Ccna Security

Cisco CCNA Security, chapter 1 Exam.
Questions and answers 100% correct.

1. What are the basic phases of attack that can be used by a virus or worm in sequential order? paralyze, probe, penetrate, persist, and propagate probe, penetrate, persist, propagate, and paralyze penetrate, persist, propagate, paralyze, and probe persist, propagate, paralyze, probe, and penetrate 2. Which two are characteristics of DoS attacks? (Choose two.) They always precede access attacks. They attempt to compromise the availability of a network, host, or application. They are difficult to conduct and are initiated only by very skilled attackers. They are commonly launched with a tool called L0phtCrack. Examples include smurf attacks and ping of death attacks. 3. Users report to the helpdesk that icons usually seen on the menu bar are randomly appearing on their computer screens. What could be a reason that computers are displaying these random graphics? An access attack has occurred. A virus has infected the computers. A DoS attack has been launched against the network. The computers are subject to a reconnaissance attack. 4. What are three types of access attacks? (Choose three.) buffer overflow ping sweep port redirection trust exploitation port scan Internet information query 5. What occurs during a spoofing attack? One device falsifies data to gain access to privileged information. Large amounts of network traffic are sent to a target device to make resources unavailable to intended users. Improperly formatted packets are forwarded to a target device to cause the target system to crash.
A program writes data beyond the allocated memory to enable the execution of malicious code. 6. What is a characteristic of a Trojan Horse? A Trojan Horse can be carried in a virus or worm. A proxy Trojan Horse opens port 21 on the target system. An FTP Trojan Horse stops anti-virus programs or firewalls from functioning. A Trojan Horse can be hard to detect because it closes when the application that launched it closes. 7. Which phase of worm mitigation requires compartmentalization and segmentation of the network to slow down or stop the worm and prevent currently infected hosts from targeting and infecting other systems? containment phase inoculation phase quarantine phase treatment phase 8. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.) A virus typically requires end-user activation. A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload. A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in networks. A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords. A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date. 9. What is a ping sweep? A ping sweep is a network scanning technique that indicates the live hosts in a range of IP addresses. A ping sweep is a software application that enables the capture of all network packets sent across a LAN. A ping sweep is a scanning technique that examines a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on a host to detect listening services. A ping sweep is a query and response protocol that identifies information about a domain, including the addresses assigned to that domain. 10. Which type of security threat can be described as software that attaches to another program to execute a specific unwanted function? virus worm proxy Trojan horse
Denial of Service Trojan horse 11. A disgruntled employee is using Wireshark to discover administrative Telnet usernames and passwords. What type of network attack does this describe? Denial of Service port redirection reconnaissance trust exploitation 12. What occurs during the persist phase of a worm attack? identification of vulnerable targets modification of system files and registry settings to ensure that the attack code is running transfer of exploit code through an attack vector extension of the attack to vulnerable neighboring targets 13. What are the three major components of a worm attack? (Choose three.) enabling vulnerability infecting vulnerability payload penetration mechanism probing mechanism propagation mechanism 14. A network administrator detects unknown sessions involving port 21 on the network. What could be causing this security breach? An FTP Trojan Horse is executing. A reconnaissance attack is occurring. A denial of service attack is occurring. Cisco Security Agent is testing the network. 15. What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.) disable used ports and services determine potential vulnerabilities identify active services identify peripheral configurations identify operating systems discover system passwords 16. How is a Smurf attack conducted?
by sending a large number of packets, overflowing the allocated buffer memory of the target device by sending an echo request in an IP packet larger than the maximum packet size of 65,535 bytes by sending a large number of ICMP requests to directed broadcast addresses from a spoofed source address on the same network by sending a large number of TCP SYN packets to a target device from a spoofed source address 17. Which access attack method involves a software program attempting to discover a system password by using an electronic dictionary? buffer overflow attack port redirection attack Denial of Service attack brute-force attack IP spoofing attack packet sniffer attack 18 Which two network security solutions can be used to mitigate DoS attacks? (Choose two.) virus scanning data encryption anti-spoofing technologies intrusion protection systems applying user authentication 19. Which phase of worm mitigation involves terminating the worm process, removing modified files or system settings that the worm introduced, and patching the vulnerability that the worm used to exploit the system? containment inoculation quarantine treatment 20. Which characteristic best describes the network security Compliance domain as specified by the ISO/IEC? the integration of security into applications an inventory and classification scheme for information assets the restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data the process of ensuring conformance with security information policies, standards, and regulations
21. Which statement describes phone freaking? A hacker uses password-cracking programs to gain access to a computer via a dialup account. A hacker gains unauthorized access to networks via wireless access points. A hacker mimics a tone using a whistle to make free long-distance calls on an analog telephone network. A hacker uses a program that automatically scans telephone numbers within a local area, dialing each one in search of computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines. 22. Which two statements describe access attacks? (Choose two.) Port redirection attacks use a network adapter card in promiscuous mode to capture all network packets that are sent across a LAN. Password attacks can be implemented using brute-force attack methods, Trojan Horses, or packet sniffers. Buffer overflow attacks write data beyond the allocated buffer memory to overwrite valid data or exploit systems to execute malicious code. Port scanning attacks scan a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on a host to detect listening services. Trust exploitation attacks can use a laptop acting as a rogue access point to capture and copy all network traffic in a public location on a wireless hotspot.

1 . Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the generated message? (Choose two.) This message is a level five notification message. This message appeared because a minor error occurred requiring further investigation. This message appeared because a major error occurred requiring immediate action. This message indicates that service timestamps have been globally enabled. This message indicates that enhanced security was configured on the vty ports. 2. By default, how many seconds of delay between virtual login attempts is invoked when the login block-for command is configured? one two three four five 3.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.) Both routers are configured to use NTPv2. Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client. Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client. The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2. The IP address of R2 is 192.168.1.2.
4. What are two characteristics of the SDM Security Audit wizard? (Choose two.) It uses interactive dialogs and prompts to implement AAA. It automatically enables Cisco IOS firewall and implements Cisco IOS IPS security configurations to secure the router. It displays a screen with Fix-it check boxes to let you choose which potential securityrelated configuration changes to implement. It requires users to first identify which router interfaces connect to the inside network and which connect to the outside network. It is initiated from CLI and executes a script in which the managment plane functions and forwarding plane services are tested against known vulnerabilities. 5. If AAA is already enabled, which three CLI steps are required to configure a router with a specific view? (Choose three.) assign a secret password to the view assign commands to the view assign users who can use the view associate the view with the root view create a superview using the parser view view-name command create a view using the parser viewview-name command 6.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement regarding the JR-Admin account is true? JR-Admin can issue show, ping, and reload commands. JR-Admin can issue ping and reload commands. JR-Admin can issue only ping commands. JR-Admin can issue debug and reload commands. JR-Admin cannot issue any command because the privilege level does not match one of those defined. 7. Which recommended security practice prevents attackers from performing password recovery on a Cisco IOS router for the purpose of gaining access to the privileged EXEC mode? Keep a secure copy of the router Cisco IOS image and router configuration file as a backup. Disable all unused ports and interfaces to reduce the number of ways that the router can be accessed. Configure secure administrative control to ensure that only authorized personnel can access the router.
Locate the router in a secure locked room that is accessible only to authorized personnel. Provision the router with the maximum amount of memory possible. 8. Which three options can be configured by Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose three.) CBAC SNMP syslog security banner interface IP address enable secret password 9.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show running-config command, which type of view is SUPPORT? secret view, with a level 5 encrypted password root view, with a level 5 encrypted secret password superview, containing SHOWVIEW and VERIFYVIEW views CLI view, containing SHOWVIEW and VERIFYVIEW commands 10. Which three services on a router does Cisco SDM One-Step Lockdown enable? (Choose three.) SNMP TCP intercepts SSH access to the router Cisco Discovery Protocol password encryption service firewall on all outside interfaces 11. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.) configure the IP domain name on the router enable inbound vty Telnet sessions
generate the SSH keys configure DNS on the router enable inbound vty SSH sessions generate two-way pre-shared keys 12. Which statement describes the operation of the Cisco SDM Security Audit wizard? The wizard configures a router to prevent unauthorized access. The wizard compares a router configuration against recommended settings. The wizard monitors network data and logs possible unauthorized or malicious traffic. The wizard logs the effectiveness of network security measures for baseline comparisons. 13. An administrator needs to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC commands. Which privilege command is used to create this custom account? privilege exec level 0 privilege exec level 1 privilege exec level 2 privilege exec level 15 14. Which three areas of router security must be maintained to secure an edge router at the network perimeter? (Choose three.) physical security flash security operating system security remote access security router hardening zone isolation 15. Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant information about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack? HTTP CDP FTP NTP TFTP 16. Which two operations are required to implement Cisco SDM One-Step Lockdown? (Choose two.) Choose the One-Step Lockdown feature. Apply the documented network policies.
Deliver the configuration changes to the router. Compare the router configuration against recommended settings. Select the Firewall and ACL task on the SDM Configuration screen. 17. Which statement matches the CLI commands to the SDM wizard that performs similar configuration functions? aaa configuration commands and the SDM Basic Firewall wizard auto secure privileged EXEC command and the SDM One-Step Lockdown wizard class-maps, policy-maps, and service-policy configuration commands and the SDM IPS wizard setup privileged EXEC command and the SDM Security Audit wizard 18.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of secret 5 in the generated output? The ADMIN password is encrypted using DH group 5. The ADMIN password is encrypted via the service password-encryption command. The ADMIN password is hashed using MD5. The ADMIN password is hashed using SHA. 19. Which three commands are required to restore a primary bootset from a secure archive on a router on which Cisco IOS resilience is enabled? (Choose three.) Restart the router in ROM monitor mode and display the secure bootset Cisco IOS image name using the dir command. Restart the router, enter privileged EXEC mode, and display the secure bootset Cisco IOS image name using the show flash command. Boot the secure bootset Cisco IOS image using the boot command with the filename. Copy the secure bootset Cisco IOS image to flash using the copy IOS-backup-image flash command. Restore the secure configuration file using the copy config-backup flash command. Restore the secure configuration file using the secure boot-config restore filename command. 20. Which set of commands are required to create a username of admin, hash the password using MD5, and force the router to access the internal username database when a user attempts to access the console? R1(config)# username admin password Admin01pa55 R1(config)# line con 0 R1(config-line)# login local
R1(config)# username admin password Admin01pa55 R1(config)# line con 0 R1(config-line)# login internal R1(config)# username admin Admin01pa55 encr md5 R1(config)# line con 0 R1(config-line)# login local R1(config)# username admin secret Admin01pa55 R1(config)# line con 0 R1(config-line)# login local R1(config)# username admin secret Admin01pa55 R1(config)# line con 0 R1(config-line)# login internal 21.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the current SDM logging setup? (Choose two.) Buffered logging will be enabled on the router for Logging Level 7 messages. Buffered logging will be enabled on the syslog server for Logging Level 7 messages. All messages with a trap level of 4 and higher (less critical) will be logged. All messages with a trap level of 4 and lower (more critical) will be logged. The router interface IP address that is connected to the syslog server is 192.168.1.3. The syslog server IP address is 192.168.1.3. 22. What are two characteristics of SNMP community strings? (Choose two.) A vulnerability of SNMPv1, SNMPv2, and SNMPv3 is that they send the community
strings in plaintext. Commonly known community strings should be used when configuring secure SNMP. If the manager sends one of the correct read-only community strings, it can get information and set information in an agent. SNMP read-only community strings can be used to get information from an SNMPenabled device. SNMP read-write community strings can be used to set information on an SNMP-enabled device. 23. What is the minimum recommended modulus key length for keys generated to use with SSH? 256 512 768 1024 2048 24. Which two characteristics apply to Role-Based CLI Access superviews? (Choose two.) CLI views have passwords, but superviews do not have passwords. Users logged in to a superview can access all commands specified within the associated CLI views. A single superview can be shared among multiple CLI views. Commands cannot be configured for a specific superview. Deleting a superview deletes all associated CLI views. 25.
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the output? (Choose two.) The Cisco IOS image and configuration files have been properly secured. ROMmon mode will be inaccessible upon entering the privileged EXEC reload command. The Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature is enabled. The Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature has detected an image version mismatch.
The Cisco IOS configuration files have been erased. 26. What are three requirements that must be met if an administrator wants to maintain device configurations via secure in-band management? (Choose three.) network devices configured to accommodate SSH a separate network segment connecting all management devices at least one router acting as a terminal server encryption of all remote access management traffic connection to network devices through a production network or the Internet direct access to the console ports of all network devices

1. Why is local database authentication preferred over a password-only login? It specifies a different password for each line or port. It provides for authentication and accountability. It requires a login and password combination on console, vty lines, and aux ports. It is more efficient for users who only need to enter a password to gain entry to a device. 2. What is a characteristic of AAA? Authorization can only be implemented after a user is authenticated. Accounting services are implemented prior to authenticating a user. Accounting services determine which resources the user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform. Authorization records what the user does, including what is accessed, the amount of time the resource is accessed, and any changes that were made. 3. Due to implemented security controls, a user can only access a server with FTP. Which AAA component accomplishes this? accessibility accounting auditing authentication authorization 4. Which two AAA access method statements are true? (Choose two.) Character mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use of the console, vty, or tty ports. Character mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use of dialup or VPN. Character mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires use of the console, vty, or tty ports. Packet mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires use of dialup or VPN. Packet mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use of dialup or VPN. Packet mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires use of the console, vty, or tty ports.
5. Which two statements describe AAA authentication? (Choose two.) Server-based AAA authentication is more scalable than local AAA authentication. Local AAA is ideal for large complex networks because it uses the local database of the router for authentication. Server-based AAA authentication can use the RADIUS or TACACS+ protocols to communicate between the router and a AAA server. Server-based AAA authentication is ideal for large complex networks because it uses the local database of the router for authentication. Local AAA authentication requires the services of an external server, such as the Cisco Secure ACS for Windows Server. 6. What is a difference between using the login local command and using local AAA authentication for authenticating administrator access? Local AAA authentication supports encrypted passwords; login local does not. Local AAA provides a way to configure backup methods of authentication; login local does not. A method list must be configured when using the login local command, but is optional when using local AAA authentication. The login local command supports the keyword none, which ensures that authentication succeeds, even if all methods return an error. 7 .
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured as shown, with the resulting log message. On the basis of the information presented, which two AAA authentication statements are true? (Choose two.) The locked-out user failed authentication. The locked-out user is locked out for 10 minutes by default. The locked-out user should have used the username Admin and password Pa55w0rd. The locked-out user should have used the username admin and password Str0ngPa55w0rd.
The locked-out user stays locked out until the clear aaa local user lockout username Admin command is issued. 8.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown. An administrative user attempts to use Telnet from router R2 to router R1 using the interface IP address 10.10.10.1. However, Telnet access is denied. Which option corrects this problem? The R1 10.10.10.1 router interface must be enabled. The vty lines must be configured with the login authentication default command. The aaa local authentication attempts max-fail command must be set to 2 or higher. The administrative user should use the username Admin and password Str0ngPa55w0rd. 9. When configuring a method list for AAA authentication, what is the effect of the keyword local? It accepts a locally configured username, regardless of case. It defaults to the vty line password for authentication. The login succeeds, even if all methods return an error. It uses the enable password for authentication. 10. What is a characteristic of TACACS+? TACACS+ is an open IETF standard. TACACS+ is backward compatible with TACACS and XTACACS. TACACS+ provides authorization of router commands on a per-user or per-group basis. TACACS+ uses UDP port 1645 or 1812 for authentication, and UDP port 1646 or 1813
for accounting 11. Which statement identifies an important difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS? TACACS+ provides extensive accounting capabilities when compared to RADIUS. The RADIUS protocol encrypts the entire packet transmission. The TACACS+ protocol allows for separation of authentication from authorization. RADIUS can cause delays by establishing a new TCP session for each authorization request. 12. In regards to Cisco Secure ACS, what is a client device? a web server, email server, or FTP server the computer used by a network administrator network users who must access privileged EXEC commands a router, switch, firewall, or VPN concentrator 13. What is the result if an administrator configures the aaa authorization command prior to creating a user with full access rights? The administrator is immediately locked out of the system. The administrator is denied all access except to aaa authorization commands. The administrator is allowed full access using the enable secret password. The administrator is allowed full access until a router reboot, which is required to apply changes. 14. When configuring a Cisco Secure ACS, how is the configuration interface accessed? A Web browser is used to configure a Cisco Secure ACS. The Cisco Secure ACS can be accessed from the router console. Telnet can be used to configure a Cisco Secure ACS server after an initial configuration is complete. The Cisco Secure ACS can be accessed remotely after installing ACS client software on the administrator workstation. 15. Which AAA protocol and feature best support a large ISP that needs to implement detailed accounting for customer invoicing? TACACS+ because it combines authentication and authorization, but separates accounting RADIUS because it supports detailed accounting that is required for billing users TACACS+ because it requires select authorization policies to be applied on a per-user or per-group basis RADIUS because it requires select authorization policies to be applied on a per-user or per-group basis
16. After accounting is enabled on an IOS device, how is a default accounting method list applied? Accounting method lists are applied only to the VTY interfaces. A named accounting method list must be explicitly defined and applied to desired interfaces. Accounting method lists are not applied to any interfaces until an interface is added to the server group. The default accounting method list is automatically applied to all interfaces, except those with named accounting method lists. 17.
Refer to the exhibit. In the network shown, which AAA command logs the use of EXEC session commands? aaa accounting connection start-stop group radius aaa accounting connection start-stop group tacacs+ aaa accounting exec start-stop group radius aaa accounting exec start-stop group tacacs+ aaa accounting network start-stop group radius aaa accounting network start-stop group tacacs+ 18. How does a Cisco Secure ACS improve performance of the TACACS+ authorization process? reduces overhead by using UDP for authorization queries reduces delays in the authorization queries by using persistent TCP sessions reduces bandwidth utilization of the authorization queries by allowing cached credentials reduces number of authorization queries by combining the authorization process with authentication
19.
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco Secure ACS menu is required to configure the IP address and secure password of an AAA client? User Setup Group Setup Network Configuration System Configuration Interface Configuration Administration Control 20. What is an effect if AAA authorization on a device is not configured? Authenticated users are granted full access rights. User access to specific services is determined by the authentication process. Character mode authorization is limited, and packet mode denies all requests. All authorization requests to the TACACS server receive a REJECT response.

Questions and answers 95.8% correct.
1. Which statement accurately describes Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall operation? The pass action works in only one direction. A router interface can belong to multiple zones. Service policies are applied in interface configuration mode. Router management interfaces must be manually assigned to the self zone. 2. Which location is recommended for extended numbered or extended named ACLs? a location as close to the destination of traffic as possible a location as close to the source of traffic as possible a location centered between traffic destinations and sources to filter as much traffic as possible if using the established keyword, a location close to the destination to ensure that return traffic is allowed 3. When using Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall, where is the inspection policy applied? a global service policy an interface a zone a zone pair 4.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen shown, which statement describes the zonebased firewall component being configured? a class map that inspects all traffic that uses the HTTP, IM, P2P, and email protocols a class map that prioritizes traffic that uses HTTP first, followed by SMTP, and then DNS a class map that denies all traffic that uses the HTTP, SMTP, and DNS protocols a class map that inspects all traffic that uses the HTTP, SMTP, and DNS protocols a class map that inspects all traffic, except traffic that uses the HTTP, SMTP, and DNS protocols 5 .
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen shown, which two statements describe the effect this zone-based policy firewall has on traffic? (Choose two.) HTTP traffic from the in-zone to the out-zone is inspected. Unmatched traffic to the router from the out-zone is permitted. ICMP replies from the router to the out-zone are denied. Traffic from the in-zone to the out-zone is denied if the source address is in the 127.0.0.0/8 range. Traffic from the in-zone to the out-zone is denied if the destination address is in the 10.1.1.0/29 range. 6. Which type of packet is unable to be filtered by an outbound ACL? ICMP packet broadcast packet
multicast packet router-generated packet 7.
Refer to the exhibit. If a hacker on the outside network sends an IP packet with source address 172.30.1.50, destination address 10.0.0.3, source port 23, and destination port 2447, what does the Cisco IOS firewall do with the packet? The packet is forwarded, and an alert is generated. The packet is forwarded, and no alert is generated. The initial packet is dropped, but subsequent packets are forwarded. The packet is dropped. 8. Which zone-based policy firewall zone is system-defined and applies to traffic destined for the router or originating from the router? self zone system zone local zone inside zone outside zone 9. Which statement correctly describes a type of filtering firewall? A transparent firewall is typically implemented on a PC or server with firewall software running on it. A packet-filtering firewall expands the number of IP addresses available and hides network addressing design. An application gateway firewall (proxy firewall) is typically implemented on a router to filter Layer 3 and Layer 4 information. A stateful firewall monitors the state of connections, whether the connection is in an
initiation, data transfer, or termination state. 10. In addition to the criteria used by extended ACLs, what conditions are used by CBAC to filter traffic? TCP/IP protocol numbers IP source and destination addresses application layer protocol session information TCP/UDP source and destination port numbers 11. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as they relate to the OSI model? Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer. A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, while a packet-filtering firewall cannot filter beyond the network layer. A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, while a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer. A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a connection, while a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the state of a connection. 12.
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the area marked as A? DMZ internal network perimeter security boundary trusted network untrusted network 13. Which three actions can a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall take if configured with Cisco SDM? (Choose three.) inspect evaluate drop analyze pass forward 14. A router has CBAC configured and an inbound ACL applied to the external interface. Which action does the router take after inbound-to-outbound traffic is inspected and a new entry is created in the state table? A dynamic ACL entry is added to the external interface in the inbound direction. The internal interface ACL is reconfigured to allow the host IP address access to the Internet. The entry remains in the state table after the session is terminated so that it can be reused by the host. When traffic returns from its destination, it is reinspected, and a new entry is added to the state table. 15. For a stateful firewall, which information is stored in the stateful session flow table? TCP control header and trailer information associated with a particular session TCP SYN packets and the associated return ACK packets inside private IP address and the translated inside global IP address outbound and inbound access rules (ACL entries) source and destination IP addresses, and port numbers and sequencing information associated with a particular session 16.
Refer to the exhibit. The ACL statement is the only one explicitly configured on the router. Based on this information, which two conclusions can be drawn regarding remote access
network connections? (Choose two.) SSH connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are allowed. Telnet connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are allowed. SSH connections from the 192.168.2.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network are allowed. Telnet connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are blocked. SSH connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are blocked. Telnet connections from the 192.168.2.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network are allowed. 17. When configuring a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall, which three actions can be applied to a traffic class? (Choose three.) drop inspect pass reroute queue shape 18.
Refer to the exhibit. In a two-interface CBAC implementation, where should ACLs be applied? inside interface outside interface inside and outside interfaces no interfaces 19. Which two parameters are tracked by CBAC for TCP traffic but not for UDP traffic?
(Choose two.) source port protocol ID sequence number destination port SYN and ACK flags 20. What is the first step in configuring a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall using the CLI? Create zones. Define traffic classes. Define firewall policies. Assign policy maps to zone pairs. Assign router interfaces to zones. 21. Which two are characteristics of ACLs? (Choose two.) Extended ACLs can filter on destination TCP and UDP ports. Extended ACLs can filter on source and destination IP addresses. Extended ACLs can filter on source and destination IP addresses. Standard ACLs can filter on source and destination IP addresses. Standard ACLs can filter on source and destination TCP and UDP ports. 22. Which type of packets exiting the network of an organization should be blocked by an ACL? packets that are not encrypted packets that are not translated with NAT packets with source IP addresses outside of the organization's network address space packets with destination IP addresses outside of the organization's network address space 23. When logging is enabled for an ACL entry, how does the router switch packets filtered by the ACL? topology-based switching autonomous switching process switching optimum switching

1. An IPS sensor has detected the string confidential across multiple packets in a TCP session. Which type of signature trigger and signature type does this describe? Trigger: Anomaly-based detection Type: Atomic signature Trigger: Anomaly-based detection Type: Composite signature Trigger: Pattern-based detection Type: Atomic signature Trigger: Pattern-based detection Type: Composite signature Trigger: Policy-based detection Type: Atomic signature Trigger: Policy-based detection Type: Composite signature 2. A network administrator tunes a signature to detect abnormal activity that might be malicious and likely to be an immediate threat. What is the perceived severity of the signature? high medium low informational 3. What are two major drawbacks to using HIPS? (Choose two.) HIPS has difficulty constructing an accurate network picture or coordinating the events happening across the entire network. HIPS installations are vulnerable to fragmentation attacks or variable TTL attacks. With HIPS, the network administor must verify support for all the different operating systems used in the network. If the network traffic stream is encrypted, HIPS is unable to access unencrypted forms of the traffic. With HIPS, the success or failure of an attack cannot be readily determined. 4. Which type of intrusion detection triggers an action if excessive activity occurs beyond a specified threshold of normal activity? pattern-based detection anomaly-based detection
policy-based detection honey pot-based detection 5. Which two statements characterize a network-based IPS implementation? (Choose two.) It makes hosts visible to attackers. It is unable to examine encrypted traffic. It monitors to see if an attack was successful. It provides application-level encryption protection. It is independent of the operating system on hosts. 6. What information is provided by the show ip ips configuration configuration command? detailed IPS signatures alarms that were sent since the last reset the number of packets that are audited the default actions for attack signatures 7. When editing IPS signatures with SDM, which action drops all future packets from a TCP flow? Deny Packet Inline Deny TCP Connection Deny Attacker Inline Deny Connection Inline
8.
Refer to the exhibit. A user was installing a Flash Player upgrade when the CSA displayed the dialog box shown. Which default action is taken by CSA if the user does not respond within 4 minutes and 20 seconds? The action is allowed, and a log entry is recorded. The action is allowed, and CSA does not prompt the user again. The action is denied, and a log entry is recorded. The action is denied, and the FlashPlayerUpdate.exe application is terminated.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. When modifying an IPS signature action, which two check boxes should be selected to create an ACL that denies all traffic from the IP address that is considered the source of the attack and drops the packet and all future packets from the TCP flow? (Choose two.) Deny Attacker Inline Deny Connection Inline Deny Packet Inline Produce Alert Reset TCP Connection
10.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the number 10 in the signature 6130 10 command? It is the alert severity. It is the signature number. It is the signature version. It is the subsignature ID. It is the signature fidelity rating. 11. What is a disadvantage of network-based IPS as compared to host-based IPS? Network-based IPS is less cost-effective. Network-based IPS cannot examine encrypted traffic. Network-based IPS does not detect lower level network events. Network-based IPS should not be used with multiple operating systems. 12. Which two files could be used to implement Cisco IOS IPS with version 5.x format signatures? (Choose two.) IOS-Sxxx-CLI.bin IOS-Sxxx-CLI.pkg IOS-Sxxx-CLI.sdf realm-cisco.priv.key.txt realm-cisco.pub.key.txt 13. Why is a network that deploys only IDS particularly vulnerable to an atomic attack? The IDS must track the three-way handshake of established TCP connections. The IDS must track the three-way handshake of established UDP connections. The IDS permits malicious single packets into the network. The IDS requires significant router resources to maintain the event horizon. The stateful properties of atomic attacks usually require the IDS to have several pieces of data to match an attack signature.
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Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen shown, which two actions will the signature take if an attack is detected? (Choose two.) Reset the TCP connection to terminate the TCP flow. Drop the packet and all future packets from this TCP flow. Generate an alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server. Drop the packet and permit remaining packets from this TCP flow. Create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address. 15. Which two Cisco IOS commands are required to enable IPS SDEE message logging? (Choose two.) logging on ip ips notify log ip http server ip ips notify sdee ip sdee events 500 16.
Refer to the exhibit. Which option tab on the SDM IPS screen is used to view the Top
Threats table and deploy signatures associated with those threats? Create IPS Edit IPS Security Dashboard IPS Migration 17. Which Cisco IOS configuration option instructs the IPS to compile a signature category named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic? R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category all R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category all R1(config-ips-category-action)# enabled true R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# enabled true 18.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of issuing the Cisco IOS IPS commands on router R1? A named ACL determines the traffic to be inspected. A numbered ACL is applied to S0/0/0 in the outbound direction. All traffic that is denied by the ACL is subject to inspection by the IPS. All traffic that is permitted by the ACL is subject to inspection by the IPS. 19. What are two IPS configuration best practices that can help improve IPS efficiency in a network? (Choose two.) Configure all sensors to check the server for new signature packs at the same time to ensure that they are all synchronized. Configure the sensors to simultaneously check the FTP server for new signature packs. Ensure that signature levels that are supported on the management console are synchronized with the signature packs on the sensors. Update signature packs manually rather than automatically to maintain close control when setting up a large deployment of sensors.
Place signature packs on a dedicated FTP server within the management network. 20. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the small red flag waving in the Windows system tray? Cisco Security Agent is installed but inactive. Network-based IPS is active and has detected a potential security problem. Cisco Security Agent is active and has detected a potential security problem. A network-based IPS sensor has pushed an alert to a host running Cisco Security Agent. 21. Which two benefits does the IPS version 5.x signature format provide over the version 4.x signature format? (Choose two.) addition of signature micro engines support for IPX and AppleTalk protocols addition of a signature risk rating support for comma-delimited data import support for encrypted signature parameters

1. Which two measures are recommended to mitigate VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.) Use a dedicated native VLAN for all trunk ports. Place all unused ports in a separate guest VLAN. Disable trunk negotiation on all ports connecting to workstations. Enable DTP on all trunk ports. Ensure that the native VLAN is used for management traffic. 2. As a recommended practice for Layer 2 security, how should VLAN 1 be treated? All access ports should be assigned to VLAN 1. All trunk ports should be assigned to VLAN 1. VLAN 1 should be used for management traffic. VLAN 1 should not be used. 3. How is a reflector port used in an RSPAN configuration? It provides a dedicated connection for the IDS device. It allows an RSPAN session to be backward compatible with a SPAN session. It acts like a loopback interface in that it reflects the captured traffic to the RSPAN VLAN. It allows an IDS device to direct malicious traffic to it, isolating that traffic from other areas of the network. 4. Which attack is mitigated by using port security? LAN storm VLAN hopping STP manipulation MAC address table overflow 5. Which technology is used to protect the switched infrastructure from problems caused by receiving BPDUs on ports that should not be receiving them? RSPAN PortFast Root guard Loop guard BPDU guard
6. Which three switch security commands are required to enable port security on a port so that it will dynamically learn a single MAC address and disable the port if a host with any other MAC address is connected? (Choose three.) switchport mode access switchport mode trunk switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security mac-address mac-address 7. When configuring a switch port for port security, what is the default violation mode? protect reset restrict shutdown 8. Which three statements are true regarding SPAN and RSPAN? (Choose three.) SPAN can send a copy of traffic to a port on another switch. RSPAN is required for syslog and SNMP implementation. SPAN can be configured to send a copy of traffic to a destination port on the same switch. SPAN can copy traffic on a source port or source VLAN to a destination port on the same switch. RSPAN is required to copy traffic on a source VLAN to a destination port on the same switch. RSPAN can be used to forward traffic to reach an IDS that is analyzing traffic for malicious behavior. 9. Which Cisco endpoint security product helps maintain network stability by providing posture assessment, quarantining of noncompliant systems, and remediation of noncompliant systems? Cisco Access Control Server Cisco Security Agent workstation Cisco Intrusion Prevention System router Cisco Network Admission Control appliance 10. Which attack relies on the default automatic trunking configuration on most Cisco switches? LAN storm attack VLAN hopping attack STP manipulation attack MAC address spoofing attack
11. With IP voice systems on data networks, which two types of attacks target VoIP specifically? (Choose two.) CoWPAtty Kismet SPIT virus vishing 12. Which two elements are part of the Cisco strategy for addressing endpoint security? (Choose two.) policy compliance using products such as Cisco NAC network infection monitoring using products such as Cisco Secure ACS threat protection using products such as Cisco Security Agent attack detection using products such as Cisco NAC risk assessment compliance using products such as Cisco Security Agent 13. Which frames are spoofed in STP manipulation attacks? BPDU DTP ISL 802.1q 14. Which option best describes a MAC address spoofing attack? An attacker gains access to another host and masquerades as the rightful user of that device. An attacker alters the MAC address of his host to match another known MAC address of a target host. An attacker alters the MAC address of the switch to gain access to the network device from a rogue host device. An attacker floods the MAC address table of a switch so that the switch can no longer filter network access based on MAC addresses. 15. What happens when the MAC address notification feature is enabled on a switch? An SDEE alert is generated, and the switch resets the interface when an invalid MAC address is detected. An STP multicast notification packet is forwarded to all switches any time a change in the network topology is detected. A port violation occurs when a MAC address outside of the range of allowed addresses transmits traffic over a secure port. An SNMP trap is sent to the network management system whenever a new MAC address
is added to or an old address is deleted from the forwarding tables. 16. Which device supports the use of SPAN to enable monitoring of malicious activity? Cisco NAC Cisco IronPort Cisco Security Agent Cisco Catalyst switch 17. An administrator wants to prevent a rogue Layer 2 device from intercepting traffic from multiple VLANs on a network. Which two actions help mitigate this type of activity? (Choose two.) Disable DTP on ports that require trunking. Place unused active ports in an unused VLAN. Secure the native VLAN, VLAN 1, with encryption. Set the native VLAN on the trunk ports to an unused VLAN. Turn off trunking on all trunk ports and manually configure each VLAN as required on each port. 18.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output generated by the show monitor session 1 command, how will SPAN operate on the switch? All traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1. All traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1. Native VLAN traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1. Native VLAN traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.
19. How many Cisco Security Agent clients can one Management Center for CSA console support? 1,000 10,000 100,000 1,000,000 20. Which three are SAN transport technologies? (Choose three.) Fibre Channel SATA iSCSI IP PBX FCIP IDE 21. If a switch is configured with the storm-control command and the action shutdown and action trap parameters, which two actions does the switch take when a storm occurs on a port? (Choose two.) The port is disabled. The switch is rebooted. An SNMP log message is sent. The port is placed in a blocking state. The switch forwards control traffic only.

1. Which symmetrical encryption algorithm is the most difficult to crack? 3DES AES DES RSA SHA 2. What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext? The data is encrypted three times with three different keys. The data is encrypted, decrypted, and encrypted using three different keys. The data is divided into three blocks of equal length for encryption. The data is encrypted using a key length that is three times longer than the key used for DES. 3. What does it mean when a hashing algorithm is collision resistant? Exclusive ORs are performed on input data and produce a digest. It is not feasible to compute the hash given the input data. It uses a two-way function that computes a hash from the input and output data. Two messages with the same hash are unlikely to occur. 4. Which three primary functions are required to secure communication across network links? (Choose three.) accounting anti-replay protection authentication authorization confidentiality integrity 5. Which two encryption algorithms are commonly used to encrypt the contents of a message? (Choose two.) 3DES AES IPsec
PKI SHA 6. Which statement describes asymmetric encryption algorithms? They include DES, 3DES, and AES. They have key lengths ranging from 80 to 256 bits. They are also called shared-secret key algorithms. They are relatively slow because they are based on difficult computational algorithms. 7. Which statement describes the use of keys for encryption? The sender and receiver must use the same key when using symmetric encryption. The sender and receiver must use the same key when using asymmetric encryption. The sender and receiver must use the same keys for both symmetric and asymmetric encryption. The sender and receiver must use two keys: one for symmetric encryption and another for asymmetric encryption. 8. How do modern cryptographers defend against brute-force attacks? Use statistical analysis to eliminate the most common encryption keys. Use an algorithm that requires the attacker to have both ciphertext and plaintext to conduct a successful attack. Use a keyspace large enough that it takes too much money and too much time to conduct a successful attack. Use frequency analysis to ensure that the most popular letters used in the language are not used in the cipher message.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cipher method is depicted? Caesar cipher stream cipher substitution cipher transposition cipher 10. Which statement describes a cryptographic hash function? A one-way cryptographic hash function is hard to invert. The output of a cryptographic hash function can be any length. The input of a cryptographic hash function has a fixed length. A cryptographic hash function is used to provide confidentiality. 11. A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. The e-commerce site must maintain proof that the data exchange took place between the site and the customer. Which feature of digital signatures is required? authenticity of digitally signed data integrity of digitally signed data nonrepudiation of the transaction confidentiality of the public key 12. Which encryption protocol provides network layer confidentiality?
IPsec protocol suite Keyed MD5 Message Digest 5 Secure Sockets Layer Secure Hash Algorithm 1 Transport Layer Security 13. Which statement is a feature of HMAC? HMAC is based on the RSA hash function. HMAC uses a secret key that is only known to the sender and defeats man-in-the-middle attacks. HMAC uses a secret key as input to the hash function, adding authentication to integrity assurance. HMAC uses protocols such as SSL or TLS to provide session layer confidentiality. 14. The network administrator for an e-commerce website requires a service that prevents customers from claiming that legitimate orders are fake. What service provides this type of guarantee? authentication confidentiality integrity nonrepudiation 15. What is a characteristic of the RSA algorithm? RSA is much faster than DES. RSA is a common symmetric algorithm. RSA is used to protect corporate data in high-throughput, low-latency environments. RSA keys of 512 bits can be used for faster processing, while keys of 2048 bits can be used for increased securit
16 .
Refer to the exhibit. Which encryption algorithm is described in the exhibit? 3DES AES DES RC4 SEAL 17. An administrator requires a PKI that supports a longer lifetime for keys used for digital signing operations than for keys used for encrypting data. Which feature should the PKI support? certificate keys nonrepudiation keys usage keys variable keys 18. Which two statements correctly describe certificate classes used in the PKI? (Choose two.) A class 0 certificate is for testing purposes. A class 0 certificate is more trusted than a class 1 certificate. The lower the class number, the more trusted the certificate. A class 5 certificate is for users with a focus on verification of email. A class 4 certificate is for online business transactions between companies. 19. Two users must authenticate each other using digital certificates and a CA. Which option describes the CA authentication procedure? The CA is always required, even after user verification is complete. The users must obtain the certificate of the CA and then their own certificate. After user verification is complete, the CA is no longer required, even if one of the involved certificates expires.
CA certificates are retrieved out-of-band using the PSTN, and the authentication is done in-band over a network. 20. Why is RSA typically used to protect only small amounts of data? The keys must be a fixed length. The public keys must be kept secret. The algorithms used to encrypt data are slow. The signature keys must be changed frequently. 21. Which algorithm would provide the best integrity check for data that is sent over the Internet? MD5 SHA-1 SHA-2 3DES 22. Which characteristic of security key management is responsible for making certain that weak cryptographic keys are not used? verification exchange generation revocation and destruction

1. What are two benefits of an SSL VPN? (Choose two.) It supports all client/server applications. It supports the same level of cryptographic security as an IPsec VPN. It has the option of only requiring an SSL-enabled web browser. The thin client mode functions without requiring any downloads or software. It is compatible with DMVPNs, Cisco IOS Firewall, IPsec, IPS, Cisco Easy VPN, and NAT. 2. When verifying IPsec configurations, which show command displays the encryption algorithm, hash algorithm, authentication method, and Diffie-Hellman group configured, as well as default settings? show crypto map show crypto ipsec sa show crypto isakmp policy show crypto ipsec transform-set 3. When configuring a site-to-site IPsec VPN using the CLI, the authentication pre-share command is configured in the ISAKMP policy. Which additional peer authentication configuration is required? Configure the message encryption algorithm with the encryptiontype ISAKMP policy configuration command. Configure the DH group identifier with the groupnumber ISAKMP policy configuration command. Configure a hostname with the crypto isakmp identity hostname global configuration command. Configure a PSK with the crypto isakmp key global configuration command. 4. Which action do IPsec peers take during the IKE Phase 2 exchange? exchange of DH keys negotiation of IPsec policy verification of peer identity negotiation of IKE policy sets 5. A network administrator is planning to implement centralized management of Cisco VPN devices to simplify VPN deployment for remote offices and teleworkers. Which Cisco IOS feature would provide this solution?
Cisco Easy VPN Cisco VPN Client Cisco IOS SSL VPN Dynamic Multipoint VPN 6. Which two statements accurately describe characteristics of IPsec? (Choose two.) IPsec works at the application layer and protects all application data. IPsec works at the transport layer and protects data at the network layer. IPsec works at the network layer and operates over all Layer 2 protocols. IPsec is a framework of proprietary standards that depend on Cisco specific algorithms. IPsec is a framework of standards developed by Cisco that relies on OSI algorithms. IPsec is a framework of open standards that relies on existing algorithms. 7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two IPsec framework components are valid options when configuring an IPsec VPN on a Cisco ISR router? (Choose two.) Integrity options include MD5 and RSA. IPsec protocol options include GRE and AH. Confidentiality options include DES, 3DES, and AES. Authentication options include pre-shared key and SHA. Diffie-Hellman options include DH1, DH2, and DH5.
8. With the Cisco Easy VPN feature, which process ensures that a static route is created on the Cisco Easy VPN Server for the internal IP address of each VPN client? Cisco Express Forwarding Network Access Control On-Demand Routing Reverse Path Forwarding Reverse Route Injection 9.
Refer to the exhibit. A site-to-site VPN is required from R1 to R3. The administrator is using the SDM Site-to-Site VPN Wizard on R1. Which IP address should the administrator enter in the highlighted field? 10.1.1.1 10.1.1.2 10.2.2.1 10.2.2.2 192.168.1.1 192.168.3.1 10. What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN? VPN client software must be installed.
A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured. The host must be in a stationary location. A web browser must be installed on the host. 11. What are two authentication methods that can be configured using the SDM Site-to-Site VPN Wizard? (Choose two.) MD5 SHA pre-shared keys encrypted nonces digital certificates 12. Which UDP port must be permitted on any IP interface used to exchange IKE information between security gateways? 400 500 600 700 13. Which requirement necessitates using the Step-by-Step option of the SDM Site-to-Site VPN wizard instead of the Quick Setup option? AES encryption is required. 3DES encryption is required. Pre-shared keys are to be used. The remote peer is a Cisco router. The remote peer IP address is unknown. 14. Which IPsec protocol should be selected when confidentiality is required? tunnel mode transport mode authentication header encapsulating security payload generic routing encapsulation 15. Which statement describes an important characteristic of a site-to-site VPN? It must be statically set up. It is ideally suited for use by mobile workers. It requires using a VPN client on the host PC. It is commonly implemented over dialup and cable modem networks.
After the initial connection is established, it can dynamically change connection information. 16.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen, which Easy VPN Server component is being configured? group policy transform set IKE proposal user authentication 17. A user launches Cisco VPN Client software to connect remotely to a VPN service. What does the user select before entering the username and password? the SSL connection type the IKE negotiation process the desired preconfigured VPN server site the Cisco Encryption Technology to be applied 18. What is the default IKE policy value for authentication? MD5 SHA RSA signatures pre-shared keys RSA encrypted sconces 19. When using ESP tunnel mode, which portion of the packet is not authenticated? ESP header
ESP trailer new IP header original IP header 20 .
Refer to the exhibit. Under the ACL Editor, which option is used to specify the traffic to be encrypted on a secure connection? Access Rules IPsec Rules Firewall Rules SDM Default Rules
21 .
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a GRE VPN tunnel between R1 and R2. Assuming the R2 GRE configuration is correct and based on the running configuration of R1, what must the administrator do to fix the problem? change the tunnel source interface to Fa0/0 change the tunnel destination to 192.168.5.1 change the tunnel IP address to 192.168.3.1 change the tunnel destination to 209.165.200.225 change the tunnel IP address to 209.165.201.1 22. How many bytes of overhead are added to each IP packet while it is transported through a GRE tunnel? 8 16 24 32

1. Which three statements describe ethics in network security? (Choose three.) principles put into action in place of laws foundations for current laws set of moral principles that govern civil behavior standard that is higher than the law set of regulations established by the judiciary system set of legal standards that specify enforceable actions when the law is broken 2. Which component of the security policy lists specific websites, newsgroups, or bandwidthintensive applications that are not allowed on the company network? remote access policies acceptable use policies incident handling procedures identification and authentication policies 3. What are the two components in the Cisco Security Management Suite? (Choose two.) Cisco Intrusion Prevention Cisco Network Admission Control Cisco Security Agent Cisco Security Manager Cisco Security MARS 4. Which statement could be expected to be included in a Code of Ethics that is related to IT and network security? Employees breaching the Code of Ethics will be prosecuted to the full extent of the law. Application of the Code of Ethics to use of the network is at the discretion of the employee. Employees with greater than 5 years of service can claim exemption from provisions of the Code of Ethics. The network is to be used by employees to provide diligent and competent services to the organization. 5. Which two Cisco Threat Control and Containment technologies address endpoint security? (Choose two.) Cisco Application Control Engine
Cisco Network Admission Control Cisco Security Agent Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System virtual private network 6. What are three key principles of a Cisco Self-Defending Network? (Choose three.) adaptability authentication collaboration confidentiality integration integrity 7. Which security services, available through the Cisco Self-Defending Network, include VPN access? secure communications threat control and containment operational control and policy management application control for infrastructure 8. What three areas should be considered when designing a network security policy? (Choose three.) remote access network maintenance service level agreement network quality of service network equipment provider identification and authentication 9. What are the two major elements of the Cisco Secure Communications solution? (Choose two.) secure communications for extranets secure communications for intranets secure communications for management secure communications for remote access secure communications for site-to-site connections 10. Which term describes a completely redundant backup facility, with almost identical equipment to the operational facility, that is maintained in the event of a disaster?
backup site cold site hot site reserve site 11. Which three detailed documents are used by security staff for an organization to implement the security policies? (Choose three.) asset inventory best practices guidelines procedures risk assessment standards 12. What is a feature of an effective network security training program? Participation in the network security training is voluntary. Employee groups are identified and the training is customized to their needs. All employees become trained in the design and implementation of secure networks. Training for all employees covers the full scope of security issues related to the organization. 13. What is a design feature of a secure network life cycle management process? Security is considered once the network is fully operational. Security is purposefully included in every phase of the system development life cycle. Security requirements are assessed and fully implemented in the initiation phase of the system development life cycle. Security cost and reporting considerations are determined in the operations and maintenance phase of the system development life cycle. 14. What are the two major components of a security awareness program? (Choose two.) awareness campaign security policy development security solution development self-defending network implementation training and education 15. Which three documents comprise the hierarchical structure of a comprehensive security policy for an organization? (Choose three.) backup policy
backup policy server policy incident policy governing policy end-user policy technical policy 16. When an organization implements the two-person control principle, how are tasks handled? A task requires two individuals who review and approve the work of each other. A task is broken down into two parts, and each part is assigned to a different individual. A task must be completed twice by two operators who must achieve the same results. A task is rotated among individuals within a team, each completing the entire task for a specific amount of time. 17. Which network security test requires a network administrator to launch an attack within the network? network scan password crack penetration test vulnerability scan 18. Which principle of the Cisco Self-Defending Network emphasizes that security should be built in? adapt collaborate integrate simplify
19.
Refer to the exhibit. When implementing the Cisco Self-Defending Network, which two technologies ensure confidentiality when referring to secure communications? (Choose two.) Cisco NAC appliances and Cisco Security Agent Cisco Security Manager Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System Intrusion Prevention System IPsec VPN SSL VPN 20. Which security document includes implementation details, usually with step-by-step instructions and graphics? guideline document standard document procedure document overview document 21. What is the primary focus of network operations security? to design and develop secure application code to support deployment and periodic maintenance of secure systems to conduct regular employee background checks
to reprimand personnel who do not adhere to security policies 22. Which type of analysis uses a mathematical model that assigns a monetary figure to the value of assets, the cost of threats being realized, and the cost of security implementations? Qualitative Risk Analysis Quantitative Risk Analysis Qualitative Asset Analysis Quantitative Continuity Analysis
Cisco CCNA Security, final exam.

1. What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command ? aaa new-model global configuration command. change to the configuration register. password encryption service. ability to access ROMmon. 2. What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device management? All vty ports are automatically configured for SSH to provide secure management. The general-purpose key size must be specified for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa general-keys mo command. The keys must be zeroized to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters. The generated keys can be used by SSH. 3. Which action best describe a MAC address spoofing attack? altering the MAC address of an attacking host to match that of a legitimate host. bombarding a switch with fake source MAC addresses. forcing the election of a rogue root bridge flooding the LAN with excessive traffic 4. What functionality is provided by Cisco SPAN in a switched network? It mitigates MAC address overflow attacks. It mirrors traffic that passes through a switch port or VLAN to another port for traffic analysis. It protects the switched network from receiving BPDUs on ports that should not be receiving them. It inspects voice protocols to ensure that SIP, SCCP, H.323, and MGCP requests conform to voice standards. It copies traffic that passes through a switch interface and sends the data directly to a syslog or SNMP server for analysis. 5. What precaution should be considered when the no service passwordrecovery command has been issued on an IOS device? The passwords in the configuration files are in clear text. IOS recovery requires a new system flash with the IOS image. When the password is lost, access to the device will be terminated. The device must use simple password authentication and cannot have user authentication.
6. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth. What is the effect of this setting? Authenticates a packet using the SHA algorithm only. Authenticates a packet by a string match of the username or community string. Authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method. Authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC MD5 or HMAC SHA algorithms and encrypts the packet using either the DES, 3DES or AES algorithms. 7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is implemented? remote-access GRE VPN remote-access IPsec VPN remote-access SSL VPN site-to-site GRE VPN site-to-site IPsec VPN site-to-site SSL VPN 8. Router(config)# ntp authenticate Router(config)# ntp authentication-key 42 md5 aNiceKey Router(config)# ntp trusted-key 2 Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the commands that are shown on R1? Authentication with the NTP master will be successful, and R1 will get the time from the NTP master. Authentication with the NTP master will be successful, but R1 will not get the time from the NTP master. Authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will get the time from the NTP master. Authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will not get the time from the NTP master.
9. What login enhancement configuration command helps successive login DoS attacks? exec-timeout login block-for privilege exec level service password-encryption 10. What are access attacks? attacks that prevent users from accessing network services attacks that modify or corrupt traffic as that traffic travels across the network attacks that exploit vulnerabilities to gain access to sensitive information attacks that involve the unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, and vulnerability 11. Nov 30 11:00:24 EST: %SYS-5-CONFIG-I: Configured from console by vty0 (10.64.2.2) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message? This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed This is an error message for which warning conditions exist. This is an error message indicating the system is unusable 12. Which three major subpolicies should comprise a comprehensive security policy that meets the security needs of a typical enterprise? (Choose three) end-user policies departmental policies governing policies human resource policies organizational policies technical policies 13. R1(config)# logging host 10.1.1.17 R1(config)# logging trap errors R1(config)# logging source-interface loopback 0 R1(config)# logging on Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the commands that are shown on router R1. At what trap level is the logging function set? 2 3 5 6
14. Which mitigation technique can help prevent MAC table overflow attacks? root guard BPDU guard storm control switchport security 15. An organization requires that individual users be authorized to issue specific Cisco IOS commands. Which AAA protocols support this requirement? TACACS+ because it separates authentication and authorization, allowing for more customization. RADIUS because it supports multiple protocols, including ARA and NetBEUI. TACACS+ because it supports extensive accounting on a per-user or per-group basis. RADIUS because it implements authentication and authorization as one process. 16.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IPS configuration that is provided, which statement is true? The signatures in all categories will be retired and not be used by the IPS. The signatures in all categories will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS. Only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS. The signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be retired and the remaining signatures will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS.
17.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided configuration, which traffic will be examined by the IPS that is configured on router R1? Traffic that is initiated from LAN 1 and LAN 2 http traffic that is initiated from LAN 1 return traffic from the web server traffic that is destined to LAN 1 and LAN 2 no traffic will be inspected 18.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring ZPF using the SDM Basic Firewall Configuration wizard. Which command is generated after the administrator selects the Finish button? zone security Out-zone on interface Fa0/0 zone security Out-zone on interface S0/0/0 zone member security Out-zone on interface Fa0/0 zone member security Out-zone on interface s0/0/0 19. Which two statements describe appropriate general guidelines for configuring and applying ACLs? (Choose two) Multiple ACLs per protocol and per direction can be applied to an interface. If an ACL contains no permit statements, all traffic is denied by default. The most specific ACL statements should be entered first because of the top-down sequential nature of ACLs. Standard ACLs are placed closest to the source, whereas Extended ACLs are placed closest to the destination. If a single ACL is to be applied to multiple interfaces, it must be configured with a unique number for each interface. 20. Which three statements are characteristics of the IPsec protocol? (Choose three) IPsec is a framework of open standards. IPsec is implemented at Layer 4 of the OSI model. IPsec ensures data integrity by using a hash algorithm. IPsec uses digital certificates to guarantee confidentiality IPsec is bound to specific encryption algorithms, such as 3DES and AES. IPsec authenticates users and devices that communicate independently. 21. Which three additional precautions should be taken when remote access is required in addition to local access of networking devices? (Choose three) A legal notice should not be displayed when access is obtained. All activity to the specified ports that are required for access should be unrestricted. All configuration activities should required the use of SSH or HTTPS. All administrative traffic should be dedicated to the management network. The number of failed login attempts should not be limited, but the time between attempts should. Packet filtering should be required so that only identified administration hosts and protocols can gain access. 22. Which statement describes a factor to be considered when configuring a zone-based policy firewall?
An interface can belong to multiple zones. The router always filters the traffic between interfaces in the same zone. The CBAC ip inspect command can coexist with ZPF as long as it is used on interfaces that are in the same security zones. A zone must be configured with the zone security global command before it can be used in the zone-member security command. 23. What is a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature? The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command. The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server. The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to the NVRAM. When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image is loaded from a secure FTP location 24. What are three common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three) Authenticating administrator access to the router console port, and vty ports Authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections Implementing public key infrastructure to authenticate and authorize IPsec VPN peers using digital certificates Implementing command authorization with TACACS+ Securing the router by locking down all unused services Tracking Cisco Netflow accounting statistics 25. When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the default action when the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded? The violation mode for the port is set to restrict. The MAC address table is cleared, and the new MAC address is entered into the table. The port remains enabled, but the bandwidth is throttled until the old MAC addresses are aged out. The port is shut down. 26. Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three) AH uses IP protocol 51. AH provides encryption and integrity. AH provides integrity and authentication. ESP uses UDP protocol 50. ESP requires both authentication and encryption. ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.
27. Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levels for assigning command authorization? (Choose three.) There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router. The root user must be assigned to each privilege level defined. Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users Views are required to define the CLI commands that each user can access. Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious process It is required that all 16 privilege levels be defined, whether they are used 28. Which Cisco IOS configuration option instructs the IPS to compile a signature category named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic? R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category all R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category all R1(config-ips-category-action)# enabled true R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# enabled true 29.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured router R1 as indicated. However, SDEE messages fail to log. Which solution corrects this problem? Issue the logging on command in global configuration. Issue the ip ips notify sdee command in global configuration. Issue the ip audit notify log command in global configuration. Issue the clear ip ips sdee events command to clear the SDEE buffer. 30. Which three principles are enabled by a Cisco Self-Defending Network? (Choose three.) adaptability collaboration
insulation integration mitigation scalability 31. What are two disadvantages of using network IPS?(Choose two.) Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful. Network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic. Network IPS is operating system-dependent and must be customized for each platform. Network IPS is unable to provide a clear indication of the extent to which the network is being attacked. Network IPS sensors are difficult to deploy whennew networks are added. 32. Which access list statement permits HTTP traffic that is sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 4300 and destined to host 192.168.30.10? access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 4300 access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq www access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.30.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 4300 33. Which type of SDM rule is created to govern the traffic that can enter and leave the network based on protocol and port number? NAC rule NAT rule IPsec rule access rule
34.
Refer to the exhibit. When configuring SSH on a router using SDM from the Configure menu, which two steps are required? (Choose two.) Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > SSH to generate the RSA keys. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > VTY to specify SSH as the input and output protocol. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Properties > Netflow to generate the RSA keys. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Properties > Logging to specify SSH as the input and output protocol. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > AAA to generate the RSA keys. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > Management Access to specify SSH as the input and output protocol 35.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct regarding the configuration on switch S1? (Choose two.) Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth. Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts and broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second. Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second.
Port Fa0/5 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth. Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts and multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of 2,000,000 packets per second. 36.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three things occur if a user attempts to log in four times within 10 seconds using an incorrect password? (Choose three.) Subsequent virtual login attempts from the user are blocked for 60 seconds. During the quiet mode, an administrator can virtually log in from any host on network 172.16.1.0/24. Subsequent console login attempts are blocked for 60 seconds. A message is generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user. During the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2. No user can log in virtually from any host for 60 seconds. 37. Which type of Layer 2 attack makes a host appear as the root bridge for a LAN? LAN storm MAC address spoofing MAC address table overflow STP manipulation VLAN attack 38. What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device management? All vty ports are automatically configured for SSH to provide secure management. The general-purpose key size must be specified for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa general-keys mo command. The keys must be zeroized to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters. The generated keys can be used by SSH. 39. An organization has mobile workers who usecorporate-owned laptops at customer sites to view inventory and place orders.Which type of VPN allows these workers to securely access all of theclient/server applications of the organization? clientless SSL VPN
remote-access IPsec VPN site-to-site IPsec VPN HTTPS-enabled SSL VPN 40. Which two guidelines relate to in-band networkmanagement? (Choose two.) Apply in-band management only to devices that must be managed on the production network. Implement separate network segments for the production network and the management network. Attach all network devices to the same management network. Use IPSec, SSH,or SSL 41. Which three commands are required to configure SSH ona Cisco router? (Choose three.) ip domain-name name in global configuration mode transport input ssh on a vty line no ip domain-lookup in global configuration mode passwordpassword on a vty line service password-encryption in global configuration mode crypto keygenerate rsa in global configuration mode 42. Anadministrator needs to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC commands. Which privilege command is used to create this custom account? privilege exec level 0 privilege exec level 1 privilege exec level 2 privilege exec level 15 43 .
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configureda standard ACL on R1 and applied it to interface serial 0/0/0 in the outbounddirection. What happens to traffic leaving interface serial 0/0/0 that does notmatch the configured ACL statements? The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address.
The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address and portnumber. The source IP address is checked and, if a match is not found, traffic isrouted out interface serial 0/0/1. The traffic is dropped 44. Which statement describes configuring ACLs to controlTelnet traffic destined to the router itself? The ACL must be applied to each vty line individually. The ACL is applied to the Telnet port with the ip access-group command. Apply the ACL to the vty lines without thein orout option required when applying ACLs to interfaces. The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in thein direction to prevent anunwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port. 45. Which three statements describe SSL-based VPNs? (Choose three.) A symmetric algorithms are used for authentication and key exchange. It is impossible to configure SSL and IPsec VPNs concurrently on the samerouter. Special-purpose client software is required on the client machine. Symmetric algorithms are used for bulk encryption. The authentication process uses hashing technologies. The application programming interface is used to extensively modify the SSLclient software. The primary restriction of SSL VPNs is that they are currently supported onlyin hardware. 46 .
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be obtained from the AAAconfiguration statements? The authentication method list used for Telnet is named ACCESS. The authentication method list used by the consoleport is named ACCESS. The local database is checked first whenauthenticating console and Telnet access to the router. If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, nousers can establish a Telnet session with
the router. If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, consoleaccess to the router can be authenticated using the local database. 47. Which two Cisco IPSmanagement and monitoring tools are examples of GUI-based, centrally managedIPS solutions? (Choose two.) Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager Cisco IPS Device Manager Cisco Router and Security Device Manager Cisco Security Manager Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System. 48 .
Refer to the exhibit.Which AAA function and protocol is in use in the network? The client is authorizing commands using the TACACS+protocol. The client is authorizing commands using the RADIUS protocol. The client is authenticating using the RADIUS protocol. The client is authenticating using the TACACS+protocol 49. Which three OSI layers can be filtered by a stateful firewall? (Choose three.) Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5
Layer 6 Layer 7 50 .
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screenshown, which two actions will the signature take if an attack is detected?(Choose two.) Reset the TCP connection to terminate the TCP flow. Drop the packet and all future packets from thisTCP flow. Generatean alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server. Drop the packet and permit remaining packets from this TCP flow. Create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address. 51. Which three switch security commands are required to enable port security on a portso that it will dynamically learn a single MAC address and disable the port if a host with any other MAC address is connected? (Choose three.) switchport mode access switchport mode trunk switchportport-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchportport-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security mac-addressmac-address 52. Whichstatement describes the SDM Security Audit wizard? After the wizard identifies the vulnerabilities, theSDM One-Step Lockdown feature must be used to make all security-relatedconfiguration changes. After the wizardidentifies the vulnerabilities, it automatically makes all securityrelatedconfiguration changes. The wizard autosenses the inside trusted and outside untrusted interfaces todetermine possible security problems that might exist.
The wizard is based on the Cisco IOS AutoSecure feature. The wizard is enabled using the Intrusion Prevention task. 53. Which component of AAA is used to determine which resources a user canaccess and which operations the user is allowed to perform? Auditing accounting authorization authentication 54. Which two protocols allow SDM to gather IPS alertsfrom a Cisco ISR router? (Choose two.) FTP HTTPS SDEE SSH Syslog TFTP 55 .
Refer to the exhibit. Which AAA command logs the activity of a PPP session? aaa accounting connection start-stop group radius aaa accounting connection start-stop group tacacs+ aaa accounting exec start-stop group radius aaa accounting exec start-stop group tacacs+ aaa accounting network start-stop group radius aaa accounting network start-stop group tacacs+ 56. What is a feature of the TACACS+ protocol? It combines authentication and authorization as oneprocess.
It encrypts theentire body of the packet for more secure communications. It utilizes UDP to provide more efficient packet transfer. It hides passwords during transmission using PAP and sends the rest of thepacket in plain text. 57 .
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the CBACconfiguration on router R1? R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip inspect INSIDE in R1(config-if)# ip access-group OUTBOUND in R1(config)# interface fa0/1 R1(config-if)# ip inspect INSIDE in R1(config-if)# ip access-group OUTBOUND in R1(config)# interface fa0/1 R1(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in R1(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE out R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in R1(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE in R1(config)#interface fa0/1 R1(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in R1(config-if)#ip access-group INSIDE in
58 .
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco IOS security feature is implemented onrouter R2? CBAC firewall reflexive ACL firewall zone-based policy firewall AAA access control firewall 59. Which Cisco IOS privileged EXEC command can be used to verify that theCisco IOS image and configuration files have been properly backed up and secured? Router# dir Router# show archive Router# show secure bootset Router# show flash 60. Which device supports the use of SPAN to enable monitoring of malicious activity? Cisco NAC Cisco IronPort Cisco Security Agent Cisco Catalyst switch 61. Which three statements describe zone-based policyfirewall rules that govern interface behavior and the traffic moving betweenzone member interfaces? (Choose three.) An interface can be assigned to multiple securityzones. Interfaces can be assigned to a zone before the zone is created. Pass, inspect,and drop options can only be applied between two zones. If traffic is to flow between all interfaces in arouter, each interface must be a member of a zone. Traffic is implicitly prevented from flowing by default among interfaces thatare members
of the same zone. To permit traffic to and from a zone member interface, a policy allowing orinspecting traffic must be configured between that zone and any other zone. 62.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen shown, which twoconclusions can be drawn about the IKE policy being configured? (Choose two.) It will use digital certificates for authentication. It will use apredefined key for authentication. It will use a very strong encryption algorithm. It will be the default policy with the highest priority. 63. The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is anexample of which of the five IPsec building blocks? authentication confidentiality Diffie-Hellman integrity nonrepudiation 64. Which statement describes the operation of the IKE protocol? It uses IPsec to establish the key exchange process. It uses sophisticated hashing algorithms to transmit keys directly across a network. It calculates shared keys based on the exchange of a series of data packets. It uses TCP port 50 to exchange IKE information between the security gateways
65. Which three types of views are available when configuring the Role-BasedCLI Access feature? (Choose three.) superuser view root view superview CLI view admin view config view 66. Which statement describes a MAC address table overflow attack? An attacker alters the MAC address in a frame to matchthe address of a target host. Frames flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. The attacking host broadcasts STP configuration and topology change BPDUs to force spanning-tree recalculations. A software tool floods a switch with frames containing randomly generated sourceand destination MAC and IP addresses. 67. When configuring a class map for zone-based policy firewall, how are thematch criteria applied when using the match-all parameter? Traffic must match all of the match criteria specified in the statement. Traffic must match the first criteria in the statement. Traffic must match at least one of the match criteria statements. Traffic must match according to an exclusive disjunction criteria. 68. Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levelsfor assigning command authorization? (Choose three.) There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router. The root user must be assigned to each privilege level defined. Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users. Views are required to define the CLI commands that each user can access. Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tediousprocess. It is required that all 16 privilege levels be defined, whether they are usedor not. 69. What is an important difference between network-based and host-basedintrusion prevention? Host-based IPS is more scalable than network-basedIPS. Host-based IPS can work in promiscuous mode or inline mode. Network-based IPS is better suited for inspection of SSL and TLS encrypted dataflows. Network-based IPS provides better protection against OS kernel-level attacks onhosts and servers.
Network-basedIPS can provide protection to hosts without the need of installing specializedsoftware on each one. 70.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show secure bootset command on router R1, which three conclusions can be drawn regarding Cisco IOS Resilience? (Choose three.) A copy of the Cisco IOS image file has been made. A copy of the router configuration file has been made. The Cisco IOS image file is hidden and cannot be copied, modified, or deleted. The Cisco IOS image filename will be listed when the show flash command isissued on R1. The copy tftp flash command was issued on R1. The secure boot-config command was issued on R1. 71. Which element ofthe Cisco Threat Control and Containment solution defends against attempts toattack servers by exploiting application and operating system vulnerabilities? threat control for email threat control for endpoints threat controlfor infrastructure threat control for systems
72.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM NTP Server Details screen, which two conclusions can be drawn from the information entered and check boxes checked? (Choose two.) NTPv1 is being configured. The IP address of the NTP server is 10.1.1.2. The IP address of the NTP client is 10.1.1.2. NTP messages will be sent and received on interface Serial0/0/0 for this router. NTP routing updates will be sent and received on interface Serial0/0/0 of the NTP server. 73. Which two statements match a type of attack with an appropriate example?(Choose two.) To conduct an access attack, an attacker uses L0phtCrack to obtain a Windows server password. To conduct an access attack, an attacker uses Wireshark to capture interesting network traffic. To conduct a reconnaissance attack, an attacker initiates a ping of death attack to a targeted server. To conduct a DoS attack, an attacker uses handler systems and zombies to obtain a Windows server password. To conducta DoS attack, an attacker initiates a smurf attack by sending a large number ofICMP requests to directed broadcast addresses. To conduct a reconnaissance attack, an attacker creates a TCP SYN flood causing the
server to spawn many half-open connections and become unresponsive. 74. The use of which two options are required for IPsec operation? (Choosetwo.) AH protocols for encryption and authentication Diffie-Hellmanto establish a shared-secret key IKE to negotiate the SA PKI for pre-shared-key authentication SHA for encryption 75. Which three security services are provided by digital signatures? (Choose three.) authenticatesthe source authenticates the destination guarantees data has not changed in transit provides nonrepudiation of transactions provides nonrepudiation using HMAC functions provides confidentiality of digitally signed data 76. Which three statements should be considered when applying ACLs to aCisco router? (Choose three.) Place generic ACL entries at the top of the ACL. Place more specific ACL entries at the top of the ACL. Router-generated packets pass through ACLs on the router without filtering. ACLs always search for the most specific entry before taking any filtering action. A maximum of three IP access lists can be assigned to an interface perdirection (in or out). An access list applied to any interface without a configured ACL allows all traffic to pass. 77. Which consideration is important when implementing syslog in a network? Enable the highest level of syslog available to ensurelogging of all possible event messages. Log all messages to the system buffer so that they can be displayed whenaccessing the router. Synchronizeclocks on all network devices with a protocol such as Network Time Protocol. UseSSH to access syslog information.

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