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WE shall be discussing
Interest Rate Parity Covered Interest Arbitrage Interest Rate Parity Parity Purchasing Power IRP and Exchange Rate Determination Purchasing Power Parity PPP Deviations and the from Real Exchange Rate Reasons for Deviations IRP The Fisher Effects Evidence on Purchasing Power Parity The Fisher Effects Purchasing Power Parity Forecasting Exchange Rates The Fisher Effects Forecasting Exchange Rates Efficient Market Effects Approach The Fisher Forecasting Exchange Rates Fundamental Approach Forecasting Exchange Rates Technical Approach
Since these investments have the same risk, they must have the same future value (otherwise an arbitrage would exist)
(1 + i)
F S
$/
$/
F S
$/
= (1 + i$)
$/
$1,000 S$/
IRP
Step 2: Invest those pounds at i Future Value =
$1,000 S$/ (1+ i)
$1,000
S$/
IRP
Since both of these investments have the same risk, they must have the same future valueotherwise an arbitrage would exist
$1,000 (1+ i) F$/ = $1,000(1 + i$) S$/ F$/ (1+ i) (1 + i$) = S$/
1+i F = 1+i S
$
$/
$/
Forward Premium
Its just the interest rate differential implied by forward premium or discount. For example, suppose the is appreciating from S($/) = 1.25 to F180($/) = 1.30 The forward premium is given by:
F180($/) S($/)
360 180 =
f180,v$
S($/)
1 + i F = 1 + i$ S
/$
or
/$
1+i F = 1+i S
$
$/
$/
IRP and Covered Interest Arbitrage A trader with $1,000 could invest in the U.S. at 7.1%, in
one year his investment will be worth $1,071 = $1,000 (1+ i$) = $1,000 (1,071) Alternatively, this trader could 1. Exchange $1,000 for 800 at the prevailing spot rate, 2. Invest 800 for one year at i = 11,56%; earn 892,48. 3. Translate 892,48 back into dollars at the forward rate F360($/) = $1,20/, the 892,48 will be exactly $1,071.
Alternative 2:
Arbitrage I
800 Step 2: Invest 800 at i = 11.56%
= $1.20/
According to IRP only one 360-day forward rate, F360($/), can exist. It must be the case that
If F360($/) $1.20/, an astute trader could make money with one of the following strategies:
Arbitrage Strategy I
If F360($/) > $1.20/ i. Borrow $1,000 at t = 0 at i$ = 7.1%. ii. Exchange $1,000 for 800 at the prevailing spot rate, (note that 800 = $1,000$1.25/) invest 800 at 11.56% (i) for one year to achieve 892.48 iii. Translate 892.48 back into dollars, if F360($/) > $1.20/, then 892.48 will be more than enough to repay your debt of $1,071.
Arbitrage I
800 1 $1.25 892.48 Step 3: Invest 800 at i = 11.56% In one year 800 will be worth 892.48 = 800 (1+ i)
Step 1: borrow $1,000 More F(360) $1,071 < 892.48 Step 5: Repay than $1,071 1 your dollar loan with $1,071. If F (360) > $1.20/ , 892.48 will be more than enough to
Arbitrage Strategy II
If F360($/) < $1.20/ i. Borrow 800 at t = 0 at i= 11.56% . ii. Exchange 800 for $1,000 at the prevailing spot rate, invest $1,000 at 7.1% for one year to achieve $1,071. iii. Translate $1,071 back into pounds, if F360($/) < $1.20/, then $1,071 will be more than enough to repay your debt of 892.48.
Arbitrage II
800
$1.25
1 Step 1: borrow 800
Step 5: Repay More Step 3: your pound than Invest loan with 892.48 $1,000 at i$ 892.48 . Step 4: repatriate to In one year the U.K. $1,000 will be $1,071 F(360) $1,071 > 892.48 worth 1
If F(360) < $1.20/ , $1,071 will be more than enough to repay your dollar obligation of 892.48. Keep the rest as
IRP implies that there are two ways that you fix the cash outflow to a certain U.S. dollar amount: a) Put yourself in a position that delivers 100M in one yeara long forward contract on the pound. You will pay (100M)(1.2/) = $120M in one year. b) Form a forward market hedge as shown below.
$1.00
$112.05 = 89.64 1.25
1+i
$/
The exchange rate between two currencies should equal the ratio of the countries price levels:
For example, if an ounce of gold costs $300 in the U.S. and 150 in the U.K., then the price of one pound in terms of dollars should be: P$ $300 S($/) = = = $2/ P 150
$1.23 1.00
1.03 1 + $ = = 1.05 1 +
Relative PPP states that the rate of change in the exchange rate is equal to differences in the rates of inflationroughly 2%
PPP
F($/) 1 + $ = S($/) 1 +
=
IRP
1 + i$ F($/) = 1 + i S($/)
F($/) 1 + $ = S($/) 1 +
i$ i
$ i$ i
Evidence on PPP
PPP probably doesnt hold precisely in the real world for a variety of reasons.
Haircuts cost 10 times as much in the developed world as in the developing world. Film, on the other hand, is a highly standardized commodity that is actively traded across borders. Shipping costs, as well as tariffs and quotas can lead to deviations from PPP.
IFE
FEP
(i$ i)
FS
S
FE
E($ )
FRPPP
E(1 + ) 1 + i = 1 + i$ E(1 + $)
E(1 + ) 1 + i = 1 + i$ E(1 + $)
F S
/$
/$
E(1 + ) = E(1 + $)
S /$
PPP
FEP
1 + i 1 + i$
IRP
F / $ S /$
FRPPP
FE E(1 + ) E(1 + $)
Fundamental Approach
Involves econometrics to develop models that use a variety of explanatory variables. This involves three steps:
step 1: Estimate the structural model. step 2: Estimate future parameter values. step 3: Use the model to develop forecasts.
The downside is that fundamental models do not work any better than the forward rate model or the random walk model.
Technical Approach
Technical analysis looks for patterns in the past behavior of exchange rates. Clearly it is based upon the premise that history repeats itself. Thus it is at odds with the EMH
Thank You