PHYSICS

1. A train is moving towards a hill with a speed 108 km/hr. The engine of the train blows a whistle of frequency 600 Hz. Speed of sound in air being 330 m/sec, frequency of the reflected sound heard by a passenger sitting in the train will be (a) 950 Hz 2. (b) 840 Hz (c) 720 Hz (d) 680 Hz cm with a percentage error of 2%. (d) (2.5 0.3)g/cm3
1 3

Mass of a spherical object (101)g. Its radius is Density of the object can be expressed as (a) (2.5 0.6) g/cm3 (b) (2.5 0.8)g/cm3

(c) (2.5 0.4)g/cm3

3.

A person swims from bank A of a river to the other bank B in shortest time. In doing so, he takes 5 minutes and travels an actual distance 1 km. Now he swims from bank B to A along shortest path and travels an actual distance 800m. Speed of water (river) is (a) 2.5 m/sec (b) 2.0 m/sec (c) 1.5 m/sec (d) 3.0 m/sec

4.

Stationary waves, represented by y 25sin 50t cos 0.02x , are formed due to superposition of progressive waves of equal wavelength travelling in opposite directions with equal speeds. In the given equation t is in sec, y and x in metre. Speed of the progressive wave is (a) 1250 m/sec (b) 1000 m/sec (c) 2500 m/sec (d) 330 m/sec

5.

Two tuning forks X and Y are sounded together producing 10 beats per second, X is in resonance with 30 cm long air column closed at one end and Y is in resonance with 59 cm long air column open at both ends. Frequencies of forks X and Y are (a) 500 Hz, 510 Hz (b) 590 Hz, 600 Hz (c) 256 Hz, 266 Hz (d) 410 Hz, 400 Hz

6.

Two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions are impressed upon a particle such that x and y coordinates are given by x 4 sin t and y 4 sin t / 2 . The particle describes (a) circle (b) parabola (c) ellipse (d) straight line A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of a trolley. As shown, the trolley is moving towards right with a block of mass 2 kg in contact with its vertical side and with such an acceleration that the block is just prevented from falling under gravity. Coefficient of friction between the surfaces of trolley 1 and the block being , inclination of the pendulum 2 to the vertical will be (a) sin
1

7.

a 2kg

1 2

(b) sin

1 5

(c) cos 1

1 5

(d) tan 1 2

8.

A uniform chain of mass M and length L is placed such that a part of its lies horizontally on a table and the other part hangs along the vertical as shown in figure. Coefficient of limiting friction being =0.25, what maximum percent of total length could hang vertically without sliding the remaining part? (a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 25% The following represent standard transistors, choose correct statement (a) both represent p-n-p transistors (b) both represent n-p-n transistors (c) (i) represent p-n-p transistor while (ii) represent the n-p-n transistor (d) (i) represent n-p-n transistor while (i) represent the p-n-p transistor symbols for

(d) 50%
C B E
(ii)

9.

B E
(i)

10.

Two persons A and B, each of mass 60 kg, are standing together inside a trolley of mass 240 kg which is initially at rest on a frictionless surface. B now beings to walk along the length of the trolley and, after some time. A find B to be at a distance 10m. Distance travlled by B as observed by a person C standing on ground (outside the trolley) is approximately (a) 8 m (b) 6 m (c) 5 m (d) 10 m A shell is fired from a gun with an initial velocity v at an angle with horizontal. At the highest point of trajectory, the shell explodes into two fragments X and Y of equal masses. Given that the speed of fragment X, immediately after the explosion, is zero, how far from the gun does the fragment Y strike the ground?
v 2 sin 2 (a) g 3 v 2 sin 2 (b) 2 g 5 v 2 sin 2 (c) 2 g 2v 2 sin 2 (d) g

11.

12.

A solid sphere, starting from rest, rolls down (without slipping) an inclined plane of length s and inclination . Its speed when it reaches the bottom of the plane is (a)
2gs sin

(b)

4 gs sin 3

(c)

16 gs sin 9

(d)

10 gs sin 7

13.

A stone of mass 10 kg tied at one end of a 10 m long string, is whirled in a vertical circle. It crosses the highest point at a speed 10 m/s. Tension in the string at the lowest point is ( g =10 m/s2) (a) 800 newton (b) zero (c) 575 newton (d) 600 newton

14.

A missile of mass m is fired vertically upward from the surface of earth at such an initial speed that it attains a maximum height (above the surface) equal to R, R being the radius of R earth. What is the mechanical energy of the missile when it is at height h . 3 2 mgR 5 (a) mgR (b) mgR (c) (d) mgR 3 6 2 Imagine that earth is rotating at such an angular speed that a body becomes weightless at the equator. If weight of the same body at north-pole is 100 kg wt, its weight at a placed of latitude 600 will be (a) 75 kg wt (b) 100 kg wt (c) zero (d) 67.5 kg wt A uniform solid cube of side 10 cm and made of a material of density 0.6 g/cc is floating in water. An additional mass 300 g is placed on top of the cube. What volume of the cube now lies outside water? (a) 400 cc (b) 300 cc (c) 200 cc (d) 100 cc

15.

16.

17.

Water is filled in a vessel upto a height h. If a hole is made h in the vessel at a depth below the free surface, water 2 rushing out of the hole is found to strike the base level at a horizontal distance 135 cm as shown. Determine the volume of water coming out per unit time if there is a h square hole of side 3cm at a depth below the free surface 3 (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 2700 cc/sec (b) 3000 cc/sec (c) 3100 cc/sec

h/2 h

135cm

(d) 280 cc/sec

18.

A spherical object is taken to the bottom of a 50 m deep lake. Volume of the object is found to change by 0.01%. Bulk modulus of the object is (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 5 108 N/m2 (b) 5 109 N/m2 (c) 0.5 108 N/m2 (d) 0.5 1011 N/m2 A soap bubble (surface tension of soap being 35 dyne/cm) has radius increasing the radius of the bubble by 100 per cent is (a) 3.24 102 J (b) 2.52 101 J (c) 1.98 103 J cm. Work done in 103 J

19.

(d) 3.76

20.

Two free charged particles A and B with charges +q and q respectively, and the mass of A being double of B, are released from a separation a in air. They move under the action mutual attractive force. Kinetic energy of A at the moment when separation between the two is a/2 will be (a) 9 109

q2 a

(b) 4.5 109

q2 a

(c) 3 109

q2 a

(d) 2.25 109

q2 a

21.

A charge 2C is placed at L which is a point on the axial line of electric dipole A and also on the equatorial line of dipole B, as shown. Given that OL O' L >>a and the electric field strength at L due to dipole A is 30 N/C, net force experienced by 2C charge is (a) zero (b) 45 newton (c) 30 newton

a +q O

2C

+q

O'
a

(d) 15 newton

22.

A charge q is kept at the centre of a cube of side 10 3 m. Electric flux through any face of 106 the cube is found to be (SI unit). If a charge 1 millicoulomb is placed at any corner of 8.85 the cube, it will experience a force (a) 0.12 newton (b) 0.24 newton (c) 0.36 newton (d) 0.48 netwon In a region of uniform electric field of strength 10 N/C, consider a circle of radius 5m centred at O (origin) as shown in the figure. P1 and P2 are two points on the circumference of the circle with coordinates (x1, 3) and (x2, 3) respectively. Potential difference VP2 VP1 is (b) 50 V (c) 75 V
y P1 O P2

23.

E
x

(a) +50 V 24.

(d) 80 V

Two cells each of emf 4V and internal resistance 2 are connected in series with an external resistance R. Value of R is so chosen that maximum power is transferred to the external load. This maximum power is equal to (a) 3 W (b) 4 W (c) 5 W (d) 6.8 W A current of 2A is flowing in the sides of an equilateral triangle of side 2m. Magnetic flux density at the centroid of triangle is [
0

25.

i G i

4 plane of paper ]

10 7 wbA 1 m 1 , assume the triangle to be in the

(a) 1.8 (b) 3.6 (c) 4.8 (d) 4.2

106 T perpendicular to plane of paper and directed outward 106 T perpendicular to plane of paper and directed inward 108 T perpendicular to plane of paper and directed outward 107 T perpendicular to plane of paper and directed outward

26.

X and Y are two points on the circumference of a uniform conducting ring of radius a and resistance R as shown in the figure. is the angle subtended at the centre by one of the arcs XY. A battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance is connected between X and Y . Find magnetic flux density at the centre due to the current in the ring
E 2 aR
0

x O y

(a)

(b)

E 4 aR
0

(c)

E 2 aR
0

(d) zero
B
L=1m v0=2m/s

27.

A constant current 2A flows through a metal rod of length 1m and mass 0.5 kg which slides on frictionless rails in a horizontal plane. Initial speed of the rod is 2 m/sec and a uniform magnetic field 0.5T is acting vertically upwards as shown. Distance moved by the rod before coming to rest is

(a) 4 m 28.

(b) 3 m

(c) 2 m

(d) 1 m

A potential difference 100V is applied between the plates of a parallel plate air capacitor and a uniform magnetic field is also applied in the region between the plates. As shown, separation between the plates being 1 cm. An electron is projected parallel to the plates at a distances 0.4 cm from the plate A with an initial velocity 105 m/sec. Acceleration of the electron is found to be zero. What is the magnitude and direction of magnetic field in the region between the plates? (electric field and the motion of electron are in the plane of paper) (a) 0.2 T outward (b) 0.1 T outward (c) 0.3 T outward

100V A + e 1cm

(d) 0.2 T inward

29.

At a place where horizontal component of earths magnetic field is 2 104 T and angle of dip 300, a metal rod 50 cm long with its length along the north-south is moved at constant speed 20 3 cm/sec towards west, emf induced in the rod will be (a) 20 V (b) 15 V (c) 10 V (d) 12.5 V

30.

Dimension formula of self inductance is (a) ML2 T 1 A

2

(b) ML2 T 2 A

(c) MLT 2 A

(d) ML2 T 2 A

31.

In the given circuit, voltage across C is (a) 10 V (b) 2 V (c) 0 V (d) 8 V

2V L C

8V R

~ 10V

32.

As shown in the figure, a beam of light, converging towards O, is incident on a convex mirror of radius of curvature 60cm. If PO = 50 cm, image will be

(a) real, enlarged and at a distance 75 cm from P in front in front of the mirror (b) virtual, enlarged and at a distance 70 cm from P behind the mirror (c) real, diminished and at a distance 70cm from P in front of the mirror (d) virtual, diminished and at a distance 75 cm from P behind the mirror 33. Two plane mirrors X and Y are kept parallel to each other at a separation 25 cm, as shown. A ray of light is incident on the mirror Y at an angle 600 at its end/edge. Length of each mirror being 10 3 m, number of times the ray is reflected, including the initial one, before it emerges is (a) 41 34. (b) 26 (c) 31
x 25cm y

10 3m
600

(d) 39

Which of the following represents the digital signal?

v (a) A
v (c) t (d) v t

(b)

35.

Refractive indices of crown glass for violet and red colours are, respectively, 1.52 and 1.48 and those of flint glass are 1.77 and 1.73 respectively. A prism of angle 9 0 is made of crown glass and white light is incident on this prism at a small angle. Another flint glass prism is combined with the crown glass prism so that there is no deviation of incident light. Net dispersion of the combined system is

(a) 0.360 36.

(b) 0.240

(c) 0.120

(d) 0.080

A quarter cylinder of radius R and made of a glass of refractive index 1.4 is kept on a table. A point object O is placed at a distance mR from it as shown. Determine m so that a ray from P emerges parallel to the table 25 35 21 (a) (b) (c) 14 18 12

O mR

(d) 2

37.

Two plano-concave lenses made of glass of refractive 3 index have radii of curvature of their curved surfaces 2 as 20 cm and 40 cm. They are kept in contact with their curved surfaces facing each other as shown in the figure. 4 The space between them is filled with water . 3 System behaves as a (a) convergent lens of focal length 75 cm (b) divergent lens of focal length 80 cm (c) convergent lens of focal length 40 cm (d) divergent lens of focal length 75 cm
glass

38.

A convex lens of focal length 50 cm and a concave lens of focal length 10 cm are placed with their optic centres on the same axis and with a distance d between them. For what value of d will a parallel beam of light incident on the convex lens leave the concave lens as a parallel beam? (a) 50 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 40 cm Magnifying power of an Astronomical Telescope for distant objects is 8. If the objective and the eye lenses are at a separation 45 cm and the final image is formed at infinity, focal lengths of objective and the eye lenses are (a) 40 cm, 5 cm (b) 30 cm, 3.75 cm (c) 36 cm, 4.5 cm (d) 35 cm , 10 cm

39.

40.

The thickness of a plate which will produce a change in optical path equal to half the wavelength of the light passing through it normally is (The refractive index of the plate is ) (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

41.

A lens of unknown nature (convex/concave) and of focal length 20 cm forms an erect image 4 times the size of an object. Determine the nature of lens and also the distance of object from the lens. (a) convex, 15 cm (b) convex, 40 cm (c) concave, 15 cm (d) concave, 40 cm

glass

42.

A lens made of material of refractive index 3/2 when placed in air behaves as shown in the figure (i) and when placed in a surrounding of refractive index s, it behaves as shown in figure (ii), s is
air air s s

10cm

20cm

(a) 1.75

(b) 1.6

(c) 2.0

(d) 1.45

43.

In a Youngs double slit experiment, light consisting of two wavelengths 7000 and 6000 is used to obtain interference fringes. If the distance between the two slits is 1 mm and the distance between the plane slits and screen is 100cm, what is the minimum distance from central maximum where bright fringes due to both the wavelength coincide? (a) 0.54 cm (b) 0.62 cm (c) 0.42 cm (d) 0.28 cm

44.

Photons of energy 5eV fall on the surface of a metal X resulting in emission of photoelectrons having maximum kinetic energy E(eV) and de Broglie wavelength . Y is another metal on the surface of which photons of energy 6eV are incident and result in emission of photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy (E 2) eV and de Broglie wavelength 3 . Work functions of metals X and Y are in the ratio (a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 5 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 5

45.

Half-life of a radioactive substance for -decay is 40 years and for -decay 20 years. What fraction of the sample will decay in a time 80 years if the substance is decaying both by and - emissions simultaneously 63 31 15 7 (a) (b) (c) (d) 64 16 8 32

46.

- particle has a binding energy 7 MeV per nucleon and binding energy of deuteron 1 H 2 is 1.2 MeV per nucleon. In the reaction 1 H 2 (a) 4.6 MeV (b) 18.4 MeV
1

H2

He 4

Q energy released Q is
(d) 23.2 MeV

(c) 20.6 MeV

47.

Two solid objects A and B of equal mass are heated at a uniform rate. In the given figure, graphs A and B, respectively, represent their temperature variation. (i) what is the ratio of their latent heats (A and B) and (ii) what is the ratio of their specific heats (A and B) in the solid state?

70 60 50 40 30 20 10

Temperature (0C)

B A

2 4 6 8 1012 14 16 18 20 22 time(sec)

(a) 48.

4 ,1 3

(b)

4 ,4 3

(c)

3 1 , 4 4

(d)

3 ,1 4

Pressure of ideal gas, during an adiabatic process, is found to be proportional to the fourth power of its temperature. What amount of heat will be required to raise the temperature of 5 moles of this gas from 100 C to250 C during an isobaric process. ( R Gas constant) (a) 300 R (b) 350 R (c) 225 R (d) zero

49.

A carnot engine X operating between 270C and 2270C, absorbs certain heat from the source and delivers a work output of 150 joule per cycle. Another heat engine Y based upon an irreversible cyclic process and operating between the same temperatures of source and sink, absorbs an amount of heat Q from the source and delivers 300 joule of work per cycle. Q is equal to (a) 700 J (b) 750 J (c) 775 J (d) 500 J

50.

A quantity of heat 700 joule is supplied to 5 moles of an ideal diatomic gas (O2) at constant pressure. Internal energy of the gas increases by (a) 250 J (b) 400 J (c) 140 J (d) 500 J

CHEMISTRY
51. An SN2 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives (a) an enantiomer of the substrate (b) a product with opposite optical rotation (c) a mixture of diastereoisomers (d) a single stereoisomer IUPAC name of OHC CH=CH CH CH=CH2 is
CH2CH2CH2CH3 (a) 4 butyl 2,5 hexadien 1 al (c) 5 vinyloct 5 en 8 al

52.

(b) 5 vinyloct 3 en 1 al (d) 3 butyl 1,4 hexadien 6 al

53. (a) (c) 54.

CH2 on ozonolysis gives

+ HCHO

(b)

CHO

CHCH3
C CH

(d) None of these in presence of H2SO4/HgSO4 gives:

CH2CHO COCH3 CH2CHO

Hydroxylation of
COCH3

(a) 55.

(b)

(c)

(d)

Which of the following carbocation is most stable? CH3 H NO2 (a) Ph C (b) Ph C (c) Ph CH

Ph
(d) Ph C

Ph
O O

Ph
AlCl3

Ph

56. will be

+ CH3 C O C CH3

products. One of the products formed in the reaction

O C H

O C CH2CH3

(a) 57. Ph C C CH3

O
HgSO 4 H 2SO 4

(b) major product will be

(c)

(d) CH3 C OH

(a) Ph C CH2CH3 OH (c) Ph CH CH2CH3 58. CH3 C C CH3

Na Liq. NH 3

(b) Ph CH2 C CH3 OH (d) Ph CH2 CH CH3 product will be

(a) cis 2butene (c) both (a) and (b) 59.

(b) trans 2butene (d) none of these

The correct order of rate of SN1 reaction for alkyl halide is (a) 3 > 2 > 1 (b) 3 < 2 < 1 (c) 1 < 2 > 3 (d) 3 2 > 1 The appropriate reagent for the following transformation is
COCH3 CH2CH3

60.

OH

OH

(a) Zn Hg, HCl (c) LiAlH4

(b) NH2NH2, KOH (d) HI, P4

61.

With rise in temperature; viscosity of a liquid (a) increases (c) remains constant

(b) decreases (d) may increase or decrease

62.

The heat of formation of CO and CO2 are 26.4 kcal and 94.6 kcal respectively. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide will be (a) +26.4 kcal (b) 68.2 kcal (c) 120.6 kcal (d) +52.8 kcal The difference between heat of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume of the following reaction would be 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) at 25C in kJ mol 1 is (a) 7.43 (b) +3.72 (c) 3.72 (d) +7.43 The reaction, H2(g) + AgCl(s) H+(aq) + Cl (aq) + Ag(s), occurs in the galvanic cell: (a) Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | KCl (solution) || AgNO3(solution) | Ag(s) (b) Pt | H2(g) | HCl (solution) || AgNO3(solution) | Ag(s) (c) Pt | H2(g) | HCl (solution) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) (d) Pt | H2(g) | KCl (solution) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) In the formation of sulphur trioxide by contact process, 2SO2 + O2 2SO3, the rate of reaction was measured as d[O 2 ] = 2.5 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 dt The rate of reaction expressed in terms of SO3 will be (a) 5.0 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 (b) 1.25 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 4 1 1 (c) 2.5 10 mol L s (d) 5.00 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 Which of the following statements is not correct? (a) Boric acid is a very weak monobasic acid.

63.

64.

65.

66.

(b) Boric acid contains planar BO3 units, which are bonded together through hydrogen bonds forming a layer structure. (c) Boric acid is used as a food preservative. (d) Boric acid is tribasic acid. 67. Sodium is not ordinarily observed in the +2 oxidation state because of its (a) high first ionization potential. (b) high second oxidation potential. (c) high ionic radius. (d) high electronegativity. Which of the following ions has the highest reduction potential? (a) Li+ (b) Na+ + (c) K (d) Rb+ Oxidation of Cr3+ in acid solution forms (a) CrO 2
2 (c) Cr2 O 7 In solid CuSO4.5H2O, copper is coordinated to (a) five water molecules. (c) one sulphate ion.

68.

69.

(b) CrO 2 4 (d) Cr2+ (b) four water molecules. (d) one water molecule.

70.

71.

The compound, which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is (a) (b) OH OH (c) (d)
OH

72.

OH The critical temperature of a substance is defined as (a) the temperature above which the substance decomposes. (b) the temperature above which a substance can exist only as a gas. (c) melting point of the substance. (d) boiling point of the substance.

73.

74.

Correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence (outermost) electrons of rubidium 1 (a) 5, 0, 0, +1/2 (b) 5, 1, 0, + 2 1 (c) 5, 1, 1, +1/2 (d) 6, 0, 0, + 2 Which one is a colligative property? (a) Boiling point (b) Vapour pressure (c) Osmotic pressure (d) Freezing point 1.1 mol of A is mixed with 2.2 mol of B and the mixture is kept in a one litre flask till the equilibrium, A + 2B 2C + D is reached. At equilibrium 0.2 mol of C is formed. The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is (a) 0.002 (b) 0.004 (c) 0.001 (d) 0.003 In which of the following compounds, the oxidation number of iodine is fractional?

75.

76.

(a) IF7 (c) IF5 77.

(b) I 3 (d) IF3

78.

The rate law expression for the hypothetical reaction 2A + 3B 2C is dx = k[A] [B]2 dt The order of reaction is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 An element belongs to Group 15 and third period. Its electronic configuration will be (a) 1s22s22p3 (b) 1s22s22p63s23p3 (c) 1s22s22p2 (d) 1s22s22p63s23p2 Which of the following is an electron deficient compound? (a) NH3 (b) NH2OH (c) BCl3 (d) H3N A dehydrating agent commonly used in the laboratory is (a) MgCO3 (b) CaF2 (c) CaCl2 (d) MgF2 Which of the following represents baryta? (a) BaO (c) BaCO3 The outer electronic configuration of copper is (a) 3d104s1 (c) 3d104s0 Tautomerism is not exhibited by (a) C6H5CH=CHOH (c) (b) O (d) (b) Ba(OH)2 (d) Ba(NO3)2 (b) 3d94s2 (d) 3d104s2

79.

BCl3

80.

81.

82.

83.

O
O

84.

O O In the compound CH2=CH CH2 C CH, the C2 C3 bond is of the type (a) sp sp2 (b) sp2 sp2 3 (c) sp sp (d) sp2 sp3
Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with I 2 and alkali? (a) 3 hydroxy pentene (b) Acetophenone (c) Methyl acetate (d) Acetamide Alkaline hydrolysis of an ester is called: (a) neutralization (c) polymerisation Which one is a colligative property? (a) Boiling point

85.

86.

(b) esterification (d) saponification (b) Vapour pressure

87.

(c) Osmotic pressure 88.

(d) Freezing point

The number of effective atoms per unit cell in a simple cubic, face centered cubic and body centred cubic are .respectively (a) 1, 4, 2 (b) 4, 1, 2 (c) 2, 4, 1 (d) 4, 8, 2 Absence of one cation and one anion in a crystal lattice is (a) ionic defect (b) Frenkel defect (c) Schottky defect (d) interstitial defect Which of the following expression is correct in case of a CsCl unit cell (edge length, a)? a (a) rc + ra = a (b) rc + ra = 2 3a a (c) rc + ra = (d) rc + ra = 2 2 In a face centred cubic system the distance d between the nearest neighbours is given by (a = edge length) (a) d = a (b) d = 2 a a 3a (c) d = (d) d = 2 2 The rate constant for the reaction: 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2 is 3 10 5 s 1. If the rate at a given time is 2.40 10 5 mol L 1 s 1. Then concentration of N2O5 at that time is (a) 1.4 (b) 1.2 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.8 The atomic weight of a trivalent element is 27. Its electrochemical equivalent is (a) 9 10 5 (b) 2.8 10 4 (c) 9.33 10 5 (d) 4.67 10 5 100 ml each of 0.5 N NaOH, N/5 HCl and N/10 H2SO4 are mixed together. The resulting solution will be (a) acidic (b) neutral (c) alkaline (d) none of these C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) ; H = r CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g) ; H = s The heat of formation of CO is (a) r s (b) s r (c) r s (d) r + s Energy of electron in the third orbit of Bohrs H atom is (a) 13.6 eV (b) 34 eV (c) 1.5 eV (d) none of the three For the combustion reaction at 298 K, 2Ag(s) + O2(g) 2Ag2O(s)

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

which of the following relation will be true? (a) H = U (b) H > U (c) H < U (d) H and U bear no relation with each other If in a standard hydrogen electrode half cell, 2H+(aq) + 2e H2(g) (1 atm), hydrogen ion concentration is reduced to 10 1 M by adding a base, then the emf will be (a) + 0.0591 V (b) 0.1182 V (c) 0.0591 V (d) 0.1182 V 1 99. The plot of log k vs helps to calculate T (a) Energy of activation (b) Rate constant of the reaction (c) Order of the reaction (d) Energy of activation as well as the frequency factor. 100. The halide, which will not react with benzene in presence of anhydrous AlCl3, is (a) CH3CHClCH3 (b) C6H5CH2Cl (c) C6H5Cl (d) CH3CH2CH2Cl 98.