15. 26. The survival rate for Acute Lymphoid Leukemia is approximately a. 25% b. 40% c. 75% d. 95% 27. Whereas acute non-lymphoid leukemia has a survival rate of a. 25% b. 40% c. 75% d. 95% 28. The three main consequence of leukemia that causes the most danger is: a. Neutropenia causing infection, anemia causing impaired oxygenation, and thrombocytopenia leading to bleeding tendencies b. Central nervous system infiltration, anemia causing impaired oxygenation and thrombocytopenia leading to bleeding tendencies c. Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fractures d. Invasion by the leukemia cells to the bone causing severe bone pain 29. Gold standard in the diagnosis of leukemia is by which of the following? a. Blood culture and sensitivity b. Bone marrow biopsy c. Blood biopsy 30. Adriamycin, Vincristine, Prednisone and L asparaginase are given to the client for long term therapy. One common side effect, especially of adriamycin is alopecia. The child asks: Will I get my hair back once again? The nurse best response is by saying: a. Dont be silly, of course you will get your hair back. b. We are not sure, lets hope itll grow. c. This side effect is usually permanent, but I will get the doctor to discuss it for you. d. Your hair will regrow in 3 to 6 months but of different color, usually darker and of different texture. Situation 7: Breast cancer is the 2nd most common type of cancer after lung cancer and 99% of which, occurs in woman. Survival rate is 98% if this is detected early and treated promptly. Carmen is a 53 year old patient in the high risk group for breast cancer was recently diagnosed with Breast Cancer. 31. All of the following are factors that said to contribute to the development of breast cancer except:

a. Prolonged exposure to estrogen such as an early menarche or late menopause, nulliparity, and childbirth after age 30. b. Genetics c. Increasing age d. Prolonged intake of tamoxifen (Nolvadex) 32. Protective factors for the development of breast cancer includes which of the following except: a. Exercise b. Prophylactic tamoxifen c. Breast feeding d. Alcohol intake 33. A patient diagnosed with breast cancer has been offered the treatment choices of breast conservation surgery with radiation or a modified radical mastectomy. When questioned by the patient about these options, the nurse informs the patient that the lumpectomy with radiation a. Reduces the fear and anxiety that accompanies the diagnosis and treatment of cancer b. Has about the same 10-year survival rate as the modified radical mastectomy c. Provides a shorter treatment period with a fewer long term complications d. Preserves the normal appearance and sensitivity of the breast 34. Carmen, who is asking the nurse the most appropriate time of the month to do her self-examination of the breast. The MOST appropriate reply by the nurse would be: a. The 26th days of the menstrual cycle b. 7 to 8 days after conclusion of the menstrual period c. During her menstruation d. The same day each month 35. Carmen being treated with radiation therapy. What should be included in the plan of care to minimize skin damage from the radiation therapy? a. Cover the areas with thick clothing materials b. Apply a heating pad to the site c. Wash skin with water after the therapy d. Avoid applying creams and powders to the area 36. Based on DOH and World Health Organization (WHO) guidelines, the mainstay for early protection method for breast cancer that is recommended for developing countries is a. a monthly breast self examination (BSE) and an annual health worker breast examination (HWBE) b. an annual hormone receptor assay c. an annual mammogram d. a physician conduct a breast clinical examination every 2 years 37. the purpose of performing the breast self examination (BSE) regularly is to discover a. fibrocystic masses b. cancerous lungs c. areas of thickness or fullness d. changes from previous BSE 38. If you are to instruct a post-menopausal woman about BSE, when would you tell her to do BSE? a. On the same day of each month b. Right after the menstrual period c. On the first day of her menstruation d. On the last day of her menstruation 39. During breast self-examination, the purpose of standing in front of the mirror is to observe the breast for a. Thickening of the tissue b. Axillary lymphnodes c. Lumps in the breast tissue d. Change in size and contour 40. When preparing to examine the left breast in a reclining position, the purpose of placing a small folded towel under the clients left shoulder is to a. Bring the breast closer to the examiners right hand b. Tense the pectoral muscle c. Balance the breast tissue more evenly on the chest wall d. Facilitate lateral positioning of the breast Situation 8: Radiation therapy is another modality of cancer management. With emphasis on multidisciplinary management, you have important responsibilities as nurse. 41. Albert is receiving external radiation therapy and he complains of fatigue and malaise. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most helpful for Albert? a. Tell him that sometimes these feelings can be psychogenic b. Refer him to the physician c. Reassure him that these feelings are normal d. Help him plan his activities

42. Immediately following the radiation teletherapy, Albert is a. Considered radioactive for 24 hours b. Given an complete bath c. Placed on isolation for 6 hours d. Free from radiation 43. Albert is admitted with a radiation induced thrombocytopenia. As a nurse, you should observe the following symptoms: a. Petechiae, ecchymosis, epistaxis b. Weakness, easy fatigability, pallor c. Headache, dizziness, blurred vision d. Severe sore throat, bacteremia, hepatomegaly 44. What nursing diagnosis should be of highest priority? a. Knowledge deficit regarding thrombocytopenia precautions b. Activity intolerance c. Impaired tissue integrity d. Ineffective tissue perfusion, peripheral, cerebral, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, renal 45. What intervention should you include in your care plan? a. Inspect his skin for petechiae, bruising, GI bleeding regularly b. Place Albert on strict isolation precautions c. Provide rest in between activities d. Administer antipyretics if his temperature exceeds 38C Situation 9: Burns are caused by transfer of heat source to the body. It can be thermal, electrical, radiation or chemical. 46. A burn characterized by pale white appearance, charred or with fat exposed and painlessness is a. Superficial partial thickness burn b. Deep partial thickness burn c. Full thickness burn d. Deep full thickness burn 47. Which of the following BEST describes superficial partial thickness burn or first degree burn? a. Structures beneath the skin are damaged b. Dermis is partially damaged c. Epidermis and dermis are both damaged d. Epidermis is damaged 48. A burn that is said to be WEEPING is classified as a. Superficial partial thickness burn b. Deep partial thickness burn c. Full thickness burn d. Deep full thickness burn 49. During the acute phase of the burn injury, which of the following is a priority? a. Wound healing b. Reconstructive surgery c. Emotional support d. Fluid resuscitation 50. While in the emergent phase, the nurse knows that the priority is to: a. prevent infection b. control pain c. prevent deformities and contractures d. return the hemodynamic stability via fluid resuscitation 51. The MOST effective method of delivering pain medication during the emergent phase is a. Intramuscularly b. Subcutaneously c. Orally d. Intravenously 52. When a client accidentally splashes chemicals to his eyes, the initial priority care following the chemical burn is to a. Irrigate with normal saline for 1 to 15 minutes b. Transport a physician immediately c. Irrigate with water for 15 minutes or longer d. Cover the eyes with a sterile gauze 53. Which of the following can be a fatal complication of upper airway burns? a. Stress ulcers b. Hemorrhage

c. Shock d. Laryngeal spasms and swelling 54. When a client will rush towards you and he has burning clothes on, it is your priority to do which of the following first? a. Log roll on the grass/ground b. Slap the flames with his hands c. Try to remove the burning clothes d. Splash the client with 1 bucket of cool water 55. Once the flames are extinguished, it is most important to a. Cover client with a warm blanket b. Give him sips of water c. Calculate the extent of his burns d. Assess Sergios breathing 56. During the first 24 hours after the thermal injury, you should assess Sergio for a. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia b. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia c. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia d. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia 57. A client who sustained deep partial thickness and full thickness burns of the face, whole anterior chest and both upper extremities two days ago begins to exhibit extreme restlessness. You recognize that this most likely indicates that the client is developing a. Cerebral hypoxia b. Hypervolemia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Renal failure 58. A 165 lbs trauma client was rushed to the emergency room with full thickness burns on the whole face, right and left arm, and at the anterior part of chest sparing the abdominal area. He also has superficial partial thickness burn at the posterior trunk and at the half upper portion of the left leg. He is in the emergent phase of burn. Using the parklands formula, you know that during the first 8 hours of burn, the amount of fluid will be given is: a. 5,400 ml b. 10,600 ml c. 9,450 ml d. 6,750 ml 59. The doctor incorporated insulin on the clients fluid during the emergent phase. The nurse knows that insulin is given because a. Clients with burn also develops metabolic acidosis b. Clients with burn also develops hyperglycemia c. Insulin is needed for additional energy and glucose burning after the stressful incident to hasten wound healing, regain of consciousness and rapid return of hemodynamic stability d. For hyperkalemia 60. The IV fluid of choice for burn as well as dehydration is: a. 0.45% Na CL b. NSS c. Sterile water d. D5LR SITUATION 10: Enterostomal Therapy is now considered a specialty in nursing. You are participating in the OSTOMY CARE CLASS. 61. You plan to teach Fermin how to irrigate the colostomy when a. The perineal wound heals and Fermin can sit comfortable on the commode b. Fermin can lie on the side comfortable, about the 3rd post-operative day c. The abdominal incision is closed and contamination is no longer a danger d. The stools starts to become formed around the 7th post-operative day 62. When preparing to teach Fermin how to irrigate colostomy, you should plan to do the procedure: a. When Fermin would have normal bowel movement b. At least 2 hours before visiting hours c. Prior to breakfast and morning care d. After Fermin accepts alteration in body image 63. When observing a return demonstration of a colostomy irrigation, you know that more teaching is required if Fermin a. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to inserting into the stoma b. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom door cloth hook during fluid insertion c. Discontinues the insertion of fluid after 500 ml of fluid has been instilled d. Clamps off the flow of fluid when feeling uncomfortable

64. You are aware that teaching about colostomy care is understood when Fermin states, I will contact my physician and report: a. If I have any difficulty inserting the irrigating tube into the stoma. b. If I noticed a loss of sensation to touch in the stoma tissue. c. The expulsion of flatus while the irrigating fluid is running out. d. When mucus is passed from the stoma between the irrigation. 65. You would know after teaching Fermin that dietary instruction for him is effective when he states, it is important that I eat: a. Soft food that is easily digested and absorbed by the large intestines. b. Bland food so that my intestines do not become irritated. c. Food low in fiber so that there are fewer stools. d. Everything that I ate before the operation, while avoiding foods that cause gas. Situation 11: Based on studies of nurses working in special units like the intensive care unit and coronary care unit, it is important for nurses to gather as much information to be able to address their needs for nursing care. 66. Critically ill patients frequently complain about which of the following when hospitalized? a. Hospital food b. Lack of blankets c. Lack of privacy d. Inadequate nursing staff 67. Who of the following is at greatest risk of developing sensory problem? a. Female patient b. Adolescent c. Transplant patient d. Unresponsive patient 68. Which of the following factors may inhibit learning in critically ill patients? a. Gender b. Medication c. Educational level d. Previous knowledge of illness 69. Which of the following statements does not apply to critically ill patients? a. Majority need extensive rehabilitation b. All have been hospitalized previously c. Are physically unstable d. Most have chronic illness 70. Families of critically ill patients desire which of the following needs to be met first by the nurse? a. Provision of comfortable space b. Emotional support c. Updated information on clients status d. Spiritual counseling Situation 12: Johnny sough consultation to the hospital because of irritability, jittery and he has been experiencing these signs and symptoms for several months. 71. His diagnosis was hyperthyroidism. The following are expected symptoms except a. Anorexia b. Palpitation c. Fine tremors of the hands d. Hyperalertness 72. She has to take drugs to treat her hyperthyroidism. Which of the following will you NOT expect that the doctor will prescribe? a. Colace (Docusate) b. Cytomel (llothyronine) c. Tapazole 73. The nurse knows that Tapazole has which of the following side effects that will warrant immediate withholding of the medication? a. Death b. Sore throat c. Hyperthermia d. Thrombocytosis 74. You asked questions as soon as she regained consciousness from thyroidectomy primarily to assess the evidence of a. Thyroid storm b. Mediastinal shift

c. Damage to the laryngeal nerve d. Hypocalcemia tetany 75. Should you check for hemorrhage, you will a. Slip you hand under the nape of the neck b. Check for hypotension c. Apply neck collar to prevent hemorrhage d. Observe the dressing if it is soaked with blood 76. Basal metabolic rate is assessed on Johnny to determine his metabolic rate. In assessing the BMR using the standard procedure, you need to tell Johnny that: a. Obstructing his vision b. Restraining his upper and lower extremities c. Obstructing his hearing d. Obstructing his nostrils with a clamp 77. The BMR is based on the measurement that: a. Rate of respiration under different condition of activities and rest b. Amount of oxygen consumption under resting condition over a measured period of time c. Amount of oxygen consumption under stressed condition over a measured period of time d. Ration of respiration to pulse rate over a measured period of time 78. Her physician ordered lugols solution in order to a. decrease the vascularity and size of the thyroid gland b. decrease the size of the thyroid gland only c. increase the vascularity and size of the thyroid gland d. increase the size of the thyroid gland only 79. Which of the following is a side effect of Lugols solution? a. Hypokalemia b. Nystagmus c. Enlargement of the thyroid gland d. Excessive salivation 80. In administering Lugols solution, the precautionary measure should include: a. Administer with glass only b. Dilute with juice and administer with a straw c. Administer it with milk and drink it d. Follow it with milk of magnesia Situation 13: Pharmacological treatment was not effective for Johnnys hyperthyroidism and now, he is scheduled for thyroidectomy. 81. Instruments in the surgical suite for surgery are classified as either CRITICAL, SEMI-CRITICAL and NON-CRITICAL. If the instrument is introduced directly into the blood stream or into any normally sterile cavity or area of the body, it is classified as: a. Critical b. Semi critical c. Non-critical d. Ultra critical 82. Instruments that do not touch the paitnet or have contact only to intact skin is classified as: a. Critical b. Semi critical c. Non critical d. Ultra critical 83. If an instrument is classified as semi critical, an acceptable method of making the instrument ready for surgery is through a. Sterilization b. Decontamination c. Disinfection d. Cleaning 84. While critical items should be a. Clean b. Decontaminated c. Sterilized d. Disinfected 85. As a nurse, you know that intact skin acts as an effective barrier to most microorganisms. Therefore, items that come in contact with the intact skin or mucus membranes should be a. Disinfected b. Sterile c. Clean

d. Alcoholized 86. You are caring for Johnny who is scheduled to undergo total thyroidectomy because of diagnosis of thyroid cancer. Prior to total thyroidectomy, you should instruct Johnny to a. Perform range and motion exercise on the head and neck b. Apply gentle pressure against the incision when swallowing c. Cough and deep breath every 2 hours d. Support head with the hands when changing position 87. As Johnnys nurse, you plan to set up an emergency equipment at the bedside following thyroidectiomy. You should include a. An airway and rebreathing tube b. A tracheostomy set and oxygen c. A crush chart with bed board d. Two ampoules of sodium bicarbonate 88. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate after a total thyroidectomy? a. Place pillows under your patients shoulders b. Raise the knee gatch to 30 degrees c. Keep your patient in a high-fowlers position d. Support the patients head and neck with pillows and sandbags 89. If there is an accidental injury to the parathyroid gland during a thyroidectomy, which of the following might Leda develop post-operatively? a. Cardiac arrest b. Dyspnea c. Respiratory failure d. Tetany 90. After surgery, Johnny develops peripheral numbness, tingling and muscle twitching, and spasm. What would you anticipate to administer? a. Magnesium sulfate b. Calcium gluconate c. Potassium iodides d. Potassium chloride Situation 14: Budgeting is an important part of a nurse managerial activity. The correct allocation and distribution of resources is vital in the harmonious operation of the financial balance of the agency. 91. Which of the following best defines budget? a. Plan for the allocation of resources for future use b. The process of allocating resources for future use c. Estimate cost and expense d. Continuous process in seeing that the goals and objectives of the agency is met 92. Which of the following best defines Capital Budget? a. Budgeting estimates the cost of direct labor, number of staff to be hired, and necessary number of workers to meet the general patients needs b. Includes the monthly and daily expenses and expected revenue and expenses c. These are related to long term planning and includes major replacement of expenses of the plant, major equipments and inventories d. These are expenses that are not dependent of the level of production or sales. These tend to be timerelated, such as salaries or rents being paid per month 93. Which of the following best describes Operational Budget? a. Budget to estimate the cost of direct labor, number of staff to be hired and necessary number of workers to meet the general patient needs b. Includes the monthly and daily expenses and expected revenue and expenses c. These are related long term planning and includes major replacement or expenses of the plant, major equipments and inventories d. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. These tend to be time related, such as salaries or rents being paid per month 94. Which of the following accurately describes Fixed Cost in budgeting? a. These are usually the raw materials and labor salaries that depend on the production or sales b. These are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business c. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to be timerelated, such as rent d. This is the summation of the Variable Cost and the fixed cost 95. Which of the following accurately describes Variable cost in budgeting? a. These are related to long term planning and include major replacement or expansion of the plant, major equipment and inventories b. These are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business c. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to be time

related such as rent d. This is the summation of variable cost and the fixed cost. Situation 15: Andrea is admitted to the ER following an assault where she was hit in the face and head. She was brought to the ER by a policewoman. Emergency measures were started. 96. Andreas respiration is described as waxing and waning. You know that this rhythm of respiration is defined as a. Biots b. Kussmauls c. Cheyne stokes d. Eupnea 97. What do you call the triad of sign and symptoms seen in a client with increasing ICP? a. Virchows triad b. The Chinese triad c. Cushings triad d. Charcots triad 98. Which of the following is true with the Triad seed in the head injuries? a. Narrowing of pulse pressure, cheyne stokes respiration, tachycardia b. Widening pulse pressure, irregular respiration, bradycardia c. Hypertension, kussmauls respiration, tachycardia d. Hypotension, irregular respiration, bradycardia 99. In a client with a Cheyne stokes respiration, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis? a. Ineffective airway clearance b. Ineffective breathing pattern c. Impaired gas exchange d. Activity intolerance 100. You know that apnea is seen in client with Cheyne Stokes respiration, APNEA is defined as: a. Inability to breath in a supine position so the patient sits up in bed to breathe b. The patient is dead, the breathing stops c. There is an absence of breathing for a period of time, usually 15 seconds or more d. A period of hypercapnea and hypoxia due to the cessation of respiratory effort in spite of normal respiratory functioning

ANSWER KEY: 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. D

19. B 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. D 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. D 36. A 37.B 38. A 39. A

40. C 41. D 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. B 48. B 49. A 50. D 51. D 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. D 56. C 57. A 58. A 59. D 60. D

61. D 62. A 63. B 64. A 65. D 66. C 67. D 68. B 69. B 70. B 71. A 72. A 73. B 74. C 75. A 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. D 80. B 81. A

82. C 83. C 84. C 85. A 86. D 87. B 88. D 89. D 90. B 91. A 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. B 96. C 97. C 98. B 99. B 100. C

NURSING PRACTICE V CARE OF THE CLIENT WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS PART B Situation 1: Understanding different models of care is a necessary part of the nurse patient relationship. 1. The focus of this therapy is to have a positive environmental manipulation, physical and social to effect a positive change. a. Milieu b. Psychotherapy c. Behavior d. Group

2. The client asks the nurse about Milieu therapy. The nurse responds knowing that the primary focus of milieu therapy can be best described by which of the following? a. A form of behavior modification therapy b. A cognitive approach of changing the behavior c. A living learning or working environment d. A behavioral approach to changing behavior 3. A nurse is caring to a client with phobia who is being treated for the condition. The client is introduced to short periods of exposure to the phobic object while in a relaxed state. The nurse understands that this form of behavior modification can be best described as: a. Systemic desensitization b. Aversion therapy c. Self control therapy d. Operant conditioning 4. A client with major depression is considering cognitive therapy. The client said to the nurse, how does this treatment work? The nurse responds by telling the client that: a. This type of treatment helps you examine how your thoughts and feelings contribute to your difficulties. b. This type of treatment helps you examine how your past life has contributed to your problems. c. This type of treatment helps you confront your fears by exposing you to the feared object abruptly. d. This type of treatment will help you relax and develop new coping skills. 5. A client stated, I get down on myself when I make mistakes. Using cognitive theory approach, the nurse should a. Teach the client relaxation exercise to diminish stress b. Provide the client with mastery experience to boost self-esteem c. Explore the clients past experiences that causes the illness d. Help client modify the belief that anything less than perfect is horrible 6. The most advantageous therapy for a preschool age child with a history of physical and sexual abuse would be a. Play b. Psychoanalysis c. Group d. Family 7. An 18 year old client is admitted with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. A cognitive behavioral approach is used as part of her treatment plan. The nurse understands that the purpose of this approach is to a. Help the client identify and examine dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs b. Emphasize social interaction with client who withdraw c. Provide a supportive environment and a therapeutic community d. Examine intra-psychic conflicts and past events in life 8. The nurse is preparing to provide reminiscence therapy for a group of clients. Which of the following clients will the nurse select for this group? a. A client who experiences profound depression with moderate cognitive impairment b. A catatonic, immobile client with moderate cognitive impairment c. An undifferentiated schizophrenic client with moderate cognitive impairment d. A client with mild depression who exhibits and demonstrates normal cognition 9. Which intervention would be typical of a nurse using cognitive behavioral approach to a client experiencing low self-esteem? a. Use of unconditional positive regard b. Classical conditioning c. Analysis of free association d. Examination of negative though patters 10. Which of the following therapies has been strongly advocated for the treatment of post traumatic stress disorders? a. ECT b. Group therapy c. Hypnotherapy d. Psychoanalysis 11. The nurse knows that in group therapy, the maximum number of members to include is a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 16 12. The nurse is providing information to a client with the use of disulfiram (antabuse) for the treatment of alcohol abuse. The nurse understands that this form of therapy works on what principle? a. Negative reinforcement b. Aversion therapy

c. Operant conditioning d. Gestalt therapy 13. A biological or medical approach in treating psychiatric patient is: a. Million therapy b. Somatic therapy c. Behavior therapy d. Psychotherapy 14. Which of these nursing actions belong to the secondary level of preventive intervention? a. Providing mental health consultation to health care providers b. Providing emergency psychiatric services c. Being politically active in relation to mental health issues d. Providing mental health education to members of the community 15. When the nurse identifies a client who has attempted to commit suicide, the nurse should: a. Call a priest b. Counsel the client c. Refer the client to the psychiatrist d. Refer one matter to the police Situation 2: Rose seeks psychiatric consultation because of intense fear of flying in an airplane which has greatly affected her chances of success in her job. 16. The most common defense mechanism used by phobic client is: a. Suppression b. Rationalization c. Denial d. Displacement 17. The goal of the therapy in phobia is a. Change her lifestyle b. Ignore tension producing situation c. Change her reaction towards anxiety d. Eliminate fear producing situations 18. The therapy most effective for clients with phobia is a. Hypnotherapy b. Group therapy c. Cognitive therapy d. Behavior therapy 19. The fear and anxiety related to phobia is said to be abruptly decreased when the patient is exposed to what is feared through: a. Guided imagery b. Systematic desensitization c. Flooding d. Hypotherapy 20. Based on the presence of symptom, the appropriate nursing diagnosis is a. Self esteem disturbance b. Activity intolerance c. Impaired adjustment d. Ineffective individual coping Situation 3: Mang Jose, 39 year old farmer, unmarried, had been confined in the National Center for Mental Health for three years with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. 21. The most common defense mechanism used by a paranoid client is a. Displacement b. Suppression c. Rationalization d. Projection 22. When Mang Jose says to you: The voices are telling me bad things again! The best response is: a. Whose voices are those? b. I doubt what the voices are telling you. c. I do not hear the voice you say you hear. d. Are you sure you hear these voices? 23. A relevant nursing diagnosis for clients with auditory hallucination is: a. Sensory perceptual alteration b. Altered thought process c. Impaired social interaction d. Impaired verbal communication

24. During mealtime, Jose refused to eat telling that the food was poisoned. The nurse should a. Ignore his remark b. Offer him food in his own container c. Show him how irrational his thinking is d. Respect his refusal to eat 25. When communicating with Jose, the nurse considers the following except a. Be warm and enthusiastic b. Refrain from touching Jose c. Do not argue regarding his hallucination and delusion d. Use simple, clear language Situation 4: Gringo seeks psychiatric counseling for his ritualistic behavior of counting his money as many as 10 times before leaving home. 26. An initial appropriate nursing diagnosis is a. Impaired social interaction b. Ineffective individual coping c. Impaired adjustment d. Anxiety moderate 27. Obsessive compulsive disorder is BEST described by a. Uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or ritual repeatedly b. Persistent thoughts c. Recurring unwanted and disturbing thought alternating with a behavior d. Pathological persistence of unwilled thought, feeling or impulse 28. The defense mechanism used by persons with obsessive compulsive disorder is undoing and it is best described in one of the following statements a. Unacceptable feelings or behavior are kept out of awareness by developing the opposite behavior or emotion b. Consciously unacceptable instinctual drives are diverted into personally and socially acceptable channels c. Something unacceptable already done is symbolically acted out in reverse d. Transfer of emotions associated with a particular person, object or situation to another less threatening person, object or situation 29. To be more effective, the nurse who cares for persons with obsessive compulsive disorder must possess one of the following qualities a. Compassion b. Consistency c. Patience d. Friendliness 30. Persons with OCD usually manifest a. Fear b. Apathy c. Suspiciousness d. Anxiety Situation 5: The patient who is depressed will undergo electroconvulsive therapy. 31. Studies on biological depression support electroconvulsive therapy as a mode of treatment. The rationale is a. ECT produces massive brain damage which destroys the specific area containing memories related to the events surrounding the development of psychotic condition b. The treatment serves as a symbolic punishment for the client who feels guilty and worthless c. ECT relieves depression psychologically by increasing the norepinephrine level d. ECT is seen as a life-threatening experience and depressed patients mobilize at bodily defenses to deal with this attack 32. The preparation of a patient for ECT ideally is MOST similar to preparation for a patient a. Electroencophalogram b. X-ray c. General anesthesia d. Electrocardiogram 33. Which of the following is a possible side effect which you will discuss with the patient? a. hemorrhage within the brain b. encephalitis c. robot-like body stiffness d. confusion, disorientation and short term memory loss 34. Informed consent is necessary for the treatment for involuntary clients. When this cannot be obtained, permission bay be taken from the a. Social worker b. Doctor

c. Next of kin or guardian d. Chief nurse 35. After ECT, the nurse should do this action before giving the client fluids, food or medication a. Assess the gag reflex b. Assess the sensorium c. Next of kin or guardian d. Check O2 stat with a pulse oximeter Situation 6: Mts. Ethel Agustin, 50 y/o, teacher, is affected with myasthenia gravis 36. Looking at Mrs. Agustin, your assessment would include the following except a. Nystagmus b. Difficulty of hearing c. Weakness of the levator palpebrae d. Weakness of the ocular muscle 37. In an effort to combat complications which might occur relatives should he taught a. Checking cardiac rate b. Taking blood pressure reading c. Techniques of oxygen inhalation d. Administration of oxygen inhalation 38. The drug of choice for her condition is a. Prostigmine b. Morphine c. Codeine d. Prednisone 39. As her nurse, you have to be cautious about administration of medication, if she is under medicated, this can cause a. Emotional crisis b. Cholinergic crisis c. Menopausal crisis d. Myasthenia crisis 40. If you are not extra careful and by chance you give over medication, this would lead to a. Cholinergic crisis b. Menopausal crisis c. Emotional crisis d. Myasthenia crisis Situation 7: Rosanna, 20 y/o, unmarried patient believes that the toilet for the female patient is contaminated with AIDS virus and refuses to use it unless she flushes it three times and wipes the seat same number of times with antiseptic solution. 41. The fear of using contaminated toilet seat can be attributed to Rosannas inability to a. Adjust to a strange environment b. Express her anxiety c. Develop the sense of trust in other person d. Control unacceptable impulses or feeling 42. Assessment data upon admission helps the nurse to identify this appropriate nursing diagnosis a. Ineffective denial b. Impaired adjustment c. Ineffective individual coping d. Impaired social interaction 43. An effective nursing intervention to help Rosanna is a. Convincing her to use the toilet after the nurse has used it first b. Explaining to her that AIDS cannot be transmitted by using the toilet c. Allowing her to flush and clear the toilet seat until she can manage her anxiety d. Explaining to her how AIDS is transmitted 44. The goal for treatment for Rosanna must be directed toward helping her to a. Walk freely about the past experience b. Develop trusting relationship with others c. Gain insight that her behavior is due to feeling of anxiety d. Accept the environment unconditionally 45. Psychotherapy which is prescribed for Rosanna is described as a. Establishing an environment adapted to an individual patient needs b. Sustained interaction between the therapist and client to help her develop more functional behavior c. Using dramatic techniques to portray interpersonal conflicts d. Biologic treatment for mental disorder

Situation 8: Dennis 40 y/o, married man, an electrical engineer was admitted with the diagnosis of paranoid disorders. He has become suspicious and distrustful 2 months before admission. Upon admission, he kept on saying, my wife has been planning to kill me. 46. A paranoid individual who cannot accept the guilt demonstrate one of the following defense mechanism a. Denial b. Projection c. Rationalization d. Displacement 47. One morning, Dennis was seen tilting his head as if he was listening to someone. An appropriate nursing intervention would be a. Tell him to socialize with other patient to divert his attention b. Involve him in group activities c. Address him by name to ask if he is hearing voices again d. Request for an order of antipsychotic medicine 48. When he says, these voices are telling me my wife is going to kill me. A therapeutic communication of the nurse is which one of the following? a. I do not hear the voices you say you hear. b. Are you really sure you heard those voices? c. I do not think you heard those voices. d. Whose voices are those? 49. The nurse confirms that Dennis is manifesting auditory hallucination. The appropriate nursing diagnosis she identifies: a. Sensory perceptual alteration b. Self-esteem disturbance c. Ineffective individual coping d. Defensive coping 50. Most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with suspicious behavior is one of the following: a. Talk to the client constantly to reinforce reality b. Involve him in competitive activities c. Use non-judgmental and consistent approach d. Project cheerfulness in interacting with the patient Situation 9: Clients with bipolar disorder receives a very high nursing attention due to the increasing rate of suicide related to the illness. 51. The nurse is assigned to care for a recently admitted client who has attempted suicide. What should the nurse do? a. Search the clients belongings and room carefully for items that could be used to attempt suicide b. Express trust that the client wont cause self-harm while in the facility. c. Respect the clients privacy by not searching any belongings. d. Remind all staff members to check on the client frequently. 52. In planning activities for the depressed client, especially during the early stages of hospitalization, which of the following plan is best? a. Provide an activity that is quiet and solitary to avoid increased fatigue such as working on a puzzle and reading a book b. Plan nothing until the client asks to participate in the milieu c. Offer the client a menu of daily activities and ask the client to participate in all of them d. Provide a structured daily program of activities and encourage the client to participate 53. A client with a diagnosis of major depression, recurrent with psychotic features is admitted to the mental health unit. To create a safe environment for the client, the nurse most importantly devises a plan of care that deals specifically with the clients: a. Disturbed though process b. Self-care deficit c. Imbalanced nutrition d. Deficient knowledge 54. The client is taking a tricyclic anti-depressant, which of the following is an example of TCA? a. Paxil b. Zoloft c. Nardil d. Pamelor 55. A client visits the physicians office to seek treatment for depression, feelings of hopelessness, poor appetite, insomnia, fatigue, low self-esteem, poor concentration, and difficulty making decisions. a. Cyclothymic disorder b. Major depression c. Bipolar disorder

d. Dysthymic disorder 56. The nurse is planning activities for a client who has bipolar disorder who has an aggressive social behavior. Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for this client? a. Ping pong b. Linen delivery c. Chess d. Basketball 57. The nurse assesses a client with admitted diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder, mania. The symptom presented by the client that requires the nurses immediate intervention is the clients a. Outlandish behavior and inappropriate dress b. Grandiose delusion of being a royal descendant of King Arthur c. Non-stop physical activity and poor nutritional intake d. Constant incessant talking that includes sexual topics and teasing the self 58. A nurse is conducting a group therapy session and during the session. A client with mania consistently talks and dominates the group. The behavior is disrupting the group interaction. The nurse would initially: a. Ask the client to leave the group session b. Tell the client that she will not be allowed to attend any more group sessions c. Tell the client that she needs to allow other client in a group time to talk d. Ask another nurse to escort the client out of the group session 59. A professional artist is admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of bipolar disorder. During the last 2 weeks, the client has created 154 paintings, slept only 2 to 3 hours every 2 days, and lost 18 lbs (8.2 kg). Based on Maslows hierarchy of needs, what should the nurse provide this client with first? a. The opportunity to explore family dynamics b. Help with reestablishing a normal sleep pattern c. Experiences that build self-esteem d. Art materials and equipment 60. The physician orders lithium carbonate (lithonate) for a client whos in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. During lithium therapy, the nurse should watch for which adverse reactions? a. Anxiety, restlessness, and sleep disturbance b. Help with reestablishing a normal sleep pattern c. Experiences that build self-esteem d. Art materials and equipment Situation 10: Annie has a morbid fear of heights. She asks the nurse what desensitization therapy is. 61. The accurate information of the nurse of the goal of desensitization is: a. To help the clients relax and progressively work up a list of anxiety provoking situations through imagery b. To provide corrective emotional experiences through a one-to-one intensive relationship c. To help clients in a group therapy setting to take on specific roles and reenact in front of an audience situations in which interpersonal conflict is involved d. To help clients cope with their problems by learning behaviors that are more functional and be better equipped to face reality and make decisions 62. It is essential in desensitization for the patient to a. Have rapport with the therapist b. Use deep breathing or another relaxation technique c. Assess ones self for the need of an anxiolytic drug d. Work through unresolved unconscious conflict 63. In this level of anxiety, cognitive capacity diminishes. Focus becomes limited and client experiences tunnel vision. Physical signs of anxiety became more pronounced. a. Severe anxiety b. Panic c. Mild anxiety d. Moderate anxiety 64. Anti-anxiety medications should be used with extreme caution because long term use can lead to a. Parkinsonian-like syndrome b. Hypertensive crisis c. Hepatic failure d. Risk for addiction 65. The nursing management of anxiety related with post-traumatic stress disorder includes all of the following except: a. Encourage participation in recreation or sports activities b. Reassure clients safety while touching client c. Speak in a calm soothing voice d. Remain with the client when fear level is high Situation 11: You are fortunate to be chosen as part of the research team in the hospital. A review of the

following IMPORTANT nursing concepts was made. 66. A professional, a nurse can do research for varied reason except: a. Professional advancement through research participation b. To validate results of new nursing modalities c. For financial gains d. To improve nursing care 67. Each nurse participants was asked to identify a problem. After the identification of the research problem, which of the following should be done? a. Methodology b. Review of related literature c. Acknowledgement d. Formulate hypothesis 68. Which of the following communicate the results of the research to the readers they facilitate the description of the data. a. Hypothesis b. Statistics c. Research problem d. Tables and graphs 69. In quantitative data, which of the following is described as the distance in the scoring unites of the variable from the highest to the lower? a. Frequency b. Mean c. Median d. Range 70. This expresses the variability of the data in reference to the mean. It provides us with a numerical estimate of how far, on the average the separate observation are from the mean. a. Mode b. Standard deviation c. Median d. Frequency Situation 12: Survey and Statistics are important part of research that is necessary to explain the characteristics of the population. 71. According to the WHO statistics on the Homeless population around the world, which of the following groups of people in the world disproportionately represents the homeless population? a. Hispanics b. Asians c. African Asians d. Caucasians 72. All but one of the following is not a measure of Central Tendencies a. Mode b. Variance c. Standard deviation d. Range 73. In the value: 87, 85, 88, 92, 90, what is the mean? a. 88.2 b. 88.4 c. 87 d. 90 74. In the value: 80, 80, 80, 82, 82, 90, 90, 100, what is the mode? a. 80 b. 82 c. 90 d. 85.5 75. In the value 80, 80, 10, 10, 25, 65, 100, 200, what is the median a. 71.25 b. 22.5 c. 10 and 25 d. 72.5 76. Draw Lots, lottery, table of random numbers or a sampling that ensures that each element of the population has an equal and independent chance of being chosen is called a. Cluster b. Simple c. Stratified d. Systematic

77. An investigator wants to determine some of the problems that are experienced by diabetic clients when using an insulin pump. The investigator went into a clinic where he personally knows several diabetic clients having problem with insulin pump. The type of sampling done by the investigator is called a. Probability b. Purposive c. Snowball d. Incidental 78. If the researcher implemented a new structured counseling program with a randomized group of subject and a routine counseling program with another randomized group of subject, the research is utilizing which design? a. Quasi-experimental b. Experimental c. Comparative d. Methodological 79. Which of the following is not true about a Pure Experimental research? a. There is a control group b. There is an experimental group c. Selection of subjects in the control group is randomized d. There is a careful selection of subjects in the experimental group 80. The researcher implemented a medication regimen using a new type of combination drugs to manic patients while another group of manic patient receives the routine drugs. The researcher however handpicked the experimental group for they are the clients with multiple episodes of bipolar disorder. The researcher utilized which research design? a. Quasi-experimental b. Pure experimental c. Phenomenological d. Longitudinal Situation 13: As a nurse, you are expected to participate in initiating or participating in the conduct of research studies to improve nursing practice. You, to be updated on the latest trends and issues affected the profession and the best practices arrived at by the profession. 81. You are interested to study the effects of meditation and relaxation on the pain experienced by cancer patients. What type of variable is pain a. Depend b. Correlational c. Independent d. Demographic 82. You would like to compare the support system of patient with chronic illness to those with acute illness. How will you best state your problem? a. A descriptive study to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness in terms of demographic data and knowledge about interventions b. The effects of the types of support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness c. A comparative analysis of the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness d. A study to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness 83. You would like to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness to those with acute illness. Considering that the hypothesis was Clients with chronic illness have lesser support system than clients with acute illness. What type of research is this? a. Descriptive b. Experimental c. Correlational, non-experimental d. Quasi experimental 84. In any research study where individual persons are involved, it is important that an informed consent of the study is obtained. The following are essential information about the consent that you should disclose to the prospective subjects except a. Consent to incomplete disclosure b. Description of benefits, risks and discomforts c. Explanation of procedure d. Assurance of anonymity and confidentiality 85. In the hypothesis The utilization of technology in teaching improves the retention and attention of the nursing students. Which is the dependent variable? a. Utilization of technology b. Improvement in the retention and attention c. Nursing students d. Teaching Situation 14: You are actively practicing nurse who has just finished your graduate studies. You learned the

value of research and would like to utilize the knowledge and skills gained in the application of research to the nursing service. The following questions apply to research. 86. Which type of research inquiry investigates the issues of human complexity (e.g. understanding the human expertise)? a. Logical position b. Naturalistic inquiry c. Positivism d. Quantitative research 87. Which of the following studies is based on quantitative research? a. A study examining the bereavement process in spouse of clients with terminal cancer b. A study exploring the factors influencing weight control behavior c. A study measuring the effects of sleep deprivation on wound healing d. A study examining clients feelings before, during and after bone marrow aspiration 88. Which of the following studies is based on the qualitative research? a. a study examining clients reaction to stress after open heart surgery b. a study measuring nutrition and weight loss/gain in clients with cancer c. a study examining oxygen levels after endotracheal suctioning d. a study measuring differences in blood pressure before, during and after procedure 89. An 85 year old client in a nursing home tells a nurse, I signed the papers of the research study because the doctor was so insistent and I want him to continue taking care for me. Which clients right is being violated? a. Right of self determination b. Right to privacy and confidentiality c. Right to full disclosure d. Right not to be harmed 90. A supposition or system of ideas that is proposed to explain a given phenomenon best defines: a. A paradigm b. A concept c. A theory d. A conceptual framework Situation 15: Mastery of research design determination is essential in passing the NLE. 91. Ana wants to know if the length of time she will study for the board examination is proportional to her board rating. During the June 2008 board examination, she studied for 6 months and gained 69%. On the next board exam, she studied for 6 months again for a total of 1 year and gained 74%. On the third exam, she studied for 6 months again for a total of 1and years and gained 82%. The research design she used is a. Comparative b. Correlational c. Experimental d. Qualitative 92. Anton was always eating high fat diet. You want to determine if what will be the effect of high cholesterol food to Anton in the next 10 years. You will use a. Comparative b. Correlational c. Historical d. Longitudinal 93. Community A was selected randomly as well as community B. Nurse Edna conducted teaching to community A and assessed if community A will have a better status than community B. This is an example of a. Comparative b. Correlational c. Experimental d. Qualitative 94. Ana researched on the development of a new way to measure intelligence by creating a 100 item questionnaire that will assess the cognitive skills of an individual. The design best suited for his study is a. Historical b. Methodological c. Survey d. Case study 95. Gen is conducting a research study on how Mark, an AIDS client lives his life. A design suited for this is a. Historical b. Case study c. Phenomenological d. Ethnographic

96. Marco is to perform a study about how nurses perform surgical asepsis during World War II. A design best for this study is a. Historical b. Case study c. Phenomenological d. Ethnographic 97. Tonyo conducts sampling at Barangay 412. He collected 100 random individuals and determined who their favorite comedian actor is. 50% said Dolphy, 20% said Vic Sotto, while some answered Joey de Leon, Allan K, Michael V. Tonyo conducted what type of research study? a. Phenomenological b. Case study c. Non-experimental d. Survey 98. Jane visited a tribe located somewhere in china, it is called the Shin Jea Tribe. She studied the way of life, tradition and the societal structure of these people. Jane will best use which research design? a. Historical b. Case study c. Phenomenological d. Ethnographic 99. Anjoe researched on TB. Its transmission, causative agent and factors, treatment sign and symptoms as well as medication and all other in depth information about tuberculosis. This study is best suited for which research design? a. Historical b. Case study c. Phenomenological d. Ethnographic 100. Diana is to conduct a study about the relationship of the number of family members in the household and the electricity bill. Which of the following is the best research design suited for this study? 1. Descriptive 2. Exploratory 3. Explanatory 4. Correlational 5. Comparative 6. Experimental a. 1,4 b. 2,5 c. 3.6 d. 1,5

ANSWER KEY: 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. D

17. C 18. D 19. D 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. C 33. D 34. C 35. A

36. B 37. D 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. C 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. A 50. C 51. A 52. D 53. A 54. D

55. D 56. B 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. B 61. D 62. A 63. B 64. D 65. B 66. C 67. B 68. D 69. D 70. B 71. B 72. A 73. B 74. B 75. A 76. D 77. B 78. B 79. D 80. A 81. A 82. E 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. A 90. C 91. C 92 A 93. C 94. B 95. C 96. A 97. D 98. D 99. B 100. A