Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The theory of radio waves was originated by:
a. Marconi b. Bell c. Maxwell d. Hertz

b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above

9. FDM stands for:

a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above

10. The wavelength of a radio signal is:

a. equal to f c b. equal to c c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion

2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz

11. Distortion is caused by:

a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above

3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:

a. Marconi b. Bell c. Maxwell d. Hertz

4. A complete communication system must include:

a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel

12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its:
a. frequency-domain representation b. Fourier series c. spectrum d. all of the above

5. Radians per second is equal to:

f b. f c. the phase angle

13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is:

a. approximately 3 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz c. at least 5 kHz d. none of the above

6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:

a. the carrier frequency b. the signal-to-noise ratio c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range

14. Noise in a communication system originates in:

a. the sender b. the receiver c. the channel d. all of the above

7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called:

a. sub-channeling b. signal switching c. SINAD d. multiplexing

15. "Man-made" noise can come from:

a. equipment that sparks b. temperature c. static d. all of the above

8. TDM stands for:

a. Time-Division Multiplexing 1

16. Thermal noise is generated in:

a. transistors and diodes b. resistors c. copper wire d. all of the above

c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above

24. Noise Figure is a measure of:

a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB

17. Shot noise is generated in:

a. transistors and diodes b. resistors c. copper wire d. none of the above

25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are:
a. its amplitude b. its amplitude and frequency c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle

18. The power density of "flicker" noise is:

a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise

COMPLETION
19. So called "1/f" noise is also called:
a. random noise b. pink noise c. white noise d. partition noise 1. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. ANS: 1863 2. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. ANS: 1901 3. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. ANS: base 4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. ANS: channel 5. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. ANS: zero 6. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. ANS: bandwidth 7. The more information per second you send, the ____________________ the bandwidth required. ANS: greater/ larger/ wider 8. In ____________________, you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. ANS: FDM

20. "Pink" noise has:

a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave c. constant power d. none of the above

21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is:
a. VT = sqrt(V1 V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 c. VT = sqrt(V1 V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 V2)

22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:

a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above

23. SINAD is calculated as:

a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power

9. In ____________________, multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. ANS: TDM 10. VHF stands for the ___________________ frequency band. ANS: very high 11. The VHF band starts at _________________ MHz. ANS: 30 12. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: 300 13. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. ANS: wavelength 14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. ANS: 300 million 15. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. Mathematically, a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. ANS: Fourier 17. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. ANS: noise blanking/blanking 18. For satellite communications, ____________________ noise can be a serious problem. ANS: solar 19. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. ANS: electrons

2. Name five types of internal noise. ANS: Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time 3. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Likewise, thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. 4. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors, and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies.

Calculate the total noise voltage. AN 6. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm load, what is the signaltonoise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio. ANS: 20 dB, NF = 100 8. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145K. Find its noise figure. ANS: 1.5 9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the total NF for the pair. ANS: 5.4 10. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source, the output of which is a noise current. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current, controlling the diode current controls the noise power.

SHORT ANSWER
1. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. ANS: Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination 3

Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called:
a. base time b. transit time c. charge time d. Miller time

8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to:

a. inductance of collector lead b. collector-to-emitter capacitance c. base-to-emitter capacitance d. base-to-collector capacitance

9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with:

a. RC coupling b. transformer coupling c. direct coupling d. lumped reactance

10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:

a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. decoupling it d. none of the above

2. A real capacitor actually contains:

a. capacitance and resistance only b. capacitance and inductance only c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance d. reactance only

3. Bypass capacitors are used to:

a. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. couple RF around an amplifier c. neutralize amplifiers d. reduce the Miller effect

11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:

a. a nonlinear circuit b. a linear amplifier c. a signal containing harmonics d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency

4. A resonant circuit is:

a. a simple form of bandpass filter b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers c. both a and b d. none of the above

12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires:

a. loop gain equal to unity b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. both a and b, but at just one frequency d. none of the above

5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will:

a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit c. "multiply" the Q d. have no effect on Q

13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
a. the loop-gain criteria b. the Hartley criteria c. the Bode criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria

6. The "Miller Effect" can:

a. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. cause an amplifier to lose gain c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. all of the above

14. The Hartley oscillator uses:

a. a tapped inductor b. a two-capacitor divider c. an RC time constant d. a piezoelectric crystal

7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by:

a. using a common-emitter amplifier b. using a common-base amplifier c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. it cannot be avoided

15. The Colpitts VFO uses:

a. a tapped inductor b. a two-capacitor divider c. an RC time constant d. a piezoelectric crystal

COMPLETION
1. Generally, conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. ANS: short 2. At UHF frequencies and above, elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". ANS: distributed 3. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground, it is called a ____________________. ANS: ground-plane 4. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ___________________ between them. ANS: shielding 5. In high-frequency RF circuits, the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. ANS: components 6. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. ANS: decoupling 7. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. ANS: bypass 8. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. ANS: Q 9. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. ANS: 10 10. In a class C RF amplifier, the _________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e.g. collector current). ANS: tuned circuit 11. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: neutralization

16. The Clapp oscillator is:

a. a modified Hartley oscillator b. a modified Colpitts oscillator c. a type of crystal lcontrolled oscillator d. only built with FETs

17. A varactor is:

a. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. a diode c. used in tuner circuits d. all of the above

18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:

a. used for a precise frequency b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. all of the above

19. If two signals, Va at) and Vb are fed to a mixer, the output:
1 1 a a a b b b) 2 2 a b a b

bt),

/2

d. none of the above

20. In a balanced mixer, the output:

a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. contains the input frequencies c. does not contain the input frequencies d. is a linear mixture of the input signals

21. "VFO" stands for:

a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator

22. A "frequency synthesizer" is:

a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. same as a mixer 5

12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ___________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. ANS: capacitive 13. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ___________ resonant frequency. ANS: series, parallel 14. To produce sum and difference frequencies, a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. ANS: linear 15. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. ANS: square

ANS:15 MHz and 25 MHz

8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS:12

Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. AM stands for:
a. Audio Modulation b. Amplitude Modulation c. Angle Modulation d. Antenna Modulation

SHORT ANSWER
1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz?

2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS:100 3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0.1 4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider. 5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS:30 pF 6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What will be the shift in frequency at 70C? What percentage is that? ANS:50 kHz, 0.05% 7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a 20-MHz signal; V2 is a 5-MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? 6

2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:

a. the baseband signal b. the carrier signal c. the amplitude signal d. none of the above

3. If the audio Va at) modulates the carrier Vc ct), then the modulation index, m, is:
a. m a c b. m = Va / Vc c. m = (Va / Vc)2 d. m = Va a

4. The equation for full-carrier AM is:

a. v(t) = (Ec + Em b. v(t) = (Ec + Em c. v(t) = (Ec Em d. v(t) = (Ec + E)m a. distortion b. splatter c. both a and b d. none of the above
ct) mt mt mt ct) ct) ct)

5. Overmodulation causes:

6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is:

a. m = Emin / Emax b. m = Emax / Emin c. m = (Emax Emin) / (Emax + Emin) d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax Emin)

c. requires less bandwidth d. all of the above

14. The SC in SSB SC stands for:

a. single-carrier b. suppressed-carrier c. sideband-carrier d. none of the above

7. If Va at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc ct), it will produce the frequencies:
c c c a a a c c a c a a)/2

15. PEP stands for:

a. Peak Envelope Power b. Peak Efficiency Power c. Peak Envelope Product d. none of the above

d. none of the above

8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is:

a. equal to the carrier power b. twice the carrier power c. half the carrier power

16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation?
a. 1000 watts b. 500 watts c. 250 watts d. 0 watts

9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be:
a. 5 kHz b. 10 kHz c. 1.005 MHz d. none of the above

17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:

a. AM is susceptible to noise b. commercial AM stations use low power c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. all of the above

10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect:
a. the audio to get louder at the receiver b. the received RF signal to increase c. the signal-tonoise ratio to increase d. all of the above

18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:

a. audio b. video c. digital data d. all of the above

11. The modulation index can be derived from:

a. the time-domain signal b. the frequency-domain signal c. both a and b d. none of the above

12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be:

a. requires too much bandwidth b. requires too much power c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios d. all of the above

19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
a. m1 + m2 b. (m1 + m2) / 2 c. sqrt(m1 m2 + m2 m1) d. sqrt(m1 m1 + m2 m2) \

13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:

a. is more efficient b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit 7

20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must:

a. be set to USB mode b. reinsert the carrier

c. both a and b d. none of the above

COMPLETION
1. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. ANS: simple 2. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. ANS: inefficient 3. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. ANS: envelope 4. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. ANS: two 5. Compared to the USB, the information in the LSB is ____________________. ANS: the same 6. Compared to the USB, the power in the LSB is ____________________. ANS: the same 7. In AM, total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. ANS: less 8. In AM, as the modulation index increases, the carrier power ____________. ANS: remains constant 9. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is _____________. ANS: one 10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the USB will extend up to ____________________. ANS: 1010 kHz

12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation. ANS: 150

SHORT ANSWER
1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS:102 watts 2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7% modulation? ANS:125 watts 3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5, then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0.707 4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0.6 5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts, what is the PEP? ANS:4 watts

Chapter 4: Angle Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The FM modulation index: a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency
b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. is equal to twice the deviation

2. One way to derive FM from PM is:

a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator 8

d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations

3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because:

a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. it is band-limited at the receiver d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible

10. A prea. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. the time delay between the L and R channels d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used

4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of:

a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra b. Bessel functions c. Taylor series d. fractals

11. FM stereo:
a. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. is implemented using an SCA signal c. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. is not compatible with mono FM

12. An SCA signal: 5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:

a. Armstrong's Rule b. Bessel's Rule c. Carson's Rule d. none of the above a. can use amplitude modulation b. can use FM modulation c. is monaural d. all of the above

6. NBFM stands for:

a. National Broadcast FM b. Non-Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM d. Narrowband FM

13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:

a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. only by using Bessel functions

7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called:

a. the capture effect b. the threshold effect c. the noise effect d. the limit effect

COMPLETION
1. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. ANS: angle 2. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. ANS: data 3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: better 4. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: wider/greater 5. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. ANS: C 9

8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called:

a. the capture effect b. the threshold effect c. the "two-station" effect d. none of the above

9. Pre-emphasis is used to:

a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies

6. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. ANS: stay constant 7. In FM, the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: amplitude 8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: frequency 9. Mathematically, the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. ANS: infinite 10. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power _________. ANS: decreases 11. Mathematically, the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ________. ANS: any number 12. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index ___________. ANS: increases 13. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index _________. ANS: decreases 14. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant sidebands ______. ANS: increases 15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. ANS: disappears/goes to zero 16. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using __________ rule. ANS: Carson's 17. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ________ functions. ANS: Bessel 18. The _________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. ANS: threshold 10

19. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: capture 20. Rest frequency is another name for an FM _____ frequency. ANS: carrier

SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the modulation index? ANS:2 3. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS:9 kHz 4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal? ANS:2 5. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS:48.4 watts 6. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS:673 watts 7. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS:200 mW (0.2 watt) 8. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS:30 kHz 9. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2

being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS:30 kHz 10. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.4, 5.5, etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using a spectrum analyzer, adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Record the audio frequency. Then do the calculation: fm mf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5.5,

b. keep the modulation below 100% c. maximize transmitted power d. all of the above

6. With high-level AM:

a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. minimum modulation power is required c. minimum RF power is required d. all of the above

7. With high-level AM:

a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB

Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called:
a. agility b. expansion c. VFO d. spread-spectrum

8. With low-level AM:

a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power

9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that:

a. is complex b. has variable amplitude c. has variable frequency d. all of the above

2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out:
a. is a measure of efficiency b. heats the transmitter c. may require water cooling d. all of the above

10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to:

a. the power level of the carrier b. the power level of the modulation c. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. none of the above

3. Baseband compression produces:

a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. a smaller number of signals d. none of the above

11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from:

a. the modulating amplifier b. the RF amplifier c. the driver stage d. the carrier

4. ALC stands for:

a. Amplitude Level Control b. Automatic Level Control c. Accurate Level Control d. none of the above c. Accurate Level Control

12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. none of the above 11

5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to:

a. keep the modulation close to 100%

13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of:
a. 50 ohms resistive b. 75 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive

a. a mechanical filter b. a crystal filter c. both a and b d. none of the above

21. A direct FM modulator:

a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. integrates the modulating signal c. both a and b d. none of the above

14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching?

a. pi network b. T network c. both a and b d. a bridge circuit

22. An indirect FM modulator:

a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. both a and b d. none of the above

15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called:
a. a heavy load b. a dummy load c. a temporary load d. a test load

23. AFC stands for:

a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. Automatic Frequency Centering c. Automatic Frequency Control d. Audio Frequency Control

16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be:
a. wire-wound b. noninductive c. 1% tolerance or better d. all of the above

24. Frequency multipliers are:

a. essentially balanced modulators b. essentially Class C amplifiers c. essentially mixers d. none of the above

17. A Class D amplifier is:

a. very efficient b. essentially pulse-width modulation c. essentially pulse-duration modulation d. all of the above

25. With mixing:

a. the carrier frequency can be raised b. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value d. the deviation is altered

18. To generate a SSB signal:

a. start with full-carrier AM b. start with DSBSC c. start with a quadrature signal d. all of the above

COMPLETION
1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the __________ oscillator. ANS: carrier 2. In the USA, the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ANS: FCC 3. In Canada, _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ANS: Industry Canada 12

19. The carrier is suppressed in: a. a balanced modulator

b. a mixer c. a frequency multiplier d. none of the above

20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use:

4. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. ANS: agility 5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. ANS: PEP 6. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called _____________. ANS: compression 7. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. ANS: expansion 8. ALC is a form of ______. ANS: compression 9. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ___________. ANS: efficiently 10. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. ANS: linear 11. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a ___________ stage is used. ANS: buffer 12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. ANS: higher 13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ___________-ohm load. ANS: 50 14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. ANS: T 15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. ANS: harmonic

16. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. ANS: mismatch 17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a _________ into one "box". ANS: receiver 18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: driver 19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse_________ modulation. ANS: duration 20. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class _____________ amplifiers. ANS: D 21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. ANS: mixing 22. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to start with a _______________ signal. ANS: DSBSC 23. Indirect FM is derived from _______________ modulation. ANS: phase 24. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a _____________ modulator. ANS: reactance 25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. ANS: phase-locked

SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range of possible frequencies?

2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS:75.8% 13

3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS:50 watts 4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS:400 volts 5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS:10.005 MHz 6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS:40 MHz 7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS:4 MHz 8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. ANS: First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation.

c. the spurious response and the tracking d. the signal and the noise

2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by:

a. Foster b. Seeley c. Armstrong d. Hertz

3. Trimmers and padders are:

a. two types of adjusting tools b. small adjustable resistors c. small adjustable inductors d. small adjustable capacitors

4. "Skin effect" refers to:

a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. none of the above

5. The "front end" of a receiver can include:

a. the tuner b. the RF amplifier c. the mixer d. all of the above

6. "IF" stands for:

a. intermediate frequency b. intermodulation frequency c. indeterminate frequency d. image frequency

7. AGC stands for:

a. Audio Gain Control b. Automatic Gain Control c. Active Gain Control d. Active Gain Conversion

8. The frequency of the local oscillator:

a. is above the RF frequency b. is below the RF frequency c. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz.

Chapter 6: Receivers
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:
a. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. the number of converters and the number of IFs 14

9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. it increases sensitivity c. it increases selectivity

d. it is cheaper

10. Basically, sensitivity measures:

a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. none of the above

a. are transmitted on the same frequency b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF

18. An image must be rejected: 11. Basically, selectivity measures:

a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer a. prior to mixing b. prior to IF amplification c. prior to detection d. images cannot be rejected

19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. none of the above

12. When comparing values for shape factor:

a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal b. a value of 0.707 is ideal c. a value of 1.0 is ideal d. there is no ideal value

20. A common AM detector is the:

a. PLL b. envelope detector c. ratio detector d. all of the above

13. When comparing values for shape factor:

a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 c. both values are basically equivalent d. none of the above

21. An FM detector is the:

a. PLL b. ratio detector c. quadrature detector d. all of the above

14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in:

a. the mixer b. the detector c. the IF amplifiers d. all of the above

22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because:

a. they are faster than silicon diodes b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. all of the above

15. Phase distortion is important in:

a. voice communications systems b. color video receivers c. monochrome video receivers d. all of the above

23. A common SSB detector is:

a. a PLL b. a diode c. a BFO d. a product detector

16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by:

a. the AGC b. noise generated in the receiver c. the dynamic range of the receiver d. the type of detector circuit being used

24. BFO stands for:

a. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator 15

17. Image frequencies occur when two signals:

d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator

25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:

a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. reinject the carrier c. use double conversion d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC

a. maintain a constant IF frequency b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. none of the above

33. SAW stands for:

a. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. Surface Acoustic Wave c. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. Software-Activated Wave

26. Which would be best for DSBSC:

a. carrier detection b. coherent detection c. envelope detection d. ratio detection

34. The important property of a SAW is:

a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. it allows software radios to be built c. it is a stable bandpass filter d. none of the above

27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is:

a. Foster-Seeley detector b. a quadrature detector c. a PLL detector d. all of the above

35. The main function of the AGC is to:

a. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. all of the above

28. The function of a limiter is:

a. to remove amplitude variations b. to limit spurious responses c. to limit dynamic range d. to limit noise response

36. DSP stands for:

a. Dynamic Signal Properties b. Direct Signal Phase c. Distorted Signal Packet d. Digital Signal Processor

29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called:

a. AGC b. squelch c. AFC d. limiting

37. SINAD stands for:

a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio

30. LNA stands for:

a. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. Low-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise Audio d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification

38. TRF stands for:

a. Tuned Radio Frequency b. Tracking Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function

31. AFC stands for:

a. Audio Frequency Compensator b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation c. Automatic Frequency Control d. Autonomous Frequency Control

COMPLETION
1. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. ANS: superheterodyne

32. The function of AFC is:

16

2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. ANS: 1887 3. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other, it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted, the other changes with it. ANS: track 4. The __________effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. ANS: skin 5. The superhet was invented in the year ______________. ANS: 1918 6. In a receiver, the _______________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. ANS: front end 7. In a superhet, the output of the ___________ goes to the IF amplifiers. ANS: mixer 8. In a superhet, the __________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. ANS: intermediate IF 9. The ______ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. ANS: AGC 10. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. ANS: autodyne 11. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. ANS: lower 12. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Selectivity 13. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. 17

ANS: Sensitivity 14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-________ receiver. ANS: conversion 15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of _______ frequencies. ANS: image 16. A demodulator is also called a ________________. ANS: detector 17. An ______________ detector uses a diode to halfwave rectify an AM signal. ANS: envelope

18. A _______________ detector is used for SSB signals. ANS: product 19. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. ANS: carrier 20. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. ANS: coherent 21. FM detectors have a characteristic __________________-shaped curve. ANS: S 22. While still commonly found, the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ______. ANS: obsolescent 23. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. ANS: amplitude 24. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. ANS: gate 25. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. ANS: noisy 26. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class___________________.

ANS: A 27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. ANS: over 28. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________tuned to increase the bandwidth. ANS: stagger 29. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require _______. ANS: adjustment 30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. ANS: higher 31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is __________. ANS: fixed constant 32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the __________ amplifiers. ANS: IF 33. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. ANS: S 34. The effectiveness of FM ____________ is measured by a receivers quieting sensitivity. ANS: limiting 35. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. ANS: discriminator 3. An IF filter has a 60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a 6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape factor value? ANS:1.25 4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection, what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS:60 MHz 5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz?

6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS:0.06 7. What value of transformer coupling would a doubletuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS:0.01

Chapter 7: Digital Communications

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The first digital code was the:
a. ASCII code b. Baudot code c. Morse code d. none of the above

SHORT ANSWER
1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: 20 kHz 2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS:6 MHz 18

2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using:

a. an amplifier b. a filter c. a regenerative repeater d. all of the above

3. TDM stands for:

a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Time-Domain Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester

d. Ten Dual-Manchester

12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique:

a. PDM b. PWM c. PPM d. PPS

4. Hartley's Law is:

a. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. SR = 2fmax

5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:

a. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. SR = 2fmax

13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):

a. decreases as the sample rate increases b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases

6. The Shannon Limit is given by:

a. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. SR = 2fmax

14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:

a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. none of the above

7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as:

a. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. SR = 2fmax

15. Companding is used to: 8. Natural Sampling does not use:

a. a sample-and-hold circuit b. true binary numbers c. a fixed sample rate d. an analog-to-digital converter a. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission

9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion?

a. They are two types of sampling error. b. You can have one or the other, but not both. c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. d. They are the same thing.

16. In North America, companding uses:

a. the Logarithmic Law b. the A Law

10. Foldover distortion is caused by:

a. noise b. too many samples per second c. too few samples per second d. all of the above

17. In Europe, companding uses: a. the Logarithmic Law b. the A Law (alpha law)

11. The immediate result of sampling is:

a. a sample alias b. PAM c. PCM d. PDM 19

18. Codec stands for: a. Coder-Decoder b. Coded-Carrier c. Code-Compression d. none of the above

19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. 4-bit numbers b. 8-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers 20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation: a. transmits fewer bits per sample b. requires a much higher sampling rate c. can suffer slope overload d. all of the above 21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when: a. the signal changes too rapidly b. the signal does not change c. the bit rate is too high d. the sample is too large 22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality c. only over shorter distances d. only if the voice is band-limited

27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to:

a. detect errors b. carry signaling c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. all of the above

28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is:

a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8

29. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is:

a. 8 k b. 56 k c. 64 k
6

30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:

a. 1.544 Mb/s b. 64 kb/s c. 56 kb/s d. 8 kb/s

31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at:

a. 1.544 MB/s b. 64 kb/s c. 56 kb/s d. 8 kb/s

23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity:

a. AMI b. Manchester c. unipolar NRZ d. bipolar RZ

32. A T-1 cable uses:

a. Manchester coding b. bipolar RZ AMI coding c. NRZ coding d. pulse-width coding

24. Manchester coding:

a. is a biphase code b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. provides strong timing information d. all of the above

33. The number of frames in a superframe is:

a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48

25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:

a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8

34. A typical T-1 line uses:

a. twisted-pair wire b. coaxial cable c. fiber-optic cable d. microwave

26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:

a. detect errors b. carry signaling c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. all of the above 20

35. "Signaling" is used to indicate:

a. on-hook/off-hook condition b. busy signal c. ringing d. all of the above

8. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. ANS: error/noise 9. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. ANS: Time 10. All practical communications channels are band____________________. ANS: limited 11. ________ Law gives the relationship between time, information capacity, and bandwidth. ANS: Hartley's 12. Ignoring noise, the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. The ________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. ANS: Shannon 14. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. ANS: Natural 15. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. ANS: Nyquist 16. _______ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. ANS: Foldover 17. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. ANS: Aliasing 18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse______ modulated signal. ANS: amplitude

36. A vocoder implements compression by:

a. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. using lossless techniques

37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is:
a. much better b. somewhat better c. about the same d. not as good

COMPLETION
1. Digitizing a signal often results in ________________ transmission quality. ANS: improved better 2. To send it over an analog channel, a digital signal must be _______ onto a carrier. ANS: modulated 3. To send it over a digital channel, an analog signal must first be ____________________. ANS: digitized 4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually __________ as the length of the channel increases. ANS: decreases/gets worse 5. The _______ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. ANS: binary 6. A _________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ANS: regenerative 7. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ANS: correct

21

19. ________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: Pulse-code 20. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: Quantizing 21. _________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ANS: Companding 22. In North America, compression is done using the _______-law equation.

32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ______ continuity. ANS: DC 33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ________. ANS: polarity 34. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. ANS: zeros 35. Manchester code has a level ______________ in the center of each bit period. ANS: transition 36. Manchester coding provides ________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: timing 37. There are ____________________ channels in a DS1 frame. ANS: 24 38. DS-1 uses a _______________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. ANS: framing 39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled ______________ times per second. ANS: 8000 40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of _________ bits per second.
6

23. In Europe, compression is done using the _________-law equation. ANS: A 24. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: codec 25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. ANS: 12 26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________. ANS:1/one 27. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. ANS: higher 28. _______ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. ANS: Granular 29. In delta modulation, _________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. ANS: slope 30. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. ANS: step 31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. ANS: half

41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________. ANS: superframe 42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every ______ frame. ANS: sixth 43. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it. ANS: Lossless

SHORT ANSWER

22

1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. ANS:5 seconds 2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12,000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. ANS:2000 hertz 3. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS:16 kbps 4. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS:6600 samples/second 5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS:74 dB 6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? ANS:64 kbps 7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS:56 kbps 8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output voltage of a -law compressor if the input voltage is 0.388 volt? ANS:0.833 volt

a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Private Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers

3. POTS stands for:

a. Private Office Telephone System b. Primary Office Telephone Service c. Primary Operational Test System d. Plain Old Telephone Service

4. LATA stands for:

a. Local Access and Transport Area b. Local Access Telephone Area c. Local Area Telephone Access d. Local Area Transport Access

5. A LATA is a:
a. a local calling area b. a type of digital local network c. a way of accessing a tandem office d. a way of accessing a central office

6. Central offices are connected by:

a. local loops b. trunk lines c. both a and b d. none of the above

7. Local loops terminate at:

a. a tandem office b. a toll station c. a central office d. an interexchange office

8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. occurs only on long-distance cables d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded

Chapter 8: The Telephone System

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. DTMF stands for:
a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. Dial Tone Master Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency

9. In telephony, POP stands for:

a. Post Office Protocol b. Point Of Presence c. Power-On Protocol d. none of the above

2. PSTN stands for:

23

10. The cable used for local loops is mainly:

a. twisted-pair copper wire b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable d. fiber-optic

d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" b. prevent "singing" c. allow signals to be multiplexed d. all of the above

11. FITL stands for:

a. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. Fiber In the Toll Loop c. Framing In The Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop

19. VNL stands for:

a. voltage net loss b. volume net loss c. via net loss d. voice noise level

12. Loading coils were used to:

a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. reduce crosstalk d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop

20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:

a. eliminate reflections b. prevent oscillation c. improve signal-to-noise ratio d. reduce power consumption

13. DC current flows through a telephone:

a. when it is on hook b. when it is off hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. only when it is ringing

21. The reference noise level for telephony is:

a. 1 mW b. 0 dBm c. 1 pW d. 0 dBr

14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is:

c. 2 mA to 8 mA d. 20 mA to 80 mA

22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:

a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 60

15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:
a. step-by-step switching control b. crossbar control c. common control d. ESS

23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into:

a. supergroups b. mastergroups c. jumbogroups d. all of the above

16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is:

a. 48 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC c. 90 volts DC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using:

a. SSB b. DSBSC c. PDM d. PCM

17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is:

a. 48 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC c. 90 volts DC 24

25. PABX stands for:

a. Power Amplification Before Transmission

b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. Public Access Branch Exchange

COMPLETION
1. A ____________________ is a local calling area. ANS: LATA 2. Central offices are connected together by _______ lines. ANS: trunk 3. One central office can be connected to another through a _________ office. ANS: tandem 4. With 7-digit phone numbers, _______________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. ANS: ten 5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. ANS: blocking 6. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. ANS: digital 7. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. ANS: twisted-pair 8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. ANS: flat 9. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: Loading 10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called ____________________. ANS: ring 11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called ____________________. ANS: tip 12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. ANS: green

26. SLIC stands for:

a. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. Standard Line Interface Card c. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit

27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:

a. provide synchronization b. carry signaling c. cancel echoes d. check for errors

28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:

a. compensation b. rectification c. justification d. frame alignment

29. ISDN stands for:

a. Integrated Services Digital Network b. Information Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network d. Information Systems Digital Network

30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because:

a. it took to long to develop b. it is too slow c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. all of the above

31. ADSL stands for:

a. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line d. Access to Data Services Line

32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically:

a. much faster b. about the same speed c. much more expensive d. none of the above

25

13. A telephone is said to have __________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. ANS: seized 14. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. ANS: BORSCHT 15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. ANS: hybrid 16. In a crosspoint switch, not all _______________ can be in use at the same time. ANS: lines 17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively _________ signal voltage. ANS: large 18. The generic term for Touch-Tone signaling is____________________. ANS: DTMF 19. A ______________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. ANS: conditioned 20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called ____________________. ANS: repeaters 21. An echo ______ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. ANS: suppressor 22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. ANS: C-message 23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually ____________________. ANS:SSB/SSBSC 24. In FDM telephony, ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: guard 25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. 26

ANS: 56

26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. ANS: superframe 27. In DS-1C, ___________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. ANS: stuff 28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. ANS: in-channel 29. SS7 is the current version of __________________ signaling. ANS: common-channel 30. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. ANS: packet 31. In ISDN, the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. ANS: D 32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. ANS: B 33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ______ equipment. ANS: TE1 34. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. ANS: asymmetrical 35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. ANS: greater/faster

SHORT ANSWER
1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop? ANS:1000 ohms

2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS:200 ohms 3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.) ANS:697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. ANS:1 dB 5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn? ANS:90 dBrn 6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS:65 dBrnc TLP

c. numerical data d. all of the above

5. Character codes include:

a. alphanumeric characters b. data link control characters c. graphic control characters d. all of the above

6. ASCII stands for:

a. American Standard Character-set 2 b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. American Standard Code 2 d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange

7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of:

a. nonstandard character codes b. escape characters c. control characters d. none of the above

Chapter 9: Data Transmission

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent:
a. over short distances only b. usually over long distances c. over any distance d. usually over a coaxial cable

8. LF stands for:
a. Line Feed b. Link Feed c. Line Forward d. Link Forward

9. UART stands for:

a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. Unaltered Received Text d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text

2. The five-level teletype code was invented by:

a. the Morkum Company b. the Teletype Company c. Western Union d. Emile Baudot

10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are:

a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous"

3. Data codes are also called:

a. character codes b. character sets c. they do not have any other name d. both a and b

4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called:

a. FIGS data b. binary data 27

11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is:

a. equal to zero b. equal to one bit-time c. equal to the start and stop bit-times d. not a set length

d. automatic request for queue

12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are:

a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. much longer than asynchronous frames c. 128 bytes long d. 1024 bytes long

20. ARQ is used to:

a. correct bit errors b. correct synchronization problems c. put data into a temporary buffer d. none of the above

13. Synchronous transmission is used because:

a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. all of the above

21. FEC stands for:

a. Fixed Error Control b. Forward Error Control c. Forward Error Correction d. False Error Condition

14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using:
a. the clock bits b. the data bits c. the CRC bits d. a separate clock line

22. VRC is another name for:

a. FEC b. ARQ c. LRC d. parity

23. CRC stands for: 15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:

a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. the channel must be noise-free a. Control Receiver Code b. Correct Received Character c. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. Cycle Repeat Character

24. Huffman codes:

a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed

16. BISYNC:
a. is an IBM product b. is a character-oriented protocol c. requires the use of DLE d. all of the above

25. Run-length encoding is used to:

a. encrypt data b. compress data c. correct data d. none of the above

17. HDLC:
a. is an IBM product b. is a bit-oriented protocol c. is identical to SDLC d. all of the above

26. Public-key encryption:

a. allows the use of digital signatures b. is used to convey symmetric keys c. avoids the "password problem" d. all of the above

18. The use of flags in SDLC requires:

a. "bit-stuffing" b. different flags at either end of a frame c. FEC d. ARQ

27. SDLC stands for:

a. Synchronous Data Link Control b. Synchronous Data Line Control c. Synchronous Data Link Character d. Synchronous Data Line Character

19. The initials ARQ are used to designate:

a. automatic request for resynchronization b. automatic request for retransmission c. automatic receiver queue 28

28. HDLC is:

a. a bit-oriented protocol b. based on SDLC c. an ISO standard d. all of the above

11. Synchronous communication is more ____________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. ANS: efficient 12. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ______________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. ANS: transitions 13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. ANS: data 14. In the _______ protocol, each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. ANS: BISYNC 15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. ANS: flag 16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. ANS: 01111110 17. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. ANS: block 18. DLE stands for data link ____________________. ANS: escape 19. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. ANS: stuffing 20. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. ANS: Burst 21. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. ANS: forward 22. An __________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. ANS: ARQ 23. Parity fails when an____________________ 29

COMPLETION
1. Parallel transmission can be used only for _________ distances. ANS: short 2. The term "baud" was named after Emil _______________. ANS: Baudot 3. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. ANS: character 4. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. ANS: ASCII 5. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. ANS: FF 6. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. ANS: start

7. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. ANS: stop 8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the line will be at the _______ level. ANS: mark/binary 1 9. An integrated circuit called a ___________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. ANS: UART 10. When receiving digital data, __________ are used to hold data until they can be read. ANS: buffers

number of bits are in error. ANS: even

24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. ANS: burst 25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data _________. ANS: compression 26. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. ANS: cipher 27. A ________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. ANS: password 28. If the key is ____________ enough, private-key encryption can be quite secure. ANS: long 29. Messages cannot be __________________ using a public key. ANS: decrypted 30. Because it is ___________-intensive, public-key encryption can be slow. ANS: computation

5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. ANS:66.7% 6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. ANS:97.0%

Chapter 10: Local Area Networks

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. CSMA stands for:
a. Client-Server Multi-Access b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access c. Carrier Server MasterApplication d. none of the above

SHORT ANSWER
2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for:
1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS:20 hex (32 decimal) 3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS:30H to 39H 4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits), what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS:10 sec 30 a. Carrier Detection b. Carrier Delay c. Collision Detection d. Collision Delay

3. The Internet is:

a. a network of networks b. a very large client-server network c. a very large CSMA/CD network d. not really a network at all

4. Most LANs:
a. are based on Ethernet b. use CSMA/CD c. use UTP cable d. all of the above

5. Dumb terminals are still used:

a. in token-passing networks b. in networks requiring central monitoring c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. none of the above

12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a. a collision b. contention c. excess traffic d. multiple access

6. In a circuit-switched network:
a. communication is half-duplex only b. each channel carries only one data stream c. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. all of the above

13. One type of network that never has a collision is:

a. CSMA b. Ethernet c. token-passing d. all networks have collisions

7. Each computer on a network is called a:

a. hub b. token c. node d. circuit

14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of:
a. nodes b. users c. packets d. collisions

8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-passing rings are:

a. slower b. more expensive c. not as widely used d. all of the above

15. The effect of too many collisions is:

a. the network goes down b. the network slows down c. the cable overheats d. data is lost

9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to:
a. a central ring b. a central bus c. a node d. none of the above

16. MAU stands for:

a. Multistation Access Unit b. Multiple Access Unit c. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. none of the above AN

10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

a. packets b. nodes c. carriers d. tokens

17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is:

a. EIA 232 b. IEEE 488.1 c. IEEE 802.3 d. CCITT ITU-E

11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a. a collision b. contention c. excess traffic d. multiple access

18. Ethernet was invented by:

a. IBM b. INTEL c. Xerox d. Digital Equipment Corporation

31

19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses:

a. Manchester encoding b. Three-Level encoding c. NRZ encoding d. AMI encoding

26. UTP stands for:

a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. Unicode Text

20. A 100BaseT cable uses:

a. fiber-optic cable b. twisted-pair copper wires c. RG-58U coaxial cable d. 50-ohm coaxial cable

27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables:

a. are cheaper b. are easier to crimp connectors onto c. allow faster bit rates d. all of the above

21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:

a. the cable carries baseband signals b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. none of the above

28. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are more common in token-passing networks

22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
a. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above

29. A switch:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are more common in token-passing networks

30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

a. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. it is faster when used in large networks c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. all of the above

23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
a. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above

31. Broadband LANs:

a. modulate the data onto a carrier b. use coaxial cables c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. all of the above

24. NIC stands for:

a. Network Interface Card b. Network Interface Cable c. Network Interface Code d. Network Internal Code

32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in:
a. peer-to-peer networks b. client-server networks c. both a and b d. none of the above

25. 10BaseT cable typically uses:

a. a BNC connector b. a T connector c. an RJ45 connector d. an RS11 connector 32

33. Record locking is used to:

a. store records securely on a server b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. none of the above

8. _______________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. ANS: Contention 9. A __________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. ANS: collision 10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must be___________________. ANS: detected 11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be _________ before using it. ANS: quiet/free/unused/available 12. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. ANS: backbone 13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________ bits per second. ANS: 100 mega 14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: minimum 15. In CSMA/CD, the ___________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: length 16. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. ANS: NIC 17. A 100BaseTX cable is a ___________________ cable. ANS: fiber-optic 18. Hubs can be ____________________ to form, in effect, one big hub. ANS: stacked 19. A switch looks at the___________________ of each incoming packet. ANS: address 20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. ANS: contention

34. The software that runs a client-server network must be:

a. UNIX-based b. WINDOWS-based c. multitasking d. Novell certified

35. A "thin" client is:

a. basically, a PC with no disk drives b. a node that rarely sends data c. same as a "dumb" terminal d. all of the above

COMPLETION
1. A LAN is a ________________ Area Network. ANS: Local 2. The Internet is a network of ____________________. ANS: networks 3. In a ____________________ network, all nodes are connected to a central computer. ANS: star 4. In a ____________-switched network, users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. ANS: circuit 5. The __________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together. ANS: topology 6. Ring networks often use _______________-passing. ANS: token 7. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. ANS: packet

33

SHORT ANSWER
1. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. It still works like a token-passing ring. 2. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. 3. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is inoperative. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected and the network still functions. 4. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on, send a packet, and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. The collision would not be detected. 5. What is a NIC address, and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers, so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small.

b. Multiple-Area Network c. Metropolitan-Area Network d. Multiple Access Network

2. Packet switching is based on:

a. store-and-forward b. switched circuits c. real-time delivery d. all of the above

3. SNA stands for:

a. Standard Network b. Small Network Access c. Standard Network Architecture d. Systems Network Architecture

4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is:

a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8

5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the:

a. physical layer b. link layer c. cable layer d. transport layer

6. Bad frames are usually detected by the:

a. frame layer b. physical layer c. error-check layer d. link layer

7. A virtual circuit is set up by the:

a. user b. link layer c. network d. frame

Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. MAN stands for:
a. Manchester Access Network 34

8. Frame Relay:
a. is faster than X.25 b. does less error checking than X.25 c. allows for variable length packets d. all of the above

9. ATM stands for:

a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode c. Asynchronous Transmission Model

d. Automatic Test Mode

18. HTTP allows the use of:

a. dumb terminals b. file transport c. browsers d. none of the above

10. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains" b. looks at the address of each packet c. operate at the data-link level d. all of the above

19. HTML stands for:

a. Hypertext Markup Language b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level c. Hypertext Transfer- Mode Layer d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language

11. IP stands for:

a. Internet Process b. Internet Protocol c. Interconnect Protocol d. Interconnect Procedure

20. HTML allows:

a. telneting b. high-speed file transfer c. web page layout d. all of the above

12. TCP stands for:

a. Transmission Control Process b. Transmission Control Protocol c. Transfer Connection Protocol d. none of the above

21. FTP stands for:

a. File Transfer Protocol b. File Transport Protocol c. File Test Procedure d. Fast Transport Packet

13. Together, TCP/IP consists of:

a. 5 layers b. 7 layers c. an application and a process d. datagrams

22. FTP is used to:

a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. none of the above

14. IP is a:
a. connection-oriented protocol b. virtual circuit c. connectionless protocol d. non-robust protocol

23. SMTP stands for: 15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:

a. is essentially forever b. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. is approximately 200 milliseconds a. Short Message Transport Protocol b. Simple Message Transport Protocol c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure

24. ISP stands for: 16. UDP stands for:

a. User Datagram Protocol b. User Data Protocol c. User Data Packet d. Universal Data Packet a. Internet Service Protocol b. Internet Service Provider c. Internet Service Procedure d. none of the above

25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: 17. HTTP stands for:
a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. Hypertext Transport Protocol a. a 32-bit binary number b. four groups of base-ten numbers c. running out of available values d. all of the above

26. DNS stands for:

35

a. Domain Name Server b. Domain Name System c. Domain Numbering System d. Domain Naming System

____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the___________________ layer. ANS: network

27. A DNS:
a. has become obsolete on the Internet b. translates words to numbers c. stores all domain addresses d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure

28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by:

a. a DNS b. a "brick wall" c. a "firewall" d. the use of "spoofing" protocols

10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ___________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does _____________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow______-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters

29. OSI stands for:

a. Open Systems Interconnection b. Open Standard Interconnection c. Open Systems Internet d. none of the above

COMPLETION
1. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. ANS: Metropolitan 2. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. ANS: Wide 3. A dedicated telephone line can be _____________ on a monthly basis. ANS: leased 4. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. ANS: switched 5. Packet switching is done on a store-and____________________ network. ANS: forward 6. A ________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the 36

19. _________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses highspeed___________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ___________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "______________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________. ANS: ISP

2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next storeand-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.

SHORT ANSWER
1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 37

Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. FSK stands for:
a. Full-Shift Keying b. Frequency-Shift Keying c. Full-Signal Keying d. none of the above

8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use:

a. FSK b. AFSK c. PSK d. QAM

9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains:

a. a byte b. 4 bits c. a dibit d. a Q-bit

2. PSK stands for:

a. Pulse-Signal Keying b. Pulse-Shift Keying c. Phase-Signal Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying

10. To reduce the need for lin uses:

a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees d. double phase-shift angles

3. QAM stands for:

a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. none of the above

11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows:

a. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. separation of symbols in "symbol space" c. effects of noise on symbols d. all of the above

4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in:

a. amperes b. amperes per second c. bits d. bits per second

12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
a. amplitude and frequency b. amplitude and phase angle c. frequency and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits

5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the:

a. margin of noise b. modulation index c. number of possible states per symbol d. maximum number of symbols per second

13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK

6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:

a. the eye is maximally open b. the eye is maximally closed c. the eye is half open d. the eye alternately opens and closes

14. ITU is an abbreviation for:

a. International Telephony Unit b. International Telephony Union c. International Telecommunications Union d. International Telecommunications Units

7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of:

a. too many bits high b. too many bits low c. intermodulation distortion d. intersymbol interference

15. The ITU is under the auspices of:

a. CCITT b. the U.N. 38

c. IEEE d. ANSI A

24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be:

a. a DTR b. a DSR c. a DCE d. a DTE

16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:

a. noise and interference b. uneven phase and frequency response c. low SNR d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel

25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:

a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7

17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called:

a. Gaussian bits b. random bits c. a training sequence d. a random sequence

26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:

a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7

18. The V.90 standard is issued by:

a. the EIA b. the TIA c. the ITU d. the ISO

27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: 19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:
a. data-compression schemes b. error-correction protocols c. both a and b d. none of the above a. TD and RD b. TD, RD, and signal ground c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground

20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:

a. data-compression schemes b. error-correction protocols c. both a and b d. none of the above

28. Hardware flow control uses:

a. XON and XOFF b. TD and RD c. RTS and CTS d. DSR and DCD

21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:

a. RTS/CTS handshake b. XON/XOFF characters c. both a and b d. none of the above

29. Software flow control uses:

a. XON and XOFF b. TD and RD c. RTS and CTS d. DSR and DCD

22. The official name for RS-232C is:

a. RS-232C b. EIA-232D c. ISO-232C/D d. ANSI-232C

30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin:

a. +15 volts b. +12 volts c. +9 volts d. all of the above

23. In RS-232, a modem would be:

a. a DTR b. a DSR c. a DCE d. a DTE 39

31. DSL stands for:

a. Data Signal Line

b. Digital Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line d. Double-Speed Loop

7. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. ANS: dibit 8. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. ANS: four 9. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. ANS: Delta 10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a _________ diagram. ANS: constellation 11. ITU stands for International _________________ Union. ANS: Telecommunications 12. In QAM modems, ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. ANS: Trellis 13. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. ANS: Equalization 14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dialup line is about ____________ bps. ANS: 54k 15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is___________________ bps. ANS: 20k 16. In RS-232, the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ANS: CD/DCD/RLSD 17. Between hardware flow control and software flow control, ____________________ flow control is preferred. ANS: hardware 18. A voltage higher than ______ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. ANS: 3

32. ADSL stands for:

a. Asynchronous DSL b. Asymmetrical DSL c. Analog DSL d. All DSL

33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for:

a. Head Frequency Control b. Hybrid Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. Hybrid Fiber Control

34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:

a. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. Cable Modem Transmission System c. Cable Modem Terminal System d. Cable Modem Transmission Server

35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for:

a. Any DSL scheme b. ADSL c. ADSL Lite d. none of the above

COMPLETION
1. RTS means Request To __________. ANS: Send 2. The response to RTS is __________. ANS: CTS 3. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. ANS: Keying 4. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready. ANS: Data 5. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. ANS: Quadrature 6. The number of symbols per second is called the____________________ rate. ANS: baud 40

19. A _________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. ANS: null 20. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. ANS: Asymmetrical 21. A typical CATV system is organized as a __________ network. ANS: tree 22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. ANS: CMTS

3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. If half the modems are active at any given time, what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS:720 kbps 4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS:230 5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS:8

23. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. ANS: Ranging 24. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. ANS: ADSL 25. The __________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. ANS: lite 26. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. ANS: DMT 27. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ________________. ANS: Multiplexer

Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple- Access Techniques

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. TDMA stands for:
a. Time Domain Multiple Access b. Time-Division Multiple Access c. Tone Division Multiple Access d. none of the above

2. CDMA stands for:

a. Code-Division Multiple Access b. Carrier Division Multiple Access c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. none of the above

3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when:

a. all the signals come from the same source b. the signals come from different sources c. TDM is used in RF communications d. they mean the same thing

SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. ANS:4000 2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS:16 41

4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is:
a. the type of media used b. the length of the channel c. the bandwidth of each signal d. all of the above

5. A DS-1 signal contains:

a. 12 channels

b. 24 channels c. 32 channels d. 64 channels

a. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. frequency-hopping c. directsequence method d. all of the above

6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is:

a. 64 kbps b. 256 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps d. 1.544 Mbps

14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF systems, use:
a. about the same bandwidth b. much more bandwidth c. much less bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth

7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a:

a. timing bit b. T-bit c. signaling bit d. framing bit

15. "Processing gain" is another term for:

a. RF gain b. computer speed c. spreading gain d. improved signal-to-noise ratio

8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel:

a. every frame b. every other frame c. every sixth frame d. every twelfth frame

16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by:

a. the digital data bit rate b. bandwidth of original baseband c. the S/N ratio d. the chip size

9. Moving signals from one line to another is called:

a. time switching b. space switching c. line switching d. cross-point switching

17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spreadspectrum would be:

a. a narrowband receiver b. a wideband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver d. a CDMA receiver

10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called:

a. time switching b. space switching c. signal switching d. crosspoint switching

18. A receiver for direct-sequence spreadspectrum would be:

a. a narrowband receiver b. a wideband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver d. a "chip-rate" receiver

11. A digital space switch is a:

a. multiplexer b. TDM switch c. computerized Strowger switch d. crosspoint switch

19. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spreadspectrum b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spreadspectrum c. cannot be used on an RF channel d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously

12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:

a. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. frequency-hopping c. directsequence method d. all of the above

13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing:

42

20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of:

a. orthogonal PN sequences b. non-orthogonal PN sequences c. true-random PN sequences d. none of the above

12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. ANS: 8 13. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a___________________. ANS: superframe 14. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. ANS: space 15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called____________switching. ANS: time 16. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ________________ fading. ANS: Rayleigh 17. A PN sequence is a __________________-random noise sequence. ANS: pseudo 18. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________. ANS: hopping 19. It is ____________________ to jam a spread spectrum signal. ANS: difficult 20. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: difficult 21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called _______. ANS: chips 22. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. ANS: ten 23. The 'C' in CDMA stands for _________________. ANS: code 24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ______________. ANS: orthogonal 43

COMPLETION
1. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. ANS: share 2. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA, TDMA, and ____________________. ANS: CDMA 3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth ___________________ of the time. ANS: all 4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. ANS: part 5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals can transmit _________ of the time. ANS: all 6. DS-1 is an example of ____________________division multiplexing. ANS: time 7. The AM radio band is an example of ___________division multiplexing. ANS: frequency 8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of _________________ channels. ANS: 24 9. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. ANS: AMI

10. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. ANS: 193 11. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of __________ bits per second. ANS: 1.544 Meg

SHORT ANSWER
1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. So the more bandwidth available, the higher the possible bit rate. 2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS:9 3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. Because a spreadspectrum signal is, by definition, spread out over a very wide bandwidth, jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. 4. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission, the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. And without knowing the exact sequence being used, it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. 5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive directsequence spread-spectrum signals? ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one, as it is in spread-spectrum. 6. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission, the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. At some point in time, suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to 44

occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and so forth. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so forth. If the two sets of frequencies, (f11, f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, f23, ...), have no frequencies in common, then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal.

Chapter 14: Transmission Lines

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. SWR stands for:
a. Shorted Wave Radiation b. Sine Wave Response c. Shorted Wire Region d. none of the above

2. TDR stands for:

a. Total Distance of Reflection b. Time-Domain Reflectometer c. Time-Domain Response d. Transmission Delay Ratio

3. An example of an unbalanced line is:

a. a coaxial cable b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable c. an open-wire-line cable d. all of the above

4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be:
a. lumped b. distributed c. equal reactances d. ideal elements

5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire:

a. increases b. decreases c. stays the same d. changes periodically

6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called:

a. I2R loss b. the Ohmic effect c. the skin effect

d. there is no such effect

7. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric:

a. increases b. decreases c. stays the same d. there is no loss in a dielectric

b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all

14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit:

a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all

8. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:

a. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot

15. The optimum value for SWR is:

a. zero b. one c. as large as possible d. there is no optimum value

9. For best matching, the load on a cable should be:

a. lower than Z0 b. higher than Z0 c. equal to Z0 d. 50 ohms

16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:

a. standing waves b. loss of power to load c. higher voltage peaks on cable d. all of the above

10. The characteristic impedance of a cable:

a. increases with length b. increases with frequency c. increases with voltage d. none of the above

17. VSWR stands for:

a. variable SWR b. vacuum SWR c. voltage SWR d. none of the above

11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on:

a. the wire resistance b. the dielectric constant c. the inductance per foot d. all of the above

18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line:

a. is infinite b. is zero c. is the characteristic impedance d. 50 ohms

12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all

19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate:

a. transmission line impedances b. propagation velocity c. optimum length of a transmission line d. transmission line losses

20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50ohm cable carrying the same power:
a. would be less b. would be more c. would be the same d. cannot be compared 45

13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse

21. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable:

a. directly b. by using a filter c. by using a "balun" d. cannot be connected

4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively _____ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ___________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the _________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more_____________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ___________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called _______ impedance. ANS: surge 11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a shortcircuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ___________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is _____. ANS: one

22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:

a. assuming it to be zero

d. dividing it by Z0

23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents:
a. the voltage b. the current c. the impedance d. none of the above

24. The center of the Smith Chart always represents:

a. zero b. one c. the characteristic impedance d. none of the above

25. A TDR is commonly used to:

a. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. find the position of a defect in a cable c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above

COMPLETION
1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ______________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 46

16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ___________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ___________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ______________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ___________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ___________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0 23. The __________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency

ANS:386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS:0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS:12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90 phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS:0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS:200 volts 7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS:1.5 8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS:0.2 9. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS:96 watts 10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable, what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS:4 + j1

SHORT ANSWER
1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS:Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. 47