AHEAD Test and Discussions BHU Stimulated Test

1. The most common instrument grasp used is the

a. Pen grasp b. Inverted pen grasp c. Palm and thumb grasp d. Modified palm and thumb grasp 2. Over extension of a mandibular denture base in distobuccal area will cause dislodgement of the denture during function as the result of the action of the a. Masseter muscle b. Buccinator muscle c. Pterygomandibular raphe d. Ateral tendon of temporalis muscle Plaque predominantly consists of a. Water b. Dextran c. Bacterial colonies d. Minerals

3.

11. Which of the following is least likely to cause rampant caries in geriatric patients a. Poor oralhygine b. Decreased salivary flow c. A change in the oral micro flora d. The side effects of medications 12. A patient 8 years of age has maxillary permanent central incisors erupted to the extent that two thirds of the anatomic crowns may be seen clinically. A 3mm diastema exists between these teeth. In such cases , the diastema is usually a result of a. A failure of fusion of the premaxilla b. An abnormal labial frenum c. A supernumerary tooth in the mid line d. The normal eruption pattern of these teeth 13. Head of the condyle grows by a. Interstitial bone growth b. Appositional bone growth c. Intramembranous bone growth d. Proliferation of cartilage with non vital pulp is treated by a. Extraction b. Conventional pulpectomy c. Pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide d. Pulpotomy with formocresol 15. A disadvantage of removable space maintainer a. Difficulty in maintaining vertical height b. Not esthetic c. Difficult to clean d. May not be worn by the patient

4. How many roots does a primary maxillary molar have

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

5. A dentist surgically removes a maxillary first molar, 14. In hemophilic patient of 5 yrs ,a primary second molar
fracturing a large portion of the palatal root. The root is forced in to the antrum and cannot be visualized. Adjacent teeth and bone are normal. The appropriate approach to recover this root is through the a. Hard palate in the canine region b. First molar alveolus by enlarging the antral opening c. Maxillary canine fossa at the level of pre molar roots d. Maxillary incisive fossa medial to the canine

6.

Among the following the most efficient method of brushing is a. Sulcular brushing b. The stillmans technique c. The side-to-side technique d. The Charter technique The most likely cause of trismus after block anesthesia for surgery in the mandibular molar area is a. Excessive edema b. Stretching of pterygomandibular raphe c. Myositis of the lateral pterygoid muscle d. Damage to the medial pterygoid muscle on injection Where does the trachea bifurcate into the primary bronchi a. At the level of the 14 vertebra b. At the base of the lungs c. In the pleura d. After the alveolar ducts

16. A childs behavior problem can be handled by

familiarization if the basis of the problem is a. Fear b. Pain c. Anxiety d. Attitude of the parents

7.

17. A child spends his first seven years in a community in

temporate zone, the water supply of which contains 3 ppm. Of fluoride. Some mottling of the teeth will probably develop in a. All teeth b. All permanent teeth, except third molars c. Lateral incisors, canines, premolars and third molars d. None of the above

8.

18. When a thrombotic embolus originates in a femoral vein,

it usually becomes arrested in the a. Right heart b. Renal circulation c. Hepatic circulation d. Pulmonary circulation

9. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents have a tendency 19. If a successful pulpectomy cannot be accomplished in a 5
to produce a. Xerostomia c. Gastric irritation b. Drowsiness d. Metabolic alkalosis yr old child with a chronically infected primary molar, which of the following is the most acceptable treatment a. Treat with an antibiotic and allow the tooth to remain in place b. Allow the tooth to remain in the mouth for a space maintainer c. Allow the tooth to remain in the mouth unless it is creating pain for the patient

10. The surgical risk for a patient with organic heart disease depends upon a. Cardiac reserve b. Respiration c. Blood pressure d. Pulse rate

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 1 R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060. Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com

AHEAD Test and Discussions BHU Stimulated Test

d. Extract the tooth to prevent damage to the surrounding

bone and the developing permanent tooth 20. Staphylococcal infections are a. Controlled in hospitals b. Readily responsive to penicillin c. Not disseminated by carriers d. Difficult to treat because of the drug resistant strains 21. All the following may have similar radiographic findings except a. Ameloblastoma b. Radicular cyst c. Complex odontoma d. Lateral periodontal cyst 22. The mechanism of fluoride action in reducing dental decay is most likely the result of a. An increase in the remineralization of enamel b. A reduction of solubility of enamel as flouride content increases c. An influence on exchange of ions between body fluids and hard tissues d. A decrease in carbohydrate metabolism in the oral cavity as a result of a bacteriostatic effect 23. Aesthetic results attainable in a treatment plan involving malposed teeth and diastema can be determined by a. Appearance and health of gingival tissues b. Proper use of diagnostic casts c. Periodontal involvement d. Alveolar bone support 24. Dental plaque is composed primarily of a. Bacteria and bacterial products b. Bacteria and food particles c. Food particles and salivary mucins d. Degenerating epithelial cells and salivary mucins

An acceptable preventive orthodontic procedure in this case a. Extraction of primary second molars b. Extraction of first pre- molar c. Disking of primary second molars d. An active space regainer 30. Retension placed in a class V cavity prepared fpr direct filling gold should be at a. Occlusioaxial and gingivoaxial line angles b. Mesioaxial and distoaxial line angles c. Mesiogingival and distogingival line angles d. Axial line angles circumferentially 31. When bacteria invade through some break in the gingival tissue, the result can be a. A periapical abcess b. A periodontal abcess c. A gingival abcess d. A radicular cyst 32. In dealing with a frightened child, the dentist should a. Reprimand the child b. Delay the appointment c. Reason with the child c. Ask about the childs fears

33. Which of the following properties of the sodium

hypochlorite is the most undesirable? a. Smell b. Toxicity to the vital tissue c. Tendency to bleach dentine d. Corrosive action on the endodontic files

34. In primary occlusal traumatism, the most diagnostic

finding is a. Mobility c. Gingival recession b. d. Bone loss Vertical pocket formation

25. Which of the following factors dose not complicate

adequate oral hygiene performance a. Interdental calculus b. Overhanging restoration c. Orthodontic band d. Open contact 26. The major structures forming the root of the lung are a. Bronchus, phrenic nerve, bronchial arteries and veins b. Bronchus, azygous vein and pulmonary artery c. Bronchus, bronchial arteries, and veins d. Bronchus, pulmonary artery and veins 27. Dolichocephalic refers to a. Long wide faces c. Short wide faces

35. Aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase in a. Vascularity b. Cellular elements c. Fibrous elements of the pulp d. Non calcified areas within the pulp 36. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the mouth only when the major and minor connectors are a. Rigid b. Flexible c. Cast in a base-metal alloy d. Positioned in the same plane

37. Which of the following is most suspected if a radiograph

shows a dense, diffuse radiopacity at the apex of an endodontically treated mandibular left first molar a. Osteoma b. Cementoma c. Dental granuloma d. Condensing osteitis

b. Long narrow faces d. Short narrow faces

38. A patient returns one week after scaling and prophylaxis.

Hard black deposits of calculus are noted near the gingival margin. This indicates a. The patient is a heavy smoker b. Shrinkage occurred after instrumentation c. Home care is poor and new calculus formed d. After scaling ,blood clotted on the tooth surface

28. The root canal instrument most likely to break during the
use is a a. File b. Broch c. Reamer d. Spreader

29. A 10 yr old patient has lower canines trying to erupt into

a space insufficient by 2mm. Primary second molars are large and firmly in space. First premolars are erupting.

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 2 R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060. Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com

AHEAD Test and Discussions BHU Stimulated Test

39. Which of the following represents the most common form

of gingival periodontal disease in school aged children a. Juvenile periodontitis b. Localized acute gingivitis c. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis d. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis 40. The first ossification center of the mandible in a six weeks old human embryo is found in which of the following locations a. Future coronoid process b. Future condylar process c. Future mental foramen d. Future mandibular foramen

49. The usual , first clinical sign of mild lidocaine toxicity is a. Lethargy b. Nervousness c. Convulsion d. Tachycardia 50. In which of the following situations is space most difficult to manage a. A 5 year old patient with loss of a primary mandibular second molar b. A 7 year old patient with loss of a primary maxillary second molar c. A 6 year old patient with loss of a primary mandibular first molar d. A 5 year old patient with loss of a primary maxillary central incisor 51. Speech problems associated with removable orthodontic appliances are usually a. Difficulty of lingual vowels for a few days b. Difficulty of lingual vowels for few weeks c. Difficulty of linguo-alveolar consonants for a few days d. None of the above 52. In observing the lobulated bony projection in the lingual aspect of the mandibular premolars your first approach to a preliminary dental diagnosis would be a. Refer to a surgeon b. Measure the size of the lesion c. Send the pt: for blood test d. Ask the pt: how long they had been there 53. The most commonly retained decidious teeth in the adults a. Mandibular second molar b. Maxillary canine c. Mandibular central incisior d. Maxillary lateral incisior 54. The parotid gland is related to parotid papilla as the submandibular gland is related to a. Whartons duct b. Sublingual fold c. Sublingual caruncle d. Stensons duct

41. The most frequent cause of death occurring under

general anesthesia in a healthy out patient is a. Failure to pre medicate b. Over dosage of the anesthetic agent c. Airway obstruction with improper ventilation d. Reflex cardiac standstill 42. Neostigmine produces its effect by a. Depressing acetylcholinesterase release b. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase activity c. Increases the rate of acetylcholine synthesis d. Acting like acetylcoline at cholinergic receptor sites

43. If a 7 yr old patient loses a primary mandibular canine

about the same time the adjucent lateral incisior is erupting or shortly thereafter, the dentist should be alert to the possibility of a. A tongue habit b. A developing cross bite c. Early eruption of the permanent canine d. Crowding of the mandibular anterior teeth 44. Which of the following innervates the buccal gingiva of the maxillary second premolar a. Buccal nerve b. Anterior palatine nerve c. Posterior palatine nerve d. Middle superior alveolar nerve 45. In an inflammatory gingival lesion ,one would expect to find a. A decreased amount of exudate b. Large amounts of C-reactive protein c. Increased vascular permeability d. Decreased vascular permeability 46. The antibiotic of choice in compound comminuted fracture of the mandible is a. Tetracycline b. Penicillin c. Chloramphenicol d. Streptomycin 47. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in horizontal direction is a. Support b. Pressure c. Esthetics d. Stability 48. Tobacco smoking is sought to be a predisposing or a contributing factor in which of the following conditions a. Cyclic neutropenia b. Juvenile periodotitis c. Chediak-Higashi syndrome d. Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis

55. A child fractured a permanent maxillary central incisor

15 minutes ago. Examination of the tooth reveals a pin point pulp exposure and a wide open root apex. This condition is best treated by a. Formocresol pulpotomy b. Pulpectomy and root canal c. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy d. Direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide

56. The early mucosal alteration most likely to be observed in

cigarette smokers is a. Dysplasia b. Neoplasia c. Metaplasia d. Hyperplasia 57. Most failures in maintaining adequate plaque removal result from failures in patient a. Recalls b. Education c. Motivation d. Dexterity and skill 58. Breathing ceases upon destruction of the a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 3 R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060. Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com

AHEAD Test and Discussions BHU Stimulated Test

c. Hypothalamus d. Medulla oblongata

59. Relative to primary incisors, permanent mandibular

incisior buds lie a. Superior and lingual b. Superior and facial c. Inferior and lingual d. Inferior and facial 60. In the treatment of a carious lesion near the contact area, in a patient where the gingival tissue has receded below the cervical line, the gingival cavosurface margin of a cavity prepared for an inlay should terminate a. At the cervical line b. Under the free gingival margin c. At the crest of the gingival papillae d. In an area accessible for finishing and cleansing 61. Main cause of relapse after orthodontic treatment is due to a. Density of cortical bone b. Persistence of tongue and finger habits c. Persistence of oblique fibers d. Persistence of free gingiva and transseptal fibers 62. The posterior border of the buccinator muscle fibers terminates, or is attached to, the a. Styloid ligament b. Pterygomandibular raphe c. Stylomandibular ligament d. Sphenomandibular ligament

68. A 65 year old male who demonstrates urinary retention or difficulty in voiding his bladder most likely has a. Carcinoma of the prostrate b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia c. Malignant neoplasm of the ureter d. Bladder metastasis of bronchogenic carcinoma 69. The gelation of irreversible hydrochloride is retarded by a. Borax b. Potassium alginate c. Trisodium phosphate d. Calcium sulfate dihydrate 70. Edgewise appliances are multibanded appliances a. Used on the incisal edges of the anterior teeth b. Used to obtain edge to edge occlusion c. Employing a particular bracket for insertion of a rectangular arch wire d. Employing a particular bracket for insertion of two labial arch wires at the incisal and gingival edge of the bracket 71. Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low tensile strength a. Resilient b. Brittle c. Ductile d. Maleable 72. Three wall defect most frequently occur a. On the lingual aspect b. On the facial aspect c. In the interdental region d. In the furcation areas particularly involving maxillary molars 73. A child, age7 1/2 yrs has a 2.5 mm space between the permanent maxillary central incisors .The lateral incisors are half erupted .Advice to the patient should be that a. The condition should be corrected because it is hindering the eruption of the lateral incisors b. Research has not at this time found the reason for the condition, but it will be self correcting c. At this age the condition is not regarded as abnormal d. The lingual frenum should be dissected immediately

63. A diagnostic aid to be used as a last resort to conform

the presence of a carious lesion on the proximal surface of an anterior tooth is a. Transillumination b. A sharp explorer c. Mechanical separation d. Radiograph

64. During administration of intravenous diazepam in the

antecubital fossa, which of the following arteries may be entered inadvertently a. Ulnar b. Radial c. Brachial d. Deep branchial 65. The plasma protein that transport ferrous iron is a. Ferritin b. Myoglobin c. Hemoglobin d. Transferrin 66. Water irrigation devices have been shown to a. Eliminate plaque b. Dislodge food particles from between the teeth c. Prevent calculus formation d. Diminish plaque formation 67. Which of the following drug is contraindicated for a patient taking sodium warfarin daily a. Codeine b. Aspirin c. Morphine d. Pentobarbital

74. Among the clearly established local etiological factors, the

most frequently producing malocclusion is a. Thumb sucking b. Tongue thrusting c. Mouth breathing d. Premature loss of deciduous teeth

75. The non rigid connector may be used in fixed bridges in

those cases involving a. Long span bridges replacing two or more teeth b. Short span bridges replacing one missing tooth where the prepared abutment teeth are not in parallel alignment

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 4 R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060. Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com

AHEAD Test and Discussions BHU Stimulated Test

c. Long span bridges opposing a mucosa-borne partial

denture where the anterior retainer of the bridge strikes an opposing natural tooth, but the distal portion of the bridge is in occlusion with the removable partial denture Long or short span bridges where one of the abutment teeth has limited periodontal support

85. Which of the following bone doner greft has the greatest
potential a. Freeze-dried bone b. Hemopoietic marrow c. Hetrogenous marrow d. Corticocancellous block 86. Which of the following conditions results primarily from cross-brushing the teeth? a. Erosion b. Abrasion c. Attrition d. Hypoplasia

d.

76. The principal use of stainless steel pins in an amalgam restorative procedure is for a. Retension b. Reinforcement c. Resistance form d. All of the above 77. Sialoliths are most commonly found in the a. Parotid duct b. Parotid gland c. Sublingual gland d. Submandibular duct or gland

87. An excisional biopsy is characterized by a. Using a trephine b. Exfoliative cytology techniques 78. The greatest percentage of tooth loss in the first two c. Including normal tissue and most of the lesion decade of life other than natural loss of primary teeth is d. Including normal tissue and all of the lesion due to a. Periodontal disease
b. Treated dental caries c. Untreated dental caries d. Trauma to the teeth from accidents 88. Incipient proximal decalcification in decidious molars can first be seen in the radiograph a. At the point of contact of approximating teeth b. Just gingival to the point of contact c. Just occlusal to the point of contact d. All of the above 89. A dentalpatient on clonidine therapy for hypertension most often complains of a. Restlessness b. Xerostomia c. Severe postural hypertension d. Frequent visits to the bathroom 90. Transfer of inheritable characteristics among bacteria is dependent on a. ATP b. DNA c. RNA d. DPT 91. Which of the cyst involves the crown of the unerupted tooth a. Radicular b. Dentigerous c. Primodial d. Residual 92. Incision for drainage in an area for acute infection should be performed when a. Pain is acute b. Induration has occured c. Localisation has occured d. Patient develops fever 93. The maxillary sinus normally drains into a. Middle meatus b. Inferior meatus c. Inferior concha d. Superior meatus 94. The proper rate of the rescue breathing in an adult is a. 4 times per minute b. 12 times per minute

79. Common gutta-percha solvent is

a. Alcohol c. Cresatin b. d. Chloroform Camphorated p-chlorophenol

80. Which of the following represents the drug of choice in the treatment of candidiasis for an HIV- infected patient a. Acyclovir b. Nystatin c. Tetracycline d. Chlorhexidine

81. Which one of the following is congenital in origin

a. b. c. d. Hemangioma Fibroma Papiloma Lipoma

82. Which of the following is the major contraindication to resection of the crestal bone a. Gingival recession b. Removal of the healthy bone c. Bone resorption after osseous surgery d. Weakening of support of an adjacent tooth

83. Carious lesion in enamel that started in a pit and has

reached the dentinoenamel junction will usually be shaped like a a. Circle b. Square c. Cone with the apex at the surface d. Cone with the apex at the dentinoenamel junction

84. The thickness of coronal dentine in primary teeth,

compared with that in corresponding permanent teeth, is approximately a. One-fourth b. One-third c. One-half d. Same

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 5 R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060. Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com

AHEAD Test and Discussions BHU Stimulated Test

c. 20 times per minute d. 28 times per minute 95. The resting pressure in the cardiac cycle is the a. Blood pressure b. Pulsepressure c. Systolic pressure d. Diastolic pressure 96. An early prepubertal growth spurt indicates a. A fast maturing child b. A slow maturing child c. A longer treatment time d. Nothing of interest 97. An advantage of rubber-base impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that rubber base impression material a. Will displace soft tissue b. Requires less armamentarium c. Is significantly more accurate d. Is more accurate if saliva, mucous or blood is present 98. The dental pulp first becomes influenced by dental caries when the carious lesion reaches a. The dental pulp b. The dentinoenamel junction c. Halfway through the dentine d. A point 1-2 mm away from the pulp

99. After

a threshold stimulus, the cell-membrane permeability becomes altered. The liberation of which of the following transmitter substances causes this alteration a. Acetylcoline b. Cholinesterase c. Hydroxycholine d. Acetylsalicylic acid The antibacterial substance found in saliva, tears and egg white is a. Albumin b. Isozyme c. Amylase d. Lysozome

100.

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 6 R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060. Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com