CAP SEATWORK Score: ____________ Name: _______________________________________________________ Date: __________________ Multiple Choices: Identify the letter of the choice

that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The concept of nursing continues to evolve. caring for people and the practice of caring is timeless. The professional nurse of the 21st century must be able to _______________ in order to meet the demands of a dramatically changing health care system. a. Love and care b. Grow and evolve c. Study and learn d. Keep quiet and listen 2. The nurse delivers care with compassion and empathy, respect for the patients dignity and personhood. a. Nursing as Science b. Nursing as an Art c. Nursing as Dynamic d. Nursing as Contemporary 3. Nursing is based upon a body of knowledge that is always changing with discoveries from researches and innovations. a. Nursing as Science b. Nursing as an Art c. Nursing as Dynamic d. Nursing as Contemporary 4. The role of nursing is significant in promoting the persons maximum potential health and harmonious relationship with her environment. a. Florence Nightingale b. Sr. Callista Roy c. Maslow d. Orem 5. Care and protection, similar from the care and protection of mother to her child; encourage to grow, develop and thrive and be successful. a. Caring b. Nurturing c. Giving d. Loving 6. An interpersonal process between a person providing. It is based on an exchange of energy and information with the expectation that there will be growth and change but not necessarily improvement in patients condition. a. Caring b. Nurturing c. Giving d. Loving 7. Refers to professional character, spirit or methods. It is a set of attributes, a way of life that implies

responsibility and commitment. a. Professionalism b. Responsibility c. Idealism d. Integrity 8. The following are examples of your answer to number 7 except: a. Engaging in activities that may improve ones knowledge of his/her profession. b. Promoting the value of her profession by wearing appropriate manners of dress and speech. c. Ability to keep in confidentiality things that may endanger ones reputation or the patients reputation as well. d. Mistakes committed by friends should be kept secret so as not to destroy your friendship. 9. It means engaging in behaviors that enhances the ways of life and maximize personal potential. Ex: improving nutrition and physical fitness; preventing drug, smoking and alcohol misuse; preventing injury and accidents in the home and workplace. a. Restoring Health b. Wellness c. Prevention d. Disease 10. Maintaining optimal health by prevention of disease like vaccination, prenatal and infant care and prevention of sexually transmitted illness a. Health b. Wellness c. Prevention d. Illness 11. Inability of the individuals adaptive responses to maintain physical and emotional balance that results to impairment. a. Restoring Health b. Wellness c. Prevention d. Illness 12. Focuses on the ill client and it extends from early detection of disease up through helping the client during the early recovery period. a. Restoring Health b. Wellness c. Prevention d. Illness 13. A legal document given by the government that permits a person to offer to the public his or her skills and knowledge in a particular jurisdiction, where such practice would otherwise be unlawful without it. a. Registration b. License c. Permit d. Identification Card 14. The need for licensure is due to the following reasons except: a. The primary purpose of registration is to protect the health of the people by establishing minimum

standards which qualified practitioners must meet. b. Licensure discourages certain persons who may be tempted to misrepresent themselves as nurses. c. It is the least important tool for legal control and enforcement of nursing practice. d. It is also used to gather statistical data about nurses and nursing in the country. 15. The Nursing Act of 2002 is known as: a. RA 7164 b. RA 9173 c. RA 0173 d. RA 9174 16. The following are symptoms of alcoholism except: a. Elaborate excuses for behavior, unkempt appearance b. Good motor coordination, slurred speech, flushed face, bloodshot eyes c. Numerous injuries, burns, bruises, etc., with vague explanations d. Smell of alcohol, excessive use of mouthwash and mints. 17. The following are symptoms of drug abuse except: a. Refuses overtime work. b. Increased somatic complaints necessitating prescriptions of pain medications. c. Excessive wasting of drugs d. May wear long sleeves all the time, volunteers medication of other nurse. 18. The following are manifestations of mental health disorders excpt: a. Depressed, lethargic, unable to focus or concentrate, apathetic b. Makes no mistakes at work c. Erratic behavior or mood swings d. Inappropriate or bizarre behavior or speech 19. The following circumstances characterize sexual harassment except: a. When submission to such conduct is considered, either explicitly or implicitly, a condition of an individuals employment. b. When submission or rejection of such conduct is used in the basis for employment decisions affecting the individual. c. When such conduct interferes with an individuals work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment. d. When submission or rejection of such conduct results in no action whatsoever. 20. The four major categories of invasion of privacy are the following except: a. Vital signs b. Infections and communicable diseases c. Child or elder abuse d. Violent incidents 21. The four types of invasion of privacy are the following except: a. Use of the clients name or likeness for profit, without consent. b. Reasonable intrusion. c. Public disclosure of private facts. d. Putting a person in a false light. 22. Legal protection in nursing practice includes:

a. The Good Samaritan Acts b. Professional Liability Insurance c. Carrying out a physicians order d. Providing incompetent Nursing care 23. Laws that provide protection and ensure immunity from civil liability to health care providers assisting at the scene of an emergency. a. The Good Samaritan Acts b. Professional Liability Insurance c. Carrying out a physicians order d. Providing competent Nursing care 24. The following are guidelines for the Good Samaritan Act except: a. Limit action to those normally considered first aid, if possible. b. Do not perform actions that you do not know how to do. c. Offer assistance, but do not insist. d. Perform non emergency procedures right away. 25. The following categories are considered in carrying out a physicians order except: a. Question any other order if the clients condition has changed. b. Question and record verbal orders to avoid miscommunications. c. Question any order that is illegible, unclear, or incomplete. d. None of the above 26. The following should be included in an incident report except: a. Identify the client by name, initials, and hospital or ID number. b. Give the date, time, place of the incident. c. Describe the facts of the incident. Avoid any conclusions or blame. Describe the incident as you saw it even if your impressions differ from those of others. d. Always include hearsays in your report. 27. Which of the following women made significant contributions to the nursing care of soldiers during the Civil War? a. Harriet Tubman b. Florence Nightingale c. Fabiola d. Maslow 28. Health promotion is best represented by which of the following activities? a. Administering immunizations b. Giving a bath c. Preventing injuries in the home d. Performing diagnostic procedures 29. Who are Americas first two trained nurses? a. Barton and Wald b. Dock and Sanger c. Richards and Mahoney d. Henderson and Breckinridge 30. Which of the following social forces is most likely to significantly impact the future supply and demand for nurses?

a. Aging b. Economics c. Science/technology d. Telecommunications 31. Which of the following is an example of continuing education for nurses? a. Attending the hospitals orientation program. b. Talking with a company representative about a new piece of equipment. c. Completing a workshop on ethical aspects of nursing. d. Obtaining information about the facilitys new computer charting system. 32. Dedicated themselves to the care of those people with leprosy, syphilis, and chronic skin conditions. From the time of Christ to the mid-13th century, leprosy was viewed as an incurable terminal disease. a. The Knights Templar b. The Knights of Columbus c. The Knights Of Saint Lazarus d. The Knights of Saint John 33. ) She was known as The Moses of Her People for her work with the Underground Railroad. During the Civil War (18611865), she nursed the sick and suffering of her own race. a. Harriet Tubman b. Sojourner Truth c. Dorothea Dix d. Sairy Gamp 34. Abolitionist, Underground Railroad agent, preacher, and womens rights advocate, was a nurse for over 4 years during the Civil War and worked as a nurse and counselor for the Freedmens Association after the war. a. Harriet Tubman b. Sojourner Truth c. Dorothea Dix d. Sairy Gamp 35. She was the Unions Superintendent of Female Nurses during the Civil War. a. Harriet Tubman b. Sojourner Truth c. Dorothea Dix d. Sairy Gamp 36. A character in Dickens book Martin Chuzzlewit, represents the negative image of nurses during the 1800s. a. Harriet Tubman b. Sojourner Truth c. Dorothea Dix d. Sairy Gamp 37. Considered the founder of modern nursing, Florence Nightingale (18201910) was influential in developing nursing education, practice, and administration. Her publication, _________________________first published in England in 1859 and in the United States in 1860, was intended for all women. a. Book on Nursing: To see is to believe

b. Notes on Nursing; What it is and what it is not c. To Kill a Mocking Bird d. The Good Samaritan 38. She organized the Red Cross, which linked with the International Red Cross when the U.S. Congress ratified the Geneva Convention in 1882. a. Clara Barton b. Linda Richards c. Mary Mahoney d. Lilian Ward 39. She was Americas first trained nurse. a. Clara Barton b. Linda Richards c. Mary Mahoney d. Lilian Ward 40. She was the first African American trained nurse. a. Clara Barton b. Linda Richards c. Mary Mahoney d. Lilian Ward 41. She founded the Henry Street Settlement and Visiting Nurse Service (circa 1893), which provided nursing and social services and organized educational and cultural activities. She is considered the founder of public health nursing. a. Clara Barton b. Linda Richards c. Mary Mahoney d. Lilian Ward 42. Nursing leader and suffragist ________________ (18581956) was active in the protest movement for womens rights that resulted in the U.S. Constitution amendment allowing women to vote in 1920. a. Lavinia L. Dock b. Margaret Sanger c. Mary Breckenridge d. Kate Beckinsale 43. A nurse activist, who was considered the founder of Planned Parenthood, was imprisoned for opening the first birth control information clinic in Baltimore in 1916. a. Lavinia L. Dock b. Margaret Sanger c. Mary Breckenridge d. Kate Beckinsale 44. A nurse, who practiced midwifery in England, Australia, and New Zealand, founded the Frontier Nursing Service in Kentucky in 1925 to provide family-centered primary health care to rural populations. a. Lavinia L. Dock b. Margaret Sanger c. Mary Breckenridge d. Kate Beckinsale

45. Student nurses are conducting a weight reduction class for their peers in the university setting. The student nurses are functioning primarily in which nursing role? a. Caregiver b. Client advocate c. Change agent d. Leader 46. A student nurse has completed his clients personal care and is waiting for his clinical instructor to assist with documentation. During this time, he overhears a staff discussion of a client who is being admitted to the next room with an unusual presentation of necrotizing vasculitis. The student desires to increase his knowledge base in this area and enters the patients room to see the unusual condition. a. Defamation b. Unprofessional conduct c. Battery d. Invasion of privacy 47. An individual, a group of people, or a community that uses a service or a commodity. a. Patient b. Client c. Consumer d. Customer 48. A person who is waiting for or undergoing medical treatment and care. Traditionally, he/she is the person receiving healthcare. a. Patient b. Client c. Consumer d. Customer 49. A person who engages the advice or services of another who is qualified to provide this service. a. Patient b. Client c. Consumer d. Customer 50. The following are roles and functions of a nurse except: a. Caregiver b. Patient advocate c. Teacher d. Lover 51. This role has traditionally included those activities that assist the client physically and psychologically while preserving the clients dignity. a. Communicator b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver 52. In this role, the nurse identifies client problems and communicates them verbally or in writing to other members of the health team. a. Communicator

b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver 53. The nurse helps clients learn about their health and the health care procedures they need to perform to restore or maintain their health. a. Communicator b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver 54. The nurse acts to protect the client. In this role the nurse may represent the clients needs and wishes to other health professionals, such as relaying the clients wishes for information to the physician. a. Communicator b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver 55. The process of helping a client to recognize and cope with stressful psychologic or social problems, to develop improved interpersonal relationships, and to promote personal growth. a. Change agent b. Counselor c. Leader d. Manager 56. The nurse assists clients to make modifications in their behavior. a. Change agent b. Counselor c. Leader d. Manager 57. Influences others to work together to accomplish specific goals. a. Change agent b. Counselor c. Leader d. Manager 58. The nurse delegates nursing activities to ancillary workers and other nurses, and supervises and evaluates their performance. a. Change agent b. Counselor c. Leader d. Manager 59. It has been defined as an occupation that requires extensive education or a calling that requires special knowledge, skill and preparation. a. Job b. Occupation c. Profession d. Vocation

60. It is the study of population, including statistics about distribution by age and place of residence, mortality, and morbidity. a. Topography b. Demography c. Bibliography d. Anthropology 61. The following are factors affecting the nursing shortage except: a. Aging Nurse Workforce b. Aging of Nursing Faculty c. Aging Population d. Increased entry of students into Nursing 62. The type of entry-level generalist nurses are the following except: a. Registered Nurse b. Licensed Practical Nurse c. Nursing Aide d. Licensed Vocational Nurse 63. This refers to the formalized experiences designed to enlarge the knowledge or skills of practitioners. a. Doctorate Degree b. Masteral in Nursing c. Continuing Medical Education d. Doctor of Philosophy 64. It is administered by an employer designed to upgrade the knowledge or skills of employees. a. Outpatient Service b. In-service education c. Continuing Medical Education d. Masteral Program 65. A nurse is careful to cover the client during a bath. This action describes which of the following nursing roles? a. Communicator b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver 66. A student nurse has set up study groups, complete with objectives and goals for each session. This student is practicing which attribute of organization? a. Autonomy b. Socialization c. Perseverance d. Leadership 67. The nurse is caring for several acutely ill clients during the shift. Which of the following is an example of the nurse practicing the professional criteria of autonomy? a. Communicating with peers when help is needed b. Deciding to prioritize care according to client needs c. Delivering medications and prescribed treatments in a timely manner d. Complaining to the supervisor about high acuity level and staff-to-client ratio

68. The client questions information gathered from a website. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse to these questions? a. "Information from the Internet isn't accurate." b. "Don't trust anything you haven't received from our office." c. "We'll have to check this information with your physician." d. "Bring your information to the clinic so we can go through it together." 69. A practicing RN decides that attending an upcoming workshop about new pharmacological treatments would benefit his or her practice. This RN is modeling which of the standards of professional performance? a. Education b. Professional practice evaluation c. Quality of practice d. Research 70. In alignment with the contributions of Florence Nightingale, the Vietnam Women's Memorial was established to honor which of the following? a. Surgical advancements and the use of anesthetic agents b. The image of the angel of mercy c. Those who brought a human touch to the suffering and dying d. The memory of Ms. Nightingale 71. Public health and health promotion roles for nurses are components of nursing envisioned by which of the following nurse leaders? a. Florence Nightingale b. Lillian Wald c. Mary Brewster d. Clara Barton 72. Which of the following nurse leaders campaigned for the legislation that allows nurses, rather than physicians, to control the nursing profession? a. Mary Breckinridge b. Lavinia Dock c. Virginia Henderson d. Margaret Higgins Sanger 73. The term patient usually implies that the person is: a. Using a service or commodity. b. Proactive in his or her health care needs. c. Seeking assistance because of illness. d. A collaborator in his or her care 74. A nurse has decided to focus on educating the community about health promotion and wellness. Which of the following would be an example of this? a. Teaching a class about home accident prevention b. Initiating prenatal and infant care c. Implementing an exercise class for clients who have had a stroke d. Teaching a heart attack patient on proper diet 75. Nursing students offer free occult blood screening at a community health fair. This activity would be an example of which area of nursing practice?

a. Illness prevention b. Promoting health and wellness c. Restoring health d. Rehabilitation 76. A client wishes to discontinue treatment for his cancer. Acting as the client advocate, the nurse makes this statement to the client's physician: a. "The client is making his own decision." b. "Let's educate the family about the consequences of this decision." c. "The client would benefit from additional information about treatment options." d. "The family must be involved in this decision." 77. Throughout the course of the nursing program, professionalism is exemplified by the faculty. The student nurse practices professionalism by which of the following? a. Promising to uphold the standards of the profession b. Maintaining specific character and spirit c. Acquiring characteristics considered to be professional d. Learning about the influences of Florence Nightingale 78. The community health nurse is working primarily with teenage mothers and their children. The nurse recognizes that these clients have increased vulnerability, mainly due to which of the following? a. Distance separation from their nuclear families b. Normal difficulties of adolescence c. Increased poverty d. Raising children without the support of family 79. When the nurse performs an investigative role which further improves the nursing practice and substantiates practices as they were tested and further studied upon. a. Client advocate b. Researcher c. Teacher d. Counselor 80. Nurse Karen is a public health nurse that performs immunization programs in the community. The nurse performs what specific area of nursing? a. Care of the dying b. Preventing illness c. Restoring health d. Promoting health and wellness

CAP SEATWORK2 Name: ______________________________________________ Date: ______________ Multiple Choices: Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The standard or rule of conduct established and enforced by government designed to protect the rights of the public. a. Rules b. Law c. Statutes d. Orders 2. Civil law regulates relationships among people. This belongs to this type of law: a. Public law b. Private law c. Criminal law d. Administrative law 3. Concerns state and federal statutes that define actions like murder and theft. a. Public law b. Private law c. Criminal law d. Administrative law 4. Serves as guidelines to legislative bodies. a. Constitutions b. Statutes c. Administrative law d. Common law 5. These are enacted by a legislative body. a. Constitutions b. Statutes c. Administrative law d. Common law 6. These are empowered by executive officers a. Constitutions b. Statutes c. Administrative law d. Common law 7. Judiciary systems reconcile controversies. a. Constitutions b. Statutes c. Administrative law d. Common law 8. It is a written statement made under oath before a notary public or other person duly authorized. a. Inquest b. Affidavit c. Contempt of court

d. Defendant 9. The person being accused of a wrongdoing; therefore needs concerning his complaint/defense. a. Inquest b. Affidavit c. Contempt of court d. Defendant 10. It is the legal inquiry into the cause or manner of a death. a. Inquest b. Affidavit c. Contempt of court d. Defendant 11. It is the willful disobedience to, or open disrespect for, the rules of court. a. Inquest b. Affidavit c. Contempt of court d. Defendant 12. It is a willful telling of a lie under oath. This can be committed by a nurse who is a witness in a legal case. a. False testimony b. Perjury c. Contempt d. Hearsay 13. A primary care providers orders indicate that a surgical consent form needs to be signed. Since the nurse was not present when the primary care provider discussed the surgical procedure, which statement best illustrates the nurse fulfilling the client advocate role? a. The doctor has asked that you sign this consent form. b. Do you have any questions about the procedure? c. What were you told about the procedure you are going to have? d. Remember that you can change your mind and cancel the procedure. 14. Although the client refused the procedure, the nurse insisted and inserted a nasogastric tube in the right nostril. The administrator of the hospital decides to settle the lawsuit because the nurse is most likely to be found guilty of which of the following? a. An unintentional tort. b. Assault. c. Invasion of privacy. d. Battery. 15. A nursing student is employed and working as an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a busy surgical unit. The nurses know that the UAP is enrolled in a nursing program and will be graduating soon. A nurse asks the UAP if he has performed a urinary catheterization on clients while in the nursing program. When the UAP says Yes, the nurse asks him to help her out by doing a urinary catheterization on a postsurgical client. What is the best response by the UAP? a. Let me get permission from the client first. b. Sure. Which client is it? c. I cant do it unless you supervise me.

d. I cant do it. Is there something else I can help you with? 16. The nurses partner/spouse undergoes exploratory surgery at the hospital where the nurse is employed. Which of the following practices is most appropriate? a. Because the nurse is an employee, access to the chart is allowed. b. The relationship with the client provides the nurse special access to the chart. c. Access to the chart requires a signed release form. d. The nurse can ask the surgeon to discuss the outcome of the surgery. 17. Which of the following nursing actions could result in malpractice? a. Learns about a new piece of equipment. b. Forgets to complete the assessment of a client. c. Follows up on clients complaints. d. Charts clients drug allergies. 18. When an ethical issue arises, one of the most important nursing responsibilities in managing client care situations is which of the following? a. Be able to defend the morality of ones own actions. b. Remain neutral and detached when making ethical decisions. c. Ensure that a team is responsible for deciding ethical questions. d. Follow the client and family wishes exactly. 19. Evidence which if unexplained or un-contradicted would establish the fact alleged. a. Prima facie evidence b. Subpoena c. Subpoena duces tecum d. Res ipsa loquitur 20. It is an order that requires a person to attend at a specific time and place to testify as witness. a. Prima facie evidence b. Subpoena c. Subpoena duces tecum d. Res ipsa loquitur 21. It requires a witness to bring required papers/documents and the like which may be in his possessions. a. Prima facie evidence b. Subpoena c. Subpoena duces tecum d. Res ipsa loquitur 22. The thing speaks for itself. When the harm that resulted from negligence and the responsibility for the harm are clear that anyone would agree on it, the term _______ is used. a. Prima facie evidence b. Subpoena c. Subpoena duces tecum d. Res ipsa loquitur 23. Defines, among other things, hours of work, contract (including termination of contract) and nurse staffing in industrial clinics. a. Labor Code b. Magna Carta

c. Civil Service law d. Equality law 24. Provides for the recruitment and selection of employees in government service; qualification standards; personnel evaluation system; and, personnel discipline). Also provides that no employee of the Civil Service can be suspended except for cause as provided for by law and after due process. a. Labor Code b. Magna Carta c. Civil Service law d. Equality law 25. Has a provision on the benefits (financial and non-financial), rights and responsibilities of public health workers. Public health workers include everybody who works in government health institutions such as hospitals and laboratories. a. Labor Code b. Magna Carta c. Civil Service law d. Equality law 26. Salary Standardization Law a. RA 6758 b. RA 7305 c. RA 7877 d. RA 7041 27. Anti-Sexual Harassment Act a. RA 6758 b. RA 7305 c. RA 7877 d. RA 7041 28. Magna Carta of Public Health Workers a. RA 6758 b. RA 7305 c. RA 7877 d. RA 7041 29. An Act Requiring Regular Publication of Existing Vacant Positions in Government Offices a. RA 6758 b. RA 7305 c. RA 7877 d. RA 7041 30. An Act Penalizing the Refusal of Hospitals and Medical Clinics to Administer Appropriate Initial Medical Treatment and Support in Emergency cases a. RA 6713 b. RA 8344 c. PD 807 d. RA 7160 31. Civil Service Rules and Regulations a. RA 6713

b. RA 8344 c. PD 807 d. RA 7160 32. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees a. RA 6713 b. RA 8344 c. PD 807 d. RA 7160 33. Local Government Code a. RA 6713 b. RA 8344 c. PD 807 d. RA 7160 34. The Nursing Practice Act of 2002 a. RA 7164 b. RA 9178 c. RA 9173 d. RA 9174 35. A person shall be deemed to be practicing nursing within the meaning of this Act when he/she singly or in collaboration with another, initiates and performs nursing services to individuals, families and communities in any health care setting. The following are within the scope of nursing practice except: a. Provide nursing care through the utilization of the nursing process. b. Establish linkages with community resources and coordination with the health team c. Provide health education to individuals, families and communities d. Prescribe medicines to the sick and needy 36. A person can practice nursing in the Philippines if he/she has accomplished the following except: a. Passed the written exams given by the Board of Nursing b. Registered by reciprocity c. Has a special or temporary permit d. Has passed the US NCLEX 37. Nurses who are registered in a foreign country may be issued certificate of registration/professional license if conditions are met. a. Permission b. Reciprocity c. Extradition d. Request 38. The following are reasons for suspending or revoking a license except: a. Fraud, deceptive practice b. Gross or ordinary negligence c. Physical or mental impairments d. Doing medical/surgical procedures in accident sites 39. The following are due cause for revoking a license except: a. Notice of investigation

b. Fair and impartial hearing c. Proper decision based on substantial evidence d. Inquest proceedings 40. Nurse best defense of license investigation are the following except: a. Early legal counselling b. Break the news to the media c. Character and expert witness d. Thorough preparation for all proceedings 41. ___________ is not doing what a reasonable or prudent person would do or doing something that a reasonable or prudent person would not do. a. Malpractice b. Negligence c. Crime d. Tort 42. Wrong against a person or his or her property as well as the public. a. Malpractice b. Negligence c. Crime d. Tort 43. Wrong committed by a person against another person or his or her property. a. Malpractice b. Negligence c. Crime d. Tort 44. Wrong committed by a medical personnel either by commission or omission. a. Malpractice b. Negligence c. Crime d. Tort 45. Unjustifiable attempt to touch another person or even the threat of doing so. a. Battery b. Assault c. Fraud d. Defamation 46. The actual carrying out of the threatened physical contact. a. Battery b. Assault c. Fraud d. Defamation 47. Occurs where a person discusses another individual in terms that diminish reputation. a. Battery b. Assault c. Fraud

d. Defamation 48. Is a deception made for personal gain and is both a crime and civil law violation. a. Battery b. Assault c. Fraud d. Defamation 49. It is the violation of a persons right to be left alone. a. Invasion of privacy b. False imprisonment c. Accomplice d. Accessory 50. It is the infringement of upon an individuals freedom of movement. It is making someone wrongfully feel that he or she cannot leave the place. a. Invasion of privacy b. False imprisonment c. Accomplice d. Accessory 51. A person who actively participates in the commission of a crime, even though they take no part in the actual criminal offence. a. Invasion of privacy b. False imprisonment c. Accomplice d. Accessory 52. A person who assists in the commission of a crime, but does not actually participate in the commission of the crime as a joint principal. a. Invasion of privacy b. False imprisonment c. Accomplice d. Accessory 53. An obligation or debt that can be enforced by law. a. Damages b. Liability c. Tort d. Crime 54. Refer to compensation in money recoverable for a loss or damage. a. Damages b. Liability c. Tort d. Crime 55. The following are elements of a liability except: a. Duty b. Causation c. Money

d. Damages 56. The nurse who delegates a task to an unlicensed worker remains personally liable. She should remember the following must be done except: a. Task should be properly assigned to a worker competent to safely perform it. b. Worker should be properly supervised. c. Appropriate follow-up and evaluation of the task should be done. d. Ensure that the unlicensed worker gets a license. 57. Nurse is liable for his/her actions. a. Respondent superior b. Captain-of-the-ship doctrine c. Corporate liability d. Personal liability 58. Applies to a situation where an employer is liable for the act of its employees. a. Respondent superior b. Captain-of-the-ship doctrine c. Corporate liability d. Personal liability 59. Is primarily applied in the operating room and impose liability on the surgeon for the acts of any of the people working in the room. a. Respondent superior b. Captain-of-the-ship doctrine c. Corporate liability d. Personal liability 60. Means that the corporation has a duty separate and distinct from its duty as an employer, to assure that patients receive safe and quality care. a. Respondent superior b. Captain-of-the-ship doctrine c. Corporate liability d. Personal liability 61. It is a document made by a competent individual to establish desired health care for the future or give someone else the right to make health care if the individual becomes incompetent. a. Advance payment b. Advance directive c. Advance care d. Advance decision 62. An individuals signed request to be allowed to die when life can be supported only mechanically or by heroic measures. It specifies the treatments a patient wants or does not want, if he becomes unable to make decisions for himself. a. Testament b. Living will c. Valid request d. Legal wish 63. Restraints should be used with caution and discretion. All patients have the right to independence and

freedom of movement. Restraints require a a. Strong rope b. Right loop c. Physicians order d. Patients consent 64. Telephone orders a. Are accepted in contemporary practice. b. Is more efficient. c. Should be accepted only in extreme emergencies. d. Should be written twice 65. The following protocol should be followed in accepting a telephone order except: a. Read back the order to the doctor to ensure that the order has been correctly received. b. Write the physicians name and ones name and sign; note the time. c. Record the telephone conversation. d. Make sure that the ordering physician signs his name as soon as he arrives. 66. Medical records were created as a means of communicating among health care providers serving the following important function(s): a. to provide legal documentation b. to provide detailed accounts c. to obtain third party payments d. both a and c are correct 67. The following are outcomes of malpractice litigation except: a. All parties work toward fair settlement. b. Case is presented to malpractice arbitration panel. c. All parties are brought in for inquest. d. Case is brought to trial court. 68. The following are roles of a nurse in a legal proceeding except: a. Nurse as a defendant b. Nurse as an arbitrator c. Nurse as a fact witness d. Nurse as expert witness 69. Recommendations for nurse defendant except: a. Discuss the case with the persons involved in it. b. Do not alter patient records. c. Be courteous on witness stand. d. Do not volunteer any information. 70. Essential elements of an informed consent except: a. Competence b. Complete information c. Voluntariness d. Consequences 71. The nurses responsibility in witnessing the giving of informed consent involves except: a. witnessing the exchange between the client and the physician

b. witnessing the client affix his signature c. witnessing the procedure done d. establishing that the client really understood 72. A meeting of minds between two persons where they bind themselves to give something or to render some services. a. Idea b. Contract c. Deal d. Talk 73. Which of the following laws affect nurses who work in San Lazaro Hospital? 1. RA 7305 2. RA 8344 3. PD 807 4. Labor code a. All b. 1,2,3 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2 74. With the devolution of health services, a nurse who works at Batangas Regional Hospital: a. Is no longer an employee of the DOH. b. Is no longer subject to Civil Service Rules. c. Can easily be terminated by the local chief executive. d. Will receive reduced benefits. 75. A public health nurse may be subjected to disciplinary measures for which of the following? 1. Dishonesty 2. Discourtesy 3. Inefficiency 4. Falsification of official documents a. 1,2,3 b. 1,4 c. All d. 1,3,4 76. Who among the following appoints nursing personnel in the municipalities? a. City councilor b. Congressman c. Municipal mayor d. Senator representing the district 77. Which legislation aims to promote and improve the social and economic well-being of health workers in the government service? a. RA 7164 b. DOH policies and guidelines c. All d. Magna Carta 78. A staff nurse has which of the following responsibilities? 1. Follow all doctors orders.

2. Ensure the security of the her/his nursing unit. 3. Provide nursing care in accordance with professional standards. 4. Ensure proper and accurate recording. a. 3, 4 b. b. 1, 3, 4 c. c. 1, 2, 3 d. d. 2, 3, 4 79. Doing a nursing procedure without the patients informed consent may bring the nurse to the court of law for which of the following violation? a. tort b. assault c. negligence d. battery 80. Allowing a person who is not involved with the care of the patient to read the patients chart constitutes which of the following violations? a. invasion of the patients right to privacy b. malpractice c. breach of trust d. violation of the patients dignity 81. A nurse may be charged of negligence if: 1. A patient is injured. 2. The nurse did not follow nursing standards. 3. The nurse failed to do her duty. 4. The injury that the patient sustained is foreseeable a. 1, 2, 3 b. All c. 1, 2, 4 d. 2, 3, 4 82. Which of the following examples illustrates res ipsa loquitur? a. A patient died 6 hours after the injection of antibiotic. b. A patient developed infection at the I.V. insertion site. c. A comatose patient was scalded because of the hot water bag placed by the nurse. d. A psychiatric patient was hit by a car a block away from the hospital. 83. A nurse who works in a hospital is governed by a contract. Which of the following statements is true? a. She can terminate her employment anytime she likes. b. She cannot just be assigned to the night shift because it is not explicit in her contract. c. She is liable for damages if she violates her contract. d. All of the above 84. A nurse gives a wrong medication to a client. Another nurse employed by the hospital as a risk manager will expect to receive which of the following communications? a. incident report b. copy of medication Kardex c. order change signed by the physician d. All of the above

85. A patient insists in going home despite the fact that his condition remains unstable. What should be done? a. Physically prevent the patient from leaving the hospital. b. Ask the patient to sign a waiver after adequate explanation. c. Take the patient home in an ambulance. d. Request the family to talk to the patient against leaving. 86. Patient records are very important in court litigations. Which of the following safeguards should be adopted by the nurse? a. Follow standard charting. b. Photocopy patients charts before submitting to the Medical Records Office. c. Maintain a logbook of potential legal cases. d. All of the above 87. The nurse used restraints imprudently. This is: a. False imprisonment. b. Illegal detention. c. Invasion of privacy. d. Battery. 88. A patient is preparing a will. The nurse caring for her can tell that: a. She should consult her husband first. b. If the will is entirely handwritten, there is no need for witnesses. c. She should get a clearance from a psychiatrist. d. All of the above 89. A client with diarrhea also has a physicians order for a bulk laxative daily. The nurse, not realizing that bulk laxatives can help solidify certain types of diarrhea, concludes The physician does not know the client has diarrhea. This statement is an example of: a. A fact b. An inference c. A judgment d. An opinion 90. A client reports feeling hungry, but does not eat when food is served. Using critical-thinking skills, the nurse should perform which of the following? a. Assess why the client is not ingesting the food provided. b. Continue to leave the food at the bedside until the client is hungry enough to eat. c. Notify the primary care provider that tube feeding may be indicated soon. d. Believe the client is not really hungry. 91. Although one nurse feels the manager prepared the holiday work schedule unfairly, the manager states that it is the same type of schedule used in the past and other nurses have no problems with it. The nurse continues to feel uncomfortable about how the schedule was created. Which response indicates the nurse is displaying an attitude of critical thinking? a. Accepting the preferences of the other nurses since there are several of them. b. Recognizing that the nurse must have reached a false conclusion. c. Considering going to a higher authority than the manager for an explanation. d. Continuing to query the manager until the nurse understands the explanation. 92. In the decision-making process, the nurse sets and weights the criteria, examines alternatives, and performs which of the following before implementing the plan?

a. Reexamines the purpose for making the decision. b. Consults the client and family members to determine their view of the criteria. c. Identifies and considers various means for reaching the outcomes. d. Determines the logical course of action should intervening problems arise. 93. A nurse can protect herself from malpractice suits in the Philippines by observing proper documentations like: a. Using pencils b. Signing only when needed c. Be concise, yet descriptive d. Summarize patients records 94. Types of risk management programs except: a. Safety program b. Products safety program c. Quality assurance programs d. Critical care issues 95. Except in specific circumstances, the following individuals cannot provide informed consent except: a. a minor, person 18 years or younger b. the unconscious or person injured in such as way that they are unable to consent c. a mentally ill person judged by professionals to be incompetent d. emancipated minor 96. Protect health care providers providing assistance at an emergency scene against claims of malpractice a. Magna carta b. Labor code c. Good Samaritan Acts d. Emergency care act 97. Defamation by spoken word a. Libel b. Slander c. Cursing d. Punching 98. Defamation by means of print, writing, or pictures a. Libel b. Slander c. Cursing d. Punching 99. A nurse has 5 levels of proficiency according to ______________ a. Brenner b. Benner c. Benter d. Berner 100. Nurses may practice privately, they can opt not to belong in an institution as a. Special nurse b. Occupational Health Nurse

c. Public Health Nurse d. Clinical Instructors CAP SEATWORK 3 Name: _________________________________________________ Score: __________ Multiple Choices: Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Shade the corresponding letter of your answer in the answer sheet. 1. The nursing student is planning care for an older client who had a total knee replacement yesterday evening. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate? a. Ask the client how much of his bath he can perform. b. Ask the client about his thoughts regarding discharge from the hospital. c. Tell the client that he needs to decide when he wants his medications. d. Tell the client that he needs to rest and that he (the nursing student) will bathe him today. 2. A nurse is careful to cover the client during a bath. This action describes which of the following nursing roles? a. Teacher b. Communicator c. Client advocate d. Caregiver 3. The most effective nursing action for controlling the spread of infection includes which of the following? a. Thorough hand cleansing b. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care c. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions d. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics 4. The client is unresponsive and requires total care. Prior to providing oral care, the nurse should assess for which of the following? a. Presence of pain b. Condition of the skin c. Gag reflex d. Range of motion 5. The science of health and its maintenance. Highly personal matter determined by individuals values and practice. a. Health b. Hygiene c. Cleanliness d. Values 6. This type of hygienic care is provided as required by the client: a. Early morning care b. Morning care c. PRN care d. HS care 7. The skin is the largest organ of the body with the following major functions except:

a. First line of defense b. Regulates body temperature c. Transmit sensation d. Produces and absorbs Vit. K 8. The following are functions of the sebum secreted by the skin: a. Softens and lubricates the hair and the skin b. Prevents the hair from becoming soft c. Decreases water loss from the skin when external humidity is low d. Lessens the amount of heat lost from the skin 9. Superficial layers of the skin are scraped or rubbed away. Area is reddened and may have localized bleeding or serious weeping a. Abrasion b. Excessive dryness c. Ammonia dermatitis d. Erythema 10. Skin may appear flaky and rough a. Abrasion b. Excessive dryness c. Ammonia dermatitis d. Erythema 11. Caused by skin bacteria reacting with urea in the urine. The skin becomes reddened and is sore. a. Abrasion b. Excessive dryness c. Ammonia dermatitis d. Erythema 12. Redness associated with the variety of conditions, such as rashes, exposure to sun, elevated body temperature. a. Abrasion b. Excessive dryness c. Ammonia dermatitis d. Erythema 13. Bathing a client will provide the following benefits except: a. Removes accumulated oil, perspiration, dead skin cell, and some bacteria. b. Restricts the circulation c. Produces a sense of well being, refreshing, relaxing and frequently improves morale, appearance and self respect. d. Offers opportunity for the nurse to assess all clients. 14. Therapeutic baths are characterized by the following except: a. Given for physical effects, such as to soothe irritated skin or to treat an area. b. Medications maybe placed in water c. Generally taken in a full tub d. Usually ordered for infants. 15. Routine foot assessment and client education in proper foot care can significantly reduce the risk for

a. BEA b. LEA c. UEA d. SEA 16. __________________(dry mouth) occurs when the supply of saliva is reduced. a. Xeropthalmia b. Xerostomia c. Stomata d. Exophthalmia 17. Hair needs to be brushed or combed daily and washed as needed to keep it cleaned. Purposes are the following except: a. To decrease blood circulation to the scalp b. To distribute hair oils and provide a healthy sheen c. To increase clients comfort d. To assess and monitor hair or scalp problems 18. A client with a chronic lung disorder requires some supplemental oxygen. The nurse ensures consistent and safe delivery with which of the following? a. 2 L/min per nasal cannula b. 6 L/min per face mask c. 8 L/min per partial rebreather mask d. 10 L/min per non rebreather mask 19. Which of the following clients is most at risk for a problem with the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues? a. A client who has anemia. b. A client who has an infection. c. A client who has a fractured rib. d. A client who has a tumor of the medulla. 20. Rapid respiration is termed as a. Orthopnea b. Bradypnea c. Tachypnea d. Apnea 21. Absence of respiration is known as a. Orthopnea b. Bradypnea c. Tachypnea d. Apnea 22. It means engaging in behaviors that enhances the ways of life and maximize personal potential. Ex: improving nutrition and physical fitness; preventing drug, smoking and alcohol misuse; preventing injury and accidents in the home and workplace. a. Restoring Health b. Wellness c. Prevention d. Disease

23. Maintaining optimal health by prevention of disease like vaccination, prenatal and infant care and prevention of sexually transmitted illness a. Health b. Wellness c. Prevention d. Illness 24. Inability of the individuals adaptive responses to maintain physical and emotional balance that results to impairment. a. Restoring Health b. Wellness c. Prevention d. Illness 25. Focuses on the ill client and it extends from early detection of disease up through helping the client during the early recovery period. a. Restoring Health b. Wellness c. Prevention d. Illness 26. Laws that provide protection and ensure immunity from civil liability to health care providers assisting at the scene of an emergency. a. The Good Samaritan Acts b. Professional Liability Insurance c. Carrying out a physicians order d. Providing competent Nursing care 27. The following are guidelines for the Good Samaritan Act except: a. Limit action to those normally considered first aid, if possible. b. Do not perform actions that you do not know how to do. c. Offer assistance, but do not insist. d. Perform non emergency procedures right away. 28. A student nurse has completed his clients personal care and is waiting for his clinical instructor to assist with documentation. During this time, he overhears a staff discussion of a client who is being admitted to the next room with an unusual presentation of necrotizing vasculitis. The student desires to increase his knowledge base in this area and enters the patients room to see the unusual condition. a. Defamation b. Unprofessional conduct c. Battery d. Invasion of privacy 29. This role has traditionally included those activities that assist the client physically and psychologically while preserving the clients dignity. a. Communicator b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver

30. In this role, the nurse identifies client problems and communicates them verbally or in writing to other members of the health team. a. Communicator b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver 31. The nurse helps clients learn about their health and the health care procedures they need to perform to restore or maintain their health. a. Communicator b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver 32. The nurse acts to protect the client. In this role the nurse may represent the clients needs and wishes to other health professionals, such as relaying the clients wishes for information to the physician. a. Communicator b. Teacher c. Patient Advocate d. Caregiver 33. The process of helping a client to recognize and cope with stressful psychologic or social problems, to develop improved interpersonal relationships, and to promote personal growth. a. Change agent b. Counselor c. Leader d. Manager 34. The nurse assists clients to make modifications in their behavior. a. Change agent b. Counselor c. Leader d. Manager 35. Influences others to work together to accomplish specific goals. a. Change agent b. Counselor c. Leader d. Manager 36. The nurse delegates nursing activities to ancillary workers and other nurses, and supervises and evaluates their performance. a. Change agent b. Counselor c. Leader d. Manager 37. It has been defined as an occupation that requires extensive education or a calling that requires special knowledge, skill and preparation. a. Job b. Occupation c. Profession

d. Vocation 38. A client with diarrhea also has a physicians order for a bulk laxative daily. The nurse, not realizing that bulk laxatives can help solidify certain types of diarrhea, concludes The physician does not know the client has diarrhea. This statement is an example of: a. A fact. b. An inference. c. A judgment. d. An opinion 39. A client reports feeling hungry, but does not eat when food is served. Using critical-thinking skills, the nurse should perform which of the following? a. Assess why the client is not ingesting the food provided. b. Continue to leave the food at the bedside until the client is hungry enough to eat. c. Notify the primary care provider that tube feeding may be indicated soon. d. Believe the client is not really hungry. 40. In the decision-making process, the nurse sets and weights the criteria, examines alternatives, and performs which of the following before implementing the plan? a. Reexamines the purpose for making the decision. b. Consults the client and family members to determine their view of the criteria. c. Identifies and considers various means for reaching the outcomes. d. Determines the logical course of action should intervening problems arise. 41. Which of the following behaviors is most representative of the nursing diagnosis phase of the nursing process? a. Identifying major problems or needs. b. Organizing data in the clients family history. c. Establishing short term and long term goals. d. Administering an antibiotic. 42. Which of the following behaviors would indicate that the nurse was utilizing the assessment phase of the nursing process, to provide nursing care? a. Propose hypotheses. b. Generate desired outcomes. c. Reviews results of laboratory tests. d. Documents care. 43. Which of the following elements is best categorized as secondary subjective data? a. The nurse measures a weight loss of 10 pounds since the last clinic visit. b. Spouse states the client has lost all appetite. c. The nurse palpates edema in lower extremities. d. Client states severe pain when walking up stairs. 44. The nurse wishes to determine the clients feelings about a recent diagnosis. Which interview question is most likely to elicit this information? a. What did the doctor tell you about your diagnosis? b. Are you worried about how the diagnosis will affect you in the future? c. Tell me about your reactions to the diagnosis. d. How is your family responding to the diagnosis?

45. The use of a conceptual or theoretical framework for collecting and organizing assessment data ensures which of the following? a. Correlation of the data with other members of the health care team. b. Demonstration of cost-effective care. c. Utilization of creativity and intuition in creating a plan of care. d. Collection of all necessary information for a thorough appraisal. 46. The nurse is conducting the diagnosing phases (nursing diagnosis) for a client with a seizure disorder. Which of the following elements exists between data analysis and formulating the diagnostic statement? a. Assess the clients needs. b. Delineate the clients problems and strengths. c. Determine which interventions are most likely to succeed. d. Estimate the cost of several different approaches. 47. In the diagnostic statement Excess fluid volume related to decreased venous return as manifested by lower extremity edema (swelling), the etiology of the problem is which of the following? a. Excess fluid volume. b. Decreased venous return. c. Edema. d. Unknown. 48. Which of the following nursing diagnoses contains the proper components? a. Risk for caregiver role strain related to unpredictable illness course. b. Risk for falls related to tendency to collapse when having difficulty breathing. c. Decreased communication related to stroke. d. Sleep deprivation secondary to fatigue and a noisy environment. 49. One of the primary advantages of using a three-part diagnostic statement such as the problem-etiologysigns/symptoms (PES) format includes which of the following? a. Decreases the cost of health care. b. Improves communication between nurse and client. c. Helps the nurse focus on health and wellness elements. d. Standardizes organization of client data. 50. A collaborative (multidisciplinary) problem is indicated instead of a nursing or medical diagnosis: a. If both medical and nursing interventions are required to treat the problem. b. When independent nursing actions can be utilized to treat the problem. c. In cases where nursing interventions are the primary actions required to treat the problem. d. When no medical diagnosis (disease) can be determined. 51. The client with a fractured pelvis requests that family members be allowed to stay overnight in the hospital room. Before determining whether or not this request can be honored, the nurse should consult which of the following? a. Hospital policies. b. Standardized care plans. c. Orthopedic protocols. d. Standards of care. 52. The nurse assesses a post-operative client with an abdominal wound and finds the client drowsy when not aroused, the clients pain is ranked 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, vital signs (VS) are within preoperative range, extremities are warm with good pulses but very dry skin, declines oral fluids due to nausea, reports

no bowel movement in the past 2 days, hip dressing is dry with drains intact. Which of the following elements is most likely to be considered of high priority for a change in the current care plan? a. Pain b. Nausea c. Constipation d. Potential for wound infection 53. The nurse selects the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to immobility, dry skin, and surgical incision. Which of the following represents a properly stated outcome/goal? The client will: a. Turn in bed q2h. b. Report the importance of applying lotion to skin daily. c. Have healthy intact skin during hospitalization. d. Use a pressure-reducing mattress. 54. When initiating the implementation phase of the nursing process, the nurse performs which of the following steps first? a. Carrying out nursing interventions. b. Determining the need for assistance. c. Reassessing the client. d. Documenting interventions. 55. Under what circumstances is it considered acceptable practice for the nurse to document a nursing activity before it is carried out? a. When the activity is routine (e.g., raising the bed rails) b. When the activity occurs at regular intervals (e.g., turning the client in bed) c. When the activity is to be carried out immediately (e.g., a stat medication) d. It is never acceptable 56. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the evaluating phase of the care-planning process? a. Desired outcomes have been met. b. Nursing activities were carried out. c. Nursing activities were effective. d. Clients condition has changed. 57. If the nurse planned to evaluate the length of time clients must wait for a nurse to respond to the client need reported over the intercom system on each shift, which of the following processes does this reflect? a. Structure evaluation b. Process evaluation c. Outcome evaluation d. Audit 58. Which of the following actions by a nurse ensures confidentiality of a clients computer record? a. The nurse logs on to the clients file and leave the computer to answer the clients call light. b. The nurse shares her computer password. c. The nurse closes a clients computer file and logs off. d. The nurse leaves client computer worksheets at the computer workstation. 59. After making documentation error which action should the nurse take? a. Use correcting liquid to cover the mistake and make a new entry. b. Draw a line through it and write error above the entry. c. Draw a line through it and write mistaken entry above it.

d. Draw a line through the mistake and write mistaken entry with initials above it. 60. During the first day a nurse is caring for a client who has been in the hospital for 2 days, the nurse thinks that the clients blood pressure (B/P) seems high. What is the next step? a. Ask the client about past blood pressure ranges. b. Review the graphic record on the clients record. c. Examine the medication record for antihypertensive medications. d. Review the progress notes included in the clients record. 61. A 74-year-old female is brought to the E.D. c/o right hip pain. The right leg is shorter than the left and is externally rotated. During inspection, the nurse observes what appears to be cigarette burns on the clients inner thighs. Which of the following is the most appropriate documentation? a. Six round skin lesions partially healed, on the inner thighs bilaterally. b. Several burned areas on both of the clients inner thighs. c. Multiple lesions on inner thighs possibly related to elder abuse. d. Several lesions on inner thighs similar to cigarette burns. 62. The assessment process consists of: a. establishing goal-oriented actions. b. determining desired patient outcomes to be achieved. c. selecting action strategies to meet stated goals. d. collecting data about the patient that is pertinent for providing nursing care. 63. The best source of primary data about the patient is: a. significant others. b. the patient. c. the nurse. d. the physician. 64. When analysis shows the patient is functioning inadequately, the nurses next step is: a. to formulate a nursing goal. b. to make a nursing diagnosis statement. c. to identify nursing action. d. to re-classify the data. 65. A nursing diagnosis statement is: a. the diagnosis of the disease process. b. the treatment intervention for a disease process. c. the diagnosis and treatment of human response to health problems. d. referring to the actual health problems, not potential health problems. 66. Evaluation involves: a. comparing the actual outcome with behavioral objective. b. identifying and defining the problem. c. establishing an initial plan of care. d. formulating a hypothesis. 67. Which of the following statements listed below is/are true? a. Nursing interventions are directed toward restoring and maintaining optimal health. b. People who have signs and symptoms of illness always seek medical advice. c. The nursing actions based on analysis of specific data are called interdependent.

d. Diseases are usually acute. 68. Through the nursing process, the nurse provides patient care by: a. planning, nursing interventions, and staffing. b. assessment, diagnosing, planning, implementation, and evaluation. c. collecting data and formulating nursing care plans. d. setting goals for the patient. 69. Which of the following characteristics is/are not true about the nursing process? a. Problem-oriented b. Open to accepting new information. c. Orderly, planned, and systematic d. Steps are independent from each other. 70. The goal of nursing diagnosis is to: a. identify the disease condition of the patient. b. formulate a treatment plan for the patient. c. identify patient's health care needs and response to illness. d. establish data base for care plan. 71. Nursing diagnosis is the result of: a. observation, interview, and examination. b. reviewing of recorded data base. c. analysis of health data collection. d. information collected or patient condition. 72. The best primary source of data in assessing the needs of the patient is the: a. health team member. b. patient's chart. c. medical history. d. patient and his family. 73. To ensure correctness of collected assessment data, information should be: a. organized. b. analyzed. c. verified. d. clustered. 74. The nursing process as the core of clinical nursing practice: a. utilizes more of the dependent nursing functions. b. is a systematic and deliberate approach to individualize patient care. c. is an initiative mode of assisting clients cope with health-illness problems. d. is primarily cure-oriented process. 75. Which one of the following would not be considered an objective assessment data for a patient admitted with diabetes rnellitus? a. Capillary blood glucose (CBG) level of 240 milligrams/deciliter. b. Urine output of 3 liters/day. c. Warm, flushed, and dry skin. d. Excessive thirst.

76. The comprehensive approach of collecting patient's data to identify possible nursing problem is processed through: a. assessment. b. evaluation. c. analysis. d. nursing diagnosis. 77. Which of one of the following is not true about writing a nursing diagnosis? a. State the diagnosis in terms of problem, not a need. b. Use nursing terminologies to describe the patient's responses. c. Use statements that assist in planning independent nursing interventions. d. Use medical terminologies to describe the probable cause of the patient's response. 78. Which statement describes what a nursing diagnosis does? a. It provides a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care. b. It facilitates comprehensive nursing care by identifying the health problem and validating the contributing factor. c. It includes assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. d. It provides a framework for nurses' accountability and responsibility. 79. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate for a patient who has been vomiting at home for 3 days would be: a. potential for altered nutrition due to vomiting at home for 3 days. b. ineffective nutritional intake caused by vomiting. c. altered nutrition: less than body requirement related to vomiting. d. altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to nutritional deficit. 80. The essential components of a nursing diagnosis are: a. assessment , diagnosis, planning, intervention and evaluation. b. problem, etiology, and signs and symptoms. c. self-care deficit, social isolation and altered sensory perception. d. the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA) taxonomy. 81. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with pneumonia who is expectorating copious amounts of sputum is: a. altered tissue perfusion related to congested lungs. b. altered tissue perfusion related to copious amounts of sputum. c. potential for ineffective airway clearance related to pneumonia. d. potential for ineffective airway clearance related to excessive accumulation of lung secretions. 82. A documented nursing diagnosis that could lead to malpractice lawsuit against the nurse and the hospital is: a. impaired skin integrity related to improper positioning. b. potential for impaired skin integrity due to pain. c. altered nutrition: more than body requirements, related to obesity. d. pain related to tissue damage and spasm. 83. Which of the following nursing diagnoses contains all three components of a nursing diagnosis? a. Potential for altered body temperature related to accumulation of lung secretions as manifested by crackles. b. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements, as manifested by inadequate wound healing, related to

low protein. c. Grieving related to loss of spouse as manifested by crying. d. All of the above 84. The most important components of a nursing order are: a. the date, specific nursing action (intervention), time or duration and nurse's signature. b. nursing actions related to the patient's health problem. c. nursing actions that alleviate symptoms. d. nursing actions that prevent additional problems. 85. Part of the nursing process is the planning phase, which includes developing a care plan and planning the expected patient outcomes/goals. These outcomes are: a. centered on the patient. b. short or long term goals. c. measurable. d. All of the above 86. An example of an expected patient outcome is: a. The patient will be free of pain in 30 minutes. b. Help the patient learn to ambulate with crutches. c. Teach the patient self-administration of insulin. d. Encourage fluid intake of 4 ounces every hour during waking hours. 87. The final phase in the nursing process is evaluation. The primary reason for this phase is to: a. document nursing interventions. b. determine if the expected patient outcomes were accomplished. c. evaluate the nurse's efficiency and knowledge in treating a particular patient. d. ensure that the nursing care plan remains unchanged. 88. The evaluation phase of the nursing process: a. changes continually. b. is it a stable, systematic method of developing nursing care plans. c. is not always necessary. d. directs the expected patient outcomes. 89. The assessment component of the nursing process requires effective communication to elicit a complete, relevant history from the patient and to identify patient problems. What role does communication play in the other areas of the nursing process? a. In the planning phase, effective therapeutic communication helps to establish nursing care priorities and patient-oriented goals. b. During the implementation phase, communication skills allow the nurse to assess the patient's response to planned interventions. c. During the evaluation phase, effective communication allows the nurse to find out from the patient if he is responding to treatment or if changes in treatment are necessary. d. All of the above 90. Which of the following qualities are relevant in documenting patient care? a. Accuracy b. Conciseness c. Organization d. All of the above

91. In preparing the plan of care for a patient, the next step a nurse should do after having analyzed the assessment data is to: a. formulate objectives of the plan. b. set targets. c. cluster data. d. list the nursing interventions. 92. A goal for a client with the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication related to psychological barriers would be: the client will: a. be free of injury. b. demonstrate decreased acting-out behavior. c. interact with others in the external environment. d. identify the consequences of acting-out behavior. 93. Is the application of the a set of questions to a particular situations or idea to determine essential information and ideas and discard superfluous information and ideas. a. Critical Analysis b. Assessment c. Planning d. Diagnosis 94. Generalizations are formed from a set of facts or observations. When viewed together, certain bits of information suggest a particular information. a. Critical Analysis b. Inductive Reasoning c. Deductive Reasoning d. Inferences 95. Reasoning from general to specific. Nurses use critical thinking to help analyze situations and establish which premise is valid. a. Critical Analysis b. Inductive Reasoning c. Deductive Reasoning d. Inferences 96. Conclusions drawn from the facts, going beyond facts to make a statement about something not currently known; [e.g. if BV is decreased (e.g., hemorrhagic shock), the BP will drop. a. Critical Analysis b. Inductive Reasoning c. Deductive Reasoning d. Inferences 97. They are not swayed by the opinions of others but take responsibility for their own views. a. Independence b. Fair-mindedness c. Insight into egocentricity d. Intellectual humility 98. Assessing all viewpoints with the same standards and not basing their judgments on personal or group bias or prejudice. a. Independence

b. Fair-mindedness c. Insight into egocentricity d. Intellectual humility 99. Personal biases or social pressures and customs could unduly affect their thinking. a. Independence b. Fair-mindedness c. Insight into egocentricity d. Intellectual humility 100. Having awareness of the limits of ones own knowledge. a. Independence b. Fair-mindedness c. Insight into egocentricity d. Intellectual humility

CAP SEATWORK 4 Score: ____________ Name:____________________________________________ Date:_____________ Multiple Choices: Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing? A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health D. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children 2. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement? A. The service is provided in the natural environment of people B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems C. The service are based on the available resources within the community D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified 3. Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes? A. Community organizing . B. Nursing, process C. Community diagnosis D. Epidemiologic process 4. "Public health services are given free of charge". Is this statement true or false? A. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of government to provide haste services B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services C. The statement may be true or false; depending on the Specific service required D. The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the government concerned. 5. According to C.E. Winslow, which of the following is the goal of Public Health? A. For people to attain their birthrights and longevity B. For promotion of health and prevention and diseases C. For people to have access to basic health services D. For people to be organized in their health efforts 6. Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing? A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital

B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing service D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services 7. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public health nursing is based on which of the following? A. Health and longevity as birthrights B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its citizens C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing D. The worth and dignity of man 8. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health? A. Health for all Filipinos B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health C. Improve the general health status of the population D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020 9. What is true of primary facilities? A. They are usually government-run B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis C. They are training facilities for health professionals D. A community hospital is an example of this level of health facilities 10. Which is an example of the school nurse's health care provider function? A. Requesting for BCG from the RHU for school entrance immunization B. Conducting random classroom inspection during measles epidemic C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in the school playground D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend their free times 11. When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating: A. Effectiveness B. Efficiency C. Adequacy D. Appropriateness 12. RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from the national government to local government units. Which of the following is the major goal of devolution? A. To strengthen local government units B. To allow greater autonomy to local government units. C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance D. To make basic services more accessible to the people 13. The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural health midwives. Which of the following is a supervisory function of the public health nurse? A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife C. Proving nursing care to cases referred by the midwife D. Formulating and implementing training programs for midwives 14. Which disease was declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for, eradication in the Philippines? A. Poliomyelitis B. Measles C. Rabies D. Neonatal Tetanus 15. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to: A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem

C. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem D. Identify the health problem as a common concern 16. . Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease? A. Pre-pathogenesis B. Pathogenesis C. Prodromal D. Terminal 17 Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Intermediate D. Tertiary 18. Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you with the best opportunity to observe family dynamics? A. Clinic consultation B. Group conferences C. Home visit D. Written communication 19. The typology of family nursing problems is used in the statement of nursing diagnosis in the care of families. The youngest child of the delos Reyes family has been diagnosed as mentally retarded. This is classified as: A. Health threat B. Health deficit C. Foreseeable crisis D. Stress point 20. The delos Reyes coupled have 6-year old child entering school for the first time. The delos Reyes family has a: A. Health threat B. Health deficit C. Foreseeable crisis D. Stress point 21. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit? A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation C. It allows sharing of experience among people with similar health problems D. It develops the family's initiative in providing for health needs of its members 22. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during a home visit. The most important principle in bag technique states that it; A. Should save time and effort B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family D. May be done in variety of ways depending on the home situation, etc. 23. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its contents, which of the following must the nurse do? A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family members B. In the care of family member's, as much as possible, use only articles taken from the bag C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it with the right side out before putting it back into the bag. D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was placed, ensuring that the contaminated side is on the outside. 24. The number of cases of Dengue fever usually increases towards the end of the rainy season. This

pattern of occurrence of Dengue fever is best described as; A. Epidemic occurrence B. Cyclical variation C. Sporadic occurrence D. Secular occurrence 25. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, together with some other countries in the Western Pacific Region, free" of which disease? A. Pneumonic plaque B. Poliomyelitis C. Small pox D. Anthrax 26. Primary health care is a total approach to community development. Which of the following is an indicator of success in the use of the primary health care approach? A. Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and families B. Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in matters of health C. Health workers are able too provide care based on identified health needs of the people D. Health programs are sustained according to the level of development of the community 27. Sputum examination is the major screening tool for pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients would sometimes get false negative results in this exam. This means that the test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic examination? A. Effectiveness B. Efficacy C. Specificity D. Sensitivity 28. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology. Which medical herb is given for fever, headache and cough? A. Sambong B. Tsaang gubat C. Akapulko D. Lagundi 29. What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care approach in the Philippines? A. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC B. Letter of Instruction No 949 C. Presidential Decree No. 147 D. Presidential Decree 996 30. Which of the following demonstrates inter-sectoral linkages? A. Two-way referral system B. Team approach C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife D. Cooperation between PHN and public school teacher 31. To describe the sex composition of the population, which demographic tool may be used? A. Sex ratio B. Sex proportion C. Population pyramid D. Any of these maybe used 32. Which of the following professionals can sign the birth certificate? A. Public health nurse B. Rural health midwife C. Municipal health officer D. Any of these health professionals

33. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service delivery. Which of the following is/are true of this movement? A. This is a project spearheaded by local government units B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local government units C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease prevention and control D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with standards 34. Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning? A. Those who have two children or more B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months 35. Freedom of choice in one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of the following illustrates this principle? A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning B. Support of research and development in family planning methods C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility 36. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have her delivery at home. After history taking and physical examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following findings disqualifies her for a home delivery? A. Her OB score is G5P3 B. She has some palmar pallor C. Her blood pressure is 130/80 D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation 37. Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of which vitamin may cause neural tube defects? A. Niacin B. Riboflavin C. Folic Acid D. Thiamine 38. You are in a client's home to attend to a delivery. Which of the following will you do first? A. Set up a sterile area B. Put on a clean gown and apron C. Cleanse the client's vulva with soap and water D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor and contractions 39. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding, which of the following will you do? A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are everted C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery 40. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after delivery. What is the purpose of offering the breast this early? A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the colustrum D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the presence of the health worker 41. In a mother's class, you discuss proper breastfeeding technique. Which of these is a sign that the baby has "lactated on" the breast property? A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks B. The mother does not feel nipple pain C. The baby's mouth is only partly open

D. Only the mother's nipple is inside the baby's mouth 42. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery of a baby? A. Malunggay capsule B. Ferrous sutfate l00mg O.D. C. Retinol 200.000 IU 1 capsule D. Potassium Iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule 43. Which biological used in EPI is stored in the freezer? A. DPT B. Tetanus toxoid C. Measles vaccine D. Hepatitis B vaccine 44. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. At the end of the day 45. In immunity school entrants with BCG, your not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document? A. PD 996 B. RA 7864 C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6 D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46 46. Which immunization produces a permanent scar? A. DPT B. BCG C. Measles vaccination D. Hepatitis B vaccination 47. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had? A. Seizures a day after DPT1 B. Fever for 3 days after DPT1 C. Abscess formation after DPT1 D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1 48. Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe pneumonia? A. Dyspnea B. Wheezing C. Fast breathing D. Chest indrawing 49. Using health guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for the child? A. Prescribe antibiotic B. Refer him urgently to the hospital C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding 50. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category? A. No signs of dehydration B. Some dehydration C. Severe dehydration D. The data is insufficient 51. A mother is using Oresol' in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to

do if her child vomits. You will tell her to: A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment B. Bring the child to the health center for IV therapy C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly 52. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What part is best examined for pallor? A. Palms B. Nailbeds C. Around the lips D. Lower conjunctival sac 53. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. RA 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items? A. Sugar B. Bread C. Margarine D. Filled milk 54. What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a nearby municipality? A. Give measles vaccine to babies B. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 IU of Retinol C. Instruct mother to keep their babies at home to prevent disease transmission D. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their babies resistance 55. Management of a child with measles includes the administration of which of the following? A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions B. Antibiotic to prevent pneumonia C. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given 56. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever which started 4 days prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk, what will you do? A. Do a tourniquet test B. Ask where the family resides C. Get a specimen for blood smear D. Ask if the fever is present everyday 57. The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever? A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets 58. Scotch tape swab is done to check for which intestinal parasite? A. Ascaris B. Pinworm C. Hookworm D. Schistosoma 59. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS category? A. Sputum negative cavitary cases B. Clients returning after default C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam 60. To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is being implemented in DOTS? A. Having the health worker follow up the client at home

B. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake C. Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his medications D. Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs 61. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy? A. Macular lesions B. Inability to close eyelids C. Thickened painful nerves D. Sinking of the nose bridge 62. For prevention of Hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health education activities. Which of the following is Irrelevant? A. Use of sterile syringes and needles B. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections 62. Which biological used in EPI should not be stored in the freezer? A. DPT B. OPV C. Measles vaccine D. MMR 63. A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the health center because of fever of 4-day duration. The child had a positive tourniquet test result. In the absence of other signs, which of the most appropriate measure that the PHN may carry out to prevent Dengue shock syndrome? A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol C. Start the patient on IV Stat D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate management 64. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Kopliks spot. You may see Kopliks spot by inspecting the: A. Nasal Mucosa B. Buccal mucosa C. Skin on the abdomen D. Skin on the antecubital surface 65. Among the following diseases, which is airborne? A. Viral conjunctivitis B. Acute poliomyelitis C. Diptheria D. Measles 66. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly with the use of mosquito control measures. Which of the following is NOT appropriate for malaria control? A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with basil or citronella 67. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of rice water. The client is most probably suffering from which condition? A. Giardiasis B. Cholera C. Amebiasis D. Dysentery 68. A 32 year old client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a

week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on this history/ which disease condition will you suspect? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Tetanus D. Leptospirosis 69. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS? A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner B. Using a condom during each sexual contact C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers D. Making sure that one's sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS 70. Erect, shrubby legume with dark green compound leaves on stout branches. Leaves have orange rachis. Each leaf has 16-28 leaflets. An axis of golden yellow flowers produces 4-winged pods containing 50-60 flattened, triangular seeds. Flowers enclosed by yellow-orange bracts that are later shed. Usually upper 3 stamens sterile. Also known as "bayabas-bayabasan" and "ringworm bush" in English, this herbal medicine is used to treat ringworms and skin fungal infections. A. Lagundi B. Niyog-niyogan C. Akapulko D. Pansit-pansitan 71. The following conditions may be treated by akapulko except: a. Athletes foot b. Herpes c. Ringworm d. hypertension 72. Used primarily to stop coughing, relieve asthma, and facilitate the discharge of phlegm and to lower fever due to colds or flu. a. Lagundi b. Niyog-niyogan c. Akapulko d. Pansit-pansitan 73. Has been a folkloric cure for generations but has now been proven to be an effective herbal medicine for many ailments.It contains a mixture of flavanoids and alkaloids that make the pancreas produce more insulin that controls the blood sugar in diabetic patients. a. Bawang b. Lagundi c. Ampalaya d. Akapulko 74. Too much of this herbal medicine can cause stomach irritation as well as rashes in many people. Side effects include breath and body odor, heartburn, upset stomach, these side effects are more common with raw preparation. a. Bawang b. Lagundi c. Ampalaya d. Akapulko 75. One of the most popular therapeutic plants in the Philippines. It is a small tree that can grow up to 3 meters tall with greenish-brown smooth bark. The round globular fruits start as a flower and usually harvested and eaten while still green. The fruits turn yellow-green and soft when ripe. a. Bawang

b. Niyog-niyogan c. Guava d. Ampalaya 76. A large, climbing woody shrub. The leaves have rounded base and pointed tip. The tubular flowers are sweet scented and red. The fruit when dried contain a black 5-sided seed that tastes like coconut. a. Bawang b. Niyog-niyogan c. Guava d. Ampalaya 77. An annual herb, shallow rooted, may reach 40 cm high, with succulent stems. Leaves are alternate, heart-shaped and turgid, as transparent and smooth as candle wax. Tiny dot like flowers scattered along solitary and leaf-opposed stalk (spike); naked; maturing gradually from the base to the tip; turning brown when ripe. Propagation by seeds. Numerous tiny seeds drop off when mature and grow easily in clumps and groups in damp areas. a. Lagundi b. Niyog-niyogan c. Akapulko d. Pansit-pansitan 78. It is an amazing medicinal plant. It is an anti-urolithiasis and work as diuretic. It is used to aid the treatment of kidney disorders. a. Lagundi b. Niyog-niyogan c. Akapulko d. Sambong 79. Over dosage of diuretics can cause dehydration and generalized weakness brought about by loss of this electrolyte. a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Potassium d. Fluoride 80. A shrub with small, shiny nice-looking leaves that grows in wild uncultivated areas and forests. Mature stems are used for planting. Uses include treatment for diarrhea and stomachache. a. Tsaang gubat b. Akapulko c. Niyog-niyogan d. Sambong 81. An important medicinal plant. Primarily a pain reliever, it is also used in gaseous distention and as mouthwash. Effective for headache, toothache, and pains caused by arthritis. a. Lagundi b. Yerba buena c. Akapulko d. Pansit-pansitan 82. Refers to a systematic approach of obtaining, organizing, and analyzing numerical facts so that conclusion may be drawn from them. a. Vital statistics b. Statistics c. Rates d. Ratio 83. Refers to the systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorce, separation and deaths.

a. Vital statistics b. Statistics c. Rates d. Ratio 84. Statistic on population and the characteristics such as age and sex, distribution are obtained from_______________ a. Local Civil Registrar b. National Statistics Office c. Office of the Mayor d. Parish Office 85. In cities, births and deaths are registered at the City Health Department. But in most municipalities births and deaths are registered in_____________ a. Local Civil Registrar b. National Statistics Office c. Office of the Mayor d. Parish Office 86. Shows the relationship between a vital event and those persons exposed to the occurrence of said event, within a given area and during a specified unit of time, it is evident that the person experiencing the event (Numerator) must come from the total population exposed to the risk of same event (Denominator). a. Vital statistics b. Statistics c. Rates d. Ratio 87. It is used to describe the relationship between two numerical quantities or measures of events without taking particular considerations to the time and place. These quantities need not necessarily represent the same entities, although the unit of measure must be the same for both numerator and denominator of the ratio. a. Vital statistics b. Statistics c. Rates d. Ratio 88. Referred to the total living population. It must be presumed that the total population was exposed to the risk of the occurrence of the event. a. Rate b. Ratio c. Crude Rates d. Crude Birth Rate 89. A measure of one characteristic of the natural growth or increase of a population. a. Rate b. Ratio c. Crude Rates d. Crude Birth Rate 90. It is the study of occurrences and distribution of diseases as well as the distribution and determinants of health states or events in specified population, and the application of this study to the control of health problems. a. Medicine b. Nursing c. Epidemiology d. Parasitology 91. It is considered to be the backbone of the prevention of diseases.

a. Medicine b. Nursing c. Epidemiology d. Parasitology 92. This backbone of the prevention of diseases has the following uses except: a. Study the health population and the rise and fall of diseases and changes in their character. b. Diagnose the health of the community and the condition of the people to measure the distribution and dimension of illness in terms of incidence, prevalence, disability and mortality, to set health problems in perspective and to define their relative importance and to identify groups needing special attention. c. Estimate the risk of disease, accident, defect and the chances of avoiding them. d. Complete the patients clinical history and physical examination to determine the effect of communicable diseases. 93. The epidemiologic triangle consists of three components to comprehend and predict the patterns of diseases. They are the following except: a. Host b. Disease c. Agent d. Environment 94. Any organism that harbors and provides nourishment for another organism. a. Host b. Disease c. Agent d. Environment 95. It is the intrinsic property of microorganism to survive and multiply in the environment to produce disease. a. Host b. Disease c. Agent d. Environment 96. It is the sum total of all external condition and influences that affects the development of an organism which can be biological, social and physical. a. Host b. Disease c. Agent d. Environment 97. The following are the three components of the environment except: a. Physical environment b. Biological environment c. Therapeutic environment d. Socio-economic environment 98. For the purpose of analyzing epidemiology data, it has been found helpful to organize that data according to the following variables except: a. Time b. Person c. Disease d. Place 99. It is the intermittent occurrence of a few isolated cases in a given locality. a. Sporadic b. Endemic c. Epidemic

d. Pandemic 100. It is the continuous occurrence throughout a period of time, of the usual number of cases in a given locality. a. Sporadic b. Endemic c. Epidemic d. Pandemic CAP SEATWORK 5 Score: ____________ Name: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Multiple Choices: Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. An act to ensure the safety and purity of foods, drugs, and cosmetics being made available to the public by creating the Food and Drug Administration which shall administer and enforce the law pertaining thereto. a. RA 3573 b. RA 6615 c. RA 3720 d. PD 825 2. An act providing for weekly monitoring and reporting of communicable diseases such as measles, acute poliomyelitis, severe/acute diarrhea, neonatal tetanus and HIV infection. a. RA 3573 b. RA 6615 c. RA 3720 d. PD 825 3. An act requiring government and private hospitals and clinics to extend medical assistance in emergency cases. a. RA 3573 b. RA 6615 c. RA 3720 d. PD 825 4. Improper waste disposal act of 1975 provides penalty for improper disposal of garbage and other forms of uncleanliness and for other purposes. a. RA 3573 b. RA 6615 c. RA 3720 d. PD 825 5. Mother and Child Friendly Hospital Act of 1992 provides incentives to all government and private health institutions with rooming-in and breastfeeding practices and for other purposes. a. RA 7610 b. RA 7600 c. RA 7846 d. RA 8172 6. Special Protection of Children Act of 1992 is an act providing for stronger deterrence and special protection against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination, providing penalties for its violation, and for other purposes. a. RA 7610 b. RA 7600 c. RA 7846 d. RA 8172

7. Toxic Substance and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control Act of 1990 provides penalties for violations thereof, and for other purposes. a. RA 7600 b. RA 7610 c. RA 6969 d. PD 856 8. Compulsory Immunization Against Hepatitis B Act of 1994 which requires compulsory immunization against Hepatitis B for infants and children below eight years old. a. RA 7846 b. RA 8172 c. RA 7600 d. RA 7610 9. Fidel Salt (ASIN) Act of 1995 promoting salt iodization nationwide and for related purposes. a. RA 8172 b. RA 7600 c. RA 7610 d. RA 8172 10. National Diabetes Act of 1996 prescribing measures for the prevention and control of diabetes mellitus in the Philippines, providing for the creation of a national commission on diabetes, appropriating funds therefore and for other purposes. a. RA 8503 b. RA 8504 c. RA 8191 d. RA 8505 11. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 providing for a comprehensive air pollution control policy and for other purposes. a. RA 8503 b. RA 8749 c. RA 8191 d. RA 8505 12. Philippine Food Fortification Act of 2000 is an act establishing the Philippine food fortification program and for other purposes. a. RA 8503 b. RA 8749 c. RA 8191 d. RA 8976 13. Tobacco Regulation Act of 2003 is an act regulating the packaging, use, sale, distribution and advertisements of tobacco products and for other purposes. a. RA 9211 b. RA 9003 c. RA 9257 d. RA 9262 14. Anti-violence Against Women and Children Act of 2003 is an act defining violence against women and their children, providing for protective measures for victims, prescribing penalties therefore, and for other purposes. a. RA 9211 b. RA 9003 c. RA 9257 d. RA 9262 15. Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004 is an act providing for a comprehensive water quality management

and other purposes. a. RA 9262 b. RA 9275 c. RA 9003 d. RA 9211 16. Newborn Screening Act of 2004 is an act promulgating a comprehensive policy and a national system for ensuring newborn screening. a. RA 9262 b. RA 9275 c. RA 9288 d. RA 9211 17. Hospital Licensure Act of 1965 is an act requiring the licensure of all hospitals in the Philippines and authorizing the Bureau of Medical Services to serve as the licensing agency. a. RA 4688 b. RA 4226 c. RA 6657 d. RA 7170 18. Generics Act of 1988 is an act to promote, require, and ensure the production of an adequate supply, distribution, use, and acceptance of drugs and medicines identified by their generic names. a. RA 4688 b. RA 4226 c. RA 6657 d. RA 7170 19. Organ Donation Act of 1991 is an act authorizing the legacy or donation of all or part body of a human body after death for specified purposes. a. RA 4688 b. RA 4226 c. RA 6657 d. RA 7170 20. Blood Services Act of 1993 is an act promoting voluntary blood donation, providing for an adequate supply of safe blood regulating banks, and providing penalties for violation thereof. a. RA 7885 b. RA 8203 c. RA 8344 d. RA 7719 21. Advance Corneal Transplantation Act of 1994 is an act to advance corneal transplantation in the Philippines, amending for the purpose of Republic Act No. 7170, otherwise known as the organ donation act of 1991. a. RA 7885 b. RA 8203 c. RA 8344 d. RA 7719 22. Anti-demand of Deposits or Advance Payments Act of 1996 is an act penalizing the refusal of hospitals and medical clinics to administer appropriate initial medical treatment and support in emergency or serious cases, amending for the purpose Batas Pambansa Bilang 702, otherwise known as An act prohibiting the demand of deposits or advance payments for the confinement or treatment of patients in hospitals and medical clinics in certain cases. a. RA 7885 b. RA 8203 c. RA 8344

d. RA 7719 23. Traditional and Alternative Medicine Act of 1997 (TAMA) is an act creating the Philippine Institute of Traditional and Alternative Health Care (PITAHC) to accelerate the development of traditional and alternative health care in the Philippines, providing for a traditional and alternative health care development fund and for other purposes. a. RA 7885 b. RA 8203 c. RA 8423 d. RA 7719 24. Comprehensive and Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is an act instituting The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, as amended, providing funds therefore, and for other purposes. a. RA 9165 b. RA 9502 c. RA 8423 d. RA 1752 25. Nurses Week declaring the last week of October of every year as Nurses week and authorizing the Filipino Nurses Association to take charge of the celebration, issued by President Carlos P. Garcia, 1955. a. PP 169 b. PP 539 c. PD 1752 d. PD 651 26. Reporting of Physical Injuries requires doctors, hospitals, clinics, etc. to report treatment of physical injuries. a. PD 169 b. PP 539 c. PD 1752 d. PD 651 27. Registration of Births requires the registration of births and deaths in the Philippines which occurred from January 1, 1974 and thereafter. a. PD 169 b. PP 539 c. PD 1752 d. PD 651 28. Compulsory basic immunization for infants and children below eight years of age. a. PD 996 b. PD 998 c. PD 908 d. PD 997 29. Adopting a national code of marketing breastmilk substitutes, breastmilk supplements and other related products. a. EO 53 b. EO 51 c. EO 52 d. EO 56 30. Implementing the National Commitment for Bakuna ang Una sa Sangol at Ina, attaining World Health Organizations goals to eliminate measles and neonatal tetanus, eradicate polio, control hepatitis B and other vaccine preventable diseases. a. EO 663 b. EO 54 c. EO 53 d. EO 653

31. Erect, shrubby legume with dark green compound leaves on stout branches. Leaves have orange rachis. Each leaf has 16-28 leaflets. An axis of golden yellow flowers produces 4-winged pods containing 50-60 flattened, triangular seeds. Flowers enclosed by yellow-orange bracts that are later shed. Usually upper 3 stamens sterile. Also known as "bayabas-bayabasan" and "ringworm bush" in English, this herbal medicine is used to treat ringworms and skin fungal infections. a. Lagundi b. Niyog-niyogan c. Akapulko d. Pansit-pansitan 32. The following conditions may be treated by akapulko except: a. Athletes foot b. Herpes c. Ringworm d. hypertension 33. Used primarily to stop coughing, relieve asthma, and facilitate the discharge of phlegm and to lower fever due to colds or flu. a. Lagundi b. Niyog-niyogan c. Akapulko d. Pansit-pansitan 34. Has been a folkloric cure for generations but has now been proven to be an effective herbal medicine for many ailments.It contains a mixture of flavanoids and alkaloids that make the pancreas produce more insulin that controls the blood sugar in diabetic patients. a. Bawang b. Lagundi c. Ampalaya d. Akapulko 35. Too much of this herbal medicine can cause stomach irritation as well as rashes in many people. Side effects include breath and body odor, heartburn, upset stomach, these side effects are more common with raw preparation. a. Bawang b. Lagundi c. Ampalaya d. Akapulko 36. One of the most popular therapeutic plants in the Philippines. It is a small tree that can grow up to 3 meters tall with greenish-brown smooth bark. The round globular fruits start as a flower and usually harvested and eaten while still green. The fruits turn yellow-green and soft when ripe. a. Bawang b. Niyog-niyogan c. Guava d. Ampalaya 37. A large, climbing woody shrub. The leaves have rounded base and pointed tip. The tubular flowers are sweet scented and red. The fruit when dried contain a black 5-sided seed that tastes like coconut. a. Bawang b. Niyog-niyogan c. Guava d. Ampalaya 38. An annual herb, shallow rooted, may reach 40 cm high, with succulent stems. Leaves are alternate, heart-shaped and turgid, as transparent and smooth as candle wax. Tiny dot like flowers scattered along solitary and leaf-opposed stalk (spike); naked; maturing gradually from the base to the tip; turning brown

when ripe. Propagation by seeds. Numerous tiny seeds drop off when mature and grow easily in clumps and groups in damp areas. a. Lagundi b. Niyog-niyogan c. Akapulko d. Pansit-pansitan 39. It is an amazing medicinal plant. It is an anti-urolithiasis and work as diuretic. It is used to aid the treatment of kidney disorders. a. Lagundi b. Niyog-niyogan c. Akapulko d. Sambong 40. Over dosage of diuretics can cause dehydration and generalized weakness brought about by loss of this electrolyte. a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Potassium d. Fluoride 41. A shrub with small, shiny nice-looking leaves that grows in wild uncultivated areas and forests. Mature stems are used for planting. Uses include treatment for diarrhea and stomachache. a. Tsaang gubat b. Akapulko c. Niyog-niyogan d. Sambong 42. An important medicinal plant. Primarily a pain reliever, it is also used in gaseous distention and as mouthwash. Effective for headache, toothache, and pains caused by arthritis. a. Lagundi b. Yerba buena c. Akapulko d. Pansit-pansitan For the next ten numbers, match the herbal medicines with their scientific names. Write the letters only. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. Lagundi A. Psidium guajava L. Yerba Buena B. Cassia, alata L. Sambong C. Peperonia pellucid Tsaang Gubat D. Allium sativum Niyug-niyogan E. Mentha cordifelia Guava/Bayabas F. Vitex negundo Akapulko G. Mamordica charantia Ulasimang Bato H. Carmona retusa Garlic/Bawang I. Blumea balsamifera Ampalaya J. Quisqualis indica L.

53. Refers to a systematic approach of obtaining, organizing, and analyzing numerical facts so that conclusion may be drawn from them. a. Vital statistics b. Statistics c. Rates d. Ratio 54. Refers to the systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorce, separation and

deaths. a. Vital statistics b. Statistics c. Rates d. Ratio 55. Statistic on population and the characteristics such as age and sex, distribution are obtained from_______________ a. Local Civil Registrar b. National Statistics Office c. Office of the Mayor d. Parish Office 56. In cities, births and deaths are registered at the City Health Department. But in most municipalities births and deaths are registered in_____________ a. Local Civil Registrar b. National Statistics Office c. Office of the Mayor d. Parish Office 57. Shows the relationship between a vital event and those persons exposed to the occurrence of said event, within a given area and during a specified unit of time, it is evident that the person experiencing the event (Numerator) must come from the total population exposed to the risk of same event (Denominator). a. Vital statistics b. Statistics c. Rates d. Ratio 58. It is used to describe the relationship between two numerical quantities or measures of events without taking particular considerations to the time and place. These quantities need not necessarily represent the same entities, although the unit of measure must be the same for both numerator and denominator of the ratio. a. Vital statistics b. Statistics c. Rates d. Ratio 59. Referred to the total living population. It must be presumed that the total population was exposed to the risk of the occurrence of the event. a. Rate b. Ratio c. Crude Rates d. Crude Birth Rate 60. A measure of one characteristic of the natural growth or increase of a population. a. Rate b. Ratio c. Crude Rates d. Crude Birth Rate