1. Eminent Author Amar Kant writes in which of the following languages?

(A) Hindi

(B) Urdu

(C) Oriya

(D) Tamil

(E) Punjabi

2. Vijender Singh is associated with which one of the following games?

(A) Shooting

(B) Boxing

(C) Athletics

(D) Badminton

(E) None of these

3. Which of the following is a private bank in India?

(A) Oriental Bank of Commerce

(B) Corporation Bank

(C) South Indian Bank

(D) Syndicate Bank

(E) Bank of Maharashtra

4. In which one of the following countries does river Thames flow?

(A) Chile

(B) Argentina

(C) Ireland

(D) United Kingdom

(E) Russia

5. Golfer Jeev Milkha Singh plays for which one of the following countries?

(A) USA

(B) India

(C) Germany

(D) Canada

(E) Paksitan 1. Computer uses the .......... number system to store data and perform calculations.

(1) binary

(2) octal

(3) decimal

(4) hexadecimal

(5) None of these

2. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is-

(1) Memory-only

(2) Write-only

(3) Once-only

(4) Run-only

(5) Read-only

3. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(1) CTRL + A

(2) ALT + F5

(3) SHIFT + A

(4) CTRL + K

(5) CTRL + H

4. .......... are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

(1) Phishing

(2) Computer viruses

(3) Spyware scams

(4) Viruses

(5) None of the above

5. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of-

(1) control

(2) output

(3) processing

(4) feedback

(5) input Directions-(Q.1-5) What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions? 1. 52 x 41 x 5 - 172 - 75 = ? (A) 69 (B) 61 (C) 71 (D) 79 (E) None of these 2. (2.25)2 (3.375)4 x (1.5)5 = (1.5)?-7 (A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 0

(E) None of these 3. (5 - 6)2 + (3 + 10)2 = (?)3 -40 (A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 6 (E) None of these 4. (125.44 x 85 8) - 11 = (?)2 3 (A) 26 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 18 (E) 6 5. 68% of 2916 x 25 = ? + 189 (A) 728 (B) 718 (C) 729 (D) 739 (E) None of these 1. The positions of the first and the fourth letters of the word PLANET are interchanged; similarly, the positions of the second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is fourth from the left according to the English alphabetical order? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three

(5) Four

2. The positions of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word WORTHY is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REASON, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

4. 'Writing' is related to 'Pen' in the same way as _____ ? (1) 'Singing' is related to 'Music' (2) 'Stitching' is related to 'Needle' (3) 'Dancing' is related to 'Exercise' (4) 'Carpenter' is related to 'Tools' (5) 'Paper' is related to 'Book' 5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, third, eighth and ninth letters of the word 'CONFLICTED', which would be the second letter of the word from the left? If more than one such word can be formed, give 'II: as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give 'z' as your answer.

(1) A (2) T (3) 0 (4) N (5) Z Directions (Q. 1-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain , words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate themwhile answering some of the questions.

It was in the offing. With shortages mounting across the board for water as they are for energy, it was only inevitable that the Central government would be stirred into starting a Bureau of Water Efficiency (BWE), much like the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) that was launched some years ago.

Early reports suggest that the draft norms for various sectors consuming water will be created by the BWE soon. The alarm bells have been ringing for some years now. Water availability per capita in India has fallen from about 5 million litres in the 1950s to 1.3 million litres in 2010-that's a staggering 75 per cent drop in 50 years. Nearly 60 percent of India's aquifers have slumped to critical levels injust the last 15 years. Thanks to the rate at which borewells are being plunged in every city with no law to ban such extraction, groundwater tables have depleted alarmingly.

The BEE's efforts in the last seven years have only been cosmetic. The bureau has looked at efficiency rating systems for white goods in the domestic sector and has not paid attention to the massive consumption of energy in metals manufacture, paper and textiles. These sectors are very intense in both energy and water consumption. But very little attention has been paid to the water and energy used per tonne of steel or cement or aluminium that we buy, and without significant changes in these areas, the overall situation is unlikely to change.

Use of water is inextricably interlinked with energy. One does not exist without the other. The BWE should steer clear of the early mistakes of BEE-of focusing on the 'softer targets' in the domestic sector. Nearly 80 per cent of fresh water is used by agriculture, with industry coming a close second. The domestic sector's consumption of fresh water is in single digit. So, the BWE's priority should be to look at measures

that will get farmers and industrialists to follow good practices in water use. Water resources have to be made, by law, an indivisible national asset. The protection and withdrawal of this resource as well as its sustainable development are of general importance and, therefore, in the public interest. This will mean that individuals and organisations may own land but not water or the other resources that lie below the first 20 metres of the surface of those lands. Drilling of borewells into such 'national assets' wiil have to be banned, or at the very least they must be regulated. What would be more sensible for the new water bureau to do would be to look at some of the low-hanging fruits that can be plucked, and pretty quickly, with laws that can emanate from the Centre, without the risk of either dilution or inaction from state administrations. The other tactical approach that the BWE can adopt is to devise a policy that addresses the serious water challenge in industry segments across a swathe of companies: this will be easier-than taking on the more disparate domestic sector which hurts the water crisis less than industry. Implementing a law is more feasible when the concentration is dense and identifiable. Industry offers this advantage more than the domestic or the commercial sector of hotels and offices.

As for agriculture, though the country's water requirement is as high as 80 per cent, the growing of water within the loop in agriculture de-risks the challenge of any perceived deficit. Rice and wheat, sugarcane are crops that need water-logging, which ensures groundwater restoration. Surface water evaporation doesn't amount to any more than 7-8 per cent and only strengthens precipitation and rainfall. Agriculture and water need is not quite as much a threat as industry and domestic sectors that account for the rest of the 20 per cent.

The primary challenge in industry and the building sector is that no conscious legal measures have been enacted that stipulate 'growing your own water' with measures that will 'put all water in a loop' in any residential or commercial building. This involves treating all used water to a grade that it can be 'upcycled' for use in flush tanks and for gardens across all our cities with the polluter owning the responsibility for treating and for reuse. The drop in fresh water demand can be dramatic with such upcyole, reuse and recycle of treated water. Water by itself, in industry and the domestic sector, is not as much a challenge as pollution of water. Not enough measures exist yet to ensure that such polluters shift the water back for reuse. If legislation can ensure that water is treated and reused for specific purposes within industry as well as in the domestic sector, this will make all the difference to the crisis on fresh water.

So is the case in industry, especially in sectors like textiles, aluminium and steel. Agriculture offers us the amusing irony of the educated urbanites dependent on

cereals iike rice and wheat that consume 4000 litres of water for every kilogramme, while the farmer lives on the more nutritious millets that consume less than half the quantity. Sugarcane consumes as much as 12,000 litres of water for a kilo of cane that you buy!

A listing of such correlations of water used by every product that we use in our daily lives will make much better sense than any elaborate rating system from the newly formed BWE. Such sensitising with concerted awareness campaigns that the new Bureau drives will impact the urban consumer more than all the research findings that experts can present. What is important for us is to understand the life-cycle impact in a way that we see the connect between a product that we use and the resources it utilises up to the point where we bring the visible connect to destruction of natural resources of our ecosystems.

1. How, according to the author, can the bureau sensitise the urban consumer about careful utilisation of water?

(1) By encouraging them to consume more rice instead of millets daily and, thereby, reduce the amount of water consumption

(2) By providing them more insight into the water consumption cycle of the textile, aluminium and steel industries

(3) By making them aware ofthe linkages between water consumption for daily activities and the resource utilization and subsequent ecological destruction associated with it

(4) By publishing research findings of experts in popular media whereby people gain awareness on the impact of water misuse

(5) By conducting elaborate drives which notify the urban population about the penalties levied on misuse of water resources

2. Why, according to the author, is the water consumption for agricultural activities the least risky?

(1) The proportion of water consumed for agricultural activities is much less as compared to that consumed for domestic and industrial purposes.

(2) Most farmers are aware of the popular methods of water conservation and hence do not allow wastage of water.

(3) Water is fairly recycled through groundwater restoration due to water-logging and surface water evaporation.

(4) Farmers in India mostly cultivate crops that require less amount of water.

(5) None of these

3. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate , title for the passage?

(1) Water Challenges in the New Millennium

(2) The Bureau of Water Efficiency vs the Bureau of Energy Efficiency

(3) Unchecked Urban Consumption of Water

(4) Challenges of the Agricultural Sector and Water Resources

(5) The Route to Conservation of Water Resources

4. What does 'low-hanging fruits that can be plucked, and pretty quickly' mean in the context of the passage?

(1) The bureau should employ the cheapest methods possible to effectively control the current situation of improper usage of water resources.

(2) The bureau should target the industrial sector as well as the domestic sector to reduce water wastage.

(3) The bureau should target the agricultural sector only for producing quick results in reducing wastage of water.

(4) The bureau should ensure that all the state officials concerned with the measures are actively involved.

(5) The bureau should start with adopting measures which are simple to execute and produce immediate results in reducing water wastage.

5. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the indicationls of a water crisis?

(A) Many agrarian areas in the country are facing a drought-like situation.

(B) Almost three-fifths of the naturally available water has been reduced to a very critical level in a relatively short span of time.

(C) There has been a significant drop in the availability of water over the past fifty years.

(1) Only (B)

(2) Only (A) and (C)

(3) Only (C)

(4) Only (B) and (C)

(5) All (A), (B) and (C) 1) This agency issued guidelines on distance marketing of products on 6 April 2011 to protect the interest of people who buy policies over phone or Internet. Identify the agency. a. SEBI b. IRDA c. TRAI d. DoT 2) In Indias first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.

a. Tata Steel b. Pantallons Retail c. RIL d. Maruti Suzuki 3) Which of the following Indian cricket players took the highest number of wickets in the recently concluded ICC World Cup 2011 along with Pakistans Shahid Afridi? a. Yuvraj Singh b. Zaheer Khan c. Munaf Patel d. Harbhajan Singh

4) Union Sports Ministry on 6 April 2011 formed a committee to fine-tune the draft National Sports Development Bill. Who is heading the committee? a. Justice Mukul Mudgal b. Justice Tej Pratap Singh Mann c. Justice Gurdev Singh d. Justice Jaswant Singh Phogat 5) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australias ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010? a. Shane Watson b. Simon Katich c. Mitchell Johnson d. Sachin Tendulkar 6) Record food grain production helped to reduce food inflation to a four month low for the week ending 26 March 2011. What was the inflation percentage for the week? a. 9.18% b. 9.25% c. 9.21% d. 9.36% 7) Praveen Kumar Tripathi took over as the Chief Secretary of which of the following governments on 4 April 2011? a. Delhi Government b. Haryana Government c. Uttar Pradesh Government d. Uttarakhand Government 8) The Union Government gifted a Kendriya Vidyalaya to a nondescript village Indrapura to which of the following Indian states? a. Bihar b. Odisha

c. Rajasthan d. Madhya Pradesh 9) The Supreme Court on 5 April 2011 passed an order to lift iron export ban imposed by which of the following Indian states on 26 July 2010 and also ordered it to implement the new rules for regulating iron ore mining and transportation? a. Tamil Nadu b. Andhra Pradesh c. Karnataka d. Odisha 10) To enhance credit worthiness of economically weaker sections and LIG households, a Mortgage Risk Guarantee Fund was announced to be created under which of the following scheme or Yojana? a. Rajiv Awas Yojana b. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana c. Indira Awas Yojana d. Mahatama Gandhi NREGA 11) Which agency issued guidelines on distance marketing of products on 6 April 2011 to protect the interest of people who buy policies over phone or Internet? a. SEBI b. IRDA c. TRAI d. DoT 12) Buyer's Credit was launched by the Commerce and Industry Minister, Anand Sharma, on 6 April 2011 to boost project exports from India. Under which of the following was Buyers Credit launched? a. National Export Insurance Account b. Export-Import Bank of India c. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India d. Reserve Bank of India

13) Read the two statements mentioned with regard to the budgetary allocations for addressing environmental concerns. 1. The budget proposed that the solar lantern used in far-flung villages will attract no duty from 10 per cent charged earlier. 2. To provide green and clean transportation for the masses, National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched in the year 2011 in collaboration with all stakeholders. Which of them is true? a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 & 2 d. None of the above 14) 21 year old Marjan Kalhor is the first Iranian woman to have entered an Olympic event. She is a participant in the 2010 Winter Olympics that began in Vancouver on 12 Feb 2010. Which sport is she associated with? a. Ski b. Shot put c. Cycling d. Bobsleigh 15) With his victory in the mens large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson. a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland) b. Ahonen Janne (Finland) c. Alexander Nicholas (USA) d. Bardal Anders (Norway) 16) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in rollout of services in these three circles? a. Sistema Shyam Teleservices b. Tata Teleservices

c. Reliance d. BSNL 17) Which Italian luxury sports car makers on 6 April 2011 announced its entry into the Indian market where it will sell its high-performance cars priced between Rs1.20 crore and Rs1.43 crore? a. Maserati b. Bentley c. Aston Martin d. Maybach 18) Who did HDFC Bank, the country's second-largest private sector lender appoint in March 2011 to head its investment banking division? a. Rakesh Singh b. Charul Madan c. Gaurav Khungar d. Atul Singh 19) Gangaur, a festival which marks the union of Lord Shiva and his consort, Goddess Parvati is celebrated for 18 days from the day after Holi in which of the following Indian states? a. Rajasthan b. Karnataka c. Tamil Nadu d. Uttaranchal 20) Read the following statements with regard to the allocation in the Educational sector as proposed by Union Budget 2011-12. 1. For Sarva Siksha Abhiyan the allocation was increased by 40 percent to 21000 crore rupees. 2. All institutions of higher learning will be connected through optical fibers by March 2012. 3. 500 crore rupees was proposed to be provided for national skill development fund.

4. For the needy scheduled castes ad scheduled tribe candidates studying in class-IX and Xth pre-matric scholarship scheme was proposed to be introduced. Which of the above mentioned statements is not true? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 & 4 d. 4 21) Scientists recently developed a computer that could be controlled by the power of thought. It would help people unable to speak or move. What is the name of the technology which they used to develop this kind of computer? a. electrocortiography b. symbian C++ c. java d. flash lite 22) Which of the following companies bought the Pringles brand from Procter & Gamble Co for $1.5 billion? a. Diamond Foods Inc b. PepsiCo's Frito-Lay c. Emerald Nuts d. Kettle Potato Chips 23) Online marketplace eBay India, in association with leading apparel brand Reebok auctioned a bat autographed by Indian cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni. The proceeds of the auction will go to which of the following NGOs? a. Oxfem b. CRY c. All Bengal Womens Union d. UNEM 24) Which Indian hockey player was in April 2011 named captain of the Indian Hockey team the upcoming Sultan Azlan Shah Cup scheduled to be played in Malaysia from 515 May 2011?

a. Arjun Halappa b. Rajpal Singh c. Bharat Kumar Chetri d. Mohd. Amir Khan 25) Under the Godfrey Phillips Zonal Bravery Awards given away by the former ruler of Jodhpur, Gaj Singh in Jaipur on 5 April 2011, which of the following NGOs was honoured with the Amodhini Award of Rs.1 lakh? a. Udyogini b. Charities Aid Foundation c. CRY d. Akhil Bharatiya Vanavasi Kalyan Ashram 26) The Basic Customs Duty exemption was proposed to be extended to which of the following sectors? a. art and antiquities for exhibition or display in private art galleries b. Cinematographic film, factory-built ambulances c. syringes and needles d. agricultural machinery 27) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Where is the Pacific Tsunami Warning System headquartered? a. Hawai b. Tokyo c. Manila d. Jakarta 28) Which of the following companies announced on 6 April 2011 that it won contract to provide broadband internet connectivity to Indian Railways through state-run RailTel Corp of India Ltd? a. DEL b. IBM

c. Infosys d. HCL Infosystems 29) Which super luxury carmaker on 7 April 2011 unveiled Continental GT sedan in India? a. Ferrati b. Bentley c. Maybach d. Maserati 30) What amount of money was allocated for Bharat Nirman? a. 1000 crore b. 58000 crore c. 55438 crore d. 14362 crore 31) Who defeated Tamarine Tanasugarn on 15 Feb 2010 to retain the Pattaya Open title? a. Vera Zvonareva of Russia b. Sabine Lisicki of Germany, c. Ayumi Morita of Japan d. Kimiko Date Krumm of Japan 32) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of japan. What are the possible factors which can cause Tsunami? i)An Earthquake ii) A landslide iii) A volcanic eruption or explosion iv) Impact by a meteorite Please choose the right option a. i, ii, iii and iv

b. i and ii only c. ii and iii only d. i and iv only 33) Which of the following Indian cricket is the most heavily insured player for the forthcoming Indian Premier League (IPL) 4 T-20 tournament which begins on 8 April 2011? a. Sachin Tendulkar b. Yuvraj Singh c. M S Dhoni d. Virender Sehwag 34) The Union Budget for 2011-12 proposed lowering of qualifying age for tax relief for senior citizens from 65 years to _? a. 55 b. 58 c. 60 d. 62 35) Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from 1 lakh 60 to _? a. 1 lakh 80 thousand b. 1 lakh 90 thousand c. 2 lakh d. 2 lakh 20 thousand 36) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption? a. Lokpal Bill b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill

37) Who became the world number one badminton player? a. Saina Nehwal b. Wang Xin c. Sania Mirza d. Wang Shixian 38) When is the National Youth Day observed? a. January 14 b. February 14 c. August 31 d. January 12 39) What is Tejas? a. Spacecraft b. Missile c. Submarine d. Light combat aircraft 40) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification? a. Sharmila Tagore b. Karan Johar c. Nafisa Ali d. Om Puri e. None of these 41) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of a. Israel b. Iran c. Afghanistan d. Indonesia

42) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)? a. AP Singh b. Arun Shourie c. Sanjeev Tripathi d. BK Gupta 43) According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out. i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations. ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. Both i and ii b. Neither I and ii c. Only i d. Only ii 44) Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged? a. Gujarat b. Bihar c. Haryana d. Madhya Pradesh 45) Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010? a. Rafael Nadal b. Andy Murray c. Fred Perry d. Rod Laver

46) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onirs I AM? a. Nandita Das b. Juhi Chawla c. Tabu d. Konkona Sen Sharma 47) In tiger census 2010, i) Pugmarks were used as the only indicator of tiger numbers. ii) An advanced Scientific process was adopted which included video trapping and use of satellite data. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? Choose the right option: a. Only i is incorrect b. Only ii is incorrect c. Both i and ii are incorrect d. Both i and ii are not incorrect 48) India defeated Pakistan by 29 runs in the semi finals of the ICC World Cup 2011 played at Mohali. Who was declared man of the match of the high powered game? a. Saeed Ajmal b. Sachin Tendulkar c. Munaf Patel d. Wahab Riaz 49) Which of the following bodies put off indefinitely the new rules governing unwanted telemarketing calls which were supposed to be implemented from 21 March 2011? a. Department of Telecommunication (DoT) b. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) c. Indian Ministry of communication & Technology d. HRD Ministry

50) The Indian government in March 2011 conferred the Miniratna status on which of the following PSUs? a. National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC) b. Air India Charters Ltd c. Cement Corporation of India d. HMT Machine Tools Ltd Answers: 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) A

1. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration? (1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse (2) The length of the mouse cord (3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with (4) The number of buttons the mouse has (5) None of these

Ans: (3)

2. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device? (1) Through a power cable (2) From an external power supply (3) Directly from the computer's power supply (4) Through the USB cable (5) None of these

Ans: (4)

3. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except (1) each computer must have a network card (2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices (3) there must be at least one connecting device (4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information (5) None of these

Ans: (2)

4. The.data mining technique derives rules from real-world case examples. (1) Rule discover (2) Signal processing (3) Neural nets (4) Case-based reasoning (5) None of these

Ans: (3)

5. .are used to identify a user who returns to a Website. (1) Cookies (2) Plug-ins (3) Scripts (4) ASPs

(5) None of these

Ans: (1) IBPS CWE Clerical Cadre Solved Sample Paper 2011: General Awarenes (1) Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank? (1) Providing project finance (2) Selling Mutual Funds (3) Deciding policy rates like CRR, Repo Rates/SLR etc. (4) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers (5) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances etc. Ans: (3) 2. An IPO is (1). initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders (2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public (3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company (4) a book building process (5) none of these Ans: (1) 3. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on(1) the age of the company (2) the location of the company (3) the activity undertaken-by the company (4) the credibility and the valuation of the company (5) the existing profitability of the company Ans: (4) 4. Sub Prime Lending' is a term applied to the loans made to-

(1) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history (2) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets (3) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years (4) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank (5) None of these Ans: (1) 5. Which regulatory body on 16 August 2011 suggested that the Centre and the State governments should come out with a regulatory framework for the realty sector to protect consumers from unfair trade practices? (1) IRDA (2) SEBI (3) FICCI (4)Assocham (5) CCI Answer: (5)

1. BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to 1) UY 2) UX 3) UZ 4) VY 5) None of these Ans. 1 (2) 2. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest? 1) P 2) T 3) R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

Ans. 2 (3) 3. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, 'She is the daughter of my grandmother's only child.' How is the girl related to Nidhi? 1) Sister 2) Self 3) Cousin sister 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.3 (4) 4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code? 1) 8%o51 2) 85%8 3) 8@51 4) 8%31 5) None of these Ans.4 (1) 5. In a certain code language 'how many books' is written as 'sa da na' and 'many more days' is written as 'ka pa da'. How is 'books' written in that code language? 1) sa 2) na 3) sa or na 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.5 (3) 6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ'. How is SANCTION written in that code? 1) TBODMNHS 2) DOBTMNHS 3) TBODSHNM 4) DOBTOPJU 5) None of these

Ans.6 (2) 7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement? 1) 1 2) 5 3) 7 4) 9 5) None of these Ans.7 (1) 8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans. 8 (3) 9. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans. 9 (2) 10. The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number? 1) None

2) 3) 4) 5)

One Two Three More than three

Ans.10 (3) 11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W's position from the right end of the row? 1) Eleventh 2) Tenth 3) Twelfth 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.11 (1) Directions (Q. 12-14): Study the following, information carefully and answer the questions, which follow: Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organised in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not organised on the first day. Play B was organised on the next day on which play C was organised. Play A was organised on Tuesday. 12. On which day was play B organised? 1) Thursday 2) Friday 3) Wednesday 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.12 (2) 13. On which day was no play organised? 1) Monday 2) Wednesday 3) Thursday 4) Data inadequate

5) None of these Ans.13 (1) 14. Which play was organised on Wednesday? 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.14 (3) 15. If means '+'; 'x' means '-',; '+' means 'x and '-' means '', then 24 -46 x3+4 =? 1) 36 2) 24 3) 8 4) 4 5) None of these Ans.15 (5) 16. What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498 1) 7 2) 1 3) 2 4) 5 5) None of these Ans.16 (2) 17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement? 1) Q 2) K 3) P

4) B 5) None of these Ans.17 (3) 18. Meena correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after eighteenth May but before twentysecond May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father's Birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father's birthday? 1) Twentieth 2) Nineteenth 3) Eighteenth 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Ans.18 (5) Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: (i) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'. (ii) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'. (iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'. (iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'. 19. Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of T? 1) MK+T 2) M x K+T 3) M x K-T 4) M K - T 5) None of these Ans.19 (4) 20. Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather of T? 1) H +J+T 2) T x K + H 3) H +J x T 4) H - J + T 5) None of these

Ans.20 (1) Directions (Q. 21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below: 832 965 748 259 614 21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number? 1) 2 2) 5 3) 8 4) 9 5) 4 Ans. 21 (5) 22. Which .of the following is the sum of the first' and the second digits of the highest number? 1) 11 2) 15 3) 10 4) 7 5) None of these Ans.22 (2) 23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number? 1) 5 2) 1 3) 6 4) 4 5) 3 Ans.23 (1) 24. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number? 1) 8

2) 3) 4) 5)

6 7 5 None of these

Ans.24 (5) 25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number? 1) 6 2) 4 3) 1 4) 7 5) None of these Ans.25 (3) Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 26. Statements:All stones are poles. All poles are desks. Some desks are nets. All nets are days. Conclusions: I. Some nets are stones. II.Some desks are stones. III.Some days are desks. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) Only I and II follow Only I and III follow Only II and III follow All I, II and III follow None of these

Ans.26 (3)

27. Statements: Some months are weeks. Some weeks are years. All years are buses. All buses are trains. Conclusions: I. Some trains are weeks. II. Some buses are weeks. III.Some trains are months. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only II and III follow 3) Only I and III follow 4) All, I, II and III follow 5) None of these Ans.27 (1) 28. Statements: Some stations are rails. All rails are rivers. All rivers are papers. Some papers are cards. Conclusions: I. Some cards are stations. II.Some rivers are stations. III. Some cards are rivers. 1) Norte follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows 4) Only III follows 5) Only II and III follow Ans.28 (3) 29. Statements: All windows are roofs. All roofs are glasses. Some glasses are plates. Some plates are carpets. Conclusions: I. Some plates are windows. II. Some glasses are windows. III. Some carpets are roofs. 1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows

4) Only III follows 5) Only I and II follow Ans.29 (3) 30. Statements: All trees are jungles. All jungles are houses. All houses are buildings. All buildings are villages. Conclusions: I. Some villages are houses. II. Some buildings are jungles. III. Some houses are trees. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only II and III follow 3) Only I and III follow 4) All I, II and III follow 5) None of these Ans.30 (4) 31. Statements: Some books are calendars. No calendar is a paper. All papers are pencils. Some pencils are chairs. Conclusions: I. Some chairs are books. II. No chair is a book. III. Some pencils are calendars. 1) None follows 2) Only either I or II follows 3) Only either I or II and III follow 4) Only III follows 5) Only n follows Ans.31 (2) Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below: M5%PU2A$43ZEK 19QRI@D7F88WN6#VJ*Y 32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the

right end of the above arrangement? 1) N 2) $ 3)4 4) W 5) None of these Ans.32 (1) 33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement? 1) U 2) D 3) E 4) 5) None of these Ans.33 (5) 34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans.34 (3) 35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a number? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans.35 (3)

36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) P5A 2) 4AE 3) QIK 4) F8@ 5) VN* Ans.36 (5) 37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end? 1) E 2) K 3) Z 4) D 5) None of these Ans.37 (5) Directions (Q. 38-43): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie 'None of these' , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 9 8 % 8 1 4 2 $ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE G F J H B D. N R Q T U . Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit. (ii) If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged. (iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as the code for the symbol. (iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z. 38. 9@374% 1) EIMQBF 2) FBQMIE

3) ZIMQBZ 4) FIMQBF 5) None of these Ans.38 (4) 39. 29$#1 1) HEANRD 2) DEANRH 3) DEANRD 4) HEANRH 5) None of these Ans.39 (1) 40. *479@ 1) UBQEIA 2) ZBQEIA 3) ZBQEIZ 4) ABQEIU 5) None of these Ans.40 (3) 41. % 286$3 1) FDGTNF 2) FDGTNM 3) FGDTNM 4) WGTNZ 5) None of these Ans.41 (2) 42. 54#*@6 1) PBURIT 2) PBRUIP 3) TBRUIP 4) TBRUIT 5) None of these

Ans.42 (5) 43. $6394 1) NTMAEN 2) BTMAEB 3) ZTMAEB 4) NTMAEB 5) None of these Ans.43 (2) Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the right of A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of H. D is second to the right of G 44. Who is to the immediate left of D? 1) H 2) C 3) G 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.44 (2) 45. Who is second to the right of E? 1) B 2) G 3) H 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.45 (1) 46. Who is third to the left of B? 1) E 2) H 3) F 4) Data inadequate

5) None of these Ans.46 (5) 47. What is the position of G with respect to A? 1) Third to the left 2) Third to the right 3) Fifth to the left 4) Fourth to the right 5) Fifth to the right Ans.47 (4) 48. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons? 1) BGC 2) EFB 3) DAH 4) AEF 5) GCD Ans.48 (3) Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the symbols @, , $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. 'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'. 'P # Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'. 'P Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'. 'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q'. Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 49. Statements: D # K K @ T, T $ M,. M '% .T Conclusions: I. J @ T II. J%T III. D@T 1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true

3) Only either I or II is true 4) Only IV is true 5) Only either I or II and III are true Ans.49 (5) 50. Statements: R@N,ND, O$J, J#B Conclusions: I. R @ J II. J@N III. B@D 1) None is true 2) Only I is true 3) Only II is true 4) Only III is true 5) Only I and III are true Ans.50 (3) 51. Statements: W B, B % V, V $ R, R@K Conclusions: I. K B II. R#B III.V@W 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) AII I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans.51 (3) 52. Statements: H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D R Conclusions: I. D M II. R@M III. H$T 1) None is true 2) Only I is true 3) Only II is true 4) Only III is true 5) Only I and II are true

Ans.52 (2) 53. Statements: B % J, J @ K, K T, T $ F Conclusions: I. F @ K II. B@K III.B@F 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans.53 (1) 54. Statements: F # B, B $ M, M @ K, J< e N Conclusions: I. N @ M II. F$M III. KB 1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only III is true 4) Only II and III are true 5) None is true Ans.54 (5) Directions (55-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38 Step I : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38 Step II : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38 Step III : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38 Step IV : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then Step V : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then Step VI : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18 and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. 55. Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Five 2) Six 3) Four 4) Seven 5) None of these Ans.55 (2) 56. Step II of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) None of these Ans.56 (2) 57. Step III of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will definitely be the input? 1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34 2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79 3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Ans.57 (4) 58. Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last? 1) VI 2) VII 3) VIII 4) IX 5) None of these

Ans.58 (1) 59. Step II of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step VI? 1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15 2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there 3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there 4) There will be no such step 5) None of these Ans.59 (4) 60. Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but one? 1) IX 2) VIII 3) VII 4) VI 5) None of these Ans.60 (5) Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager-HR in an organisation. The candidate must (i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05-2010. (ii) be postgraduate in Personnel Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks. (iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation. (iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her organisation sometime during the past three years. (v) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the selection process. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at (A) (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per cent marks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

(B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years' post qualification work experience out of which at least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to Chairman. In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-0572010. Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected. Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected. Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision. Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director. Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman. 61. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully implemented HR-System last year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the selection process. 62. Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the past twenty years out of which ten years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent marks in the selection process. 63. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of which twelve years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with 55 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the last two years. 64. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two years back. 65. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the

past sixteen years, out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year. 66. Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 66 per cent marks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation during the last two years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born on 14th December 1971. 67. Akash Shastri was born on 12th April 1967. He has been. working for the past sixteen years, out of which six years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process. 68. Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th. 69. Sunetra Govil was born on 5th April 1964. She has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation. She has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. She has also secured 69 per cent marks in her post- graduation in Personnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation last year. 70. Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his post- graduation in HR with 67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in the Selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years. Answers :(Q.61-70) Q.No. Person (i) (ii)/(A) (iii)/(B) (iv) (V) Ans 61. Pranab 1

62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

Sheetal 3 Prabir () 4 Shailesh () 5 Navin 2 Meera 2 Akash () 4 Shekhar 1 Sunetra 3 Mohit () 5

Directions (Q. 71-75): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect. Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect. Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes. Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes. Mark answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause. 71. (A) The Govt has marginally increased the procurement price of wheat for the current crop. (B) The current wheat crop is expected to be twenty per cent more than the previous wheat crop. Ans.71 (1) 72. (A) The municipal authority demolished the tea stall located on the footpath on the busy road. (B) A large number of people have been taking their evening tea at the tea stall located on the footpath on the main road, blocking pedestrian movement. Ans.72 (2)

73. (A) Majority of the students left the local school as the school building was in a dilapidated condition. (B) The school authority decided to close down the school immediately and shift the remaining students to a make-shift school. Ans.73 (1) 74. (A) The braking system of the tourist bus carrying 40 passengers failed while negotiating a stiff climb on a hilly road. (B) The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all the remaining. Ans.74 (1) 75. (A) The state govt has decided to boost English language education in all the schools from the next academic year. (B) The level of English language of the school students of the State is comparatively lower than that of the neighbouring states. Ans.75 (2)