1. is defined as an expired cost resulting from a productive usage of asset. 2.

. Match the following industries according to the method of costing generally used. 1 Buildings manufacturer 2 Steel Operating Costing Batch

3 Wooden Furniture Manufacturer Contract 4 Toys 5 Hospital Job Process

3. Cost centre is defined as a location, person or item of equipment (or group of them) in respect of which costs may be ascertained and related to cost units for the purposes of cost control. True b. False 4. Name the cost units for the following industries: Steel and cement industry Transportation services 5. . is that form of specific order costing which applies where similar articles are manufactured in batches either for sale or for use within the undertaking. 6. A is a predetermined statement of management policy during a given period which provides a standard for comparison with the results actually achieved. 7. Name the type of cost that is depicted by the graph

8. ..... are those costs which are not charged to products but are written off as expenses against revenue of the period during which these are incurred. 9. Sunk Cost represents historical costs, incurred in the past and is irrevocable in a given situation. True False

10. The table contains certain items that are considered as factory overheads; classify the indirect items based on their nature. Grease, oil, lubricants, cotton waste, Consumable stores Salary of factory manager, foremen, supervisors, clerks etc. Rent of factory buildings and land

11. Complete the equation: Direct material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses = 12. Complete the equation: Works Cost or Factory Cost = .................................. +....................................... 13. Complete the equation: Cost of Production= .................................+..........................+............................ 14. Cost of Production + Selling and Distribution Overhead = Cost of sales or Total Cost True False 15. Identify direct materials and indirect materials Cotton in the Production of Cloth Leather used in shoe making Nails used in shoe making Wood used in production of paper Thread used in stitching garments Steel used in manufacturing motor cars Lime in chalk production Gunny bags used for filling rice. Milk used in making ice-cream Sand paper used in polishing soap 16. Material Consumed = Opening Stock +.............................. +Expenses on Purchase Closing Stock 17. A loss over and above the normal loss and consists of loss due to carelessness, machine break down, accident, use of defective materials etc is known as ................................ 18. Only variable costs are charged as product costs and included in inventory valuation. The method of costing in question is a. Absorption Costing b. Marginal Costing 19. Selling Price Marginal Cost (Variable Cost) =............................. 20. Contribution ....................... = Profit 21. At....................... Sales are equal to fixed cost plus variable cost. 22. Breakeven Point = 23. ..................... = Fixed Cost /???

Contribution *100 Sales 24. Margin of Safety = ........................... Break even sales

25. Identify direct labour and indirect labour Wages paid to machine operator Wages paid to piece workers Wages paid to a carpenter for making furniture Wages paid to a maintenance worker Overtime premium paid for a specific job Wages paid to a watch man Wages paid to supervisor Directors fees 26. Trading activity by mutual funds just prior to quarterly reporting dates is known as A) Insider trading. B) Program trading. C) Passive security selection. D) Window dressing. E) None of the above. 27. The comparison universe is __________. A) A concept found only in astronomy B) The set of all mutual funds in the world C) The set of all mutual funds in the U. S. D) A set of mutual funds with similar risk characteristics to your mutual fund E) None of the above 28. Henriksson (1984) found that, on average, betas of funds __________ during market advances A) Increased very significantly B) Increased slightly C) Decreased slightly D) Decreased very significantly E) Did not change 29. Most professionally managed equity funds generally __________. A) Outperform the S&P 500 index on both raw and risk-adjusted return measures B) Underperform the S&P 500 index on both raw and risk-adjusted return measures C) Outperform the S&P 500 index on raw return measures and underperform the S&P 500 index on riskadjusted return measures D) Underperform the S&P 500 index on raw return measures and outperform the S&P 500 index on riskadjusted return measures E) Match the performance of the S&P 500 index on both raw and risk-adjusted return measures 30. Suppose two portfolios have the same average return, the same standard deviation of returns, but portfolio A has a higher beta than portfolio B. According to the Sharpe measure, the performance of portfolio A __________. A) is better than the performance of portfolio B B) is the same as the performance of portfolio B C) is poorer than the performance of portfolio B D) cannot be measured as there is no data on the alpha of the portfolio E) None of the above is true. 31. Suppose the risk-free return is 4%. The beta of a managed portfolio is 1.2, the alpha is 1%, and the average return is 14%. Based on Jensen's measure of portfolio performance, you would calculate the return on the market portfolio as A) 11.5% B) 14%

C) 15% D) 16% E) None of the above 32. Suppose you purchase 100 shares of GM stock at the beginning of year 1, and purchase another 100 shares at the end of year 1. You sell all 200 shares at the end of year 2. Assume that the price of GM stock is $50 at the beginning of year 1, $55 at the end of year 1, and $65 at the end of year 2. Assume no dividends were paid on GM stock. Your dollar-weighted return on the stock will be __________; your time-weighted return on the stock. A) higher than B) the same as C) less than D) exactly proportional to E) more information is necessary to answer this question 33. Suppose a particular investment earns an arithmetic return of 10% in year 1, 20% in year 2 and 30% in year 3. 34. The geometric average return for the year period will be __________. A. greater than the arithmetic average return B. Equal to the arithmetic average return C. less than the arithmetic average return D. equal to the market return E. cannot tell from the information given 35. Net Interest income is (i) Interest earned on advances (ii) Interest earned on investments (iii) Total interest earned on advances and investment (iv) Difference between interest earned and interest paid 36. Interest rate risk is a type of (i) Credit risk (ii) Market risk (iii) Operational risk (iv) All the above 37. European option can be exercised on any day at the option of the buyer on or before the expiry of the option. (i) True (ii) False 38. What is the beta factor for corporate finance under Standardized approach ? (i) 15% (ii) 18% (iii) 12% (iv) None of the above 39. A bank suffers loss due to adverse market movement of a security. The security was however held beyond the defeasance period. What is the type of the risk that the bank has suffered? (i) Market Risk (ii) Operational Risk (iii) Market Liquidation Risk (iv) Credit Risk

40. The June 1999 Basle Committee on Banking Supervision issued proposals for reform of its 1988 Capital Accord (the Basle II Proposals). These proposals contained MAINLY. (I) Settlement risk management (II) Capital requirements (III) Supervisory review (IV) The handling of hedge funds (V) Contingency plans (VI) Market discipline (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) I, III and VI II, IV and V I, IV and V II, III and VI

41. Which of the following is not a type of credit risk? (i) Default risk (ii) Credit spread risk (iii) Intrinsic risk (iv) Basis risk 42. 8% Government of India security is quoted at RS 120/- The current yield on the security, will be---(i) 12% (ii) 9.6% (iii) 6.7% (iv) 8% 43. Risk of a portfolio with over exposure in steel sector will be (i) More than systematic risk (ii) Equal to intrinsic risk (iii) Less than intrinsic risk (iv) None of these 44. A company declares RS 2/- dividend on the equity share of face value of RS 5/-. The share is quoted in the market at RS 80/- the dividend yield will be---(i) 20% (ii) 4% (iii) 40% (iv) 2.5% 45. How many accounts have suffered rating migration in the following table Rating Migration of 100 A Rated Accounts Migration between 31.03.2010 and 31.03.2011 Last Rating A No. of Present Rating Accounts A++ A+ 100 1 1 (i) 2 (ii) 19 (iii) 21 (iv) 25

A 79

B+ 10

B 4

C 3

Default 2

46. The risk that arises due to worsening of credit quality is i) Intrinsic Risk ii) Credit spread Risk iii) Portfolio risk iv) Counterparty risk

47. A debenture of face value of As. 100 carries a coupon of 15%. If the current yield is 12.5%. What is the current market price? (i) Rs.100 (ii) Rs.120 (iii) Rs.150 (iv) Rs.125 48. In order to develop an capability to actively manage an credit portfolio one must have in place the following: (a) Credit Rating Model (or models for different categories of loans and advances) (b) Develop and maintain necessary data on defaults of borrowers rating category wise, i.e., Rating Migration. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Both 1 and 2 are required Only 1 is required Only 2 is required None of the above

49. An increase in cash reserve ratio will cause yield curve to (i) Shift downward (ii) Remain unchanged (iii) Become steeper (iv) Become flatter 50. The model that combines five financial ratios using reported accounting information and equity values to produce on objective measure of borrowers financial health is (i) Altmans 2 score (ii) Credit Metrics (iii) Credit Risk + (iv) None of the above 51. A bank holds a security that is rated A+. The rating of the security migrates to A. What is the risk that the bank has faced ? (i) Market risk (ii) Operational risk (iii) Market liquidation risk (iv) Credit risk 52. When interest rates go up, prices of fixed interest bonds (i) Go up (ii) Go down (iii) Remain unchanged 53. VaR is not enough to assess market risk of a portfolio. Stress testing is desirable because (i) It helps in calibrating VaR module (ii) It helps as an additional risk measure (iii) It helps in assessing risk due to abnormal movement of market parameters (iv) It is used as VaR measure is not accurate enough 54. Bond with BBB rating will carry lower interest rate than one with AA rating i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say

55. Fall in interest rate cause the rate causes the bond prices also to fall. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 56. A normal yield curve is sloping upward. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 57. Stamp duty on transfer of dematted shares is lower. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 58. Large Government borrowing can cause yield curve to shift upward. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 59. Growth Funds assure growth in return. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 60. If short term interest rates remain higher than the long term interest rates, the yield curve will be inverted. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 61. Credit rating agencies determine interest rates on debt securities. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 62. The shares of software companies carry high P/E ratio. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 63. Closed end mutual funds are trading at discount to NAV. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 64. In a rising interest rate phase Zero coupon bond will be traded at a premium i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 65. A sharp decline in short term interest rates will cause yield curve to be steeper i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say

66. A fall in interest rates reduces the demand for bonds in the secondary market i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 67. Increase in the cash reserve ratio can cause the yield curve going temporarily inverted. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 68. Dematerialization of stocks has increased turnover on the stock market. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 69. Tight money and credit policy will cause bond prices to fall. i. ii. iii. False True Difficult to say

70. Increasing Government borrowing will raise interest rates. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 71. Bond carrying AA rating will carry highest interest rate than one carrying BBB rating. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 72. Mutual fund redemption bring bearish influence on the stock market. i. False ii. True iii. Difficult to say 73. Decline in the interest rates on long dated Govt. bonds will cause yield curve to be steeper. i. ii. iii. False True Difficult to say

74. Demat shares carry lower stamp duty on transfer than physical shares. i. ii. iii. False True Difficult to say

75. Increase in interest rates will cause bond prices to fall. i. ii. iii. False True Difficult to say

75. Which authority regulates the insurance industry in India? 76. How many players are there in the insurance sector in our country? 77. Which all are the stand alone Health Insurers in India? 78. Who is the market leader in Life Insurance Sector? 79. What is Bancassurance? 80. What was the recent issue between IRDA and SEBI about? 81. What is the document which provides the evidence of contract of insurance known as? 82. What is the legal right to insure known as? 83. What is Micro Insurance? 84. Who is the chairman of IRDA? 85. To which insurance company will the Anil Dhirubhai Ambani Group firm Reliance Life Insurance be selling its 26% stake? 86. With which company will the Mukesh Ambanis group be doing insurance business? 87. What is RSBY? 88. The insurance provider of the Formula 1 Race in Delhi? 89. Which farm equipment maker in India is planning to venture into general insurance business? 90. Which General Insurer has recently bagged the Financial Insights Innovation Award?" 91. Which insurance company is planning to launch a health insurance plan for senior citizens without any age bar? 92. Insurer is the other name for? 93. What is a cover note? 94. What is meant by reinsurance? 95. In case of Insurance contract, what is the Consideration? 96. Which was the first life insurance company in India? 97. When was the first life insurance company in India set up? 98. Which was the first General Insurance Company in India? 99. Which act resulted in the nationalization of life insurance business in India? 100. Which act led to the nationalization of non life insurance in India? 101. What do you understand by GIC?

102. How much is the foreign equity in insurance sector? 103. Insurance Ombudsmen are currently located in _______ no. of cities in India 104. Which act resulted in the privatization of Insurance business? 105. What do you understand by TAC? 106. What is IGCC? 107. What is IGMS? 108. What is MACT? 109. Name the insurer which is planning to launch a standalone dental insurance policy. 110. Insurance is meant to Prevent specified events Prevent damage to assets from specified events Compensate for losses from specified event Rebuild the assets lost because of specified events 111. Insurance compensates losses By Replacing the original Asset To the full extent of lost income Only to the extent of Insured Amount All the three ways 112. Insurance helps to Reduce the consequences of adverse situations Guarantee that assets are always productive Ensure that assets never breakdown Do all of the above 113. The amount payable under a life insurance policy depends on The income of the insured person at time of the claim The income of the insured person when he took the insurance The amount of sum assured None of the above 114. Insurance works on the principle of Sharing Probabilities Large Numbers All of the above 115. A Human being Is an Economic asset Is an Income Earning Asset Is a Perishable Asset All of the above 116. Reinsurance is a name given to An individual taking insurance for the second time An Insurer placing insurance with another insurer. Both the above situation Neither above situation 117. Which of the following statement is correct? A life insurance Policy is a contract, enforceable in a court of law

A life insurance Policy is not required to stamped Both the statements are correct Both the statements are Wrong

118. Which of the following risks are insurable? Speculative Economic Sure to happen All of the above 119. What does a premium depend upon Age of the person to be insured Family History of a person to be insured Medical History of a person to be insured All of the above 120. Which of the following statement is correct All insurers charge same premium rates Premium rates are determined by IRDA Premium rates are determined by Actuaries of Insurers All of the above statements are correct 121. In life Insurance profit is determined by Accountant who prepares the Balance Sheet Actuary who makes a valuation The auditor who certifies the annual account None of the above 122. Rider Provides supplementary benefit to the basic insurance plan Is a type of Insurance Plan Is the insured None of the Above 123. Which are the following statement is correct The Underwriter assess the risk No policy can be insured without the underwriters decision Both the statements are correct Both the statements are Wrong 124. Which of the following Statement is correct Smoking is a hazard inviting additional premium Drinking alcohol is a hazard inviting additional premium Both the statements are Correct Both the statements are Wrong 125. Premium for a Life Insurance Policy can be paid Only Yearly Only Half Yearly Only Quarterly All of the above

126. Grace Period for a life insurance policy is for 1 month 45 Days 7 Days None of the above 127. The Minimum Lock in period for a regular life insurance plan is 1 Year 3 Years 5 Years None of the Above 128. Nomination in insurance can be in favour of One person More than one person None of the above 129. Who can act as an Insurance Agent An Individual; A company A Co operative Society All the above 130. A missing person is presumed to be dead only after 3 years 5 years 7 years 9 years 131. Nationalisation of Life Insurance Companies in india happened in 1956 1938 1947 1950

132. IRDA was constituted following the recommendation of Shah Committee Malhotra Committee None of the Above 133. IRDA was constituted as a statutory body in the year 2000 1990 1994 None of the above 134. Foreign companies can enter into Indian insurance sector as JV with an ownership of upto 26% 49% 28% 30%

135. Which company provided insurance cover for F-1 Race? HDFC Ergo United India ICICI Lombard Bajaj Allianz General Insurance 136. Berkshire India is the corporate agent of________________ in the country HDFC Ergo United India ICICI Lombard Bajaj Allianz General Insurance 137. ADAG financial services arm Reliance Capital said it has received approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for its proposed 26 per cent stake sale in Reliance Life Insurance to _______________ Allianz Life Japan's Nippon Life. Aviva Life Metropolitan Life 138. CEO of Reliance Capital (ADAG) 139. CEO of Future Generali India Life Insurance 140. The insurance regulator, IRDA (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority) issued a notification which would allow any health insurance customer to shift from his existing insurer to any other insurer.) on__________ 141. Bharti Enterprises on Friday announced its decision to sell its entire interest in its two joint ventures with AXA, both life and general insurance, to____________

142. a. b. c. d. e. 143. a. b. c. d. 144. a. b. c. d. e. 145.

Which of the following is not a revenue reserve General Reserve Investment Allowance Reserve Revaluation Reserve Capital Reserve Both c and d Gross Profit is the difference between Net Sales and Cost of Goods Sold PAT and Dividends Net Sales and Cost of Production Net Sales and Net Purchases Recording of capital contributed by the owner as liability ensures the adherence of the principle of Double Entry Going Concern Separate Entity Materiality Consistency The basic concept related to Balance Sheet are

a. b. c. d. e. 146. a. b. c. d. e. 147. a. b. c. d. e. 148. a. b. c. d. e. 149. a. b. c. d. e. 150. a. b. c. d. e. 151. a. b. c. d. e. 152. a. b. c. d. e.

Cost Concept Business Entity Concept Accounting Period Concept Both a and b All of the Above The basic concept related to Profit and Loss Account are Realisation Concept Matching Concept Cost Concept Both a and b All of a, b, and c Which of the following is a capital expenditure Insurance Premium Taxes and Legal Expenses Depreciation of Machinery Discount Allowed Customs Duty on Import of Machinery In Contract Accounting, the percentage of completion method is an exception to the Matching Principle Going Concern Principle Historical Cost Principle Business Entity Principle Revenue Recognition Principle According to Accounting Standard 2 inventories should be valued at Realisation Value Lower of Cost and Net Realisable Value (M. V) Lower of Historical Cost and Replacement Cost Replacement Cost Market Cost The appropriate method for valuation for dearer items is FIFO Method Specific Identification Method Weighted Average Method LIFO Method Market Value Method Accounting Standard 4 deals with Prior Period and Extraordinary Items Contingencies and Events Occurring After the Balance Sheet Date Depreciation Accounting Valuation of Inventories Disclosure of Accounting Policies Depreciation is calculated on the Cost Price of the Asset Market Price Cost + Transport + Installation Expenditure Cost or Market Value whichever is Less None of the Above

153. a. b. c. d. e. 154. a. b. c. d. 155. a. b. c. d. e. 156. a. b. c. d. e. 157. a. b. c. d. e. 158. a. b. c. d. e. 159. a. b. c. d. e. 160. a. b. c. d.

From the accounting point of view, loss means Increase in Liability Decrease in Asset Increase in Owners Equity Decrease in Owners Equity Increase in Asset Cash Profit means Gross Profit Net Profit Net Profit Non Trading Profit Depreciation and Provision Net Profit + Depreciation and Provision Gross Profit Operational Expenses Tax deducted at sources appear in the balance sheet On the assets side under Current Assets Om the Assets Side under Loans and Advances On the Liabilities Side under Current Liability On the Liabilities Side under Provisions On the Assets Side under Miscellaneous Expenditure Which of the following is not an intangible asset Goodwill Trade Mark Franchise Accounts Receivable Patents Under inflationary conditions, FIFO method will lead to Lower Profits Higher Sales Lower Sales Higher Profits No Change in Sales When a fixed asset is obtained on a gift, the account to be credited Asset Account Goodwill Account Capital Reserve Account Donors Account General Reserve Account Property, plant, and equipment are conventionally presented in the balance sheet of Replacement Cost Less Accumulated Depreciation Historical Cost Less Salvage Historical Cost Less Depreciation Original Cost Adjusted for General Price Level Changes Market Value Less Depreciation The maximum rate of premium at which shares can be issued 5% 10% 15% 20%

e. No Limit 161. a. b. c. d. e. The minimum subscription amount that should be received on a public issue is 75% of the Issued Capital 90% of the Issued Capital 80% of the Issued Capital 75% of the Authorised Capital 90% of the Authorised Capital

162. According to SEBI guidelines, the company is required to create a Debenture Redemption Reserve equivalent to a. 50% of the Issue Size b. 25% of the Issue Size c. 20% of the Issue Size d. 10% of the Issue Size e. 5% of the Issue Size 163. a. b. c. d. e. 164. a. b. c. d. 165. a. b. c. d. e. 166. a. b. c. d. e. 167. a. b. c. d. e. 168. Long term solvency is indicated by Liquidity Ratio Debt-Equity Ratio Interest-Coverage Ratio Return on Capital Employed Both (b) and (d) Low assets turnover may indicate Low Assets High Cost of Maintenance Idle Assets Both (b) and (c) above A gross profit margin ratio may not indicate Earning Power The Efficiency of Production The Efficiency of Pricing The Gap between Net Sales and Cost of Goods Sold The Balance Left to Meet the Administration and Financing Expenses Dividend Pay-out Ratio is: A ratio between dividend paid and the number of equity shares. DPS divided by EPS. A ratio between PAT and dividend paid. The percentage of equity earnings over EBIT. EPS divided by DPS. An interest coverage ratio of 2.25 indicates that: EBIT is 2.25 times the interest payable. EBT is 2.25 times the interest payable. EAT is 2.25 times the interest payable. Retained Earnings are 2.25 times the interest payable. None of the above. An assets liquidity measures: a. The potential for generating a profit. b. Its usefulness to the corporation.

c. Its ease and cost of being converted into cash. d. Its proportion of equity financing. e. Its proportion of debt financing. 169. a. b. c. d. e. 170. a. b. c. d. e. 171. a. b. c. d. e. 172. a. b. c. d. e. 173. a. b. c. d. e. 174. a. b. c. d. e. 175. a. b. c. d. e. 176. If the current ratio is less than 1 then it can be definitely be said that: The net working capital is negative. The net working capital is positive. The inventories are inadequate. The current assets other than inventories are inadequate. Cash in hand is inadequate. Which of the following is a liquidity ratio? Debt equity ratio Dividend payout ratio Net profit margin Interest coverage ratio Acid test ratio If the debt equity ratio of a company is 2:1 then it can be understood for every: 2 rupees of equity there is 1 rupee of debt. 2 rupees of total assets there is 1 rupee of equity. 3 rupees of total assets there is 1 rupee of debt. 3 rupees of total assets there are 2 rupees of debt. 3 rupees of debt there are 2 rupees of equity. Return on Investment (ROI) and Return on equity are exactly 0.25. This indicates that: ROE calculation is wrong. ROI pertains to the previous year. The firm has no debt in capital structure. The firm does not pay income taxes. Both c and d. The market value to book value ratio is 2. This indicates that: The book value is understated. There is heavy speculation in the market. The firm has doubled the wealth of the shareholder. The networth of shareholder is reduced to half. Assets are not being maintained. The use of debt in a project increases ROE if the firm: Has more outside liability than equity. Has more assets than equity. Pays more taxes than interest. Has an asset turnover more than 2. Earns higher return than the rate of interest on debt. The starting point of DU point chart is Return on equity. Return on investment. Return on total assets. Return on fixed assets. None of the above.(ANS) The current assets and quick assets are nearly the same. This suggests that

a. b. c. d. e.

The company has got a suitable investment in inventory. The liquidity position of the company is unclear. The firm has got low investment in inventory. (ANS) The quick assets of the company are low. The company does not make good profit.

177. Earnings per share divided by the book value is equal to a. Net worth. b. Return on equity. (ANS) c. Net profit. d. Net worth/ Net profit. e. Reciprocal of return on equity. 178. For assessing the future market value of a company it is best to depend on a. Turnover ratios. b. Earnings ratio.(ANS) c. Efficiency ratios. d. Profitability ratios. e. Liquidity ratios.

179. How can a company lower its debt to total assets ratios in its capital structure? a. Borrowing more funds from its market by issuing debentures. b. Using short term funds against the fixed assets of longer life. c. Using long term funds against the current assets of the company. d. Planning for a rights issue.(ANS) e. Borrowing more funds from financial institutions.

180. Which of the following item represents potential use of net working capital? a. Sale of L&B at loss. b. Dividend proposed and yet declared. c. Sale of trade marks& patent rights. d. Net loss from operators. e. Amortization of goodwill. 181. High assets turnover ratio indicates a. Large amount of investments in the fixed assets. b. Large amount of investments in the current assets. c. Large amount of sales in comparison to total assets. d. Inefficient utilizations of total assets. e. High debt equity ratio. 182. Sustainable growth rate refers to the rate a. Which can be maintained without resorting to external finance.(ANS) b. Which can be maintained only with external borrowing. c. By which firm expects the sales to increase in coming years. d. By which assets of the firm have been increasing in the past several years. e. The firm uses for its internal purposes like project appraisal. 183. Value addition is equal to a. Conversion cost. b. Conversion cost + Administrative cost. c. Conversion cost + Administrative cost+ selling cost +profit.(ANS)

d. Conversion cost + operating cost. e. Conversion cost+ operating stock +closing stock.

184.

The difference between gross value added and net value added a) Investment income b) Extraordinary expenses c) Dividend on shares d) Depreciation e) Capital profits Value added is measured as a difference between the a) Sales revenue and the cost of materials bought b) Sales revenue and the cost of services bought c) pre-tax profit and depreciation d) sales revenue and the cost of labour, depreciation and interest e) sales revenue and the cost of materials and the services bought In the process of completion of EVA, the CAPM is used to calculate a) Book value weight b) cost of preference capital c) cost of equity d) risk-free rate e) expected market return MVA is the difference between a) MV of invested capital and NV added b) NVA and EVA c) Book value of invested capital and EVA d) MV of invested capital and NVA e) MV of invested capital and book value of invested capital Costs are not relevant for decision making and are not affected by increase or decrease in volume a) out of pocket cost b) differential cost c) imputed costs d) sunk costs e) marginal costs The benefits foregone as a result of a particular action is a) sunk cost b) conversion cost c) opportunity cost d) programmed cost e) discretionary cost Differential cost a) only variable cost b) only fixed cost c) the change i cost due to change in level of activity d) difference between fixed costs and variable costs e) both (a) and (c) The decision regarding closing down of factory or some segment depends on

185.

186.

187.

188.

189.

190.

191.

a) fixed cost b) variable cost of product manufacturing c) contributor towards fixed cost d) both (b) and (c) e) both (a) and (b) 192. An export order is generally accepted at a) below total cost b) above total cost c) below marginal cost d) below fixed cost e) below TC but above MC Pricing is a) control exercise b) market plan c) profit planning exercise d) both (b) and (c) e) all of (a), (b) and (c)

193.

194. 195. 196.

What is the estimated GDP (Gross Domestic Product) for 2010-11 at current prices? What is the estimated per capita income at current prices? The Sectoral growth estimates approved by PMEAC( Prime Ministers Economic Advisory Council) is a) Agricultural & allied sector : ______ b) Industries : ______ c) Services : ______ 197. Fiscal Deficit estimates ____________ 198. Current account deficit ____________ 199. What is special about new Consumer Price Index? 200. In HDI( Human Development Index) what is the position of India as per UN ranking: 201. In Global Bribery Index, a list of 28countries, what is the rank of India? 202. Which rating agency recently downgraded SBIs financial strength from C- to D+ 203. Which is the company rated as the most attractive employer? 204. _________ was the first public banking institution 205. In India the ________________ was the first legislative enactment in the country which permitted the corporate sector to come into banking business 206. ____________ is a system where the operations of a bank are confined to a single office located in a particular area 207. Investment Banking means _____________ 208. In universal banking, banks are not limited to just loans, savings accounts, fixed deposits and other similar activities, but are allowed to offer ________________ also 209. Reserve Bank of India was established in the year _________ 210. How many Banks were nationalized in 1969? 211. How many Banks were nationalized in the year 1980? 212. Who is the Current Governor of RBI 213. Who is the Foreign Secretary of India 214. Banking Regulation Act of India was passed in ________

215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. 224. 225. 226. 227. 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237. 238. 239.

Function of an Investment Banker is ________________ Alternate Channels of Banking means ______________ CORE Banking means______________ Open Market Operations (OMO) of RBI means ______________ Repo rate and Reverse Repo rates are used by RBI in order to control __________________ LAF means Selective credit control means _____________How many Dy. Governors are there for RBI? Which Royal Commission suggested the formation of RBI? Role of RBI can be defined as _________________ State Bank of India was formed in the year ______ by converting Imperial Bank of India Priority sector advances should constitute.... % of the total advances of the Bank Who was the culprit in the biggest stock scam in India? What is the full form of FEMA? The Purpose of Asset-Liability Management is to ______________________ In ALM the main risks are __________________ Interest rate risk would directly impact the ______________ In ALM which components in balance sheet are considered? ALCO is _______________ What is an off-balance sheet item? What is an on balance sheet item? Economic Value perspective means _______________ Earnings perspective means ______________________ What is a time bucket in ALM context? Investments of a Bank includes; a. Government Securities b. Other approved Securities c. Shares d. Debentures and Bonds e. All of the above

240. What is a contingent liability of a Bank? 241. VaR is a management tool used to ___________________ 242. Basel Committee means 243. Who is the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission? 244. Current Forex Reserves of India 245. One ounz of gold means..grams 246. What is CD ratio? 247. __________ was the first bank established in India in 1770. 248. Presidency Bank/s in India are _______________ 249. Imperial Bank of India was formed in _________ 250. ____________ deposits are less costly and so banks make all efforts to make its share larger than fixed deposits 251. Which bank was in news recently due to huge loss of $2.6 billion on account of "rogue trading " by its employee? 252. CEOs of pvt sector Banks are appointed by? 253. Banking system in India includes

254. Who is the Chairman of SEBI? 255. DICGC is ______________ 256. Current Repo rate is 257. ________ is the duty of the Interest Paying Banker to deduct the applicable tax on the interest payments 258. A fixed deposit is ________ 259. ____________ is a good scheme to promote thrift to the salaried class 260. End use of Funds means? 261. Cash credit facility is ________________ 262. Safety of a loan is of paramount importance because of ___________ 263. RBI has increased Repo rate. What would be the impacts? 264. The deregulation of Savings Bank rate will affect _______ 265. __________ is an advocate appointed by the Government to notarise /attest public documents 266. What kind of relationship is existing in a Power of attorney? 267. Savings Bank account interest is calculated on the ________________ 268. _____________ are opened by individuals in order to promote thrift 269. Relationship between a Banker giving a locker to a customer is 270. In an Former or Survivor ( For S) account only __________ can operate the account 271. Maximum period of fixed deposit is ________ 272. Which of the following you value as most important for a borrower? {a. capacity b. collateral c. Capital d. character } 273. Who was the Prime Minister of India who took the brave step of nationalisation? 274. Who was the Finance Minister who initiated the New Economic Reforms? 275. How much is our FOREX reserves now? 276. Who is the founder of Micro Finance? 277. Maleagam Committee is in news now a days because of its _________ 278. Mr. Warren Buffet, Investment Guru and billionaire recently decided to buy back the shares of his Company. Which is his Company? 279. Who is the MD of IMF? 280. Indias Debt to GDP Ratio is around ________ 281. Union Minister for Commerce and Industry? 282. Nobel Prize for Economics 2011 was given to Thomas J Sargent & Christopher A Sims for their study on ___________ 283. Minister of State for Finance? 284. _________ is the regulatory authority for money market 285. Bombay Stock Exchange was established in ____________ 286. Demutualisation of Stock exchange means _____________ 287. Most important stock exchanges in India are________________ 288. Regulators of Capital markets are _____________________ 289. Primary Dealers (PD) are ______________________ 290. The great crash of Newyork Stock exchange was on _________________