JCJ MODEL PAPER I

1) Supplemental and incidental proceedings are stated in a) C.P.C b) Cr.P.C c) Unlawful Activates (prevention) Act d) None of the above 2) Whether a Junior Civil Judges Court its own or suo motu direct addition of a party whom it considers a necessary party to a suit? a) Yes b) No c) With the permission of District Court d) With the permission of High court 3) Suppose if a Court of Senior Civil Judge tries a suit which is triable by the Court of Junior Civil Judge. Is the decree. a) Valid b) invalid c) invalid under certain circumstances d) None of the above 4) In suits concerning family matters, the proceeding have to be held a) In open Court b) In-camera, if either party desires c) Cannot be held in- camera d) none of the above 5) A court of small Causes can decide title dispute relating to immovable property a) No b) It can decide if the value of the property is within its pecuniary limits c)If it is a Senior Civil Judge Court acts as a small cause court; d) In a suit relating to rent for such property 6) In a suit for recovery of possession by the Government who will sign the plaint a) The Chief Secretary to the Government b) The district Collector c) The Governor of the State d) The person Nominated by the Government 7) After completion of the trial, the Judge pronounced the judgment but did not sign the decree and he is transferred. Then a) the decree prepared can be signed by the newly posted Judge b) the decree prepared is sent for the approval of the High Court. c)the decree is sent for signature of the Court to which the trial Court is sub-ordinate. d) the new Judge has to rehear the arguments in the suit

8) In a suit for recovery of money based under mortgage interest is awarded to the plaintiff a) on the principle amount found due on the mortgage b) on the value of mortgage property c) only on the cost of suit awarded d) None of the above. 9) If a right so sue survives, will the suit be abated by a partys death? a) Yes b) No c)If the opposite party agrees d) None of the above 10) X obtains money decree against Y In executants of the money decree X attaches moneys belonging to Y Iying Z Then Z is called a) decree holder b) judgment debtor c) banker d) garnishee 11) In case of non-cognizable offences, a) Police Officer is entitled to investigate the offences b) Police Officer cannot investigate the offences without an order of a Magistrate c) Police Officer cannot investigate such an offence without the Order of a Magistrate having power to try such an offence. d) None of the above. 12) Section 125 dealing with Order for maintenance cannot be invoked in the case of the following a) Husband b) Minor child c) Parents d)illegitimate child 13) Under section 164 Cr.P.C., the Magistrate before recording confession must make sure that the accused a) understands what is confession b) understands that the confession can be used against him c) understands that the confession is voluntary d) all the above. 14) A Magistrate cannot take cognizance of an offence based upon his own suo-moto knowledge a) False b) True c) a matter of judicial interpretation d) a matter of judicial discretion 15) Conviction on plea of guilty by a Session Judge: a) a matter of statutory duty b) a matter of judicial discretion c) is a matter of judicial interpretation d) None of the above 16) Under Section 235 Cr.P.C. pre-sentence hearing is a) mandatory b) matter of judicial discretion c) depends upon the nature of the offence d) none of the above 17) Right to defence through choice based representation of lawyer is a matter of a) Statutory right b) Depends upon nature of the offence c) matter of judicial discretion d) None of the above.

18) Under section 313 of Cr.P.C., when the accused is examined by the Magistrate a) Oath shall not be administered b) Oath shall be administered c) It is a matter of judicial discretion d) Depends upon nature of the offence . 19) Composition under Section 320 of Cr.P.C shall have the effect of a) Acquittal of the accused b) Discharge of the accused c) Both (a) and (b) depending upon the nature of the offence d) None of the above

20) Under Section 173 Cr.P.C., the investigative report of the concerned Police Officer a) Mandatorily required to be final b) not required to be final, additional report can be filed. c) Both (a) and (b) depending upon the nature of the offence d) None of the above

21) Under section 39 Cr.P.C., whenever any individual comes to know about either commission or intention to commit any offence, is under a duty to inform the nearest police station or Magistrate. a) True b) False c) Individual discretion d) None of the above 22) Any private person may arrest any other person who in his presence commits a) Non-bailable and non-cognizable offence b) non-bailable and cognizable offence c) Bailable and cognizable offence d) None of the above.

23) A Police Officer who has the arrest warrant issued by a competent Magistrate can only pursue and arrest the person concerned within the jurisdiction of the police station limits a) True b) False c) Depends upon the nature of the offence committed d) it is a matter of judicial discretion.

24) Inquiry means a) Inquiry other than a trial c) Inquiry during Investigation

b) Inquiry during trial d) None of the above

25) Judicial proceeding means a) Includes any proceeding in the course of which evidence is adduced b) Includes any proceeding in the course of which evidence is taken on oath c) Includes any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath d) Includes any proceeding in the course of which evidence is adduced at the discretion of the court

26) Police Report means a) A report forwarded by a police Officer a Magistrate under sub-Section (1) of section 173 Cr.P.C. b) A report forwarded by a police Officer a Magistrate under sub-section (2) of section 173 Cr.P.C. c) A report forwarded by a police Officer to a Magistrate under sub- section (3) of section 173 Cr.P.C. d) A report forwarded by a police Officer to a Magistrate under sub- section (4) of section 173 Cr.P.C. 27) Under the following circumstance/s a police Officer may arrest any person without a warrant a) Against whom a reasonable complaint has been made b) Credible information has been received c) Reasonable suspicion exist d) All the above

28) An Universal donee gets a) The ownership of whole property b) The whole property and donors property in litigation c)Donors property and liabilities of the donor in respect of all the debts due d) Only the right to perform last rites.

29) The following two documents require attestation and registration. a) Marriage contract and divorce contract b) Indemnity bond and Warranty c) Mortgage deed and Exchange deed d) Development Agreement & Sale agreement 30) The expression spes succession means a) No chance of succession c) Absolute succession

b) Mere chance or hope of succession d) None of the above

31) A transfer of immovable property made with the intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be: A)Void b) Voidable at the discretion of the court c) voidable at the option of any creditor so defeated or delayed d) All the above.
32) One of the following is not a ground for divorce, under section 13 of the Hindu Marriages Act, 1955 a) Adultery b) Cruelty c) desertion d) Irretrievable break down of marriage.

33) Power to impound any document can only take place if a) The Courts has the power to compel the production of the same b) the document is produced before the Court c) Either (a) or (b) d) both (a) and (b) 34) Section 125 Cr.P.C. deals with Order for maintenance of a) Wife b) Children c) Parents 35) Order under Section 144 Cr.P.C. can be issued by a) District Magistrate b) Sub-Divisional Magistrate c) Any other Executive Magistrate d) all the above. 36) Every Police Officer is under duty to prevent commission of cognizance offence. This principle is recognized in a) Section 149 Cr.P.C b) Section 150 Cr.P.C c) Section 151 Cr.P.C d) Section 152 Cr.P.C 37) Under Section 11 IPC., the word person denotes: a) A company b) Association whether incorporated or not c) Body of persons whether incorporated or not d) All the above 38) The Phrase movable property in IPC denotes: A) Corporal property of any description B) Land and things attached to the property C) Electricity D) All the above 39) The word dishonestly in IPC denotes anything done with the intention of causing A) Wrongful gain to one person B) Wrongful loss to same person C)Wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person D) Wrongful gain or loss 40) For the purposes of joint criminal liability, A) Participation in crime is mandatory B) Physical participation in crime commission is not necessary C)Either (A) or (B) depending upon the facts and circumstances of the case. D) Act in furtherance of common intention can also be a mental act. 41) Automatism in a given case A) Negates acts rules C)Either (A) or (B)

d) All the above.

B)Denies authorship D) None of the above

42) According to Supreme Court, if a particular offence carries mandatory sentence of imprisonment, a company A) cannot be prosecuted for such offence B) can be convicted however cannot be fined C) can be convicted and can be fined D) can be convicted and directors can be imprisoned

43) In case of crime commission during voluntary intoxication, the prosecutions burden is to prove A) required means read and acts rues on the part of the accused B) intention or knowledge and acts rues on the part of accused C) acts rues on the part of accused D) fact indicating voluntary intoxication on the part of accused 44) Qui facet per alium per se is the essence of one of the following principles of Criminal Liability A) Joint Criminal Liability B) Corporate Criminal Liability C)Vicarious Liability D) Strict Liability 45) what Section 84 of IPC . lays down in not that the accused claining protection under it should not know an act to be right or wrong but, that the accused should be incapable of knowing whether the act done by him is right or wrong. The illustrious observation was rendered in one of the following cases. A) McNaughtens Case B) Lakshmi Vs. State C) Ashiruffin Ahmed Vs The King D) Jai LAl Vs Delhi Administration 46) Principle of infancy is attracted if A) The act is done by a child C) The Act does not amount to an offence

B) The Child is below 7 years of age D) Both A) and B)

47) The principle relating to trivial cat is covered under A) Section 92 I.P.C. B) Section 93 I.P.C. c) Section 94 I.P.C. D) Section 95 I.P.C. 48) Right of private Defense of property may extend to causing death in the event if one of the following offences is committed A) Dacoit B) Mischief by fire C) Lurking house trespass D) theft in a dwelling house

49) For the purpose of constituting the offence of giving false evidence under Section 191 of I.P.C requires A) Legally bound by an Oath B) By any express provision of law to state the truth C) Being bound by law to make a declaration about any subject D) All the above. 50) In Custodial Rape A) Consent of the victim is immaterial in all cases. B) Consent of the victim is material in all cases. C) Consent of the victim is necessary, if she has obtained the age of consent which is Eighteen years. D) Consent of the victim is necessary, if she has obtained the age of consent which is Sixteen years.

51) Doli Incopax means A) A child below the age of 12 years in exempt from criminal liability. B) A minor below the age of 18 years in exempt from criminal liability C) A child below the age of 10 years in exempt from criminal liability. D) ) A child below the age of 7 years in exempt from criminal liability. 52) The prime object of criminal law is A) To punish the forbidden conduct B) to protect public property C) To protect public and private property. D) To protect the public by maintenance of law and order 53) If you see a blind man proceeding towards a well, and if the blind man is with in your reach, if you are silent A) You have committed a moral wrong B) Tour conduct is not ethical C) You have committed a crime D) You have not committed a crime 54) Indictment means A)Conviction C) Reprimand

B) Prosecution D) Defamation

55) A person is said to cause an effect Voluntarily A) only if he intends to caused the actual effect caused B) It the effect is the probable consequence of the act done by him, even if a person need not intend to cause the actual effect caused C) If the effect is the probable as well as improbable consequence of the act done by him, even if he does not intend to cause the actual effect caused D) If the injury has been caused even after the exercise of reasonable care and caution 56) Causal Cousins means A) Proximate cause C) Immediate Cause

B) Remote cause D) Cause of the cause.

57) In criminal law, contributory negligence A) Is a factor to be taken in to consideration on the question of the guilt of the accused B) Is not factor to be taken in to consideration on the question of the guilt of the accused, it can be a factor for consideration in determination of sentence C) Cannot be considered as a factor in determination of sentence D) Can neither be taken in to consideration fro determination of the guilt nor for the determination of the sentence. 58) A dying declaration before a police officer a) is not relevant b) is admissible as evidence c) it is a matter of judicial appreciation d) cannot be proved as evidence

59) Multiple dying declarations are a) Relevant and admissible b) Irrelevant and admissible c) is admissible however reliance is subject to judicial appreciation d) None of the above.

60) Expert opinion is a relevant piece of evidence covered under a) Section 45 IE Act b) Section 47 IE Act c) Section 48 IE Act d) Section 49 IE Act 61) In all the criminal proceedings, evidence pertaining to accused good character a) is relevant b) is irrelevant c) is a matter of judicial discretion d) None of the above

62) Facts admitted need not be a) Furnished as evidence c) Taken cognizance by judicial magistrate 63) Oral evidence must be a) Relevant b) must not be hearsay

b) Be proved d) Need not be appreciated

b) Direct d) appreciated

64) The admission of a document means a) Admission of facts contained in the document b) admission of facts contemplated by the parties to the document c) admission of facts agreed by the parties to the document d) admissions as to the veracity of the facts contained in the document 65) The contents of documents may be proved by a) direct or circumstantial evidence b) Oral or opinion evidence c) primary or secondary evidence d) Expert or scientific evidence 66) Copy of a copy (document) a) is admissible as secondary evidence b) is not admissible as secondary evidence c) is admissible as secondary evidence provided there is a original of the same d) is not admissible even though there is a original of the same. 67) Tape recorded conversation is a matter a) Primary evidence b) Secondary evidence c) Circumstantial evidence d) None of the above. 68) Proof of document must be by a) Oral evidence c) Primary evidence

b) Direct evidence d) Expert evidence

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69) If an accused person pleads alibi the burden of proof a) is on prosecution to disprove b) burden of proof is on the accused to prove c) burden of proof is on accused provided the prosecution proves otherwise d) burden of proof is on prosecution provided the accused proves otherwise 70) The principle envisaged under Section 115 IE Act deals with a) Estoppel b) Promissory estoppel c) Restitutionary estoppel d) All the above 71) A child witness is a) A competent witness c) an interested witness

b) an incompetent witness d) Is a competent but may not be a reliable evidence

72) The principle envisaged under 26 IE Act deals with Professional communications made between a) A lawyer and a client b) doctor and a patient c) teacher and a student d) Judge and a lawyer 73) An accomplice is a) competent witness b) incompetent witness c) competent witness provided corroborated d) incompetent witness even though corroborated 74) According to Section 134 IE Act a) It is not the number of witnesses but the quality of evidence that counts b) it is not only the quality but number also counts c) Number of witnesses matters provided they are reliable d) Number of witnesses matters even though they are not reliable 75) The Judge is entitled to enquire into whether the evidence to be submitted would be relevant or not a) Section 135 IE Act b) Section 136 IE Act c) Section 137 IE Act d) Section 138 IE Act 76) Leading questions must not be asked a) During examination in chief b) during Chief examination c) during judicial recording of confession d) during recording of court witnesss deposition 77) Leading question may be asked a) during cross examination b) during cross examination if the court permits c) during cross examination if there is no objection by the opposite counsel d) wherever court permits 78) The principle pertaining to impeaching credit worthiness of a witness is dealt under a) Section 154 IE Act b)Section 155 IE Act c) Section 156 IE Act d) Section 157 IE Act
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79) The power recognized on the part of the judge under Section 165 IE Act symbolizes a) Adversarial system of prosecution b) Inquisitorial system of prosecution c) Unitary system of prosecution d) Federal system of prosecution 80) The principle envisaged under Sections 91B IE Act and 92 IE Act pertains to a) Exclusion of documentary evidence by oral evidence b) Exclusion of oral by document evidence c) Exclusion of direct by circumstantial evidence d) Exclusion of circumstantial by direct evidence 81) The Indian Evidence Act applies to affidavits presented to any court or officer a) False b) True c) Sometimes true d)Sometimes false 82) Previous or subsequent conduct becomes relevant under _____of Indian Evidence Act a) Sec.10 b) Sec.8 c) Sec.9 d) Sec.11 83) The question is whether A committed a crime at Hyderabad on a certain day. The fact that on that day a was at Vijayawada becomes relevant under ________of the IE Act a) Sec.6 b) Sec.10 c) Sec.11 d) Sec.14

84) A is tried for the murder of B by intentionally shooting him dead. He fact that /a was in the habit of shooting people with intent to murder them a) is relevant under sec. 14 b) is relevant under sec 8 d) is relevant under sec.10 c) is irrelevant 85) Confession made after removal of impression caused by inducement a) is relevant b) Is relevant under Sec.27 c) is relevant under Sec.26 c) is relevant under Sec.28 86) Statements by persons who cannot be called as witnesses are a) not relevant b) relevant under Sec.31 c) relevant under Sec.32 d) relevant under Sec.30 87)Which is not an immovable property under the registration act a)Hereditary allowances b) Lights c)Fisheries d)None of the above 88)immovable property has been defined in a) The registration act 1908 c) The general clauses act 1897

b) The transfer of property act 1882 d) All the above

89) A profits prendre -an incorporeal right, a right to take something of another persons land is a) an immovable property b) not an immovable property c) a movable property d) either (b) or (c)
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90) lease has been defined in a) the registration act 1908 c) The general clauses act 1897

b) The transfer of property act 1882 d) only in (a) and (b)

91) Section 17 of the registration act provides for a) documents which are not registrable b) documents which are compulsorily registrable c) documents the registration of which is optional d) both (a) and (c) 92) A muslim gift deed is a) compulsorily registrable b) not compulsorily registrable c) optionally registrable d) only (b) and (c) 93) Gift in lieu of dower is a) compulsorily registrable c) optionally registrable 94) which of the following is compulsorily registrable a) Gift in lieu of dower c)Both (a) and (b)

b) not compulsorily registrable d) only (b) and (c)

b)Hiba-bil-iwaz d)Either (a) nor (b)

95) Documents registration of which is optionally have been dealt in a) Section 16 b) Section 17 c) Section 18 d) Section 19 (96) Delay in presentation of a document for registration can be condoned up to a) two months b) four months c) six months d)one month 97)Under the hindu marriage act, the spinda relationship extends in the line of ascent to a) Two degrees through the mother and three degrees through the father b)Three degrees through the mother and four degrees through the father c)Three degrees through the mother and five degrees through the father d)Five degrees through the mother and seven degrees through the father 98)A marriage solemnised between any two hindus, who are relate d to each other in spinda relationship, under section 11 of hindu marriage act 1955, shall be a) Valid b)Voidable c) Void d)Either valid or voidable 99)The marriage solemnized between any two hindus if a)Bridegroom completes 21 years and bride completed 18 years b) Bridegroom completes 18 years and bride completed 21 years c)Bridegroom completes 21 years and bride completed 21 years d)Bridegroom completes 18 years and bride completed 18 years

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100)The registration of Hindu marriage under section 8 of Hindu marriage act is a) Compulsory b)Optional c)May be made compulsory by the state government d)Both (b) and(c) are correct

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